Lakshya JEE (2025)

MOCK TEST - 02

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 11/01/2025 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus 11th
Chemistry: Full Syllabus 11th
Mathematics: Full Syllabus 11th

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each Section in which first 20 questions
are Objective Type and last 5 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’ where answer
needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
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2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the
bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
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5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the
specified area may create problems during the evaluation.
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Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
 Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions frequency of the fundamental node increases to 320 Hz.
1. A load of 10 kN is supported from a pulley, which in The initial tension is
turn is supported by a rope of cross-sectional area 1 × (1) 30/4 N
103 mm2 and modulus of elasticity 103 N mm–2 as (2) 40/4 N
shown in the figure. Neglecting friction at the pulley, (3) 160/9 N
then downward deflection of the load (in mm) is (4) 200/9 N
(Length of rope = (500 + 1000) mm)
6. A block of mass m is at rest on another block of the
same mass as shown in the figure. Lower block is
attached to a spring, the maximum amplitude of motion
so that both the blocks will remain in contact is

(1) 3.75 (2) 4.25

(3) 2.75 (4) 4.00

2. In a thermodynamic process two moles of a monatomic

ideal gas obeys P  V 2 . If temperature of the gas (1) 1 m (2) 2 m
(3) 10 m (4) 20 m
increases from 250 K to 350 K, then find work done by
the gas (where R = universal gas constant).
(1) 200R (2) – 200R 7. A cylinder of mass M and radius R is resting on two
(3) – 100R (4) – 400R corner edges A and B as shown in figure. The normal
reaction at the edges A and B are: (Neglect friction)
3. A train moves from rest with acceleration α and in time
t1 covers a distance x. It then decelerates to rest at
constant retardation β for distance y in time t2. Then
x   t2 y
(1)  (2) 
y   t1 x
x t1
(3) x = y (4) 
y t2

4. A block of mass 2 kg slides down the face of a smooth

(1) N A  2NB (2) N A  3N B
45° wedge of mass 9 kg as shown in figure. The wedge Mg 2 3Mg
(3) NA  (4) NB 
is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. Determine 2 5
the acceleration of the wedge.
8. Two uniform rods of equal length but different masses
are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped body, which is
then pivoted about O as shown in the figure. If in
equilibrium the body is in the shown configuration,
ratio of m/M will be:

11
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) m/s2
2
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) None of these

(1) 2 (2) 3
5. A wire of length one metre under a certain initial
tension emits a sound of fundamental frequency 256 (3) 2 (4) 3
Hz. When the tension is increased by 1 kg wt, the

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9. Two points A & B on a disc have velocities v1 and v2 at
some moment. Their directions make angles 60° and (1) 2 tan–1 (2) (2) tan–1 2
30° respectively with the line of separation as shown in
1
figure. The angular velocity of disc is: (3) tan–1 1 (4) tan 1  
2

13. When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are sounded
together, 4 beats per second are heard. Now some tape
is attached on the prong of the fork 2. When the tuning
forks are sounded again, 6 beats per second are heard. If
the frequency of fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the
original frequency of fork 2?
3v1 v2
(1) (2) (1) 204 Hz
d 3d (2) 196 Hz
v2  v1 v2 (3) 202 Hz
(3) (4)
d d (4) 200 Hz

10. A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor. A 10 kg block 14. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the
rests on the slab. The coefficient of static friction percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and
between the block and the slab is 0.6 while the kinetic that in F is 4%, the permissible error in pressure is
coefficient is 0.4. The 10 kg block is acted upon by a
(1) 2% (2) 4%
horizontal force of 100N. If g = 9.8 m/s2, the resulting
acceleration of the slab will be. (3) 6% (4) 8%
(1) 0.98 m/s2 (2) 1.47 m/s2
2
(3) 1.52 m/s (4) 1.96 m/s2 15. The height of water in a vessel is h. The vessel wall of
width b is at an angle θ to the vertical. The net force
11. Uniform rod AB is hinged at the end A in a horizontal exerted by the water on the wall is
position as shown in the figure (the hinge is frictionless,
that is, it does not exert any friction force on the rod).
The other end of the rod is connected to a block through
a massless string as shown. The pulley is smooth and
massless. Masses of the block and the rod are same and
are equal to 'm'. Acceleration due to gravity is g. The
tension in the thread, and angular acceleration of the rod
just after release of block from this position;
1 1 2
(1) bh 2 gcos (2) bh pg
3 2
1
(3) bh 2 gsec (4) Zero
2

