1. How does a vortex generator energise the boundary layer?

a. Mixes it with free stream air.

b. Mixes it with laminar boundary layer.

c. Mixes it with turbulent boundary layer.

d. Prevents shock waves.

• 2. The main cause of error in a DRMC is:

• A) parallax in the rose

• B). turning

• C) magnetic deviation

• D) latitude
•

• 3. What formula gives the total temperature (TT) from the static
temperature (TS):

• a TT = TS (1 + 0.2 M2)

• b TT = TS (1 + 0.2 KrM2)

• c TT = TS / (1 + 0.2 KrM2)

• d TT = TS (1 - 0.2 M2)

• 4. Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern

hemisphere, it can be said that:

(a) on a westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent

turn to the South
(b) on a westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes an apparent
turn to the North

(c) on a Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent

turn to the North
(d) on an easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent
turn to the S o u t h

5........... Landing speed at constant weight will ........ ground effect?

a. Increasing, Increase.

b. Increasing, Decrease.
,p c. Decreasing, Increase.

4- d. Decreasing, Decrease.

• 6. On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the left and ball to the right
indicates:

• a turn to the right, not enough bank.

• b turn to the left, too much bank.

• c turn to the left, not enough bank.

• d turn to the right, too much bank.

• 7. For RVSM operation, Autopilot altitude hold capability should be

within
• a. +-75feet
• b. +-200feet
• c. +- 50feet

• 8. The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you

expect a temperature of -6° C?

• a) FL 80
• b) FL 20

• c) FL 100

• d) FL 110

9. What is the speed of sound at 25,000 ft and -48 degrees C.

• a 624kts.

• b 618kts.

• c 601kts
• d 585kts.

• 10. The maximum drift error sensed by an uncompensated DGI will be:

• A). 15° per hour

• B) 30° per hour

• C) 45° per hour

• D) 60° per hour

11. How will a basic AI respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn
at constant bank angle and ROT?
• A) Nose up and bank
• B) Nose down and bank
• C) Nose level and bank
• D) Correct bank and pitch.

12. Intermediate segment of a missed approach extend to

a. FAF
b. MAPT
c. 164ft obstacle clearance
d. FAP
13. The errors of INS fall into three categories?

a) Bounded, unbounded and velocity.

b) Coriolis, unbounded and inherent.
c) Bounded, unbounded and inherent.
d) Bounded, unbounded and accelerometer.

14 .When heading South in the Southern Hemisphere you experience

Starboard drift:

a . You are flying towards a lower temperature

b . You are flying away from a lower temperature

c . You are flying towards a low pressure

d . You are flying out of a high

15 . The dewpoint temperature:

a . can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant

b . can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature

constant

c . can not be equal to the air temperature

d . can not be lower than the air temperature

16. The machmeter compares: (PT = total pressure, PS = static

pressure)

• A ). (PT - PS) to PT

• B). (PT + PS) to PS

• C). (PT - PS) to PS

• D). PTtoPS

• 17. During the take-off run an air driven artificial horizon will
 usually,indicate.
• A) nose up and incorect left bank
• B). a false descending turn to the right
• C). increased nose up attitude and right wing low.
• D). a false climbing turn to the left.
•

• 18. The purpose of the caging knob is :

• A). to prevent the gyro toppling
• B). to reset the heading
• C). to reset the heading and to prevent toppling.
• D). to prevent apparent wander.

19. If indicated airspeed is maintained constant while air density

decreases by half
what will be the effect on total drag?

a. Increase by a factor of 2.

b. Decrease by a factor of 2.

c. Increase by a factor of 4.
d. Remain unchanged.

20. The colour arcs of an ASI are in ascending speed order?

A) white, yellow and red

B) green, yellow and red

C) blue, yellow and red
D) white, green and yellow

21. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:

a. angle of incidence of the wing.

b. distribution of pressures acting on the wing.

c. amount of airflow above and below the wing.

d. dynamic pressure acting in the airflow.

22. The term 'toppling', when applied to gyros is:

A) wander in the vertical plane.

B) gyroscopic precession.
C) wander in the horizontal plane.

D) real wander and apparent wander.

23. The height of the tropopause varies with the seasons and in the N
Hemisphere is:

A) higher in winter.

B) higher in summer.

C) higher in spring and autumn.

D) lower in summer.

