MODULE 6

1. Standard solution are also known as

a. Test solution
0 b. *Volumetric solution
c. Saturated solution
d. None of the choices
2. A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of the bacterium
include

:
a. *Capsule
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Flagella
d. Lactanase
3. Streptomycin is known for
a. Erythema nododum leprosum
b. Bone marrow depression
c. Discoloration of the teeth
d. *Vestibular damage
4. Pyrogen test in vitro
a. Colorimeter
b. Fluorophotometer
c. Cylinder plate method

:
d. *LAL Method
5. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all except:
a. LGV
b. Inclusion conjunctivitis
c. *HAP due to Klebsiella
d. Psittacosis
6. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in
a. Capsule

:
b. *Ointment
c. Emulsion
d. Tablet
7. Philippines belongs to what climatic zone
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. *IV
8. Tetanus, botulism, diphtheria
a. Immediate hypersensitivity
b. Cytotoxic antibody

:
c. *Immune complex
d. Delayed hypersensitivity
9. Treatment of herpetic conjunctivitis
a. Streptomycin
b. *Iododeoxyuridine
c. Rifampicin
 d. Nalidixic acid
10. This is also known as the Giant Intestinal Fluke
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Clonorchis sinensis
O c. *Fasciolopsis buski
d. Schistosoma japonicum
11. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of
O a. *Cellulose
b. Cholesterol
c. Phytosterol
d. Lard
12. Adsorption indicators are used in
a. Complexation reaction
b. Acidimetry
O c. *Volumetric precipitation
d. Alkalimetry
13. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determine
a. Ultimate
b. Specific
O c. *Proximate
d. Precision
14. The unsaponifiable matter present in animal fats is
O a. *Cholesterol
b. Phytosterol
c. Lard
d. Wax
15. This organism causes a non-bloody diarrhea
a. Entamoeba histolytica
O b. *Giardia lamblia
c. Isospora belli
d. Strongyloides stercolaris
16. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number
a. Acid value
O b. *Saponification value
c. Ester value
d. Iodine value
17. Body louse is the vector for
a. Leptospirosis
b. Pinta
O c. *Epidemic relapsing fever
d. Meningitis
18. If a sample of white wax is found to have an ester value of 65.7 and a saponification
value of 74.2. What is its acid value?
O a. *8.5
sv= AVTEV
b. 86.5
c. 186.5 74.2=65.7 1- I
✗ =
8.5
 d. 56.5
19. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 mL of 0.5N of the
solution. (MW=126)
a. 36.5 g
b. 63.5 g
Oc. *31.5 g
d. 23.5 g
20. The molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Its equivalent weight is
a. 98
O b. *49
c. 0.098
d. 0.049
21. This spirochete is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end
a. Vibrio
b. Borrelia
O c. *Leptospira
d. Treponema
22. Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date
a. 95 mg
b. 105 mg
O c. *90 mg
d. 110 mg
23. All are extracellular parasite, except
a. Enterobius
Ob. *Trichinella
c. Strongyoloides
d. Ascaris
24. A sterilizing filter has a pore size
a. 0.5 micrometer
Ob. *0.2 micrometer
c. 1 micrometer
d. None of the above
25. Bacillary dysentery is most common caused by
a. Salmonella
b. Campylobacter
c. E. coli
Od. *Shigella
26. Which of these is a selective medium
a. Blood agar
O b. *MacConkey agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Nutrient agar
27. Calculate the volume of 0.0500M EDTA needed to titrate 26.37 mL of 0.0741 M
Mg(NO3)2
a. 30.1 mL
b. 35.1 mL
 c. 42.1 mL
O
d. *39.1 mL
28. What is the description used for heat with a temperature range of 1200 - 1600deg.
C?
a. Yellow red heat
Ob. *White heat
c. Dull red heat
d. Bright red heat
29. Ash and water determination is an example of
a. Volumetric method
b. *Instrumental method
c. Gravimetric method
Od. Special method
30. Polarimetry and spectrometry are classified as
a. Volumetric method
O b. Instrumental method
c. *Gravimetric method
d. Special method
31. The chemical factor used in calculation of percent purity of a substance in
volumetric analysis.
O a. *mEq weight
b. Molality
c. Molarity
d. None of the above
32. Indicator of choice for titrating weak bases with strong acid
a. Methyl orange
O b. *Methyl red
c. Phenolphtalein
d. Bromophenol blue
33. A causative agent for peptic ulcer
a. Escherichia coli
b. Bordatella pertussis
c. Shigella dysenteriae
Od. *Helicobacter pyroli
34. First drug available for HIV
O a. *ZDU
b. TMP
c. RMP
d. CMC
35. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies
a. Lysol
b. Ozone
O c. *Chlorine
d. Reverse osmosis
36. Classification of adenovirus
a. Helical virus
 b. Enveloped virus
Oc. *Polyhedral virus
d. Polyhelical virus
37. Organisms are adjusting to the environment
O a. *Lag phase
b. Stationary phase
c. Log phase
d. Death phase
38. This immune response is the initial response by the body to eliminate microbes and
prevent infection
a. Acquired immunity
b. Adaptive immunity
O c. *Innate immunity
d. Active immunity
39. B cell receptors are what type of immunoglobulin
a. IgA
b. IgE
O c. *IgD
d. igG
40. One of the most common viruses that infects humans that causes infectious
mononucleosis
a. VZV
O b. *EBV
c. HSV
d. HAV
41. The most common cause of candidiasis
a. C. marneffei
O b. *C. albicans
c. C. weneckii
d. C. immitis
42. A tool for detecting variation process
a. Pie chart
O b. *Statistical process control chart
c. Bar chart
d. T chart
43. The FIFO policy must always be observed to
Oa. *Assure that oldest stocks are used first
b. Prevent contamination and mix-ups of materials
c. Contain the information regarding the activity of the activity ingredient
d. Prevent microbial spoilage
44. The MIL-STD_105D is used in sampling for
Oa. *Attributes
b. Variable
c. Defect
d. All of the above
45. Method used to assay Vitamin B5 and B12
a. Atomic emission spectroscopy
b. HPLC
c. *Turbidimetry

:
d. GC
46. Content uniformity test is to be performed for all products whose active ingredient
is
a. *50mg or less
b. 130mg or less
c. 130 - 134 mg
d. 324 mg or more
47. Thiamine and riboflavin are assayed by

:
a. *Fluorometric method
b. Turbidimetric method
c. Chromatographic method
d. Spectrophometric method
48. Limit test for chlorides and sulfates is determined by
a. Nephelometry
b. Chromatography
c. *Turbidimetry
d. All of the above
49. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is ____ the particles of
suspension

:
a. *Reflected
b. Transmitted
c. Absorbed
d. Adsorbed
50. The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies
a. *6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. none of the choices
51. Ability to discriminate between small differences in analyte concentration at a
particular concentration
a. Selectivity

:
b. *Robustness
c. Specificity
d. Sensitivity
52. The location of the enzyme beta lactamase in the bacteria is
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipopolysaccharide layer
c. *Periplasmic space
d. Capsule
53. Pink eye conjunctivitis is associated with bacteria of this genus
a. Listeria
b. Erysipelothrix
 c. Clostridium
O d. *Hemophilus
54. Which of these is a culture medium for fungal organism
a. KOH
b. Lactophenol cotton blue
O c. *Saboraud's
d. Blood agar
55. Tinea cruris is due to
O a. *Fungus
b. Bacteria
c. Parasite
d. Virus
56. The drug of choice for filariasis is
a. Mebendazole
b. Pyrantel pamoate
c. Praziquantel
O d. *Diethylcarbamazine
57. Chickenpox and zoster belong to
a. Adenovirus
b. Orthomyxovirus
O c. *Herpes viruses
d. Corona viruses
58. The only antibody that crosses the placenta
a. IgM
b. IgE
c. IgD
O d. *IgG
59. Which of these is not vector borne?
a. Malaria
b. Dengue
c. Chikungunya
O d. *Respiratory syncytial virus
60. Which of these is found in the cell wall of gram positive bacteria
a. Endotoxin
O b. *Peptidoglycan
c. Flagella
d. Periplasmic space
61. Compute for the millimoles of a 30.2 mL standard solution of 0.1092M silver nitrate
that reacted with KSCN
O a. *3.30 mn
b. 3.28 mn
c. 0.11 mn
d. 0.03 mn
62. A 5.0 mL solution of HCl consumed 12.6 mL of 0.5011 N NaOH. Compute for the %
acid.
O a. *4.54 %
 b. 5.05%
c. 2.27%
d. 2.53%
63. Implements the quality policy
Oa. *Quality management
b. Quality control
c. Quality assurance
d. All of the above
64. Animal model for testing heparin
Oa. *Sheep
b. Dog
c. Cat
d. Rat
65. Far IR
O a. *50 - 1000 micrometer
b. 2.5 - 50 micrometer
c. 0.8 - 2.5 micrometer
d. None of the choices
66. HPLC is a type of chromatography referring to
a. High Pressure Liquid Chromatography
b. High Performance Liquid Chromatography
c. Hight Purity Liquid Chromatography
Od. *2 of the choices
67. Amount of laboratory sample to be taken, if quantity required for one complete
analysis of Atorvastatin is 35 mg
a. 35 mg
Ob. *105 mg
c. 70 mg
d. 140 mg
68. Which of these is not present in the central core of the virus particle
a. Envelope
Ob. *Nucleic acid
c. Enzyme
d. Matrix protein
69. These are long, threadlike cells found in the bodies of filamentous fungi
a. Yeast
O b. *Mold
c. Saprobes
d. Hyphae
70. USP limit for tablet content uniformity
a. 85 - 115%
b. 95 - 105%
c. 90 - 110%
Od. *100%
71. Rotary power is measured using a
O a. *Polarimeter
plane potation
 b. pH meter
c. Refractometer
d. Polarography
72. Colored bands in chromatography is called
a. Chrome
Ob. *Chromatogram
c. Chromatophore
d. All of the choices
73. Determines trace minerals in vitamins
a. GC
b. HPLC
Oc. *AAS
d. MS
74. Animal used for pyrogen testing
a. Rats
b. Cats
Oc. *Rabbits
d. Hares
75. An oil with an IV of 116 is classified as
a. Drying
Ob. *Semi-drying
c. Non-drying
d. Fixed oil
76. Example of fomite : except
a. Beddings
Ob. *Mites
c. Toys
d. Urinals
77. HPLC is basically composed of the following, except
Oa. *Beaker
b. Injection point
c. Chromatographic column
d. Pumping system
78. Weight variation method can be applied to the following dosage form, except
a. Hard gelatin capsule
b. Single unit for inhalation
c. Liquid filled soft capsule
Od. *Transdermal system
79. The first person to become sick in a epidemic
a. Contact
b. Primary case
Oc. *Index case
d. Secondary case
80. Important index of measuring the communicability of a disease
a. Crude birth rate
b. Primary attack rate
 :
c. *Incidence rate
d. Secondary attack rate
81. This species of Shigella is responsible for the most infection on the milder side of the
spectrum of Shigellosis
a. S. dysenteriae
b. S. boydii
c. *S. sonnei
d. S. flexnei
82. This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing protein synthesis
a. Acyclovir
b. Ribavirin
c. Amantadine