16. A thin uniform circular tube is kept in a vertical plane.

Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids whose
densities are ρ1 and ρ2 fill half of the tube as shown. In
equilibrium the radius passing through the interface
3mg g 5mg 3 g
(1) , (2) , makes an angle of 30° with vertical. The ratio of
8 8 8 8 densities (ρ1/ρ2) is equal to
mg 5 g 7 mg 7 g
(3) , (4) ,
8 8 8 8

12. A block of mass m is placed inside a smooth hollow

cylinder of radius R whose axis is kept horizontally.
Initially system was at rest. Now cylinder is given
constant acceleration 2g in the horizontal direction by
external agent. The maximum angular displacement of
the block with the vertical is:
3 1 3 1
(1) (2)
2 3 2 3
3 1 3 1
(3) (4)
3 1 3 1

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17. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of 2
and all surface of groove in contact is   . The disc
radii r1 and r2 and kept at temperature T1 and T2, 5
respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in a has an acceleration of 25 m/s2. Find the acceleration of
substance between the two concentric spheres is the block with respect to disc (in m/s2). (Take g = 10
proportional to: m/s2)

 r2  r1   r2 
(1) (2) ln
 r1r2   r1 
22. A particle is projected from A on plane AB, so that AB
r1r2
(3) (4)  r2  r1  2u 2 tan
 r2  r1  = in the figure as shown. If u is the velocity
g 3
of projection, the value of angle θ in degrees is
18. A stone is dropped from a height h. Simultaneously,
________.
another stone is thrown up from the ground which
reaches a height 4h. The two stones cross each other
after time.
h h
(1) (2)
2g 8g
(3) 8hg (4) 2hg
23. A uniform sphere of mass 'm' is given some angular
velocity about a horizontal axis through its centre and
19. If pressure P, velocity V and time T are taken as
gently placed on a plank of mass 'm'. The co-efficient of
fundamental physical quantities, the dimensional
friction between the two is μ, if the plank rests on a
formula of force is
smooth horizontal surface. The initial acceleration of
(1) PV2T2 (2) P–1V2T–2
the centre of sphere relative to the plank is Nμg, then
(3) PVT2 (4) P–1VT2
find the value of N.

20. As shown in figure, a horizontal platform with a mass m

placed on it is executing SHM along
y-axis. If the amplitude of oscillation is 2.5 cm, the
minimum period of the motion for the mass not to be
detached from the platform is:
(g = 10 m/sec2)
24. The rectangular surface of area 8 cm × 4 cm of a black
body at a temperature of 127°C emits energy at the rate
of E per second. If the length and breadth of the surface
are each reduced to half of the initial value and the
temperature is raised to 327°C, the rate of emission of
10  energy will become ______ times E/64.
(1) s (2) s
 10
 1 25. A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string
(3) s (4) s
10 10  10 
of length L    m is whirling in a circular path of
 3
Integer Type Questions
radius L in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum
21. A circular disc with a groove along its diameter is
to the minimum tension in the string is 4 and g = 10
placed horizontally. A block of mass 1 kg is placed as
m/s2, the speed of the stone at the highest point of the
shown. The coefficient of friction between the block
circle (in m/s) is
[4]
 Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 33. Consider the reaction equilibrium
26. IO3  aI  bH  cH2O  dI2
2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 2SO3 (g); H  198kJ
a, b c and d respectively corresponds to:
(1) 5, 6, 3, 3 (2) 5, 2, 6, 3 On the basis of Le Chatelier’s principle, the
(3) 3, 5, 3, 6 (4) 5, 6, 5, 5 condition favourable for the forward reaction is
(1) increasing temperature as well as pressure
27. The correct pair regarding property given in (2) lowering the temperature and increasing the
bracket is: pressure
(1) F2 > Cl2 (Oxidising character) (3) any value of temperature and pressure
(2) F > Cl (Electron affinity) (4) lowering of temperature as well as pressure
(3) F < Cl (Electronegativity)
(4) O > N (Ionisation energy)
34. For the process H2O(l) (1 bar, 373 K) → H2O(g)
(1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of thermodynamic
28. Arrange the following in decreasing order of
their boiling points. parameters is
a. n -butane (1) ΔG = 0, ΔS = +ve
b. 2-methylbutane (2) ΔG = 0, ΔS = –ve
c. n -pentane (3) ΔG = +ve, ΔS = 0
d. 2, 2-dimethylpropane (4) ΔG = –ve, ΔS = +ve
(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > c > d > a
(3) d > c > b > a (4) c > b > d > a

