Extracted by ABHI

Question 1
The ratio of velocities of deuteron and α-particle, if the de-Broglie wavelength of both the particles is same, will be

1)2 : 1
2)4√: 1
3) √ 2: 1
4)1: 3

Question 2
In an experiment to determine the resistance of galvanometer by half-deflection method, we use the following circuit where R = 600 Ω and G = 3 Ω.
Then the value of resistance S is (where symbols have their usual meaning)

1) 600 Ω
201
2)3 Ω
3) 600 Ω
199
4)2 Ω

Question 3
An external voltage (V) is applied across a diode such that it is reverse biased. As the reverse bias voltage is gradually increased before it reaches
breakdown voltage, then current

1)Sharply increases
2)Sharply decreases
3)First increases and then decreases
4)Remains voltage independent

Question 4
The photoelectrons emitted from the surface of metal are such that they

1)Have same kinetic energy

2)Have same velocity
3)Have same de-Broglie wavelength
4)Have their speeds varying from zero to certain maximum value
Question 5
The energy of emitted photon when an electron jumps from third orbit to first orbit in a hydrogen atom is

1)12.08 eV
2)13.6 eV
3)1.51 eV
4)10.2 eV

Question 6
The energy required to remove an electron from fourth orbit of hydrogen atom is

1)13.6 eV
2)3.4 eV
3)1.51 eV
4)0.85 eV

Question 7
1 cm on the main scale of vernier callipers is divided into 10 equal parts. If 20 divisions of vernier scale coincide with 18 divisions of main scale, then
least count of callipers is

1)1 cm
2)0.1 cm
3)0.01 cm
4)0.02 cm

Question 8
Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer.
A. Fission is the source of energy of all stars including our sun.
B. In fusion, lighter nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus.

1)A is correct but B is incorrect

2)A is incorrect but B is correct
3)Both A and B are correct
4)Both A and B are incorrect

Question 9
The speed of electron in second stable orbit of hydrogen atom is (c is speed of light in vacuum)

1) c
137
2) c
274
c
3)
548
c
4)
685
Question 10
An α-particle is bombarded on 7N14 nucleus and a proton is emitted. The product nucleus is

1)5B10
2)6C13
3) 8O17
4) 7N13

Question 11
The ratio of radii of first shell of H-atom to that of third shell of Li++ ion is

1)1 : 2
2)1 : 9
3)1 : 3
4)1 : 27

Question 12
For an equilateral triangular prism, if angle of minimum deviation is δm, then refractive index (μ) is equal to

δ
1) 1 sin 30° + m
2 2
δ
2) 1 sin 15° + m
2 2
δm
3)2sin 30° +
2
δm
4)2sin 15° +
2

Question 13
In a hypothetical atom, if transition from n = 5 to n = 3 produces visible light then the possible transition to obtain infrared radiation is

1)n = 5 to n = 2
2)n = 3 to n = 2
3)n = 6 to n = 3
4)n = 6 to n = 4

Question 14
In a photoelectric experiment, the frequency and photon intensity of a light source are both quadrupled. Then consider the following statements
(i) The saturation photocurrent remains almost the same.
(ii) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is quadrupled.
The correct option is

1)(i) is true but (ii) is false

2)(i) is false but (ii) is true
3)Both (i) and (ii) are true
4)Both (i) and (ii) are false
Question 15
A particle of mass 9 × 10–25 kg has the same de-Broglie wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 4 × 106 m s–1. The velocity of the
particle is (Given, mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg)

1)18 m s–1
2)4 m s–1
3)9 m s–1
4)2 m s–1

Question 16
When radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is 3 volt. If the same surface is irradiated with radiation of
double wavelength, then the stopping potential becomes 1 volt. The work function of the metal is

1)2 eV
2)0.5 eV
3)1.5 eV
4)1 eV

Question 17
The mass of a 11B nucleus is 0.077 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per nucleon of 11B nucleus is
5 5
(Given, 1 u × c2 = 930 MeV)

1)71.61 MeV
2)65.11 MeV
3)7.16 MeV
4)6.51 MeV

Question 18
A potential barrier of 0.60 V exists across P-N junction. If the depletion region is 3 × 10–5 m wide, then the intensity of the electric field in this region
is

1)104 V/m
2)2 × 104 V/m
3)106 V/m
4)2 × 106 V/m

Question 19
If the metre scale shown below is in rotational equilibrium, then the unknown weight (W) will be equal to

1)12 N
2)15 N
3)20 N
4)30 N
Question 20
A nucleus of 92U238 originally at rest emits an α-particle with speed v0. The speed of daughter nucleus will be
v0
1)
127
2v0
2)
117
2v0
3)
127
v0
4)
117

Question 21
Consider the following statements regarding nuclear force and select the correct statement(s).
(I) They are independent of charge
(II) They are always attractive in nature
(III) They are non-central forces

1)I only
2)I and II
3)I and III
4)I, II and III

Question 22
Assertion (A) : In general, heavier nuclides contain more number of neutrons than protons.
Reason (R) : To overcome the coulombic repulsion between protons, more number of neutrons are required.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 23
The shape of meniscus when contact angle is less than 90° is

1)Concave downwards
2)Concave upwards
3)Can either be concave downwards or concave upwards
4)Insufficient information
Question 24
The output current versus time curve of a half wave rectifier for sinusoidal input is shown in the figure. The average value of the output current in this
case is

1)Zero
i
2) π0
2i
3) π0
4)i0

Question 25
If kinetic energy of an electron in first orbit of hydrogen atom is K, then potential energy of an electron in first orbit of singly ionized helium atom is

1)– 2K
2)– 4K
3)–8K
4)– 16K

Question 26
In the given circuit, the current through the battery is (All diodes are ideal)

1)1 A
2)1.2 A
3)2 A
4)3 A

Question 27
Which of the following is correct for Zener diode?

