1.

B
Assume a period of 100 days. So 54 days stock A will increase and 68 days stock B will increase

The 54 days of increase in stock A can be contained within the days of increase in stock B.

So, the maximum number of cases when both the events do not happen is the remaining after subtracting the days
of B's increase only which is 100-68=32 days

So, the greatest probability is 32/100=0.32

Highest required value = 32.

2. D

In order to answer this question, we need to be able to determine the value of x. Thus, this question can
be rephrased: What is x?

(1) SUFFICIENT: In analyzing statement (1), consider how many individuals would have to be available
to create 126 different 5 person teams. We don't actually have to figure this out as long as we know that
we could figure this out. Certainly by testing some values, we could figure this out. It turns out that if
there are 9 available individuals, then we could create exactly 126 different 5-person teams
(since 9! ÷ [(5!)(4!)] = 126). This value (9) represents x + 2. Thus x would equal 7.

(2) SUFFICIENT: The same logic applies to statement (2). Consider how many individuals would have to
be available to create 56 different 3-person teams. Again, we don't actually have to figure this out as long
as we know that we could figure this out. It turns out that if there are 8 available individuals, then we
could create exactly 56 different 3-person teams (since 8! ÷ [(5!)(3!)] = 56). This value (8) represents
x + 1. Thus x would equal 7. Statement (2) alone IS sufficient.

The correct answer is D.

3. C
4. E

5. A

You have 3 doves and 2 rabbits i.e. a total of 5 animals.

The probability that you pick a dove on your first pick is 3/5 (since there are 3 doves)

The probability that you pick a dove on your second pick too is 2/4 (because now only 2 doves are left
after we picked a dove in the first pick. Also, only 4 animals are left to choose from)

Similarly,

The probability that you pick a rabbit on your first pick is 2/5 (since there are 2 rabbits)

The probability that you pick a rabbit on your second pick too is 1/4 (because now only 1 rabbit is left
after we picked a rabbit in the first pick. Also, only 4 animals are left to choose from)

Probability of picking a matched pair = 3/5 * 2/4 + 2/5 * 1/4 = 2/5

6. E

7. C

For n(n+1) to be a multiple of 4 either n or n+1 has to be a multiple of 4. So, n must be a multiple of 4 or 1
less than a multiple of 4:

{1, 2, 3, 4,} {5, 6, 7, 8,} {9, 10, 11, 12,} ..., {97, 98, 99, 100}.

As you can see half of the integers from 1 to 100, inclusive, guarantees divisibility by 4.

8. A

In addition to realizing that Person1 (shortest) has to be in front and Person6 (tallest) has to be in the
back row, you also need to realize that there is only one way of arranging the three people in the front
and the three people in the back. If the front row has "Person1, Person2 and Person5", this is exactly how
they will stand since they must be in increasing order of height from left to right.
________ __________ Person6
Person1 _________ _________

Now you have 4 people left (2, 3, 4,5) and you have to choose two of them for the front row. You can do it
in 4C2 = 6 ways. But note that you cannot choose both taller people (Person4 and Person5) for the front
row because then you will have two shorter people left for the back row and Person3 will be behind
Person4. Rest all cases are fine.

So number of ways = 6 – 1 = 5 ways Answer (A)

Considering the arrangements:

456
123

246
135

256
134

346
125

356
124
9. D

The first digit can be filled in 9 ways(1–9), the second digit can be filled in 10 ways (0–9) and the 3rd digit
can again be filled in 10 ways. The last 2 digits would just mirror the already selected digit. Thus, the no
of ways : 9*10*10*1*1 = 900. D.

10. B

As for the question, you need to find the number of combinations possible such that:
1. It is a 3–digit number > 700 (or between 701–999, inclusive).
2. All digits are different and NONZERO.
3. The numbers must be ODD ––> the last digit can be 1 of 1,3,5,7,9

Based on this, the numbers can be of the following 3 types:

Type 1: 7AB
Type 2: 8EF
Type 3: 9CD

For type 1 and type 3, be very careful that the digits must be different. So, if it is 7AB, then B can NOT be
7. Similarly for type 3, 9CD, D can NOT be 9. There is no such restriction when you find numbers of type 2
(8EF).

Number of combinations for type 1 : 1*7*4 = 28

Number of combinations for type 2: 1*7*5 = 35

Number of combinations for type 3 : 1*7*4 = 28

Thus, total numbers possible = 28+35+28 = 91.

