Environmental Studies (18CIV59)

Module – I
1) The word ecology is proposed by

a) Ernt Hoeckel b) Helena Curtis c) Charles Southwick d) Charles Alton

2) The word ecology is derived from

a) Greek word b) French word c) English word d) Spanish word

3)Ecology is defined as the study of

a) Relation between organisms to their environment

b) Relation between groups of organisms to their environment

c) both a and b d) None of the above

4) Which of the following is a ecosystem

a) Forest b) Desert c) Mountain d) All

5) Which of the following is an ecosystem

a) Lake b) River c) Ocean d) All

6) Which of the following is a possible producer in an ecosystem

a) Plants and some bacteria b) Animals c) Human beings d) Fish

7)Which of the following statements is not true?

a) In an ecosystem, sustained development is facilitated by a close physical proximity and

functional matching between the producers and the consumers

b) In the anthroposystem, there is usually a significant physical displacement between the

producer and the consumer

c) In an ecosystem most of the materials are transferred from the producers to the recyclers and
only a small fraction is passed through the consumers to the recyclers

d) In the anthroposystem the flow of material from the producers directly to the recyclers
is a major proportion
8) Which of the following statement is false?

a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem

b) Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds

c) Energy is recycled in ecosystem d) Respiration process releases energy

9) A food web consists of

a) a portion of a food chain b) producers, consumers and decomposers

c) Interlocking of food chains d) a set of similar consumers

10) A trophic level refers to

a) area in the tropics b) an organism’s position in a food chain

c) an organism’s position in an ecosystem d) an organism’s position in a biome

11)The tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic level is known as

a) bioremediationb) biomagnification c) biopiracy d) biorhythm

12) The largest reservoir of nitrogen on our planet is

a) oceansb) atmosphere c) biosphere d) fossil fuels

13) What is Mycorrhizae?

a) Symbiotic relationship between plants

b) Mutualistic associations between plant roots and fungi

c) A useful bacteria in carbon cycle d) A useful bacteria in phosphorus cycle

14) Eutrophication is

a) an improved water quality status of lakes

b) the result of accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies

c) a process in the carbon cycle d) a water purification technique

15) Which of the following terminologies is not associated with the vertical structure of forest

a) Canopy b) Understory c) Forest floor d) First floor

16) The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are

a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants b) herbivores

c) carnivores d) bacteria and other micro organisms

17) In an aquatic ecosystem, phytoplankton can be considered as

a) consumerb) producer c) saprotrophic organisms d) macro consumer

18) Which of the following is not classed with ecology?

a) Autecology b) Synecology c) Ecosystemologyd) All of the above

19) Genetic variation between distinct populations of the same species is known as

a) species diversity b) ecosystem diversity c) genetic diversity d) biodiversity

20) Which of the following is not a world heritage site?

a) Manas Wildlife Santuary b) Nanda Devi National Park

c) Kaziranga National Park d) Periyar National Park

21) Which of the following is an endemic species of India?

a) Asian elephant b) Lion-tailed macaque c) Whales d) Panda

22) Which of the following is a biodiversity hotspot in India?

a) Gulf of Mannarb) Western Ghats c) Pachmarhi d) Sunderbans

23) Which of the following is an in-situ conservation measure taken by India?

a) Project Elephant b) Project Lion c) Project Rhino d) All of these

24) Who introduced the concept of biodiversity hotspot?

a) Christopher Columbus b) Norman Myers c) WWF d) Charles Darwin

25) Lion-tailed macaque is found in

a) Western Ghats b) Eastern Ghats c) Caucasus d) Western Himalayas

26) Which of the following is a cause of loss of biodiversity?

a) Habitat degradation and loss b) Invasion of non-native species c) Pollution d) All of these
27) The dodo was extinct due to

a) Pollution b) invasion of non-native species

c) over-exploitation of resources d) global environmental change

28) Spot the site, which is not a biodiversity hotspot.