1)It is fabricated by lightly doping both P and N sides of the junction

2)It is designed to operate in forward bias condition
3)It is used for regulating voltage
4)It offers infinite resistance in reverse bias condition
Question 28
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) Pure Ge doped with pentavalent impurities gives a N-type semiconductor.
(ii) Minority carriers in a N-type semiconductor are electron.
(iii) N-type semiconductor is negatively charged.
(iv) P-type semiconductor is positively charged.

1)(i) only
2)(ii), (iii) and (iv)
3)(i) and (ii)
4)(i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 29
Following diagram performs the logic function of

1)NOR gate
2)NAND gate
3)AND gate
4)OR gate

Question 30
Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(i) Isotopes (a) Sum of number of neutrons and protons
(ii) Isobars (b) Same mass number but different atomic number
(iii) Isotones (c) Same atomic number but different mass number
(iv) Nucleons (d) Same number of neutrons but different atomic number
1)(i) → c; (ii) → b; (iii) → a; (iv) → d
2)(i) → b; (ii) → c; (iii) → a; (iv) → d
3)(i) → c; (ii) → b; (iii) → d; (iv) → a
4)(i) → c; (ii) → d; (iii) → b; (iv) → a

Question 31
The electrical conductivity of pure silicon can be increased by

1)Increasing the temperature

2)Decreasing the temperature
3)Doping acceptor impurity
4)Both (1) and (3)
Question 32
The total energy of electron in the He+ atom in first excited state is –13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of this electron will be

1)13.6 eV
2)54.4 eV
3)3.4 eV
4)27.2 eV

Question 33
The binding energy of deuteron is 2.5 MeV and that of 42He is 26 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one 42He, then energy released in the
process will be

1)12 MeV
2)84 MeV
3)21 MeV
4)6 MeV

Question 34
What is the potential energy of the electron in an orbit of radius r in the hydrogen atom?
(e = charge of electron)
2
1) Ke
r
2
2) – Ke
r
2
3) Ke
2r
2
4) – Ke
2r

Question 35
In a nuclear reaction, the β– particle is emitted

1)After de-excitation of a nucleus

2)After ionization of an atom
3)Due to conversion of a neutron into a proton
4)Due to conversion of a proton into a neutron

Question 36
The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle accelerating with 130 V potential is 1 Å. If the accelerating potential is increased to 520 V, then its de-Broglie
wavelength will be

1)1 Å
2)0.25 Å
3)0.5 Å
4)2 Å
Question 37
A proton, a deuteron and an electron have the same kinetic energies. Their de-Broglie wavelengths will be compared as

1)λe < λd < λp

2)λe < λp < λd
3)λe > λd > λp
4)λe > λp > λd

Question 38
If M0 is the mass of nucleus 12C, Mp and Mn are the masses of proton and neutron, then nuclear binding energy of nucleus 12C is
6 6

1)(6Mp + 6Mn – M0)c2

2)(M0 – 12Mp)c2
3)(M0 – 12Mn)c2
4)(M0 – 6Mn + 6Mp)c2

Question 39
In the circuit shown, if the potential drop in forward bias condition across Si and Ge diodes are 0.7 V and 0.3 V respectively, then the potential
difference across 2 kΩ resistor is

1)11.4 V
2)7.6 V
3)8 V
4)12 V

Question 40
Hydrogen gas sample in ground state is given an energy of 12.75 eV. How many spectral lines will be emitted due to transition of electrons?

1)1
2)3
3)6
4)10

Question 41
In a resonance tube experiment, first resonating length is 15 cm and second resonating length is 47 cm, then wavelength of the wave is

1)16 cm
2)32 cm
3)64 cm
4)48 cm
Question 42
A screw gauge has 50 equal divisions marked on its circular scale and one full rotation of the circular scale advances the main scale by 0.02 cm.
The least count of this screw gauge is

1)2 × 10–4 cm
2)4 × 10–4 cm
3)3 × 10–4 cm
4)4 × 10–3 cm

Question 43
The acceptor level of a p-type semiconductor is 5 eV. The maximum wavelength of light which can create a hole would be
(Given, hc = 12400 eV Å)

1)2480 Å
2)1240 Å
3)4960 Å
4)248 Å

Question 44
The ratio of the shortest wavelength of Paschen series to the shortest wavelength of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is

1)1 : 9
2)9 : 1
3)9 : 4
4)4 : 9

Question 45
The radius of nuclei X is measured to be twice the radius of nuclei Y. The ratio of nucleons in X to Y is

1)8 : 1
2)2 : 1
3)1 : 4
4)1 : 1

Question 46
The time of revolution of an electron around a nucleus of atomic number Z in nth Bohr’s orbit is directly proportional to
2
1) n
Z
3
2) n
Z2
2
3) n
Z2
3
4) n
Z
Question 47
Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s):
(I) The stopping potential increases with increase in frequency of incident light.
(II) The saturation photocurrent increases with intensity of light.
(III) The work function of emitter plate decreases with decrease in frequency of incident light.

1)(III) only
2)(II) only
3)(I) and (II)
4)(I) and (III)

Question 48
A metal plate is irradiated with a certain wavelength of radiation. If all the electrons ejected from the metal plate can be stopped before travelling 2 m
in the direction of uniform electric field of 3 N/C, then the possible value(s) of kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is/are

1)1 eV
2)2 eV
3)7 eV
4)Both (1) and (2)

Question 49
A beam of light consists of two wavelengths λ and 2λ and the number of photons passing in unit time for the two wavelengths are 2n and 3n
respectively. If the cross-sectional area of the beam is A, then intensity of the light beam will be

1) 3nhc
λA
2) 7nhc
2λA
3nhc
3)
2λA
5nhc
4)
2λA

Question 50
In a hypothetical fission reaction
X236 141 93
56Y + 35Z + 0n + R
1
92
The identity of emitted particle (R) is

1)Proton
2)Electron
3)Neutron
4)α-particle
Question 51
Consider the following reaction sequence:

The products Y and Z respectively are

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 52
Given below are the two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than those of alcohols of comparable molecular masses.
Reason (R): Aldehydes and ketones have dipole-dipole interactions while alcohols have hydrogen bonding.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)(A) is false but (R) is true

Question 53
Consider the following compounds:
(i) Vanillin
(ii) Acrolein
(iii) Mesityl oxide
The compound(s) in which both –OH and –CHO groups are present is/are

1)(i) and (ii) only

2)(i) only
3)(ii) only
4)(i), (ii) and (iii)
Question 54
Match the List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Species reacting with aldehyde) (Product formed)
a. NH 3 (i) Oxime
b. NH2– NHCONH2 (ii) Acetal
c. R – OH (iii) Semicarbazone
d. NH2OH (iv) Imine

Choose the correct match from the options given below.