11. C

Three-digit number can have only following 3 patterns:

A. all digits are distinct;
B. two digits are alike and third is different;
C. all three digits are alike.

We need to calculate B.
B = Total – A – C

Total numbers from 700 to 999 = 299 (3–digit numbers greater than 700);
A. all digits are distinct = 3*9*8=216 (first digit can have only three values 7, 8, or 9);
C. all three are alike = 3 (777, 888, 999).

So, 299–216–3=80.
12. B

There are 4 single digit prime numbers: 2, 3, 5 and 7. Hence, last two digits (tens and units) can take
4*4=16 different values: 22, 23, ..., 77.

So, in each hundred there are 16 such numbers. In 16 hundreds there will be 16*16=256 such numbers,
but 4 out of them will be more than 1570, namely: 1572, 1573, 1575 and 1577. Which means that there
are 256–4=252 numbers between 0 and 1570 which have a prime tens digit and a prime units digit.

13. A

{1}{2}{greater than 6}{divisible by 3}{3x}{x}:

The third digit can take 3 values: 7, 8, or 9.

The fourth digit can take 3 values: 3, 6, or 9.
The fifth and sixth digits can take 3 values: 31, 62, or 93.

Total = 3*3*3 = 27.

14. D
5c3=10 combinations of couples, Since we have 2 choices per couple & there are 3 couples, u get,

10 * 2 * 2 * 2 = 80
OR
How many different ways can you select 3 people out of 10? 10C3=120. Now let’s find the number of
ways that we can have married couple in the group and subtract this from 120. Let’s say first couple took
the first 2 spots. Now we have 8 people to choose from for the last spot = 8 ways. Since we have 5
couples: 8x5 = 40, So the solution to the problem is: 120-40 = 80

15. B

Each number is to consist of four different digits from 0 to 9

Hence no number can be repeated

The first digit cannot be 0

Hence you can only choose 1 of the 9 numbers(1-9) for the 1st place i.e. is you have 9 options for 1st digit

For the 2nd digit again you can again choose 1 out 9 numbers (now u have 0 available) in 9c1 ways =9

For the 3rd digit only 8 numbers are available coz of "1."...u can choose that in 8c1 ways = 8

For the 4th place only 7 numbers are available coz of "1."...u can choose that in 7c1 ways = 7

Since all four selected individually, you have to multiply them 9*9*8*7 = 4536
16. C

First, how many different combo's are there:

AB, AC, AD, AE

BC, BD, BE
CD, CE
DE

There are 10 different combo's of choosing 2 apples simultaneously.

Looking at the combo with A in it, there are 4.

Thus, there are 4 out of 10 possible outcomes from choosing 2 apples with 1 as the spoiled apple. 4/10
reduces to 2/5, and thus the answer is C.

17. D

Ignoring Frankie's requirement for a moment, observe that the six mobsters can be arranged 6! or 6 x 5 x
4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 720 different ways in the concession stand line. In each of those 720 arrangements,
Frankie must be either ahead of or behind Joey. Logically, since the combinations favor neither Frankie
nor Joey, each would be behind the other in precisely half of the arrangements. Therefore, in order to
satisfy Frankie's requirement, the six mobsters could be arranged in 720/2 = 360 different ways.

18. C

The period from July 4 to July 8, inclusive, contains 8 – 4 + 1 = 5 days, so we can rephrase the question as
“What is the probability of having exactly 3 rainy days out of 5?”

Since there are 2 possible outcomes for each day (R = rain or S = shine) and 5 days total, there are 2 x 2 x
2 x 2 x 2 = 32 possible scenarios for the 5 day period (RRRSS, RSRSS, SSRRR, etc…) To find the probability
of having exactly three rainy days out of five, we must find the total number of scenarios containing
exactly 3 R’s and 2 S’s, that is the number of possible RRRSS anagrams:

= 5! / 2!3! = (5 x 4)/2 x 1 = 10

The probability then of having exactly 3 rainy days out of five is 10/32 or 5/16.