a) Brazil’s Cerrado b) Central Chile c) California Floristic Province d) Pakisthan

29)The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are

a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants b) Herbivores

c) Carnivores d) Bacteria & Other micro organisms

30) The word ecology is derived from

a) Aikos&logasb) Oikos&logos c) Ecos& Logy d) Ecology

31) Ecological pyramids are studies of

a) Pyramid of numbers b) Pyramid of Biomass c) Pyramid of energy d) All

MODULE – II
1)Cloud seeding experiments have yielded the result of

a) a) increased precipitation b) decreased precipitation

c) no significant change in precipitation d) all of the above

2) Which clouds consist of globular individual cloud masses

a) Stratus clouds b) Cirrus clouds c) Cumulus cloudsd) Altostratus clouds
3) These small, white, billowy clouds generally form on sunny days and, therefore are often
called ___________ clouds
a) Nimbostratus, Rain Clouds b) Cumulus, Fair Weather
c) Altocumulus, Fair Weather d) Cirrocumulus/, Fair Weather
4) Cloud seeding with silver iodide is based on the
a) Bergeron processb) collision-coalescence process c) both a and b d) none of these
5) Thunder and lightning are associated with the ____ cloud
a) cirrostratusb) cumulonimbusc) altostratus d) cirrus
6)The most common way for air to be cooled in order that a cloud may form is by
a) emitting radiation b) rising and expandingc) sinking and contracting d) reflecting radiation

7) In order for precipitation to remain frozen as it descends, the temperature of the surface must
be below approximately ____ degrees F

a) 32 b) 40 c) 45 d) 50

8) This cloud sometimes produces mares tails

a) cirrostratus b) cumulonimbus c) altostratus d) cirrus

9) The altitude at which a parcel reaches saturation and cloud formation begins is called
__________________

a) Entrainment b) Orographic c) Lifting condensation leveld) Dry adiabatic rate

10) Cloud seeding experiments have yielded the result of

a) increased precipitation b) decreased precipitation

c) no significant change in precipitation d) all of the above

11) What is the basic reason why condensation is not very important in causing a cloud droplet
to grow to raindrop size

a) not enough particulates are present b) condensation is too slow

c) latent heat limits condensation d) electrical effects limit condensation

12) Which of the following is conventional source of energy?

a) Hydel Power b) Thermal Power c) Nuclear Power d) All

13) Which of the following is non-conventional source of energy?

a) Wind energy b) Solar Energy c) Biogas d) All

14)One Joule of energy is equivalent to

a) 0.2389 calories b) 23.89 calories c) 238.9 calories d) 2.389 calories

15)Which of the following is not the renewable source of energy?

a) Solar Energy b) Biomass c) Nuclear d) Biogas

16)The world’s annual energy consumption rate is increasing at a rate of

a) 5 to 10% b) 10 to 20% c) 2 to 5 % d) None

17) Radiated energy can be transferred in

a) Medium of air b) Free space c) Solid medium d) both (a) and (b)

18) EMR propagates energy with a velocity of

a) 3 x 106 m/sec b) 3 x 108 m/sec c)0.3 x 108 m/sec d) 30 x 104 m/sec

19) Electromagnetic radiation can cause

a) Leukemia b) Genetic damage c) Cancer d) All

20) Non-renewable sources of energy contributes for __________ percentage of world’s energy

a) 100% b) 91% c) 85% d) 75%

21)Hydro-electric energy generation causes environment problem such as

a) Earthquake b) Habitat loss c) Deforestation d) All

22) Mini hydro power plants generate energy upto

a) 100 MW b) 1000MW c) 15MW d) 500MW

23) Which of the following is the major source of thermal pollution

a) Nuclear power plant b) Coal fired power plant

c) Solar power generation d) Bio-gas generation

24) A long term atmospheric impact of burning fossil fuel is

a) Oxygen consumption b) Global warming c) Reduction in photosynthesis d) All

25)One micro curie is

a) One thousand of a curie b) One lakh of a curie c) one millionth of a curie d)None