• 24. Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in

• A). falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds

• B) falling pressure and likely formation of clouds

• C). rising pressure and likely formation of clouds

• D) rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds

• 25. Aircraft flying a track of 260degree(M) in RVSM airspace

turns left due weather (> 5nm)
a. Climb by 300ft
b. Descend by 500ft
c. Climb by 500ft
d. Descend by 300ft

26. In what way does ground effect influence induced drag?

a. lncreases it.
b. No effect.
c. Decreases it.

d. Angles it aft.

27. For a coordinated 300 Kts TAS rate 1 right turn the AOB should be?
a. 17 degrees.
b. 27 degrees.
c. 37 degrees.
d. 47 degrees.

28 .What do the upper and lower limits of the limits of the yellow arc on an
ASI represent?

• A) VNE and VNO.

• B). VNO and VNE.
• C). VMO and VNE.
• D). VNO and VMO.

29) In accordance with the principle of continuity:

1. air accelerates when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is

reduced.
2. when air accelerates the density of air in a streamline flow is increased.
3. air decelerates when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is
increased.
4. changes in cross-sectional area of a streamline flow will affect the air
velocity.
Which of the preceding statements are true?

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

b. 1 and 4.
c. 3 and 4.
d. 1, 3 and 4.

30). The altimeter consist of one or several aneroid capsules located in a

sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are
respectively?

⁃ A. (i) Static pressure (ii) Total pressure

• B). (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure) (ii) Static pressure
• C). (i) Static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at
time t-t
• D). (i) Total pressure(ii) Static pressure.
•
•
• 31): Which of the following is responsible for the creation of induced
drag?
• a. Angle of attack, camber, wing area and airspeed.
• b. Pitch angle, camber, wing area and airspeed.
• c. Pitch angle, camber, wing area and angle of attack.
• d. Airspeed, wing area and pitch angle.

32. The direction of the gradient force is:

A) Parallel to the isobars. B) Same direction as the friction force.

C) Towards high pressure. D) Towards low pressure.

33): How does a vortex generator energise the boundary layer?

a. Mixes it with free stream air.

b. Mixes it with laminar boundary layer.

c. Mixes it with turbulent boundary layer.

d. Prevents shock waves.

34. An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight

in IMC is assumed to:
a) Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
b) Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to
the visual flight rules
c) Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated
navigation aid serving the
destination aerodrome
d) Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome

35. When considering the relationship between different types of airspeed:

1 - True Airspeed (TAS) is read directly from the Airspeed Indicator.

2 - Equivalent Airspeed is Indicated Airspeed corrected for position error.

3 - Indicated Airspeed is not a speed at all, it is a pressure.

4 - True Airspeed is the speed of the aircraft through the air.

Which of the above statements are true?

a. 1 only.

b. 2 and 3.
c. 3 and 4.

d. 1 and 4.

36 :- What is lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

(a) 1000 feet AGL
(b) 1500 feet AGL
(c) 2000 feet AGL
(d) 6000 feet AGL
37. Why does increasing speed also increase lift?

a. The increased impact of the relative wind on an aerofoil’s lower surface

creates a greater amount of air being deflected downward.
b. The increased speed of the air passing over an aerofoil’s upper surface
decreases the static pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential
between the upper and lower surface.

c. The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
d. Increasing speed decreases drag.

38. At zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of a
symmetrical aerofoil section would be:
a. greater than atmospheric pressure.

b. equal to atmospheric pressure.

c. less than atmospheric pressure.

d. non existent.

39. In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in

an Easterly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

A. an apparent turn to the South.

B. an apparent turn to the North.

C. a heading fluctuating about 090°

40.Which letter is used in a flight plan Item 10 to indicate that the aircraft
is RVSM Approved?
a) Z
b) W
c) R
d) J

41. When considering an aerofoil section at a constant angle of attack,

which of the following statements is true?

a. If the static pressure on one side is reduced more than on the other side,
a pressure differential will exist.

b. If dynamic pressure is increased, the pressure differential will decrease.

c. The pressure differential will increase if the dynamic pressure is
decreased
d. Dynamic pressure and pressure differential are not related

42. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. To generate a constant lift force, any adjustment in IAS must be

accompanied by a change in angle of attack.
2. For a constant lift force, each IAS requires a specific angle of attack.