:
d. *Interferons
83. How many milligrams of solute are there in 11 mL of 0.150 M sucrose (MW = 342
g/mol)
a. 1,234 mg
b. 165 mg
c. 1.65 mg
d. *546.79 mg
84. Which of the following has an iodine value of >120?
a. Almond

:
b. *Linseed
c. Cottonseed
d. Sesame
85. In disintegration, enteric coated tablet must
a. In simulated gastric fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus in time
specified
b. In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus in time
specified
c. *Show no evidence to disintegrate after 30 minutes in simulated gastric fluid
d. Show no evidence to disintegrate after 30 minutes in simulated intestinal
fluid
86. Koplik's spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the
a. Upper extremities

:
b. *Mouth
c. Lower extremities
d. Scalp
87. What is the primary standard of Karl Fischer reagent?
a. *Na2C4H4O6 2H2O
b. Na2CO3
c. Na2C6H4O6 2H2O
d. Na2SO4 10H2O
88. According to the WHO, it is an art of applying science in the context of politics so as
to reduce inequalities in health while ensuring the best health for greater number.
a. Wellness
0b. *Public health
 c. Health
d. Medicine
89. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitidis. The DOC is
a. Amikacin
b. Ethambutol

:
c. *Benzylpenicillin
d. Kanamycin
90. This parasite causes East African Sleeping Sickness
a. *T. rhodiense
b. T. gambiense
c. T. cruzi
d. L. braziliensis
91. MRSA infections are treated with what antibiotic

:
a. *Vancomycin
b. Nafcillin
c. Cefotaxime
d. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid
92. A 35 years-old patient has an abscess with a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that is
beta lactamase positive. This indicates that the organism is resistant to which of the
following antibiotics?
a. *Benzylpenicillin, ampicillin and piperacillin
b. Trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole
c. Erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin
d. Vancomycin
93. Which of the following stage of venereal disease that is characterized by the
appearance of chancre
a. Primary

:
b. *Tertiary
c. Secondary
d. Latent
94. Polypeptide antibiotic inhibiting pseudomonas
a. Amphotericin B
b. Carbenicillin
c. *Colistin
d. Methicillin
95. An insect vector which harbor part of the life cycle of the infective agent
a. Artificial
b. Mechanical

:
c. *Biological
d. None
96. Maximum overage limit for vitamins
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 15%
d. *30%
97. What is the color of thymolphthalein in a basic solution
a. Colorless
b. Yellow
Oc. *Blue
d. Dark pink
98. It is when an infection is maintained only in a particular population
O a. Endemic
b. *Pandemic
c. Epidemic
d. Sporadic
99. This data is an accurate measurement of birth
O a. *Fertility rate
b. Infant rate
c. Incident rate
d. Prevalence rate
100. These cells aid in the immune response by activating macrophages
a. Cytotoxic T cells
O
b. *Helper T cells
c. Memory B cells
d. Neutrophils
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

1.
A. Haemophilus influenza C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
O
B. Heamophilus aegyptis D. Mycobacterium leprae
2. Also called intermittent sterilization and is simply pasteurization done for 3 times with a period or gap
A. Modified pasteurization C. Antisepsis
O
B. Tyndallization D. Fractional disinfection
3. Discovered sulfanilamide, a forerunner of the sulphonamides
A. Waksman C. Lister
O
B. Domagk D. Semmelweiss
4. Introduced Phenol coefficient
A. Waksman
B. Domagk
O C. Lister
D. Semmelweiss
5. -
A. Paul Erhlich C. Edward Jenner
B. Joseph Lister O D. Louis Pasteur
6. Completeness of an autoclave process is measure by the following methods, except;
A. Special tapes O C. Heat sensors
B. Biological markers D. Thermocouples
For numbers 7-9;
2 batches Amoxicillin 125mg/ 5ml made under different production set-ups were compared in terms of its
sedimentation volume
Unsettled height Settled height
BATCH 1 20cm 17cm
BATCH 2 20cm 15cm
7. What is the sedimentation volume of Batch 1?
A. 0.85 C. 0.75
B. 0.80 D. 0.70
8. What is the sedimentation volume of Batch 2?
A. 0.85 C. 0.75
B. 0.80 D. 0.70
9. Which batch is better?
A. Batch 1 C.
B. Batch 2 D. Neither
10. The totality of characteristics or features of a product that bear on its capacity to satisfy stated or implied needs.
OA. Quality C. Limits
B. Monograph D. Certificate of Analysis
11. Which of the following is a chemical method for identity test?
A. Specific gravity C. Optical rotation
B. Refractive index O D. Visible reactions
12. Uses a paddle type of accessory
A. Type 1 C. Type 3
OB. Type 2 D. Type 4
13. A media used for sterility tests
A. Trypsin Soya Broth C. BOTH
O
B. Fluid Thioglycollate
14. Assay method of Vitamin E employs which of the following?
D. NOTA

A. HPLC C. Spectrophotometry
B. Fluorometry O D. GC
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

15. Maximum number of rabbits to be used in the pyrogen test

A. 3 C. 6

8
B. 5 D. 8
16. All are forms of microbial control using radiation, except;
A. Gamma rays C. Alpha rays
B. UV rays D. Beta rays
17. Heavy metals are also used to control microbial growth; Cu is commonly used as what?
OA. Algicide C. Anti-protozoan
B. Fungicide D. Antivirus
18. A prototype of anti-staphylococcal penicillin but is off marketed due to cases of thrombocytopenia.
A. Nafcillin C. Cloxacillin
OB. Methicilin D. Oxacillin
19. All are non-beta-lactam cell wall inhibitor, except;
O A. PZA
B. Vancomycin
C. INH
D. Bacitracin
20.
OA. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercolralis
B. Trichuris trichuria D. Ancylastoma duodenale
21. The East and West African sleeping disease is carried by what vector?
O
A. Phlebotomous sandfly C. Kissing Bug
B. Tse-tse fly D. Reduvid bug
22. Visceral leischmaniasis affects the following organ, except;
A. Liver C. Spleen
O B. Lungs D. Heart
23. Acceptance limit for new formulations in friability tests?
A. NMT 1% O C. NMT 0.8%
B. NLT 1% D. NLT 0.8%
24. Examination for possible presence of bacterial endotoxin gives what positive result?
A. Gel clot formation C. Blue coloration
B. No bacterial growth D. Green-metallic sheen
For numbers 25-26;
Paracetamol 500mg/tab
Intial weight: 7 grams Final weight: 6.92grams
25. What is the % friability?
A. 2.14% C. 1.24%
B. 21.4%
26. What is the disposition of the batch?
O D. 1.14%

A. Passed C. Retest
O B. Failed D.
27. Maximum weight a balance can measure
O A. Capacity C. Accuracy
B. Sensitivity D. Precision
28. Which of the following is not an analytical balance?
A. Ohaus C. Sartorius
O B. Anscale D. Mettler
29. Which of the following biuret can be used for both acidic and basic solution?
A. Geissler Biuret OC. Teflon valve Biuret
B. Mohr Biuret D. PET valve Biuret
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