Note that we were able to calculate the probability this way because the probability that any given
scenario would occur was the same. This stemmed from the fact that the probability of rain = shine =
50%. Another way to solve this question would be to find the probability that one of the favorable
scenarios would occur and to multiply that by the number of favorable scenarios. In this case, the
probability that RRRSS (1st three days rain, last two shine) would occur is (1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2) =
1/32. There are 10 such scenarios (different anagrams of RRRSS) so the overall probability of exactly 3
rainy days out of 5 is again 10/32. This latter method works even when the likelihood of rain does not
equal the likelihood of shine.
19. D
There are four scenarios in which the plane will crash. Determine the probability of each of these
scenarios individually:

CASE ONE: Engine 1 fails, Engine 2 fails, Engine 3 works =

CASE TWO: Engine 1 fails, Engine 2 works, Engine 3 fails =

CASE THREE: Engine 1 works, Engine 2 fails, Engine 3 fails =

CASE FOUR: Engine 1 fails, Engine 2 fails, Engine 3 fails =

To determine the probability that any one of these scenarios will occur, sum the four probabilities:

20. D

41/50

21. D

In order to determine how many 10-flavor combinations Sammy can create, we simply need to know how
many different flavors Sammy now has. If Sammy had x flavors to start with and then threw out y flavors,
he now has x – y flavors. Therefore, we can rephrase this questions as: What is x – y ? According to statement
(1), if Sammy had x – y – 2 flavors, he could have made exactly 3,003 different 10-flavor bags. We could use
the combination formula below to determine the value of x – y – 2, which is equal to n in the equation below:

Solving this equation would require some time and more familiarity with factorials than is really necessary
for the GMAT. However, keep in mind that you do not need to solve this equation; you merely need to be
certain that the equation is solvable. (Note, if you begin testing values for n, you will soon find that n = 15.)
Once we know the value of n, we can easily determine the value of x – y, which is simply 2 more than n.
Thus, we know how many different flavors Sammy has, and could determine how many different 10-flavor
combinations he could make. Statement (2) is tells us that x = y + 17. Subtracting y from both sides of the
equation yields the equation x – y = 17. Thus, Sammy has 17 different flavors. This information is sufficient
to determine the number of different 10-flavor combinations he could make.
22. C
First, make sure that you understand the problem. Essentially, Tommy picks three line segments at
random. Each of the line segments could be 1, 2, 3, or 4 inches long. Then he is going to try to form a
triangle. Some of the time, evidently, he will not be able to do so. The question is this: what is the
probability that he cannot form a triangle from the three segments?

Recall, from your knowledge of geometry, the so-called “Triangle Inequality”: in any triangle, each side
length must be less than the sum of the other two side lengths. This is simply another way of saying that
the shortest path between X and Y is a straight line. If you have a triangle linking points X, Y, and Z, then
the shortest way to get from X to Y is to go straight there, rather than take the detour through Z. You can
also express the Triangle Inequality this way: each side length must be more than the absolute difference
of the other two side lengths.

Since there aren’t tons of options for the side lengths, let’s go ahead and start constructing cases that
would fail the test.

1-1-2: These three lengths would not form a triangle, because the third side (2) should be less than the
sum of the other two sides (1 + 1). Now we can count the rearrangements: there are 3 ways to rearrange
1-1-2 (in other words, Tommy could pick the 2-side first, second, or third). You can do this count
manually (1-1-2, 1-2-1, or 2-1-1), or you can divide 3! by 2! (the repeats) to get 3 options.

1-1-3: Another 3 options that fail the test.

1-1-4: Another 3 options.
1-2-3: Another 6 options, because you can rearrange 3 distinct sides in 6 (= 3!) different ways.
1-2-4: Another 6 options.
1-3-4: Another 6 options.
2-2-4: Another 3 options.

These are all the possibilities for triples that don’t form triangles (make sure you don’t double-count).
Adding up all the options, you get 3 + 3 + 3 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 3 = 30.

Finally, you have to divide by all the possible outcomes. Tommy has 4 outcomes in each bag, and he picks
from 3 different bags. So he has 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 possible outcomes.

30/64 = 15/32.

23. C

Each integer is chosen independently and at random from the set of integers {1, 2, 3, …, 100}. You
ultimately care about evens & odds, so you should go ahead and note that each integer has a 50% chance
of being even (and a 50% chance of being odd). The operation between the two integers could be
addition or multiplication, with an equal chance of either. Nicely, the “equal chances” throughout this
problem allow you to list the individual outcomes and assign equal weight to each.

Addition:
E+E=E
E+O=O
O+E=O
O+O=E
Multiplication:
E×E=E
E×O=E
O×E=E
O×O=O

The key is to notice that you have to separately count E + O and O + E (likewise for multiplication). Out of
eight outcomes with equal probability, five produce an even result. Thus, the probability you want is 5/8.

