Computer Science Class-11

Chapter
01 Computer Systems
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The computer system primarily consists of:
a. Hardware b. Software
c. Peripheral devices d. Hardware and software
2. Which component of CPU performs arithmetic and logical operations?
a. Memory unit b. Control unit
c. Arithmetic and Logic unit d. Output unit
3. Which component of a computer system presents the processed results to the
user?
a. input devices b. output devices
c. CPU d. Memory
4. Which component of a computer system receives data from the user?
a. Input devices b. Output devices
c. CPU d. Memory
5. The main function of CPU in a computer system is to:
a. Store data permanently b. Perform calculations
c. Display output d. Access Internet
6. How many states does an electronic switch have?
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four
7. The binary system uses two digits _____ to represent information.
a. 1 and 2 b. 0 and 2
c. 0 and 1 d. 1 and 10

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8. The binary digits 0 and 1 in a computer represent:

a. Two states of a disk b. Two states of a switch
c. Two levels of voltage d. Two values of register
9. A binary digit, 0 and 1 is referred to as a:
a. Byte b. Megabyte
c. Kilobyte d. Bit
10. Which of the following is an example of binary code representing data?
a. 100100 b. 9876
c. ABCD d. 123
11. BIT stands for:
a. Binary digit b. Byte digit
c. Base digit d. Bi digit
12. How many bits are in one byte?
a. 1 b. 2
c. 4 d. 8
13. ASCII stands for:
a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
b. American Standard Communication Interface
c. Automatic Standard Code for International Information
d. Advanced System for Code Interchange
14. How many characters ASCII 7-bit code can represent?
a. 64 b. 128
c. 512 d. 1024
15. Circuits that process binary signal are called:
a. Analog circuits b. Digital logic circuits
c. Power supply circuits d. Control circuits

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16. An ______ is a continuous electrical signal that can vary over a range of values:
a. Digital signals b. Analog signals
c. Binary signals d. Discrete signal
17. What type of waveform represents analog signals?
a. Discrete waveform b. Digital waveform
c. Continuous waveform d. Square waveform
18. _____ represent information using a series of discrete values, typically 0 and 1.
a. Analog signals b. Digital signals
c. Continuous values d. Variable states
19. ______ are the building blocks of digital circuits.
a. Logic gates b. Microprocessors
c. Transformers d. Diodes
20. How many basic logic gates are there in digital circuit?
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
21. Which of the following is NOT a basic logic gate?
a. AND gate b. OR gate
c. NOT gate d. IF gate
22. What is the number of possible input combinations for a 2-input AND gate?
a. 2 b. 4
c. 8 d. 16
23. What is the number of possible input combinations for a 3-input AND gate?
a. 2 b. 4
c. 8 d. 16
24. The gate produces LOW output when at least one input is HIGH:
a. AND b. NAND
c. OR d. NOR

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25. The gate that reverses the input is called:

a. OR b. AND
c. XOR d. NOT
26. The gate produces HIGH output when at least one input is LOW
a. XOR b. NAND
c. NOR d. OR
27. The gate produces HIGH output when either one of the inputs is HIGH.
a. NAND b. AND
c. OR d. XOR
28. The NOT gate is also known as:
a. Inventor b. Doubler
c. Analyzer d. Repeater
29. When the input to an Inventor is HIGH (1), the output is:
a. HIGH or 1 b. LOW or 1
c. LOW or 0 d. HIGH or 0
30. Which Boolean expression best represents the operation of an inventor with
input A and output X?
a. X = A b. X = 0
c. X = d. AX = XA
31. The maximum number of inputs for an inventor is:
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
32. The gate produces HIGH output if and only if all its inputs are HIGH.
a. AND b. OR
c. XOR d. NAND
33. In Boolean algebra, there are ______ possible variable values.
a. 1 b. 2
c. 4 d. 8

