AIET-2-G12-PCM

Test Code: JS-MT-01-24

1. Answering Instructions:
The total number of questions to be answered is 180.
For MCQs, choose the one correct option from the given choices.
For integer-type questions, write the integer value as your answer.
2. Marking Scheme
Each correct answer will be awarded +4 marks.
Each incorrect answer will result in a deduction of 1 mark (-1).
No marks will be awarded or deducted for unattempted questions.
3. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):
■ Physics: Questions 1-20
■ Chemistry: Questions 30-50
■ Mathematics: Questions 60-80
4. Integer Type Questions:
■ Physics: Questions 21-30
■ Chemistry: Questions 51-60
■ Mathematics: Questions 81-90
■ Out of these 10 integer-type questions, at most 5 questions can be attempted in each subject

Duration: 180 minutes Total Marks: 300

Physics
2

Q1: If E = energy, G = gravitational constant, I = impulse and M = mass, then dimensions of GI M

E
2
are same
as that of
A. Time B. Mass
C. Length D. Force

Q2: Consider the following velocity and time graph.

Which one of the following is the value of average acceleration from 8 seconds to 12 seconds?

A. 8 ms −2
B. 12 ms −2

C. 2 ms −2
D. −1 ms −2

Q3: In the arrangement as shown, tension T is (g = 10 m/s

2
2
)

A. 50 N B. 100 N
C. 50√3 N D. 100√3 N

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Q4: A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force of 3N is applied on
the block. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block is 0.6. What should be the minimum
value of force P , such that the block does not move downward?
(take g = 10 ms )
−2

A. 32 N B. 18 N
C. 23 N D. 25 N

Q5: Two boys each of mass 10 kg are sitting on the opposite ends of a horizontal beam of mass 12 kg and length
2m. The beam is rotating about a vertical axis through its centre at 5rev/min. The angular momentum (in J -s)

of the system about the axis of rotation is :-

A. π B. 2π
C. 4π D. 15π

Q6: Assertion: The artificial satellite does not have any fuel but even then it remains orbiting around the earth.
Reason: The necessary centripetal force required to move the satellite in an orbit around the earth is provided by
the gravitational force of attraction between the satellite and the earth.

A. Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is a correct B. Assertion is true, reason is true; reason is not a
explanation for assertion. correct explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is true, reason is false. D. Assertion is false, but reason is true.

Q7: Two bars A and B of circular cross-section and of same volume and made of the same material are
subjected to tension. If the diameter of A is half that of B and if the force applied to both the rods is the same
and it is in the elastic limit, the ratio of extension of A to that of B will be

A. 16 : 1 B. 8 : 1
C. 4 : 1 D. 2 : 1

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Q8: A liquid X of density 3.36 g cm is poured in a U –tube, which contains H g. Another liquid Y is poured in
−3

the left arm with height 8 cm, upper levels of X and Y are the same. What is the density of Y ?

A. 0.8 g cm −3
B. 1.2 g cm −3

C. 1.4 g cm −3
D. 1.6 g cm −3

Q9: A mass m is suspended separately by two different springs in successive order, then time period is t and t 1 2

respectively. If m is connected by both springs as shown in figure, then time period is t , the correct relation is
0

A. t 2
0
= t
2
1
+ t
2
2
B. t −2

0
= t
−2

1
+ t
−2

C. t −1

0
= t
−1

1
+ t
−1

2
D. t 0
= t1 + t2

Q10: The surface charge density of a thin charged disc of radius R is σ. With respect to the field at the centre,
the electric field along the axis at a distance √3R from the centre of the disc :

A. reduce by 70% B. reduce by 29.3%

C. reduce by 86.6% D. reduce by 13.4%

Q11: A Gaussian surface in the figure is shown by dotted line. The electric field on the surface will be

A. due to q and q only 1 2 B. due to q only 2

C. zero D. due to all

Q12: A charge q is placed at the face centre of a regular cube of side length l. The electric flux passing through
the cube is

A. ε0
q
B. q

2ε 0

C. D.
q q

8ε 0 24ε 0

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Q13: Two equal point charges are fixed at x = −a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is placed at
the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distance x along the
x-axis, is approximately proportional to (x ≪ a)

A. x B. x 2

C. x 3
D. 1

Q14: In the network shown in the Fig, each resistance is 1Ω. The effective resistance between A and B is

A. 4

3
Ω B. 3

2
Ω

C. 7Ω D. 8

7
Ω

Q15: Six wires each of resistance r, are connected so as to form a tetrahedron. The equivalent resistance of the
combination when current enters through one corner and leave through some other corner is

A. r B. 2r
C. r

3
D. r

Q16: Statement I : The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals.
Statement II : The temperature coefficient of resistance for insulator is also positive.