30. All are type of pipet, except;

A. Ostwald-Folin pipet D. Serological pipet
B. Syringe pipet O E. NOTA
C. Volumetric pipet
31. Mostly vector transmitted except for Coxiella sp., highly resistant to sulphonamides and is commonly identified
using the Weil-Felix test.
A. Chlamydia OC. Rickettsiae
B. Mycobacteria D. Bacteroides
32. All are unique features or virulence factors of Yersinia pestis, except;
A. F factor O
C. Y Factor
B. V & W factor D. A and B
33. Malta fever that is caused by contact with goats is probably caused by which species?
OA. Brucella melitensis C. Brucella abortus
B. Bruccella canis D. Brucella suis
34. -
OA. Vibrio cholera C. Helicobacter pylori
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus D. Campylobacter jejuni
35. All are part of the triple therapy indicated for H. pylori associated peptic ulcer, except;
A. Metronidazole O C. Chloramphenicol
B. Amoxicillin D. Sucralfate
36. P. aeruginosa is a highly resistant g(-) bacilli, which can cause wound and eye infection and URTI infection. P.
aeruginosa, produces a distinct pigment known as what?
A. Chrysarobin O C. Pyoverdin
B. Pyroverdin D. Xanthorybin
37.
OA. ETEC
B. EHEC
C. EIEC
D. EAEC
38. A bacterium which normally causes zoonotic diseases of dogs and cats.
A. Bartonnella henslae C. Brucella canis
OB. Pasteurella multicoda D. Francisella tularensis
39. A 56-year old patiend arrives in the ER complaining of continuous cough distinct gasping for air feeling and a
whoop sound afterwards. This patient is most probably infected with which bacterium?
A. Bordatella pertussis
B. Legionella pneumophilla
O C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Legionella pneumophillae
40. Which of the following is not a causative agent of atypical pneumonia?
A. Legionella C. Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasma O D. Haemophilus
41. An example of atypical Mycobacterium which has a characteristic photochromogen, which allows it to be seen
only in light.
OA. M. kansasii C. M. bovis
B. M. scrofelacium D. M. ulcerans
42.
fever?
A. R. ricketsii C. R. akari
OB. R. australis D. R. tsutsugamushi
43. Which of the following endoparasites is not treated with metronidazole?
A. Giardia lamblia C. Isosopora belli
B. Entamoeba histolytica D. Cryptosporidium parvum
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

44. A culture of vaginal secretion was positive for motile, flagellated organism and the patient presents with watery
and frotty vaginal secretion with a disntinct burning feeling when urinating, this is an infection of what
endoparasite?
A. Trichomonas C. Naegliria
B. Toxoplasma D. Isosopora
45. Most oxygen tolerant Clostridium sp. possesses lecithinase as its primary virulence factor. It can cause

A. C. dificile C. C. perfringens
B. C. botulinum D. C. tetani
46. Appears as Chinese character colonies
A. Corynebacterium diptheriae C. Erysipelothrix rhusopiathiae
B. Listeria monocytogenes D. Actinomyces isareli
For numbers 47-53; Dissolution time of 2 batches of tablets of Paracetamol
BATCH 1 BATCH 2
TABLET 1
TABLET 2
TABLET 3
TABLET 4
TABLET 5 5
TABLET 6
47. Average dissolution of BATCH 1
A. 8.23 secs C. 8.27 secs
B. 7.16 secs D. 7.20 secs
48. Average dissolution of BATCH 2
A. 8.23 secs C. 8.27 secs
B. 7.16 secs D. 7.20 secs
49. First dissolution in Batch 1 happens after what time?
A. 7.99 secs C. 8.00 secs
B. 7.98 secs D. 8.01 secs
50. The last tablet to dissolve in Batch 2, dissolves after how many seconds?
A. 7.38 secs C. 7.40 secs
B. 7.39 secs D. 7.41 secs
51. Disposition for Batch 1
A. Failed C. Passed
B. Retest D.
52. Disposition for Batch 2
A. C. Retest
B. Passed D. Failed
53. Which batch is theoretically expected to exert its effect faster?
A. Batch 1 C. BOTH
B. Batch 2 D. NOTA
54. Most commonly found in fried rice and only in amounts of 106g/g stool it is considered as an infection.
A. B. cereus C. B. subtilis
B. B. aureus D. B. anthacis
55. Lancet-shape diplococci
A. Strep. pneumoniae C. Staph. aureus
B. Strep. viridans D. Staph. epidermidis
56. A group B beta-hemolytic streptococcus and is a member of the normal vaginal flora
A. Strep. viridans 0
C. Strep. aggalactiae
B. Strep. pyogenes D. Strep. pneumoniae
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

57. All are differentiating characteristic of Bacillus sp. from Clostridium sp., except;
OA. Bacillus are anaerobic C. Bacillus may have central spore
B. Bacillus are non-motile D. Bacillus may have terminal spore
58. Characterized by yellow crusted lesions and is caused by Strep. pyogenes infection.
A. Endocarditis C. Scarlet fever
OB. Impetigo D. Strep throat
59. Which agar is useful in differentiating the different groups of Streptococcus?
OA. BAP C. McConkey
B. CAP D. SSA
60. All are adsorptive indicators, except;
A. DCF C. Eosin Y
B. TEE O D. Pp
61. The following standard solutions are used in what type of assay method?
BONUS
A. Gravimetric method C. Volumetric method
B. Precipitimetric method D. Iodometry
62. EDTA is
A. Ethionaminediaminotetraacetic acid O C. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
B. Ethyldinitrotetraacetic acid D. Ethylenediaminotetraacetoacetic acid
63. Which of the following toxin is present in Streptococcus sp.?
A. Streptolysin G O C. Streptolysin O
B. Streptolysin A D. Streptolysin B
64. False about Endotoxins, except;
O A. Released by lysis
B. May be present in g(+) or g (-) organism
C. Examples of which are botulism and tetanus
D. Susceptible to heat
65. True about Exotoxins, except;
OA. Released by lysis
B. May be present in g(+) or g (-) organism
C.Examples of which are botulism and tetanus
D.Susceptible to heat
66. Tetraphenolphtalein ethylestes is
OA. TEE indicator
B. TPE indicator
C. TPP indicator
D. TPEE indicator
67. Iodine is, except;
BONUS
A. Halogen D. B only
B. Oxidizing agent E. B & C
C. Reducing agent
68. When a oxidizing agent is made to liberate an equivalent amount of Iodine w/c is titrated w/ Sodium thiosulfate
solution
A. Iodimetry C. Either
OB. Iodometry D. Neither
69. Official method of water content determination in USP
OA. Titrimetric method C. Dew point method
B. Azeotropic method D. Gravimetric method
70. Components of Karl-Fischer reagent, except;
A. Iodine O C. Ethanol
B. Sulfur dioxide D. Pyridine
71. Components of spore stain, except;
A. Carbolfuschin O C. Methylene blue
B. Malachite green D. Acid-alcohol
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

72. Special stains for spirochetes includes the following except;

A. Silver stain O C. Gold stain
B. Giemsa stain D. Wright stain
73. Gram (+) rods, except;
A. Nocardia C. Listeria
B. Bacillus O D. Mycobacterium
74. Gram (-) cocci, except;
OA. Strepcoccus C. Moraxella
B. Veilonella D. Neisseria
75. All are thin-walled organisms, except;
A. Borelia O C. Mycoplasma
B. Leptospira D. Treponema
76. Method of water determination that is official in the NF
OA. Toluene Method C. Gravimetric Method
B. Titrimetric Method D. Dew Point Method
For numbers 77-78,
A sample of Digitalis was assay using the Azeotropic method; it was found out that a 75g sample contains 3.5ml
of water.
77. Compute for the %Water in the sample
A. 4.66% C. 4.70%
B. 4.68% D. 5.00%
78. Disposition for the %Water of the sample
A. Passed C. Re-assay
B. Failed D.
79. All are example of non-volatile ether soluble extractives, except;
A. Resins C. Coloring matter
B. Fixed oil O D. Crude fiber
80. Which of the following has an iodine value of >120?
OA. Linseed C. Almond
B. Cottonseed D. Sesame
81. Animal fats would have an Iodine value of what?
A. >120 C. =101-119
B. <100 O D. <90
82. Assay method for aldehydes which is used when the amount of aldehyde is very small
OA. Hydroxylamine method C. Sodium bisulfate method
B. Hydralazine method D. Sodium thiosulfate method
83. All are double-stranded virus, except;
A. Reovirus C. Orbivirus
B. Rotavirus O D. Hantavirus
84. Quantitative method for the determination of nitrogen in chemical substances.
A. Jedahl method C. Kjedhal method
OB. Kjeldahl method D. Keldahl method
85. Hardness tester that makes use of hand pliers as aid
O A. Pfizer test C. Strong-Cobb
B. Stokes-Monsato D. Erweka
86. The Phlebovirus that infects sandflies and causes Rift valley fever is from what family of virus?
OA. Bunyavirus C. Filovirus
B. Togavirus D. Arenavirus
87. SSPE or subsclerosing pan encephalitis is a chronic CNS complication of measles. Measles is caused by what
virus?
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
Faculty of Pharmacy
PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6
Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

