MODULE 1

ECOSYSTEM AND SUSTAINABILITY

1. The term 'Environment' has been derived from the French word which means to encircle or
surround
a) Environ b) Oikos c) geo d) Aqua

2. objective of environmental education is

a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions

b) To teach environmentally appropriate behaviour

c) Create an environmental ethic
d) All of the above
3. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the least storage
capacity for matter?
a) Atmosphere b) Lithosphere c) Hydrosphere d) Biosphere

4. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter?
a) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere b) Atmosphere and Lithosphere

c) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere d) Biosphere and Lithosphere

5. Biosphere is
a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth
b) The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the
living things

c) the sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres
d) All of the above
6. Atmosphere consists of 79 per cent Nitrogen and 21 per cent Oxygen by
a) volume b) weight c) Density d) All the three

7. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?

a) Fungi b) solar light c) temperature d) humidity

8. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is

a) Bidirectional b) Cyclic c) Unidirectional d) Multidirectional

9. Which Pyramid is always upright

a) energy b) biomass c) numbers d) food chain

10. In complex ecosystems the degree of species diversity is

a) poor b) high c) medium d) none

11. The organisms who directly feed on producers are called

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 a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Decomposers d) Saprophytes

12. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called

a) Food Chain b) carbon cycle c) hydrological cycle d) anthroposystem

13. Which of the following is a producer in an ecosystem

a) Plants and some bacteria capable of producing their own food

b) Animals c) Human beings d) Fish

14. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem
b) Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds
c) Energy is recycled in an ecosystem

d) Respiration process releases energy

15. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is

a) Oceans b) Atmosphere c) biosphere d) Fossil fuels

16. In aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton can be considered as a

a) Consumer b) Producer c) Saprotrophic organisms d) Macroconsumer
17. The basic requirements of human beings are provided by
a) Industrialisation b) Agriculture c) Nature d) Urbanisation

18. Environment is the life support system that includes

a) Air b) Water c) Land d) All of the above

19. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by

a) Producer b) Consumer c) Decomposer d) All of the above

20. Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called

a) Prey b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) Detritus

21. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are

a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants b) Herbivores

c) Carnivores d) Bacteria and other microorganisms

22. Abiotic component includes
a) Soil b) Temperature c) Water d) All of the above

23. Which of the following statement is true

a) Green plants are self-nourishing

b) Producers depends on consumers

c)Biotic components includes all non-living components
d) Herbivores depend on Carnivores

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24. Primary consumer is
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Macro consumers d) Omnivores

25. A predator is

a) An animal that is fed upon

b) An animal that feeds upon another animal

c) Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals

d) A primary consumer
26.Process to food is mainly determined by
a) Household income b) Food assistance programmes

c) Human resources d) Society/Community

27. The word 'Environment' is derived from
a) Greek b) French c) Spanish d) English
28. Which among the following is a climatic factor?
a) pressure b) humidity c) temperature d) All of the above

29. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is.

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Ozone d) Helium

30. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface?

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Exosphere

31. Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?

a) Forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) All of the above

32. Ecological pyramids are studies of

a) Pyramid of numbers b) pyramid of energy
c) Pyramid of biomass d) All of the above

33. World Environment Day is on

a) 5* May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 16h August

34. Factors responsible for balanced ecosystem are

a) balance between predator and prey
b) balance between vegetation, herbivorous and carnivorous
c) balance between competing species and biotic factors
d) All of the above

35. Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Nutrients d) All of above

36. Habitat refers to

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 a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live

b) Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live

c) Both a & b

d) None of a or b
37. Essential component of social security are

a) Meeting personal growth and development

b) Maintaining natural capital

c) Fairness and equity in distribution of costs of resources.

d) Community resilience

38. Socio - economic security in environmental aspects involves

a) Fairness & equity in distribution costs for complete existing generation

b) Welfare of the present generation

c) Intra and inter-generational equity of resources
d) All of the above

39. A food web consists of

a) a portion of a food chain b) an organism’s position in a food chain
c) interlocking food chains d) a set of similar consumers

40. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Man is not dependent on nature
b) Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per one's wish.
c) Energy can be converted from one form to another, but some percentage is lost
into the environment

d) Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused.

41. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled to ensure food security?
a) Food must be available
b) Each person must have access to it

c) Food utilized/consumed must fulfil nutritional requirements

d) All of the above
42. Which of the following is the primary function of a forest ecosystem?

a) Water purification b) Soil erosion

c) Photosynthesis d) Carbon sequestration

43. What is the top layer of a forest called?

a) Understory b) Forest floor

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 c) Canopy d) Shrub layer

44. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a tropical rainforest?

a) High biodiversity b) Low rainfall

c) Sparse vegetation d) Cold climate

45. Which of the following adaptations is common in desert plants?
a) Broad leaves b) Thick cuticles

c) High transpiration d) Thin roots

46. What is the main limiting factor in desert ecosystems?
a) Temperature b) Light c) Water availability d) Soil nutrients

47. Which animal is best adapted to desert conditions?

a) Camel b) Polar bear c) Frog d) Dolphin

48. What is the primary role of wetlands in the environment?

a) Erosion control b) Carbon dioxide production
c) Water filtration and flood control d) Soil fertility reduction

49. Which of the following is a type of wetland?

a) Savannah b) Marsh c) Tundra d) Steppe

50. Which plant species is commonly found in wetland ecosystems?

a) Cactus b) Mangrove c) Oak d) Pine

51. What is the primary source of energy in a river ecosystem?

a) Chemical energy b) Solar energy c) Wind energy d) Geothermal energy

52. Which zone of a river is characterized by high oxygen content and rapid water flow?
a) Floodplain b) Estuary c) Rapids d) Delta

53. What role do rivers play in the nutrient cycle?

a) Nutrient trapping b) Nutrient distribution

c) Nutrient depletion d) Nutrient production

54. Which of the following zones in the ocean is known for the highest biodiversity?
a) Abyssal zone b) Pelagic zone c) Coral reefs d) Intertidal zone

55. What is the primary function of phytoplankton in ocean ecosystems?

a) Decomposition b) Carbon dioxide absorption and oxygen production

c) Predation d) Erosion

56. Which ocean zone receives enough sunlight to support photosynthesis?

a) Benthic zone b) Aphotic zone c) Euphotic zone d) Abyssal zone

57. Which layer of a lake is typically the warmest?

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 a) Hypolimnion b) Epilimnion c) Thermocline d) Benthic

58. What process is primarily responsible for the nutrient enrichment of lakes?
a) Eutrophication b) Photosynthesis c) Sedimentation d) Denitrification

59. Which type of lake has a low concentration of nutrients and supports little plant life?
a) Eutrophic b) Oligotrophic c) Mesotrophic d) Hypertrophic

60. When were the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the United Nations?
a) 2000 b) 2015 c) 2010 d) 2020

61. Which global agenda did the SDGs succeed?

a) Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) b) Paris Agreement

c) Agenda 21 d) Kyoto Protocol

62. How many SDGs were established by the United Nations?
a) 10 b) 15 c) 17 d) 20
63. Which SDG focuses on ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being for all?
a) SDG 2 b) SDG 3 c) SDG 5 d) SDG 10

64. How many specific targets are included in the 17 SDGs?

a) 169 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

65. What is the target year to achieve the SDGs?

a) 2025 b) 2030 c) 2040 d) 2050

66. Which SDG aims to “End poverty in all its forms everywhere”?
a) SDG 1 b) SDG 4 c) SDG 8 d) SDG 16
67. Which international agreement is closely linked to the implementation of SDG 13 (Climate
Action)?
a) Montreal Protocol b) Paris Agreement

c) Kyoto Protocol d) Doha Amendment

68. Which organization primarily leads the global efforts to achieve the SDGs?
a) World Bank b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c) United Nations d) World Trade Organization (WTO)