A. Statement I is True, Statement I is True; Statement B. Statement I is True, Statement II is True; Statement
II is a correct explanation for Statement I. II is NOT a correct explanation for Statement I.
C. Statement I is True, Statement II is False. D. Statement I is False, Statement II is True.

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Q17: In the given network, the value of C, so, that an equivalent capacitance between A and B is 3μF is:

A. 36 μF B. 48 μF
C. 31

5
μF D. 1

5
μF

Q18: A capacitance of 2μF is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0kV . A large number of
1μF capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not more than 300V .

The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is:

A. 2 B. 16
C. 24 D. 32

Q19: A 1 μF capacitor is charged by 100V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to
another uncharged 1 μF capacitor. The percentage of energy lost in form of heat and electromagnetic radiation
is

A. 25% B. 30%
C. 60% D. 50%

Q20: Assertion : If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is tripled,
then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
Reason : Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material filled between the plates.

A. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the B. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
C. The Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. D. Both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

Q21: An infinite number of charges each having magnitude equal to 2μ C, are placed along X-axis at
1m, 2m, 4m, . . . and so on such that the consecutive charges have opposite signs. At, x = 0 electric potential is
α

times the electric field intensity. Then the value of β − α is,

Q22: During an adiabatic expansion, a gas does 50 J of work against the surroundings. It is then cooled at
constant volume by removing 20 J of energy from the gas. The magnitude of the total change in internal energy
of the gas is x J . The value of x is

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→ = A(x^i + y^j) the potential at a point (10 m, 20 m) is zero, then the

Q23: In a space having electric field E
potential at the origin is [A = 10 V m ] −2

Q24: The plates of parallel plate capacitor are charged upto 100 V . Now after removing the battery a 2 mm
thick plate is inserted between the plates. Then to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between
the plates is increase by 1.6 mm. The dielectric constant of the plate is

Q25: A battery of internal resistance 4Ω is connected to the network of resistances as shown. In order that the
maximum power can be delivered to the network, the value of R in Ω should be

Q26: A particle is moving on a circular path of radius 100

√ 19
m in such a way that magnitude of its velocity varies
with time as v = 2t 2
, where v is velocity in m/s and t is time in s. The acceleration (in m/s ) of the particle at
+ t
2

t = 2s is

Q27: A ball is projected with a certain speed from a point on the ground which is at a distance of 30 m from a
vertical wall. If the angle of projection is 45 with the horizontal, the ball just clears the top of the wall and
∘

strikes the ground at a distance of 10 m from the wall on the other side. The height of wall is h. Find 10h. (Take
−2
g = 10 ms )

Q28: A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards by applying a force by hand. If the hand moves 0.2 m.
while applying the force and the ball goes upto 2 m height further. Find the magnitude of force (Consider
g = 10 m/s )
2

Q29: In the circuit shown below, the ammeter reading is zero. Then, the value of the resistance R is

Q30: Four bulbs of different power readings are arranged in a circuit as shown below

The resultant power of combination if rated voltage is applied across the combination is __________ W .

Chemistry

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Q31: Ionic radii (A ∘

) of Sb 3+
, Bi
3+
and As 3+
follow the order

A. Sb 3+
> Bi
3+
> As
3+
B. Bi 3+
> As
3+
> Sb
3+

C. Bi 3+
> Sb
3+
> As
3+
D. As 3+
> Sb
3+
> Bi
3+

Q32: The correct melting point order for group-15

A. N < P < As > Sb > Bi B. N < P < As < Sb < Bi

C. N > P > As > Sb > Bi D. N > P > As < Sb < Bi

Q33: Which of the following statements is/are true for group-15 elements

A. Group-15 included nitrogen, phosphorus, arsenic, B. As we go down the group, there is shift from non
antimony and bismuth metallic to metallic character
C. Nitrogen and phosphorus are non metals, arsenic
and antimony are metalloids and bismuth is a typical D. All of the above
metal

Q34: With increase in molecular weight the boiling point of halogens increase, it happen because -

A. Van der waal's forces increase with increase in B. bond strength increases due to increase in electron
number of electron per mole. negativity.
C. with the increase in size, molecules undergo
D. None of the above.
association leading to higher stability.