A. Paramyxovirus O
C. Morbilivirus
B. Myxovirus D. Hantavirus

88. All are positive sense virus, except;

A. Picornavirus C. Retrovirus
B. Coronavirus O D. Rhabdovirus
89. All are naked RNA virus, except;
A. Reovirus C. Calicivirus
OB. Paramyxovirus D. Picornavirus
90. Treatment for PCP in HIV infected patients.
A. Metronidazole C. Clotrimoxazole
O B. TMP-SMX D. Caspofungin
91. Causative agent of South American blastomycosis
O A. Paracoccidiodes brasilensis C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatiditis D. Cryptococcus neoformans
92. Capsulated fungi
A. Paracoccidiodes brasilensis C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatiditis
93. Ringworm infection of the groin
O D. Cryptococcus neoformans

A. Tinea pedis C. Tinea manum

B. Tinea cruris D. Tinea capitis
94. LAL is taken from
A. Horseking Crab OC. Horseshoe Crab
B. Sawhorse Crab D. Pacific King Crab
95. DOC for pseudomembranous colitis
A. Clindamycin O C. Metronidazole
B. Vancomycin D. Dalfopristin
96. DOC for asymptomatic amoebiasis
OA. Paramomycin C. Diloxanide furoate
B. Iodoquinol D. Metronidazole
97. 3TC is a NRTI drug used for HIV treatment. 3TC is which of the following?
OA. Lamivudine C. Zalcitabine
B. Stavudine D. Tenofovir
98. Remedy treatment for the emergence of VRSA and VRSE
A. Clindamycin OC. Streptogramins
B. Sulfonamides D. Carbepenems
99. Aztreonam is a
A. Tetracycline O C. Monobactam
B. Macrolide D. Carbepenems
100. Regarded as the safest of all aminoglycosides
A. Neomycin C. Amikacin
B. Tobramycin OD. Netilmicin
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

MODULE 6
QUALITY CONTROL
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item
by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

1. The growth rate of bacteria during the exponential phase of growth is

A. Zero C. Constant
OB. Increasing D. Decreasing

2. Volumetric apparatus designed to contain a definite

-
volume of liquid
A. Beaker C. Pipette
B. Burette O D. Volumetric flask

3. Volhard Method in volumetric precipitation involves the use of what indicator

A. Eosin Y TS Adsorption Method
-

C. Phenolphthalein TS Neutralization
-

B. Ferric ammonium sulfate D. Potassium chromate TS REDOX -

Dichromate method
②
4. Which medium contains bile salt and dyes (Bromothymol blue and acid fuschin) to selectively slow down
the growth of most nonpathogenic Gram negative bacilli found in the gastrointestinal tract and allow
Salmonella spp. And Shigela spp. to grow
- -

A. Eosin methylene blue C. Phenylethyl alcohol Gram -

B. MacConkey O
D. Hektoen Enteric agar

5. Calculate the normality factor for 0.1 N Sodium Thiosulfate VS given the following data
Weight of Potassium dichromate = 0.2256g
Volume of titrant consumed during standardization = 34.55mL
Volume of titrant consumed during blank determination = 0.05mL
Molecular weight of Sodium thiosulfate = 248.16g/mol
Molecular weight of Potassium dichromate = 294.18g/mol

A. 1.5801 0.2256g * too

C. 0.6669
B. 0.2635 0
D. 1.3337

6. IR spectrophotometry is used to ensure which of the following quality of a drug product

# A. Identity C. Potency
B. Toxicity os
Bonds D. Bioavailability

7. Extraction of alkaloids could be done by using

Toxicity
-

A. Claveger apparatus volatile oil

-
C. Brine shrimp assay -

B. HPLC Quantification atdentipication

-

OD. Separatory funnel

8. A 1.4500g sample of liquified phenol was dissolved in enough amount of water to make 1000mL. A 30mL
sample of the solution was treated with 30mL of 0.1N Bromine VS and HCl. The mixture was treated with
potassium iodide and treated with 7.38mL of 0.1N Sodium thiosulfate VS. It was-
found that 21 mL of 0.1N
Sodium thiosulfate -
was required in the titration of the iodine liberated when 20mL of 0.1N Bromine VS was
treated with KI and HCl. Calculate %Phenol in the sample. (MW of phenol = 94.11g/mol)
A. 29.00% 1.4500g : 1000mL : x : 30mL C. 8.70%
①B. 86.99% X O
-
-

0435g 29×0.0435
-

-
D. 65.56%
50mL 21mL -29mL
- .

9. A plot of the absorbance of the analyte vs the wavelength which determines the lmax at which the
-
absorbance of the standard and unknown 2solution will be made
A. Beer’s plot C. Rf value chromatograph
-

B. Planck’s constant -
constant use to

Energy
compute ① D. Spectral absorbance curve

10. The most

-
current apparatus being used for the determination of drug mixture and components
-

A. NMR structure C. IR -

identity ( bonds)
-
-

B. HPLC not latest

-

O
D. GC

11. A suitable detector of radioactive sample

A. UV detector -
o
C. Geiger – Muller counter
B. Echelette grating D. Vanillin reagent

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

12. Which of the following structure is not a part of bacterial cell envelope
-

A. Peptidoglycan C. Capsule
B. Lipopolysaccharide
OD. Spores -
not part of bacterial cell
membrane
13. Official method of water content determination of pharmaceutical sample
I. Azeotropic distillation
II. Gravimetric method
III. Karl Fischer Method

A. I & II C. I & III

B. II & III OD. I, II & III

14. Most popular indicator electrode for pH determination that involves the exchange of hydrogen ion on its
-
surface
A. Standard hydrogen electrode C. Fluoride electrode
① B. Glass electrode most popular
-
D. Quinhydrone electrode Least -

expensive
15. The reciprocating cylinder, basket apparatus and paddle apparatus are used for what in-vitro test for
tablets?
A. Assay X -
HPLC Gc >
C. Disintegration basket -

B. Content uniformity X Analytical Balance

-
OD. Dissolution

O
16. In weight variation test for tablets, a 5.0% difference in average tablet weight is acceptable for tablets
with an average weight of
A. 130 mg or less 10 OC. More than 324 mg
B. 130 mg to 324 mg 7. 5 D. A & B

17. Optical rotation is measured using what instrument

A. Refractometer Refraction index
-
C. HPLC Identity
-

&
quantity
B. pH meter O
D. Polarimeter

18. An instrument that measures the durability of tablet to withstand shock and abrasion during transport
-
A. Hardness tester force to break
-
C. Polarimeter rotation
-

optical
B. Caliper -
thickness O
D. Friabilator

19. A parameter that checks the - homogeneity of the active ingredient of tablet and is usually done by
assaying a certain number of tablets individually
A. Tablet hardness O
C. Content uniformity
B. Tablet thickness D. Weight variation

20. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is ______ by particles of a turbid solution or
suspension
A. Absorbed ①
C. Reflected
B. Transmitted ]UV ,
AAS Turbid ,
D. Diffracted x ray diff - -

21. If the ova of the parasite are ingested by humans, the oncospere form can migrate through the body via
the bloodstream, resulting in the condition known as cysticercosis
①A. Taenia solium -
pork tapeworm
-

C. Hymenolepis nana Tapeworm -

B. Entemoeba histolytica Amoebiasis D. Clonorhis isnensis liver fluke

-

sinensis
-

22. Nitrogen content determination of foods and pharmaceutical involves which method
A. Fajan’s method NaCl ion
-

O C. Kheldahl method
B. Gay – Lussac method D. Gravimetric method

23. The water content of an 875.4mg sample of dried neem leaves was determined with a moisture analyzer.
What is the % w/w H2O in the leaves if the final mass was found to be 545.8 mg
A. 1.60% C. 62.35%
gB. 37.65% 875-4-545.8-+100 D. 98.40%
875.4

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

24. Stationary phase in paper chromatography

OA. Cellulose C. Acetonitrile HPLC
-

B. Acetic acid ( p Made up of cellulose D. Water -HPLE Reverse

25. The comparison of certain attributes and dimension of a product against a standard to find out if the
- -

product is within the prescribe limit

A. Sampling C. Analysis
B. Inspection getting
portion from a batch Testing
-
-

O D. Disposition
Accept I Reject
-

26. Iodometry is a suitable method for

O
A. Ascorbic acid C. Sulfites Iodine Test
-

B. Mercaptans -
Gc D. Sugar alcohol

27. When an organic compound is placed on a very high magnetic field, the protons absorb radiation energy
-
and produce characteristic peaks due to the organic group associated with the protons

E
A. UV spectrophotometer C. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
B. Colorimetry D. HPLC
28. Potentiometry finds application in
-
A. Bioassay C. pH determination
B. EDTA titration D. Microbial assay