26)Chernobyl nuclear disaster took place in

a) 1986 b) 1982 c) 1992 d) 1996

27) Which of the following is used as moderator in nuclear reactor

a) Graphite b) Helium gas c) Heavy water d) All

28) What is the limitation of solar energy?

a) Cost of conversion is very high b) Storage of energy is essential

c) Energy density is low d)All

29) Which solar system can be used to achieve temperature of 1000oC

a) Flat plate collector b) Parabolic dish collectors c) Parabolic through collectors d) None

30) Solar photo-voltaic systems are more suitable for

a) domestic lighting b) Street lighting c) Small power plants d) All

31) Physical and chemical characteristics of coal depends on

a) Temperature of formation b) Pressure of formation c) both a and b d) None

32)Heating of coal in absence of air to produce coal gas is called

a) Carbonization of coal b) Coal gasification c) Coal liquification d) None

33) Percentage of ash content in Indian coal is

a) 35 to 45 b) 25 to50 c)10 to 28 d) 18 to 35

34)One gram of uranium U-235 can give electrical energy equivalent to

a) 100MW b)1000KWc) 1MW d) 1000MW

35) How much percentage of world electric requirement is produced by the nuclear power plant

a) 30 b) 15 c) 18 d) 50

36) The first nuclear fission reactor in the world become critical in

a) June 1972 b) December 1942 c) July 1974 d) August 1943

37)Biomass consists of

a) Lignin b) Cellulose c) Hemicellulose d)All

38) The different routes of bio-conversion processes is

a) Bio-chemical conversion b) Thermo-chemical conversion c) Incineration d) All

39) Most popular bio-gas plants in rural India is having the capacity of

a) 0.5m3 /day b) 3m3/day c) 10m3/day d) 650 m3/day

40) A wind farm may consists ___ wind turbine units

a) 5 to 50 b) 10 to 25 c) 1 to 10 d) 10 to 100

41) Wind energy potentials of India is around

a) 45000 MW b) 75000 MW c) 25000 MW d) 100000 MW

42) The sources of hydrogen are

a) Biomass b) Coal c) Water d) All

43) Hydrogen can be produced commercially by

a) Cracking of Ammonia b) Electrolysis of water c) Both a and b d) Gasification

MODULE – III
1) What is the pH range of drinking water?

a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 8.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 7.5

2) The permissible color for drinking water is

a) 5 ppm b) 20 ppm c) 50 ppm d) 100 ppm

3) Temporary hardness of water is due to

a) Chloride hardness b) Manganese hardness c) Calcium hardness d) Carbonate hardness

4) The red brownish color of water is due to the presence of

a) Iron & Manganese b) Sulphates c) Arsenic d) Copper

5) Nitrate concentration more than 50 mg/l leads to a disease called

a) Gastroenteritis b) Methenoglobenemia c) Typhoid d) None

6) Excess of iron in water is likely to cause

a) Hardness b) Taste c) Color d) All of the above

7) The process of killing organisms in water is called

a) Aeration b) Coagulation c) Disinfection d) Sedimentation

8) Disinfection of water is used to remove

a) Bacteria b) Odour c) Turbidity d) Color

9) Aeration of water removes

a) Suspended impurities b) Dissolved gases c) Dissolved salts d) Floating impurities

10) In water treatment, alum is used for

a) Softening b) Coagulation c) Filtration d) Disinfection

11) The amount of chlorine available in water after disinfection is

a) Free chlorine b) Free available chlorine c) Residual chlorine d) combined chlorine

12) In water treatment lime soda process is used to remove

a) Color and taste b) Permanent hardness c) Fe and Mnd) Temporary hardness

13) The liquid wastewater from baths and kitchen etc is called

a) Sullage b) Domestic sewage c) Storm water d) Run off

14) Sanitary sewage / domestic sewage is

a) Waste water generated from kitchen and bathroom b) wastewater generated from industries

c) Wastewater generated due to rainfall d) Wastewater generated from residential areas