69. What role do governments play in the implementation of the SDGs?

a) Monitoring progress b) Policy development
c) Funding programs d) All of the above
70. Which SDG is focused on promoting sustained, inclusive, and sustainable economic growth,
full and productive employment, and decent work for all?
a) SDG 7 b) SDG 8 c) SDG 9 d) SDG 12

71. What is the primary goal of capacity development in the context of SDGs?

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 a) To build infrastructure
b) To enhance skills, knowledge, and abilities of institutions and individuals

c) To fund SDG projects

d) To negotiate international treaties

72. Which SDG emphasizes the importance of partnerships for achieving sustainable
development?
a) SDG 10 b) SDG 12 c) SDG 16 d) SDG 17

73. What is a key component of capacity development for the SDGs?

a) Financial aid only b) Technology transfer and innovation

c) Legal reforms d) Only education programs

74. Which sector is crucial for the effective implementation of the SDGs through capacity
development?
a) Private sector b) Civil society c) Government d) All of the above
75. Which UN body is responsible for coordinating the global follow-up and review of the SDGs?
a) UN General Assembly b) UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)

c) International Labour Organization (ILO) d) World Health Organization (WHO)

76. What is the main challenge in the implementation of SDGs in developing countries?

a) Lack of awareness b) Financial constraints

c) Political instability d) All of the above
77. What is the target under SDG 1 for reducing the proportion of men, women, and children of
all ages living in poverty in all its dimensions?
a) By 50% by 2020 b) By 50% by 2030

c) By 100% by 2030 d)By 100% by 2025

78. What is the target under SDG 2 for ending all forms of malnutrition by 2030?
a) Reduce child malnutrition by 50% b) End all forms of malnutrition

c) Reduce adult malnutrition by 25% d) End hunger but allow malnutrition

79. By 2030, what is the target for reducing the global maternal mortality ratio under SDG 3?

a) Less than 50 deaths per 100,000 live births

b) Less than 70 deaths per 100,000 live births

c) Less than 100 deaths per 100,000 live births

d) Less than 150 deaths per 100,000 live births
80. What does SDG 4 aim to achieve regarding early childhood development, care, and pre-
primary education by 2030?
a) Equal access for boys only b) Equal access for girls only

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 c) Equal access for all children d) Access for rural children only
81. Under SDG 5, which target addresses eliminating all harmful practices, such as child, early,
and forced marriage?
a) 5.1 b) 5.2 c) 5.3 d) 5.4
82. What is the SDG 6 target for achieving access to adequate and equitable sanitation for all by
2030?
a) Reduce by 50% b) Achieve universal access

c) Reduce by 25 d) Achieve rural access only

83.By 2030, SDG 7 aims to increase substantially the share of renewable energy in the global
energy mix. What is the specific target?
a) Increase by 50%

b) Achieve 100% renewable energy use

c) Double the global share of renewable energy

d) Increase renewable energy by 25%

84. What does SDG 8 aim to achieve concerning the elimination of child labor by 2025?
a) Reduce by 25%
b) Eliminate child labour in all its forms

c) Eliminate child labour only in hazardous industries

d) Reduce child labour by 50%
85. SDG 9 aims to promote sustainable industrialization and foster innovation. By what year
should industries in developing countries double their share of the manufacturing sector?
a) 2025 b) 2030 c) 2040 d) 2050
86. SDG 10 aims to empower and promote the social, economic, and political inclusion of all. By
what year does it target reducing inequalities within and among countries?
a) 2025 b)2030 c) 2040 d) 2050

87. What is the target under SDG 11 for reducing the adverse environmental impact of cities by
2030?
a) Reduce air pollution only
b) Achieve zero carbon emissions
c) Reduce the environmental impact of cities

d) Promote rural settlement

88. By what year does SDG 12 target ensuring sustainable consumption and production
patterns?
a) 2025 b) 2030 c) 2040 d) 2050

89. By 2030, SDG 13 aims to integrate climate change measures into what?
a) National education systems b) Global treaties only

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 c) National policies, strategies, and planning d) Local agriculture policies

90. What is the SDG 14 target for conserving at least 10% of coastal and marine areas by 2020?
a) Achieve 100% conservation b) Conserve 10% of coastal and marine areas

c) Promote tourism in marine areas d) None of the above

91. What is the SDG 15 target for halting deforestation and increasing reforestation by 2020?

a) Halt deforestation and restore 10% of degraded forests

b) Achieve 100% afforestation
c) Halt deforestation and restore degraded forests
d) None of the above
91. Which target under SDG 16 aims to reduce all forms of violence and related death rates
everywhere?
a) 16.1 b) 16.2 c) 16.3 d) 16.4
92. SDG 17 aims to enhance global partnerships. What is the target for improving technology
and innovation capacities in developing countries by 2030?
a) Improve Internet access

b) Increase official development assistance (ODA)

c) Enhance global technology and innovation capacity

d) Promote industrialization

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 MODULE-2

NATURAL RESOURECES AND ENERGY

1. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
c) Coal
d) Geothermal energy

2. What percentage of the world's water is fresh water?

a) 3%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 25%

3. Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

a) Natural gas
b) Oil
c) Timber
d) Coal

4. Which country is the largest producer of crude oil? (as of the

most recent data)
a) Russia
b) Iraq
c) Saudi Arabia
d) United States

5. What is the main component of natural gas?

a) Ethane
b) Butane
c) Methane
d) Propane

6. Hydropower generates electricity through the use of:

a) Wind
 b) Solar panels
c) Flowing water
d) Biomass

7. Which of the following natural resources is primarily used to

produce nuclear energy?
a) Coal
b) Wind
c) Uranium
d) Solar

8. What is the main use of bauxite?

a) Cement production
b) Iron extraction
c) Fertilizer production
d) Aluminium production

9. Which of the following natural resources is considered

inexhaustible?
a) Petroleum
b) Natural gas
c) Solar energy
d) Coal

10. Which gas is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect

when burned fossil fuels like coal and oil are combusted?
a) Nitrogen
b) Helium
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Oxygen

11.Which of the following is considered a renewable resource?

a) Coal
b) Solar energy
c) Natural gas
d) Uranium
12. True or False: Wind energy is an example of a non-renewable
resource.
Answer: False

13. Which of the following resources is non-renewable?

a) Timber
b) Geothermal energy
c) Oil
d) Hydro power

14. True or False: Non-renewable resources can be replenished

naturally at a rate comparable to their rate of consumption.
Answer: False

15. Which process can convert a renewable resource into a non-

renewable one?
a) Sustainable harvesting
b) Overexploitation
c) Recycling
d) Conservation

16. What percentage of the Earth's surface is covered by water?

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 71%
d) 80%

17. True or False: All forms of water on Earth are fit for human
consumption without treatment.
Answer: False

18. Which is the largest source of freshwater on Earth?

a) Rivers
b) Groundwater
c) Rainwater
d) Glaciers and icecaps
19. True or False: The process of desalination can make saline water
suitable for human consumption.
Answer: True

20. Which method is commonly used to measure water quality?

a) Temperature test
b) pH level test
c) Length measurement
d) Speed test

21. What percentage of the Earth's water is freshwater?

a) 70%
b) 3%
c) 30%
d) 50%

22. True or False: Groundwater accounts for over 90% of the world’s
accessible freshwater resources.
Answer: True

23. Which of the following processes increases the salinity of water,

making it unusable without treatment?
a) Evaporation
b) Precipitation
c) Infiltration
d) Condensation

24. Which bacterium is most associated with cholera, a water-borne

disease?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Vibrio cholerae
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Campylobacter jejuni