29. Unsaponifiable matter in plant matter may represent

O
-

A. Silica C. Phytosterol
-

B. Paraffin D. Unsaturated fatty acid

30. Used to determine the content of inorganic impurities in an organic substance. This involves a procedure
.

to measure the amount of substance not volatilized from a sample when the sample is ignited in the
-

presence of sulfuric acid

A. Total Ash o
C. Residue on Ignition
B. Loss on Drying D. A & C

31. A parameter that denotes the nearness of the experimental data to the true value
OA. Accuracy
-

oireproducibility
C. Precision
B. Deviation between trial D. Ruggedness

32. An 8 year old develops -

severe sore throat. On examination, a grayish – white exudate is seen on the tonsils
and pharynx. The cause of the boy’s pharyngitis is most likely Commonly caused by Group A strep
-

A. A catalase – negative Gram positive coccus Streptococcus

-

B. A catalase – negative Gram positive bacillus

C. A coagulase – negative, catalase positive Gram positive coccus
D. A coagulase – positive, catalase positive Gram positive coccus

33. Component of FTIR instrument which uses a moving mirror to displace part of the radiation produced by
=
a source Monochromator >
A. Monochromator Prism Dispersive C. Goniometer x ray Diffraction -

O B. Interferometer D. Prism

34. Which of the following groups of antimicrobial agents acts on the microorganism by inhibiting protein
synthesis
-
-

A. Fluoroquinolones DNA synthesis inhibition

-
C. Penicillin cell wall synthesis
-

OB. Aminoglycoside D. Polymyxin Polypeptide Antibiotic

-

For
Multiple Drug Resistant
35. Infrared region used for functional group determination
A. Near IR C. Far IR
OB. Middle IR D. Any of the above

36. Light source for UV light

OA. Deuterium lamp C. Tungsten lamp visible -

B. Cathode ray tube -

AAS D. Xenon lamp UV Vp's -
-

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

37. This electrode can be the source of electrode in voltaic cell

OA. Anode C. Indicator
B. Cathode D. Reference

38. Unit for current that is described as the rate of charged flow in Coulomb per second
A. Ampere C. Volts unit of electromotive
force
-

B. Faraday D. Watts unit of power

-

39. It is the separation of the signal in an NMR spectrum from the resonance signal of the standard
OA. Chemical shift C. Deshielding
B. Coupling D. Splitting

40. What elements/compounds are detected by mass spectrometer

-

A. Ionized
O C. Neutral
B. Isolated D. Weighed

41. Most widely used detector for AAS

A. Electrodeless discharge lamp C. Pyroelectric bolometer
O B. Photomutiplier tube -

UV vis , IR
-

,
AAS D. Any of the above

42. Which of the following organism is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Treponema pallidum
B. Meningococcus OD. Escherichia coli

43. Element that may be analyzed using AES

A. Aluminum Balik ca Na C. Zinc
O
B. Barium D. Lead

44. Test animals used in pyrogen testing

A. Cat C. Guinea pig
B. Dog O
D. Rabbit

45. IR region that is used in the identification of functional groups such as carbonyl, amino and hydroxyl
groups present in an organic compound
-

A. Fingerprint region OC. Group frequency region

B. Radiofrequency region D. Absorption spectrum
-

46. Biological assay for digitalis employs what test animal

A. Rats C. Dogs
B. Guinea pig O
D. Pigeon

47. Microbes commonly encountered in health care associated infection in hospital are
A. Salmonella spp., Shigella spp., Hepatitis C., Neisseria meningitides
OB. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, MRSA, Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Hepatitis C., Lice, Giardia spp
D. All of above

48. Self indicating volumetric solution

A. Iodine VS O
C. Potassium permanganate VS -

Decolorizes
B. Ceric sulfate VS D. Ammonium thiocyanate VS

49. It is a property of liquid that is closely related to the resistance to flow

O C. Viscosity resistance to
- -
A. Surface tension -
flow
B. Rheology D. Temperature

50. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that

OA. Requires pyridoxine supplementation r
B. May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange red × -

Rifampicin
C. Causes ocular complication that are reversible if the drug is discontinued -

fluoroquinolones
D. May be ototoxic and nephrotic
Aminoglycoside
-

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

51. This date limits the time during which the product may be dispensed or used
A. Manufacturing date C. Use date
O B. Expiration date D. All of the above

52. What type of filter does a class II biological safety cabinet use to filter out infectious agent
-

A. Millipore filter C. Charcoal filter

OB. HEPA filter D. Dust filter

53. Main causative organism of gas gangrene

A. B. anthrax C. C. deficile diarrhea
tetttathnruagx watery
-
-

B. C. tetani -

O
D. C. perfringes

54. Water content of powder sample that weighs 0.350g, if water equivalence factor of KF reagent was 4.6
and the volume of the reagent was 9.2mL
A. 0.0121 % C. 42.32%
O % moisture
Fwfgk 467922Mt
-

B. 12.09% ,oo D. None of the above

12.09
350.0mg
,

55. This drug activity against many strains Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its activity against gram-negative rods
is enhanced if it is given in combination with Tazobactam. This drug should not be given to patients with
allergies to penicillin =
-

A. Amoxicillin x C. Aztreonam

I
B. Imipenem D. Piperacillin

56. A 23 year old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes
anaphylaxis
-
following and exposure-to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this
patient with a single dose. Which drug is to used for this patient
A. Cefuroxime C. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ceftriaxone O
D. Spectinomycin
cross
Allergy with
cephalosporins
-

57. All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas
aeruginosa except
A. Norfloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin
O B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole D. Carbenicillin
-
No coverage for Pseudomonas
58. Which of the following is responsible for the acid-fast staining characteristic of mycobacteria
A. Peptidoglycan C. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Polysaccharide capsule OD. Cell Wall Mycolic acid

59. Of the following features, which is unique to gram positive bacteria

A. Cytoplasmic membrane ✓ C. Outer membrane V
B. Endotoxin grama
-

Exotoxin gram Ct )
-
0
D. Spore forming

60. Jars, bottles and tubes are considered _____ packaging component
OA. Primary C. Auxiliary
B. Secondary Box -
D. None of the above

61. Mobile phase for gas chromatography

OA. Gas C. Solid
-

B. Liquid D. Two of the above

62. Which structure is a characteristic of a prokaryotic organism

A. Nuclear membrane x -
O Peptidoglycan
C.
B. 80S ribosome X No Nucleus D. Electron Transport Chain

63. Which of the following is a protozoan infection that can lead to lesion in the eye if it is acquired
congenitally
A. Malaria plasmodiummalari.ae
-
Blood -
C. Crytospordiosis Cryptosporidium
-

B. Giardiasis -

iardiambhia O
D. Toxoplasmosis Toxoplasmagondi
-

congenital

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

64. The acid value of raw material weighing 1.230g which required 30.0mL of 0.110 N NaOH to bring about
the endpoint (NaOH = 40; KOH = 56.11)

!iC3o×9!%gT O
A. 109.18 mg/g A C. 150.54 mg/g
nooo
B. 124.41 mg/g D. 157.72 mg/g

65. The envelope of an enveloped virus is derived from which of the following source
A. The viral capsomeres viral capsid-
C. The viral matrix protein
O
B. The host cell membrane D. The 80s ribosome x

66. Which of the following is used to identify peaks in the chromatogram

OA. Retention time
-
C. Number of theoretical plates
B. Tailing factor D. Relative standard deviation

67. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as

A. Sporadic C. Epidemic
O B. Pandemic D. Endemic

68. Drug of choice for methicillin resistant S. aureus

A. Ampicillin T C. Neomycin x
B. Erythromycin x O
D. Vancomycin

69. The capacity of a given strain of microbial specie to produce disease is known as
A. Pathogen organism
B. Infection
-

0
C. Virulence
D. None of the above

70. Aspergillus fumigatus

-
can affect
A. Liver C. Heart
B. Brain 0
D. Lungs

71. If the vectors transmit the infection mechanically they are called
-
A. Biological vectors C. Biological reservoir
B. Mechanical vectors D. Both A & C
0 -

72. The types of contamination are

A. Particulate C. Microbial
B. Cross O
D. All

73. Streptococcus pneumoniae was isolated by

A. Robert Koch TB , cholera Anthrax
-
C. Antony von Leewenhock -

cell

g
,

B. Edward Jenner smallpox - D. Louis Pasteur

74. DPT is a Diphtheria Pertussis tetanus

-

, ,

A.
o Triple vaccine C. Double vaccine
B. Tetanus toxoid D. All of the above

75. HIV belongs to

0A. Retroviridae C. Togaviridae
B. Rhabdoviridae D. Paramyxoviridae

76. Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria

O
C. Haemophilus influenza flu
=

A. Pseudomonas -

B. E. coli D. Haemophilus streptococcus

77. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from

A. Cattle C. Sheep
B. Rats D. Both A & B
E- ARC
78. A 0.6890g of sample of cupric sulfate (MW = 249.7) was dissolved in water, acidified and KI reagent
added. The liberated iodine required 11.87 mL of 0.1634 N sodium thiosulfate to reach the endpoint. What
is the concentration of analyte in the sample
*
A. 35.1% ( 11.87×0.1634 ) (249-7/1000) C. 105.0%
0B. 70.3%
Igloo D. None of these