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34. Boolean values can be:

a. True b. False
c. True or false d. 1 or 2
35. The Boolean expression X = ABC represents:
a. 3-input AND gate b. 3-input OR gate
c. 4-input AND gate d. 4-input OR gate
36. In the Boolean expression X = AB, the term AB is generally read as:
a. Multiplied A by B b. A AND B
c. A OR B d. Logic 0 or 1
37. In the Boolean expression x = A + B, the term A+B is generally read as:
a. A AND B b. A OR B
c. A added to B d. A plus B
38. The Boolean expression for an OR gate is:
a. X = AB b. X = AB
c. X = A + B d. X = A + B
39. The Boolean expression for an AND gate is:
a. X = AB b. X = AB
c. X = A + B d. X = A + B
40. The gate produces LOW output if an only if all its inputs are HIGH.
a. NANG b. XNOR
c. NOR d. AND
41. The Boolean expression for NAND gate is:
a. X = AB b. X =
c. X = A + B d. X = A + B
42. The output of a gate is HIGH if and only if all its inputs are LOW.
a. NOR b. XOR
c. XNOR d. NAND

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43. The Boolean expression for an NOR gate is:

a. X = AB b. X = AB
c. X = + d. X = A + B
44. The output of which 2-input gate is 1 if and only if its inputs are different?
a. OR b. XOR
c. XNOR d. NOR
45. The Boolean expression for an XOR gate is:
a. X = AB + AB b. X = AB +AB
c. X = A + B d. X = B +A
46. The output of which 2-input gate is 0 if and only if its inputs are same?
a. AND b. XOR
c. OR d. NOR
47. NOR gate operates as an OR gate followed by:
a. AND gate b. NAND gate
c. Inverter d. OR gate
48. _____ shows all possible input values and corresponding output values of a
logic circuit.
a. Truth table b. Flowchart
c. Circuit diagram d. Algorithm
49. What do the symbols ‘T’ and ‘F’ represent in a truth table?
a. True and False b. True all and First
c. Table and Formula d. Tricky and False
50. In truth tables, a LOW output for a logic gate is represented by:
a. 0 b. 1
c. X d. Y
51. In truth tables, a HIGH output for a logic gate is represented by:
a. 0 b. 1
c. X d. Y

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52. Which column in a truth table represents the output of a logic circuit for
different input combinations?
a. Leftmost column b. Middle column
c. Rightmost column d. All columns
53. In a truth table, what does the column on the lift typically represent?
a. Output of the gate b. Names of the logic gates
c. Inputs to the gate d. Description of the operation
54. How many possible input combinations are there for the three inputs in the
truth table?
a. 4 b. 8
c. 16 d. 64
55. The purpose of Boolean Identities in Boolean algebra is to:
a. Generate random values b. Simply Boolean expressions
c. Describe analog signals d. Create new Boolean variables
56. Boolean Identities involve operations on:
a. Decimal numbers b. Real numbers
c. Binary values (0 and 1) d. Letters of the alphabet
57. Which Boolean Identity states that A.(B+C) = AB+AC)?
a. Involution Law b. Distributive Law
c. Complement Law d. Idempotent Law
58. Which Boolean Identity ensures that A+0=A?
a. Identity Law b. Complement Law
c. Distributive Law d. Idempotent Law
59. Which Boolean Identity guarantees that A+AB=A?
a. Absorption Law b. Complement Law
c. Distributive Law d. Involution Law

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60. (A.B).C = A.(B.C) is a representation of the:

a. Associative law b. Conductive law
c. Commutative law d. Distributive law
61. The expression A.(B+C) is equal to:
a. A + (B.C) b. (A.B) + (A.C)
c. A + (B+C) d. A.(B.C)
62. A.(B+C) = (A.B) + (A.C) is a representation of the:
a. Associative law b. Conductive law
c. Commutative law d. Distributive law
63. Who introduced the Karnaugh Map (K-Map) in 1953?
a. George Boole b. Alan Turing
c. Maurice Karnaugh d. Calude Shannon
64. Which of the following provides a simple method to minimize Boolean
function?
a. K-map b. B-map
c. C-map d. D-map
65. In a Karnaugh Map (K-Map), each cell represents a:
a. Specific Boolean equation b. Unique logic gate
c. Specific input combination d. Specific output value
66. How many cells does a two-variable Karnaugh Map (K-Map) contain?
a. 2 b. 4
c. 6 d. 8
67. How many cells does a three-variable Karnaugh Map (K-Map) contain?
a. 2 a. 2
c. 6 c. 6
68. ____ is a digital electronic circuit that stores a single bit of binary information?
a. Capacitor b. Transistor
c. Flip-flop d. Resistor