24. A

The problem asks for the approximate chance that no more than 1/3 of the original investment is lost. We
can apply the “1 – x” technique: what’s the chance that more than 1/3 of the original investment is lost?

There are two outcomes we have to separately measure:

(a) All 3 investments become worthless.

(b) 2 of the 3 investments become worthless, while 1 doesn’t.

Outcome (a): The probability is (0.2)(0.2)(0.2) = 0.008, or a little less than 1%.

Outcome (b): Call the investments X, Y, and Z. The probability that X retains value, while Y and Z become
worthless, is (0.8)(0.2)(0.2) = 0.032. Now, we have to do the same thing for the specific scenarios in
which Y retains value (while X and Z don’t) and in which Z retains value (while X and Y don’t). Each of
those scenarios results in the same math: 0.032. Thus, we can simply multiply 0.032 by 3 to get 0.096, or
a little less than 10%.

The sum of these two probabilities is 0.008 + 0.096 = 0.104, or a little more than 10%. Finally, subtracting
from 100% and rounding, we find that the probability we were looking for is approximately 90%.

25. C

The daily change in CF Corp’s stock price can be compared to a coin flip. Heads – the price goes up by $1.
Tails – the price goes down by $1. Moreover, the coin is “fair”: that is, each daily outcome is equally
possible (meaning that the chance of heads is 50%, and the chance of tails is 50%). This also means that
any particular sequence of flips is equally probable. As a result, our probability calculation is simplified.

We just count the 5-day sequences that give us a $3 increase, then we compare that number to the total
number of 5-day sequences.

To go up exactly $3, we need exactly 4 “up” days (heads) and 1 “down” day (tails). We don’t care about
the order in which these days come. So we need to count the possible arrangements of 4 heads and 1
tails. We can simply list these out:
HHHHT
HHHTH
HHTHH
HTHHH
THHHH
The only question is what day of the week the “down” day falls on, so there are 5 possibilities for a $3
increase. Alternatively, we can use the combinations or anagrams method to calculate (5!)/(4!) = 5.

Now, we need to count all the possible 5-day sequences of flips. Since each day can have 2 outcomes (H or
T), we have 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 32 total possible outcomes over 5 days.

Finally, to compute the probability of a $3 increase over 5 days, we divide 5 successful outcomes by 32
total possibilities (of equal weight) to get 5/32.

26. E
We have a series of successive choices:
- Pick the first consonant
- Pick the first vowel
- Pick the second consonant
- Pick the second vowel
- Pick the third consonant

So we need to count the choices we have at each stage, and then multiply these choices together. We have
3 choices for each consonant and 2 choices for each vowel. Note that we can reuse consonants and
vowels. For instance, imagine that the consonants are {g, l, t} and the vowels are {a, u}. Here are some
valid nouns in Simplastic:
gagag
gulat
lugul

Thus, we write 3×2×3×2×3 = 108.

27. C

Label the keys A, B, C, and D, such that key A fits the first lock, key B fits the second lock, and so on. Each
possible reassignment of the keys can then be seen as a rearrangement of the four letters. For instance,
the “word” BCAD would correspond to the reassigning key B to the first lock, key C to the second lock, key
A to the third lock, and key D to the fourth lock. In this particular case, only key D would fit its lock.

Thus, we should compute the number of anagrams of ABCD in which exactly two of the letters are in their
original alphabetic positions.

There are at least two ways to compute this number:

1) Simply try listing the possibilities. First place two letters in correct positions, then fill in the others.
The letters in their correct positions will be written in uppercase; letters out of position will be written in
lowercase.

Correct letters Anagram

A and B ABdc
A and C AdCb
A and D AcbD
B and C dBCa
B and D cBaD
C and D baCD
Notice that once you have chosen the two correct letters, the positions of the other two letters are fixed.
Thus, there are 6 possible rearrangements of the letters with exactly two in correct positions.

Since there are 4! = 24 total possible rearrangements of the 4 letters, the probability that exactly two keys
fit their locks is 6/24 = 1/4.

28. D

Every player has an equal chance of leaving at any particular time. Thus, the probability that four
particular players leave the field first is equal to the probability that any other four players leave the field
first. In other words, the answer to this problem is completely independent of which four players leave
first.