Q35: In which of the following groups, when H e is placed, its all the properties are satisfied.

A. with alkali metals B. with halogens

C. with inert gases D. none of these

Q36: The solubility product in terms of molar solubility 's' for solubility of H gCl , in a saturated solution is: 2

A. 27s 3
B. 4s 3

C. s 2
D. 2s 2

Q37: What are the signs of ΔH and ΔS for the following reaction?
2C (s) + O 2 (g) → 2CO (g)

A. ΔH = −ve, ΔS = −ve B. ΔH = −ve, ΔS = +ve

C. ΔH = +ve, ΔS = +ve D. ΔH = +ve, ΔS = −ve

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Q38: Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container :

N 2 O 4 (g)⇌2N O 2 (g)

At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this change, which of the following
statements holds true regarding the equilibrium constant (K ) and degree of dissociation (α)?
p

A. neither K nor α changes

p B. both K and α change
p

C. K changes, but α does not change

p D. K does not change, but α changes
p

Q39: In the chemical reaction, A ⇌ B, the system will be in equilibrium when

A. 50% of A changes to B B. A completely changes to B

D. The rate of conversion of A to B and B to A is the
C. Only 10% of A changes to B
same

Q40: An alkene upon ozonolysis gives one molecule each of formaldehyde, acetaldehyde and methyl glyoxal
(CH COCH O). The parent alkene is :
3

A. B.

C. D.

Q41: Using M O theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length?

A. O +
2
B. O −
2

C. O 2−
2
D. O 2+
2

Q42: Which of the following pairs of properties usually do not show the same increasing / decreasing behaviour on
moving from left to right in a period? (Ignore singular exceptions)

A. Nuclear charge and electron affinity B. Ionization energy and electron affinity
C. Atomic radius and electron affinity D. None of the above

Q43: An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its K. E. changes from x to x

4
. Then, what is change in
P. E

A. 3

2
x B. −3

2
x

C. −3x

4
D. −6

7
x

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Q44: 5-Bromo-2-cyclopropyl cyclohex-2-enol have correct structure is:

A. B.

C. D.

Q45: The decreasing order of nucleophilicities of the following is:

⊖ ⊖ ⊖ ⊖
(I ) Br (I I ) M eO (I I I ) M e 2 N (I V ) M e 3 C

A. (I ) > (I I ) > (I I I ) > (I V ) B. (I V ) > (I I I ) > (I I ) > (I )

C. (I V ) > (I I I ) > (I ) > (I I ) D. (I I ) > (I ) > (I I I ) > (I V )

Q46: On heating pure limestone dissociates as CaCO (s) → CaO(s) + CO (g). If 200 g of limestone is heated
3 2

in an open container, compute the reduction in its weight. ( Atomic mass of Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

A. 44 g B. 88 g
C. 156 g D. 112 g

Q47: The decreasing order of oxidation number of M n in the given compound is

I. K M nO
2 4

II. M n O 2 5

III. M nO −

IV. M nCl is 2

A. IV > II > III > I B. IV > III > II > I

C. III > I > II > IV D. IV > II > I > III

Q48: 58.5 g of N aCl and 180 g of glucose were separately dissolved in 1000 ml of water. Identify the correct
statement regarding the elevation of boiling point

A. N aCl solution will show higher elevation of boiling B. glucose solution will show higher elevation of
point. boiling point
C. both the solutions will show equal elevation of D. the boilding point elevation will be shown by none
boiling point of the solutions

Q49: The van't Hoff factor of BaCl at 0.01 M concentration is1.98 the percentage of dissociation of BaCl at
2 2

this concentration is

A. 49 B. 69
C. 89 D. 98

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Q50: What is the freezing point of a solution containing 8.1 g H Br in 100 g of water assuming the acid to be 90%
ionised? (K for water = 1.86 K kg mol )
f
−1

A. 3.534 ∘
C B. −3.53 C
∘

C. 0 ∘
C D. −0.35 ∘
C

Q51: Vapour pressure of pure A is 70 mm of H g at 25 C . If forms an ideal solution with B in which mole
∘

fraction of A is 0.8. If the vapour pressure at solution is 84 mm of H g at 25 C . Then determine vapour pressure
∘

of pure B in mm of H g ?