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69. Flip-flops are widely used in which of the following to store binary
information?
a. Sequential circuits b. Combinational circuits
c. Analog circuits d. Oscillatory circuits
70. In digital signal processing (DSP) circuits, logic gates are used for which of the
following purposes?
a. Clock Synchronization
b. Filtering, modulation and demodulation
c. Engine Control d. Home Automation
71. In automotive electronics, a logic gates are used for which of the following
purposes?
a. Airbag Deployment and ABS b. Filtering and Modulation
c. Encoding and Decoding Data d. Home Automation
72. When was the term “life cycle” first used in IT to describe the stages in
developing a new computer system?
a. 1930s b. 1950s
c. 1970s d. 1990s
73. SDLC stands for:
a. Software Data Link Control b. System Design Life Cycle
c. Software Development Life Cycle d. Secure Data Life Cycle
74. Which activity is NOT part of the SDLC?
a. Planning software b. Writing software
c. Modifying software d. Hardware repair
75. Which of the following is not a type of feasibility study?
a. Economic b. Marketing
c. Financial d. Technical

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76. Which type of feasibility study evaluates whether the proposed system can be
developed with available technology?
a. Technical feasibility b. Economic feasibility
c. Legal feasibility d. Operational feasibility
77. Which type of feasibility study assesses whether the proposed system is
financially viable and beneficial?
a. Technical Feasibility b. Economic Feasibility
c. Legal Feasibility d. Operational Feasibility
78. Which type of feasibility study involves assessing whether the system can be
completed within a specified timeframe?
a. Economic feasibility b. Legal feasibility
c. Schedule feasibility d. Operational feasibility
79. Schedule feasibility is concerned with:
a. Financial costs and benefits b. Legal compliance
c. Project timeline d. Technological resources
80. Which type of feasibility study ensures that the proposed system complies
with all relevant laws and regulations?
a. Technical feasibility b. Economic feasibility
c. Legal feasibility d. Operational feasibility
81. ____ is the process of studying the current system and proposing an
alternative replacement system.
a. Project initiation and planning b. Analysis
c. Logical d. Physical design
82. In _____ phase, the project team determines the end-user requirements.
a. Analysis b. Design
c. Coding d. Implementation
83. What comes the design phase in SDLC?
a. Implementation b. Analysis
c. Coding d. Support

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84. An _____ is a specific step by step procedure for carrying out the solution of a
problem.
a. Data Structure b. Abstraction
c. Algorithm d. Structure chart
85. An algorithm must terminate after _____ number of steps.
a. infinite b. five
c. two d. finite
86. The graphical representation of steps to solve a problem is known as:
a. Flowchart b. Pseudocode
c. Decision table d. Data flow diagram
87. Flowchart is a ______ representation of steps to solve a problem.
a. Graphical b. Historical
c. Numerical d. Textual
88. The symbol used at the beginning and end of a flowchart is:
a. Oval b. Rectangle
c. Diamond d. Parallelogram
89. The symbol in a flowchart that indicates input / output is:
a. Parallelogram b. Rectangle
c. Diamond d. Oval
90. ______ symbols are used to connect one symbol of flowchart to another.
a. Rectangle b. Flow lines
c. Diamond d. Oval
91. Symbol is used in flowchart for:
a. Beginning b. Ending
c. Finishing d. Beginning and Ending
92. The decision symbol in a flowchart indicates:
a. Progress b. Condition
c. Output d. Input

