Quantitative Analysis

Q1. After deducting a commission of 12%, a T.V costs Rs.13200. Its gross value is;
(a) 15860 (b) 16000 (c) 16400 (d) 15000

Q2. If A:B = 2:3, B :C = 4:5 and C:D = 2:1 ,then A:D is equal to:
(a) 6 : 7 (b) 16 : 15 (c) 8 : 15 (d) 15 : 4

Q3. A man's wages were decreased by 40%. Again the reduced wages were increased by 40%. He has a loss of:
(a) 0% (b) 2.5% (c) 16% (d) 25%

Q4. In a certain store, the profit is 300% of the cost. If the cost increases by 50% but the selling price remains constant-
approximately . What percentage of the selling price is the profit ?
(a) 30% (b) 70% (c) 100% (d) 62.50% (e) None

Q5. A, B, C enter into a partnership investing Rs. 40,000, Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 70,000 respectively. The respective shares of
A, B, C in an annual profit of Rs. 40,000are:
(a) Rs. 15,000, Rs.12,000 , Rs.13,000
(b) Rs. 10,000, Rs, 14,000, Rs. 16,000
(c) Rs. 11,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 15,000
(d) Rs.. 10,000, Rs. 12,500, Rs.17,500

Q6. The average age of 30 students of a class is 12 yr. The average age of a group of 5 of the students is 10 yr and that
of another group of 5 of them is 14 yr. what is the average age of the remaining students ?
(a)8 yr (b)10yr (c) 12 yr (d) 14 yr

Q7. A, B and C enter into a partnership. They invest Rs. 80,000, Rs. 1,60,000 and 2,40,000 respectively. At the end of the
first year, B withdraws Rs. 80,000. while at the end of the second year, C withdraws Rs. 1,60,000, In what ratio will the
profit be shared at the end of 3 years?
(a) 2 : 3 : 5 (b) 3 : 4 : 7 (c) 4 : 5 : 9 (d) 2 : 4 : 7 (e) None of these

Q8. How much rice at Rs 9.00 per kg should be mixed to 15 kg of rice, at Rs 15.00 per kg so as to make a mixture worth
Rs 11.00 per kg ?
(a) 30 kg (b) 24 kg (c) 32 kg (d) 28 kg

Q9. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 6: 8: 13.There is a proposal to increase these
seats by 40%, 50% and 60% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats ?
(a) 2 : 3 : 4 (b) 6 : 7 : 8
(c) 21 : 30 : 52 (d) None of these

Q10. What sum of money will fetch a simple interest of Rs 3900 for 2 1/2 yr at the rate of 13% per annum
(a) Rs 12600 (b) Rs 11800 (c) Rs 10400 (d) Rs 12000

Q11. Find the LCM of 4/3, 8/9, 3/5

(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 1/24 (d) 1/20
Q12. Find the LCM and HCF of 0.25, 0.5, 0.75
(a) 7.5, 0.05 (b) 0.75, 0.5 (c) 0.75, 0.05 (d) 7.5, 0.5

Q13. Find the least number which when divided by 15, 20 and 24 leaves 4 as remainder but when divided by 13 leaves
no remainder.
(a) 364 (b) 370 (c) 484 (d) 244

Q14. A train 320 m long is running at 80 km/h. In how much time will it pass a platform 280 m long ?
(a) 30 s (b) 24 s (c) 15 s (d) 27 s

Q15. A man can row in upstream at 10 kmph and downstream at 24 kmph. Find the man's speed in still water.
(a)7 kmph (b)10 kmph (c)14 kmph (d)17 kmph

Q16. A person crosses a 1200 m long street in 10 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
(a) 6 (b) 7.2 (c) 8 (d) 9

Q17. Anshu can do a job in 6 days and Anshu and Bahubali can do it together in 2 days. How many days will be taken by
Bahubali to do the job alone
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8

Q18. The average of 11 observations is 60. If the average of first five observations is 58 and that of the last five is 56,
then the sixth observation is
(a) 90 (b) 110 (c) 85 (d) 100

Q19. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 85 years. Five years ago, father’s age was two times the age
of the son. After 10 years. son’s age will be:
(a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 20 years (d) 40 years (e) None of these

Q20. A certain sum amounts to Rs 18600 in 4 yr and Rs 20400 in 6 yr under simple interest. Find the sum
(a) Rs 16780 (b) Rs 15450 (c) Rs 16000 (d) Rs 15000

Data Intrepretation
Direction for (Qs.21-24):Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number of trees planted (in Hundreds) by five different NGOs in six different years in two different states.
NGO A B C D E

Year State-A State-B State-A State,-B State-A State-B State-A State-B State-A State-B

2005 14.2 8.5 14.2 4.4 4.5 4.4 4.5 2.1 9.4 3.5

2006 21.6 5.4 7.9 7.2 6.9 4.4 5.4 4.3 7.2 4.7

2007 13.5 8.8 7.7 4.6 5.4 3.8 6.3 6.3 7.4 8.2

2008 12.4 9.6 10.4 6.4 7.2 8.2 9.6 4.4 5.6 4.2

2009 10.8 12.4 12.6 6.2 8.6 6.4 8.4 5.2 6.9 3.8
2010 12.2 14.2 7.5 4.2 11.3 9.3 6.3 5.4 12.8 6.4
21. What was the respective ratio between the number of trees planted by NGO -A in the year 2006 in state- A and the
number of trees planted by NGO-E in the year 2008 in state -B?
(a) 36: 11 (b) 36 : 7 (c) 11:7 (d) 14 : 9 (e) None

22. What was the average number of trees planted by NGO - B in the state - A over all the years together?
(a) 1005 (b) 1050 (c) 1015 (d) 1205 (e) None

23. What was the approximate percentage decrease in the number of trees planted by NGO-C in state - B in the year
2009 as compared to the previous year ?
(a) 28 (b) 22 (c) 26 (d) 16 (e) 20

24. Which NGO planted the second lowest number of trees in both the states together in the year 2009?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

Direction for (Qs.25-29) : Study the following table to answers the given questions.
Production (in lakh tonnes ) of six units of a company in 2001 and 2002
150
110 100 110 105
90 95 100 85 85
100 75 70
60
2001
50
2002
0
A B C D E F

25. What is the average production of all units (in lakh tonnes) for the year 2002 ?
(a) 89 (b) 92 (c) 87 (d) 95

26. Average production of three units A, B and C in 2001 is what percent of the average production of units D,E and F in
2002? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(a) 109.43 (b) 90.37 (c) 91.38 (d) 106.43

27. What is the ratio of total production for two years together for units B to that for C ?
(a) 79 : 13 (b) 11 : 13 (c) 19 : 13 (d) None of these

28. Total production for two years together by units F is what percent of the total production of the two years together
by units D ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal )
(a) 79.49 (b) 78.49 (c) 78 .47 (d) 79.29

29. What is the production of units C, D & E together for both the years ? (in lakh tonnes)
(a) 495 (b) 595 (c) 545 (d) 515
Direction for (Qs.30-34): Refer in the pie-chart given below :
1991-92 1990-91
Operating Profit 160 Lakh Operating Profit 130 Lakh

Tax Tax
12% 9%
Retained Interest
Intrest
Profit 30% Retaine
40%
20% d Profit
25%

Deprecia Dividend Depreci

tion 8% ation Dividend
20% 20% 8%

30. The operating profit in 1991-92 increased over than in 1990-91 by

(a) 23% (b) 22% (c) 25% (d) 24%

31. The Interest burden in 1991-92 was higher then that in 1990-91 by
(a) 50% (b) 22 lakh (c) 90% (d) 41 lakh

32. If on an average 20% rate of interest was charged on borrowed funds, then the total borrowed fund used by this
company in the given two year amounted to.
(a) 221 lakh (b) 195 lakh (c) 368 lakh (d) 515 lakh

33. The retained profit in 1991-92, as compared to that in 1990-91 was

(a) higher by 2.5% (b) higher by 1.5% (c) lower by 2.5% (d) lower by 1.5%

34. The equity base of these companies remained unchanged . Then the total dividend earning (in lakh rupees )by the
share holders in 1991-92 is
(a) 10.4 lakh (b) 9 lakh (c) 12.8 lakh (d) 15.6 lakh

Logical Reasoning
Directions (Q. 35-37) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Six girls are sitting in a circle. Siya is sitting opposite to Rekha. Pooja is sitting right of Rekha but left of Disha. Mona is
sifting left of Rekha. Komal is sitting right of Siya and left of Mona. Now Disha and Komal, Mona and Rekha mutually
exchange their positions.
35.Who will be opposite to Siya ?
(a) Rekha (b) Mona (c) Komal (d) Siya (e) None

36.Who will be sitting left of Komal?

(a) Pooja (b) Disha (c) Rekha (d) Siya (e) None

37.Who will be sitting left of Disha ?

(a) Siya (b) Mona (c) Rekha (d) Pooja (e) Can't be determined

Directions (Q. 38-40) : Read the information and answer the questions :
Six girls Amisha, Bulbul, Kiran, Diya, Esha and Payal are standing in a row. Bulbul is between Diya and Payal. Amisha does
not stand next to either Payal or Diya. Kiran does not stand next to Diya. Esha stands between Amisha and Kiran.
38.Payal stands between
(a) Bulbul and Kiran (b) Esha and Amisha (c) Diya and Bulbul (d) Amisha and Kiran (e) Can't be determined

39.Who occupy the extreme ends of the row ?

(a) Diya and Esha (b) Diya and Amisha (c) Amisha and Payal (d) Bulbul and Esha (e) None

40.Kiran stands between

(a)Payal and Bulbul (b)Payal and Diya (c)Payal and Esha (d) Esha and Amisha (e) None

Directions (Q. 41-43) : Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it. Six persons are sitting in a
circle. P is facing Q. Q is to the right of T and left of R. R is to the left of S. U is to the right of P. Now S exchanges his seat
with U, and T with Q.
41.Who will be sitting to the left of S ?
(a)Q (b)U (c)T (d) P (e) None of these

42.Who will be sitting to the left of R ?

(a) T (b) U (c) P (d) Q (e) Can't be determined

43.Who will be sitting opposite of P ?

(a) T (b) U (c) S (d) Q (e) None of these

Q44. Ranbir put his time piece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction
the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ?
(a)South-East (b)South (c)North (d)West

Q45. In as a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code?
(a)ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT (d) ALGRT (e) None of these

Q46. 2. 2, 6, 12, 20,……………, 42, 56, 72, 90

(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 30 (d) 12 (e) 23

Directions (Q. 47-50) : Read the following information and choose the right alternate for the questions given afterwards.
The sports week of an institute was organized from 19th to 26th of a month, 19th being a Wednesday. During that
period six games-Volleyball (V), Rugby Football (R), Table-Tennis (T), Kho-Kho (K), Handball (H) and Basketball (B) were
played, one game on each day. Further information :
(I) Handball was not played on the closing day, i.e., on 26th.
(II)Table-Tennis was played on the previous day of Volleyball.
(III)Basketball was not played either on Wednesday or Saturday.
(IV)No game was played on Thursday and Sunday.
(V) Kho-Kho was played on Monday.
(VI)There was a gap of two days between Volleyball and Basketball.
47.The sports week started with which game ?
(a) Table-Tennis (b) Volleyball (c) Kho-Kho (d) Handball (e) None of these

48.How many day's gap is, there between Handball and Basketball ?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Two (e) None
49.Which pair of games was played on Wednesday ?
(a)Handball and Rugby Football (b)Handball and Volleyball (c)Volleyball and Table Tennis
(d)Cannot be determined (e)None

50. Which game exactly precedes Kho-Kho ?

(a) Handball (b) Basketball (c) Volleyball (d) Table-Tennis (e) None of these

Reading Comprehension And Verbal Ability

Q. Is it just me, or is everybody out there looking for a quick fix? There is something highly compelling about the idea
that there is a secret switch we can flip to become suddenly smarter, to reveal cognitive abilities hidden inside each of
us. It is a notion that certainly has commercial appeal. Over just seven years, the games-maker Lumosity rocketed from
zero to 50 million users, promising rapid improvements in general intelligence by playing brain-training video games for
just a few weeks. Lumosity recently settled with the United States Federal Trade Commission for making unsupported
claims that its product was scientifically validated.‘Memory health’ nutritional supplements have sales of more than $1.5
billion, and ‘smart drugs’ – pills to enhance cognitive performance – have become prevalent on college campuses.
Purveyors of products based on subliminal messages promise to teach us foreign languages and cure our addictions
while we sleep. And makers of headgear that attaches electrodes to our scalps promise to rev up our brains to improve
gaming performance and other cognitive activities.
We have a long tradition of positivism, progressivism and self-improvement. Thomas Edison was convinced that human
existence could be dramatically improved with rapid technological innovation, and it is hard to dispute the
transformative value of electric light and recorded sound. Henry Wallace looked at the variable and unpredictable yields
of Iowa corn farmers and was convinced that scientific breeding and hybridisation could do better than allowing judges
to select the most attractive ears at corn shows. His hybrid corn transformed grain farming and launched him on a
political career that landed him as Franklin D Roosevelt’s vice president.
Some of this progressive self-improvement tradition is essential, and some is charming in a eccentric way. But part of
the drive to engineer a quick fix for what ails us is alarming and dangerous. Americans have endured generations of
rapid weight-loss schemes that don’t work and are often dangerous to health – especially diet pills from amphetamines
to fen-phen. As the pace of life continues to accelerate, there is increasing pressure for a quick fix to boost our cognitive
capacities – for study, for work and for recreation. So, is there anything out there that works?
51. Based on the passage, what can be said about the author’s style?
(a) Descriptive (b) Analytical (c) Argumentative (d) Data driven (e)Abstract

52. Why does the idea of a ‘quick fix’ seem favourable?

(a)We aspire to become great like Thomas Edison. (b)It seems to hold commercial appeal.
(c)Some desire to excel in gaming. (c)We seek to awaken our cognitive abilities.
(e)Some reckon that they can do better in life.

53. What is/are the underlying cause/s of the negative repercussions of a ‘quick fix’?
1.Inherent insecurities 2.Rapid technological innovation 3.Fast pace of life
(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) Only A (d) Only C (e) All A,B and C

Q. The implementation of the internet opened up the methods of communication in innumerable and unimaginable
ways to the benefit and detriment of society. The seemingly infinite amount of possibilities on the internet has
negatively affected society by helping users commit illicit activities with ease. For centuries, when someone thought
about piracy they thought about boats, the sea, and scurvy—not computers, the world wide web, and viruses. Today,
though, online piracy is significantly more detrimental than maritime piracy. Possibly the most ubiquitous and most
socially accepted illegal activity permitted on the internet is the piracy of entertainment, especially television and film.
While media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment industry, recent independent
studies have found that these concerns overstate how detrimental piracy is. To understand the effect that illegal
streaming and downloading has on society and media it is necessary to fully comprehend why people pirate, and the
economics behind piracy.
The distribution of pirates skews heavily to the left and to those with low incomes. Anyone who wants to end online
piracy needs to focus on young adults, the demographic with the highest proportion of pirates by a significant
margin.There have been many case studies and surveys with the intention to pinpoint the factors that lead young
people to illegally download and stream. One of the most common justifications is that the activity is so rampant that
one additional pirate causes no damage. Other common reasons include the lack of availability at a low cost and the
desire “to see rare and new movies”. Since the vast majority of students are in this demographic, it is logical to reason
that people who cannot afford to buy or rent TV shows and movies are going to find other, cheaper means to stream
and download. Other reasons for the propensity of college-aged students to pirate are their technological savviness, the
internet age they grew up in, and the lack of law enforcement
It is a common misconception that those who illicitly download and stream would be paying customers in a pirate-free
world. Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naïve to assume they would alternatively pay for content,
and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future. Currently piracy
on the internet is far too ubiquitous to completely remove, and government intervention has failed miserably so far.
Even if it was possible to completely eliminate piracy there would be certain benefits to both producers and consumers
that would be lost. To best manage piracy, it is imperative to fully understand how much piracy truly costs the economy
and to know exactly what benefits may be produced. In order to maximize societal utility and end piracy without losing
out on its many benefits, media producers need to increase the legal streaming options via an “a la carte” system.
54. The passage supports the following statements, except:
(a) The internet has positively and negatively impacted society.
(b) Cyber crimes are rampant and government intervention has failed.
(c) Piracy is ubiquitous and prevalent among youngsters.
(d) The entertainment industry is most affected by online privacy.
(e) Online piracy is a unanimously accepted criminal activity.

55. Which of the following weakens the stance on young adults?

(a) They are technologically savvy and unstirred by legal retribution.
(b) They cannot afford the cost invoked by the entertainment industry.
(c) They resort to legal alternatives such as online streaming.
(d) There is a possibility of them becoming paying customers in future.
(e) They practice online piracy since everyone else is doing the same.

56. “Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naïve to assume they would alternatively pay for content, and
that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future.”
Which of the following can be deduced from the given text?
A. Free access to content doesn’t mean that people will eventually pay for it.
B. Only certain demographics indulge in online piracy. C. Free access will entice more people.
(a) Only A (b) Only C (c) Both A and C (d) A, B and C (e) None of the above

Direction (Q 57-58): Give the Synonym

57. INCONGRUOUS
(a) Inconceivable (b) Inevitable (c) Inconsistent (d) Incontrovertible
58. SLIPSHOD
(a) Vulgar (b) Careless (c) Common place (d) Retaliatory

Direction (Q 59-60): Give the Antonym

59. PALTRY
(a) obsolete (b) cautious (c) random (d) plentiful

60. PROPENSITY
(a) disinclination (b) forecast (c) stagnation (d) restlessness

Direction (Q 61-66) Give the correct preposition

61. David cleaned his room by stuffing everything his bed.
(a) In (b) On (c) Under (d) Along

62 We often go fishing the river bank.

(a) Towards (b) Inside (c) Along (d) Around

63. The lecture will be held right the tutorial.

(a) At (b) Before (c) Over (d) Beyond

64. John needs to submit the report his boss before 5 pm.
(a) At (b) To (c) Of (d) On

65. ames’ wife accused him cheating.