1)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

2)a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
3)a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
4)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Question 55
In which of the following reactions, benzoic acid is not the product formed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 56
IUPAC name of Cinnamaldehyde is

1)2-Phenylprop-2-en-1-al
2)2, 4-Dimethyl-2-phenylpentanal
3)3-Phenylprop-2-en-1-al
4)2-Methyl-3-phenylpentanal
Question 57
Consider the following reaction:
( i ) dil . NaOH
CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO
( ii ) Δ
Which of the following is not a product of given reaction?

1)CH3CH = CH – CHO

2)

3)

4)CH3CH = CH – CH2 – CHO

Question 58
Which of the following pairs of compounds cannot be distinguished by iodoform test?

1)Ethanol and formaldehyde

2)Ethanol and Pentan-2-one
3)Acetaldehyde and formaldehyde
4)Ethanol and propan-1-ol

Question 59
Consider the following statements.
Statement-I: Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde can be distinguished using Fehling’s test.
Statement-II: Aromatic aldehydes do not respond to Fehling test while aliphatic aldehydes do.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both statements-I and II are correct

2)Both statements-I and II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 60
In the given reaction:

Product ‘P’

The IUPAC name of product ‘P’ is

1)Hexane-1, 6-diol
2)Hexane-1, 6-dioic acid
3)6-hydroxyhexanoic acid
4)2-hydroxyhexanoic acid

Question 61
Non-essential amino acid among the following is

1)Valine
2)Leucine
3)Isoleucine
4)Glutamine
Question 62
Choose the incorrect statement.

1)Starch consists of two components, amylose and amylopectin

2)Amylose is water soluble component which constitutes 80-85% of starch
3)Amylopectin is branched chain polymer of α-D-glucose units
4)Starch is the main storage polysaccharide of plants

Question 63
Match the List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Carbohydrates) (Monosaccharide units)
a. Sucrose (i) β-D-glucose
b. Maltose (ii) β-D-glucose and β-D-galactose
c. Lactose (iii) α-D-glucose
d. Cellulose (iv) α-D-glucose and β-D-fructose

Choose the correct match from the options given below.

1)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

2)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
3)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
4)a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

Question 64
Which of the following structure(s) of protein get(s) destroyed during its denaturation?
(i) Primary structure
(ii) Secondary structure
(iii) Tertiary structure
The correct option is

1)(i) and (ii) only

2)(ii) and (iii) only
3)(i) only
4)(i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 65
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Nucleotide contains a sugar molecule and a nitrogenous base only.
Statement-II: Nucleoside contains a sugar molecule, a nitrogenous base and a phosphoric acid molecule.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

2)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
3)Both the statements-I and II are correct
4)Both the statements-I and II are incorrect
Question 66
Following are the two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Alkylamines are stronger bases than ammonia.
Reason (R): Alkyl groups by their electron releasing effect increases the electron density on nitrogen atom of amine.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)(A) is false but (R) is true

Question 67
Consider the following statements:
(a) Hormones act as intercellular messengers
(b) Hormones are produced by endocrine glands
(c) Thyroxine produced in thyroid gland is an iodinated derivative of amino acid tyrosine
The correct statement(s) is/are

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(b) only
3)(c) only
4)(a), (b) and (c)

Question 68
The correct order of basicity of the given amines in aqueous solution is

1)C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N

2)(C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2
3)(C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N
4)(C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2
Question 69
Consider the following reaction sequence:

If ‘C’ is an amine then A and C respectively are

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 70
The product ‘P’ in the given reaction is

1)N-Phenylhydroxylamine
2)Azoxybenzene
3)Azobenzene
4)Hydrazobenzene

Question 71
For the detection of functional group, alcohol (R – OH) is treated with ceric ammonium nitrate while phenol is treated with freshly prepared ferric
chloride to obtain red and violet coloured complexes respectively. Chemically these red and violet complexes respectively are

1)[Ce(NO3)4(ROH)3] and [Fe(CN)5NO]2–

2)[Ce(ROH)4](NO3)3 and [Fe(C6H5O)6]3–
3)[Ce(ROH)6](NO3)3 and [Fe(CN)5NO]2–
4)[Ce(NO3)4(ROH)3] and [Fe(C6H5O)6]3–
Question 72
On addition of β-naphthol to diazonium salt coupling reaction takes place to form a dye of

1)Scarlet red colour

2)Pink colour
3)Brown colour
4)Yellow colour

Question 73
Brown coloured fumes are evolved when a salt reacts with conc. sulphuric acid. These fumes get more dense on addition of copper turning to the
reaction mixture. The possible anion present in the given salt is

1) NO3–
2)Cl–
3)N3–
4)S2–

Question 74
Match the List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Colour of the flame observed by naked eyes) (Metal ion)
a. Crimson red flame (i) Cu2+
b. Apple green flame (ii) Sr2+
c. Brick red flame (iii) Ba2+
d. Green flame with blue centre (iv) Ca2+

Choose the correct match from the options given below.