Given the four players that leave first, there are 4! or 24 orders in which these players can leave the field -
only one of which is in increasing order of uniform numbers. (For example, assume the players have the
numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4. There are 24 ways to arrange these 4 numbers: 1234, 1243, 1324, 1342, 1423,
1432, . . . , etc. Only one of these arrangements is in increasing order.)

Thus, the probability that the first four players leave the field in increasing order of their uniform
numbers is 1/24

29. C

The restricted case here is when all of the men actually sit together in three adjacent seats. Restrictions
can often be dealt with by considering the limited individuals as one unit.

In this case we have four women (w1, w2, w3, and w4) and three men (m1, m2, and m3). We can consider the
men as one unit, since we can think of the 3 adjacent seats as simply 1 seat.

If the men are one unit (m), we are really looking at seating 5 individuals (w1, w2, w3, w4, and m) in 5
seats. There are 5! ways of arranging 5 individuals in a row.

This means that our group of three men is sitting in any of the “five” seats. Now, imagine that the one seat
that holds the three men magically splits into three seats. How many different ways can the men arrange
themselves in those three seats? 3!.

To calculate the total number of ways that the men and women can be arranged in 7 seats such that the
men ARE sitting together, we must multiply these two values: 5!3!.

However this problem asks for the number of ways the theatre-goers can be seated such that the men
are NOT seated three in a row. Logically, this must be equivalent to the following:

(Total number of all seat arrangements) – (Number of arrangements with 3 men in a row)

The total number of all seat arrangements is simply 7! so the final calculation is 7! – 5!3!.
30. C

To find the probability of forming a code with two adjacent I’s, we must find the total number of such
codes and divide by the total number of possible 10-letter codes.

The total number of possible 10-letter codes is equal to the total number of anagrams that can be formed
using the letters ABCDEFGHII, that is 10!/2! (we divide by 2! to account for repetition of the I's).

To find the total number of 10 letter codes with two adjacent I’s, we can consider the two I’s as ONE
LETTER. The reason for this is that for any given code with adjacent I’s, wherever one I is positioned, the
other one must be positioned immediately next to it. For all intents and purposes, we can think of the 10
letter codes as having 9 letters (I-I is one). There are 9! ways to position 9 letters.

Probability = (# of adjacent I codes) / (# of total possible codes)

= 9! ÷ (10! / 2! ) = ( 9!2! / 10! ) = (9!2! / 10(9!) ) = 1/5

31. B

The question requires us to determine whether Mike's odds of winning are better if he attempts 3 shots
instead of 1. For that to be true, his odds of making 2 out of 3 must be better than his odds of making 1
out of 1.

There are two ways for Mike to at least 2 shots: Either he hits 2 and misses 1, or he hits all 3:

Odds of hitting 2 and missing 1 # of ways to hit 2 and miss 1 Total

3 (HHM, HMH, MHH) Probability

Odds of hitting all 3 # of ways to hit all 3

1 (HHH)
Mike's probability of
hitting at least 2 out of 3 free throws =
Now, we can rephrase the question as the following inequality:

(Are Mike's odds of hitting at least 2 of 3 greater than his odds of hitting 1 of 1?)

This can be simplified as follows:

In order for this inequality to be true, p must be greater than .5 but less than 1 (since this is the only way
to ensure that the left side of the equation is negative). But we already know that p is less than 1 (since
Mike occasionally misses some shots). Therefore, we need to know whether p is greater than .5. If it is,
then the inequality will be true, which means that Mike will have a better chance of winning if he takes 3
shots.

Statement 1 tells us that p < .7. This does not help us to determine whether p > .5, so statement 1 is not
sufficient.

Statement 2 tells us that p > .6. This means that p must be greater than .5. This is sufficient to answer the
question.

32. C
The simplest way to solve the problem is to recognize that the total number of gems in the bag must be a
multiple of 3, since we have 2/3 diamonds and 1/3 rubies. If we had a total number that was not divisible
by 3, we would not be able to divide the stones into thirds. Given this fact, we can test some multiples of 3
to see whether any fit the description in the question.

The smallest number of gems we could have is 6: 4 diamonds and 2 rubies (since we need at least 2
rubies). Is the probability of selecting two of these diamonds equal to 5/12?

4/6 × 3/5 = 12/30 = 2/5. Since this does not equal 5/12, this cannot be the total number of gems.