25. True or False: Hepatitis A can be transmitted through the

consumption of contaminated water.
Answer: True
26. What is the primary method to control water-borne diseases in
communities?
a) Boiling water
b) Offering vaccinations
c) Improving sanitation infrastructure
d) Using antibiotics

27. Which disease is considered water-induced and is transmitted by

mosquitoes breeding in stagnant water?
a) Typhoid
b) Malaria
c) Cholera
d) Poliomyelitis

28. True or False: Water-induced diseases are only transmitted

through direct water consumption.
Answer: False

29. What is the optimal range of fluoride concentration in drinking

water recommended to prevent dental caries?
a) 0.1 - 0.5 mg/L
b) 0.7 - 1.2 mg/L
c) 1.5 - 2.0 mg/L
d) 2.5 - 3.0 mg/L

30. True or False: Excessive fluoride in drinking water can lead to a

condition known as dental fluorosis.
Answer: True

31. What is the commonly suggested remedy for reducing high

fluoride levels in drinking water at home?
a) Boiling water
b) Adding chlorine
c) Using reverse osmosis filters
d) Letting water sit overnight
32. What is the basic unit of energy in the International System of
Units (SI)?
a) Joule
b) Calorie
c) Watt
d) Volt

33. Which of the following is an example of kinetic energy?

a) Batteries
b) A moving car
c) A book on a shelf
d) Chemical bonds in food

34. Potential energy is energy due to an object's...

a) Motion
b) Temperature
c) Position
d) Charge

35. What form of energy is produced from visible light?

a) Thermal energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Radiant energy

36. When a battery is used to power a device, what form of energy

transformation takes place?
a) Mechanical to electrical
b) Chemical to electrical
c) Electrical to thermal
d) Nuclear to chemical

37. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy?

a) Solar energy
b) Coal
c) Wind energy
d) Biomass
38. What percentage of global electricity is typically generated by
fossil fuels?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%

39. Petroleum is primarily used for producing...

a) Steel
b) Electricity
c) Plastics
d) Cement

40. Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?

a) Natural gas
b) Nuclear power
c) Geothermal energy
d) Hydroelectric power

41. Why is biomass considered a renewable source of energy?

a) It uses solar panels.
b) It can be replenished within a human lifetime.
c) It produces no emissions.
d) It is infinite like the wind.

42. What is the main component used in photovoltaic cells to capture

solar energy?
a) Copper
b) Silicon
c) Iron
d) Zinc

43. In solar thermal systems, solar energy is primarily converted into

which form of energy?
a) Electrical energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Heat energy
 d) Nuclear energy

44. Wind turbines convert __________ energy into electrical energy.

a) Mechanical
b) Chemical
c) Nuclear
d) Thermal

45. Which country is a leader in wind energy production?

a) Saudi Arabia
b) United States
c) China
d) Russia

46. Hydrogen fuel cells are used to...

a) Burn hydrogen for light
b) Convert hydrogen into electrical energy
c) Produce solid hydrogen for heat
d) Store hydrogen gas safely

47. What is a major challenge in using hydrogen as a widespread

energy source?
a) High availability of hydrogen on Earth
b) Cost and storage issues of hydrogen
c) Highly efficient energy conversion
d) Hydrogen is non-combustible

48. About .........% of the earth's surface is covered by water

a) 53%
b) 19%
c) 71%
d) 90%

49. Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinemia) is caused by the

contamination of water due to
a) Phosphates
b) Sulphur
 c) Arsenic
d) Nitrates

50. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one causes

minimum water pollution?
a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorous
c) Potassium
d) Organic matter

51. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the
Indian Standards?
a) 6 to9
b) 6.5 to 7.5
c) 6 to 8.5
d) 6.5 to 8.5

52. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in

drinking water?
a) 1.0 milligram per liter
b) 1.25 milligram per liter
c) 1.50 milligram per liter
d) 1.75 milligram per liter

53. Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause

a) Blue babies
b) fluorosis
c) taste and odour
d) intestinal irritation

54. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

a) Factories
b) Sewage treatment plants
c) urban and suburban lands
d) All of the above
55. Among the fresh water available in the Earth the
percentage of surface water is about
a) 50%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) less than 1%

56. Important factor that causes water borne disease is

a) Using contaminated sewage for Irrigation
b) Leaching of untreated fecal and urinary discharges into
water bodies
c) Discharge of industrial waste water
d) By eating contaminated food

57. Cholera & typhoid are caused by

a) Worms
b) Virus
c) Bacteria
d) Fungus

58. Major sources of fluoride is

a) River water
b) Tooth paste
c) Ground water
d) Food products

59. Hepatitis is caused by

a) Protozoo
b) Virus
c) Bacteria
d) Fungus

60. Excessive Nitrate in drinking water causes

a) Fever
b) Cough & chill
c) Blue babies
d) Gastro Enteritis
61. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of
a) Mercury
b) Nitrate
c) Fluoride
d) Lead

62. Mineral resources are

a) Renewable
b) Available in plenty
c) Non renewable
d) Equally distributed

63. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effectively by

a) Treatment of disease
b) By consuming mineral water
c) By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the
source of water
d) By vaccination

64. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?

a) Asbestos
b) feldspar
c) Phosphate
d) Nitrogen

65. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing:
a) 95% of earths water
b) 85% of earths water
c) 97% of earths water
d) 75% of earths water

66. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle?

a) precipitation
b) infiltration
c) transpiration
d) perspiration
67. The ground water depends on
a) Amount of rain fall
b) Geological formations
c) Run off
d) All of the above

68. The required Iron content in drinking water as specified by BIS is

a) 300 mg/l
b) 30 mg/l
c) 3 mg/l
d) 0.3 mg/l

69. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Fossil fuels
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal wave energy
d) Wind energy

70. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable

energy sources
a) Highly polluting
b) High waste disposal cost
c) Unreliable supply
d) High running cost

71. 'OTEC' is an energy technology that converts

a) energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricity
b) energy in ocean waves to generate electricity
c) energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate
electricity
d) energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate
electricity

72. Which of the following source of energy is less ecofriendly?

a) Biogas
b) Wind
c) Solar
 d) Nuclear

73. India's position in the Bio-gas plants globally

a) 5th
b) 2nd
c) 4th
d) 7th

74. Solar energy is stored in

a) carbon_carbon bonds
b) green leaves
c) fossil fuels
d) biomass

75. Which resources are inexhaustible?

a) renewable
b) fossil fuel c
c) non-renewable
d) mineral

76. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following

a) Coal
b) Fuel cells
c) Wind Power
d) Wave power

77. Electromagnetic radiation can cause

a) Plague
b) Malaria
c) Cancer
d) Dengue Fever

78. Harnessing the wind energy is done by

a) Wind Mill
b) Ball mill
c) Flour Mill
d) Pig mill
79. Wind Farms are located in
a) River basin
b) Plain area
c) Hilly area
d) Valley area

80. Wind energy generation depends on

a) direction of wind
b) velocity of wind
c) humidity
d) precipitation

81. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by

a) solar radiation
b) wind
c) Nuclear fuels
d) tidal waves

82. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by

a) solar photo voltaic system
b) solar diesel hybrid system
c) solar thermal system
d) solar air heater

83. In Hydropower plants power is generated by

a) hotsprings
b) wind
c) Sun
d) water

84. Hydrogen energy can be tapped through

a) heat pumps
b)fuel cells
c) photovoltaic cells
d) gasifiers

85. Problems of Hydrogen fuel cell is

 a) storage and distribution
b) availability of hydrogen
c) creates pollution
d) None of the above