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 =

70-3 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

79. The fungal disease that affects the internal organs and spread through the body are called
-

A. Mycoses C. Mycotoxicosis
O
B. Systemic mycoses D. Superficial mycoses

80. Parenterals are filled into sterile containers include

A. Release are O
C. Aseptic room
B. Quarantine area D. Packaging area

81. Bacillus is an example of

O
A. Gram positive bacteria -

cocci C. Virus
B. Gram negative bacteria D. Viroid
All bacilli Bacillus
82. Virion meansgram
negative EXCEPT .
. . i
refer to notes

÷
A. Infectious virus particle C. Incomplete particles
B. Non-infectious particles D. Defective virus particle

83. A facultative anaerobe

A. Only grows anaerobically
B. Only grows in the presence of O2
C. Ordinarily an anaerobe but can grow with O2
D. Ordinarily an aerobe but can grow in the absence of O2

84. Agent that gains electron during a redox reaction

A. Complexing agent C. Precipitating agent
GER OA
OB. Oxidizing agent D. Reducing agent

85. Motile bacteria

OA. Salmonella typhiillus C. Bacillus anthracis
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Shigella flexneri
chlamydia
86. The most common infection in AIDS is (
A. LGV Lymphogranulomavenereum ( STD)
-
-
O
C. Pneumocystis carnii -
respiratory
B. CMV -
(rarely causes
cytomegalovirus prob in healthy-
D. Syphilis -
transmitted
sexually
ind
)
87. The largest protozoa
O
A. Balantidium coli -

150mm C. Trichomonus vaginalis 10mm

B. Entamoeba coli -

35µm Fermentative) D. Toxoplasm gondii G 8µm -

✓ Obligate r facultative aerobe

aerobe
88. How would you distinguish Pseudomonas species from E. coli glucose fermentation@
A. Gram staining A gram
rod shape
-

gram
-

O
C. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration
B. Morphology X rod
shape D. All of the above
89. Culture media for fungi
A. Potato dextrose agar C. Czapekdox agar
B. Sabouraud agar O
D. All of the above

90. Koettsdorfer number

A. Acid value C. Iodine number
B. Ester value OD. Saponification number

91. The term that is used for the bacteria which can withstand pasteurization but does not grow at higher
temperature
A. Thermophiles C. Thermoduric O
B. Extreme thermophiles D. Facultative thermophiles

92. Clostridium diphtheria requires

A. LJ medium O
C. Potassium tellurite medium
B. MacConkey medium D. PDA medium

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

93. Lepra bacillus is best cultured on

*

A. Armadillo’s brain -
C. Liver of guinea pig
OB. Foot pad of mice D. Any of the above

94. Cerebral malaria is caused by

A. Plasmodium vivox O
C. P. falsiparum
B. P. ovale D. P. malariae

95. The first phase of growth curve is

A. Log phase C. g phase
O
B. Lag phase D. Both A & B

96. Method employed in the assay of aldehyde content in volatile oil

A. Azeotropic method C. Bisulfite method
OB. Babcock method D. Gravimetric method

97. Measles vaccine is given to children at the age of

A. 1 year O
C. Between 9 months and 10 months
B. 7 months D. None of the above

98. Vaccines prepared from killed microbes

OA. Inactivated vaccine C. Autogenous vaccine
B. Attenuated vaccine live -
D. None of the above

99. Which of the following organism can infect humans if improperly cooked meat are used
I. Trichinella spiralis consumption of meat
-

II. Taenia saginata transmission feces

-

III. Taenia solium ingestion

-

undercooked pork
A. I & II g
C. I & III
B. II & III D. I, II & III

100. Primary standard for KMnO4

A. Anhydrous sodium bicarbonate O
C. Sodium oxalate
B. Potassium biphthalate D. Sodium tartrate

--- END---

PRACTICE SET – MODULE 6 Prepared by: Grace Marie A. Maclan, RPh, CPS, MSc
Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

QUALITY CONTROL 1 (DRUG TESTING AND ASSAYING)

1. Reaction of fat or oil to form soap and glycerol

A. Esterification
B. Hydrogenation
C. Neutralization
D. Saponification

2. Primary standard for KMnO4

A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate
B. Potassium biphthalate
C. Sodium oxalate
D. Sodium tartrate

3. Method employed in the assay of aldehyde content in volatile oils

A. Azeotropic method
B. Babcock method
C. Bisulfite method
D. Gravimetric method

4. Temperature for ignition described as dull red heat

A. 500-5500C
B. 550-7000C
C. 800-10000C
D. 1000-12000C

5. Component analyzed using Karl Fischer electrometric titration

A. Carbonate
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Water

6. Oil classification for IV of 112

A. Drying
B. Non-drying
C. Semi-drying
D. Volatile

7. Masking agent that screens cobalt, nickel, copper, and zinc

A. Ammonium fluoride
B. Potassium cyanide
C. Thioglycol
D. Triethanolamine

8. Method used in the assay of Menadione sodium sulfate (Vitamin K)

A. Acid-base titration
B. Complex-formation
C. Precipitation method
D. Redox titration (specifically Ceric sulfate method)

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 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

9. Color of phenolphthalein in caustic potash

A. Colorless
B. Pink (caustic potash is KOH)
C. Salmon
D. Yellow

10. Oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7

A. +3
B. +4
C. +5
D. +6

11. Number by which the molecular weight of phosphoric acid has to be divided to find the
equivalent weight
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3 (reactivity factor is based on number of replaceable hydrogen atoms)

12. Percent silica obtained from a 7.8525 g crude drug sample, if residue after incineration
was 0.1152 g and the residue after treatment of ash with diluted HCl was 0.0651 g
A. 0.638%
B. 0.829% (acid-insoluble ash represents silica)
C. 1.47%
D. 2.30%

13. Substances analyzed using iodometry

A. Compound salts
B. Metals
C. Oxidizing agents
D. Reducing agents

14. Method used in the assay of Sulfonamide

A. Chromatographic
B. Diazotization
C. Gravimetric
D. Titrimetric

15. Statement that does not apply to Cupric sulfate

A. Agent that gains electrons
B. An oxidizing agent
C. A reducing agent
D. Reduced in a redox reaction

16. Formed when a metal combines with a molecule containing one electron-donating
group
A. Chelate
B. Complex
C. Ligand
D. Sequestrant

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

17. Class of compounds for which the ester value cannot be determined
A. Alcohols (all other choices may contain esters)
B. Fats
C. Resins
D. Volatile oils

18. Koettsdorfer number

A. Acid value
B. Ester value
C. Iodine number
D. Saponification number

19. Apparatus for digesting organic nitrogen

A. Babcock bottle
B. Cassia flask
C. Kjeldahl flask
D. Soxhlet apparatus

20. Measure of the degree of unsaturation of fat samples

A. Acid number
B. Ester value
C. Iodine number
D. Saponification number

21. Method used to determine low concentration of water in a sample

A. Azeotropic method
B. Electrolytic hygrometry
C. Gravimetric
D. Karl Fischer method

22. Type of titration where the titrant is added in excess and the excess is back-titrated with
a second standard solution
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Residual
D. None of the above

23. Component that is most effectively extracted with concentrated alcohol

A. Acids
B. Fats
C. Resins
D. Volatile Oil

24. Indicator of choice in dichromate titrations

A. Diphenylamine
B. Orthophenanthroline
C. Potassium permanganate
D. Starch

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

25. Gram equivalent weight of KMnO4 (FW = 158.03) in an acidic medium

A. 29.60
B. 31.60 (valence of Mn in KMnO4 is +7 and reduction in an acidic medium leads to
valence of +2, thus h of Mn is 5)
C. 79.01
D. 158.03

26. Recommended indicator for the assay of alkaloids

A. Litmus paper
B. Methyl orange
C. Methyl red
D. Phenolphthalein

27. Analysis of acids using standard base solutions

A. Acidimetry
B. Alkalimetry
C. Precipitimetry
D. Redox

28. Classification of orthophenanthroline as an indicator

A. Acid-base
B. Adsorptive
C. General redox
D. Specific redox

29. Agent that gains electrons during a redox reaction

A. Complexing agent
B. Oxidizing agent
C. Precipitating agent
D. Reducing agent

30. The As2O3 (MW = 197.64) titer value of 0.2000N Iodine

A. 0.00198 g
B. 0.00988 g (valence of As in As2O3 is +3 and reduction leads to valence of +5, since
there are 2 As atoms in As2O3, h of As is 4; to determine titer value, use formula for
Normality or Molarity, and substitute 1 mL as volume of solution)
C. 0.00396 g
D. None of the above

31. Residual precipitimetry

A.
B. Mohr method
C.
D. None of the above

32. Method used in the assay of aryl amino-containing compounds

A. Ceric sulfate method
B. Diazotization method
C. Iodometric method
D. Permanganate method

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

33. Solution whose exact concentration is known

A. Standard solution
B. Titrant
C. Volumetric solution
D. All of the above (titrant is commonly a standard solution; standard solutions are
referred to as volumetric solutions in the USP)

34. Composition of the crude fiber content of a crude drug sample

A. Cellulose
B. Inorganic salts
C. Phytosterols
D. Silica

35. Method used in water hardness determination

A. Ceric sulfate method
B. Complexometric method
C. Precipitation method
D. Redox method

36. Reagent that gives a light yellow precipitate with an alkaloid

A.
B.
C.
D.

37. Analysis of a class of compound

A. Proximate
B. Specific
C. Ultimate
D. All of the above

38. Assay methods for alkaloids

A. Gravimetry
B. Spectrophotometry
C. Titrimetry
D. All of the above

39. Role of sodium thiosulfate in iodometry

A. Indicator
B. Oxidizing agent
C. Reducing agent
D. Analyte

40. Composition of sample in a one-sample double-indicator titration wherein the volume of

standard acid using methyl orange is greater than the volume of the same acid using
phenolphthalein
A. Pure hydroxide
B. Pure carbonate
C. Mixture of hydroxide and carbonate
D. Mixture of carbonate and bicarbonate

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

For nos, 41-44.