1)a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

2)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
3)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
4)a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Question 75
The incorrect match of metal cations with their respective group reagent is

1)Cu2+ – Dilute HCl + H2S

2)Al3+ – NH4OH + NH4Cl
3)Ba2+ – H2S + NH4Cl
4)Fe3+ – NH4OH + NH4Cl
Question 76
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Pb2+ ions react with potassium chromate to form yellow precipitate.
Statement-II: Lead chromate is insoluble in hot sodium hydroxide solution.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

2)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
3)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
4)Both the statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

Question 77
The reagents A and B respectively in the given reaction sequence are

1)(A)- C2H5OH, (B)- H3PO2

2)(A)- H3PO2 + H2O, (B)- H2O
3)(A)- H2O/H+, (B)- H3PO2
4)(A)- H2O/H+, (B)- C2H5OH

Question 78
Choose the pair of the compounds which cannot be distinguished by Hinsberg’s reagent.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 79
Reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine yields

1)A carboxylic acid

2)A ketone
3)Schiff’s base
4)Oxime
Question 80
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Benzene diazonium salt gives orange dye on reaction with phenol in basic medium.
Statement-II: Aromatic diazonium salt reacts with HBF4 followed by heating to form fluorobenzene.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both the statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both the statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

Question 81
Choose the correct statement.

1)Reduction of isocyanide using H2/Ni yields primary amine

2)Nitroethane and ethylnitrite are position isomers
3)Nitration of aniline yields p-nitroaniline as the major product
4)Aniline reacts with Bromine water to form p-bromoaniline as the major product

Question 82
Which of the following reactions involve(s) a new carbon-carbon bond formation?
(i) Friedel-Crafts acylation
(ii) Kolbe’s electrolysis
(iii) Hydrolysis of ester
Choose the correct option.

1)(i) and (ii) only

2)(i) only
3)(i), (ii) and (iii)
4)(ii) and (iii) only

Question 83
Consider the following carboxylic acids
(i) Lactic acid
(ii) Tartaric acid
(iii) Adipic acid
Which of the following can be categorised as optically active dicarboxylic acid?

1)(i) and (iii) only

2)(ii) only
3)(ii) and (iii) only
4)(iii) only
Question 84
An alcohol ‘X’ with molecular formula C5H12O on dehydration produces an alkene ‘Y’ which on reductive ozonolysis forms an aldehyde and a
ketone. Both aldehyde and ketone gives positive haloform reaction. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 85
Total number of water molecules present as water of crystallisation in one molecule of Mohr’s salt is

1)4
2)5
3)6
4)7

Question 86
The product ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively in the following reaction are
SnCl2 / HCl H3O +
CH3C ≡ N 'A ' 'B '

1)Amine and carboxylic acid

2)Imine and aldehyde
3)Amine and aldehyde
4)Imine and ketone

Question 87
Consider the given column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Name reaction) (Product formed)
a. Clemmensen reduction (i) Aldehyde
b. Gattermann-Koch reaction (ii) Hydrocarbon
c. Cannizzaro reaction (iii) α- halo carboxylic acid
d. Hell-Volhard– Zelinsky reaction (iv) Alcohol + salt of carboxylic acid

Choose the correct option from the following.

1)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

2)a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
3)a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4)a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
Question 88
When vapours of a primary alcohol is passed over copper at 573 K, the product formed is

1)An alkene
2)A carboxylic acid
3)An aldehyde
4)A ketone

Question 89
Match the compounds/species given in column-I with their respective colours given in column-II.

Column-I Column-II
a. [Fe(SCN)]2+ (i) Violet
b. AgI (ii) Prussian blue
c. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3·xH2O (iii) Yellow
d. [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– (iv) Blood red

Choose the correct option from the following.

1)a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

2)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
3)a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
4)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Question 90
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Side chain chlorination of toluene gives benzal chloride.
Statement-II: Benzal chloride on hydrolysis gives acetophenone.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
Question 91
The product formed in the following chemical reaction is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 92
The total number of chiral carbon atoms in α-D-(+)-Glucopyranose structure is

1)2
2)3
3)4
4)5

Question 93
Choose the incorrect statement.

1)Glycine is a non-essential and optically inactive amino acid

2)Amino acids behave like salts rather than simple amines or carboxylic acids if they have equal number of amino groups and acidic groups
3)In aqueous solution, amino acid exists as zwitter ion
4)Lysine is an acidic amino acid

Question 94
Choose the incorrect match.

Vitamin Deficiency disease

(1) Thiamine Beri-beri
(2) Riboflavin Rickets
(3) Pyridoxine Convulsions
(4) Ascorbic acid Scurvy
1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)
Question 95
In a protein molecule, various amino acids are linked together by

1)Phosphodiester linkage
2)Glycosidic linkage
3)Dative bond
4)Peptide bond

Question 96
The enthalpies of solution of CuSO4·5H2O(s) and CuSO4(s) are –11.3 kJ mol–1 and –65.5 kJ mol–1 respectively. The hydration enthalpy of
anhydrous copper sulphate is

1)+76.8 kJ mol–1
2)–76.8 kJ mol–1
3)–54.2 kJ mol–1
4)+54.2 kJ mol–1

Question 97
Given below are the two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): p-Nitroaniline is more basic than p-methylaniline.
Reason (R): Presence of nitro group at para-position in aniline show –R effect.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true and (R) is false
4)(A) is false and (R) is true

Question 98
Which of the following is a method of preparation of primary aliphatic amine only?

1)Ammonolysis of alkyl halide

2)Sandmeyer reaction
3)Ozonolysis of alkene
4)Hoffmann bromamide degradation

Question 99
Following are the two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Acetylation of –NH2 group of aniline reduces its activating effect towards electrophilic substitution.
Reason (R): Acetyl group on benzene has electron withdrawing nature.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true and (R) is false
4)(A) is false and (R) is true
Question 100
Consider the following compounds:
(a) Hydrazine
(b) Azobenzene
(c) Pyridine
(d) Urea
Lassaigne test for the detection of nitrogen will fail in case of

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a), (b) and (c) only
4)(a), (b), (c) and (d)

Question 101
All of the following are key functional aspects of an ecosystem, except

1)Productivity
2)Decomposition
3)Stratification
4)Nutrient cycling

Question 102
Key industry animals

1)Feed on herbivorous animals

2)Convert plant matter into animal matter
3)Are not eaten by any other animals
4)Are also known as second order consumers

Question 103
Primary productivity

1)Is amount of all inorganic matter present in an ecosystem per unit area at a given time.
2)Is expressed in terms of weight as (kcal m–2) yr–1
3)Does not get affected by the availability of solar radiation.
4)Is the rate at which sunlight is captured by producers for the synthesis of energy rich organic compounds through photosynthesis

Question 104
Which among the following is not true for humus?