86. Nuclear power is being produced from

a) Carbon-14
b) nuclear fission
c) petroleum combustion
d) natural gas

87. Nuclear fusion uses the following as a fuel

a) Carbon
b) Helium
c) Hydrogen
d) water

88. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate
at which it is used ?
a) coal
b) petroleum
c) Oil
d) Biomass

89. Biomass consists of

a) Lignin
b) Hemi cellulose
c) Cellulose
d) All of the above

90. Which of the following is used as moderator in the nuclear reactor

?
a) Graphite
b) Helium gas
c) Heavy water
d) All of the above
91. Nuclear wastes is active for
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c)50 years
d) centuries

92. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at

a) Bhadravathi
b) Sandur
c) Raichur
d) Kaiga

93. Biomass energy in green plants is produced in presence of

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) Sunlight
d) All of the above

94. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by

a) burning
b) cooling
c) sublimation
d) melting

95. Natural gas contains

a) carbon dioxide
b) hydrogen
c) Methane
d) nitrogen

96. Which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented
a) Goa
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu

97. Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is

 a) Middle East countries
b) America
c) China
d) India

98. Cow Dung can be used

a) as Manure
b) for production of Bio gas
c) as fuel
d) all of the above

99. The source of Electromagnetic radiation is

a) Sun
b) Wind
c) Tide
d) Water

100. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of

a) Methane and Carbon dioxide
b) methane and hydrogen sulphide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide
d) None of the above
 MODULE 3 - ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION

1. What is environmental pollution?

a) The degradation of the environment by the accumulation of harmful substances
b) The process of making the environment green
c) The planting of trees to improve air quality
d) The removal of harmful organisms from water

2. Which of the following is NOT a type of environmental pollution?

a) Water pollution
b) Air pollution
c) Space pollution
d) Noise pollution

3. Which of the following is a major source of air pollution?

a) Transportation and vehicles
b) Rainfall
c) Tree planting
d) Hydroelectric plants

4. Industrial waste is a primary source of which type of pollution?

a) Water pollution
b) Air pollution
c) Noise pollution
d) Soil pollution

5. Which of the following health conditions is commonly associated with air pollution?
a) Hypertension
b) Asthma
c) Tuberculosis
d) Osteoporosis

6. Eutrophication is a direct consequence of which type of pollution?

a) Noise pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Thermal pollution

7. Which of the following is a preventive measure to reduce air pollution?

a) Using public transportation
b) Increasing the use of fossil fuels
c) Reducing tree cover
d) Building more factories

Q8. What is the best method to control water pollution from household waste?
a) Dumping in rivers
b) Treating wastewater before discharge
c) Increasing water consumption
 d) Burning the waste

9. Which of the following diseases is caused by consuming polluted water?

a) Malaria
b) Cholera
c) Diabetes
d) Tuberculosis

10. Which heavy metal in water is harmful to human health and can cause kidney damage?
a) Calcium
b) Iron
c) Lead
d) Sodium

11. Which of the following is the most harmful pollutant in urban air that can cause lung
disease?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Particulate matter (PM2.5)
d) Oxygen

12. Long-term exposure to high levels of air pollution can lead to which chronic disease?
a) Bronchitis
b) Lung cancer
c) Skin cancer
d) Cataracts

13. Prolonged exposure to high levels of noise can cause:

a) Vision impairment
b) Hearing loss
c) Kidney failure
d) Digestive disorders

14. Which of the following is an effective method to control noise pollution?

a) Installing soundproofing materials
b) Increasing the volume of loudspeakers
c) Using more machinery in urban areas
d) Widening roads for more traffic

15. Acid rain is caused primarily by which of the following pollutants?

a) Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
b) Methane and carbon monoxide
c) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
d) Chlorine and sodium

16. The depletion of the ozone layer is caused by:

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Methane
c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
d) Sulfur dioxide
17. Pollution can be best described as:
a) Addition of harmful substances to the environment
b) Purification of natural resources
c) Reclamation of land
d) Improvement in water quality

18. Which of the following is NOT a type of pollution?

a) Light pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Genetic pollution
d) Heat pollution

19. Which type of pollution is caused by excessive brightness of artificial lights?

a) Water pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Light pollution
d) Air pollution

20. Which of the following gases is a major contributor to the greenhouse effect?
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Helium

21. What is the major source of carbon monoxide pollution?

a) Motor vehicles
b) Agricultural activities
c) Industrial cooling
d) Deforestation

22. The term “smog” is a combination of which of the following?

a) Smoke and fog
b) Snow and gas
c) Sunlight and fog
d) Steam and gas

23. The most common cause of water pollution is:

a) Oil spills
b) Industrial waste and sewage
c) Agricultural run-off
d) Noise

24. What is the most common pollutant in water due to agricultural activities?
a) Phosphates
b) Oxygen
c) Salt
d) Chlorine
25. Which disease is commonly caused by drinking polluted water?
a) Typhoid
 b) Tuberculosis
c) Chickenpox
d) Measles

26. Sound levels above which decibel level can be harmful to human hearing?
a) 30 dB
b) 60 dB
c) 85 dB
d) 110 dB

27. Noise pollution is most commonly produced by:

a) Heavy traffic
b) Wind
c) Solar panels
d) Tree growth

28. Soil pollution is primarily caused by:

a) Organic fertilizers
b) Plastic waste and chemicals
c) Recycling
d) Planting more trees

29. Which of the following human activities can reduce soil pollution?
a) Increasing chemical pesticide use
b) Practicing crop rotation
c) Deforestation
d) Dumping non-biodegradable waste

30. Which of the following is a good practice to reduce air pollution?

a) Using renewable energy sources
b) Using fossil fuels
c) Deforestation
d) Increasing industrial output

31. The best way to reduce water pollution is:

a) Allowing untreated sewage into water bodies
b) Implementing strict waste treatment laws
c) Using more plastic
d) Increasing industrial effluents

32. What is the term used to describe the practice of reducing waste by reusing and recycling
materials?
a) Polluting
b) Composting
c) Waste minimization
d) Emission

33. Environmental pollution is due to

a) Rapid Urbanization b) deforestation c) Afforestation d) a & b
34. Which of the following is air pollutant
a) CO b)02 C) N2 d) all

35. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution

a) Volcanic eruption b) solar flair c) earth quake d) all

36. Which of the following are biodegradable pollutants

a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) detergent d) all

37. Mining practices lead to

a) Population growth
b) Rapid urbanization
c) Loss of grazing and fertile land
d) None of these

38. Which of the following is the source of fly ash

a) Vehicular exhaust b) sewage c) Thermal power plant d) all

39. The liquid waste from baths and kitchens is called

a) Sullage b) Domestic sewage c) Storm waste d) Run off

40. Noise pollution can be minimized by

a) a) Urbanization b) Maintaining silence c) Reducing noise at source d) none

41. BOD Means

a) Biochemical oxygen demand
b) chemical oxygen demand
c) biophysical oxygen demand
d) all

42. Which of the following industry generates coloured waste

a) Software industry
b) Textile industry
c) Biomedical industry
d) none

43. Physical pollution of water is due to

a) Dissolved oxygen b) Turbidity c) pH d) none of these

44. Which of the following source is surface water

a) Springs b) Streams c) deep wells d) all

45. Deforestation can

a) Increase the rain fall
b) Increase soil fertility
c) Introduce silt in the rivers
d) None of these

46. Which of the following is non point source of water pollution

a) Factories
 b) Sewage treatment plant
c) Urban and Sub-urban land
d) all of the above

47. Sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as a pollutant
a) 40dB b) 80dB c)120dB d) 150dB

48. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies
a) Sewage treatment plants
b) Thermal power plants
c) Solid waste disposal
d) all

49. Smog is
a) A natural phenomenon
b) Combination of smoke and fog
c) Colourless
d) Alll of the above

50. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting

a) Electrostatic precipitator
b) wet scrubber
c) Catalytic converter
d) All of the above