A 0.6890 g sample of cupric sulfate (MW = 249.7) was dissolved in water, acidified and KI
reagent added. The liberated iodine required 11.87 mL of 0.1634N sodium thiosulfate to reach
the endpoint.

41. Role of KI in the assay

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Source of iodine
D. Both B&C

42. Assay method used

A. Compleximetry
B. Iodimetry
C. Iodometry
D. Precipitation

43. Substance acted upon by sodium thiosulfate

A. Cupric sulfate
B. Iodine
C. Potassium iodide
D. Starch

44. Concentration of analyte in the sample

A. 35.1%
B. 70.3% (valence of Cu in CuSO4 is +2 and reduction leads to valence of +1, thus h
of Cu is 1)
C. 105.0%
D. None of the above

45. Type of assay employed in the determination of % MgO in a sample of Milk of Magnesia
using EDTA as titrant
A. Direct compleximetry
B. Indirect compleximetry
C. Residual compleximetry
D.

46. Normality of solution prepared by adding 95.0 g of KOH (MW = 56) to make a 1.5L solution
A. 1.13 N
B. 2.26 N
C. 3.39 N
D. None of the above

47. Type of titration involved in the assay of agua oxigenada

A. Complex formation
B. Neutralization
C. Precipitation
D. Redox

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

48. Used to liberate free alkaloids from alkaloidal salts

A. Acid
B. Base
C. Organic solvent
D. Water

49. Divisor of the molecular weight of a reducing agent to find the number of milliequivalents
A. Total number of electrons gained
B. Total number of electrons lost
C. Total positive or negative valence
D. Total valence of precipitated ion

50. Acid value of raw material weighing 1.230 g which required 30.0 mL of 0.110 N NaOH to
bring about the endpoint (NaOH = 40; KOH = 56.11)
A. 109.18 mg/g
B. 124.41 mg/g
C. 150.54 mg/g (use formula for acid value)
D. 157.72 mg/g

51. Water content of powder sample that weighs 0.350 g, if water equivalence factor of the
KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume of the reagent used was 9.2 mL
A. 0.0121%
B. 12.09% (use formula for % moisture, note that unit for water equivalence factor is
in mg H2O/mL KF reagent)
C. 42.32%
D. None of the above

52. Used to form a chelate

A. Amine group
B. Ethylenediamine group
C. Multivalent metal
D. Triple bond

53. Soluble constituents of a crude drug in a certain solvent

A. Ash
B. Crude fiber
C. Extractives
D. Unsaponifiable matter

54. Measure of the agreement among the values in a group of data

A. Accuracy
B. Mean
C. Precision
D. Standard deviation

55. Solvent used to dissolve unsaponifiable matter

A. 1N HCl
B. 1N NaOH
C. Hexane (organic solvent)
D. Water

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

56. Unsaponifiable matter from an animal source

A. Cellulose
B. Cholesterol
C. Extractive
D. Phytosterol

57. Refers to the solvent used in crude drug extraction

A. Eluate
B. Hydroalcohol
C. Menstruum
D. Vehicle

58. Apparatus used to determine the optical activity of volatile oils

A. Polarimeter
B. Pycnometer
C. Refractometer
D. Spectrophotometer

59. Process of determining the volume of standard solution required to reach the endpoint
with a known amount of substance being assayed
A. Neutralization
B. Oxidation
C. Standardization
D. Titration

60. Indicator of choice when titrating a weak acid and a strong base
A. Methyl orange
B. Methyl red
C. Methylene blue
D. Phenolphthalein

61. Type of alkaloidal assay where total alkaloids are determined

A. Exact
B. Proximate
C. Specific
D. Ultimate

62. Most effective substance for removing stains of iodine

A. Calamansi juice
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Sodium tartrate
D. Sodium thiosulfate

63. Classification of iodine as a component of titration reactions

A. Complexing agent
B. Oxidizing agent (iodine is the oxidized form, and iodide is the reduced form)
C. Precipitating agent
D. Reducing agent

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

64. Apparatus used to keep samples free from moisture

A. Desiccator
B. Incubator
C. Iodine flask
D. Refrigerator

65. Number of milligrams of KOH required to saponify the esters in 1 gram of fat or oil
A. Acid value
B. Ester value
C. Iodine value
D. Saponfication value

66. Orthophenanthroline as ferroin

A. Chelated form
B. Oxidized form
C. Precipitated form
D. Reduced form

67. Weight of substance chemically equivalent to 1 mL of a standard solution

A. Chemical factor
B. Gravimetric factor
C. Milliiequivalent
D. Titer value

68. One thousandth of a liter

A. One liter
B. One millilitre
C. Half a teaspoon
D. 5 gtts

69. Involves use of alcoholic KOH solution to neutralize the acid and saponify the ester of
one gram of oil or fat
A. Acid value
B. Ester value
C. Iodine value
D. Saponification value

70. Indicator of choice when titrating a strong base and a strong acid, EXCEPT
A. Methyl orange
B. Methyl red
C. Methylene blue
D. Phenolphthalein

71. One of the products formed in neutralization

A. Gas
B. Oil
C. Precipitate
D. Water

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

72. Normality of the NaOH solution, if 20.0 mL of the solution requires 24.0 mL of 0.5N HCl for
complete neutralization
A. 0.06N
B. 0.24N
C. 0.6N (use secondary standardization formula or C1V1 = C2V2
D. 12N

73. Basis for iodine value determination

A. Oxidation of FA by iodine
B. Analysis of iodine content of FA
C. Addition of iodine at the double bond of FA
D. All of the above

74. Type of analysis involved in the quantitative analysis of morphine

A. Composite analysis
B. Proximate analysis
C. Total analysis
D. Ultimate analysis

75. Normality of sulfuric acid (FW = 98 g/mole) solution containing 73.5 g per 500 mL solution
A. 1.0 N
B. 2.0 N
C. 2.5 N
D. 3.0 N (h of H2SO4 is equal to 2)

76. Specific method of water content determination official in the USP/NF

A. Azeotropic method
B. Dewpoint method
C. Gravimetric method
D. Karl Fischer method

77. Solvent used to test acid-insoluble ash

A. Acetic acid
B. Diluted hydrochloric acid
C. Diluted nitric acid
D. Diluted sulphuric acid

78. Properties of volatile oils, EXCEPT

A. Alkaline reaction (oils commonly contain fatty acids)
B. Congealing point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific gravity

79. Determination of the strength or potency of a drug or pharmaceutical product

A. Identification
B. Pharmaceutical assay
C. Pharmacopoeial test
D. Special methods

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

For nos. 80-83.

The following data where obtained in the analysis of a crude drug sample:

Wt. of empty crucible = 52.4520 g

Wt. of crucible and sample = 61.6840 g (9.232 g)
Wt. of crucible and Sx after drying to constant weight = 60.5200 g (8.068 g)
Wt. of crucible and residue left after incineration - 53.0050 g (0.553 g)

80. Moisture content of the sample in grams

A. 1.144
B. 1.164 (weight of sample minus weight after drying)
C. 1.265
D. None of the above

81. Percent moisture

A. 12.25%
B. 12.55%
C. 12.60%
D. None of the above

82. Total ash content

A. 0.553 g (ash refers to the residue left after incineration)
B. 7.515 g
C. 8.679 g
D. None of the above

83. Percent total ash

A. 5.99%
B. 8.14%
C. 9.40%
D. None of the above

84. Water content of an antibiotic powder, if 360 mg sample was used and volume of
KF reagent (water equivalence factor = 4.7) consumed was 10.1 mL
A. 0.13%
B. 1.3%
C. 13%
D. 1.3 x 104%

85. Chemical compound found in volatile oils, EXCEPT

A. Alcohol (example is menthol in peppermint oil)
B. Aldehyde (example is citronellal in lemongrass oil)
C. Ester (example is menthyl acetate in peppermint oil)
D. None of the above

86. Apparatus used in the assay of Peppermint spirit for its volatile oil content
A. Acetylization flask
B. Babcock bottle (calcium chloride is added to salt-out the volatile oil from spirits)
C. Cassia flask
D. Iodine flask

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 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

87. At the endpoint of titration, reactants must have the same

A. Number of equivalents
B. Number of moles
C. Volume
D. Weight

88. Moisture content of the sample analyzed using the azeotropic method, where a 35.0 g
sample was used and the water in the graduated tube measured 1.7 mL
A. 4.0%
B. 4.8%
C. 4.9%
D. 20.6%