(a) Up (b) To (c) With (d) Of

66. Kathleen apologized her brother’s poor behaviour.

(a) For (b) In (c) Off (d) At

Direction (Q 67-71) In the given sentence replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct
67. Thew small child does whatever his father was done.
(a) has done (b) did (c) does (d) had done

68. You need not come unless you want to.

(a) You don't need to come unless you want to
(b) You come only when you want to
(c) You come unless you don't want to
(d) You needn't come until you don't want to

69. There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short names only
(a) initials (b) signatures (c) pictures (d) middle name

70. I need not offer any explanation regarding this incident - my behaviour is speaking itself.
(a) will speak to itself (b) speaks to itself (c) has been speaking (d) speaks about itself
71. He is too important for tolerating any delay.
(a) to tolerate (b) to tolerating (c) at tolerating (d) with tolerating

Verbal Reasoning
Direction (Q 72-75) In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed
by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

72. Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes.
Conclusions: 1. Some mangoes are green.
2. Tixo is a yellow.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

73. Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions: 1. All the flutes are instruments.
2. All the harmoniums are flutes.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

74. Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples.
Conclusions: 1. All the apples are parrots.
2. Some ants are apples.

(a) Only (1) conclusion follows

(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

75. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.
Conclusions: 1. Some pens are pencils.
2. Some pens are papers.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

Direction (Q 76-78) In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of
them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
76. Statements: Government has spoiled many top ranking financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as
Directors of these institutions.
Conclusions: 1. Government should appoint Directors of the financial institutes taking into consideration the expertise
of the person in the area of finance.
2. The Director of the financial institute should have expertise commensurate with the financial work
carried out by the institute.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

77. Statements: The old order changed yielding place to new.

Conclusions: 1. Change is the law of nature.
2. Discard old ideas because they are old.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

78. Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing
countries in days to come.
Conclusions: 1. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
2. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality
of life.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

Direction (Q 79-81) Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.

79. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its energy requirements?
Arguments: 1. Yes, Most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.
2. No. Harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India lacks in.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong
80. Statement: Should there be students union in college/university?
Arguments: 1. No. This will create a political atmosphere in the campus.
 2. Yes, it is very necessary Students are future political leaders.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

81. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first tried out on sample
basis before giving licence for sale to general public in India?
Arguments: 1. Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is
necessary.
2. No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

Direction (Q 82-85) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement,
decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

82. Statement: Since its launching in 1981, Vayudoot has so far accumulated losses amounting to Rs 153 crore.
Courses of Action: 1. Vayudoot should be directed to reduce wasteful expenditure and to increase passenger
fare.
2. An amount of about Rs 300 crore should be provided to Vayudoot to make the airliner
economically viable.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

83. Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive
to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from
January this year.
Courses of Action: 1. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
2. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows
84. Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of the country.
Courses of Action: 1. Government should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to
 those affected.
2. Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these areas to save the people and
cattle.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

85. Statement: A large number of people die every year due to drinking polluted water during the summer.
Courses of Action: 1. The government should make adequate arrangements to provide safe drinking water to all its
citizens.
2. The people should be educated about the dangers of drinking polluted water.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. Naidu cup belongs to which game –
(a) Chess (b) Carrom (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton

87. Hook pass terminology belongs to which sports –

(a) Football (b) Handball (c) Basketball (d) Rugby

88. Hockey is the national sports of –

(a) India and Bangladesh (b) India and Pakistan (c) India (d) India and Nepal

89. Eden Gardens cricket stadium is in –

(a) Lucknow (b) Allahabad (c) Noida (d) Calcutta

90. Number of players in one team of Kho Kho are –

(a) 9 (b) 15 (c) 12 (d) 13

91. Football was inducted as a competitive game in Olympics in year –

(a) 1908 (b) 1918 (c) 1940 (d) 1952

92. National Sports of China is –

(a) Carom (b) Table Tennis (c) Badminton (d) Chess

93. Canada Cup belongs to which sports –

(a) Golf (b) Hockey (c) Polo (d) Horse Polo

94. Westchester Cup belongs to –

(a) Horse Polo (b) Hockey (c) Polo (d) Golf
95. Ghulam Ahmed Trophy belongs to which sports –
(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) Football (d) Golf

96. Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is related to which among the following Sports?
(a) Badminton (b) Hockey (c) Table Tennis (d) Golf

97. Sachin Tendulkar hit his 100th international century against which among the following team?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh (c) Pakistan (d) South Africa

98. THE WORLD BENEATH HIS FEET is a Biography of?

(a) Pulela Gopichand (b) Nawab Pataudi (c) Ajit Wadekar (d) Sachin Tendulkar

99. Who among the following was the first Indian sportsman to boycott the Olympic torch relay in support of the
Tibetan independence movement.?
(a) Baichung Bhutia (b) Dhanraj Pillay (c) Chandu Borde (d) Dibyendu Barua

100. Which among the following is played on a synthetic hard court?

(a) French Open (b) Wimbledon (c) US open (d) Australia open

101. Murugappa Gold Cup is related to which among the following sports?
(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Cricket (d) Table Tennis

102. With which among the following sports, Ian Thorpe is related to?
(a) Athletics (b) Boxing (c) Swimming (d) Racing

103. Which of the following trophies is related with the game of ‘Football’?
(a) Mumbai Gold Cup (b) Everest Cup (c) Merdeka Cup (d) V.C.C. Cup

104. How many number of Red Balls are in Snooker?

(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 20

105. The name of Professor Guru Dutt Sondhi is known behind the foundation of which among the following?
(a) Olympic Association of India (b) Asian Games Federation (c) Indian Premier League (d) Indian Badminton League

106. Who among the following is the first Indian to score a century in Indian Premier League (IPL)?
(a) Gautam Gambhir (b) Manish Pandey (c) Sachin (d) Rahul Dravid

107. “Magnus Carlsen” is a player of which among the following sports / games?
(a) Cricket (b) Carrom (c) Chess (d) Tennis

108. The terms “Technical foul” and “Flagrant Foul” are most commonly associated with which of the following sports?
(a) Table Tennis (b) Badminton (c) Basket Ball (D) Football

109. Birdie” and “Eagle” are two terms related to which of the following sports?
(a) Polo (b) Golf (c) Chess (d) Billiards
110. Who among the following was first Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna?
(a) Viswanathan Anand (b) Geet Sethi (c) Karnam Malleswari (d) Nameirakpam Kunjarani

111. Which country will host Cricket World Cup 2019 ?

(a) England (b) Australia (c) New Zealand (d) South Africa

112. The distance of a marathon run is –

(a) 18 miles 385 yards (b) 26 miles 385 yards (c) 18 miles 985 yards (d) 26 miles 985 yards

113. Somdev Devburman, who has recently announce retirement belongs to which game/sports –
(a) Table Tennis (b) Football (c) Lawn Tennis (d) Golf

114. Magnus Carlsen, the distinguished chess player belongs to which country –
(a) Norway (b) Philippines (c) Canada (d) Argentina

115. Who has won Men’s Single Title of Qatar Open Tennis Championship 2017 –
(a) Andy Murray (b) Kei Nishikori (c) Andre Agassi (d) Novak Djokovic

116. Which Chinese E-Commerce firm has become top sponsor of Olympic Games through 2028 –
(a) Alibaba group (b) Snapdeal (c) Nykaa (d) Myntra

117. Who has been named the world’s best player at the inaugural best FIFA football awards 2016 in Zurich Switzerland
(a) Lionel Messi (b) Cam Newton (c) Luis Suarez (d) Cristiano Ronald

118. Which football player has been voted as the best playmaker in the world for 2016 –
(a) Harry Kane (b) Lionel Messi (c) Paul Pogba (d) Marcelo Vieira

119. The word “Agricultural shot” is known to be used sometimes in which among the following sports?
(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) Golf (d) Polo

120. Which among the following country is the host of 2018 Commonwealth Games?
(a) Canada (b) England (c) Australia (d) India
 Quantitative Analysis
Q1. (d) 88 ----------- 13200
13200×100
100 ------------- 88
= 15000

Q2. (b) A B C D
2 3 3
4 4 5
8 12 15 15
2 2 2 1
16 15

Q3. (c) Let wages=100 100-40=60

60+24=84 loss=100-84=16%

Q4. (d) CP=100 SP=400 New CP=150

250
P% on SP= 400 × 100 = 62.5%

Q5. (d)PSR between A,B,C= 4:5:7

4
A’s Share=16×40,000=10,000
5
B’s Share=16×40,000=12,500
7
C’s Share=16×40,000=17,500

Q6. (c) 30× 12 = 360 5 × 14=70

5 ×10=50 =>240/20=12

Q7. (b)PSR between A:B:C=80×3:160×1+80×2:240×2+80×1

So, A:B:C = 3:4:7
15−11 4
Q8. (a) 11−9 = 2 ;
4∗15
2-------15 kg 4-------- ? => = 30 kg
2

Q9. (c) M P B
600 : 800 : 1300
240 : 400 : 780
840 : 1200 : 2080 => 21:30:52

1
Q10. (d) Total Interest=13× 2 2 = 32.5%
32.5-----3900
3900×100
100------- 32.5 = 12000

Q11. (b) By option 24

𝐿𝐶𝑀 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑢𝑚 24
=
𝐻𝐶𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜 1

Q12. (a) 0.25 .5 .75

25 5 75
100 10 100
LCM=7.5 HCF= .05
Q13. (a) By option 364
Q14. (𝑑) 320+280 = 80 × 5 => 𝑇 = 27 𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑇 18

Q15. (𝑑) 10+24 = 17 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ

2
1200 18
Q16. (b) 10×60 = 2𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 2× 5 = 7.2 km/hr

Q17. (𝑏) 1 + 1 = 1 => 1 = 1 − 1 => 1 = 2 => 𝐵 = 3days

6 𝐵 2 𝐵 2 6 𝐵 6

Q18. (a) 11× 60 = 660 => 5 × 58 = 290 =>

5 ×56=280 => 90

Q19. (d) F+S=85

2x+x=75 x=25 25+15=40

Q20. (d) Difference of interest=20400-18600=1800(2 years)

Amount after 4 yrs=18600-3600 (4 yrs interest)
P=15000
Data Intrepretation
(Qs.21-24)
21. (b) Required ratio 21.6 : 4.2 = 36 : 7
14.2+7.9+7.7+10.4+12.6+7.5 60.3×100
22. (a) Required average = ( )× 100 = = 1005
6 6

8.2−6.4
23. (b)Required percentage decrease = ( 8.2
)× 100 = 22

24. (d) Number of trees planted in 2009 :

NGO - A => (10.8 + 12.4) Hundred = 2320 NGO - B => (12.6 + 6.2) Hundred = 1880 NGO - C => (8.6 + 6.4) Hundred
= 1500
NGO - D => (8.4 + 5.2) Hundred = 1360 NGO - E => (6.9 + 3.8) Hundred = 1070 Note : It is obvious from the table.
There is no need of calculations.

(Qs.25-29)
(110+60+110+100+105+85) 570
25. (d) Average = = 6
= 95lakh tonnes
6

(90+75+100) 265
26. (c) Average production of units A, B & C in 2001= 3
= 3
(100+105+85) 290 265×3
Average production of units D,E & F in 2002 = 3
= 3
Required % = 3×290 × 100 = 91.38%

27. (d) Total production by unit B in 2001 & 2002 together = 75+60=135 lakh tonnes 135 9
Total production by unit C in 2001 & 2002 together = 100+110=210 lakh tonnes Required ratio = 210 = 14

28. (a) Total production by units F in year 2001 & 2002 together = 70+85=155 lakh tonnes 155
Total production by unit D in year 2001 & 2002 together = 95+100=195 lakh tonnes Required % = (195 ×
100)=79.487=79.49

29. (b) Required production = 100 + 110+95+100+85+105=595 lakh tonnes

(Qs.30-34)
160−130 300
30. (a) Increase in operating profit = 130 × 100 = = 23%
13

31. (b) Interest burden increase = 0.4×160-0.3× 130=64-39=25 lakhs

0.3×130 0.4×160
32. (d) Borrowed funds in 1990-91 =
0.2
= 195lakhs Borrowed funds in 1991-92 = 0.2
= 320lakhs
Total=320+195=515.

33.
0.5
(d) Retained profit in 1990-91 = 0.25×130 = 32.5 Retained profit in 1991-92 = 0.2×160=32 Reduction =
× 100 = 100 = 1.5%
32.5 65

34. (c) Dividend earning in 1991-92=0.08×160=12.8

Logical Reasoning
(Q. 35-37): After changing their positions as given in the question, we have the order of sitting of persons as given in the
figure.
Mona Rekha

Pooja Disha

Komal Siya

35. (b) Mona is sitting just opposite to Siya.

36. (a) Pooja is sitting just left of Komal.

37. (a) Siya is sitting just left of Disha.

(Q. 38-40): On the basis of the informations as given in the question, we have the arrangement of standing as per figure.
∣──------─∣-----------∣-----------∣----------∣----------∣
Diya Bulbul Payal Kiran Esha Amisha
38. (a) Payal stands between Bulbul and Kiran.

39. (b) From the figure, it is clear that Diya and Amisha occupy the extreme ends of the row.

40. (c) Kiran stands between Payal and Esha.

(Q. 41-43) : After interchanging the positions of S with U, and T with Q as per information, we have the sitting
arrangement as given in figure
S P

Q U

T R
41. (d) It is clear from the figure that P is to the left of S.

42. (a) T is sitting to the left of R.

43. (a) T is sitting opposite to P.
Q44. (d) West
 S 12

E9 W3

6N

Q45. (c) From the coding pattern, it is clear that code for 2 is A, for 3 is L, for 5 is G, for 4 is U and for 9 is T So, 23549 will
be coded as ALGUT.

Q46. (c) Series moves with the increasing difference by 2 i.e., 4,6,8, 10,12, Therefore, missing number will be 30.

Directions (Q. 47-50)

After substituting information given in No. (I), (III), (IV) and (VI), we find that Basketball can be played either on Friday or
Tuesday. Now from the information (VI), which states that there is a gap of two days between Volleyball and Basketball,
it is found that this condition is complied with only if Basketball is played on Tuesday and Volleyball is played on
Saturday. Since as per information Table Tennis is played on the previous day of Volleyball, hence Table Tennis is played
on Friday.
47. (d) From the table, we conclude that Handball is played on Wednesday, the opening day.

48. (c) The gap between Handball and Basketball is of 5 days.

49. (a) From the table, we find that Handball and Rugby Football are played on two Wednesdays.

50. (e) Kho-Kho is played on Monday. From the information, no game is played on Sunday. Since Sunday exactly
precedes Monday, hence Kho-Kho will be preceded by rest day on which no game is played.

Reading Comprehension And Verbal Ability

51. (a): A descriptive passage is a narration of certain event or situation or action.
In analytical passages, the author presents the reader with an analysis on the subject.
In argumentative passages, the subject is usually an issue that has two sides to it.
Data driven passages are generally statistical in nature and may consist of numerical analysis.
Abstract passages highlight hypothetical ideas and opinions.
Since the passage talks about a host of different strategies to boost your brain function, it is descriptive in nature.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

52. (d): Option 1 is too extreme as the example of Thomas Edison is given in a different context in the passage.
Option 3 is specific to gaming.
In comparison to option 2, option 4 is presented in the passage as more of a primary reason behind pursuing a 'quick fix'.
Option 5 is very broad and can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

53. (b) : Statement A can be interpreted as an underlying cause from, “But part of the drive to engineer a quick fix for
what ails us is alarming and dangerous.” The phrase “what ails us” hints at the insecurities that we seek to reform.
Statement B cannot be associated with the negative repercussions of ‘quick fix’.
Statement C can be inferred as an underlying cause from, “As the pace of life continues to accelerate, there is increasing
pressure for a quick fix to boost our cognitive capacities”. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

54. (b): Option 1 is stated in “The implementation of the internet opened up the methods of communication in
innumerable and unimaginable ways to the benefit and detriment of society.”
Option 2 with cyber crimes is generic and comprises crimes such as hate crimes, telemarketing and internet fraud,
identity theft, and credit card account thefts, etc, which are not mentioned in the passage.
Options 3 and 5 are stated in “Possibly the most ubiquitous and most socially accepted illegal activity permitted on the
internet is the piracy of entertainment, especially television and film.”
Option 4 is stated in “While media producers often bemoan loudly how harmful piracy is to the entertainment
industry…”Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

55. (c): Option 1 is validated by “...college-aged students to pirate are their technological savviness, the internet age they
grew up in, and the lack of law enforcement”
Option 2 is validated by “Other common reasons include the lack of availability at a low cost...”
Option 3 weakens the stance on young adults that take part in illegal online piracy as they are most unlikely to resort to
legal alternatives.
Option 4 is validated by “Due to the demographics associated with piracy it is naïve to assume they would alternatively
pay for content, and that belief overlooks the fact that free access actually may lead to paying customers in the future.”
Option 5 is validated by “One of the most common justifications is that the activity is so rampant that one additional
pirate causes no damage.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

56. (b): Statement A is contrary to what the text says about the possibility of people eventually paying for content.
Statement B mentions “certain demographics”, the passage only talks about the demographic of young adults. Thus,
statement B cannot be deduced.
Statement C can be logically deduced. If the content is freely available, naturally more people will be willing to indulge in
it. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

57. (c)
58. (b)
59. (d)
60. (a)
61. (c)
62. (c)
63. (b)
64. (b)
65. (d)
66. (a)
67. (c)
68. (a)
69. (a)
70. (b)
71. (a)
Verbal Reasoning
72. (d)
73. (b)

74. (b)

75. (e)

76. (e)
According to the statement, Government has spoiled financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as Directors. This
means that only those persons should be appointed as Directors who are experts in finance and are acquainted with the
financial work of the institute. So, both I and II follow.

77. (a)
Clearly, I directly follows from the given statement. Also, it is mentioned that old ideas are replaced by new ones, as
thinking changes with the progressing time. So, II does not follow.

78. (b)
The fact given in I is quite contrary to the given statement. So, I does not follow. II mentions the direct implications of
the state discussed in the statement. Thus, II follows.