The next multiple of 3 is 9, which yields 6 diamonds and 3 rubies:

6/9 × 5/8 = 30/72 = 5/12. Since this matches the probability in the question, we know we have 6
diamonds and 3 rubies. Now we can figure out the probability of selecting two rubies:

3/9 × 2/8 = 6/72 = 1/12

33. B
If we factor the right side of the equation, we can come up with a more meaningful relationship
between p and q: p 2 – 13 p + 40 = q so ( p – 8)( p – 5) = q. We know that p is an integer between 1 and
10, inclusive, so there are ten possible values for p. We see from the factored equation that the sign
of q will depend on the value of p. One way to solve this problem would be to check each possible value
of p to see whether it yields a positive or negative q.

However, we can also use some logic here. For q to be negative, the expressions ( p – 8) and ( p – 5) must
have opposite signs. Which integers on the number line will yield opposite signs for the expressions ( p –
8) and ( p – 5)? Those integers in the range 5 < p < 8 (notice 5 and 8 are not included because they would
both yield a value of zero and zero is a nonnegative integer). That means that there are only two integer
values for p, 6 and 7, that would yield a negative q. With a total of 10 possible p values, only 2 yield a
negative q, so the probability is 2/10 or 1/5.
34. E

Set up a matrix as shown below. Fill in the probability that schools will not be closed and the probability
that there will be no snow.

Schools Schools not

TOTAL
closed closed
Snow
No
10
snow
TOTAL 20 100

Then use subtraction to fill in the probability that schools will be closed and the probability that there
will be snow.

Schools Schools not

TOTAL
closed closed
Snow 90
No
10
snow
TOTAL 80 20 100

To find the greatest possible probability that schools will be closed and it will snow, fill in the remaining
cells with the largest possible number in the upper left cell.

Schools Schools not

TOTAL
closed closed
Snow 80 10 90
No
0 10 10
snow
TOTAL 80 20 100

The greatest possible probability that schools will be closed and it will snow is 80%.
35. B

For an overlapping-set problem we can use a double-set matrix to organize our information and
solve. The values here are percents, and no actual number of students is given or requested. Therefore,
we can assign a value of 100 to the total number of students at College X. From the given information in
the question, we have:

Blue Eyes Not Blue Eyes Total

Brown Hair 40
Not Brown Hair 60
Total 70 30 100

The question asks for the difference between maximum value and the minimum value of the central
square, that is, the percent of students who have neither brown hair nor blue eyes. The maximum value is
30, as shown below:

Blue Eyes Not Blue Eyes Total

Brown Hair 40 0 40
Not Brown Hair 30 30 60
Total 70 30 100

Therefore, the maximum probability of picking such a person is 0.3.

Likewise, the minimum value of the central square is zero, as shown below:

Blue Eyes Not Blue Eyes Total

Brown Hair 10 30 40
Not Brown Hair 60 0 60
Total 70 30 100

Therefore, the minimum probability of picking such a person is 0, and the difference between the
maximum and the minimum probability is 0.3.
36. B

You can solve this problem with a matrix. Since the total number of diners is unknown and not important
in solving the problem, work with a hypothetical total of 100 couples. Since you are dealing with
percentages, 100 will make the math easier.

Set up the matrix as shown below:

Dessert NO dessert TOTAL

Coffee
NO coffee
TOTAL 100

Since you know that 60% of the couples order BOTH dessert and coffee, you can enter that number into
the matrix in the upper left cell.

Dessert NO dessert TOTAL

Coffee 60
NO coffee
TOTAL 100

The next useful piece of information is that 20% of the couples who order dessert don't order coffee. But
be careful! The problem does not say that 20% of the total diners order dessert and don't order coffee,
so you CANNOT fill in 40 under "dessert, no coffee" (first column, middle row). Instead, you are told that
20% of the couples who order dessert don't order coffee.

Let x = total number of couples who order dessert. Therefore you can fill in .2x for the number of couples
who order dessert but no coffee.

Dessert NO dessert TOTAL

Coffee 60
NO coffee .2x
TOTAL x 100

Set up an equation to represent the couples that order dessert and solve:

75% of all couples order dessert. Therefore, there is only a 25% chance that the next couple the maitre 'd
seats will not order dessert.

37. C

210=2*3*5*7, so the # of factors 210 has is (1+1)(1+1)(1+1)(1+1)=16 (see below);

42=2*3*7, so out of 16 factors only two are multiples of 42: 42 and 210, itself;

So, the probability is 2/16=1/8. Answer: C.

