1. Which one the following statement is true regarding to the Ohm’s law?

A. All resistors not obey Ohm’s law

B. Linear resistor does not obey Ohm’s law
C. Ohm’s law say that the Voltage (v) across a resistor is directly proportional to the
resistance of resistor (R)
D. For variable resistor, its current-voltage characteristic is always linear
Answer A
2. Carefully look at the following circuit in figure below. Which of the following is NOT true on
the arrangement of electrical circuit element.

A. There is no independent current source in the circuit

B. There is one dependent current source in the given circuit
C. The dependent source is Current-Controlled voltage source
D. There is current-controlled current source
Answer C
3. The charge entering the positive terminal of an element is q = 5 sin (4πt) mC while the voltage
across the element (plus to minus) is v = 3cos(4πt)V. What is the total energy delivered to the
element between 0 and 6 s.
A. 18J
B. 18πJ
C. 17πJ
D. 5J
Answer B
4. The current that enters an electrical circuit element is given in the Figure below. What is the
charge that enters the element in the time interval of 0 < t < 30s is
 i (t)mA

10

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 t (ms)
(t)
A. 0.105C
B. 0.75C
C. 0.2C
D. 0.175C
Answer D
5. The direction of mesh current in the following circuit is given. What is the current (I) flowing
through the 1 resistor

A. 1.188A
B. 2.25A
C. 3.187A
D. 1.8A

Answer A

6. Which of the following is true about fundamental circuit theorems (Thevenin and Norton
theorem)
A. Originally the theorem was developed to analysis the complex circuit such as the circuit
contain active element
B. The theorems are applicable for the circuit which contain passive and active components
but they must be linear circuit
C. The theorems are applicable only to the linear resistive and reactive circuits
D. Power dissipation for the Thevenin circuit is always the same as that of the real system
Answer C
7. What is the open circuit voltage Voc at terminals a and b of the circuit in the figure

A. 8V
B. 12V
C. 4V
D. 10V
Answer B

8. Which of the following is Not true regarding to the impedance of the circuit
A. Impedance Z of a circuit is the ratio of the phasor voltage V to the phasor current I
B. Impedance represents the opposition that the circuit exhibits to the flow of sinusoidal current
C. Impedance is sinusoidally varying quantity
D. Impedance has both real and imaginary parts

Answer C

9. The Mesh current I2 in the circuit given in the figure below is__

A. 6.12 ∠−35.22° A
B. 6.12 ∠ 144.78 ° A
C. 416.17 ∠−35.22 ° A
D. 5.969 ∠ 65.45 ° A
Answer A
 10. Amongst the following expression which one is false?

A. t2δ(t) = 0
B. sin(t)δ(t−π) = δ(t−π)
C. cos(t)δ(t) = δ(t)
∞
D. ∫ (2t +1) δ(t)dt =1
2

−∞

Answer B
11. Given the signal x(t), which of the following is true for signal x(3t + 6)?
A. x(t) shifted to the left by six units
B. x(t) is expanded by a factor of 3 and then shifted right by four units
C. x(t) is reflected about the vertical axis and then shifted 4.
D. x(t) is compressed by a factor of 3 and then shifted left by two units
Answer D
12. Continuous time system is described by y(t) =cos x(t) + 3sin x(t − 2).which one of the following
is correct about y(t)
A. Causal and with memory
B. Noncausal and with memory
C. Only Memoryless
D. with memory and non-causal
Answer A
13. The equivalent mathematical expression of the discrete time unit step signal in figure below is
_____________
U[n]

A. u[n]-4u[n]
B. u[n]-u[n-4]
C. u[n]-u[n+4]
D. u[n]-r[n-41
Answer B
14. What is the Laplace transform of the signal in Figure shown below?
 A. 1/s-a
B. 1/s
C. 0
D. 1/s+a
Answer D
15. The z-transform of the sequence shown in Figure below is____