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93. The rectangle symbol in flow chart indicates:

a. Process b. Condition
c. Input d. Output
94. The symbol in flow chart indicates:
a. Process b. Input / Output
c. Start d. End
95. In _____ phase, developers start to build the entire system by writing code
using the selected programming language.
a. Coding b. Testing
c. Implementation d. Design
96. _______ is the process of writing the instruction that a computer will follow to
perform the task.
a. Project Design b. Installation
c. System Analysis d. Programming
97. Coding is also called:
a. Evaluating b. Programming
c. Installing d. Testing
98. Translating the algorithm into a programming language occurs in _____ phase
of SDLC.
a. Debugging b. Coding
c. Testing and Documentation d. Algorithm Development
99. The process of removing errors from the system is called:
a. Patching b. Coding
c. Debugging d. Fixing
100. Which type of testing focuses on the external functionality of an application
from a user’s perspective?
a. White box Testing b. Black Box Testing
c. Integration Testing d. Unit Testing

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101. Which of the following is NOT typically evaluated in Black Box Testing
a. System outputs based on inputs b. User requirements
c. Internal code structure d. Functional requirements
102. Which type of testing focuses on testing internal structures or workings of an
application?
a. Black Box Testing b. Integration Testing
c. White Box Testing d. Regression Testing
103. The _____ phase occurs when the testing phase is completed and the new
system is ready to replace the old one.
a. Development b. Design
c. Implementation d. Maintenance
104. The process of training personnel to use the new systems is done during:
a. Systems analysis b. Systems design
c. System development d. System implementation
105. The type of conversion in which some users migrate to new system while others
continue to use old one until the new system starts working correctly is called:
a. Direct conversion b. Pilot conversion
c. Phased conversion d. Parallel conversion
106. The type of conversion in which individual components of the new system are
used one by one is called:
a. Direct conversion b. Pilot conversion
c. Phased conversion d. Parallel conversion
107. The type of conversion in which both new and old systems operate together
for a period of time is called:
a. Direct conversion b. Pilot conversion
c. Phased conversion d. Parallel conversion

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108. In which type of system conversion, the old system is directly replaced by new
system?
a. Parallel b. Direct
c. Phased d. Pilot
109. What is the final phase in the software development life cycle?
a. Design b. Prototype
c. Implementation d. Maintenance
110. The _____ phase involves monitoring, evaluating, repairing and improving the
system throughout the lifetime of the system.
a. Development b. Investigation
c. Maintenance d. Analysis
111. Software development models define:
a. Programming languages used in development
b. Structured framework for software projects
c. Hardware requirements for the software
d. The specific features of the software
112. The waterfall model follows a:
a. Linear or sequential approach b. Flexible and iterative approach
c. User-centered design approach d. Rapid prototyping approach
113. Which model is well-suited for projects with well-defined requirements that
are unlikely to change?
a. Agile b. Waterfall
c. Prototyping d. Spiral
114. Which model is a good choice for projects with constantly evolving
requirements?
a. Waterfall Model b. Agile Model
c. Prototyping Model d. Spiral Model

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115. Which model is known for its iterative and incremental approach to software
development?
a. Agile Model b. RAD Model
c. Spiral Model d. Waterfall Model
116. _______ is a systematic arrangement of computers and other devices in a
network?
a. Network protocol b. Network topology
c. Network address d. Network security
117. Which of the following is not a network topology?
a. Bus b. Band
c. Star d. Ring
118. Which topology is most expensive to implement?
a. Star b. Ring
c. Bus d. Mesh
119. In a network topology, what are the individual devices called?
a. Routers b. Connections
c. Nodes d. Segments
120. A network topology defines how devices are connected to:
a. Share data and resources b. Watch movies
c. Access the internet d. Browse the web
121. The rules for communication between network devices are called:
a. Firewalls b. Protocols
c. Packets d. Domains
122. Which type of network topology uses a single main cable to connect all devices?
a. Star topology b. Bus topology
c. Mesh topology d. Ring topology