38. D

12 people will be selected from a pool of 15 people: 10 men (2/3 of 15) and 5 women (1/3 of 15). The
question asks for the probability that the jury will comprise at least 2/3 men, or at least 8 men (2/3 of 12
jurors = 8 men).

The easiest way to calculate this probability is to use the “1-x shortcut.” The only way the jury will have
fewer than 8 men is if a jury of 7 men and 5 women (the maximum number of women available) is
selected. There cannot be fewer than 7 men on the jury, since the jury must have 12 members and only 5
women are available to serve on the jury.

The total number of juries that could be randomly selected from this jury pool is:

15! (15)(14)(13)
= = 455
12!3! (3)(2)

The number of ways we could select 7 men from a pool of 10 men is:

10! (10)(9)(8)
= = 120
7!3! (3)(2)

The number of ways we could select 5 women from a pool of 5 women is:

5!/5! = 1

This makes practical sense, in addition to mathematical sense. All of the women would have to be on the
jury, and there is only one way that can happen.

Putting these selections together, the number of ways a jury of 7 men and 5 women could be selected is:
120 × 1 = 120

The probability that the jury will be comprised of fewer than 8 men is thus 120/455 = 24/91.

Therefore, the probability that the jury will be comprised of at least 8 men is 1 – (24/91) = 67/91.
39. B

The easiest way to solve this question is to consider the restrictions separately. Let’s start by considering
the restriction that one of the parents must drive, temporarily ignoring the restriction that the two sisters
won't sit next to each other.

This means that…

2 people (mother or father) could sit in the driver’s seat

4 people (remaining parent or one of the children) could sit in the front passenger seat

3 people could sit in the first back seat

2 people could sit in the second back seat

1 person could sit in the remaining back seat

The total number of possible seating arrangements would be the product of these various possibilities:
2 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 48

We must subtract from these 48 possible seating arrangements the number of seating arrangements in
which the daughters are sitting together. The only way for the daughters to sit next to each other is if they
are both sitting in the back.

This means that…

2 people (mother or father) could sit in the driver’s seat

2 people (remaining parent or son) could sit in the front passenger seat

Now for the back three seats we will do something a little different. The back three seats must contain the
two daughters and the remaining person (son or parent). To find out the number of arrangements in
which the daughters are sitting adjacent, let’s consider the two daughters as one unit. The remaining
person (son or parent) is the other unit. Now, instead of three seats to fill, we only have two "seats," or
units, to fill.

There are 2 × 1 = 2 ways to seat these two units.

However, the daughter-daughter unit could be d1d2 or d2d1

We must consider both of these possibilities so we multiply the 2 by 2! for a total of 4 seating possibilities
in the back.

We could also have manually counted these possibilities:

d1d2X, d2d1X, Xd1d2, Xd2d1

Now we must multiply these 4 back seat scenarios by the front seat scenarios we calculated earlier:
(2 × 2) × 4 = 16
front back
If we subtract these 16 "daughters-sitting-adjacent" scenarios from the total number of "parent-driving"
scenarios, we get: 48 – 16 = 32

40. E

We are told that 4 people have exactly 1 sibling. This would account for 2 sibling relationships (e.g. AB
and CD). We are also told that 3 people have exactly 2 siblings. This would account for another 3 sibling
relationships (e.g. EF, EG, and FG). Thus, there are 5 total sibling relationships in the group.

Additionally, there are (7 x 6)/2 = 21 different ways to chose two people from the room.

Therefore, the probability that any 2 individuals in the group are siblings is 5/21. The probability that
any 2 individuals in the group are NOT siblings = 1 – 5/21 = 16/21.
41. D

The total number of passwords altogether, with or without repeated letters, is

6 x 6 x 6 x 6 = 64

The number of passwords with no repeated letter is 6 x 5 x 4 x 3.

Now, think about how to save yourself some time in the calculation stage. The desired number of
passwords is:

= 64 – 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 pull out a 6

= 6(63 – 5 × 4 × 3) at this level, you should have 63 memorized!

= 6(216 – 60) subtract the ten’s digit (21 – 6 = 15), then the unit’s digit to get 156

= 6(156) multiply 6 by 150 = 900, then add 6 × 6 = 36

= 936

42. C

If Jeong and Leila must sit next to each other, they can be treated as a single unit. The four separate
people plus the single unit adds up to five “people” to place. There are 5! = 120 different ways in which
five people can be placed in the chairs. Remember, though, that the unit has 2 possible orders in which it
can be placed: J and then L or L and then J. As a result, multiply 120 by 2 to get the total number of ways
to place six people, two of whom must be sitting next to each other (in either order): 240.