A. 2z + z2
B. 2z−1 + z−1
C. 2z−1 + z−2
D. z−1 + 2z−2.
Answer C

16. Given the Signal x (t )=U ( 3 t ) +¿ δ(t-2). The Fourier transform X (ω) which transform the
signal from time domain to frequency domain can be computed as
A. πδ(ω) + 1/jω
B. 1/3 [e- j2ω + π δ(ω /3)+1/ jω]
C. 2πδ(ω)
D. e- j2ω + 1/3[π δ(ω /3)+1/ jω]
Answer D
17. Given the signals δ (t - 3) and 2sinωot. What is the Fourier transform of this signal respectively
A. 1 and 4πδ(ωo)
B. e - j3ω and 2πj[δ(ω + ω0) - δ(ω - ω0)]
C. 1 and 2π[δ(ω + ω0) +δ(ω - ω0)]
D. e j3ω and 2π[δ(ω - ω0) +δ(ω +ω0)]
Answer B
18. When the excitation is a current source and the response is a voltage then the system function is
______
A. Admittance
B. Impedance
C. Voltage-ratio transfer function
D. Current-ratio transfer function
Answer A
19. A network function is said to have simple pole or simple zero if
A. The poles and zeroes are on the jω axis
B. The poles and zeroes are on the real axis
C. The poles and zeros are not repeated
D. The poles and zeroes are complex conjugate to each other
Answer C
20. If the given network is reciprocal, then according to the reciprocity theorem h-parameters
A. h12 +h21=0
B. h12−h21=0
C. h12 h21=h11 h 22
D. B and C are the answer
Answer A

21. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a terminated two-port network?

A. For an open circuited output Z L → ∞ , Z ¿=z 11
∆z 1
B. For a short-circuited output Z L =0 , Z ¿ = =
z 22 y 11
 C. For an open circuited input Z L → ∞ , Z ¿=z 22
D. All of the above are true
Answer D
22. Transient phenomena occur whenever
A. There is a sudden change in the applied voltage from one finite value to another
B. A circuit is suddenly connected or disconnected from the supply
C. A circuit is short-circuited
D. All
Answer D
23. A Hurwitz polynomial has
A. Zeros only in the left half of the s-plane
B. Poles only in the left half of the s-plane
C. Zeros anywhere in the s-plane
D. Poles on the jω axis only
Answer B
24. If a filter is de-normalized to a higher frequency, which of the following occurs
A. Inductors increase in value while capacitors decrease
B. Inductors and capacitors increase in value
C. Inductors and capacitors decrease in value
D. Inductors decrease in value while capacitors increase
Answer D
V 2(S ) S2 + δ
25. The voltage ratio transfer function of an active filter is given by = . The circuit
V 1(S ) S2 +αS + δ
question is _________
A. Band pass filter
B. Band reject filter
C. High pass filter
D. Low pass filter
Answer B
26. The time measurement between the 90% point on the trailing edge of a pulse to the 10% point on
the trailing edge of the pulse is called the__________

A. rise time
B. fall time
 C. period
D. pulse width

Answer B

27. Assume that a floating-point number is represented in binary. If the sign bit is 1, the
A. number is negative
B. number is positive
C. exponent is negative
D. exponent is positive

Answer A

28. To implement the expression the type of gate that is needed is

A. 3-input AND gate from OR gates
B. 3-input NAND gate from NOR gates
C. 3-input OR gate from AND gates
D. 3-input NOR gate from NAND gates

Answer C

29. Assume you want to decode the binary number 0011 with an active-HIGH decoder. The missing gate
should be
A. an AND gate
B. an OR gate
C. a NAND gate
D. a NOR gate

Answer A

30. The circuit shown is equivalent to an

A. AND gate
A
B. XOR gate
C. OR gate
B
D. none of the above
 Answer C
31. How many AND gates are required to construct a 4 – bit parallel multiplier if four 4 – bit parallel
binary adders are given?
A. Four 2 – input AND gates
B. Eight 2 – input AND gates
C. Sixteen 2 – input AND gates
D. Two 2 – input AND gates

Answer C

32. The Q0 output of the counter shown

A. is present before Q1 or Q2
B. has a higher frequency than Q1 or Q2
C. changes on every clock pulse
D. all of the above

HIGH

J Q0 J Q1 J Q2
0 1 2
CL C C C

K Q0 K Q1 K
0 1 2
Answer D

33. Assume the output of the following PET J-K flip-flop is initially HIGH. On which clock pulse will the
output of the flip-flop go from HIGH to LOW?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Answer B

34. The depletion region of a semiconductor diode is due to

 A. reverse biasing
B. crystal doping
C. forward biasing
D. migration of mobile charge carriers

Answer D

35. The process of converting ac to pulsating dc is called

A. clipping
B. charging
C. rectification
D. filtering

Answer C

36. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier with a 60 Hz sinusoidal input is

A. 30 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 120 Hz
D. 0 Hz

Answer C

37. During the positive half-cycle of the input voltage in a bridge rectifier,
A. one diode is forward-biased
B. all diodes are forward-biased
C. all diodes are reverse-biased
D. two diodes are forward-biased

Answer D

38. If the base current of a Bipolar junction transistor operating in the linear region increases,
A. the collector current increases and the emitter current decreases
B. the collector current decreases and the emitter current decreases
C. the collector current increases and the emitter current does not change
D. the collector current increases and the emitter current increases

Answer D
 39. When an n-channel JFET is biased for conduction, the gate is
A. positive with respect to the source
B. negative with respect to the source
C. positive with respect to the drain
D. at the same voltage as the drain

Answer B

40. In a class-A amplifier, conduction extends over 360° because Q-point is

A. located on load line
B. located near saturation point
C. centered on load line
D. located at or near cut-off point

Answer C

41. Cascading two amplifiers will result in

A. reduction in overall gain and increase in overall bandwidth.
B. reduction in overall gain and reduction in overall bandwidth
C. increase in overall gain increase in overall bandwidth
D. increase in overall gain and reduction in overall bandwidth

Answer C

42. The amplifier in which the emitter and collector leads of one transistor are connected to the base and
collector leads of a second transistor is .
A. push-pull amplifier
B. Darlington amplifier
C. differential amplifier
D. complementary amplifier
Answer B
43. What is the difference between struct and class in C++?
A. All members of a structure are public and structures don’t have constructors and destructors
B. Members of a class are private by default and members of struct are public by default. When
deriving a struct from a class/struct, default access-specifier for a base class/struct is public and
when deriving a class, default access specifier is private
 C. All members of a structure are public and structures don’t have virtual functions
D. All of the above
Answer B
44. What is the return value of f(p, p) if the value of p is initialized to 5 before the call? Note that the
first parameter is passed by reference, whereas the second parameter is passed by value.
int f(int &x, int c)
{
c = c - 1;
if (c == 0) return 1;
x = x + 1;
return f(x, c) * x;
}
A. 3024
B. 6561
C. 55440
D. 161051
Answer B
45. How can we restrict dynamic allocation of objects of a class using new?
A. By making an empty private new operator
B. By overloading new operator
C. By making an empty private new and new[] operators
D. By overloading new operator and new[] operators
Answer C
46. Which of the following is true about this pointer?
A. It is passed as a hidden argument to all function calls
B. It is passed as a hidden argument to all non-static function calls
C. It is passed as a hidden argument to all static functions
D. None of the above
Answer B

47. What is the output for the following program?

#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int fun(int x = 0, int y = 0, int z)
 { return (x + y + z); }
int main()
{
cout << fun(10);
return 0;
}
A. 10
B. 0
C. 20
D. Compiler Error
Answer D
48. What is the output for the following program?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int x = 1;
void fun()
{
int x = 2;
{
int x = 3;
cout << ::x << endl;
}
}
int main()
{
fun();
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
Answer A
49. What is the value of p in the following C++ code snippet?

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int p;
 bool a = true;
bool b = false;
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
p = ((x | y) + (a + b));
cout << p;
return 0;
}
A. 12
B. 0
C. 2
D. 16

Answer D

50. Which concept allows you to reuse the written code in C++?
A. Inheritance
B. Abstraction
C. Polymorphism
D. Encapsulation
Answer A
51. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because
A. It sends data as a stream of related packets.
B. All UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer B
52. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted pair cable?
A. Outer conductor
B. Diameter of cable
C. Insulating material
D. Inner conductor
E. None
Answer A
53. Which among the following is true about transport protocol?
 A. It provides Recovery from packet losses
B. It detects duplicate packets
C. It ensures the Packet delivery in the correct order
D. It ensure end to end connectivity
Answer A
54. Which of the following devices understands the format and contents of the data and translates
messages from one format to another?
A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Gateway
D. Router
E. All of the above
Answer C
55. Which of the following are incorrect about routing algorithms?
A. Distance vector routing algorithm requires more bandwidth whereas link state routing
requires less bandwidth.
B. Traffic in distance vector routing is less as compared to link state routing
C. Count to infinity problem is present in both DVR as well as LSR.
D. Periodic updates is done in DVR protocol
E. B and C
Answer E
56. Switching technique that used the entire capacity of a dedicated link is _________
A. Circuit switching
B. Datagram packet switching
C. Message switching
D. Virtual circuit packet switching
Answer C
57. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different
propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal.
A. Distortion
B. Fluctuation
C. Attenuation
D. Weakening
E. None of the above
 Answer A
58. In shortest path routing algorithm, the path length is measured based on _______
A. Time delay
B. Last path
C. Size of routers
D. Number of hops
Answer D

59. A message signal m(t) = Amsin(2π fmt) is used to modulate the phase of a carrier Accos(2π fct) to get
the modulated signal y(t) = Accos(2π fct + m(t)). The bandwidth of y(t)
A. depends on Am but not on fm
B. depends on fm but not on Am
C. depends on both Am and fm
D. does not depend on Am or fm
Answer C
60. For a message signal m(t) = 2cos(2π fmt)) and carrier of frequency fc. Which of the following
represents a single side-band (SSB) signal?
A. cos(2π fct)
B. cos[2π(fc + fm)t]
C. cos(2π fmt)cos(2π fct)
D. [1 + cos(2π fmt)]cos(2π fct)
Answer C
61. Which of the following statement is not correct about amplitude modulation?
A. In the double sideband suppressed carrier (DSB-SC) modulation, if the message signal to be
transmitted is zero then the modulated signal becomes zero.
B. In the traditional AM case, when the message signal to be transmitted is zero then the
modulated signal becomes zero.
C. The efficiency of the vestigial sideband modulation technique is less than the single sideband
modulation technique.
D. None
Answer B

62. One of the primary benefits of FM over AM is its

A. line of sight transmission
 B. smaller bandwidth
C. lower signal-to-noise ratio
D. superior noise immunity

Answer D
63. Consider an angle modulated signal x(t) = 6cos[2π ×106t + 2sin(8000πt) + 4cos(8000πt)] V. The
average power of x(t) is
A. 10W
B. 18W
C. 20W
D. 28W
Answer B
64. The maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 33%
D. 100%
Answer C
65. One is not the device used to convert an electrical signal into another form of signal in a
communication system
A. LASER
B. Avalanche Photodiode
C. Speaker
D. LCD Screen
Answer B
66. Which of the following is the correct sequence of digital transmitter operation?
A. Information source=> Digital modulator => Source encoding=>Channel decoding =>Channel
B. Information source=>source encoding =>digital modulator=> Channel encoding=>Channel
C. Information source=>Source encoding=> Channel encoding=>Digital modulator => Channel
D. Information source=>Source encoding=> Digital modulator=>Channel=> Channel encoding
Answer C
67. As a communication engineer, you have requested an advice for a communication service provider.
The communication media owner wants to have a TV station that is transmitted through a satellite in
 a microwave frequency band using an operating frequency of 11,405 MHz. What type of propagation
mode these communication media must employ?
A. FM
B. LOS
C. Sky-Wave
D. AM
Answer B
68. Which of the following is not an impairment in analog communication systems?
A. Jitter
B. Noise
C. Inter-Symbol Interference
D. Interference
Answer C
69. One among the following produces an output SNR equal to the sum of the individual SNRs.
A. Scanning Diversity
B. Maximal ratio combining
C. Selection diversity
D. Equal gain Combining
Answer B
70. __________is caused by obstacles between the Tx and Rx that attenuate signal power through
absorption, reflection, scattering, and diffraction.
A. Shadowing
B. Multipath Fading
C. Path Loss
D. Jitter
Answer A
71. The coherence time of the channel is smaller than the symbol period of the transmitted signal in
A. Slow fading
B. Fast Fading
C. Flat fading
D. Frequency selective fading
Answer: D
72. Which one of the following outdoor propagation models is widely used for signal prediction in urban
area?
 A. Hata Model
B. Walfisch and Bertoni Model
C. Okumura Model
D. Langley-Rice Model
Answer C
73. MIMO technology belongs to which mitigation technique
A. Spatial Diversity
B. Frequency Diversity
C. Equalization
D. Channel Coding
Answer A
74. Which multiple access techniques necessarily requires duplexer?
A. TDMA
B. SPMA
C. CDMA
D. FDMA
Answer D
75. Consider Global System for Mobile, which is a TDMA/FDD system that uses 25 MHz for the
forward link, which is broken into radio channels of 200 kHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a
single radio channel, and if no guard band is assumed, find the number of simultaneous users that can
be accommodated in GSM.
A. 125
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 250
Answer B
76. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705
KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal?
A. 700 KHz
B. 705 KHz
C. 710 KHz
D. Cannot be determined from given information

Answer A
77. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly when we are using
two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature).
A. Amplitude and phase
B. Amplitude and frequency
C. Frequency and phase
D. None of the above

Answer A

78. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.

A. Digital-to-digital
B. Digital-to-analog
C. Analog-to-analog
D. Analog-to-digital

Answer C

79. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier signal are varied.