1)It is a dark coloured substance

2)It undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate
3)It does not contain water soluble carbohydrates and nucleic acids
4)It functions as reservoir of nutrients
Question 105
What percent of incident solar radiation is consumed by plants in synthesis of organic matter?

1)2 - 10%
2)1 - 5%
3)0.5 - 1%
4)> 50%

Question 106
Chief producers in aquatic ecosystems are

1)Zooplanktons
2)Ferns
3)Phytoplanktons
4)Lichens

Question 107
In deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem, the primary producers are

1)Phytoplanktons
2)Chemosynthetic bacteria
3)Brown algae
4)Bryophytes

Question 108
Plant → A → Frog → Snake → Hawk.
Choose the most appropriate option for ‘A’ in the given food chain.

1)Grasshopper
2)Mouse
3)Sparrow
4)Lizards

Question 109
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): In an aquatic ecosystem pyramid of biomass is inverted.
Reason (R): Biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of phytoplanktons as life span in former is longer and the latter multiply much faster though
having shorter life span.

1)(A) is true but (R) is false.

2)Both (A) and (R) are false.
3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Question 110
Mineralisation is

1)Precipitation of water soluble substance present in fragmented detritus which goes down into soil horizon
2)Breakdown of detritus into simpler form by small invertebrate animals
3)The release of inorganic substances from organic matter
4)Carried out by farmers’s ‘friend’

Question 111
During decomposition process, there is no direct involvement of living organisms in

1)Catabolism
2)Leaching
3)Mineralisation
4)Humification

Question 112
Match the following column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II
A. Top carnivores (i) Wolf
B. Second trophic level (ii) Trees
C. Secondary consumer (iii) Lion
D. First trophic level (iv) Grasshopper
1)A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
2)A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
3)A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
4)A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)

Question 113
State the following statements as True (T) or False (F) and choose the correct option.
A. According to the first law of thermodynamics, no transfer of energy occurs until and unless it is accompanied by degradation of energy from
concentrated to dispersed form.
B. Earthworms help in loosening of the soil along with the breakdown of complex organic matter.
C. Only prokaryotes are involved in the process of catabolism.
D. Food web is formed due to interdependence among organisms.

1)A-(F), B-(T), C-(F), D-(F)

2)A-(F), B-(T), C-(F), D-(T)
3)A-(T), B-(F), C-(T), D-(T)
4)A-(T), B-(F), C-(T), D-(F)

Question 114
Detritivores

1)Are mostly autotrophic organisms

2)Are primary carnivores
3)Occupy base of ecological pyramid
4)Feed on the dead remains of animals
Question 115
Grasses → Grasshopper → Birds → Hawk.
What percent of energy is available to birds if at T4 level energy is 40 J?

1)4 kJ
2)0.4 kJ
3)4 J
4)400 kJ

Question 116
Pyramid of biomass in terrestrial ecosystem is

1)Never upright
2)Spindle shaped
3)Upright
4)Always inverted

Question 117
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained from the following data?
Primary consumer – 40 kg
Secondary consumer – 2 kg
Primary producers – 400 g

1)Spindle-shaped pyramid of energy

2)Upright pyramid of number
3)Upright pyramid of biomass
4)Spindle-shaped pyramid of biomass

Question 118
Consider the following and choose the correct option.
A. Ecological diversity helps in formation of ecotype and play key role in the process of speciation.
B. Maximum taxonomic diversity occur where species of taxonomically same group occur in almost equal abundance.
C. Within a species, genetic diversity occurs in the difference of alleles, entire genes and chromosome structures.
D. Reserpine is the active chemical present in the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria.

1)Statements A, B and C are correct.

2)Only statements C and D are correct.
3)All statements are correct except B.
4)Only statements B and C are correct.

Question 119
In species- area relationship given by Alexander von Humboldt, Z represents

1)Y-intercept
2)Species richness
3)Area
4)Regression coefficient
Question 120
Across the globe, which region exhibits highest species diversity?

1)Himalayan range
2)Eastern ghats of India
3)Amazon forests
4)Madagascar

Question 121
Below given is the zonation in a terrestrial biosphere reserve. Choose the incorrect option regarding it.

1)In zone A, activities like settlements, cropping, forestry, etc. can be done.
2)Zone C is legally protected ecosystem
3)In zone B, no human interference is allowed
4)The outermost zone is an area of active cooperation between reserve management and the local people

Question 122
Select the incorrect match.

1)Aravalli Hills - Rajasthan

2)Western ghats region - Karnataka
3)Khasi and Jaintia hills - Meghalaya
4)Chanda and Bastar - Maharashtra

Question 123
Dachigam National Park which is situated in Jammu and Kashmir is home to

1)Rhinoceros
2)Snow leopard
3)Musk deer
4)Elephants

Question 124
Match the following column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II
(Animal) (Place of extinction)
A. Dodo (i) Australia
B. Stellar's sea cow (ii) Africa
C. Thylacine (iii) Mauritius
D. Quagga (iv) Russia
1)A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
2)A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
3)A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
4)A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
Question 125
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: The Nile perch was introduced in Lake Victoria led to the extinction of indigenous catfishes.
Statement B: Invasive species like Parthenium and Lantana are threat to indigenous species Eichhornia.