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123. The entire network goes down in ______ topology if the backbone cable falls.
a. Bus b. Star
c. Mesh d. Ring
124. CSMA / CD stands for:
a. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Carrier Detection
b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection
c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Direction
d. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Communication Detection
125. A protocol used in Ethernet networks to manage access to the shared
communication medium by devices is:
a. TCP b. CSMA / CD
c. HTTP d. UDP
126. In which type of network is CSMA / CD most commonly used?
a. Wireless networks b. Ethernet networks
c. Fiber optic networks d. Satellite networks
127. Which topology has a central device to which all other devices connect?
a. Bus topology b. Mesh topology
c. Star topology d. Ring topology
128. In which topology a hub or switch is used?
a. Star topology b. Ring topology
c. Bus topology d. Mesh topology
129. Which of the following is an advantage of star topology?
a. it uses the least amount of cable b. It is easy to add new devices
c. It requires no central device d. It is the least expensive
130. A hybrid topology may include:
a. Bus b. Star
c. Ring d. All of above

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131. A network that combines different types of topologies is called:

a. Linear topology b. Hybrid topology
c. Distributed topology d. Clustered topology
132. In a ring topology, devices are connected in a:
a. Star-shaped layout b. Linear chain
c. Circular loop d. Mesh network
133. Which communication protocol is commonly used in ring networks?
a. Ethernet b. Token Ring
c. CSMA / CD d. UDP
134. The message on ______ network can take any of several possible paths from
source to destination.
a. Bus b. Star
c. Mesh d. Band
135. ______ refers to an infrastructure that provides different computing services
over internet.
a. Cloud Computing b. Artificial Intelligence
c. Desktop computing d. Physical Computing
136. All of the following are cloud Computing Services except:
a. Amazon Web Services (AWS) b. Microsoft Azure
c. Google Cloud Platform (GCP) d. Google Chrome
137. Which of these is NOT a cloud service model?
a. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) b. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c. Software as a Service (SaaS) d. Hardware as a Service (Haas)
138. SaaS stands for:
a. Software as a Service b. Storage as a Service
c. Security as a Service d. Server as a Service

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139. _______ involves the delivery of application over the internet.

a. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) b. Programming-as-a-Service (PaaS)
c. Business-as-a-Service (BaaS) d. Information-as-a-Service (IaaS)
140. _____ provides a programming environment to develop, test and deploy
custom web application.
a. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) b. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
c. Business-as-a-Service (BaaS) d. Information-as-a-Service (IaaS)
141. Which of the following is another term for cybersecurity?
a. Electronic Information Security b. Information Technology Security
c. Hardware Engineering d. Both a and b
142. Cybersecurity aims to protect systems and data from:
a. Software updates b. Malicious attacks
c. Routine maintenance d. Legal compliance
143. ________ is the practice of protecting computer systems, networks and ata
from unauthorized access.
a. User training b. Cybersecurity
c. Software development d. Network expansion
144. Which of the following is NOT a common target for cyberattacks?
a. Personal computers b. Mobile devices
c. Servers d. Printers
145. Who uses cybersecurity practices?
a. Only large enterprises b. Only government agencies
c. Individuals and enterprises d. Only IT professionals
146. Which of the following is NOT typically protected by cybersecurity measures?
a. Data centers b. Electronic systems
c. Personal computers d. Physical documents

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147. Cybersecurity threats aim to:

a. Improve computer speed b. Gain unauthorized access
c. Automate user tasks d. Clean the system
148. Who typically performs cybersecurity threats?
a. IT support teams
b. Individuals or groups with destructive intent
c. Software developers d. Network administrators
149. Which of the following actions is NOT an example of a cybersecurity threat?
a. Unauthorized access to computers b. Stealing sensitive data
c. Damaging or disrupting IT systems
d. Performing regular system updates
150. Malicious software is known as:
a. Illegalware b. Badware
c. Malware d. Malicousware
151. Malware is software designed with the intent to:
a. Improve computer speed b. Harm or explicit computer systems
c. Organize digital files d. Secure online transactions
152. Which of the following is NOT a type of malicious software?
a. Virus b. Trojan horse
c. Spyware d. Text editor
153. A computer virus is a:
a. Disease b. Program
c. Type of bacteria d. Hardware device
154. Which type of malware attaches itself to legitimate programs and spreads
when executed?
a. Worms b. Adware
c. Viruses d. Spyware