If that was confusing, think about it this way: call the Jeong-and-Leila unit D. One arrangement is GHIKD.
Within that arrangement, though, there are two possibilities: GHIKLJ and GHIKJL. The 5! calculation
counts just one of those two variations, but Jeong and Leila can swap seats, so for every arrangement
counted by 5!, there are actually two different possible arrangements.

The maximum possible number of arrangements is 240. Eliminate answer (A). Further, at least one of
those 240 arrangements will have Inge sitting next to Gita, so 240 itself is also too large. Eliminate answer
(B).

Next, how many of these 240 arrangements also do NOT have Inge sitting next to Gita? That would
actually be quite time consuming to calculate.

Luckily, there’s a shortcut! Calculate how many arrangements DO have Inge sitting next to Gita. Then
subtract that number from 240.

Again, make Inge and Gita a single unit. Now, there are 2 separate people plus 2 units of two people each,
adding up to 4 “people” to place, so there are 4! = 24 different ways to arrange these four “people.” But
wait! Each of the two units can be arranged in two different orders: JL or LJ and GI or IG. Multiply 24 by 2
and by 2 again to get 96.

240 – 96 = 144 arrangements in which Jeong and Leila do sit next to each other but Gita and Inge do not.
43. E

There are 3 × 2 × 4 = 24 possible different shirt-sweater-hat combinations that Kramer can wear. He
wears the first one on a Wednesday. The following Wednesday he will wear the 8th combination. The
next Wednesday after that he will wear the 15th combination. The next Wednesday after that he will
wear the 22nd combination. On Thursday, he will wear the 23rd combination and on Friday he will wear
the 24th combination.

Thus, the first day on which it will no longer be possible to wear a new combination is Saturday. The
correct answer is E

44. C

This problem can be solved quickly by first listing the target numbers: primes that could be generated as
the sum of two dice rolls.

Since the target numbers must be between 2 and 12 (inclusive), we have 2, 3, 5, 7, and 11.

Now go target by target, listing the possible rolls.

2: Roll 1, then 1. One way.

3: Roll 1, then 2.
Roll 2, then 1. Two more ways.

Realize that you have to separately count rolling a 1, then a 2 and rolling a 2, then a 1. Those are two
separate ways to roll a 3.

5: 1, then 4.
2, then 3.
3, then 2.
4, then 1. Four ways.

7: 1, then 6.
2, then 5.
3, then 4.
4, then 3.
5, then 2.
6, then 1. Six ways.

11: 5, then 6.
6, then 5. Only two ways.

These ways sum up: 1+ 2 + 4 + 6 + 2 = 15. Divide by 36 (= 6 × 6) to get 15/36 = 5/12.

45. D

There are two ways that Leila can succeed on at least 3 of the throws—she can succeed on exactly 3
throws or on all 4. Find the total probability by determining the chance of each of these two distinct
outcomes and adding them together.

Start with the chance of succeeding on all 4 throws. Since Leila’s chance of success is 1/5, multiply out her
chance of succeeding 4 times in a row:

1/5 × 1/5 × 1/5 × 1/5 = 1/54

You can now eliminate answer A; it can’t be correct, because you haven’t yet added in the possibility of
succeeding on exactly 3 throws.

If Leila succeeds on exactly 3 of the throws, then she must have 1 missed throw. The chance of missing a
throw is 1 – 1/5 = 4/5, so multiply the individual probabilities to get the total probability:

1/5 × 1/5 × 1/5 × 4/5 = 4/54

However, this is the probability of only one specific outcome: hit, hit, hit, miss. Since she doesn’t need to
make her throws in this specific order, you'll also need to consider the other possibilities:

hit, hit, miss, hit

hit, miss, hit, hit
miss, hit, hit, hit

There are 4 different ways that Leila can get 3 hits and 1 miss. (Note that this wasn’t an issue when
calculating the chance of succeeding on all 4 throws, because there is only one way to do that.) Therefore,
her chance of successfully making exactly 3 out of 4 throws is 4(4/54)=16/54.

Finally, add the two values together to find the probability that Leila succeeds on at least 3 of the throws: