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UPSC GS TOPPER TEST - 4 - Questions Only

The document is a test booklet for the AARVAM IAS Academy's UPSC Topper Test - 4, containing instructions for the examination and various questions related to general studies. It includes guidelines on how to fill out the answer sheet, penalties for wrong answers, and a series of multiple-choice questions covering topics such as international agreements, economic policies, and financial systems. The test is designed to assess candidates' knowledge and understanding of key concepts relevant to the UPSC examination.

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NANDHA KUMAR
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views15 pages

UPSC GS TOPPER TEST - 4 - Questions Only

The document is a test booklet for the AARVAM IAS Academy's UPSC Topper Test - 4, containing instructions for the examination and various questions related to general studies. It includes guidelines on how to fill out the answer sheet, penalties for wrong answers, and a series of multiple-choice questions covering topics such as international agreements, economic policies, and financial systems. The test is designed to assess candidates' knowledge and understanding of key concepts relevant to the UPSC examination.

Uploaded by

NANDHA KUMAR
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 15

AARVAM IAS ACADEMY

2165,1st STREET, L-BLOCK,12th MAIN ROAD, ANNA NAGAR WEST,


CHENNAI-40. CELL :07448814441, E.mail. [email protected]

A/UPSC /2024 TOPPER TEST - 4


DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: B-APM-P-CKB Test Booklet Series


Serial No.
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES D
PAPER- I
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1.IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet
Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate place in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy with render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
in the Box provided alongside. NO NOT write anything
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer
Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE


OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been
given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


Page 1 of 15
1) With reference to the "Agreement on Association (IDA) provides interest-free
Agriculture" (AoA) under the World loans and grants to governments of the
Trade Organization (WTO), poorest countries.
consider the following statements: 4) With reference to the National Pension
1. The AoA is an intergovernmental treaty System (NPS), consider the following
that was negotiated during the Uruguay statements:
Round of trade negotiations. 1. The NPS generates market-linked returns
2. The AoA is built on three key pillars: without guaranteeing any specific returns.
domestic support, market access, and 2. The NPS is mandatory for all Central
export subsidies. Government employees, including those in
3. The AoA covers all agricultural products the Armed Forces.
except forestry and fishing products, as 3. Any Indian citizen aged between 18 and 70
well as items like rubber, sisal, jute, and years can subscribe to the NPS.
abaca. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
2) Consider the following statements
regarding the World Customs 5) Which of the following could be the
Organization (WCO): potential impacts of India’s entry into
1. The WCO is a United Nations body global bond indices?
established to enhance the effectiveness 1. Reduction in the cost of borrowing for the
and efficiency of customs administrations Indian economy
worldwide. 2. Strengthening of the Indian Rupee
2. It is the only international organization 3. Increase in bond yields
with expertise and competence in customs Select the correct answer using the code
matters. given below:
3. Indian Customs is a member of the WCO. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only
6) With reference to foreign investments in
3) Which of the following statements is not India, consider the following statements:
correct regarding the institutions of the 1. Unlike Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI),
World Bank Group? Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) can only
(a) The International Finance Corporation be made in a listed Indian company.
(IFC) is the largest global development 2. An investment of less than 10% of the
institution focused on the private sector in paid-up equity capital of a listed Indian
developing countries. company is classified as FPI.
(b) The Multilateral Investment Guarantee 3. An investment initially classified as FDI
Agency (MIGA) is devoted to can be reclassified as FPI if the percentage
international investment dispute of ownership reduces below a certain
settlement. threshold.
(c) The International Bank for Which of the statements given above is/are
Reconstruction and Development correct?
(IBRD) lends to governments (a) 1 and 2 only
of middle-income and creditworthy (b) 2 only
low-income countries. (c) 3 only
(d) The International Development (d) 1, 2, and 3
Page 2 of 15
inversely related to the consumer's income,
exhibiting a negative income elasticity of
demand.
7) Consider the following statements Which of the following best describes this
regarding the New Umbrella Entities type of good?
(NUEs) proposed by the Reserve Bank of (a) Luxury good
India (RBI): (b) Giffen good
1. The NUEs will manage and operate (c) Complementary good
payment systems in the retail space. (d) Inferior good
2. NUEs will be governed by the provisions
of the Payment and Settlement Systems 11) In the context of Special Drawing Rights
Act, 2007. (SDR) of the International Monetary
Which of the statements given above is/are Fund (IMF), arrange the following currencies
correct? in decreasing order of their weights in the
(a) 1 only SDR currency basket:
(b) 2 only 1. U.S. Dollar
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Chinese Yuan
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Japanese Yen
4. Euro
8) With reference to the Indian economy, 5. Pound Sterling
consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. Capital Indexed Bonds provide investors given below:
protection against inflation by linking (a) 1-4-2-3-5 (b) 1-2-3-4-5
returns to an inflation index. (c) 2-1-4-5-3 (d) 4-5-3-2-1
2. Fixed-rate bonds are considered riskier than
floating-rate bonds due to their lack of 12) Which of the following statements
adaptability to changes in market interest regarding the Food Corporation of India
rates. (FCI) is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The FCI is a statutory body established
correct? under the National Food Security Act,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2013.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It ensures effective price support operations
to safeguard the interests of farmers.
9) With reference to the National 3. It functions under the Ministry of
Investment and Infrastructure Fund Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
(NIIF), consider the following Select the correct answer using the code
statements: given below:
1. The NIIF has been registered with the (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Securities and Exchange Board of India (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
(SEBI) as an Alternative Investment Fund
(AIF). 13) Consider the following statements
2. The NIIF is funded jointly by the regarding the protection and validity of
Government of India and private investors, trademarks in India:
including domestic and international 1. Trademarks in India are protected under the
institutions. Trade Marks Act, 1999, and not the
Which of the statements given above is/are Geographical Indications of Goods
correct? (Registration and Protection) Act.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. A registered trademark in India remains
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 valid for an initial period of ten years from
10) In economics, a type of good is the application date, and it can be renewed
characterized by a decline in its demand indefinitely.
as consumer income increases. This Which of the statements above is/are
means the demand for the good is correct?
Page 3 of 15
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
14) Consider the following statements
regarding chit funds in India: 17) Consider the following statements
1. Chit funds are considered Non-Banking regarding dematerialization:
Financial Companies (NBFCs) by the 1. Dematerialization refers to the process of
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). converting physical shares and securities
2. Chit funds are prohibited from accepting into electronic or digital form.
deposits. 2. In India, all new insurance policies (from
3. Chit funds are regulated by the Ministry of December 2022) must be issued in a
Corporate Affairs. dematerialized form.
Which of the statements above is/are Which of the statements above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

15) Consider the following statements 18) Which of the following are excluded from
regarding the Net International the National Income to calculate Personal
Investment Position (NIIP): Income?
1. NIIP reflects the difference between a 1. Income tax by household
country's foreign assets and the foreign 2. Transfer payments to the households from
assets held within that country. the Government
2. An increase in Foreign Direct Investment 3. Undistributed profits
(FDI) inflows positively affects the Net Select the correct answer using the code
International Investment Position of the given below.
economy. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only 19) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a
(b) 2 only country is not an index of the well-being of
(c) Both 1 and 2 the people of that country because it does
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 not take into account
1. Inequalities among the citizens
16) Consider the following statements 2. Domestic services performed by women
regarding the Most Favored Nation at home
(MFN) status: 3. Negative externalities caused by
1. The Most Favored Nation (MFN) clause companies
allows a country to provide favorable trade Select the correct answer using the code
terms exclusively to a select group of given below.
trading partners. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The MFN principle is one of the key (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
principles adopted by nations under the
World Trade Organization (WTO). 20) The term 'Green GDP' refers to
3. Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) are exempt (a) It refers to the monetary value of goods and
from the MFN principle. services produced from forest ecosystem
Which of the statements above is/are (b) It refers to total monetary value of finished
correct? goods and services produced in a country
after adjusting for environmental damage.

Page 4 of 15
(c) It refers to the potential GDP that can be 2. An increase in nominal GDP implies an
achieved when a country uses the increase in the total value of transactions.
renewable resources Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) It refers to the expected monetary value of correct?
the biodiversity in a country. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21) Under the New Economic Policy of 1991, 26) Consider the following statements
which of the following reform policies regarding the unorganized sector in India:
were initiated by the government to promote 1. The term ‘unorganized worker’ is not
liberalization of trade and investment? defined in India under any act of
1. Reduction of tariff rates government.
2. Removal of export duties 2. In the unorganized sector, the maximum
3. Abolition of import licensing for all number of workers employed in an
industries enterprise is 10 for both service and
Select the correct answer using the code manufacturing oriented enterprise
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22) Mahalanobis model of economic
development is followed in which of the 27) The Bretton Woods Agreement led to the
following five year plan creation of which of the following
(a) First five year plan Institutions?
(b) Second five year plan 1. World Bank
(c) Third five year plan 2. World Economic Forum
(d) Fourth five year plan 3. International Monetary Fund
23) The term MCA21 recently in news is 4. World Trade Organisation
related to which of the following? Select the correct answer using the code
1. MCA21 is the online portal of the Ministry given below.
of Corporate Affairs (MCA) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. It contains the details of Limited liability (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Company and Shell companies
Select the correct answer using the code 28) While calculating the Gross Domestic
given below Product (GDP) by expenditure method,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only which of the following factors are taken
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 into account?
1. Household final consumption
24) With reference to Industrial Policy expenditure
Resolution 1956, consider the following 2. Firms expenditure on intermediate goods
statements: 3. Final capital expenditure
1. The Policy rejected the private ownership 4. Government expenditure on
of Indian industries unemployment allowance
2. The policy was used for promoting industry Select the correct answer using the code
in backward regions. given below.
Select the correct statements using the code (a) 1,2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
given below (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 29) With reference to the GDP Deflator,
consider the following statements:
25) In the context of the national economy, 1. It is the ratio of the nominal GDP to the
consider the following statements: real GDP.
1. Total value of annual transactions in an
economy is greater than the nominal GDP.
Page 5 of 15
2. GDP deflator reflects the prices of all (b) Commercial borrowings received by
domestically produced goods and services domestic firms from multinational
in the economy companies operating abroad.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Loans received by government from
correct? multilateral institutions.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Payments made by consumers to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 retailers through digital wallets.
34) Consider the following:
30) Consider the following statements in the 1. Disinvestment 2. Reducing
context of proportional taxation: expenditures
1. In this, taxing authority charges the same 3. Raising tax rates 4. Rationalizing
rate of tax from each taxpayer, subsidies
irrespective of income. Which of the actions mentioned above if
2. The objective of redistribution of adopted by Government would reduce its
resources by government is achieved deficit?
through this system of taxation. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 , 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 35) In the context of the economy, tax
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 expenditure refers to:
nor 2 (a) the expenditure shown on corporate
31) Consider the following statements: balance sheet to avoid taxes.
1. The Constitution of India mandates that the (b) the expenditure incurred by the
budget must distinguish expenditure on the Government in the collection of taxes.
revenue account from other expenditures. (c) the expenditure incurred by firms for tax
2. Both Centre and states can incur external and administrative compliance.
debt against the consolidated fund of India. (d) the opportunity cost of taxing at
Which of the statements given above is/ are concessional rates
correct? 36) Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only reference to import tariff :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Ad valorem tariff is levied as a fixed
32) Consider the following statements with percentage of the value of the imported
reference to indirect and direct taxes in items/commodity.
India: 2. A specific tariff is levied as a fixed charge
1. In the case of direct taxes, the incidence per unit of imports.
and impact of the tax are on the same Which of the statements given above is/are
person. correct?
2. Indirect taxes are regressive in nature. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. While Income Tax is a type of direct tax, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
corporate tax is a type of indirect tax. 37) The term ‘base year’ in relation to GDP
Which of the statements given above refers to
is/are correct? (a) the year preceding the current financial
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only year.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) the starting year of a new decade.
(c) the year whose prices are being used to
33) In the context of macroeconomics, calculate the real GDP.
'Transfer Payments' refers to: (d) the year whose nominal GDP is equal to
(a) Receipts which the residents of a real GDP of current year.
country receive without having to make
any present or future payments in return. 38) Consider the following types of receipts:
1. Tax revenues

Page 6 of 15
2. Interest receipts on loans extended by
Central Government 42) As per the provisions under Indian
3. Recoveries of loans granted by the Constitution, Consider the following
Central Government statements
4. Loans received from abroad 1. The Government of India can borrow
Which of the receipts given above come amounts specified by the Parliament from
under the revenue receipts of the time to time
Government of India? 2. The State Governments in India can
(a) 1 and 2 only borrow only from internal sources.
(b) 3 and 4 only Select the correct statement from the code
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only given below
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
39) Which of the following taxes are (c) Both 1 and 2
subsumed within the Goods and Service Tax (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(GST)? 43) Consider the following statements with
1. Central Excise Duty reference to the Fiscal Responsibility and
2. Stamp Duty Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003:
3. Octroi Tax 1. The Act binds the present and future
4. Luxury Tax governments to adhere to fiscal
Select the correct answer using the code consolidation.
given below. 2. The Act mandates the government to table
(a) 1 and 2 only fiscal policy statements in each financial
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only year before the Parliament.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only correct?
(a) 1 only
40) Consider the following statements (b) 2 only
regarding Public Debt Management in (c) Both 1 and 2
India: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Public Debt in India includes both Internal
and External Debt incurred by the Central 44) Consider the following statements:
Government. 1. Capital Gains Tax is aimed at those
2. In India, Public Dent Management Agency companies which show zero or negligible
(PDMA) is the sole agency responsible for income to avoid tax.
managing public debt. 2. Minimum Alternate Tax applies on the
Which of the statements given above is/are sale of all assets if a profit has been
correct? made by the owner of the asset.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
41) Which of the following committees was (c) Both 1 and 2
constituted to review the implementation (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management) Act and give its 45) An Inverted Duty Structure is associated
recommendations on the way with the differences in taxation between
forward? (a) Inputs (raw material) and outputs (final
(a) Vijay Kelkar Committee products).
(b) Rangachary Committee (b) Domestically produced goods and
(c) N. K. Singh Committee services.
(d) P. J. Nayak Committee (c) Same kinds of foreign goods and
domestic goods.
Page 7 of 15
(d) Services offered by the public sector (b) 2 and 3 only
companies and private companies. (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3.
46) Consider the following statements:
1. National Small Savings Fund is 50) Consider the following statements:
administered by the Department of 1. The shortfall in total spending of the
Financial Services of Finance ministry. government over the national income creates
2. Matters relating to Central Government's inflationary gaps in the economy.
disinvestment in PSUs are dealt with by 2. The bonus brought by inflation to the
the Department of Economic Affairs. borrowers is known as the inflation
Which of the statements given above is/are premium.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
47) Which of the following statements is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct about measures of inflation? 51) Which of the following is/are considered
1. GDP deflator is relatively a better measure the major characteristics of ‘Stagflation’?
of price behaviour because it covers all 1. High Growth rate
goods and services produced in the 2. Persistent high inflation
country. 3. Rising level of unemployment
2. WPI is more expansive than the GDP Select the correct answer using the code
deflator in tracking price behaviour. given below:
3. The socio-economic differentiation among (a) 2 and 3 only
consumers is one of the determinants (b) 2 only
behind having multiple indicators to (c) 1 and 3 only
track price levels. (d) 1 only
Select the correct answer from the code
given below: 52) With reference to ‘Core inflation’ and
(a) 1 only ‘Headline inflation’, consider the
(b) 2 only following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Core inflation reflects the prices of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 essential consumption goods in an
economy.
48) The phenomenon when there is a 2. Headline inflation measure total inflation
sustained price rise of one or a small group minus prices of highly volatile food and
of commodities even though the general fuel components.
price levels remain constant, is termed as: 3. Core inflation is less volatile than
(a) Stagflation Headline inflation.
(b) Inflation 4. Headline inflation is more relevant for
(c) Reflation developing economies than developed
(d) Skewflation economies.
49) Which of the following may be considered Which of the statements given above is/are
as the reasons for high inflation in an correct?
economy? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Shortage of money with the people (b) 3 and 4 only
2. High demand and low production (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Spurt in production prices of certain (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
commodities 53) With reference to inflation targeting in
Select the correct answer using the code India, consider the following statements:
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
Page 8 of 15
1. The Reserve Bank of India sets the Which of the statements given above is/are
inflation target. correct?
2. Inflation targets are linked to the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Consumer Price Index. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 58) Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only regarding the Producer Price Index:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. PPI measures price changes from the
perspective of the producer while the
54) Which of the following is/are fiscal tools to consumer price index (CPI)
reduce inflation? measures it from the consumers’
(1) Reduction of subsidies perspective.
(2) Raising direct taxes 2. PPI includes the ancillary costs like
(3) Increasing rates on government transport costs.
securities 3. B.N. Goldar Committee was set up by the
Select the correct answer using the code government to advice upon the
given below: methodology for introducing
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only PPI in the country.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
55) What is the following is/are the correct?
objective(s) of having Reverse Charge (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Mechanism under Goods and Services Tax (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(GST)? 59) Consider the following statements about
1. To bring the unorganized sectors under the the Regional Rural Banks:
ambit of GST. 1. The largest share of its equity is held by
2. To increase the tax revenue of the the state government.
Government. 2. One of its objectives is to check the
3. To penalize the GST non-compliance. outflow of rural deposits to urban areas.
Which of the above statements is/are not Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
56) Which among the following principles is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
associated with the ‘Laffer Curve’?
(a) Higher GDP growth ensures higher 60) With reference to the Deposit Insurance
employment rate. Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC),
(b) People will adjust their behavior from consider the following statements:
the incentive created by income tax 1. It insures only the principal amount of the
rates. depositor held with the scheduled
(c) Consumption expenditure of people commercial bank.
reduces with increasing savings rate. 2. It insures all the deposits of Central and
(d) Tax Buoyancy is directly proportional to State governments.
the employment level in an economy. 3. All cooperative banks including Primary
Cooperative Societies are covered by the
57) Consider the following statements: DICGC.
1. A ‘cess’ is a tax on tax, imposed by the Which of the statements given above
central government, while ‘surcharge’ is is/are correct?
an additional charge or tax. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
2. Cess can be levied only by the central (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the
government whereas Surcharge can be Above
levied both by central and state
government

Page 9 of 15
61) Which of the following statements is 3. Fiduciary money - Backed by trust
correct regarding the reverse repo between payer and
normalisation? payee
(a) It is the rate at which commercial banks Which of the pairs given above is/are
borrow money from the RBI. correct?
(b) It is the reduction of the gap between (a) 1 and 2 only
repo rate and reverse repo rate by the (b) 3 only
RBI. (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) It is aimed at increasing liquidity in the (d) 1, 2 and 3
market.
(d) It will result in increasing the demand 66) Consider the following statements:
for money among consumers 1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) is appointed by the Central
62) Which of the following can be the Government.
consequences of a ‘negative interest rate’ 2. Certain Provisions in the Constitution of
in an economy? India give the Central Government the
1. Reduced savings in an economy right to Issue directions to the RBI in
2. Higher returns to foreign investors public interest.
3. Appreciation of domestic currency 3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power
4. Decreased profit margins of Banks from the RBI Act.
5. Lower yields of Government Bonds Which of the above statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1 and 2 only
given below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
63) This economic theory states that as a 67) With reference to the Marginal Standing
household's income increases, the Facility (MSF), consider the following
percentage of income spent on food statements:
decreases while the proportion spent on 1. It is an interbank borrowing facility for
other goods (such as luxury goods) banks in an emergency situation.
increases. 2. Under MSF, banks borrow funds from
Which of the following Economic law is RBI at the rate higher than the repo rate.
mentioned in the above paragraph? 3. Banks can avail funds under MSF using
(a) Law of supply the Statutory Liquidity Ratio securities.
(b) Engel's Law Which of the statements given above are
(c) Law of Demand correct?
(d) Law of self interest (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
64) The money multiplier in an economy
increases with which one of the following? 68) With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative
(a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the Banks’ in India, consider the following
banks statements:
(b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio 1. They are supervised and regulated by local
in the banks boards set up by the state Governments.
(c) Increase in the banking habit of the people 2. They can issue equity shares and
(d) Increase in the population of the country preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of
65) Consider the following pairs: the Banking Regulation act,1949 through
Types of Money Description an amendment in 1966.
1. Fiat money - Backed by physical Which of the statement given above is/are
commodity like gold correct?
2. Legal tender - Mandatory to accept it as (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
mode of settlement (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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2. One of the most important functions of
69) Consider the following statements with DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary
respect to the money supply: Agricultural Credit Societies.
1. Credit and loans are not taken into Which of the statements given above is/are
account while measuring money supply in correct?
an economy. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. An increase in the supply of money can (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
lower the interest rates and generate
investment. 73) Which one of the following statements
Which of the statements given above is/are regarding the functions of ‘Reserve Bank
correct? of India is incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) It is mandated with the Right to issue
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 bank notes as one of the key central
70) If the RBI decides to adopt an banking functions.
expansionist monetary policy, which of the (b) It is the right and obligation of RBI to
following would it not do? accept monies on account of the Central
1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Government of India.
Ratio (c) It establishes Monetary Policy Committee
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility with an intent to stabilise money supply in
Rate the market.
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate (d) It can authorize any person to be known
Select the correct answer using the code as authorized person to deal in foreign
given below: exchange or in foreign securities.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 74) Which of the following measures would
71) Consider the following statements result in an increase in the money supply
regarding Regional Rural Bank (RRB) in the economy?
and Small Finance Bank: 1. Purchase of govt securities from the public
1. Unlike Regional Rural Bank, Small by the central bank
Finance Banks are not required to lend 2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks
capital under Priority Sector Lending. by the public
2. Unlike Regional Rural Bank, Small 3. Borrowing by the govt. from the central
Finance Banks are restricted from bank
providing credit facilities to small and 4. Sale of government securities to the public
marginal farmers. by the central bank
3. Unlike Regional Rural Bank, Small Select the correct answer using the codes
Finance Banks can be fully owned by given below:
private individual or professional entities. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 4 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 75) With reference to ‘Monetary Policy in
(d) 3 only India’, which one of the following
statements is incorrect regarding ‘Bank
72) Consider the following statements: Rate’?
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to (a) It is the rate or discount at which RBI
the agriculture sector, District Central grants loans or advances to commercial
Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more banks.
credit in comparison to Scheduled (b) Any increase in Bank Rate directly
Commercial Banks and Regional Rural affects the lending rates offered to the
Banks. customer by the banks.

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(c) Banks can avail fund at bank rate using Select the correct answer using the code
either Government Securities or Cash as given below:
collateral. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Bank Rate caters to long term financial (b) 2 and 3 only
requirements of commercial banks. (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
76) In the context of Indian economy which of
the following is/are the purpose/purposes 79) Which of the following is NOT a
of 'Statutory Reserve Requirements'? fundamental principle of cybersecurity?
1. To enable the Central Bank to control the (a) Confidentiality: Protecting information
amount of advances the banks can create. from unauthorized access or disclosure.
2. To make the people's deposits with banks (b) Integrity: Ensuring the accuracy and
safe and liquid. completeness of information.
3. To prevent the commercial banks from (c) Availability: Guaranteeing that systems
making excessive profits. and data are accessible when needed.
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault (d) Accountability: Holding individuals
cash to meet their day-to-day requirements. responsible for their actions in cyberspace.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 80. Which type of malware encrypts files on a
(a) 1 only victim's computer and demands a ransom
(b) 1 and 2 only for the decryption key?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) Virus
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Worm
(c) Trojan Horse
77) Consider the following statements with (d) Ransomware
respect to the provisions of priority sector
lending (PSL) in India: 81) Which of the following is a common
1. Both commercial banks and foreign banks method used in phishing attacks?
are required to allocate 40% of the (a) Sending legitimate-looking emails with
adjusted net bank credit for priority malicious attachments.
sectors. (b) Physically stealing data from a
2. Priority sectors include export credit company's servers.
sectors and housing sector. (c) Exploiting vulnerabilities in software to
3. Recently, financing to start-ups up to Rs gain unauthorized access.
500 crore and compressed biogas plants (d) Using social engineering techniques to
have been brought under the Priority trick users into revealing sensitive
Sector Lending. information.
Which of the statements given above is/are 82) Which of the following is NOT a best
correct? practice for strong password security?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Using a variety of characters, including
(b) 2 and 3 only uppercase and lowercase letters,
(c) 3 only numbers, and symbols.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Regularly changing passwords, ideally
every 30 days.
78) Which of the following entities can take (c) Using the same strong password for all
loans through both Marginal Standing online accounts.
Facility (MSF) and Liquidity (d) Avoiding using easily guessable
Adjustment Facility (LAF) of the RBI? information, such as birthdays or pet
1. Schedules commercial banks. names.
2. Regional rural banks.
3. Non-Banking Financial Company. 83) What is the difference between a classical
computer and a quantum computer?

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(a) Classical computers use bits, while 89) Which of the following group of persons
quantum computers use qubits. are eligible for getting free legal services
(b) Quantum computers can perform certain under the Legal Services Authorities
calculations much faster than classical Act, 1987?
computers. 1. Women and children
(c) Quantum computers can exploit 2. Members of SC/ST
quantum phenomena like superposition 3. Industrial workmen
and entanglement. 4. Disabled persons
(d) All of the above 5. Persons in custody
Select the correct answer using the code
84) What is quantum key distribution (QKD)? given below.
(a) A method for distributing encryption keys (a) 1, 2, and 4 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
using quantum mechanics (c) 3, 4, and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
(b) A type of quantum computer
(c) A technique for teleporting objects 90) Consider the following statements
(d) A way to measure the spin of a quantum regarding the National Informatics
particle Centre:
1. It is an executive authority under the
85) Which of the following is NOT a key Ministry of Communications.
principle of quantum mechanics? 2. It provides e-Governance support to
(a) Superposition central and state governments and district
(b) Entanglement administrations.
(c) Classical determinism 3. It is responsible for the implementation of
(d) Measurement the MyGov initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
86) What is a qubit? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
(a) A classical bit of information
(b) The basic unit of quantum information 91) Consider the following statements
(c) A type of quantum computer regarding the Streptococcal toxic shock
(d) A physical particle used in quantum syndrome (STSS), which was recently seen
computing in the news:
87) Which of the following is a potential 1. STSS is a severe infection caused by a
application of quantum computing? bacterium known for its rapid progression.
(a) Drug discovery 2. It can be quite contagious and can spread
(b) Breaking encryption to others through respiratory droplets or
(c) Developing new materials direct contact.
(d) All of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
88) What is quantum entanglement? (a) 1 only
(a) The process of measuring a quantum (b) 2 only
system (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) A phenomenon where two or more (d) Neither 1 and 2
quantum particles become linked,
such that the state of one instantly 92) Which of the following insitutions releases
influences the state of the other the " Global Gender Gap Report"?
(c) The ability of a quantum system to exist (a) United Nations Development
in multiple states simultaneously Programme (UNDP)
(d) The process of transferring information (b) World Bank
between two quantum systems (c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

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93) With reference to the Telecom Regulatory 94) In the context of the Mahatma Gandhi
Authority of India (TRAI), consider the National Rural Employment Guarantee
following statements: Act (MGNREGA), 2005, consider the
1. It is a statutory body that fixes/revises following statements:
tariffs for telecom services. 1.The scheme is implemented by the
2. The Chairperson and other members hold Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
office for a term of three years or till the 2. The Act guarantees 180 days of wage
age of 65 years. employment in a financial year to rural
Which of the statements given above is/are households.
correct? 3. The Act mandates that at least half of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only beneficiaries shall be women.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 How many of the statements given above
nor 2 are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
95) The E-Government Development Index is 2. Narcotics Control Bureau
released by which of the following? 3. National Security Guards
(a) International Telecommunication Union 4. Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(b) World Bank How many of the above organizations are
(c) World Economic Forum exempt from providing information under
(d) United Nations Public Administration the RTI Act?
Programme (a) Only one
(b) Only two
96) Consider the following countries: (c) Only three
1. India (d) All four
2. China
3. South Korea
4. United States
5. Japan
How many of the above are part of "The
Biopharmaceutical Alliance", which was 99) Certain techniques are used in food
recently launched? processing and preservation to ensure that
(a) Only two food is frozen quickly while retaining its
(b) Only three quality. Which one of the following is
(c) Only four the most often utilized material for quick
(d) All five freezing in food processing?
(a) Liquid nitrogen
97) Cases related to which of the following (b) Liquid oxygen
crimes can be handled by the CBI? (c) Liquid carbon dioxide
1. Anti-corruption crimes (d) Liquid helium
2. Economic crimes
3. Money laundering 100) Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. India is the world's largest importer of
given below. vegetable oils.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Singapore is the largest exporter of palm
(b) 3 only oil to India.
(c) 1 only Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(d) None correct?
(a) 1 only
98) Consider the following, regarding the (b) 2 only
Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Directorate of Enforcement (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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