79. (a)
Clearly, harnessing solar energy will be helpful as it is an inexhaustible resource unlike other resources. So, argument I
holds. But argument II is vague as solar energy is the cheapest form of energy.
80. (e)
The students union formation shall be a step towards giving to students the basic education in the field of politics.
However, it shall create the same political atmosphere in the campus. Thus, both the arguments hold strong.

81. (a)
Clearly, health of the citizens is an issue of major concern for the Government. So, a product like drugs, must be first
studied and tested in the Indian context before giving licence for its sale. So, only argument I holds strong.

82. (a)
Clearly, for better economic gain, losses should be reduced and income increased. So, only course I follows.

83. (d)
The statement mentions that the commercial banks violate a directive issued by the RBI. The remedy is only to make the
banks implement the Act. So, none of the courses follows.

84. (b)
In the break-out of a natural calamity, the basic duty of the government becomes to provide the basic amenities
essential to save the lives of people and cattle. Providing financial assistance to all would put undue burden on the
country's resources. So, only II follows.

85. (e)
The situation demands creating awareness among people about the dangers of drinking polluted water so that they
themselves refrain from the same, and at the same time taking steps to provide safe drinking water. So, both the
courses follow.

Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. (a) Chess
87. (c) Basketball
88. (b) India and Pakistan
89. (d) Calcutta
90. (c) 12
91. (a) 1908
92. (b) Table Tennis
93. (a) Golf
94. (c) Polo
95. (a) Cricket
96. (b) Hockey
97. (b) Bangladesh
98. (a) Pulela Gopichand
99. (a) Baichung Bhutia
100. (d) Australia open
101. (b) Hockey
102. (c) Swimming
103. (c) Merdeka Cup
104. (b) 15
105. (b) Asian Games Federation
106. (b) Manish Pandey
107. (c) Chess
108. (c) Basket Ball
109. (b) Golf
110. (a) Viswanathan Anand
111. (a) England
112. (b) 26 miles 385 yards
113. (c) Lawn Tennis
114. (a) Norway
115. (d) Novak Djokovic
116. (a) Alibaba group
117. (d) Cristiano Ronald
118. (b) Lionel Messi
119. (a) Cricket
120. (c) Australia
 Quantitative Analysis

1. After spending 30% on milk, 5% on clothes, 35% on food and 10% on electricity, Dhoni could buy 2 dozen pairs of
socks from the balance income with him. He earned 100% profit by selling the socks for Rs.120. What amount did
Dhoni have on him initially?
(a) Rs.800 (b) Rs.400 (c) Rs.300 (d) Rs. 360

2. In a mixture of 40 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 3:1. How much water must be added to this mixture so that the
ratio of milk and water becomes 3:2.
(a)10 litres (b)32 litres (c)40 litres (d)30 litres

3. Suresh’s salary is 80% more than Ravi’s. Suresh got a raise of 20% on his salary while Ravi got a raise of 25% on his
salary. By what percent is Suresh’s salary more than Ravi’s?
(a) 72% (b)51.1% (c) 44% (d)68 %

4. A man buys two cycles for a total cost of Rs. 800. By selling one for 3/5 of its cost and other for 5/3 of its cost, he
makes neither profit nor loss of on the whole transaction. Find the cost price of lower priced cycle,
(a) Rs. 360 (b) Rs. 250 (c)Rs. 300 (d)Rs. 420

5. S,R and T into a partnership. S initially invests Rs. 25 lakhs and adds another Rs. 15 lakhs after one year, R initially
invests Rs. 35 lakhs and withdraws Rs.15 lakhs after 2 years and T invests Rs. 30 lakhs, In what ratio should the profits be
divided at the end of 3 years:
(a) 7 : 6 : 6 (b) 20 : 20 : 19 (c) 20 : 19 : 18 (d) 12 : 15 : 8

6. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what Pankaj has the average
money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has
(a) Rs. 55 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 180 (d) Rs. 65

7. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 8,000 and Rs. 6,000 respectively. After 3 months, A withdrew Rs.
2,500 while B invested Rs. 2,500 more. After 3 more months, C joins the business with a capital of Rs. 10,500. The share
of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of Rs. 36300 after one year by:
(a) Rs. 4950 (b) Rs. 4650 (c) Rs. 4800 (d) Rs. 4750

8.In what ratio a grocer mix tea at Rs 22 per kg and Rs 32 per kg, so that by selling that mixture at Rs 28 he may gain
12% ?
(a) 3:5 (b) 7:3 (c) 8:3 (d) 3:11

9. A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 7 : 5. If 10 litres of water is added to the mixture, the ratio becomes
1: 1. Find the quantity of alcohol in the given mixture
(a) 35 Litres (b) 7.5 (c) 12.5 (d) None of these

10. Ramesh took a loan of Rs 6000 at 6% per annum simple interest for 3 yr After one year the rate was increased to
6 1/2% per annum. How much shall Ramesh have to pay at the end to clear his loan ?
(a) Rs 7480 (b) Rs 7390 (c) Rs 7140 (d) Rs 7260
11.The sum of two numbers is 135 and their HCF is 9. How many such pairs of numbers can be formed ?
(a) 6 (b)2 (c) 5 (d) 4
12. Find the HCF of 36a2b3c2, 18a3b2c4 and 12ab4c3
(a) 6ab2c2 (b) 12a2bc (c) 6a2bc2 (d) 12ab2c2

13. Find the smallest number which when decreased by 4 is exactly divisible by 9, 12, 15 and 18.
(a) 188 (b) 182 (c) 186 (d)184

14. Two trains 264 m & 216 m long are running in opposite directions, one at a rate of 16 km/hr and another one at the
rate of 20 km/hr. From the moment they meet they will cross each other in:
(a) 40 s (b) 44 s (c) 48 s (d) 52 s

15. A boatman goes 3 km against the current of the stream in 1 h and goes 1 km along the current in 15 min. How long
will it take to go 7 km in stationary water ?
(a) 2 h 15 min (b) 2 h (c) 2 h 30 min (d) 2 h 45 min

16. A man covers 1/2 of the total journey by car, 1/3 by bus and the remaining 60 km by train. His total journey is
(a)540 km (b) 720 km (c) 480 km (d) 360 km

17. Pipes L and M can fill a tank in 4 and 12 hours respectively Pipe R can empty it in 24 hours. If all the three pipes are
opened together, then the tank will be filled in
13 8 9 3
(a) 117 (b) 211 (c) 317 (d) 37

18. In seven given numbers, the average of first four numbers is 4 and that of last four numbers is also 4. If the average
of these seven numbers is 3, the fourth number is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 11

19. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 50 years .Eight years ago, the product of their ages was 33. The ages of
the son and the father are respectively:
(a) 10 and 40 (b) 11 and 39 (c) 9 and 41 (d) 11 and 34

20. Find the compound interest on Rs 9375 at 8% per annum, for 2 yr:
(a) Rs 1560 (b) Rs 1512 (c) Rs 1590 (d) Rs 1548

Data Interpretation
Direction for (Qs.21-24): The table given below shows the annual production of various products of a famous Toy
Company. Study the table and answer the questions based on it
Year Ludo Scrabble Chess Monopoly Carrom
1994 200 150 78 90 65
1995 150 180 100 105 70
1996 180 175 92 110 85
1997 195 160 120 125 75
1998 220 185 130 135 80
21. The total production of all the five years is the maximum for which of the toys?
(a) Carrom (b) Chess (c) Ludo (d) Scrabble
22. The percentage increase in the production of Monopoly from 1995 to 1997 was approximately?
(a) 12 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 21

23. In 1997 the production of chess was what percent of the production of Scrabble?
(a) 70% (b) 75% (c) 60% (d) 25%

24. For which category of toys there was a continuous increase in the production over the years?
(a) Carrom (b) Chess (c) Ludo (d) Monopoly

Direction for (Qs. 25-29): The following graph gives the sales figures of a Company m Rs. lakhs over a period of six years
from 1995 to 2000. Study the graph carefully to answer the questions based on it.
400 325 350 375 325
250 225
200

0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

25. The ratio of the number of years for which the sales were above average to the number of years for which the sales
were below average is
(a) 1:2 (b)2:1 (c)3 :2 (d)5:1

26. The sales in 1997 are approximately what percent of the sales in 1999?
(a) 72 (b)76 (c)87 (d)89

27. What was the approximate average sales (in Rs. Lakhs) for the years 1997 to 2000 ?
(a) 330 (b)335 (c)345 (d)355

28. By how much amount are the sales in 1998 more than that in 1996?
(a) Rs. 12.5 crores (b)Rs. 1.25 crores (c) Rs. 12.5 lakhs (d) Rs. 1.25 lakhs

29. In which year do the sales show the least percent increase/decrease over those in the preceding year?
(a) 1998 (b)1997 (c)1999 (d)2000

Direction for (Qs. 30-34): Study the following pie-graphs to answer the given questions.
Total students : 1200 (800 girls + 400 boys )

E F E F
12% 13% 14% 14%
A
20% D A
D
35% 30% 30%
B
15% B
10%
C C
5% 2%
Percentage of student in various courses(A,B,C,D,E,F) Percentage of girls
30. For course D, what is respective ratio of boys and girls ?
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 6

31. For which pair of courses is the number of boys the same ?
(a) E & F (b) A & D (c) C & F (d) B & D

32. For course E, the number of girls is how much % more than the number of boys for course E ?
(a) 250 (b) 350 (c) 150 (d) 80

33. For which course is the number of boys the minimum ?

(a) E (b) F (c) C (d) A

34. How many girls are there in course C ?

(a) 44 (b) 16 (c) 40 (d) 160

Logical Reasoning
Directions (Q. 35-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(i) Eleven friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U & V are sitting in a row of the class facing the teacher. (ii) O, who is to the
immediate left of Q, is second to the right of N. (iii) L, is second to the right of P, who is at one of the ends, (iv) U is the
immediate neighbour of L and M and third to the left of R. (v) S is to the immediate left of O and third to the right of T.
35. Who is sitting in the middle of the row ?
(a) N (b) T (c) M (d) R (e) None of these

36. Which of the following groups of friends is sitting to the right of R?

(a) TMUL (b) TNSOQ (c) NSOQ (d) NSOP (e) None of these

37. In the above sitting arrangement, which of the following statements is superfluous ?
(a) i (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) None is superfluous

38. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the above sitting arrangements ?
(a) There are three friends sitting between O and R.
(b) R and N are neighbours sitting to immediate right of S.
(c)M is sitting between U and T.
(d)U is sitting between L and U.
(e)None of the above

39. If P and O, N & M, L and S & U and Q interchange their positions, which of the following pairs of friends is sitting at
the end ?
(a) O and P (b) P and Q (c) O and U (d)U and Q (e) None of these

Direction for (Qs.40-43): Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing towards North. R is sitting between P
and T. S is not at the end. Q is sitting immediate right to T. U is not at the right end.
40. How many persons are there to the right of S?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None of these

41. Which of the following pairs is sitting to one side of S?

(a) UQ (b) UR (c) UT (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

42. Who is immediate left of R?

(a) P (b) T (c) either T or P (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
43. Who is at the right end?
(a) P (b) Q (c) T (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

44. Vijay started walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turned to the left and walked 15 m. He again turned to
his left and walked 15m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction ?
(a) 15 m, North (b) 15m, South (c) 30 m, East (d) 15 m, West (e) None of these

45. In a certain code ‘ARCHERY’ is written as ‘DSBGZSF’. How will the word ‘TERMITE’ be written in that code?
(a) SFULFUJ (b) SUFLFJU (c) SULFUJI (d)SJUFLIU (e)None of these

46. 45, 54, 47,………....., 49, 56, 51, 57, 53

(a) 48 (b) 55 (c) 50 (d) 53 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 47-50): Read the information given in the questions and on the basis of the information, select the correct
alternative for each question given after the information. An University has to conduct a refresher course for Teacher of
seven different subjects—Mechanics, Psychology, Philosophy, Sociology, Economics, Science and Engineering from 22nd
July to 29th July.
(I) Course should start with Psychology.
(II) 23rd July, being Sunday, should be a holiday.
(III) Science subject should be on the previous day of the Engineering subject.
(IV)Course should end with Mechanics subject.
(V) Philosophy should be immediately after holiday.
(VI) There should be a gap of one day between Economics and Engineering.
(VII)There should be a gap of two days between Sociology and Economics.
47. The refresher course will start with which one of the following subjects ?
(a) Psychology (b) Mechanics (c) Philosophy (d) Economics (e) Cannot be determined

48. Which subject will be on Tuesday ?

(a) Mechanics (b) Engineering (c) Economics (d) Psychology (e) None of these

49. Which subject is followed by Science ?

(a) Psychology (b) Philosophy (c) Economics (d) Engineering (e) None of these

50. Which subject precedes Mechanics ?

(a) Economics (b) Engineering (c) Philosophy (d) Psychology (e) None of these

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Q.All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's
disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it. Though in the nascent stages, experts say stem
cell treatment is likely to be the preferred treatment mode for neurological disorders like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's and
the lot in the near future. Stem cell therapy in fact was the recurrent theme in the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's
Disease and Movement Disorder Congress and the 7th Asia Pacific Parkinson's Association (APPA) organized by AIIMS
neurology department on Sunday.
Usually extracted from embryos or from bone marrow or umbilical cord, stem cells are primitive, undifferentiated cells
that have the ability to grow into any type of tissue. They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of
"incurable'' diseases. "We have started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease. But it is a long process.
In this trial, we will be using bone marrow stem cells harvested from patients. The cells, after being regrown in the
laboratory, will be surgically inserted into the patient's brain. As we would be using patient's own stem cells, there
would be no chances of rejection," said Dr Sumit Singh, associate professor and co-investigator of the stem cell trail at
AIIMS. Headed by Dr Madhuri Behari, head of the neurology department, AIIMS, the team stated the trial in January.
"We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month. But it is too early to predict the results,"
said Dr Singh.
After Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's is the second most common neuro-degenerative disorder. It is estimated that
worldwide 1% people above the age of 65 and 3% people above the age of 80 are affected by it. In India alone, there are
approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease. "The reason for the disease is not known, but with
right and timely medical intervention, the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition
and environmental toxins are found to be responsible for the disease," said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the
conference.
Deliberating on the new trends in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, experts cautioned that "hype should be kept
away from hope" in case of stem cell treatment, as trials are in progress. Dr Rupam Borgohain, neurologist at Nizam's
Institute of Medical Sciences in Hyderabad, who is also experimenting with stem cells in treating Parkinson's disease,
said, "It (stem cells) is definitely the way to go, but it is important to keep hype away from hope. It is in the trial phase
and we hope to see positive results, but till then we have to wait. Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in
treating Parkinson's disease in a few cases. And that gives us hope to move forward."
51. "We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month”. These patients suffer from
1)Alzheimer's disease 2)genetic disorders 3)neurogenerative disorder 4)Parkinson's disease

52.Which of the following statements is not true as per the passage

1)Stem cells can be extracted from umbilical cord 2)Stem cells can be regrown into tissues
3)Stem cells can cure a wide range of incurable diseases. 4)Stem cells can be extracted from bone marrow

53.The organizing chairperson of the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's Disease and Movement Disorder Congress was
1)Dr. Behari 2)Dr. Rupam 3)Dr. Singh 4) AIIMS

54.Which of the following statements are true

I.Parkinson’s disease affects people in old age.
II. Environmental toxins are the major cause of Parkinson’s disease.
III. Stem cell tissues have successfully treated Parkinson's disease in a few cases.
IV.Stem cells have the ability to grow into any type of tissue.
V.Alzheimer's disease is the most common neuro-degenerative disorder.
1)I,III,IV,V 2)I,II,III,IV,V 3)III,IV 4)I,IV,V

55.Parkinson’s disease has affected

1) 3 out of 100 people 2) 6000000 people 3) 4 out of 100 above 80 years of age 4) 60000000 people

56. Match the following

1. Dr. Behari i. associate professor
2. Dr. Rupam ii. head of neurology departmen
3. Dr. Singh iii. Nizam’s Institute
1)1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii 2)1-ii, 2-iii, 3-I 3)1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii 4)1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i

Direction (Q 57 – 58): Give the Synonym

57. INDICTMENT
(a) Arraignment
(b) Entrapment
(c) Indoctrination
 (d) Inducement

58. ABSTEMIOUS
(a) Resistant
(b) Temperate
(c) Superstitious
(d) Careful

Direction (Q 59 – 60): Give the Antonym

59. DESPONDENT
(a) pleased
(b) satisfied
(c) infuriated
(d) elated

60. DENIGRATE
(a) belittle
(b) believe
(c) doubt
(d) praise

Direction (Q 61-66) Give the correct preposition

61. There is no doubt that Adam is very good telling jokes.
(a) At (b) Over (c) Of (d) With

62. These dresses were sale last week.

(a) In (b) Of (c) On (d) Up

63. You have to leave your shoes the door when you enter the house.
(a) In (b) Over (c) To (d) By

64. It was a long walk, so he began moving slowly the town.

(a) For (b) Towards (c) Until (d) At

65. When we get ready for dinner, I have to take my books the table.
(a) off (b) From (c) Out (d) Of

66. Every weekend, we put the trash can for garbage collection.
(a) Up (b) At (c) Into (d) Out

Direction (Q 67-71) In the given sentence replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct.
67. Despite of their differences on matters of principles, they all agree on the demand of hike is salary?
(a) Despite their
(b) Despite of the
(c) Despite for their
(d) Despite off their
 (e) No correction required

68. For many centuries in Indian History there was no city so famous like the city of Ujjain.
(a) as
(b) such as
(c) likewise
(d) so like
(e) No correction required

69. Had you been told me about your problem, I would have helped you.
(a) If you would have told
(b) Had you have told
(c) Had you told
(d) If you have told
(e) No correction required

70. Anand has the guts to rise from the occasion and come out successfully.
(a) In rising from
(b) to raise with
(c) to rise to
(d) to rise against
(e) No correction required

71. This is one of the most important inventions of this century.

(a) invention of this century
(b) invention of these century
(c) invention of centuries
(d) invention of the centuries
(e) No correction required

Verbal reasoning
Direction (Q 72-75) In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
72. Statements: All cars are cats. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: 1. All cars are fans.
2. Some fans are cars.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