A. Frequency and amplitude C. Amplitude and phase

B. Phase and frequency D. None of the above

Answer C
80. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.

A. 300 C. 600
B. 400 D. 1200

Answer D
81. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate?

A. 300 C. 1000
B. 400 D. 12000

Answer D
82. Binary Huffman coding is a

A. Prefix condition code C. Prefix & Suffix condition code

B. Suffix condition code D. None of the mentioned
 Answer A
83. When X and Y are statistically independent, then I (x,y) is
A. 1
B. 0
C. Ln 2
D. Cannot be determined
Answer A
84. Waveguide can be considered as
A. Low pass filter
B. High pass filter
C. Band pass filter
D. None of the above
Answer B
85. The best medium for handling large microwave power is ___________________
A. Coaxial line
B. Strip line
C. Circular waveguide
D. Rectangular waveguide
Answer D

86. _________ of a wave is the velocity with which variation in the shape of modulation or envelope
of the wave propagates through the space
A. The group velocity
B. The phase velocity
C. The elliptical velocity
D. The circular velocity
Answer D
87. Power dividers or couplers are _________microwave components for power division or power
combining.
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Nonlinear
D. Linear
Answer A
88. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:
A. GaAs is cost effective
B. It less temperature sensitive
C. It has low conduction band electrons
D. Less forbidden energy gap
Answer D
89. The passive elements used to control the amount of microwave power transferred from one point
to another on microwave transmission line are called………………..
 A. Attenuator
B. Isolator
C. Circulator
D. Directional coupler
Answer A
90. The modes in a reflex Klystron
A. Are caused by spurious frequency modulation
B. Result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap
C. Give the same frequency but different transit times
D. Are just for theoretical considerations
Answer C
91. Microwave frequencies are used for communication with deep space probes primarily because
they do not suffer
A. Fading
B. Refraction by ionosphere
C. Attenuation in space
D. Velocity distortion and phase distortion
Answer B
92. Which of the following is considered as a disadvantage of klystron amplifier
A. Power gain is very low
B. The source power is high
C. Bandwidth is low
D. Complex type design
Answer C
93. Which of the following statement is true for field patterns?
A. It is a logarithmic graph plotted against the square of electric field function and magnetic field
function
B. It is a logarithmic graph plotted against the electric field function and magnetic field function.
C. It is a logarithmic graph plotted against the square of the magnitude electric field function and
magnetic field function.
D. It is a logarithmic graph plotted against the square of the magnitude of electric field and
magnetic field
Answer B
94. A receiving antenna in an airport has a maximum dimension of 3m and
operating at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the airport is 0.5 Km from the
antenna. The aircraft is in the far field region of the antenna.
A. True
B. False
C. Impossible to say
D. None of the above
Answer A
95. The electric field E and the magnetic field H of a short dipole antenna satisfy the condition
 A. The r component of E is equal to zero
B. Both r and 𝜃 components of H are equal to zero
C. The 𝜃 component of E dominates the r component in the far – field region
D. The 𝜃 and ∅ components of H are of the same order of magnitude in the near – field region
Answer B
96. If the diameter of a 𝜆/2 dipole antenna is increased from 𝜆/100 to 𝜆/50 then
A. Bandwidth increases
B. Bandwidth decreases
C. Gain decreases
D. Gain increases
Answer D
97. In a broad side array of 20 isotropic radiators, equally spaced at a distance of 𝜆⁄2, the beam width
between first nulls is
A. 51.3 degrees
B. 11.46 degrees
C. 22.9 degrees
D. 102.6 degrees
Answer B
98. A transverse electromagnetic wave with circular polarization is received by a dipole antenna. Due
to polarization mismatch, the power transfer efficiency from the wave to the antenna is reduced to
about
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 35.3%
D. 0%
Answer D
99. Spill over, four isotropic radiating elements are spaced 𝜆/4 apart. The progressive phase shift
between the elements required for forming the main beam at 600 off the end – fire is__________
A. -𝜋 𝑟𝑎𝑑
B. -𝜋/2 𝑟𝑎𝑑
C. -𝜋/4 𝑟𝑎𝑑
D. -𝜋/8 𝑟𝑎𝑑
Answer C
100. Which of the following reason is True for a radio path horizon to exceed the geometric path
horizon on radio wave propagation?
A. The radio wave skips the D-layer
B. The radio wave skips the F1-layer
C. The radio wave skips the E-layer
D. The radio wave can be bent
Answer D