Q52: The difference between the boiling point and freezing point of an aqueous solution containing sucrose
(molecular weight = 342 g mol ) in 100 g of water is 105.0 C . If K and K of water are 1.86 and 0.51 kg mol
−1 ∘
f b
−1

respectively, the weight of sucrose in the solutin is about

Q53: A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point = 271 K and freezing point of pure
water is 273.15 K . The freezing point of a 5% solution (by mass) of glucose in water is

Q54: Ʌ of 0.10N solution of CaI is 100.0Scm eq at 298K .Cell constant of the cell= 0.25cm . The current
eq 2
2 −1 −1

x will flow when the potential difference between the electrode is 5V .Calculate the value of 10x?

Q55: The resistance of a 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found to 210 ohm at 298 K using a conductivity
cell with a cell constant of 0.88 cm . Calculate equivalent conductance of solution.
−1

Q56: The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L −1

s
−1
at 10 min and 0.03 mol L −1
s
−1
at 20 min after initiation.
If half life of the reaction is x min, then find . x

(Write your to the nearest integer)

Q57: Three particles of a solute, A. associate in benzene to form species A . Calculate the freezing point of 0.25
3

molar solution. The degree of association of solute A is found to be 0.08, the freezing point of benzene and its
any oscopic constant are 5.5 C and 5.12 km , respectively.
∘ −1

(nearest integer value )

Q58: A radioactive element gets spilled over the floor of a room. It's half-life is 30 days. If the initial activity is
ten times the permissible value, after how many days will it be safe to enter the room?

Q59: A second order reaction requires 70 min to change the concentration of reactants from 0.08 M to 0.01 M .
The time required to become 0.04 M = x min. Find the value of x.

Q60: In milk, at 37 C , lactobacillus acidophilus has a generation time of about 75 min. Calculate the population
∘

(X) relative to the initial value at 30 minutes in the form of 100X.

Maths
Q61: If f (x) = (2k + 1)x − 3 − ke −x
+ 2e
x
is monotonically increasing for all x ∈ R, then the least value of k is

A. 1 B. 0
C. − 1

2
D. -1

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A. 5
C. 1

Q63: Let f

f (x) = ⎨

Then f

A. −1
C. 0

C. 2 3
⎩

Then, f is :

A. k = 8!
⎪
Q62: How many real solutions does the equation x

⎧5,

a + bx,

b + 5x,

30,

× 3
−1

(2010)
(0) =

C. At most one Δ
4
: R → R

A. continuous if a = 5 and b = 5
C. continuous if a = 0 and b = 5

Q64: If y = tan

A. tan
C. 2 tan
−1
(n)

(n)
−1
if

if

if

if

1+x+x
be a function defined as :

1
x ≤ 1

1 < x < 3

3 ≤ x < 5

x ≥ 5

2 + tan
−1
2
1

x +3x+3
+ tan
AIET-2-G12-PCM

−1

Q65: Let f (x) be a function which is differentiable any number of times and f (2x

(Here, f (x) = nth order derivative of f (x))

(n)

Q66: If (1 + √1 + a) tan α = 1 + √1 − a, then sin 4α =

A. a/2
C. a 2/3

when repetition of digits is allowed, is

A. 2 3
× 3
2

i
3

= 0
1 2
k

non-zero real numbers a , a , a , . . . . . . . . , a . Then

3 9
7
+ 14x

2
x +5x+5

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B. 7
D. 3

B. 1
+ 16x
3
+ 30x − 560 = 0

B. continuous if a = −5 and b = 10

D. data is insufficient

B. a
D. 2a

Q67: The number of four digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 that are divisible by 3,

B. 2
D. 2

B. ∑ Δ
i=1
k
3

4
× 3

× 3

Q68: Let Δ , Δ , Δ , . . . . . . , Δ be the set of all third-order determinants that can be made with the distinct
1

D. None of these
3

= 0
2
have?

D. not continuous for any values of a and b

+ ….+

B. tan
D. 0
−1
(2n)
upto 2n terms (∀x ≥ 0), then y(0) is

3
− 1) = 2x f (x), ∀x ∈ R .