3. Minimum IAS is determined by CLMAX.

4. The greater the operating weight, the higher the minimum IAS.

a. 1, 2 and 4.
b. 4 only.

c. 2, 3 and 4.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

43. An aircraft is flying a rate 1 turn at 480 kt TAS. What is the diameter
of the turn?
A) 2 NM

B) 3 NM
C) 5 NM

D) 6 NM

44.. Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?
a. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of
attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

b. An aerofoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an

increase in weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient
lift to maintain altitude.

c. At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient

lift to maintain altitude.

d. The lift force must be exactly equal to the drag force.

45. Geostrophic wind:

A) always increases with increasing height.

B) is directly proportional to the density of the air.

C) veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere.

D) is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force.

46: CAR that deal with CBTA ( Competency based training and
assessment )
a. Series7/B/ IV
b. Series7/B/XX
c. Series 7/G/III

47: Which of the following are true of VMD?

a. Lower than VMp.

b. Gives best L:D ratio.
c. Gives best endurance in a,propeller aircraft.
d. Gives best range in a jet aircraft.

48: The observed temperature at the surface is 11° C. This can be

described as:
A) ISA -4. B) ISA +11. C) ISA

D) ISA +4

49 :How does total drag vary with air density?

a. Constant.

b. Directly.
c. Inversely.

d. Conversely.

50: What causes wing tip vortices?

a. Pressure differences in front of and behind the wings.

b. High pressure air leaking from below the wings.

c. Spanwise flow from tip to root under the wings.

d. Spanwise flow from root to tip above the wings.

51: On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates?

a. Needle in the middle, ball to left.

b. Needle to the right, ball to left.
c. Needle to the right, ball to right.
d. Needle in the middle, ball to right.

52: If IAS is increased from 100 Kts to 200 Kts, by what factor would DI
and CD1 be
multiplied?

a. ¼, ½

b. ½, ¼
c. ¼, 1/16
d. 4, 16

53: What will the altimeter of an aircraft on the aerodrome indicate with
QNH set on the subscale?

A) The airfield barometric pressure.

B) Airfield elevation.
C) The equivalent sea level pressure at the airfield.

D) Zero

53. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased above zero what happens to
the
stagnation point, transition point and separation point?
a. Moves forward, Moves aft, Moves aft.

b. Moves aft, Moves aft, Moves aft.

c. Moves aft, Moves forward, Moves forward.
d. Moves aft, Moves aft, Moves forward.

54. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an

aircraft coming from the
front right, will first see the :
a) green steady light
b) red steady light
c) white steady light
d) green flashing light
55. When climbing through an inversion at constant CAS?
• a. TAS increases.
• b. Mach number decreases.
• c. Mach number remains constant.
• d. TAS decreases.

56. In Strategic lateral offset , when spacing between route centre line is
more than 6Nm but less
than 15 nm, offset to
a. Right of centre line in tenth of a Nm up to maximum 2Nm
b. Left of centre line in tenth of a Nm up to maximum 5Nm
c. Right of Centre line in tenth of a Nm up to Maximum 0.5 Nm

57. What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds?
• A) Ice crystals.
• B) Water droplets.

• C) Water vapour.
• D) Supercooled water droplets.

58. Procedure design Gradient for Aircraft

a. 9%
b. 2.5 %
c. 3.3%

59. The latitude nut …………an artificial horizon?

• A) Compensates for transport error.
• B) Is not fitted to.
• C) Compensates for latitude error.
• D) Compensates for earth rate errors.

60. In 45/180 procedure turn,timing for Cat C aircraft

a. 1 min
b. 1 min 15 sec
c. 1 min 30 sec

61. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a
latitude of 20° North.

Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the
turn on an
approximate heading of :
A. 150°

B. 210°

C. 190°

62. In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in

an Easterly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :

A. an apparent turn to the North.

B. an apparent turn to the South.

C. a heading fluctuating about 090°.

63 . When an aircraft is being refueled the refueling must be stopped if a

jet aircraft
crosses with in a distance of
(a) 15 m
(b) 30 m
(c) 43 m
(d) 45 m

64. .Descending from FL390 at maximum groundspeed, what will the pilot
be limited by:
• A) VMO initially then MMO at a specified altitude

• B) MMO initially then VMO at a specified altitude

• C) VNE initially then MMO at a specified altitude

• D) VNO initially then VNE at a specified altitude

65. Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing
on a Direct Reading compass?

(a) After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has
been struck by lighting

(b) Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of
magnetic latitude
(c) After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to
unserviceability

(d) Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its

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