29. The order of decreasing ionisation enthalpy in 35.

alkali metals is
(1) Na > Li > K > Rb
(2) Rb < Na < K < Li Product A and B respectively are:
(3) Li > Na > K > Rb (1) Trans-2-butene and cis-2-butene
(4) K < Li < Na < Rb (2) Cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene
(3) Both cis-2-butene
30. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the (4) Both trans-2-butene
valence electron of rubidium atom (at. no. = 37)
is 36. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
1 1 is not possible for an electron?
(1) 5, 1, 1,  (2) 6, 0, 0, 
2 2 (1) n = 1, l = 0, m1 = 0, ms = –1/2
1 1 (2) n = 2, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = –1/2
(3) 5, 0, 0,  (4) 5, 1, 0, 
2 2 (3) n = 1, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = +1/2
(4) n = 2, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = +1/2
31. Which one of the following pairs of species have
the same bond order?
37. Among the following compounds, the decreasing
(1) CO, NO
order of reactivity towards electrophilic
(2) O2, NO+
(3) CN–, CO substitution is:

(4) N2, O 2

32. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid

solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M
HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO3.
(1) III > I > II > IV
(1) 45.0 g Conc. HNO3
(2) IV > I > II > III
(2) 90.0 g Conc. HNO3
(3) 70.0 g Conc. HNO3 (3) I > II > III > IV
(4) 54.0 g Conc. HNO3 (4) II > I > III > IV

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38. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and 43. Which one of the following compounds is
Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of inactive towards SN1 reaction?
1 : 1 : 0.5 and Hf for the formation of XY is
–200 kJ mol–1. (1)
(2)
The bond energy of X2 will be
(1) 400 kJ mol–1
(2) 300 kJ mol–1
(3) 200 kJ mol–1 (3) (4)
(4) 800 kJ mol–1

39. The first and second ionisation enthalpies 44. Which of the following hydrocarbon is most
(in kJ mol–1) of a few elements are given below acidic?
Element IE1 IE2
I. 2372 5251 (1) (2)
II. 520 7300
III. 900 1760
IV. 1680 3380 (3) (4)
Which of the above elements is likely to be a
metal that forms a stable binary halide of the
formula AX2? 45. The IUPAC name for
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV

40. In the Dumas method for the estimation of

nitrogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave
40 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K and (1) 1-Chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene
725 mm Hg. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is (2) 1-Chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
25 mm Hg. The percentage of nitrogen in the (3) 2-Chloro-1-nitro-5-methylbenzene
compound is: (4) m-nitro-p-chlorotoluene
(1) 17.26%
(2) 18.20 % Integer Type Questions
(3) 16.76% 46. How many of the following molecules will have
(4) 15.76% degree of unsaturation equal to three or greater
than three?
41. Which of the following is a wrong order with
respect to the property mentioned against each
option?
(1) NO  NO  NO : bond length

(2) H2  H2  He2 : bond energy

(3) O22  O2  O22 : paramagnetic moment

(4) NO 2  NO 2  NO 2 : bond angle

42. Which of the following reactions of methane is

incomeplete combustion?
Cu/523K/100atm
(1) 2CH4  O2   2CH3OH 47. The wavelength of the spectral line, when the
Mo O electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes a
(2) CH4  O2 
2 3
 HCHO  H2O transition from the energy level 4 to energy level
(3) CH4  O2 
C(s)  2H2O(l ) 2 is ________ nm. (Nearest Integer)
(RH = 109678 cm–1)
(4) CH4  2O2 
CO2 (g)  2H2O(l )

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48. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is 49. Among the triatomic molecules/ions, BeCl2,
subjected to changes as shown in the graph. The N3 , N2O, NO 2, O3, SCl 2, I 3 and XeF2, the total
magnitude of the work done (by the system or on
number of linear molecule(s)/ions(s) where the
the system) is __________ J (nearest integer).
hybridization of the central atom does not have
Given: log 2 = 0.3, ln 10 = 2.3
contribution from the d-orbital(s) is:
[Atomic number: S = 16, Cl = 17, I = 53 and
Xe = 54]

50. Among the following, the number of aromatic

compound(s) is(are):

Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 56. How many ways are there to arrange the letters in the
51. All words, with or without meaning, are made using all word GARDEN with the vowels in alphabetical order?
the letters of the word MONDAY. These words are (1) 120 (2) 480
written as in a dictionary with serial numbers. The serial (3) 360 (4) 240
number of the word MONDAY is
(1) 327 (2) 326 57. If total number of runs scored in first n matches by a
(3) 328 (4) 324 cricketer is 2n+1 – 2 – n(∀ n ∈ N), then in which match
the player scored his first century-
52. If a, b, c ∈ R+ such that a + b + c = 18, then the (1) 6th match
maximum value of a2b3c4 is equal to (2) 7th match
(1) 21933 (2) 21833 (3) 8th match
18 2
(3) 2 3 (4) 21932 (4) 9th match

53. Let a1 , a2 , a3 , be an increasing G.P. of positive 58. Which one of the following set is not a null set?
th th
numbers. Let the sum of its 6 and 8 terms be 2 and the (1) A = {{}}
(2) B = {x: x is an integral root of the equation
1
product of its 3rd and 5th terms be . Then 6x2 – 5x + 1 = 0}
9
(3) C = {x: x is a real number such that x2 – 3x +
6  a2  a4   a4  a6  is equal to 2 = 0 and x < 1}
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 (4) D = {x: x ∈ Z and 1 < x < 2}

(3) 3 3 (4) 3
59. If α and β be two real roots of the

54. Sum of all possible values of ‘x’ which satisfy the

equation  k  1 tan 2
x  2   tan x  1  k 
equation log3  x  3  log9  x  1 is and tan 2       50 , then a value of λ is
(1) 2 (2) 5 (where k   1 and λ are real numbers)
(3) 7 (4) 10
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 5 2 (4) 10 2
55. The mean and variance of the marks obtained by the
students in a test are 10 and 4 respectively. Later, the
marks of one of the students is increased from 8 to 12. If 60. If the ratio of sum of n terms of two A.P.’s be 5n + 3 :
the new mean of the marks is 10.2, then their new 7n + 1, then the ratio of their 7th term is
variance is equal to (1) 53 : 12
(1) 4.04 (2) 4.08 (2) 17 : 23
(3) 3.96 (4) 3.92 (3) 19 : 18
(4) 13 : 19

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 42022  12   12 
61. Fractional part of the number is equal to (1) 0,   (2) 0, 
15  35   35 
4 1  35   35 
(1) (2) (3) 0,  (4) 0,  
15 15  12   12 
14 8
(3) (4)
15 15 68. If y = c is a tangent to the
circle x  y  2x  2 y  2  0 at (1, 1), then the
2 2

62. If the equation of a conic is 3x  4 y  6 x  21  0 ,

2 2
value of c is
then the incorrect statement about this conic is (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) –1 (4) –2
7
(1) eccentricity of the conic is
2 69. Sum of series (25C13 + 25C14 + ⋯ + 25C25) is equal to
(2) length of latus rectum is 3 2 (1) 225 (2) 224
24 24
(3) length of conjugate axis is 2 6 (3) 2 ⋅ C11 (4) 25C12

(4) distance between focii is 2 7 70. If the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse

n
x 2  4 y 2  2 x  8 y    0 is 4, and l is the length of
 1  its major axis, then λ + l is equal to
63. If the last term in the expansion of  2
1/3
  is
 2 (1) 50 (2) 25
log3 8
(3) 75 (4) 100
 1 
 5/3  , then the 5th term from the beginning is
3  Integer Type Questions
(1) 210 (2) 105 71. The value of
(3) 420 (4) 205 1  3tan1 1  3tan2  tan1  tan59  tan2  tan58  is

x 2  7 x  10
1  tan 21 1  tan 2 2 
64. The domain of function f  x   is
x2  5x  6 72. The sum of infinite terms of series
(1)  ,3  5,   32
5 7 2 2
12     .... is equal to
(2)  ,3   5,   2 22 23
(3)  ,3  5,    2
73. The number of integral terms in the expansion of (51/2 +
(4)  ,3   5,    2 71/8)1024 is

65. If α, β and γ are the roots of equation 5x3  2 x  1  0 , 74. The common tangents to y 2  8 x and the curve
 2  3 2  3  2  3 3x2  y 2  3 meet y 2  8 x at P and Q. The length of
then the value of   is
   PQ is
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 12 75. If   1 is the seventh root of unity then the value
of
66. If sum of ten numbers a, ar, ar2, … ar9 is 18 and sum of  5 13 
 log 7 1             
2 3 4
their reciprocal is 6 then product of these ten numbers, is
(1) 324 (2) 343  
(3) 243 (4) 724 is (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

67. The focal chord to y 2  64 x is tangent to

 x  4 2
  y  2   4 , then the possible values of the
2

slope of this chord is-

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