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Q69: The eccentricity of the conic 4x 2

+ 16y
2
− 24x − 32y = 1 is

A. 1/2 B. √3
C. √3/2 D. √3/4

Q70: If f (x) = max{ x

n
, | sin πx|}, n ∈ N has maximum points of non-differentiability for x ∈ (0, 4), then n
cannot be

A. 4 B. 2
C. 5 D. 6

Q71: Let A = (a ) and B = (b ) , where b = . Number of such matrices A whose elements are
a ij +a ji
ij 3×3 ij 3×3 ij ∀i, j
2

selected from the set {0, 1, 2, 3} such that A = B, are

A. 2 9
B. 2 12

C. 2 6
D. 2 8

Q72: Let f : R → R be a function defined by f (x) = −x − 3x − 6x + 1. Number of integers in the solution set
3 2

of x satisfying the inequality f (f (x + f (x))) ⩾ f (f (−f (x) − x )) is

3 3

A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6

Q73: The coefficient of variation of two series are 70 and 90 and their standard deviation are 17.5 and 18,
respectively. The mean of two series are

A. 25, 20 B. 18, 22
C. 22, 18 D. 16, 24

Q74: If a = cos , then the value of ( is

3n
4π 4π 1+a
+ i sin )
3 3 2

A. (−1) n
B.
(−1)

2
3n

C. 2
1
3n D. (−1) n
+ 1

Q75: For a positive integer m, if lim (x

3
ln (
x+1

x
) +
x

2
− x ) =
2

m
1
. Then the value of m is
x→∞

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

Q76: Let P (x) = x − x − x − x − x & Q(x) = x − x

6 5 3 2 4 3
− x
2
− 1. If α, β, γ and δ are the roots of Q(x) = 0
then the value of P (α) + P (β) + P (γ) + P (δ) is equal to

A. 4 B. 6
C. 8 D. 12

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Q77: If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = 5, then the value of |2A | is ′

A. −10 B. 10
C. −40 D. 40

Q78: The function f (x) = sin −1

(2x − x ) + √2 −
2 1

∣x∣
+
1
2
[x ]
is defined in the interval (where [⋅] is the greatest
integer function)

A. x ∈ (1 − √2, 1) B. x ∈ [1, 1 + √2]

C. x ∈ [1 − √√2, 1 + √2] D. x ∈ [1 − √2, 2]

11 11
Q79: If the coefficient of x in [ax 7 2
+ (
1

bx
)] equals the coefficient of x −7
in [ax − ( 1

bx
2
)] , then a and b satisfy
the relation

A. a + b = 1 B. a − b = 1
C. ab = 1 D. a

b
= 1

Q80: If a, b, c are in G.P. and log c

a, log b c, log a b are in A. P. , then the common difference of the A.P. is

A. 3 B. 3/2
C. 1/2 D. 2/3

Q81: Which term is of the least positive value if first two terms of A.P are 12

23
and 2

5
respectively.

55
1 1

Q82: The number of terms which are free from radical signs in the expansion of (x 5 + y 10 ) is

Q83: Let X = {n ∈ N : 1 ≤ n ≤ 50}. If A = {n ∈ X : n is a multiple of 2} and B = {n ∈ X : n is a multiple of 7}

, then the number of elements in the smallest subset of X containing both A and B is __________.

Q84: If sin θ

cos 3θ
+
sin 3θ

cos 9θ
+
sin 9θ

cos 27θ
=
1

A
[tan Bθ − tan Cθ] then 27A − B − 27C is

Q85: If A is an invertible matrix of order 3 and B is another matrix of the same order as of A, such that
|B| = 2, A |A|B = A|B|B . If |AB | = K , then the value of 16 K is equal to
T T −1 T −1
adj(A B)

Q86: If the range of f (x) =

4 2
2x −14x −8x+49
4 2
x −7x −4x+23
is (a, b], then (a + b) is

Q87: Number of integral values of k for which the equation 4 cos −1

(−|x|) = k has exactly two solutions, is

Q88: Let f (x) = tan x − 3tan x + 1, ∀x ∈ [−

3 2 π

4
,
π

4
]. Then, the positive difference between the least value and
the local maximum of the function is

Q89: Two roads OA and OB intersect at an angle of 60 . A car driver approaches O from A where OA = 800 m
∘

at a uniform speed of 20 m/sec. Simultaneously another car moves from O towards B at a uniform speed of
25 m/sec. If t is the time when the two cars are closest. then [t] is equal to ([x] means greatest integer less than
2

or equal to x)

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Q90: Let [t] denote the greatest integer ≤ t. The number of points where the function
f (x) = [x]|x
2
− 1| + sin (
π

[x]+3
) − [x + 1], x ∈ (−2, 2) is not continuous is __________.

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