51. Which of the following statements about carbon monoxide is true

a) Forms complex with haemoglobin
b) Forms complex with leg-haemoglobin
c) Form by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels
d) a and c

52. Which of the following is a point source of water pollution

a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plants c) Urban and Sub-Urban lands d) a and b

53. Definition of Noise is

a) Loud sound b) Unwanted sound c) Constant sound d) Sound of high frequency

54. Noise pollution is controlled by

a) Reducing the noise at the source
b) Preventing its transmission -
c) Protecting the receiver
d) All

55. Noise pollution limits at residential area

a) 45dB b) 80 dB c) 55 dB d) 90 dB

56. Noise pollution limits in industrial area

a) 45dB b)80 dB c) 65 dB d) 90 dB

57. Which of the following are non-biodegradable

 a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) detergent d) a and c

58. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant

a) Carbon monoxide b )Sulphur dioxide c) Ozone d) Carbon dioxide

59. Pesticide causes

a) Eye irritation b)Skin irritation c) Respiratory ailments d)All the above

60. Blaring sounds known to cause

a) mental distress
b) High cholesterol
c) neurological problems
d) All of the above

61. Which of the following is major cause of soil pollution?

a) Accident involving vehicles that are transporting waste materials
b) Pesticides and chemical fertilizers
c) Improper solid waste disposal
d) All of the above

62. "Minamata Disease" is caused due to

a) Lead b) Arsenic c) Mercury d) Cadmium

63. The major automobile pollutants include

a) CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM
b) CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and CHa
c) COz, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM
d) CO, NOx, Freon's and SPM

64. Petroleum based vehicles emit traces of

a) CO & NOx
b) SPM
c) Aldehydes
d) CH4

65. Heavy duty diesel vehicles contribute more

a) NOX
b) Particulate matter.
c) CO
d) Both a and b

66. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are

a) CO and Hydrocarbons
b) CO and NOx
c) CH4 and CO2
d) All the above

67. The 4-stroke engines produce less of the following as compared to 2-stroke engines
a) CO and Hydrocarbons
b) NOx and SO2
 c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

68. Alternative eco-friendly fuel for automobiles is

a) Petrol b.
b) Diesel
c) CNG
d) Kerosene

69. Increase in asthma attacks has been linked to high levels of

a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Air-borne dust particles
d) All the above

70. Out of the following nutrients in fer0lizer, which one causes minimum water pollu0on?
a) Nitrogen. b) Phosphorous c) Potassium d) both a & b

71. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the Indian Standards?
a) 6 to 9
b) 6.5 to 7.5
c) 6 to 8.5
d) 6.5 to 8.5

72. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of

a) Oxides of Zn & Fe
b) Sulphates of Zn & Fe
c) Nitrates of Zn & Fe
d) Sulphides of Zn & Fe

73. Conversion of nitrates into gases of nitrogen is called________

a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen fixing c) Reduction d)Denitrification

74. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in

a) Western Ghats
b) Bandipur
c) Nagarhole
d) Mangalore

75._________are referred to as Earth's lungs.

a) Forests b)Carbon cycles c) Water sources d)Mines

76. Among the fresh water available in the Earth the percentage of surface water is about
a) 50% b) 10% c) 5% d) less than 1%

77. important factor that causes water borne disease is

a) Using contaminated sewage for Irrigation
b) Leaching of untreated faecal and urinary discharges into water bodies
c) Discharge of industrial waste water
d) All of the above
78. Cholera & typhoid are caused by
a) Worms b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

79. Major sources of fluoride is

a) a) River water b) Tooth paste c) Ground water d) Food products

80. Hepatitis is caused by

a) Protozoa
b) Virus
c) Bacteria
d) Fungus

81. Excessive Nitrate in drinking water causes

a) Fever b) Cough & chill c) Blue babies d) Gastro Enteritis

82. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of

a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead

83. Mineral resources are

a) Renewable b) Available in plenty c) Non-renewable d) Equally distributed

84. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effectively by

a) Treatment of disease
b) By consuming mineral water
c) By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the source of water
d) By vaccination

85. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?

a) Asbestos. b) feldspar. c) Phosphate d) Nitrogen

86.Forests are extremely important because they

a) provide clean water and clean air
b) provide habitat for wild life
c) provide recreation and a change from the hectic urban life
d) all of the above

87. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing:
a) 95% of earths water
b) 85% of earths water
c) 97% of earths water
d) 75% of earths water

88. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle?

a) Precipitation b) infiltration c) transpiration d) Hydration
 Module – 4
Waste Management
1. What is the primary purpose of solid waste management?
a) To recycle waste only
b) To dispose of waste with minimal environmental impact
c) To increase waste generation
d) To burn all types of waste

2. Which of the following is NOT a source of solid waste?

a) Residential
b) Commercial
c) Agricultural
d) Marine

3. What type of waste is mainly generated from households?

a) Industrial waste
b) Hazardous waste
c) Municipal solid waste
d) Electronic waste

4. Which of the following is NOT a functional element of solid waste management?

a) Waste generation
b) Waste disposal
c) Nuclear waste management
d) Collection and transfer

5. Which type of waste is mainly produced by industries and factories?

a) Hazardous waste
b) Food waste
c) Agricultural waste
d) Plastic waste

6. Which method involves the decomposition of organic waste by microorganisms

under controlled conditions?
a) Recycling
b) Composting
c) Incineration
d) Landfilling

7. In solid waste management, the process of separating diQerent types of waste

materials at the source is known as:
a) Collection
b) Waste segregation
c) Landfilling
d) Incineration
8. Which of these wastes is considered biodegradable?
a) Plastic
b) Glass
c) Paper
d) Metal

9. The main goal of recycling in waste management is to:

a) Increase waste production
b) Reduce the need for raw materials
c) Decrease landfill costs
d) Make more energy

10. Which is the last step in the solid waste management process?
a) Waste minimization
b) Waste storage
c) Waste disposal
d) Waste collection

11. What is the main goal of waste management?

a) To recycle waste
b) To prevent environmental pollution
c) To incinerate waste
d) To store waste

12. Which of the following is considered hazardous waste?

a) Plastic bottles
b) Batteries
c) Cardboard boxes
d) Food waste

13. The ‘3Rs’ in waste management stand for:

a) Reuse, Recycle, Reduce
b) Reuse, Replace, Reduce
c) Reduce, Reuse, Remove
d) Replace, Recycle, Reuse

14. Which of the following methods is used for treating organic waste?
a) Landfilling
b) Composting
c) Incineration
d) Recycling

15. What is the main disadvantage of incinerating waste?

a) It reduces waste volume
b) It generates electricity
c) It produces harmful emissions
 d) It requires little space
16. What type of waste does “e-waste” refer to?
a) Excessive waste
b) Electric and electronic waste
c) Environment-friendly waste
d) Energy waste

17. Which of these is NOT a common type of recyclable material?

a) Plastic
b) Paper
c) Glass
d) Medical waste

18. What is landfill leachate?

a) Water that evaporates from waste
b) Liquids that drain from landfills
c) Gas emitted by landfills
d) None of the above

19. Which of the following gases is commonly produced by landfills?

a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Methane
d) Hydrogen

20. What is the process of converting waste materials into new products called?
a) Landfilling
b) Recycling
c) Composting
d) Incineration

21. What is Biomedical Waste?

a) Any waste generated during the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of
humans or animals
b) Waste generated from households
c) Recyclable waste from industries
d) Hazardous waste only

22. Which of the following is NOT a source of biomedical waste?

a) Hospitals
b) Pharmaceutical industries
c) Households (except home healthcare)
d) Research labs