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155. A program that can propagate without human intervention is a:

a. Virus b. Warm
c. Trojan horse d. None
156. A ______ appears to be a legitimate program but is actually malicious.
a. Cookie b. Worm
c. Trojan horse d. Viruses
157. _____ is a social engineering attack to deceive users to reveal sensitive
information such as login and credit card details.
a. Cyberstalking b. Cyberbullying
c. Phishing d. Licensing
158. Which type of phishing is directed at specific individuals or organizations using
personalized information?
a. General Phishing b. Spear Phishing
c. Mass Phishing d. Phone Phishing
159. What do cybercriminals usually ask the recipients to do in email phishing
attacks?
a. Visit legitimate websites b. Click on malicious links
c. Download infected attachments d. Both b or c
160. Which type of attack attempts to overload the system with requests and deny
legitimate users access?
a. Denial of service (DoS) b. Ip spooling
c. Phishing d. Key logging
161. DoS stands for:
a. Disk object System b. Disk off System
c. Denial-of-service d. Disk on service
162. ______ is a program to collect information about ser activities without his
knowledge.
a. Adware b. Ghostware
c. Shareware d. Spyware

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163. What type of malware encrypts files and demands a payment to decrypt
them?
a. Adware b. Ransomware
c. Shareware d. Spyware
164. Which of the following is a secret combination of characters used to protect
against unauthorized access?
a. Password b. Username
c. Firewall d. Biometric Authentication
165. Which of the following is true about strong password?
a. Short length with common words b. Using only lowercase letters
c. Word related to a job or hobby
d. Combination of letters, numbers and symbols
166. Which of the following is an example of a strong password?
a. password123 b. abc123
c. P@ssw0rd$$Secur3! b. myname123
167. Why is it important to keep software up to date in cybersecurity?
a. To ensure compatibility b. To introduce new bugs
c. To patch known vulnerabilities d. To avoid system restarts
168. What does 2FA stands for?
a. Two-Factor Authentication b. Two-Factor Authorization
c. Two-Factor Accessibility d. Two-Factor Accounting
169. What does Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) require for user access?
a. Two email addresses b. Two difference devices
c. Two forms of verification d. Two usernames
170. Which of the following is used to control and filter network traffic?
a. Firewall b. Safety wall
c. Barrier device d. Modem

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171. Which type of software provides real-time protection against malware?

a. Text editor b. Antivirus software
c. Media player d. Web browser
172. Which method is used to secure information by transforming it into
unreadable format?
a. Cryptography b. Stenography
c. Steganography d. Cryptosystem
173. Which of the following aspects of data security does cryptography address?
a. Confidentially b. Integrity
c. Authentication d. All of above
174. The process of converting plain text into an unreadable format is called:
a. Compression b. Encoding
c. Encryption d. Decryption
175. _____ refers to unencrypted text.
a. Cipher text b. Plain text
c. Hash d. Key
176. ________ refers to encrypted text.
a. Cipher text b. Plain text
c. Algorithm d. Key
177. Which of the following is essential to convert encrypted data back into its
original form?
a. Password b. Decryption key
c. Email address d. Username
178. Which of the following is most crucial for restoring data after a cyberattack?
a. Intrusion detection system (IDS) b. Firewalls
c. Disaster recovery plan d. Anti-malware software

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179. A type of encryption in which different keys are used for encryption is called:
a. Symmetric encryption b. Asymmetric encryption
c. Public key encryption d. Private key encryption
180. What are two keys used in asymmetric encryption?
a. Primary key and secondary key b. Red key and blue key
c. Public key and private key d. Encryption key and decryption key
181. Which key is used to encrypt data in asymmetric encryption?
a. Private key b. Public key
c. Shared key d. User authentication key
182. Which key is used to decrypt data in asymmetric encryption?
a. Public key b. Private key
c. Symmetric key d. shared key
183. What type of encryption utilizes a single key for both encrypting and
decrypting data?
a. Symmetric encryption b. Asymmetric encryption
c. Public key encryption d. Hybrid encryption
184. Which characteristic distinguishes symmetric encryption from asymmetric
encryption?
a. Uses a single key b. Involves a public key
c. Slower encryption speed d. Requires two keys

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