1)Only statement B is incorrect

2)Only statement A is incorrect
3)Both statement A and statement B are incorrect
4)Both statement A and statement B are correct

Question 126
Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
(i) Decrease variability in certain ecosystem processes like productivity.
(ii) Decline in plant production.
(iii) Increase in resistance to environmental perturbations.
(iv) Increased variability in pest and disease cycles.
The correct ones are

1)(iii) and (iv) only

2)(ii) and (iv) only
3)(ii), (iii) and (iv)
4)(i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 127
David Tilman through his experiments found that

1)Species richness decreases with decrease in area

2)Each species in an ecosystem plays very crucial role in proper functioning of ecosystem
3)Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
4)Areas with more species showed more year-to-year variation in total biomass

Question 128
More than 15,500 species world-wide are facing threat of extinction. What is the percentage share of mammal species in it?

1)12%
2)23%
3)31%
4)32%

Question 129
Choose the option which contains all the broadly utilitarian service of ecosystem.
(i) Industrial products
(ii) Fibres
(iii) Flood and erosion control
(iv) Drugs
(v) Construction material
(vi) Pollination
(vii) Firewood
The correct ones are

1)(i), (iii), (iv) and (vii)

2)(i), (ii), (v) and (vii)
3)(iii) and (vi)
4)(iii), (iv) and (vi)
Question 130
Select the correct representation w.r.t. number of bird species in different areas.

1)Colombia > New York > India > Greenland

2)New York = Greenland > India > Colombia
3)Colombia > India > New York > Greenland
4)India > New York > Colombia > Greenland

Question 131
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement (A): Giant panda and blue whale are more susceptible to extinction.
Statement (B): Large body size animal have small population and high reproductive rate.

1)Both (A) and (B) are true statements

2)Both (A) and (B) are false statements
3)(A) is true but (B) is false
4)(A) is false but (B) is true

Question 132
A large number of plant and animal species which are confined to particular region and are not found anywhere else is called

1)Endemic species
2)Keystone species
3)Threatened species
4)Vulnerable species

Question 133
How many total biodiversity hotspots are found in the world?

1)25
2)34
3)12
4)31

Question 134
The most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction is

1)Alien species invasion

2)Habitat loss and fragmentation
3)Co-extinction
4)Over-exploitation

Question 135
Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as

1)Biopiracy
2)Bioenergetics
3)Biosystematics
4)Bioprospecting
Question 136
Select the characteristics of anthropogenic ecosystem.
(a) Have little diversity
(b) Possesses self-regulatory mechanism
(c) Simple food chain
(d) Little cycling of nutrients
(e) Low productivity
In light of above statements select the correct answer from the given options.

1)(a) and (e) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a), (c) and (d) only
4)(c), (d) and (e) only

Question 137
In a vertical subdivision of a forest the top layer is occupied by

1)Trees
2)Grasses
3)Shrubs
4)Herbs

Question 138
The phenomenon of incorporation of nutrients in living microbes is called

1)Humification
2)Catabolism
3)Fragmentation
4)Nutrient immobilisation

Question 139
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as standing crop.
Statement B: Bacteria and fungus occupy first trophic level in ecosystem

1)Both statements A and B are correct

2)Only statement A is correct
3)Only statement B is correct
4)Both statements A and B are incorrect

Question 140
Process of decomposition is slow if

1)Optimum temperature and moisture is present

2)Detritus contains more of lignin, chitin and tannins
3)Detritus contains more amount of water soluble carbohydrates
4)Detritus possesses more amount of nitrogenous compounds
Question 141
Match list I with list II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II
A. Secondary productivity (i) It is an available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs
B. Primary production (ii) It is the sum of NPP and respiratory losses
The amount of biomass produced per unit-area over a time period by plants during
C. Net primary productivity (iii)
photosynthesis
Gross primary
D. (iv) Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers
productivity
1)A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
2)A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
3)A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
4)A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

Question 142
Transducers are
(a) Capable to degrade dead bodies
(b) Photosynthetic organisms
(c) Exemplified by molluscs
(d) Also known as converters
(e) Autotrophs
The correct ones are

1)(a), (b), (c) and (d)

2)(b), (c), (d) and (e)
3)(b), (d) and (e)
4)(a), (c), (d) and (e)

Question 143
“Frugivorous birds are found in large numbers in tropical forest”
Choose the most appropriate reason for the above statement.

1)Lack of niche specialisation

2)Availability of fruits throughout the year
3)Temperature of tropical-regions is optimum only during their breeding season
4)Due to occurrence of minimum annual rainfall

Question 144
The historic convention on Biological Diversity “The Earth Summit” in 1992

1)Was held in Johannesburg, South Africa

2)Was held to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization for its benefits
3)Was held for taking immediate steps to discontinue use of CFC that are damaging the ozone layer
4)Was called to assess threat which was posed to native species by invasive weed species

Question 145
The IUCN Red List (2004) contains information on

1)All economically important plants only

2)The extinction of 784 species in last 500 years
3)Only threatened aquatic species
4)Only those plant species that will become extinct after 500 years
Question 146
Given are the sets of conservation approaches and the example of method of conservation.
(a) Ex situ conservation - Biosphere reserve
(b) In situ conservation - National parks
(c) Ex situ conservation - Wildlife safari park
(d) In situ conservation - Zoological park
The correct ones are

1)(a) and (c)

2)(b) and (d)
3)(a) and (d)
4)(b) and (c)

Question 147
A conservative and scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May places the global species diversity at about

1)1.5 million
2)20 million
3)7 million
4)50 million

Question 148
The term which was popularised to describe the combined diversity at all levels of biological organization is given by

1)Edward Wilson
2)David Tilman
3)Paul Ehrlich
4)Alexander von Humboldt

Question 149
Read the following statements.
Assertion (A): India is one of the 12 mega diversity countries of the world.
Reason (R): India has 2.4% of world's land area and its share of the global species diversity is 8.1%.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 150
Choose the correct ascending order of organisms w.r.t. the estimated number of species found in Amazon Forest.
(a) Reptiles
(b) Invertebrates
(c) Birds
(d) Amphibians
(e) Fishes

1)(a) < (c) < (d) < (b) < (e)

2)(a) < (d) < (c) < (e) < (b)
3)(d) < (a) < (e) < (b) < (c)
4)(a) < (d) < (e) < (b) < (c)
Question 151
The techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans are included in