23. Which category of waste includes items like needles, syringes, and scalpel blades?
a) General Waste
b) Infectious Waste
 c) Sharps
d) Radioactive Waste

24. Which color coding is generally used for disposing of infectious biomedical waste in
many countries?
a) Green
b) Red
c) Yellow
d) Blue

25. Pathological waste in biomedical waste refers to:

a) Chemicals and pharmaceuticals
b) Human tissues, organs, and body parts
c) Radioactive materials
d) Disinfected waste

26. What type of biomedical waste would laboratory cultures, waste from surgery, and
bodily fluids fall under?
a) General Waste
b) Infectious Waste
c) Chemical Waste
d) Radioactive Waste

27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biomedical waste?

a) Infectiousness
b) Hazardousness
c) Radioactivity
d) Recyclability

28. Cytotoxic drugs, used in cancer treatment, are classified under which type of
biomedical waste?
a) Chemical Waste
b) Infectious Waste
c) General Waste
d) Sharps Waste

29. The main purpose of biomedical waste management is to:

a) Reduce, reuse, and recycle all waste
b) Minimize environmental impact and prevent infection transmission
c) Increase waste production for economic benefits
d) Dispose of waste in landfills only

30. Which process is commonly used to treat infectious biomedical waste to render it
non-infectious?
a) Autoclaving
b) Incineration
c) Landfilling
 d) Recycling
31. The Environmental Protection Act of 1986 in India was passed in response to which
major environmental disaster?
a) Chernobyl disaster
b) Bhopal gas tragedy
c) Fukushima nuclear disaster
d) Exxon Valdez oil spill

32. Which international agreement focuses specifically on reducing greenhouse gas

emissions to combat climate change?
a) Kyoto Protocol
b) Montreal Protocol
c) Stockholm Convention
d) Basel Convention

33. The Montreal Protocol is aimed at protecting the environment by phasing out
substances that harm the:
a) Ozone layer
b) Marine ecosystems
c) Forest cover
d) Freshwater sources

34. Which act in the United States primarily governs water pollution and sets standards
for water quality?
a) Clean Water Act
b) Clean Air Act
c) National Environmental Policy Act
d) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

35. The Basel Convention is concerned with:

a) Protection of biodiversity
b) Transboundary movement of hazardous waste
c) Control of greenhouse gas emissions
d) Prevention of marine pollution

36. Which piece of legislation requires environmental impact assessments (EIA) before
initiating any major federal projects in the United States?
a) Endangered Species Act
b) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
c) Clean Air Act
d) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

37. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was adopted during which event?
a) Stockholm Conference
b) Rio Earth Summit
c) Kyoto Protocol Meeting
d) Paris Climate Conference
38. The Endangered Species Act of the United States was enacted in which year?
a) 1969
b) 1973
c) 1985
d) 1990

39. The Paris Agreement aims to keep global temperature rise this century below:
a) 1.0°C above pre-industrial levels
b) 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels
c) 2.0°C above pre-industrial levels
d) 3.0°C above pre-industrial levels

40. The Stockholm Convention addresses the issue of:

a) Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
b) Carbon emissions from industries
c) Endangered wildlife trade
d) Marine plastic pollution

41. Which ministry is responsible for the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016?
a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
b) Ministry of Urban Development
c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
d) Ministry of Rural Development

42. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 are applicable to which of the following
entities?
a) Urban local bodies
b) Industries generating solid waste
c) Event organizers generating solid waste
d) All of the above

43. According to the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, waste segregation at source
is divided into which primary categories?
a) Wet and dry waste
b) Hazardous and non-hazardous waste
c) Recyclable and non-recyclable waste
d) Organic, inorganic, and hazardous waste

44. Who is responsible for the collection of segregated waste under the Solid Waste
Management Rules, 2016?
a) State Pollution Control Board
b) Municipal authorities
c) Central Pollution Control Board
d) Citizens themselves
45. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, what type of waste cannot be
stored in dumpsites?
a) Hazardous waste
b) Plastic waste
c) Organic waste
d) Inert waste

46. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 require waste generators to do which of
the following?
a) Compost organic waste
b) Segregate waste at the source
c) Hand over recyclable waste to authorized recyclers
d) All of the above

47. According to the rules, how often should waste be collected from residential areas?
a) Daily
b) Weekly
c) Monthly
d) Every other day

48. Which body is responsible for monitoring compliance with the Solid Waste
Management Rules, 2016?
a) Ministry of Urban Development
b) State Pollution Control Boards
c) Local NGOs
d) Municipal workers

49. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 mandate that bulk generators of waste
(like hotels, hospitals, and educational institutions) should do what?
a) Treat their own waste
b) Hand over waste to the nearest municipal authority
c) Dump waste at a nearby landfill
d) Export waste to other states

50. What is the timeline given under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, for
setting up waste processing facilities?
a) One year
b) Two years
c) Five years
d) Ten years

51. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, who bears the responsibility of
waste management in gated communities and institutions with an area above 5,000
square meters?
a) Local government authority
b) The management of the community or institution
c) Private contractors
 d) State government

52. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under the Solid Waste Management
Rules, 2016?
a) Phasing out of the use of plastics below 50 microns
b) Establishing landfills near water bodies
c) Promotion of waste segregation at source
d) Regular monitoring of waste treatment facilities

53. Which waste management process is encouraged to handle biodegradable waste

under the rules?
a) Burning
b) Composting
c) Incineration
d) Dumping in landfills

54. What does the rule specify about the role of educational institutions in solid waste
management?
a) They should develop waste treatment plants
b) They should encourage students to participate in awareness campaigns
c) They should have zero waste generation
d) They are exempted from solid waste management responsibilities

55. When were the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016 notified?
a) March 2016
b) March 2017
c) March 2015
d) March 2018

56. What is the main objective of the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016?
a) To reduce electronic waste
b) To manage plastic waste
c) To streamline the segregation, collection, and disposal of biomedical waste
d) To encourage the use of renewable energy

57. Who is primarily responsible for implementing the Biomedical Waste Management
Rules, 2016 at the local level?
a) State Pollution Control Boards
b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
c) Occupier of the health care facility
d) Municipal Corporation

58. Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016, what is the maximum period
for which untreated biomedical waste can be stored?
a) 72 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
 d) 12 hours

59. Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016 mandate categorizing waste into how
many categories?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 2
d) 4

60. What colour coding is used for containers meant for infectious waste like human
anatomical waste under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016?
a) Red
b) Yellow
c) Black
d) White

61. Which type of biomedical waste is disposed of in red-coloured bags according to

the 2016 rules?
a) Human anatomical waste
b) Pharmaceuticals
c) Contaminated recyclable waste (like tubing and gloves)
d) Radioactive waste

62. What is the validity period of the authorization for waste management given to
healthcare facilities under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016?
a) 5 years
b) 1 year
c) 3 years
d) 10 years

63. Which government agency is responsible for monitoring compliance with

Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016?
a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
b) State Pollution Control Boards
c) Local Municipal Authority
d) District Administration

64. What is the method prescribed under the rules for final disposal of incinerator ash
from biomedical waste?
a) Landfilling
b) Composting
c) Secured landfill
d) Open dumping

65. Livestock wastes release large amount of _______in to environment.

a) NH4 b)NH3 c)NO3 d)NO4
 66. The liquid waste from baths and kitchens is called
a) Sullage b) Domestic sewage c) Storm waste d) Run off

67. Noise pollution can be minimized by

a) a) Urbanization b) Maintaining silence c) Reducing noise at source d) none

68. BOD Means

a) Biochemical oxygen demand
b) chemical oxygen demand
c) biophysical oxygen demand
d) all

69. Which of the following industry generates coloured waste

a) Software industry
b) Textile industry
c) Biomedical industry
d) none

70. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies
a) Sewage treatment plants
b) Thermal power plants
c) Solid waste disposal
d) all

71. Which of the following are non-biodegradable

a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) detergent d) a and c

72. What is e-waste?

•Answer: E-waste, or electronic waste, refers to discarded electrical or
electronic devices.
73.Which of the following is NOT considered e-waste?
a) Old mobile phones
b) Plastic bottles
c) Computers
d) TVs

74. What harmful substance is commonly found in e-waste?

a) Lead
b) Iron
c) Plastic
d) Water

75. What is one major environmental issue caused by improper disposal of e-waste?
Answer: Soil and water contamination from toxic heavy metals.