73. Statements: All buildings are chalks. No chalk is toffee.

Conclusions: 1. No building is toffee
 2. All chalks are buildings.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

74. Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.
Conclusions: 1. All the trucks are scooters.
2. Some scooters are trucks.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

75. Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.
Conclusions: 1. Some dogs are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

Direction (Q 76-78) In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of
them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
76. Statements: The serious accident in which a person was run down by a car yesterday had again focused attention on
the most unsatisfactory state of roads.
Conclusions: 1. The accident that occurred was fatal.
2. Several accidents have so far taken place because of unsatisfactory state of roads.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

77. Statements: In a recent survey report, it has been stated that those who undertake physical exercise for at least half
an hour a day are less prone to have any heart ailments.
Conclusions: 1. Moderate level of physical exercise is necessary for leading a healthy life.
2. All people who do desk-bound jobs definitely suffer from heart ailments.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
 (e) Both 1 and 2 follow

78. Statements: A bird in hand is worth two in the bush.

Conclusions: 1. We should be content with what we have.
2. We should not crave for what is not.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

Direction (Q 79-81) Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
79. Statement: Should adult education programme be given priority over compulsory education programme?
Arguments: 1. No. It will also help in success of compulsory education programme.
2. Yes. It will help to eliminate the adult illiteracy.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

80. Statement: Should new universities be established in India?

Arguments: 1. No. We have still not achieved the target for literacy.
2. No. We will have to face the problem of unemployed but highly qualified people.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

81. Statement: Should non-vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?

Arguments: 1. Yes. It is expensive and therefore it is beyond the means of most people in our country.
2. No. Nothing should be banned in a democratic country like ours.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

Direction (Q 82-85) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement,
decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
82. Statement: On an average, about twenty people are run over by trains and die every day while crossing the railway
 tracks through the level crossing.
Courses of Action: 1. The railway authorities should be instructed to close all the level crossings.
 2. Those who are found crossing the tracks, when the gates are closed, should be fined heavily
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

83. Statement: Majority of the students in many schools do not pass in the final examination.
Courses of Action: 1. These schools should be closed down as these have become unproductive.
2. The teachers of these schools should immediately be retrenched.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

84. Statement: In spite of the Principal's repeated warnings, a child was caught exploding crackers secretly in the school.
Courses of Action: 1. All the crackers should be taken away from the child and he should be threatened not to do it
again.
2. The child should be severely punished for his wrong act.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

85. Statement: It is necessary to adopt suitable measures to prevent repetition of bad debts by learning from the past
experiences of mounting non-performing assets of banks.
Courses of Action: 1. Before granting loan to customers their eligibility for loan should be evaluated strictly.
2. To ensure the payment of instalments of loan, the work, for which loan was granted, should be
supervised minutely on regular basis.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

Sports Awareness (86-120)

1. In which year Mission Olympics in Army programme was launched?
[A] 1999 [B] 2000 [C] 2001 [D] 2002
2. Who among the following is first Indian to win an individual gold medal at any Olympic Games?
[A] Abhinav Bindra [B] Muhammad Aslam
[C] Rajyavardhan Singh Rathode [D] Mohammed Shahid
3. In which of the following sports/ games the term Interference is used?
 [A] Golf [B] Chess [C] Squash [D] Table Tennis
4. Rungrado May Day Stadium is located in which country?
 [A] Thailand [B] China [C] North Korea [D] South Korea
5. Dempo Sports Club is a sports club , one of the most prominent football team of India is based in ?
[A] Kolkata [B] Panjim [C] Guwahati [D] Bangalore
6. Which among the following games was previously known as Mintonette?
[A] football [B] baseball [C] volleyball [D] handball
7. Which among the following tournament is also known as World Team Championships for Women?
[A] Thomas Cup [B] Uber cup [C] Helvetia Cup [D] Spanish Open Badminton
8. Who among the following was known as Flying Sikh?
[A] Milkha Singh [B] Harbhajan Singh [C] Yuvaraj Singh [D] Gurbachan Singh
9. Which among the following was the venue of first South Asian Games?
[A] Kathmandu [B] Dhaka [C] Colombo [D] New Delhi
10. The word Gambit is related to which of the following sports?
[A] Chess [B] Table Tennis [C] Polo [D] carom
11. Which among the following sporting event has become the first ever to be broadcast live on the popular video
sharing website YouTube?
[A] 2010 Africa Cup of Nations [B] FIFA World Cup
[C] Indian Premier League -III [D] T-20 World Cup
12. Kookaburras is the nickname of Hockey Team of which of the following country?
[A] India [B] Australia [C] USA [D] China
13. Who among the following is the first batsman to hit six sixes in an over?
[A] Garfield Sobers [B] Ravi Shastri [C] Ted Alletson. [D] Kapil Dev
14. Rovers Cup is related to which of the following sports?
[A] Football [B] Cricket [C] Hockey [D] Tennis
15. Which of the following sports was invented by James Naismith?
[A] Football [B] Basket Ball [C] Ice Hockey [D] Badminton
16. Which of the following games were previously called ‘British Empire Games’?
[A] East Asian Games [B] Southeast Asian Games [C] Olympic Games [D] Commonwealth Games
17. Who among the following cricketers was the first to score a century for the Indian Test cricket team in his Debut
Test match ?
[A] Sunil Gawaskar [B] Kapil Dev [C] Lala Amarnath [D] Nawab Pataudi
18. Which of the following stadiums in India was the first to Host a Test match in Independent India?
[A] Gymkhana Ground, Mumbai [B] Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi
[C] Eden Gardens, Kolkata [D] M. A. Chidambaram Stadium, Chennai
19. Who among the following was first black Formula One World Champion in history?
[A] Felipe Massa [B] Jensson Button [C] Lewis Hamilton [D] Fernando Alonso
20. Three R’s of Football are famous in which country ?
[A] Peru [B] Mexico [C] Brazil [D] USA
21. Pen Holder grip is used in which of the following sports?
[A] Cricket [B] Hockey [C] Table Tennis [D] Badminton
22. In which of the following sports Decision Referral System is used?
[A] Hockey [B] Tennis [C] Chess [D] Cricket
23. Benson Hedges Cup is related to which of the following sports?
[A] Hockey [B] Cricket [C] Football [D] Basket Ball
24. WISPA is related to which of the following sports?
 [A] Football [B] Chess [C] Cricket [D] Squash
25. Which among the following is not a trophy or cup related to Hockey?
 [A] Bombay Gold Cup [B] Gurmeet Trophy [C] Indira Gold Cup [D] Narang Cup
26. When is International ‘Yoga Divas' is celebrated ?
[A] 21st June [B] 25th April [C] 21st May [D] 21st July
27. Who has been appointed (in February 2018) as the first Independent female Director of the International Cricket
Council (ICC) Board?
[A] Vinita Bali [B] Manisha Girotra [C] Kalpana Morparia [D] Indra Nooyi
28. Which country has won the team event at the first Mallakhamb World Championship 2019?
[A] Singapore [B] Norway [C] England [D] India
29. 21st FIFA World Cup, 2018 held in which of the following countries?
[A] Brazil [B]Argentina [C]Spain [D]Russia
30. 2018 Asian Games was held at -
[A] Indonesia [B] Thailand [C] Singapore [D] Maldives
31. India ended its Asian Games Campaign with how many gold medals?
[A] 14 [B] 13 [C] 7 [D]15
32. Who has become the first Indian woman to win a gold medal in shooting at the Asian Games?
[A] Manu Baker [B]Rahi Sarnobat [C]Anjum Moudgil [D] Heena Sidhu
33. What is the motto of the 18th Asian Games?
[A] Unite the Asia [B] Better future of Asia [C] Energy of Asia [D] Strong and united Asia
34. Who is the Mascot of 18th Asian Games?
[A] Poppo and Cuccu white pigeons
[B] Appu an elephant
[C] Pan Pan the Panda
[D] Bhin Bhin the bird of paradise, Atung the deer, Kaka the rhino
35. Which country will organise the 19th Asian Games (2022)?
[A] Japan [B] India [C] Qatar [D] China
 Quantitative Analysis
1. (c) CP of socks = 120-60=60
20------- 60
100×60
100---------- 20
= 300

30 3
2. (a) 10+x = 2 => x = 10

3. (a) 72.8%

4. (c) Rs. 300

5. (a) PSR between S:R:T=25×1+40×2:35×2+20×1:30×3

So, S:R:T=7:6:6

6. (c) x+1.5x+3x=330 x=60 3x=180

P S M
7. (a) 4950

8. (b) 112 --------- 28

100∗28 32−25 7
100---------- 112
= 25 Now, 25−22= 3=7:3

7x 1
9. (a) 5x+10 = 1 => x = 5 (7 × 5 = 35)

10. (c) Total amount=6+6.5+6.5=19%

19
SI=6000× 100 = 1140
A=6000+1140=7140

11. (d) 9x+9y=135 x+y=15 => 4

12. (a) 6ab2c2

13. (d) By option 184

264+216
14. (c) = (20 + 16) 5 => x = 48 sec
x 18

1 4+3 7
15.(b) U=3/1=3 D= 15 = 4 =3.5 = 2h
2 3.5
60

1 1 3+2
16. (b) 2 + 3 = 6
1
6
--------------60
1-------------6× 60 => 360 × 2 = 720
 1 1 1 6+2−1 7 3
17.(d) 4 + 12 − 24 = 24
=> 24 = 3 7hrs
18. (d) 4× 4 = 16 4 × 4 = 16 => 32
=> 7 × 3 = 21
11
19. (c) By option 9 & 41

20. Option (a)

Data Interpretation
(Q. 21 – 24)
21. (c):Total production of all the five years, for
(i)Ludo = 200 + 150 + 180 + 195 + 220 = 945
(ii) Scrabble =150+180+175 + 160+185 = 850
(iii)Chess = 78 + 100 + 92 + 120 + 130 = 520
(iv)Monopoly = 90 + 105 + 110 + 125 + 135 = 565
(v)Carrom = 65 + 70 + 85 + 75 + 80 = 375 Clearly, maximum production is for Ludo.
125−105 20
22(c): Required percentage = ( 105
x 100)% = (105 ×100)% = 19%
120
23.(b):Required percentage =(160 x 100)% 7 = 5%.
24.(d): If we study the columns corresponding to each toy. we find that from 1994 to 1998, the production of Monopoly
goes on
increasing continuously and never falls.

(Q. 25-29)
1
25. (b): The average sales in the given period of six years from 1995 to 2000 = Rs.6 x (250+225+325+350+375+325) lakhs
= Rs. 308.33 lakhs. Clearly, the sales in the years 1995 and 1996 i.e. during 2 years are less than the average and the
4 2
sales during the other 4 years are more than the average. Required ratio = 2 = 1
325
26. (c): Required percentage = (375 × 100)%=86.67%~87%
1
27. (c): Average sales for the years 1997 to 2000 =Rs.[4 × (325 + 350 + 375 + 325)] lakhs Rs.343.75
lakhs~Rs.345 lakhs
28. (b):Required difference=Rs.[350-225]lakhs=Rs.125 lakhs=Rs.1.25 crores
29. (c):The percent increase/decrease in sales (over preceding years) during various years are:
(250−225) 25 (325−225) 100
In 1996=[ 250
× 100]%=(250 × 100)%=10% (decrease) In 1997=[ 225
× 100]%=(225 ×
100)%=44.44%(increase)
(350−225) 25 (375−350) 25
In 1998=[ 325
× 100]%=(325 × 100)%=7.69%(increase) In 1999=[ 350
× 100]%=(350 ×
100)%=7.14%(increase)
(375−325) 50
In 2000=[ 375
× 100]%=(375 × 100)%=13.33%(decrease)
Clearly, the sales show the least % change (increase/decrease) in the year 1999.

(Q. 30-34)

Course Total Number of Number

s students girls of boys
T=x% of G = y% of B= T-G
1200 800
A 240 240 0
B 180 80 100
C 60 16 44
D 420 240 180
E 144 112 32
F 156 112 44
Total 1200 800 400

30. (a) Required ratio = 180:240= 3:4

31. (c) Courses are C & F
112−32
32. (a) Required % = 32
× 100 = 250%
33. (d) The number of boys for courses A=0
34. (b) Number of girls in course C =16.

Logical Reasoning
Directions (Q. 35-39): Eleven friends occupy the position in a row as shown in the figure.
P V L U M T R N S O Q
35. (b) It is clear from the figure drawn on the basis of the information that friend T is sitting in the middle of the row.
36. (c) NSOQ are sitting to the right of R.
37. (e) All information are required to know the position of all friends in the row.
38. (c) M is sitting between U and T.
39. (c) O and V will be sitting at the two ends if the positions as given in the question are interchanged.

(Q. 40-43) U S P R T Q
40. (d)
41. (e)
42. (a)
43. (b)

44. (e) Vijayan finally reaches a point which is 15 m from the starting point and is in East direction.

45. (a)We can see that the word has been divided into three parts, where letters of the first and third parts are increased
by 1 position and then reversed among themselves while the lone letter in the middle part is decreased by 1.

46. (b) There are two alternate series in the single series, one of them moves with a difference of one number starting
with 45, and another is a consecutive series starting with 54.
(Q. 47-50):
Dates 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Days Sat. Sun. Mon. Tues. Wed. Thur. Fri. Sat.
Subjects Psy. X Philo. Eco. Science Engg. Socio. Mech.
From the information (I), (II), (VI) and (V), we get that Psychology is taught on Saturday, Philosophy on Monday and
Mechanics is taught on Saturday. Now from the combination of information (III), (VI) and (VII), we get an order as shown
in the table.
47. (a) The refresher course will start with subject Psychology.
48. (c) Economics will be taught on Tuesday,
49. (c) Economics is followed by Science.
50. (e) Sociology is taught before Mechanics and hence, Sociology precedes Mechanics.

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

(Q. 51-56)
51.Solution:The very first line of the passage tells us, “AIIMS has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of
Parkinson's disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it”. Option 3 wrongly mentions
neurogenerative disease while actually it is a neuro-degenerative disease.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

52.Solution:Options 1, 2 and 4 are direct facts given in the passage.

Option 3 is false as the passage mentions that “They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of
"incurable'' diseases” and the research is in nascent stage.”Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

53.Solution:Last line of the penultimate paragraph states, “... said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the
conference”.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

54.Solution:III is false as the passage clearly says that, “Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in treating
Parkinson's disease in a few cases”, it does not say that they have treated Parkinson's.
II is again false as per the lines, "The reason for the disease is not known, but with right and timely medical intervention,
the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition and environmental toxins are found to
be responsible for the disease". Therefore, environmental toxins cannot be said to be the main cause of Parkinson's.
Data given in the last and penultimate paragraph verifies I, IV and V to be true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

55.Solution:The passage states, “there are approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease”
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
56.Solution:This is a question based on direct details given in the passage and the right match is 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

57. (a)
58. (b)
59. (d)
60. (d)
61. (a)
62. (c)
63. (d)
64. (b)
65. (a)
66. (d)
67. (a)
68. (a)
69. (c)
70. (c)
71. (e)

Verbal reasoning
72. Option D
Explanation:

73. Option A
Explanation:

74. Option D
Explanation:
Neither (1) nor (2) follows.
75. Option D
Explanation:

76. Option E
Explanation:
Since the accident has caused concern, it must be fatal. So, I follows. The use of the word 'again' in the statement
justifies the fact mentioned in II. So, II also follows.

77. Option A
Explanation:
The statement mentions that chances of heart ailments are greatly reduced by a regular half-hour exercise. So, I follows.
However, it talks of only reducing the probability which does not mean that persons involved in sedentary jobs shall
definitely suffer from heart ailments. So, II does not follow.

78. Option E
Explanation:
Both the given conclusions clearly bring out the central theme of the proverb given in the statement. So, both I and II
follow.

79. Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, argument I gives a reason in support of the statement and so it does not hold strong against it. The adult
education programme needs to be given priority because it shall eliminate adult illiteracy and thus help in further spread
of education. So, only argument II is strong enough.

80. Option E
Explanation:
Clearly, instead of improving upon higher education, increasing the literacy rate should be heeded first. So, argument I
holds. Also, more number of universities will produce more degree holders with the number of jobs remaining the same,
thus increasing unemployment. So, argument II also holds strong.

81. Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, restriction on the diet of people will be denying them their basic human right. So, only argument II holds.

82. Option B
Explanation:
The accidents can clearly be prevented by barring people from crossing the tracks when the gates are closed, So, only II
follows.

83. Option D
Explanation:
Clearly, the situation demands that efforts be made to remove the lackenings in the present system of education and
adequate measures be taken to improve the performance of students. Harsh measures as those given in I and II, won't
help. So, none of the given courses follows.

84. Option B
Explanation:
Since the act has been repeated despite various warnings, so course I would only be another warning and would not
help. Severe punishment to set example for him and others is inevitable. Thus, course II shall follow.

85. Option E
Explanation:
To ensure that debts taken are repaid promptly, the customer's requirements and future prospects ought to be studied
and their work constantly checked. Thus, both the courses follow.

Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. [C] 2001
87. [A] Abhinav Bindra
88. [B] Chess
89. [C] North Korea
90. [B] Panjim
91. [C] volleyball
92. [B] Uber cup
93. [A] Milkha Singh
94. [A] Kathmandu
95. [A] Chess
96. [C] Indian Premier League -III
97. [B] Australia
98. [A] Garfield Sobers
99. [A] Football
100. [B] Basket Ball
101. [D] Commonwealth Games
102. [C] Lala Amarnath
103. [B] Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi
104. [C] Lewis Hamilton
105. [C] Brazil [D] USA
106. [C] Table Tennis
107. [D] Cricket
108. [B] Cricket
109. [D] Squash
110. [D] Narang Cup
111. [A] 21st June
112. [D] Indra Nooyi
113. [D] India
114. [D]Russia
115. [A] Indonesia
116. [D] 15
117. [B] Rahi Sarnobat
118. [C] Energy of Asia
119. [D] Bhin Bhin the bird of paradise, Atung the deer, Kaka the rhino
120. [D] China
 Quantitative Analysis
1. When a company decreased the price of refrigerator by 20%,the number of refrigerators sold increased by 20%. What
was the net effect on total sales?
(a) 6% decrease (b) 3% increase (c) 6% increase (d) 4% decrease

2. A dishonest milkman mixed 1 litre of water for every 4 litres of milk and thus made up 40 litres of milk . If he now adds
24 litres of milk to the mixture, find the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture.
(a)12:5 (b)14:3 (c)7:1 (d)9:4

3. Rohit and Dhawan have salaries that jointly amount to Rs. 10,000 per month. They spend the same amount monthly
and then it is found that the ratio of their savings is 5:3. Which of the following can be Rohit’s salary?
(a) Rs. 6000 (b) Rs. 5000 (c) Rs. 4000 (d)Rs. 3000

4. A manufacturer makes a profit of 12% by selling a colour TV for Rs. 5600. If the cost of manufacturing increases by
30% and the price paid by the retailer is increased by 20%, find the profit percent made by the manufacturer.
(a) 6(2/13)% (b)4(8/13)% (c) 6(1/13)% (d) 3(3/8)%

5. A and B start a business with investments of Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 9,000 respectively. After 4 months, A takes out half of
his capital. After two more months, B takes out one third of his capital while C joins them with a capital of Rs. 14000, At
the end of a year they earn a profit of Rs. 19,050. Find the share of C in the profit.
(a)Rs. 6500 (b) Rs. 6300 (c) Rs. 7500 (d) Rs. 8000

6. A man spends Rs. 1800 monthly on an average for the first four months and Rs. 2000 monthly for the next eight
months and saves Rs. 5600 a year. His average monthly income is
(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 2200 (c) Rs. 2400 (d) Rs. 2600

7. M,N and O enter into a partnership and their shares are in the ratio : 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5. “After 4 months, M withdraws
half of his capital and after 8 months, a profit of Rs. 2600 is divided among them, What is N’s share?
(a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs.1200 (c) Rs.1300 (d) Rs.900

8. In my office the average age of all the female employees is 21 years & that of male employees is 32 years, where the
average age of all the employees is 28 years. The no. of employees in my office could be.
(a)35 (b)78 (c)231 (d)90

9. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5 :3. If 8 litres of this mixture be replaced by 4 litres of milk,
the ratio of milk to water in the new would be:
(a) 23 : 9 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 8 : 3 (d) 4 : 3

10. A certain sum amounts to Rs 18600 in 4 yr and Rs 20400 in 6 yr under simple interest. Find the sum
(a) Rs.16780 (b) Rs.15450 (c) Rs.16000 (d) Rs.15000

11. HCF of two numbers is 12 and their product is 3600. How many such pairs of numbers can be formed ?
(a) 0 (b)1 (c) 2 (d) 4
12. Find the LCM of 4/3, 8/9, 3/5
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 1/24 (d) 1/20
13. Find the least number which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 24 leaves the same remainder 2 in each case.
(a) 122 (b) 120 (c) 124 (d) 126

14. Two trains running in the same direction at 80 kmph and 44 Kmph completely pass one another in, 2 min. If the
length of the first train is 250 m, the length of the second train is :
(a) 800 m (b) 850 m (c) 900 m (d) 950

15. A man can row a distance of 45 kms with the stream in 5 hours whereas it takes 9 hours to row the same distance
against the stream. What is the speed of the man in still water?
(a) 6 kms (b) 5 kms (c) 7 kms (d) 2 kms

16. A can complete a journey in 17 h. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 36 km/h and second half at the
rate of 24 km/h. Find the total journey in km.
(a) 449.2 km (b)432.4 km (c) 489.6 km (d) 207.2 km

17. Two pipes Arun and Bablu can separately fill a cistern in 45 minutes and 60 min respectively There is a third pipe in
the bottom of the cistern to empty it if all the three pipes are simultaneously opened, then the cistern is full in 40
minutes. In how much time, the third pipe alone can empty the cistern ?
(a) 90min (b) 72min (c) 110min (d) 120min

18. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what Pankaj has the average
money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has
(a) Rs.55 (b) Rs.60 (c) Rs.180 (d) Rs 65

19. The sum of the ages of 7 children born at the intervals of 4 yrs each is 126 years. What is the age of the youngest
child:
(a) 4 years (b) 8 years (c) 10 years (d) 6 years

20. Find the amount on Rs 12000 at 10% per annum for 2 yr and 6 months, compounded annually:
(a) Rs 14675 (b) Rs 15246 (c) Rs 14850 (d) Rs 15940

Data Interpretation
Direction for (Qs.21-24): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follows:
Number of students (in thousands)appearing (A) for a Competitive exam from six different states & percentage passing
(P) the exam the years-
Year 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
States A %P A %P A %P A %P A %P A %P
A 2.3 11 4.2 21 3.5 12 2.0 22 1.8 14 1.2 17
B 3.5 14 3.6 16 3.4 11 1.3 15 2.3 16 2.1 18
C 1.8 23 2.8 13 2.9 16 4.5 24 2.3 23 3.9 20
D 2.9 18 2.8 15 1.6 20 3.2 20 3.3 16 4.0 19
E 4.4 17 3.2 23 1.9 16 1.5 18 3.1 18 2.7 14
F 3.2 21 3.0 14 4.0 14 2.6 11 3.8 19 2.3 13
A= Appeared %P= Percentage passing
21. What is the total number of students passing in the exam from State B in the year 2002 & 2003 together?
(a) 1206 (b) 1068 (c) 1146 (d) none
22. What is the respective ratio of number of students passing in the exam from state C in the year 2004 to those
passing in the exam from state E in the year 2007?
(a) 232:189 (b) 117:248 (c) 248:117 (d) 189:232

23. Which state has the highest number of students appearing for the exam in all the years together?
(a) D (b) E (c) F (d) C

24. What is the total number of students passing in the exam in the year 2005from all states together?
(a)2836 (b) 2911 (c) 2624 (d) 2543

Direction for (Qs. 25-29): A cosmetic company produces five different products. The sales of these five products (in lakh
number of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are shown in the following bar-graph. The questions given below are based n
this graph.
Sales(in lakh number of packs) of five different products of a Cosmetic Company during 1995 and 2000
60
48,17
Number of packs)
SALES (in Lakh

37,76
40 29,14 1995
20,15
20 14,97 12,21
7,88 10,19
5,93 5,01
0 2000
Lipsticks Nail Enamels Talcum Powder Shampoos Conditioners

25. The sales have increased by nearly 55% from 1995 to 2000 in the case of
(a) Lipsticks (b) Nail enamels (c) Talcum powders (d) Shampoos
26. During the period 1995-2000, the minimum rate of increase in sales is in the case of
(a) Lipsticks (b) Nail enamels (c) Talcum powders (d) Shampoos
27. The sales of lipsticks in 2000 was by what percent more than the sales of nail enamels in 2000?(rounded off to the
nearest integer)
(a) 33% (b)31% (c) 28% (d) 22%
28. The sales of conditioners in 1995 was by what percent less than the sales of shampoos in 1995?(rounded off to the
nearest integer)
(a) 57% (b)36% (c) 29% (d) 25%
29. What is the approximate ratio of the sales of nail enamels in 2000 to the sales of Talcum powders in 1995?
(a) 7:2 (b) 5:2 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 2:1

Direction for (Qs. 30-34): The following line-graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who qualified an
examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a period of nine years from
1990 to 1998. Study the graph and answer the questions which are based on it.
100
Percentage

80
70
60 60 60 60
50 50 50
30
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
30. What was the number of candidates appeared in the year 1992, if the number of candidates qualified in that year
was 24720?
(a) 44300 (b)41200 (c)39100 (d)36500

31. The difference between the percentages of candidates qualjfied to appeared was maximum in which of the following
pairs of years?
(a)1992 and 1993 (b)1994 and 1996 (c)1991 and 1997 (d)1993 and 1996

32. If the number of candidates qualified in the years 1991, 1993, 1995 and 1997 be 24102, 28080,27120 and 28680
respectively, then out of these four years, the number of candidates appeared was highest during the year
(a)1991 (b)1993 (c)1995 (d)1997

33. If the total number of candidates qualified in 1997 and 1998 together was 58920 and the number of candidates
appeared in 1997 was 47800, then what was the total number of candidates appeared in 1997 and 1998 together?
(a) 92600 (b) 91000 (c) 90646 (d) 88000

34. If the total number of candidates appeared in 1992 and 1993 together was 68700, then the total number of
candidates qualified in these two years together was
(a)48240 (b)48090 (c)47130 (d)Date inadequate

Logical Reasoning
Directions (Q. 35-39) : Read the following information and answer the questions :
(i) P, Q, R, S, T,U, V and W are sitting in a row facing North. (ii) P is fourth to the right of T. (iii) W is fourth to the left of S.
(iv) R and U, which are not at the ends, are neighbours of Q and T respectively, (v) W is next to the left of P and P is the
neighbour of Q.
35. What is the position of U ?
(a) Next to the right of T
(b) Next to the right of V
(c) Sixth to the right of S
(d) Between V and W
(e) None of these

36. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(a)V is the neighbour of W and U
(b)Q is next to the right of P
(c)T is at left end
(d)R is next to the right of Q
(e)None of these

37. Who is/are the neighbours of S ?

(a) U alone (b) R alone (c)Q and R (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these

38. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(a)W is second to the right of U.
(b)T is fourth to the left of P.
(c)S is fourth to the right of W.
(d)P is third to the left of S.
(e)None of these

39. Who are sitting at the ends ?

(a) T and R (b) U and S (c) V and Q (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these

Direction for Qs.(40-43):

(1) Six persons L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in two rows, three in each.
(2) P is not at the end of any row.
(3) O is second to the left of Q.
(4) N, the neighbour of P, is sitting diagonally opposite to O.
(5) M is the neighbour of Q.
40. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) Q and N (b) O and L (c) O and N (d) L and Q (e) L and M

41. Which of the following are in the same row?

(a) L and P (b) P and O (c) M and N (d) L and M (e) N and Q

42. Which of the following are in one of the two rows?

(a) QMN (b) NPM (c) OMQ (d) LPQ (e) LMQ

43. After interchanging seat with P, who will be the neighbor’s of O in the new position?
(a) N and L (b) Q and M (c) Only L (d) Only M (e) only N

44. Ranbir is standing at a point. He walks 20 m towards the East and further 10 m towards the South, then he walks 35
m towards the West and further 5 m towards the North, then he walks 15 m towards the East. What is the straight
distance in metres between his starting point and the point where he reached last ?
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c)10 (d) 15 (e) None of these

45. In a certain code, SOCIAL is written as TQFMFR, then how you will code DIMPLE?
(a) EKPTQK (b) EKPQPJ (c) EKPSPJ (d) EKPSOH (e) None of these

46. 3, 128, 6, 64, 9,………...., 12, 16, 15, 8

(a) 32 (b) 12 (c) 108 (d) 72 (e) 64

Directions (Q. 47-50) : On the basis of the information given below, select the correct alternative as answer for the
questions which follow the information.
Six plays L, M, N, O, P and Q are to be staged, one on each day from Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to
be in accordance with the following information.
(I)L must be staged a day before P.
(II)N must not be staged on Tuesday.
(III) M must be staged on the day following the day on which Q is staged.
(IV) O must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by M.
(V)P must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
47. Which of the following plays is staged immediately after P ?
(a) M (b) O (c) L (d) Q (e) None of these
48. Which of the following plays is played on Monday ?
(a) P (b) Q (c) N (d)M (e)L

49. Play O is between which of the following pair of plays ?

(a) M and P (b) P and Q (c) L and P (d) N and P (e) None of these

50. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(a)P, L, M, Q, O, N (b)L, Q, M, P, O, N (c)L, Q, M, N, O, P (d)Q, L, M, P, O, N (e) None

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Q.Darwin provided the profound understanding that evolution has influenced the shape of our minds as strongly as it
has the shape of our bodies. Since humans evolved from the same primate ancestor as modern chimpanzees or gorillas,
he suggested one could learn more by comparing human instincts, emotions, and behaviors to those of animals than
one can surmise from subjective speculation. As he put it, “he who understands baboon would do more towards
metaphysics than Locke.” Philosophy is inadequate to understand the roots of human psychology, because self-
reflection does not make us aware of the forces that drive most of our reactions to the environment. Rather, we are
subject to inborn tendencies, which develop through the reciprocally influential forces of natural and sexual selection.
Natural selection is the process by which the variants within a species that are best adapted to survive in their
environment win the reproductive contest – at least until an even better-adapted variant comes along. The traits that
enable people to feed and protect themselves increase the likelihood that they will live long enough to produce
offspring, whom they will be able to feed and protect until maturity. In a sense, sexual selection is the psychological
extension of natural selection. But, instead of gaining an advantage from traits that enhance one’s ability to survive, one
gains an advantage from qualities that potential mates have evolved to find appealing.
51. How did evolution affect individuals according to Darwin?
1)Mentally and emotionally 2)Psychologically and physiologically
3)Sharpened human instincts 4)Provided long life and expands memory

52.By “primate” what does the author mean?

1)Insects 2)Amphibians 3)Mammals 4)Fish

53.What is the tone of the passage?

1)Social 2)Educational 3)Psychological 4)Philosophical

54.The most suitable title for the pasaage is:

1)Charles Darwin and his Work 2)Human Evolution
3)Darwin's Theory of Evolution 4)Darwin's Theory of Trait Development in Humans

55.By “surmise” the author means:

1) to opine 2) to govern 3) to explain 4) to monitor

56.What is natural selection?

1) It is the process of development of human traits.
2) It is a contest for reproduction.
3) It is the gradual process by which biological traits become more or less common in a population.
4) It is the process of psychological development of a group of species
Direction (Q 57 – 58): Give the Synonym
57. PROBITY
(a) Courtesy
(b) Promptness
(c) Efficiency
(d) Uprightness
58. GARISH
(a) Beautifully decorated
(b) Boldly arranged
(c) Unpleasantly gaudy
(d) Carefully prepared

Direction (Q 59 – 60): Give the Antonym

59. INQUISITIVE
(a) inadequate
(b) immature
(c) uncomfortable
(d) unconcerned

60. SOBRIETY
(a) moderation
(b) drunkenness
(c) dizziness
(d) stupidity

Direction (Q 61-66) Give the correct preposition

61. It is surprising indeed that he has an access all the important leaders of the country.
(a) about (b) by (c) to (d) of

62. The trouble originated a petty quarrel.

(a) in (b) about (c) to (d) beside

63. It is due to their lethargy that the plan fell .

(a) through (b) out (c) away (d) apart

64. He felt very much grateful his boss for the kindness he had shown in granting him leave.
(a) to (b) for (c) with (d) on

65. Every one of us will have to atone his or her misdeeds.

(a) of (b) for (c) by (d) with

66. The consequences of his haughtiness were that his services were dispensed by his master.
(a) with (b) about (c) from (d) up

Direction (Q 67-71) In the given sentence replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct.
67. The orator had been left the auditorium before the audience stood up.
(a) Had been leaving
 (b) Was left
(c) Had left
(d) Would leave
(e) No correction required

68. He dislikes the word dislike, isn't he

(a) Didn’t he
(b) Doesn’t he
(c) Hasn’t he
(d) Does he
(e) No correction required

69. We must take it granted that Madhu will not come for today's function.
(a) Take it for granted
(b) Taking it granted
(c) Took it as granted
(d) Have it granted
(e) No correction required

70. My doctor knew that I would eventually recover and do kind of work I would be doing before
(a) Would have been doing
(b) Would have done
(c) Had been done
(d) Had been doing
(e) No correction required

71. Later he became unpopular because he tried to lord it on his followers.

(a) To lord it for
(b) To lord over
(c) To lord it over
(d) To lord it over on
(e) No correction required

Verbal reasoning
Direction (Q 72-75) In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
72. Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.
Conclusions: 1. All the trucks are scooters.
2. Some scooters are trucks.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow
73. Statements: All cups are books. All books are shirts.
Conclusions: 1. Some cups are not shirts.
2.Some shirts are cups.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

74. Statements: Some cows are crows. Some crows are elephants.
Conclusions: 1. Some cows are elephants.
2. All crows are elephants.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

75.Statements: All the pencils are pens. All the pens are inks.
Conclusions: 1. All the pencils are inks.
2. Some inks are pencils.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

Direction (Q 76-78) In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of
them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
76. Statements: This world is neither good nor evil; each man manufactures a world for himself.
Conclusions: 1. Some people find this world quite good.
2. Some people find this world quite bad.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

77. Statements: The eligibility for admission to the course is minimum second class Master's degree. However, the
candidates who have appeared for the final year examination of Master's degree can also apply.
Conclusions: 1. All candidates who have yet to get their Master's degree will be there in the list of selected
candidates.
2. All candidates having obtained second class Master's degree will be there in the list of selected
candidates.
 (a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

78. Statements: Any student who does not behave properly while in the school brings bad name to himself and
also for the school.
Conclusions: 1. Such student should be removed from the school.
2. Stricter discipline does not improve behaviour of the students.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

Direction (Q 79-81) Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
79. Statement: Should a total ban be put on trapping wild animals?
Arguments: 1. Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money;
2. No. Bans on hunting and trapping are not effective.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

80. Statement: Should Government close down loss-making public sector enterprises?
Arguments: 1. No. All employees will lose their jobs, security and earning, what would they do?
2. Yes. In a competitive world the rule is 'survival of the fittest'.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

81. Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments: 1. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.
2. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities. So ? Why offer
extra incentives!
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong
Direction (Q 82-85) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement,
decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
82. Statement: A very large number of students have failed in the final high school examination due to faulty
questions in one of the subjects.
Courses of Action: 1. All the students who have failed in the subject should be allowed to take supplementary
examination.
2. All those who are responsible for the error should be suspended and an enquiry should be initiated to find out the
facts.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows
83. Statement: A large number of engineering graduates in the country are not in a position to have gainful employment
at present and the number of such engineers is likely to grow in the future.
Courses of Action: 1. The government should launch attractive employment generation schemes and encourage
these graduates to opt for such schemes to use their expertise and knowledge effectively.
2. This happened due to proliferation of engineering colleges in the country and thereby lowered the quality of the
engineering graduates. Those colleges which are not equipped to impart quality education
should be closed down.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