1)Tissue culture
2)Evolutionary biology
3)Biotechnology
4)Palaeontology

Question 152
‘The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues for products and services’.
The above given definition of biotechnology was proposed by

1)GEAC
2)WHO
3)CDRI
4)EFB

Question 153
All of the following techniques help to overcome the limitations of traditional hybridisation procedures and allow us to isolate and introduce only one
or a set of desirable genes into the host, except

1)Gene transfer
2)Micropropagation
3)Gene cloning
4)Creation of rDNA

Question 154
For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism it needs to be the part of a chromosome which has a specific sequence known as

1)Restriction site
2)Origin of replication
3)Repressor of primer
4)Selectable marker gene

Question 155
Select the correct option to complete the analogy.
Flies : Dipterans :: Mosquitoes : ____________

1)Lepidopterans
2)Dipterans
3)Coleopterans
4)Crustaceans

Question 156
The total number of recombinant therapeutics that have been approved for human-use the world over is

1)30
2)12
3)27
4)21
Question 157
The recombinant therapeutics are preferred over the similar products isolated from non-human sources as

1)The production of former is cheaper

2)There are lesser chances of contamination in latter
3)Former do not induce unwanted immunological responses which is common in latter
4)Mass production is not possible in case of former

Question 158
The total number of intrachain disulfide bond(s) in the mature insulin is ___ the number of intrachain disulfide bond(s) in pro-insulin.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

1)Thrice
2)Twice
3)Half
4)Equal to

Question 159
Early detection of HIV is possible by using

1)Conventional methods of disease diagnosis

2)Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay
3)Urine analysis
4)Serum analysis

Question 160
Which among the following is not used as a cloning vector?

1)Disarmed retrovirus
2)Bacteriophage
3)Meloidogyne
4)Modified Ti plasmid

Question 161
Consider the following steps of rDNA technology and select the one that has to be done before the ligation of desired DNA with the cloning vector.

1)Transformation of the host cell

2)Culturing of host cells at large scale
3)Restriction enzyme digestion
4)Addition of preservatives to the product

Question 162
Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement (A): Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of polio vaccine.
Statement (B): More than 99 % of all the existing transgenic animals are rabbits.

1)Both statements (A) and (B) are correct

2)Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
3)Only statement (A) is correct
4)Only statement (B) is correct
Question 163
The stickiness of the overhanging stretches of the DNA at the ends obtained after RE digestion, facilitates the action of

1)DNA polymerase
2)Restriction exonuclease
3)Deoxyribonuclease
4)DNA ligase

Question 164
If one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA, it should be cloned in a vector

1)That lacks the restriction sites

2)That has no selectable marker genes
3)That exhibits the multiple cloning sites of a single restriction enzyme
4)Whose origin supports high copy number

Question 165
Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement (A): Scientists have succeeded in culturing meristems of banana and sugarcane.
Statement (B): Virus-free plants can be obtained by removing the axillary meristem of a diseased plant and growing it in-vitro.

1)Both statements (A) and (B) are correct

2)Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
3)Only statement (A) is correct
4)Only statement (B) is correct

Question 166
Genetic modification has helped in all of the following, except

1)Making crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses

2)Increased reliance on chemical pesticides
3)Enhancing nutritional value of the food
4)Increasing efficiency of mineral usage by plants

Question 167
Natural Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants in order to provide resistance against

1)Insects
2)Fungi
3)Rodents
4)Viruses

Question 168
Select the incorrect match.

1)PvuII – Restriction site present in rop gene of pBR322

2)Beetles – Belong to the order Coleoptera
3)cryIIAb gene – Controls the corn borer
4)Transposons – Mobile genetic elements
Question 169
All of the following are correct for EcoRI, except

1)It produces sticky ends after digesting a DNA fragment.

2)It recognises the recognition sequence, 5' GAATTC 3’.
3)It is the first restriction enzyme isolated from strain Rd of Escherichia coli
4)Its recognition sequence is present in pBR322

Question 170
Comprehend the following w.r.t. Taq polymerase and select the incorrect one.

1)Used in extension step of PCR

2)Cannot withstand the temperature higher than 45°C
3)Thermophilic in nature
4)Adds nucleotides to the 3’ - OH end of the growing DNA strand

Question 171
In genetic engineering, elution is a step in which there is

1)Breakdown of nucleic acid in fragments

2)Cutting of the desired DNA bands from the agarose gel and their extraction
3)Separation of DNA fragments over a glass rod in the form of spool
4)Insertion of rDNA fragments within the host cell

Question 172
If a researcher wishes to amplify a dsB-DNA fragment to obtain approximately 1 billion copies of it for his research, then the number of PCR cycles
to be performed in the laboratory should be

1)Twenty
2)Ten
3)Nine
4)Thirty

Question 173
Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Bacteriophages (i) Gene therapy
b. Retroviruses (ii) Infect the bacteria
c. DNA ligase (iii) Molecular glue
d. Restriction enzymes (iv) Molecular scissors
1)a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
2)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
3)a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
4)a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
Question 174
If a gene encoding the enzyme β-galactosidase is inserted within the selectable marker gene of the plasmid of E.coli then, in the presence of a
chromogenic substrate

1)Non-recombinant colonies will produce the blue colour

2)All transformants will remain white due to inactivation of selectable marker gene
3)Recombinant colonies will be blue in colour
4)Non- transformants will appear pink in colour

Question 175
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is called

1)Somatic hybridisation
2)Totipotency
3)Micropropagation
4)Polymerisation

Question 176
Read the following statements.
Statement A: The main challenge for producing human insulin by genetic engineering was getting insulin assembled into mature form.
Statement B: Naturally mature insulin is formed after removal of C-chain from proinsulin.
Select the correct option.

1)Only statement A is correct

2)Only statement B is correct
3)Both the statements A and B are correct
4)Both the statements A and B are incorrect

Question 177
Which among the following methods involve silencing of a specific mRNA due to formation of dsRNA molecule formed by binding of anti-sense RNA
molecule to the target mRNA?

1)RNA interference
2)Gene cloning
3)Autoradiography
4)Gene flow

Question 178
Assertion (A): Deoxyribonuclease cannot be used in order to extract DNA from a fungal cell.
Reason (R): Deoxyribonuclease catalyses the hydrolysis of phosphodiester linkage, thus degrades DNA.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true, (R) is false
4)(A) is false, (R) is true
Question 179
If a DNA fragment is obtained after the action of restriction enzyme ‘PstI’, then for its successful ligation, cloning vector has to be cleaved using

1)PstI
2)PvuII
3)BamHI
4)ClaI

Question 180
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. gel electrophoresis.

1)The most commonly used matrix is obtained from sea weeds.

2)The DNA fragments separate according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel.
3)The wells are created near to the anode.
4)The smaller the DNA fragment, the farther it moves from the cathode.

Question 181
The role of the stirrer in the stirred-tank bioreactor is to

1)Withdraw the small amount of culture periodically

2)Act as a foam control system
3)Control the pH and temperature of the culture
4)Facilitate even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor

Question 182
Which among the following is the part of upstream processing?

1)Separation and purification of the product

2)Formulation of preservatives in the product
3)Strict quality control testing
4)Maintenance of cells in their physiologically most active phase

Question 183
How many of the following is/are the direct method(s) of gene transfer?

Biolistics, Disarmed retrovirus mediated, Microinjection, Electroporation

Select the correct option.

1)Three
2)Two
3)Four
4)One
Question 184
Choose the incorrect statement.

1)GEAC stands for Genetic Engineering and Agricultural Committee.

2)α-1-antitrypsin is used for the treatment of emphysema.
3)A single stranded nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called probe.
4)HIV in suspected AIDS patients can be detected by using PCR.

Question 185
Select the correct statement.

1)The normal E.coli cells carry ampR and tetR genes.

2)Presence of selectable marker gene helps in eliminating the non-transformants.
3)The copy number of plasmids is higher than that of bacteriophages.
4)Salmonella species were used as the host by Eli Lilly to produce human insulin

Question 186
The enzyme that helps in cutting the DNA at specific positions belongs to the class

1)Transferases
2)Hydrolases
3)Dehydrogenases
4)Ligases

Question 187
Assertion (A): Bacteria can be made to carry genes coding A and B chains of insulin for the synthesis of human insulin.
Reason (R): Genetic code is nearly universal.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) correctly explains (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3)(A) is true, (R) is false
4)(A) is false, (R) is true

Question 188
Consider the plasmid given below.

If the plasmid is digested using the restriction enzyme ‘P’, then _______ fragment(s) of _____ will be obtained.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks respectively.

1)Two; 4 kb and 10 kb
2)Three; 4 kb, 3 kb and 7 kb
3)One; 14 kb
4)Two; 7 kb and 7 kb
Question 189
A foreign DNA is ligated at PvuI site of the pBR322, followed by the successful transformation of the host cell.
Which of the following observations is true for the above scenario?

1)All the transformants are resistant to ampicillin

2)Recombinants grow on the medium containing tetracycline
3)Non-transformants become ampicillin resistant
4)Non-recombinants are sensitive to the tetracycline

Question 190
A bacterial cell protects its own DNA from the restriction enzymes by

1)Adding methyl groups to adenine and cytosine

2)Using DNA polymerase to elongate itself
3)Using alkaline phosphatase to prevent the recoiling
4)Adding primers to 5' end of DNA

Question 191
Which among the following is the most suitable method to introduce a particular piece of DNA into a cell of an animal?

1)The use of gene gun

2)Infecting the animal with Ti plasmid
3)Directly injecting the DNA into the nucleus
4)The use of biolistics

Question 192
Today, transgenic models exist for which of the following human diseases?
(a) Cancer
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Alzheimer's disease
Select the correct option.

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(a), (b) and (c)

Question 193
How many of the features given below is/are correct for ‘Rosie’?
(a) It was the first transgenic sheep produced in 1997.
(b) The milk produced by it was enriched in human alpha lactalbumin.
(c) The protein content per litre of milk was 0.24 mg.
(d) The milk produced by it was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies, than the natural cow-milk.
Choose the correct option.

1)Two
2)Three
3)One
4)Four
Question 194
Consider the following w.r.t. HindII.
(a) Isolated from the bacteria that belongs to the genus ‘Haemophilus’
(b) Recognises a recognition sequence of four bps
(c) Produces blunt ends
Select the option with correct set.

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(a), (b) and (c)

Question 195
Bioremediation can be defined as the method of

1)Breeding crops to increase their nutritional value

2)Regeneration of whole plant from explant
3)Producing therapeutics for the treatment of diseases
4)Use of microorganism’s metabolism to remove pollutants

Question 196
Golden rice is genetically modified and is enriched in the precursor of

1)β- galactosidase
2)Vitamin A
3)Vitamin B12
4)α-lactalbumin

Question 197
The first clinical gene therapy was given in ______ to a ____ girl with ADA deficiency.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks respectively.

1)1963; 14 year old

2)1990; 4 year old
3)1997; 4 year old
4)1990; 14 year old

Question 198
During chemical transformation, the heat shock is given to the bacterial cells while incubating with DNA at _______while the temperature required
for the denaturation of the DNA in PCR is ______.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks respectively.

1)42°C; 94°C
2)72°C; 45°C
3)94°C; 50°C
4)42°C; 72°C
Question 199
How many of the following is/are correct w.r.t. Bt toxin?
(a) In Bacillus thuringiensis, it exists as protoxin
(b) Alkaline pH of dipteran’s gut favors its activation
(c) The activated toxin binds to mesothelial cells of foregut
Choose the correct option.

1)Zero
2)Two
3)One
4)Three

Question 200
Select the incorrect statement.

1)Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects several dicot plants.

2)Agrobacterium tumefaciens transforms normal plant cells into cancerous cells.
3)Ti plasmid is isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
4)T-DNA is isolated from Thermus aquaticus.