76.Which process is used to recover valuable materials from e-waste?

a) Landfilling
b) Incineration
c) Recycling
 d) Composting

77. What is industrial sludge?

Answer: Industrial sludge is a by-product of industrial wastewater t treatment
processes, often containing pollutants and heavy metals.

78.Which industry is known for producing large amounts of sludge as a by-product?

a) Textile
b) IT
c) Retail
d) Tourism

79.What harmful components are often found in industrial sludge?

a) Metals
b) Organic compounds
c) Pathogens
d) Both a and b

80.Which method is commonly used for treating industrial sludge?

a) Thermal drying
b) Composting
c) Surface spreading
d) Evaporation

81.What is municipal sludge?

Answer: Municipal sludge is the semi-solid by-product of municipal wastewater
treatment processes.

82.What is another term commonly used for municipal sludge?

a) Municipal waste
b) Sewage sludge
c) Industrial waste
d) Organic compost

83.Which component is often found in municipal sludge?

a) Pathogens
b) Nutrients
c) Organic matter
d) All of the above

84.What is one common use for treated municipal sludge?

a) Fertilizer in agriculture
b) Incineration
c) Metal extraction
d) Drinking
85. Discharge of Municipal waste causes
a) Depletion of dissolved oxygen
b) Destroy aquatic life
c) Impair biological activity
d) All of these

86. Solid waste is best managed through

a) Incineration b)Open dumping c)Sanitary landfill d) Composting
 MODULE – 5
E-WASTE MANAGEMENT

1. What is the full form of E-waste?

a) Electronic Waste
b) Energy Waste
c) Eco-friendly Waste
d) Environmental Waste

2. Which of the following is a major component of e-waste?

a) Plastics
b) Metals
c) Glass
d) All the above

3. Which country generates the largest amount of e-waste annually?

a) India
b) China
c) United States
d) Germany

4. Question: Approximately how much e-waste was generated globally in 2022?

a) 30 million metric tons
b) 50 million metric tons
c) 60 million metric tons
d) 70 million metric tons

5. Which sector contributes the most to e-waste generation?

a) Household appliances
b) Information and communication technology
c) Healthcare equipment
d) Industrial equipment

6. What percentage of global e-waste is recycled?

a) 10%
b) 17%
c) 30%
d) 45%

7. Which continent has the highest e-waste recycling rates?

a) Asia
b) Europe
c) North America
d) Africa

8. Which international treaty regulates the transboundary movement of hazardous e-waste?

a) Kyoto Protocol
b) Basel Convention
 c) Paris Agreement
d) Montreal Protocol

9. Which of the following is a common hazardous metal found in e-waste?

a) Lead
b) Mercury
c) Cadmium
d) All the above

10.What toxic gas is often released when burning e-waste improperly?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Methane
c) Dioxins and Furans
d) Nitrogen oxide

11.Which e-waste component contains brominated flame retardants?

a) Circuit boards
b) Cathode ray tubes (CRTs)
c) Batteries
d) Keyboards

12.What is the primary health risk associated with lead exposure from e-waste?
a) Respiratory problems
b) Nervous system damage
c) Skin irritation
d) Hearing loss

13.Which property of mercury makes it hazardous in e-waste?

a) It is corrosive
b) It is flammable
c) It is bio accumulative
d) It is radioactive

14.Prolonged exposure to cadmium from e-waste can cause damage to which organ?

a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Lungs

15.Which of the following describes the hazard classification of e-waste?

a) Flammable
b) Non-hazardous waste
c) Hazardous waste
d) Recyclable waste only

16. Which of the following toxic substances in e-waste is most harmful to the nervous
system?
a) Lead
b) Mercury
 c) Cadmium
d) Chromium

17.Which of the following health issues is caused by cadmium exposure from e-waste?
a) Bone fragility and kidney damage
b) Respiratory problems
c) Cardiovascular diseases
d) Skin rashes

18. Brominated flame retardants in e-waste have been linked to:

a) Hormonal disruption
b) Skin irritation
c) Liver inflammation
d) Digestive issues

19. E-waste exposure has been shown to increase the risk of which of the following in
children?
a) ADHD and developmental delays
b) Cancer
c) Obesity
d) Vision problems

20. E-waste contaminants can leach into soil, affecting agriculture. Which pollutant from e-
waste is commonly found in soil contamination?
a) Nickel
b) Lead
c) Chromium
d) Manganese

21. The contamination of water bodies by e-waste occurs primarily due to:
a) Runoff from e-waste dumping sites
b) Atmospheric pollution from incineration
c) Lack of water treatment facilities
d) Overfishing

22. Which of the following is a long-term environmental impact of improper e-waste

disposal?
a) Depletion of landfill capacity
b) Global warming
c) Soil infertility and biodiversity loss
d) Coral bleaching

23. Which heavy metal in e-waste is particularly harmful to aquatic ecosystems?

a) Arsenic
b) Mercury
c) Lead
d) Cadmium

24. Which of the following is the safest way to dispose of e-waste at home?
a) Throwing it in regular garbage bins
 b) Burning it in open spaces
c) Recycling it at authorized e-waste centers
d) Storing it indefinitely at home

25. What is the most significant challenge in domestic e-waste disposal?

a) Lack of awareness about its dangers
b) High costs of authorized recycling
c) No government policies
d) The e-waste is biodegradable

26. The practice of giving old electronic devices to others for reuse is an example of:
a) Recycling
b) Upcycling
c) Reusing
d) Dumping

27. What symbol on an electronic device indicates it should not be disposed of in a regular
trash bin?
a) A green triangle
b) A crossed-out wheelie bin
c) A recycling logo
d) A skull and crossbones

28. Domestic e-waste includes which of the following?

a) Leftover food
b) Plastic bottles
c) Old mobile phones and chargers
d) Cardboard boxes

29. What does “e-waste” refer to?

a) Agricultural waste
b) Electrical and electronic equipment waste
c) Industrial chemical waste
d) Food waste

30. Which of the following is a principle of e-waste management?

a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
b) Burn, Bury, Dispose
c) Manufacture, Sell, Throw
d) Use and Replace

31. What is the primary objective of e-waste management?

a) Increase electronic waste
b) Maximize profits from discarded electronics
c) Minimize environmental and health impacts
d) Dispose of electronics in landfills

32. Which of these is NOT a basic principle of e-waste management?

a) Safe disposal
b) Energy recovery
 c) Open dumping
d) Recycling

33. The “Extended Producer Responsibility” (EPR) principle in e-waste management makes
which stakeholder responsible for e-waste?
a) Consumers
b) Manufacturers
c) Governments
d) Retailers

34. Which of the following is NOT a component of e-waste management?

a) Collection
b) Segregation
c) Incineration without controls
d) Recycling

35. What is the first step in e-waste management?

a) Landfilling
b) Collection and storage
c) Burning e-waste
d) Extracting raw materials

36. What is the purpose of e-waste recycling?

a) To reduce costs of manufacturing
b) To recover valuable materials and reduce waste
c) To eliminate electronics
d) To avoid dismantling