15) The process of decomposing organic waste in the presence of air is called

a) Reduction b) Oxidation c) Incineration d) Pulverising

16) Biological treatment of sewage takes place in

a) Sediment chamber b) Screen chamber c) Grit chamber d) Trickling filters

17) BOD is

a) Usually less than COD b) A measure of the organic matter present in wastewater

c) Biochemical Oxygen Demand d) All of the above

18) The rain represent by snow, dew fog and mist is called

a) Dry deposition b) wet deposition c) Acid rain d) None

19) The organ of a baby usually damaged from lead poisoning

a) Kidney b) Lungs c) Lever d) Heart

20) Which of the following is the source of CO2 in the atmosphere

a) Putrification b) Fermentation c) Combustion d) All

21) The important sinks of atmosphere gases are

a) Vegetation b) Oceans c) Both d) None

22) Atmospheric pollutants are largely present in

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) All

23) Which of the following are the byproducts of burning of wood, cool and fossil fuels

a) CO b) NOx c) SO2d) All

24) Major source of NOx pollution are

a) Combustion of coal and oil b) Natural gas c) Gasoline d) All

25) Sources of SOx pollution

a) Volcanoes b) Fossil fuel combustion c) Thermal power plant d) All

26) Which of the following is a source of benzpyrene

a) Charcoal b) Gasoline exhaunts c) Tobacco d) All

27) Petroleum based vehicles emit

a)Polynuclear hydrocarbons b) CO c) Aldehydes d) All

28) Fossil fuel burning contributes

a) NO b) SO2 c) O3d) All

29) Which of the following is an aerosol

a) Smoke b) Fume c) Mist d) All

30) Main components of smog are

a) Unsaturated hydrocarbon b) NOx c) Sulphur compounds d) All

31) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant

a) PAN b) Formaldehyde c) Smog d) All

32) Inhalation of Hg affects on

a) Nervous system b) Skin c) Hair d) Kidney

33) Effect of SO2 on plant indicate

a) Darkening of the leaves b) Falling of leaves c) Bleaching of the leaves d) All

34) The green house gas is

a)N2O b) CH4 c) CO2d) All

35) Which of the following is fossil fuel

a) Coal b) Petroleum c) Natural gas d) All

36) World Environment Day is on

a) 5th May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 15th August

37) Many people died in London in 1952 as a result of

a) Smog b) Fog c) Mist d) Smoke

38) Which of the following is not a major air pollutant in automobile exhausts

a) CO b) NOx c) hydrocarbon d) SO2

39) Haemoglobin of the blood forms carboxyhaemoglobin with

a) CO2 b) SO2 c) NO2d) CO

40) Least controllable man made source of pollution

a) Thermal power plants b) Exhausts of automobiles

c) Chemical & industrial effluents d) Domestic cooking

41) Plants grown by the roadside have higher content of

a) Pb b) Fe c) Cr d) Ca

42) The cigarette smoke contains carcinogenic compounds such as

a) Phosgene b) CO2 c) Benzopyrened) Both a and b

43) Bhopal gas tragedy occurred in the year 1984 was due to

a) Methyl isocyanate b) Mercury c) Arsenic d) Lead

44) Which is not a natural source of pollution

a) Volcanoes b) Forest fire c) Coal fire d) Dust storms

45) Which of the following is greenhouse gas?

a) CH4 b) CO2 c) Chlorofluorocarbons d)All

46) It is dangerous to leave the engine of a car running in a closed garage, because, it may cause

poisoning due to: a) C b) CO c) SO2 d) CO2

47) What happen during inversion?

a) Temperature decrease with altitude b) Temperature is almost constant

c) Temperature increase with altitude d) None of the above

48) The air pollution control device suitable for removing the finest dust from the air

a) Cyclone separator b) Fabric filter c) Settling chamber d) Electrostatic precipitator

49) Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by providing

a) Wet collector b) Scrubbers c) Catalytic converter d) All

50) The major cause of soil pollution is due to

a) Chemical fertilizers and pesticides from agricultural lands b) Improper solid waste disposal

c) Accidental spillage of waste materials d) All of the above

51) The largest contributor of oil into the sea is

a) Off shore oil wells b) Oil spillage from tankers

c) Oil reaching the oceans from land d) None

52) The urban solid waste is known as

a) Garbage b) Rubbish c) Refuge d) Silt

53) Nutrients present as nitrogen in the soil are

a) NO2- b)NH4+ c) NO3-d) All

54) The soluble salts present in the soil are

a) Na+ , Ca2+ b) Cl- , NO3- c) HCO3- , CO32-d) All

55) What is noise?

a) Loud sound b) Sound of high frequency c) Un- wanted sound d) Continuous sound

56) Which of the following is a outdoor noise?

a) Loud speaker b) Industrial machines c) Aeroplaned) All

57) Natural source of noise is

a) Car b) Railway c) Thunder d) Speaking

58) Normal sound level of quiet speech is

a) 120dB b) 90dB c) 140dB d) 50dB

59) The noise level human can hear without discomfort is

a) 140dB b) 110dB c) 80dB d) 190dB

60) The major source of thermal pollution of water

a) Domestic discharge b) Industrial wastewater

c) Thermal power plants d) Municipal wastewater

61) Which of the following is not a marine pollution?

a) Plastics b) Oil c) Industrial discharge d) Dissolved oxygen

62) Management of high level radioactive waste can be done by

a) Neutralization b) Incineration c) Composting d) Store indefinitely

63) Disposal of bio-medical waste is by

a) Autoclaving and land filling b) incineration c) both a and b d) land filling

64) Activated sludge process is

a) Anaerobic method b)Aerobic method c) both a and b d) None

65) Management option for air pollution

a) Emission charger b) Transport planning c) Regulation and standards d) All

MODULE – IV

1) The world population in the year 2000 was around

a) 6.1 billion b) 5.1 billion c) 8 billion d) 6.5 billion

2) The major factors contributing for the decrease in death rate in the 20th century were

a) Endemic poverty, low levels of education

b) Better agricultural practices and industrialization

c) Increased birth rate and availability of food

d) Improved medicine, sanitation and nutrition

3) The average life expectancy around the world is

a) Stabilizing b) Not changing c) decreasing d) Increasing

4) The primary cause of acid rain is due to

a) SO2 b) O3 c) CO2 d) CO

5) The pH of acid rain is

a) less than 5.2 b) less than 5.6 c) less than 6.2 d) less than 5.8

6) The major source of SO2 is

a) Smelters b) Power station c) both a and b d) refineries

7) Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to

a) urbanization b) Industrialization c) Increase in vehicle population d) none

8) Acid rain effects on

a) Materials b) Plants c) Soil d) All

9) Which is responsible for ozone layer depletion?

a) Oxygenb) CFC c) Methane d) Carbon di oxide

10) An average thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere is

a) 1000 DU b) 100DU c) 50 DU d) 230DU

11) Ozone layer present in

a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere d) Thermosphere

12) Ozone layer thickness is measured in

a) Centimeters b) Millimeters c) Dobson’s Units d) Decibels

13) The international protocol to protect the ozone layer is

a) Kyoto protocol b) Basal Protocolc) Montreal protocol d) Vienna protocol

14) The ozone layer is located up to ___ km above the earth surface

a)10 b) 50 c) 80 d) 100

15) The steady decline of ozone in the stratosphere is called

a) Ozone destruction b) Ozone hole c) Ozone thinning d) None

16) CFC’s and halons are expected to phased out by

a) 2010 b) 2020 c) 2000 d) 2025

17) Agricultural in general is one of the

a) Resource intensive b) Environmentally damaging c) Both a and b d) none

18) Maximum allowable concentration of fluoride in drinking water is

a) 1.25 mg/l b) 1.50 mg/l c) 1.0 mg/l d) 2.00 mg/l

19) Excess of fluoride in drinking water is likely to cause

a) Taste and odour b) blue baby c) Fluorosis d) Dental caries

20) Water without fluoride causes

a) Corrosion b) Dental cavities c) Scale formation d) Tooth decay

21) How does radon gas cause lung cancer?