84. Statement: Every year, at the beginning or at the end of the monsoons, we have some cases of conjunctivitis,
but this year, it seems to be a major epidemic, witnessed after nearly four years.
Courses of Action: 1. Precautionary measures should be taken after every four years to check this epidemic.
2. People should be advised to drink boiled water during rainy season.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

85. Statement: Every year large number of devotees dies due to severe cold on their way to the shrine located at
the top of the mountain range.
Courses of Action: 1. The devotees should be discouraged to visit the shrine without having proper warm clothes and
other amenities.
2. The government should provide warm clothes and shelter to all the devotees visiting the shrine.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. Pen Holder grip is used in which of the following sports ?
(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton

87. In which of the following sports Decision Referral System is used?

(a) Hockey (b) Tennis (c) Chess (d) Cricket

88. Benson Hedges Cup is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Hockey (b) Cricket (c) Football (d) Basket Ball

89. WISPA is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Football (b) Chess (c) Cricket (d) Squash

90. Which among the following is not a trophy or cup related to Hockey?
(a) Bombay Gold Cup (b) Gurmeet Trophy (c) Indira Gold Cup (d) Narang Cup

91. Who among the following served as India’s first Test Captain?
(a) Nawab of Pataudi Senior (b) Nawab Mansoor Ali Khan (c) C. K. Nayudu (d) Lala Amarna

92. What is the other name of Salt Lake Stadium ?

(a) Yuba Bharti Stadium (b) Bharat Bharti Stadium (c) Eden Gardens (d) Kolkata Stadium

93. Ezat Cup is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Polo (b) Tennis (c) Lawn Tennis (d) Cricket

94. What is the approximate maximum weight of Golf Ball as per Rules of Golf?
(a) 20 gms (b) 25 gms (c) 40 gms (d) 45 gms

95. Which among the following team was first winner of “World Cup Hockey” ?
(a) Spain (b) France (c) UK (d) Pakistan

96. With Which of the following sports M Vijayakrishna Memorial Cup is related to ?
(a) Badminton (b) Table Tennis (c) Horse Races (d) Polo

97. For how many times ” Undivided India” was part / member of summer Olympics?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

98. Which among the following sports have largest number of participants in teams of either side?
(a) Rugby Football (b) Water polo (c) Baseball (d) Soccer

99. With which of the following sports “Agakhan trophy” is related to ?

(a) Field Hockey (b) Horse Racing (c) Table Tennis (d) Show Jumping
100. In context of the Indian awards and honors in sports, which among the following is given as Life Time achievement
award?
(a) Dronacharya Award (b) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(c) Dhyan Chand Award (d) Arjuna Award

101. For which of the following games / sports the term Ring is not used for ground/ space?
(a) Boxing (b) Gymnastics (c) Ice Hockey (d) Baseball

102. “Prince of Wales Cup ” is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Boxinng (b) Golf (c) Hockey (d) Tennis

103. The ”Marquess of Queensberry rules” is a code of generally accepted rules in which of the following sports?
(a) Chess (b) Boxing (c) Hockey (d) Tennis

104. Since which of the following year Winter Olympics are held ?
(a) 1896 (b) 1900 (c) 1888 (d) 1924

105. Where were the 2018 Asian Games held?

(a) Manila (b) Doha (c) Bangkok (d) Jakarta

106. How many times has India won the gold medal in men’s hockey at the Asian Games?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

107. How many countries participated at the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) 45 (B)51 (c) 42 (d) 37

108. From which city did the torch relay for the 2018 Asian Games begin on 15 July 2018?
(a) Incheon (b) Hangzhou (c) New Delhi (d) Olympia

109. In which event did India win the maximum number of medals at the 2018 Asian Games?
(a) Shooting (b) Athletics (c) Archery (d) Boxing

110. Which country won the gold medal in men's hockey at the 2018 Asian Games?
(a) South Korea (b) Japan (c) Pakistan (d) Malaysia

111. Who was the flag bearer of the Indian contingent at the opening ceremony of Asian Games 2018?
(a) Saina Nehwal (b) Neeraj Chopra (c) PV Sindhu (d) Bajrang Poonia

112. Who was the flag bearer of the Indian contingent at the closing ceremony of Asian Games 2018?
(a) Rani Rampal (b) Rahi Sarnobat (c) Swapna Barman (d) Hima Das

113. What was the rank of India in the final medals tally at the 2018 Asian Games?
(a) Fifth (b) Sixth (c) Seventh (d) Eighth
114. To which team did Indian women's hockey team lose in the finals to win the silver at the 2018 Asian Games?
(a) Japan (b) South Korea (c) Malaysia (d) Indonesia
115. Which city in China will be the host for 2022 Asian Games?
(a) Shanghai (b) Guangzhou (c) Hangzhou (d) Shenzhen

116. Which of the following is the medals tally in gold, silver, bronze order of India at the 2018 Asian Games?
(a) 15, 24, 30 (b) 14, 25, 30 (c) 15, 23, 31 (d) 14, 22, 35

117. Which country topped the medal tally at the 2018 Asian Games?
(a) China (b) Indonesia (c) Japan (d) Korea

118. Which of the following is not a mascot of 2018 Asian Games?

(a) Kaka (b) Amni (c) Atung (d) Bhin Bhin

119. How many new games were introduced in 2018 Asian Games?
(a) 12 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 8

120. Amit Panghal is related to which sports?

(a) Wrestling (b) Boxing (c) Shooting (d) Tennis
 Quantitative Analysis

1. (d) P Q RS.
10 10 100
8 12 96
4 => 4% decrease

2. (c) 7:1

3. (a) 6000 Rs.

4. (d) Old SP=Rs.5600 Old CP=Rs.5000

New CP=6500
220 3
New SP=6720
P% =6500 × 100 = 3 8 %

5. (b) A:B:C=10×4+5×8+90×6+60×6+14×6
42
So, A:B:C=40:45:42 C’s Share=127×19050=6300

6. (c) 1800× 4 = 7200 2000 × 8=16000

23200+5600=28800/12=2400

7. (a) 1000 Rs.

32−28 4
8.(c) 28−21= 7= 4+7= 11, only 231 is multiple of 11

7.5+4=11.5
9. (a) 20-8 = 12 => 23:9
4.5=4.5

10. (d) Difference of interest=20400-18600=1800(2 years)

Amount after 4 yrs=18600-3600 (4 yrs interest)
P=15000

11. (b) 12x×12y=3600 x×y=25=1

12. (b) By option 24

𝐿𝐶𝑀 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑢𝑚 24
=
𝐻𝐶𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜 1

13. (a) By option 122

0.25+𝑥
14. (d) 2 = 80 − 44
60 2
0.25+x=(80-44) × 60 => 𝑥 = 0.95
In m=0.95× 1000 = 950 𝑚
45 45 9+5
15. (c) D= 5 = 9 U= 9 = 5 => 2 = 7 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
𝑥 𝑥 4𝑥+6𝑥
16. (c) 36 + 24 = 17 144
= 17 => 244.8 ×2=489.6
1 1 1 1
17. (b) 45 + 60 − 𝑥 = 40
1 1 1 1
45 + 60 − 40= 𝑥
8+6−9 1
360
=𝑥 x=72min

18. (d) x+1.5x+3x=330 x=60 3x=180

P S M

19. (d) 7x+84=126

7x=42 x=6
127.05×12000
20. (b) 64----- 100
= 15246

Data Interpretation
(Qs. 21-24) 14
21. (d) Students passing from state B in 2002 = 3500× 100 = 490 Students passing from state B in 2003 =
16
3600× 100
=
576.
So, students passing from state B in year 2002 & 2003 together = 490+576=1066.

16
22. (a)Students passing in 2004 from state C = 2900× 100 = 464 Students passing in 2007 from state E = 2700×
14
100
= 378
464 232
Their ratio = 378 = 189

23. (c) Students appearing from different state are: State A: 2300+4200+3500+2000+1800+1200=15000
B: 3500+3600+3400+1300+2300+2100 = 16200 C : 1800+2800+2900+4500+2300+3900=18200
D: 2900+2800+1600+3200+3300+4000 = 17800 E: 4400+3200+1900+1500+3100+2700 = 16800
F: 3200+3000+4000+2600+3800+2300 = 18900

22
24. (B) Students passing in 2005 from all states together, State A = 2000× 100 = 440
15 24 20 18 11
B= 1300× 100 = 195 C=4500× 100 = 1080 D=3200× 100 = 640 E=1500× 100 = 270 F= 2600× 1000 = 286
TOTAL = 2911

(Qs. 25-29)
(48.17−20.15)
25. (d)The percentage increase from 1995 to 2000 for various products are : Lipsticks =[
20.15
×100 ]%=139.06%
37.76−5.93 (29.14−14.97)
Nail enamels = [ 5.93
×100]%=536.76% Talcum powders = [ 14.97
×100]%=94.66%
(12.21−7.88) (10.19−5.01)
Shampoos =[ 7.88
×100]%=54.95%~55% Conditioners =[ 5.01
×100]%=103.39%

26. (d): As calculated in the solution of Q. 33, the minimum rate of increase in sales from 1995 to 2000 is in the case of
Shampoos.
(48.17−37.76)
27. (c): Required percentage =[ 37.76
×100]%=27.57%~28%
(7.88−5.01)
28. (b):Required percentage =[ 7.88
×100]%=36.42%~36%
37.76 5
29. (b):Required ratio = 14.97 ~2.5 = 2
(Qs. 30-34)
24720×100
30. (b): Let the number of candidates appeared in the year 1992 be x. Then,60% of x = 24720 => x = 60
= 41200.

31. (d)The difference between the percentages of candidates qualified to the candidates appeared for the givenpairs
are:
(i)For 1992 and 1993 =(80 -60)= 20 (ii)For 1994 and 1996 =(60 -50)= 10 (iii)For 1991 and 1997
=(60 -50)= 10
(iv)For 1993 and 1996 =(80 -50)= 30 (v)For 1994 and 1998 =(70 -60)= 10
Clearly, the highest difference is for the pair 1993 and 1996.

24102×100
32. (a): Let the number of candidates appeared in the year 1991 be x. Then 50% of x = 24102 => x = = 48204
50
The number of candidates appeared in 1991 was 48204. Similarly, the number of candidates appeared in 1993
28080×100
= 80
= 35100
27120×100
the number of candidates appeared in 1995 = 45200 & the number of candidates appeared in 1997
28680×100 60
= 60
= 47800
Thus, the number of candidates appeared was highest during the year 1991.

33. (b): The number of candidates qualified in 1997 = 60% o/47800 = 28680.
Therefore, the number of candidates qualified in 1998 = 58920 - 28680 = 30240.
30240×100
Let, the number of candidates appeared in 1998 be x. Then, 70% of x = 30240 => x = = 43200.
70
Thus, the total number of candidates appeared in 1997 and 1998 together= (47800+ 43200) = 91000.

34. (d):The total number of candidates qualified in 1992 and 1994 together cannot be determined until we know at
least, the number of candidates appeared or candidates qualified, in any one of the two years 1992 or 1994 or even the
percentage of candidates qualified to appeared in 1992 and 1994 together. Hence, the data is inadequate.

Logical Reasoning
(Q. 35-39) : The order of sitting of all the eight persons which satisfies all the conditions will be as per figure.
| | | | | | |
T U V W P Q R S
35. (a) It is clear from the above order that U is next to the right of T.

36. (d) Statement S is wrong because R is next to the right of Q.

37. (b) Because S is to the extreme right, hence has only one neighbour R.

38. (e) All the statements are correct.

39. (e) T and S are sitting at the extreme ends.

(Qs. 40-43). Q M O

N P L

Or
L P N
O M Q
40. (a)
41. (a)
42. (c)
43. (a)

44. (b) The distance between A and B is 5m.

45. (a) Letters for the basic word have been in forward direction in the coded word with a gap of 0,1,2,3,4, and 5 letters
as their position in the alphabet. Therefore, the word DIMPLE will be coded as EKPTQK.

46. (a) There are two alternate series, one 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 and another 8, 16, 32, 64, 128 (every number is double of
preceding number). Hence, our answer is 32.

Directions (Q. 47-50):

Mon Tues Wed Thurs Fri Sat
Q M L P O N
From the information (IV), it is clear that play O will be staged on Friday. It is also clear from the information (I) and (III)
that play P will follow play L, and M will follow play Q. And for each such pair, the two consecutive days available are
Monday, Tuesday or Wednesday, Thursday. But, it is given in information (IV) that play M cannot be staged immediately
before M. Therefore, plays Q and M will be staged on Monday and Tuesday respectively and plays L and P will be staged
on Wednesday and Thursday respectively.
47. (b) Play O is staged after P.

48. (b) Play Q is staged on Monday.

49. (d) From the above arrangement, we find that play O is staged exactly between the day on which P and N are staged.

50. (e) The correct sequence of plays is QMLPON . None of the options shows the correct order. Hence, option (e) is our
answer.

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

51. Solution:The first line of the passage clearly states, “Darwin provided the profound understanding that evolution has
influenced the shape of our minds as strongly as it has the shape of our bodies.” Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

52. Solution:“Primates” are characterized by refined development of the hands and feet, a shortened snout, and a large
brain. "Mammals" best fits this description. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

53.Solution:The passage is about Darwin's theory of evolution. It gives us knowledge about the theory. Therefore, it is
largely educational.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

54.Solution:The passage clearly talks about Darwin and his evolutionary theory which includes human trait
development.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

55.Solution:“Surmise” means ‘to make a guess or conjecture.’ “To opine” means ‘to voice one's opinion.’
Therefore, “to opine” is a synonym of “surmise.”Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
56.Solution:The passage clearly states, “Natural selection is the process by which the variants within a species that are
best adapted to survive in their environment win the reproductive contest ... The traits that enable people to feed and
protect themselves increase the likelihood that they will live long enough to produce offspring, whom they will be able
to feed and protect until maturity.” The statements talk about the development of traits in species.
Option 1 is incorrect as “natural selection” is the process of development of traits in all species and not only in
humans.Options 2 and 3 do not fit into the definition of natural selection.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

57. (d)
58. (c)
59. (d)
60. (b)
61. (c)
62. (a)
63. (a)
64. (a)
65. (b)
66. (a)
67. (c)
68. (b)
69. (a)
70. (d)
71. (c)
Verbal reasoning
72. Option D
Explanation:

Neither (1) nor (2) follows.

73. Option B
Explanation:

74. Option D
Explanation:
75. Option E
Explanation:

76. Option E
Explanation:
The statement mentions that the world for a man is as he makes it himself. So, some people might find it good and some
quite bad. Thus, both I and II follow.

77. Option D
Explanation:
The statement mentions that the candidates who have obtained second class Master's degree or have appeared for the
final year examination of Master's degree, can apply for admission. This implies that both types of candidates may be
selected on certain grounds. Thus, some candidates of each type and not all candidates of any one type, may be
selected. So, neither I nor II follows.

78. Option D
Explanation:
Clearly, I cannot be deduced from the statement. Also, nothing about discipline is mentioned in the statement. So,
neither I nor II follows.

79. Option D
Explanation:
Clearly, ban is necessary to protect our natural environment. So, none of the arguments is strong enough.

80. Option A
Explanation:
Closing down public-sector enterprises will definitely throw the engaged persons out of employment. So, argument I
holds. Also, closing down is no solution for a loss-making enterprise. Rather, its causes of failure should be studied,
analyzed and the essential reforms implemented. Even if this does not work out, the enterprise may be privatized. So,
argument II is vague,
81. Option A
Explanation:
Clearly, government jobs in rural areas are underlined with several difficulties. In lieu of these, extra incentives are
needed. So, only argument I holds strong.

82. Option E
Explanation:
There being faulty questions in the examination paper is a blunder on the part of school management and students
should not be made to suffer on account of this. Thus, a re-test should be organised for the students and those
responsible for the error be penalised to prevent reoccurrence of such mistake in the future. Hence, both the courses
follow.

83. Option B
Explanation:
The emphasis should be not on the Government putting all the engineering graduates to jobs but on the colleges
producing not 'degree-holders' but real technical minds which could compete well for gainful employment. So, only
course II follows.

84. Option B
Explanation:
The disease occurs at the end of monsoons every year. So, precautionary measures every four years shall not help. The
second course of action shall be a preventive measure. So, only course II follows.

85. Option A
Explanation:
Clearly, the problem can be solved by warning the devotees of the excessive cold at the shrine. So, only I follow.

Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. (c) Table Tennis
87. (d) Cricket
88. (b) Cricket
89. (d) Squash
90. (d) Narang Cup
91. (c) C. K. Nayudu
92. (a) Yuba Bharti Stadium
93. (a) Polo
94. (d) 45 gms
95. (d) Pakistan
96. (c) Horse Races
97. (d) 5
98. (a) Rugby Football
99. (d) Show Jumping
100. (c) Dhyan Chand Award
101. (d) Baseball
102. (b) Golf
103. (b) Boxing
104. (d) 1924
105. (d) Jakarta
106. (b) Three
107. (a) 45
108. (c) New Delhi
109. (b) Athletics
110. (b) Japan
111. (b) Neeraj Chopra
112. (a) Rani Rampal
113. (d) Eighth
114. (a) Japan
115. (c) Hangzhou
116. (a) 15, 24, 30
117. (a) China
118. (b) Amni
119. C) 10
120. B) Boxing
 Quantitative Analysis
1. X's salary is half that of Y. If X got a 40% rise in his salary and Y got a 30% rise in his salary then the percentage
increases in combined salaries of both is:
(a) 30 (b) 33.33 (c) 37.5 (d) 75

2. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5:2.On adding 6 litres of water, the ratio of milk to water becomes 5:3.
The quantity of milk in the mixture is:
(a) 16 litres (b)25 litres (c) 30 litres (d)22.75 litres

3. In a class, 20% of the students were absent for an exam. 40% failed by 20 marks and 5% just passed because of grace
marks of 5. Find the average score of the class if the remaining students scored an average of 60 marks and the pass
marks are 33 (counting the final scores of the candidates).
(a) 37.266 (b) 37.6 (c) 37.13 (d) None

4. A sells a plane priced at Rs. 2,00,000.' He gives a discount of 8% on the first Rs. 150,000 and 5% on the remaining Rs.
5,000. His competitor B sells a plane of the same make, priced at Rs. 2,00,000. If he wants to be competitive what
percent discount should B offer on the marked price.
(a) 5% (b) 5.5% (c) 6.66% (d)7.25%

5. A & B entered into a partnership with capitals of in the ratio 3:4. After 3 months A withdrew 1/3 of his capital and B
withdrew 1/4 of his capital. The gain at the end of 10 months was Rs. 504. A’s share in this profit is?
(a) Rs.303 (b) Rs.283 (c) Rs. 198 (d) Rs. 207

6. A person covers half his journey by train at 60 km/h, half the remainder by bus at 30 km/h and the rest by cycle at 10
km/h. Find his average speed during the entire journey
(a) 15 km/h (b) 24 km/h (c) 20 km/h (d) 33.3 km/h

7. In a partnership, G invests 1/6 of the capital for 1/6 of the time, H invests 1/3 of the capital for 1/3 of the time and U,
the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs. 4600, H’s share is:
(a) Rs. 650 (b) Rs. 800 (c) Rs. 960 (d) Rs. 1000

8. A trader has 320 kg of tea, a part of which he sells at 18% profit and the rest at 26% profit. He gains.21% on the whole.
What is the quantity sold at 18% profit?
(a) 215 kg (b) 200 kg (c) 120 kg (d) 165 kg

9. L and M are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7 :2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If equal
quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy N, the ratio of gold and copper in N will be:
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 5 : 9 (c) 7 : 5 (d) 9 : 5

10. If a certain principal amount increases to Rs. 6,500 in 3 years at a certain fixed rate of simple interest and Rs. 7,500 in
5 years at the same rate of interest, then what is the rate of simple interest?
(a) 5% (b)10% (c)15% (d)20%

11. The LCM of two numbers is 36 times that of their HCF. The product of numbers is 3600. Find their HCF,
(a) 10 (b)15 (c) 8 (d) 20
12. Find the HCF of 2/5, 12/11, 1/3
(a)1/165 (b)5/165 (c)2/165 (d)12/165

13. Find the least number which when divided by 5. 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3 but when divided by 9 leaves no
remainder.
(a) 1683 (b) 1725 (c) 1685 (d) 1723

14. A train 200 m long takes 9 sec to cross a man walking at 5 km/hr in the direction opposite to that of the train. Find
the speed of the train:
(a) 80 km/hr (b) 70 km/hr (c) 75 km/hr (d) 90 km/hr

15. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 kms in 2 hrs, while for the same distance upstream, it takes 4
hours. The speed of the boat in still water:
(a) 6 km/hr (b) 8 km/hr (c) 10 km/hr (d) 12km/h

16. A person travels three equal distances with speeds of 4 km/h, 10 km/h and 12 km/h and takes a total time of 104
min. The total distance (in km) is
(a) 9 km (b) 7.2 km (c) 12 km (d) 15.6 km

17. A tab can fill a tank in 8 hours. After half the tank is filled three more similar taps opened. What is the total time
taken to fill the tank completely?
(a) 3hrs 15 min (b) 3hrs 45min (c) 5hrs (d) 4hrs15min

18. A man spends Rs. 1800 monthly on an average for the first four months and Rs. 2000 monthly for the next eight
months and saves Rs. 5600 a year. His average monthly income is
(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 2200 (c) Rs. 2400 (d) Rs. 2600

19. A father said to his son,”I was as old as you are at present at the time of your birth”. If the father's age is 62 years
now, the son’s age eight years back was:
(a) 25 years (b) 27 years (c) 21 years (d) 23 years

20. Find the compound interest on Rs 10500 at 8% per annum for 1 yr and 3 months, compounded annually:
(a) Rs 1066.80 (b) Rs 1154.20 (c) Rs 1048.10 (d) Rs 1124.50

Data Interpretation
Direction for (Qs. 21-24): Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below:
Number of cars (In thousands) of different models and colours sold in two cities in a year
Metro M Metro H
Model Colour Colour
Black Red Blue White Silver Black Red Blue White Silver
A 40 25 55 75 15 45 32 40 60 20
B 20 35 60 80 20 30 37 39 81 35
C 35 30 50 90 35 40 42 41 6 37
D 45 40 45 85 40 35 39 37 90 42
E 50 35 35 60 30 50 44 43 77 22
F 55 42 65 65 32 47 34 45 87 17
21. The difference between the white-coloured cars sold in the two metro of which of the following models is the
minimum?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B

22. The total number of the blue- coloured cars of model ‘E’ and ‘D’ sold in Metro H is exactly equal to number of white-
coloured cars of which model in Metro M?
(a) B (b) F (c) C (d) A

23. What is the difference between the number of blue-coloured cars of model ‘C’ sold in Metro M and number of red-
coloured cars of model ‘F’ sold in Metro H?
(a) 8,000 (b) 10,000 (c) 12,000 (d) None of these

24. The total number of silver-coloured cars sold in Metro H is approximately what percentage of that in Metro M?
(a) 130 (b) 140 (c) 90 (d) 100

Direction for (Qs. 25-29): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow.
80
75
65
60 60 60
55 55
50 50
45 45 state A
40 40 40
35 35 state B
30 30
20 20 state C
15
0
1994 1996 1998 2000 2002 2004

25. In which of the following years was the percentage increase in population of state ‘A’ from the preceding (given)
year the maximum?
(a) 1996 (b) 1998 (c) 2000 (d) 2002

26. What was the average population of state ’C’ for all the given years (in millions)?
5 2 3 3
(a) 506 (b) 603 (c) 555 (d) 625

27. What is the ratio of the average population of three states in 1994 to that in 1998?
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:3 (c) 12:23 (d) 13:24

28. What was the ratio of average population of state ‘B‘ for 1996, 1998 and 2000 to that of state ‘C’ for these three
years?
(a) 5:7 (b)25:28 (c)7:9 (d)15:19

29. What is the percentage increase in total population of vthe three states from 2000 to 2004?
2 1 2 1
(a) 303 % (b) 303 % (c) 333% (d) 333 %

Direction for (Qs. 30-34): Answer these questions based on the pie-charts given below:
Chart 1 shows the distribution by value of the top 6 suppliers of MFA Textiles in 1995.
Chart 2 shows the distribution by quantity of the top 6 supplies of MFA Textiles in 1995. The total value is 5760 million
Euro (European Currency). The total quantity is 1.055 million tonnes.
 Chart 1 Chart 2
Pakistan
12%
China China Pakistan
15% 17% 16%
Turkey India
20% Turkey
16% 15% India
Switzerl 26%
USA USA
and
17% 15%
20% Switzerl
and
11%
30. The country which has the highest average price, is
(a) China (b) Switzerland (c) Turkey (d) U.S.A.

31. The average price in Euro/kg for Turkey is nearly

(a) 4.20 (b) 4.80 (c) 5.80 (d) 6.20

32. The difference between the quantity of supplies by India and Pakistan (in million tonnes) is approximately
(a) 0.16 (b) 0.1 (c)0.09 (d) 0.23

33. What is the approximate average price of the total supplies of USA and China (Euros/tonne)?
(a) 5400 (b) 4800 (c) 6100 (d) 9900

34. The difference between the amount of supplies between Turkey and USA (value in million Euros) is approximately
(a) 172.8 (b) 124.2 (c) 96.2 (d) 57.6

Logical Reasoning
Directions (Q. 35-39 ) : Study the following information to answer the given questions.(i)Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G
and H are seated around a square table two on each side. (ii) There are three lady members and they are not seated
next to each other.(iii) F is between H and B. (iv) C is between E and B (v) D, a lady member, is second to the left of F.
(vi) B, a male member, is seated opposite to A, a lady member, (vii) There is a lady member between B & E.
35. Who among the following are the three lady members ?
(a) A, D and F (b) A, C and F (c) C, D and F (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these

36. Which of the following is true about F?

(a)F is a male member
(b)F is a female member
(c)Sex of F cannot be determined
(d)Position of F cannot be determined
(e)None

37. Who among the following is seated between A and D ?

(a) E (b) F (c) B (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these
38. Who among the following is to the immediate left of B ?
(a) C (b) F (c) E (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these

39. How many persons are seated between G and B ?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Can't be determined (e) None

Directions (Q. 40-43) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U. (ii) Q gets a North facing flat
and is not next to S. (iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats, (iv) R next to U, gets a South facing flat and T gets a North
facing flat.
40. Whose flat is between Q and S ?
(a) T (b) U (c) R (d)P (e) Data inadequate

41. The flats of which of the other pairs than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other ?
(a) PT (b) QP (c) QR (d)TS (e) None of these

42. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose flat will be next to that of U ?
(a) Q (b) T (c) P (d) R (e) None of these

43. Which of the combinations get South facing flats ?

(a) URP (b) UPT (c) QTS (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

44. Rahim started from Point X and walked straight 5 km West, then turned left and walked straight 2 km and again
turned left and walked straight 7 km. In which direction is he from the point X ?
(a) North-East (b) South-West (c) South-East (d) North-West (e) None of these

45. If CARPET is coded as TCEAPR, then the code for NATIONAL would be?
(a) NLATNOIA (b) LANOITAN (c) LNAANTOI (d) LNOINTAA (e) None of these

46. 5, 7, 11, 19, 35, 67, ........... , 259

(a) 64 (b) 131 (c) 135 (d) 32 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 47-50) : Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on them.
There are five persons A, B, C, D and E. One is Table Tennis player, one is Volleyball player, one is hockey player. A and D
are unmarried ladies and do not participate in any game. None of the ladies plays Volleyball or Table Tennis. There is a
married couple in which E is the husband. B is the brother of C and is neither a Volleyball player nor a hockey player.
47. Who is the Table Tennis player ?
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e)E

48. Who is the hockey player ?

(a)E (b)D (c)C (d)B (e)A

49. Who is the Volleyball player ?

(a)D (b)A (c)E (d)C (e)B
50. Who is the wife of E ?
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) Data inadequate

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Q.There’s something confusing about the consensus around Alice Munro. It has to do with the way her critics begin by
asserting her goodness, her greatness, her major-ness or her best-ness, and then quickly adopt a defensive tone,
instructing us in ways of seeing as virtues the many things about her writing that might be considered shortcomings. So
she writes only short stories, but the stories are richer than most novels. Over a career now in its sixth decade, she’s
rehearsed the same themes again and again, but that’s because she’s a master of variation. She has preternatural
powers of sympathy and empathy, but she’s never sentimental. She writes about and redeems ordinary life, ordinary
people – ‘people people people’, as Jonathan Franzen puts it.
Ordinary people turn out to live in a rural corner of Ontario between Toronto and Lake Huron, and to be white,
Christian, prudish and dangling on a class rung somewhere between genteel poverty and middle-class comfort.
Occasionally they move to the vicinity of Vancouver, only to go back to Ontario again. If this patch of the North Country
sounds like a provincial cage, just think of it as a Canadian Yoknapatawpha County, and ignore the ways the plainspoken
Munro is otherwise anti-Faulknerian. (‘I didn’t really like Faulkner that much,’ she has said.) It might be too much to call
her an anti-modernist, rather than someone on whom modernism didn’t leave much of an impression, but her
conventionality – a writer ‘of the old school’ in Anne Tyler’s phrase – won’t quite do. For her admirers it needs to be
offset by some kind of innovation. They usually point to her manipulation of time – her tic of adding a coda to a story,
marked usually by the words ‘years later’ – as if she were the Doctor Who of upmarket short story writing. Her great
theme is said to be memory, and there’s certainly something universal about remembering. ‘That Alice Munro, now 81,’
Charles McGrath, her first editor at the New Yorker, wrote recently in the New York Times, ‘is one of the great short
story writers not just of our time but of any time ought to go without saying by now.’ ‘Alice Munro,’ James Wood wrote
in the London Review of Books in 1997 on the publication of her Selected Stories, ‘is such a good writer that nobody
bothers anymore to judge her goodness … her reputation is like a good address.’
It’s an address I wouldn’t want to move to, and I didn’t enjoy my recent visit. But the impulse to say that makes me
wonder whether I’m some sort of big city chauvinist, or a misogynist, or autistic, or a decadent reader deaf to the
charms of simple sentences, perfectly polished (‘Alice Munro excites the writer in me,’ A.S. Byatt says, ‘there is
something new to learn from her in every sentence’) and perfectly humourless. Reading ten of her collections in a row
has induced in me not a glow of admiration but a state of mental torpor that spread into the rest of my life. I became
sad, like her characters, and like them I got sadder. I grew attuned to the ways life is shabby or grubby, words that come
up all the time in her stories, as well as to people’s residential and familial histories, details she never leaves out. How
many rooms are in the house, and what sort of furniture and who used to own it and what is everybody wearing? To ask
these questions is to live your life like a work of realism. I saw everyone heading towards cancer, or a case of dementia
that would rob them of the memories of the little adulteries they’d probably committed and must have spent their
whole lives thinking about.
51. According to the author, what is the general approach of the literary fraternity towards Munro's works?
1) They have been too harsh with their criticism of her works.
2) They feel that her caliber has dwindled over the ages.
3) They praise her wit and her elegance with tortuous plots.
4) They consider her to be an excellent writer.

52. Which of the following can’t be said of Alice Munro’s writing?

1) She writes from the fringes between middle class comfort and genteel poverty.
2) She prefers to focus on simple story-telling leaving out details about the daily lives of her characters.
3) She adeptly uses themes of remembrance and emotion in her short stories.
4) Her writing is a work of realism.
53.What did the author feel after reading Munro’s short stories?
1) He grew weary of reading.
2) Her stories filled him with a sense of nostalgia.
3) Her stories left him in a state of bewilderment about his life.
4) He grew pessimistic of life and complacent of its squalor.

54. What does the author mean by the word “torpor”?

1) Stolidity 2) Buoyancy 3) Beatitude 4) Vituperation

55. The author has quoted A. S. Byatt’s opinion of Munro’s writing to show-
1) His own admiration of her work.
2) The influence of her writing.
3) The contradiction in his own and Byatt’s view of her work.
4) To support his dislike of her writing.

56. What is the tone of the author towards Munro's works?

1) Laudatory 2)Bilious 3)Sarcastic 4)Instigating

Direction (Q 57 – 58): Give the Synonym

57. MENIAL
(a) Unskilled (b) Tall (c) Affluent (d) Sick

58. AUDACITY
(a) Strength (b) Boldness (c) Asperity (d) Fear

Direction (Q 59 – 60): Give the Antonym

59. PUERILE
(a) inquisitive (b) matured (c) impure (d) original

60. LUCID
(a) lacking resources (b) lacking vitality (c) lacking clarity (d) lacking comfort

Direction (Q 61-66) Give the correct preposition

61. These days everybody complains high prices of commodities.
(a) away (b) of (c) through (d) over

62. Which magazine do you subscribe ?

(a) Of (b) For (c) To (d) In

63. We must not carp the errors of our ancestors.

(a) From (b) With (c) About (d) In

64. A preface ....... a book introduces the book.

(a) by (b) to (c) of (d) over
65. Ramesh is on holiday and he............ his money very quickly.
(a) will have been spending (b) Have spent (c) is spending (d) spend

66. There were speculations before these events, which ultimately in the formation of a republic.
(a) Led (b) Warranted (c) Bought (d) Culminated

Direction (Q 67-71) In the given sentence replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct.
67. The crops are dying; it must not had rained.
(a) Must had not
(b) Must not be
(c) Must not have
(d) Must not have been
(e) No correction required

68. All the allegations levelled against him were found to be baseless.
(a) Level against
(b) Level with
(c) Levelling with
(d) Levelled for
(e) No correction required

69. My doctor knew that I would eventually recover and do kind of work I would be doing before
(a) Would have been doing
(b) Would have done
(c) Had been done
(d) Had been doing
(e) No correction required

70. We must take it granted that Madhu will not come for today's function.
(a) Take it for granted
(b) Taking it granted
(c) Took it as granted
(d) Have it granted
(e) No correction required

71. The prosecution failed in establish in every case today.

(a) to
(b) on
(c) as
(d) upon
(e) no correction required
 Verbal reasoning
Direction (Q 72-75) In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
72. Statements: All the actors are girls. All the girls are beautiful.
Conclusions: 1. All the actors are beautiful.
2. Some girls are actors.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

73. Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.