37. Which component involves separating valuable materials like metals and plastics from e-
waste?
a) Landfilling
b) Segregation and dismantling
c) Manufacturing
d) Retailing

38. What role does “Public Awareness” play in e-waste management?

a) To promote the use of more electronics
b) To inform consumers about safe e-waste disposal
c) To encourage burning of e-waste
d) To stop recycling initiatives

39. Which of these materials can be extracted from e-waste through recycling?
a) Gold, silver, and copper
b) Sand and gravel
c) Rubber and wood
d) Cement and concrete

40. Which process ensures that harmful chemicals in e-waste are managed safely?
a) Open dumping
b) Controlled dismantling and treatment
 c) Burying in open landfills
d) Direct incineration

41. When did the E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, come into effect?
a) 1st January 2012
b) 1st May 2012
c) 1st October 2011
d) 1st April 2011

42. Which Ministry oversees the implementation of E-Waste (Management and Handling)
Rules, 2011?
a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
d) Ministry of Urban Development

43. Which category of waste is covered under the E-Waste Rules, 2011?
a) Industrial waste
b) Electronic and electrical equipment waste
c) Municipal solid waste
d) Biomedical waste

44. Under the E-Waste Rules, who is responsible for the collection and disposal of e-waste?
a) Manufacturer
b) Retailer
c) Consumer
d) Producer

45. What is the primary responsibility of a producer under these rules?

a) Landfilling e-waste
b) Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
c) Disposing of waste through municipal bodies
d) Ignoring consumer-generated e-waste

46. Which of the following is NOT an example of e-waste as per the 2011 rules?
a) Refrigerators
b) Mobile phones
c) Agricultural equipment
d) Televisions

47. The E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, require producers to:
a) Collect back end-of-life products
b) Set up e-waste collection centers
c) Finance recycling activities
d) All the above

48. Who is responsible for authorizing the dismantling and recycling facilities under the E-
Waste Rules?
a) State Pollution Control Board
b) Central Pollution Control Board
 c) Ministry of Urban Development
d) Local Municipal Authorities

49. What is the penalty for non-compliance with the E-Waste Rules, 2011?
a) Only fines
b) Only imprisonment
c) Both fines and imprisonment
d) No penalty

50. What does the term “Extended Producer Responsibility” (EPR) include?
a) Responsibility to manufacture products
b) Responsibility to design eco-friendly products
c) Responsibility for the entire lifecycle of the product, including take-back and
recycling
d) None of the above

51. What is the primary aim of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022?
a) To promote the disposal of e-waste in landfills
b) To encourage recycling and reuse of e-waste
c) To ban electronic products
d) To reduce electricity usage

52. Under the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, who is responsible for managing the e-
waste generated?
a) Municipal corporations
b) State governments
c) Producers, manufacturers, and consumers
d) NGOs

53. What mechanism does the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, implement to track e-
waste?
a) Blockchain technology
b) Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
c) Municipal solid waste tracking
d) Import-export licensing

54. Who is responsible for granting EPR authorization under the E-Waste (Management)
Rules, 2022?
a) Ministry of Electronics and IT
b) Pollution Control Boards (CPCB and SPCBs)
c) Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF &CC)
d) Local Municipal Authorities

55. When did the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, come into effect?
a) January 1, 2022
b) July 1, 2022
c) April 1, 2023
d) October 1, 2023

56. Which entities are included under the scope of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022?
 a) All electrical and electronic equipment
b) Plastic waste only
c) Agricultural machinery
d) Automobile waste

57. What is the recycling target for producers under EPR for the year 2024-25?
a) 30% of e-waste generated
b) 50% of e-waste generated
c) 70% of e-waste generated
d) 100% of e-waste generated

58. What is prohibited under the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022?

a) Import of refurbished goods
b) Open burning of e-waste
c) Collection of e-waste
d) Repairing of electronic goods

59. What is the fine for non-compliance with the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022?
a) ₹1,000
b) ₹10,000
c) As decided by the CPCB
d) ₹50,000

60. Who monitors compliance with the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022?
a) State governments
b) Non-governmental organizations (NGOs)
c) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
d) Local administration

61.When were the E-Waste Management Rules first notified in India?

a) 2008
b) 2011
c) 2016
d) 2019

62.Which authority is responsible for ensuring the implementation of the E-Waste

Management Rules in India?
a) Ministry of Urban Development
b) Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change
c) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
d) State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs)

63.What is the primary responsibility of producers under the E-Waste Management Rules?
a) Collection and recycling of e-waste
b) Safe transportation of e-waste
c) Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
d) Segregation of waste at source

64.What percentage of e-waste collection targets were set for producers for the first year of
implementation (2017-18)?
 a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%

65.Which of the following stakeholders are included under the E-Waste Management Rules?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Refurbishers
d) All the above

66.The E-Waste Management Rules, 2016, were amended in which year to include further
provisions?
a) 2017
b) 2018
c) 2020
d) 2022

67.Which principle underpins the E-Waste Management Rules to ensure producer

responsibility?
a) Polluter Pays Principle
b) Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
c) Zero Waste Principle
d) Sustainable Recycling Principle

68.What does EPR under the E-Waste Management Rules require producers to do?
a) Take back end-of-life products
b) Set up collection centers
c) Ensure recycling through authorized recyclers
d) All the above

69.Who is responsible for issuing EPR authorization to producers?

a) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
b) State Pollution Control Board (SPCB)
c) Ministry of Electronics and IT
d) Local Municipal Bodies

70.Which of the following is NOT covered under e-waste as per the rules?
a) Solar panels
b) Mobile phones
c) Televisions
d) Refrigerators

71.When were the E-Waste Management Rules first notified in India?

a) 2010
b) 2011
c) 2016
d) 2021

72.What is the primary objective of the E-Waste Management Rules?

 a) Promote recycling of all types of waste
b) Reduce environmental and health risks posed by e-waste
c) Ban the production of electronic goods
d) Introduce tax benefits for recycling companies

73.What does EPR stand for in the context of e-waste management?

a) Environmental Protection and Recycling
b) Extended Producer Responsibility
c) Electronic Pollution Regulation
d) Eco-friendly Production Rules

74.Which ministry oversees the implementation of the E-Waste Management Rules in India?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
d) Ministry of Renewable Energy

75.Under the E-Waste Management Rules, 2016, which entities are responsible for ensuring
e-waste collection?
a) Consumers only
b) Manufacturers only
c) Producers, importers, and brand owners
d) Retailers and distributors

76.Which of the following was introduced in the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022
revision?
a) Ban on all e-waste imports
b) Introduction of a formal recycling framework through digital tracking
c) Complete exemption for small-scale producers
d) Elimination of all EPR obligations

77.What percentage of e-waste must producers collect and recycle by 2024 under EPR
obligations?
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 100%

78.Which of the following types of products are regulated under the E-Waste Management
Rules?
a) Batteries and solar panels only
b) Electrical and electronic equipment, including IT and telecom products
c) Only medical and industrial equipment
d) Plastic waste from electronic packaging

79.What is a significant implication of non-compliance with E-Waste Management Rules for

producers?
a) Ban on exports of electronic goods
b) Fines and cancellation of EPR authorization
c) Complete shutdown of production facilities
 d) No significant penalty

80.Which sector has the most significant potential to benefit economically from the proper
implementation of e-waste management rules?
a) Construction
b) Renewable energy
c) Recycling and recovery
d) Agricultural tools manufacturing

81.India ranks _ globally in terms of e-waste generation.

a) 1st
b) 3rd
c) 5th
d) 10th

82.Which of the following components of e-waste are hazardous?

a) Plastics and wood
b) Lead, cadmium, and mercury
c) Glass and aluminum
d) Steel and copper