a) The gas makes it difficult for you to get enough oxygen

b) The gas produces radioactive particles that damage the lungs

c) The gas is addictive d) None of the above

22) Where does radon come from?

a) Rocks b) Soil c) water d) All of the above

23) Which homes are more likely to have a radon problem?

a) Those built before 1960 b) Those built before 1980

c) Those built before 1990d)Any age of home may have a radon problem

24) Radon levels are measured in picocuries (pCi/L). What's the maximum level of radon
acceptable in a home?

a) 4 pCi/Lb) 10 pCi/L c) 12 pCi/L d) 15 pCi/L

25) Radon can enter the home by seeping through cracks in the foundation, but it also can enter
your home through the water supply. Which type of water supply poses the greatest danger?

a) Water from a river b) Water from a lakec)Water from a well d) All

26) What is an effective long-term method for removing radon gas that seeps into a home
through the foundation?

a) Sealing the cracks in basement floors and walls

b) A soil suction system c) Keeping windows open to allow the gas to escape

d) both a and b

27)What is toxicology?

a) The study of toxic substances (poisons) and their effects on living organisms.

b) The study of how people react to the ethanol in alcohol.

c) The study of toxic waste treatment plants d) All of the above.

28) Which district of Karnataka contain highest fluoride content?

a) Kolarb) Gulbarga c) Chitradurga d) Raichur

 MODULE –V

1) To achieve the goal of clean environment, important strategies required are

a) Effective laws b) Active participation of the public

c) Active participation of NGO’s d) Both a and b

2) The first united national conference an Human Environment was held at

a) Stockholm b) New york c) Montreal d) Basal

3) The first united nation conference on Human Environment was held at Stockholm in

a) December 1972 b) June 1972 c) June 1974 d) June 1992

4) World Environmental Day is celebrated on

a) June 5 b) August 15 c) December 5 d) September 5

5) An international conference on Environmental education was held in December 1982 at

a) Kyoto v)Viennac) New Delhi d) London

6) The constitution of India makes provisions for Environmental protection in the chapters on

a) Fundamental rights b) Directive principles of state policy c) Fundamental duties d) All

7) Environmental protection is a fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the article

a) 51 –A (g) b) 48-A c) 47 d) 21

8) Environmental pollution is a

a) States problem b) Global problem c) Countries problem d) Regional problem

9) There are provisions for protection of our environment under

a) Indian penal code b) Police Act c) Municipal Act d) All

10) Which is the first country amended laws for the punishment of crimes relating to
environmental pollution ?

a) Spain b) Brazil c) US d) Japan

11) The Government of India enacted the water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in the

Year : a) 1972 b) 1974 c) 1977 d) 1978

12) The Environmental (Protection) Act of India was enacted in the year

a) 1986 b) 1992 c) 1984 d) 1974

13) Central Pollution control Board was established under the provision of

a) The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986

b) The water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act 1974

c) The water (prevention and control of pollution) cess Ruler 1978

d) The Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act 1981

14) The principal functions of the CPCB are

a) To promote cleanliness of streams and wells b) To improve quality of air

c) To monitor state pollution control Boards d) Both a and b

15) Karnataka state “Pollution Board” was established in the year

a) 1974 b) 1982 c) 1986 d) 1976

16) Sustainable development will not aim at

a) social economic development which optimizes the economic and societal benefits available
in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future

b) reasonable and equitably distributed klevel of economic well being that can be perpetuated
continually

c)