Conclusions: 1. Some windows are walls.
2. No wall is a door.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

74. Statements: All buildings are chalks. No chalk is toffee.

Conclusions: 1. No building is toffee
2. All chalks are buildings.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

75. Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions: 1. All the flutes are instruments.
2. All the harmoniums are flutes.
(a) Only (1) conclusion follows
(b) Only (2) conclusion follows
(c) Either (1) or (2) follows
(d) Neither (1) or (2) follows
(e) Both (1) and (2) follow

Direction (Q 76-78) In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of
them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
76. Statements: A Corporate General Manager asked four managers to either submit their resignations by the next day
or face termination orders from service. Three of them had submitted their resignations by that evening.
Conclusions: 1. The next day, the remaining manager would also resign.
2. The General Manager would terminate his services the next day.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

77. Statements: Only good singers are invited in the conference. No one without sweet voice is a good singer.
Conclusions: 1. All invited singers in the conference have sweet voice.
2. Those singers who do not have sweet voice are not invited in the conference.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

78. Statements: To cultivate interest in reading, the school has made it compulsory from June this year for each student
to read two books per week and submit a weekly report on the books.
Conclusions: 1. Interest in reading can be created by force.
2. Some students will eventually develop interest in reading.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither 1 or 2 follows
(e) Both 1 and 2 follow

Direction (Q 79-81) Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
79. Statement: Should there be a cap on maximum number of contestants for parliamentary elections in any
constituency?
Arguments: 1. Yes. This will make the parliamentary elections more meaningful as the voters can make a considered
judgement for casting their vote.
2. No. In a democracy any person fulfilling the eligibility criteria can contest parliamentary elections and there should be
no restrictions.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

80. Statement: Should so much money be spent on advertisements?

Arguments: 1. Yes. It is an essential concomitant in a capitalist economy.
2. No. It leads to wastage of resources.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

81. Statement: Should all the legislators be forced to resign from their profession?
Arguments: 1. Yes. They will be able to devote more time for the country.
2. No, nobody will contest election.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I or II is strong
(e) Both I and II are strong

Direction (Q 82-85) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement,
decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
82. Statement: There has been an unprecedented increase in the number of requests for berths in most of the long
distance trains during the current holiday season.
Courses of Action: 1. The railway authority should immediately increase the capacity in each of these trains by attaching
additional coaches.
2. The people seeking accommodation should be advised to make their travel plan after the holiday.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

83. Statement: The Finance Minister submits his resignation a month before the new budget is to be presented in the
Parliament.
Courses of Action: 1. The resignation should be accepted and another person should be appointed as the Finance
Minister.
2. The resignation should not be accepted.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

84. Statement: A large number of people visiting India from country X have been tested positive for carrying viruses of a
killer disease.
Courses of Action: 1. The government of India should immediately put a complete ban on people coming to India from
country X including those Indians who are settled in country X.
2. The government of India should immediately set up detection centres at all its airports and seaports to identify and
quarantine those who are tested positive.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

85. Statement: There has been less than forty percent voter turnout in the recent assembly elections.
Courses of Action: 1. The election commission should cancel the entire election process as the votes cast are not
adequate to represent people.
2. The election commission should take away the voting rights of those who did not exercise their rights.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follows

Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. The Olympic motto is “Citius, Altius, Fortius”. It means “Faster, Higher, .”
a) Smoother
b) Leader
c) Sharper
d) Stronger

87. Who was the first sportsperson to win the Padma Vibhushan?
a) Sachin Tendulkar
b) Prakash Padukone
c) Viswanathan Anand
d) Kapil Dev

88. Sumo is the National Sport of which of the following Countries?

a) China
b) Japan
c) South Korea
d) North Korea

89. is the only country to have won world cups of 60 overs, 50 overs and 20 overs?
a) Australia
b) England
c) Pakistan
d) India

90. Kambala Buffalo Race is famous in which Indian State?

a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Andhra Pradesh
91. Durand Cup is associated with which of the following games?
a) Hockey
b) Badminton
c) Football
d) Cricket

92. Name the first Indian woman athlete to win a gold medal at Asian games?
a) PT Usha
b) Kamaljeet Sandhu
c) Shiny Abraham
d) Anju Bobby George

93. Jallikattu is a famous game in which Indian State?

a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Andhra Pradesh

94. Volleyball is the national game of which of the following country ?

a) England
b) Srilanka
c) Russia
d) Pakistan

95. Indira gold cup is associated with ?

a) Cricket
b) Hockey
c) Badminton
d) Tennis

96. Charminar Trophy is associated with ?

a) Athletics
b) Cricket
c) Badminton
d) Pole Vault

97. Where is Feroz Shah Kotla stadium located?

a) Mumbai, Maharashtra
b) Kolkata, West Bengal
c) Delhi, Delhi NCR
d) Ahmedabad, Gujarat

98. Where is M. Chinnaswamy Stadium present?

a) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
b) Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh
c) Cochin, Kerala
d) Bengaluru, Karnataka

99. Find the incorrect pair?

a) Delhi – Dhyan Chand National Stadium
b) Ahmedabad – Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Stadium
c) Kolkata – JRD Tata Sports Complex
d) Baroda – IPCL Sports Complex Ground

100. Who was India’s first football captain

a) P K Banerjee
b) Shailen Manna
c) SC Goswami
d) Tailmeren Ao

101. Who is the first Indian to win two Olympics medals?

a) Karnam Malleswari
b) Leander Paes
c) Vijendar Singh
d) Sushil Kumar

102. Which Indian swimmer has become the first Asian to swim across Ocean Seven ?
a) Bhakti Sharma
b) Ashwin Menon
c) Rehan Poncha
d) Rohan More

103. Which Cup/Trophy is associated with the game of Hockey?

a) Dhyanchand Trophy
b) Davis Cup
c) Merdeka Cup
d) Wimbledon Trophy

104. Where are the head quarters of Olympic Council of Asia, the body which organizes the Asian Games, located?
a) Beijing
b) New Delhi
c) Tokyo
d) Kuwait City

105. Gelora Bung Karno Statdium is located in which country?

a) India
b) Indonesia
c) China
d) Japan
106. Which is the national sport of Canada?
a) Lacrosse/Ice hockey
b) Cricket
c) Field hockey
d) Volleyball

107. Archery is the national sport of which country?

a) Afghanistan
b) Bhutan
c) Japan
d) India

108. has Cricket as its national sports.

a) India
b) Jamaica
c) Sri Lanka
d) United States

109. is the national sport of Turkey

a) Wrestling
b) Rugby union
c) Golf
d) Basketball

110. has won Cricket world cup for the maximum number of times.
a) Australia
b) India
c) West Indies
d) Sri Lanka

111. Football World Cup has been won by which country for the maximum number of times?
a) Italy
b) Uruguay
c) West Germany
d) Brazil

112. Which country had started Football World?

a) Uruguay
b) Italy
c) West Germany
d) Brazil

113. Swapna Barman won a gold medal in which event?

a) Heptathlon
b) Triple Jump
c) 800 m race
d) 1500 m race

114. Prajnesh Prabhakaran is related to which sports?

a) Wrestling
b) Badminton
c) Shooting
d) Tennis

115. Which country will host Cricket World Cup 2019 ?

a) England
b) Australia
c) New Zealand
d) South Africa

116. The distance of a marathon run is –

a) 18 miles 385 yards
b) 26 miles 385 yards
c) 18 miles 985 yards
d) 26 miles 985 yards

117. Somdev Devburman, who has recently announce retirement belongs to which game/sports –
a) Table Tennis
b) Football
c) Lawn Tennis
d) Golf

118. Magnus Carlsen, the distinguished chess player belongs to which country –
a) Norway
b) Philippines
c) Canada
d) Argentina

119. Who has won Men’s Single Title of Qatar Open Tennis Championship 2017 –
a) Andy Murray
b) Kei Nishikori
c) Andre Agassi
d) Novak Djokovic

120. Which Chinese E-Commerce firm has become top sponsor of Olympic Games through 2028 –
a) Alibaba group
b) Snapdeal
c) Nykaa
d) Myntra
 Quantitative Analysis

1. (b) X=50+40% of 50 Y=100+30% of 100

=70 =130
New salary=130+70=200
200−150
old salary=50+100=150
% increase= 150 × 100 = 33.33

2. (c) 1--------- 6
5-------------30

3. (d) total marks of 40% students=(33-20)=13×40=520 total marks of 5 % students= 33× 5=165
remaining students=100-20-40-5=35 marks by them=35×60=2100

4. (d) 1,50,000 × 8% + 50,000 × 5%

12000+2500
14500
× 100 =7.25%
200000

5. (d) Capital of A:B =>(3× 3)+(2× 7):(4× 3)

+(3× 7)=>23:33
23
A's share => 56 × 504 => 207

Total distance
6. (b) = 24
Total time

7. (b) Let capital = 600

share of G : H : U => (100×2):(200× 4):(300× 12)
G:H:U=1:4:18
Hs share=4/23 ×4600=800
26−21 5 320∗5
8. (b) = = (5=3)=320
21−18 3
5-------- 8
= 200

G 7 = 14
9.(c)L ×2
C 2 =4 => 21:15=> (c) 7:5
=7
7
M
11 =11

10. (b) Difference=7500-6500=10000 (2 yrs)

For 3 years=1500
P=6500-1500
P=5000
5000×R×3
Now, 1500= 100
R=10%

11. (a) x×36x=3600 x=10

HCF of num 1
12.(a) LCM ofdeno=165
13. (a) By option 1683
 200
14. (c) = [5 + x] 5 => x = 75 km/hr
9 18

8+4
15. (a) D=16/2=8 U=16/4=4 => = 6 kmhr
2

x x x 104
16.(c) 4 + 10 + 12 =
60
15x+6x+5
x 104 104

60
= 60 26x=104 x= 26 = 4 km×3=12
1 1 1 1 1
17. (c) 8 × 4 + ( + 8 + 8 + 8) × x = 1
4 1 8
× x= x=1 hrs
8 2
total time = 4+1=5hrs

18. (c) 1800× 4 = 7200 2000 × 8=16000

23200+5600=28800/12=2400

19. (d) 2x=62 x=31

31-8=23

20. (a) 10010.16×10500

------ 10500
10.16----- 100
= 1066.8

Data Interpretation
(Qs. 21-24)
21. (d) It is obvious form the visual observation of table.

22. (a) Blue (E + D) = 37 + 43 = 80 = White (B)

23.(d) Required difference = (50 - 34) x 1000 = 16,000

24.(c) Total number of silver coloured cars sold in Metro H = 20 + 35 + 37 + 42 + 22 + 17=173

Total number of silver coloured cars sold in Metro M = 15 + 20 + 35 +40+'J0 + 52 = 192
173
Required percentage= 193 × 100 = 90%

(Qs. 25-29)
25. (a)It is obvious from the graph given.
30+40+45+55+60+75 305 5
26. (a)Required average population = 6
= 6 = 50 6 𝑚𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑜𝑛
20+15+30 65 13
27. (d)Required ratio = 35+40+45 = 120 = 24 = 13: 24
35+40+50 125 25
28. (b)Required ratio = 40+45+55 = 140 = 28 = 25: 28
(60+65+75)−(45+50+55) 200−150 1
29. (d)The Required % increase= × 100 = 150
× 100 = 33 3 %
(45+50+55)

(Qs. 30.34)
30. (b)The average price of supplies for each country is calculated in the table given below:
Country Value of Supplies (million Quantity of Supplies (million Average Price (Euros/tonne)
Euros) Tonnes)
India 1152 0.27 4267
Pakistan 691.2 0.11 4066
China 864 0.18 4800
Turkey 921.6 0.16 5760
U.S.A. 979.2 0.16 6120
Switzerland 1152 0.12 9600
Clearly, the average price is highest for Switzerland.

31. (c): From the table (in solution of Q.55), we have: Average price for Turkey = 5760 Euros/Tonne = 5.76 Euros/kg ~
5.8 Euros/kg.

32. (b)From the table (in solution of Q.55), we have: Quantity of supplies by India = 0.27 million tonnes (approx.)
Quantity of supplies by Pakistan = 0-17 million tonnes (approx.) Difference = (0.27 — 0.17) million tonnes = 0.1 million
tonnes.

33. (a): From the table (in solution of Q.55), we have: Average price for USA (in Euros/tonne) = 6120
6120+4800
Average price for China (in Euros/tonne) = 4800 Average price (in Euros/tonne) for USA and China= 2
=
5460 ~ 5400

34. (d): From the table (in solution of Q.55), we have Amount of supplies by Turkey = 921.6 million Euros
Amount of supplies by USA = 979.2 million Euros .'. Difference = (979.2 - 921.6) million Euros = 57.6 million Euros.

Logical Reasoning
Directions (Q. 35-39) : On the basis of the information given in the question, the positions of all the eight persons sitting
around the square table is given below as per figure.
E C
| |

A---- ---- B

G ---- ---- F
| |
D H
35. (e) It is clear from the figure that the three lady members are D, A, C, since none of the options shows this
combination, hence option (e) is our answer.

36. (a) It is clear that F is a male member.

37. (e) G is sitting between A and D.

38. (b) F is sitting immediately left to A

39. (c) There are three persons seated between G and B.

Directions (Q. 40-43) : On the basis of the information, the position of all the six flats can be shown as per figure.
U R P N

Q T S W E
 S
40. (a) T is between Q and S.
41. (b) Apart from SU, PQ are diagonally opposite to each other.

42. (d) After interchanging T and P, R's position does not get affected and R is next to U.

43. (a) URP get the south facing flats.

44. (c) Y represents the finishing point of Rahim and it is to the South-East of point X.

45. (c) Letters of the word are written in the coded word in such a way that last and first letters, second last and second
letters, third last and third letters and so on are written together in the coded word.

46. (b) Series moves with a difference of 2,4, 8,16, 32,64. Hence, the missing number will be 67 + 64 = 131.

Directions (Q. 47-50) : Out of five persons A, B, C, D, E - A & D are unmarried ladies. B is the male member as he is
brother of C. E is a/so male as he is the husband. Therefore, C will be married lady as there is one married couple in the
group. Now on the basis of the information, we get following results.

47. (b) Since B neither plays Ludo nor hockey, he will play Table Tennis.

48. (c) As per information, none of ladies plays either Ludo or Table Tennis. Therefore, C will play hockey.

49. (c) E will play the left over game, i.e., ludo.

50. (c) C is the wife of E.

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

51.Solution:The passage mentions initially that Munro’s critics have praised her works so much that they defend the
shortcomings too as virtues. Then, the passage quotes several editors and writers lauding her works. All of this points to
option 4.
Options 1 and 2 are contradictory to the passage.
Nowhere in the passage is it mentioned that the plots of her stories are “tortuous” meaning ‘full of twists, turns or
bends’. Eliminate option 3. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

52.Solution:The passage talks about Munro’s native setting, a rural corner of Ontario as bordering between genteel
poverty and middle class comfort and her ability to use memory, empathy and sympathy in her short stories. Thus,
options 1 and 3 are true.
Towards the end of the passage, the author says that Munro never leaves out details about the daily lives of her
characters like their residential and familial histories and to write about these details is to live one’s life as a work of
realism. The second option contradicts this and hence, isn’t true. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

53.Solution:Option 4 rephrases the following extract from the passage, “Reading ten of her collections in a row has
induced in me not a glow of admiration but a state of mental torpor that spread into the rest of my life. I became sad,
like her characters, and like them I got sadder ”.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
54.Solution:“Torpor” means ‘sluggish inactivity or inertia’. The author wrote that he grew indifferent towards life.
“Stolidity” means ‘not easily stirred or moved mentally’.
“Buoyancy” and “beatitude” imply heightened feelings of joy while “vituperation” is ‘a verbal attack or castigation’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

55.Solution:The author has juxtaposed A. S. Byatt’s praise of Munro’s writing - “there is something new to learn from
her in every sentence”, to highlight the difference in his own opinion of her which isn’t applauding it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

56.Solution:The author clearly mentions his reservations about Munro’s work and thus, the tone isn’t “laudatory” which
means ‘to express praise’. Eliminate option 1.
“Bilious” means ‘spiteful; bad-tempered’. Although he is rather disdainful towards her work, his opinion of it is not so
extreme. Eliminate option 2.
The following extracts from the passage - “Ordinary people turn out to live in a rural corner of Ontario...middle-class
comfort” and “... makes me wonder whether I’m some sort of big city chauvinist, or a misogynist, or autistic, or a
decadent reader...I got sadder” point towards ‘sarcasm’. Although he presents that positive approach of the literary
fraternity towards Munro's work, his own opinion and tone is “sarcastic”.
The author is not “instigating” the readers against Munro as much as he is expressing his own opinion. Eliminate option
4. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

57. (a)
58. (b)
59. (b)
60. (c)
61. (b)
62. c
63. c
64. b
65. c
66. d
67. (c)
68. (e)
69. (d)
70. (a)
71. (a)

Verbal reasoning
72. Option E
Explanation:
73. Option B
Explanation:

74. Option A
Explanation:

75. Option B
Explanation:

76. Option C
Explanation:
It is mentioned in the statement that either the managers should resign by the next day or their services would be
terminated. So, either I or II follows.

77. Option E
Explanation:
The statement asserts that a good singer always has a sweet voice and only good singers are invited in the conference.
This implies that all those invited in the conference have sweet voice and those who do not have sweet voice are not
invited. So, both I and II follow.

78. Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, the new scheme intends to develop interest in reading by incorporating the habit in their routine. So, only II
follows while I does not.
79. Option E
Explanation:
Clearly, if there were less candidates, the voters would find it easy to make a choice. So, argument I holds. Also, every
person satisfying the conditions laid down by the Constitution must be given an opportunity and should not be denied
the same just to cut down the number of candidates. So, argument II also holds strong.

80. Option A
Explanation:
Clearly, the advertisements are/the means to introduce people with the product and its advantages. So, argument I
holds strong. But argument II is vague because advertisements are an investment for better gain and not a, wastage.

81. Option A
Explanation:
The legislators should surely not be engaged in any other profession because only then will they be able to work with
devotion. So, argument I holds. Also, if such a law is enforced, only those people will contest elections who are really
prepared to work for the country. So, argument II is vague.

82. Option A
Explanation:
People cannot be deprived of going to a certain destination merely for lack of berths. Instead it is the duty of the railway
authority to accommodate all the bookings by all means. So, only I follows.

83. Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, an already working Finance Minister shall know better all the plans and resources of the Government and he
alone can present a suitable budget. So, course II follows.

84. Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, the non-infected persons should not be debarred from visiting India. So, only course II follows.

85. Option D
Explanation:
Re-election would demand repeated expenses and following course II would reduce the voter base permanently.
Instead, awareness should be created among the people to use their right to vote effectively. So, neither I nor II follows.

Sports Awareness (86-120)

86. d) Stronger
87. c) Viswanathan Anand
88. b) Japan
89. d) India
90. c) Karnataka
91. c) Football
92. b) Kamaljeet Sandhu
93. c) Tamil Nadu
94. b) Srilanka
95. b) Hockey
96. a) Athletics
97. c) Delhi, Delhi NCR
98. d) Bengaluru, Karnataka
99. c) Kolkata – JRD Tata Sports Complex
100. d) Tailmeren Ao
101. d) Sushil Kumar
102. d) Rohan More
103. a) Dhyanchand Trophy
104. d) Kuwait City
105. b) Indonesia
106. a) Lacrosse/Ice hockey
107. b) Bhutan
108. b) Jamaica
109. a) Wrestling
110. a) Australia
111. d) Brazil
112. a) Uruguay
113. a) Heptathlon
114. d) Tennis
115. a) England
116. b) 26 miles 385 yards
117. c) Lawn Tennis
118. a) Norway
119. d) Novak Djokovic
120. a) Alibaba group