89. Substance formed in the USP identification test for saccharin where resorcinol and
sulphuric acid are heated
A. Acrolein
B. Fluorescein
C. Phenolphthalein
D. Phenol sulphuric acid

90. Percent phenol of a volatile oil sample, if a 15.0 mL sample gives a 3.2 mL layer in the
graduated neck of the cassia flask after treatment with KOH solution
A. 21.0%
B. 73.0%
C. 79.0% (volume of phenol is the volume of sample minus volume of residual oil)
D. None of the above

91. Titrant in non-aqueous alkalimetry

A. Ammonium hydroxide
B. Perchloric acid
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Sodium methoxide

92. Volatile agent used in the azeotropic method of water determination

A. Acetone
B. Ethanol
C. Toluene
D. Xylene

93. Method used in the assay of ascorbic acid content in hexavitamin capsules or tablets
A. Cerimetric method (method of assay for ascorbic acid in hexavitamin capsule is
not really classified as cerimetric, but this is the section where it is included in the
Jenkin s reference book)
B. Iodimetric method
C. Iodometric method
D. Permanganate method

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UST FACULTY OF PHARMACY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

94. Substance being analyzed

A. Analyte
B. Chemical
C. Sample
D. Titrant

95. A reaction is led to completion by

A. Formation of ash
B. Formation of gas
C. Production of slightly-ionized molecule
D. All of the above

96. Purity of the sample, if a 1.5659 g sample analyzed iodometrically required 26.6 mL of
0.1120 N sodium thiosulfate to reach the endpoint (Note: Each mL of 0.1N sodium
thiosulfate is equivalent to 49.03 mg of potassium dichromate.)
A. 93.28% (mEW of analyte may be determined using titer value; mEW is equal to
weight in grams divided by concentration in normality)
B. 93.40%
C. 93.50%
D. 95.33%

97. Substance used to form a film ov

method
A. Nitric acid
B. Nitrobenzene
C. Sodium chloride
D. Triethanolamine

98. Concentration expression represented as the number of equivalents of solute in one liter
solution
A. Molality
B. Molarity
C. Normality
D. Titer

99. Components of a blank assay, EXCEPT

A. Indicator
B. Reagent
C. Sample
D. Solvent

100. Limit for the difference between 2 consecutive weighings when drying to constant
weight
A. nmt 0.2 mg/g of substance
B. nmt 0.5 mg/g of substance
C. nmt 1.0 mg/g of substance
D. None of the above

who gives generously to all without reproac

James 1:5 (ESV)

Course Audit 2020-2021/gccastro

 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

QUALITY CONTROL II with INSTRUMENTATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item
by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. A defect due to substandard weight is classified as _____.

A. attribute non-measurable / descriptive C. performance
B. ocular visible D. internal

2. Biological test/s
A. sterility C. microbiological
B. pyrogens D. all of the above

3. Materials to be sampled include the following, except

A. final products C. intermediate products
B. records D. raw materials

4. A wrong dosage instruction on the label is considered to be a _____ defect.

A. critical C. minor
B. major D. attribute

5. The process of removing an appropriate number of items from a population in order to make
inferences of the entire population
A. sampling C. statistic
B. inspection D. validation

6. Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) assay method is applicable in the determination of

A. pyrogens C. microorganisms
B. chemical impurities D. all of the above

7. Jars, bottles and tubes are considered _____ packaging components.

A. primary C. auxiliary
B. secondary D. none of the above

8. Biological reactivity test that uses a layer of cells in a dish with a cushion layer protecting the cells
from damage.
A. elution test C. direct contact test
B. agar diffusion test D. implantation test

9. In one shipment of liquid glucose, three different batch numbers were noted. Therefore, _____
receiving numbers should be assigned.
A. one C. three
B. two D. none of the above

10. Tests using rabbits as test animals, except

A. intracutaneous test C. insulin
B. pyrogen test D. protamine sulfate pickled sheep’s eye

11. All materials placed in the dispensing area should have a/an _____ sticker.
A. approved C. reject
B. quarantine D. reprocessed

12. A _____ sampling may be applied to materials delivered by a reliable supplier.

A. tightened REDUCED ? C. strict
B. normal D. none of the above

13. If an AQL assigned is 23, the defects expected to be seen in samples are
A. serious C. critical
B. major D. minor
low AQL: for critical and major defects

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

14. The instrument used to determine the tightness of caps is a_____.

A. torque tester C. friabilator
B. caliper D. hardness tester

15. Four sacks of garlic powder is delivered to the warehouse, how many sacks should be sampled?
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5

16. One batch may be broken up into several _____.

A. ingredients C. components
B. lots D. Products

17. The process of withdrawing gross samples for in-process materials

A. time basis C. n plan
B. sampling plan D. military standard

18. The personnel preparing the RTR of the material

A. QC analyst C. warehouse personnel
B. QC manager D. delivery personnel

B 19. Re-assay date of a Carmine (E120) food color.

A. monthly C. every year
B. every 6 months D. every 2 years

20. Toxins released by some microorganisms that can cause febrile reactions
A. parenterals C. endotoxins
B. pyrogens D. contaminants

B 21. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in

A. 5 units C. 20 units
B. 10 units D. 30 units

22. Parenterals are filled into sterile containers inside _____.

A. release area C. aseptic rooms
B. quarantine area D. packaging area

23. The indicator used in Powdered glass test

A. methylene blue C. methyl orange
B. methyl red D. methyl violet

24. The _____ operation unites the product, container and label to form a single finished unit.
A. manufacturing C. packaging
B. filling D. quality control

25. At the end of the packaging operation, all unused and wasted labels should be properly ____.
A. tested C. reconciled
B. cleaned D. returned

26. The recommended maximum limit for overage of vitamins is _____.

A. 10% C. 90%
B. 30% D. 95%

27. Loss of _____ of labeled potency during storage is considered normal at the end of validity of the
product.
A. 10% C. 90%
B. 30% D. 95%

28. The _____ is used as the control sample when a test is done on the complaint sample.
A. retention sample C. expired drug product
B. reference standard D. random sample

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

29. Drug products for stability studies are stored in _____.

A. intended pack size C. intended packaging container
B. any packaging container D. heat-stable packaging container

30. A specific excess of a material added to the product during manufacture to compensate loss
A. stability overage C. production sample
B. manufacturing overage D. reference standard

31. The expiration date is a direct application of the knowledge gained from _____.
A. raw material testing C. in-process quality control
B. stability testing D. all of the above

32. A chart that makes use of data from measurable quality characteristics is called _____.
A. control chart C. variable chart
B. attribute chart D. fraction defective chart

33. Thiamine and riboflavin are assayed by _____.

A. Fluorometry C. Atomic Emission Spectrophotometry
B. Turbidimetry D. Nephelometry
34. Absolute unit to express radioactivity
A. faraday C. coulomb
B. curie D. ampere

35. The variations in the amount of defectives present can be shown in a _____.
A. P chart C. R chart
B. X chart D. Q chart

36. A process is in control if the values obtained are within _____ standard deviations.
A. two C. four
B. three D. none of the above

37. The comparison of certain attributes and dimensions of a product against a standard to find out
if the product is within the prescribed limit.
A. sampling C. analysis
B. inspection D. disposition

38. Type of QC equipment for measuring the absorbance of substances between regions 200-750
nm
A. colorimeter C. fluorometer
B. UV-Vis spectrophotometer D. infrared

39. The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium ions quantitatively
A. ion chamber C. colorimeter
B. UV-Vis spectrophotometer D. flame photometer

40. The most current apparatus being used for the determination of drug mixtures and components
A. NMR C. IR
B. HPLC D. GC

41. Lamp used to provide visible light

A. deuterium UV light C. tungsten
B. hydrogen D. two of the above

42. At 225 nm, what type of cuvette should be used?

A. optical glass 340-2500 nm C. plastic 380-780 nm
B. PVC D. quartz 190-2500
43. The fingerprint of a molecule is determined in the region of the specimen from
A. 3-8 µm C. 8-15 µm
B. 3-15 µm D. none of the above

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

44. The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation
in the UV or IR region is
A. moiety C. chromophore
B. carbonyl D. nitrile

45. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is _____ by particles of a turbid solution
or suspension.
A. absorbed C. reflected
B. transmitted D. diffracted

46. Instruments for radiation measurement

A. Geiger-Muller counter C. Proportional counter
B. Scintillation detector D. any of the above

47. This technique of IR sample preparation is cutting or evaporating the material into thin sheets
A. mull C. solution
B. pellet D. film

48. Mobile phase in Gas Chromatography

A. gas C. cellulose
B. liquid substance D. chromatogram

49. Optical activity is measured using

A. polarimeter C. pH meter
B. refractometer D. potentiometer

50. The type of electromagnetic radiation used in NMR

A. Radio C. UV
B. Microwave D. IR

51. Potentiometry finds application in _____.

A. bioassay C. pH determination
B. EDTA titration D. microbial assays

52. Safety or toxicity testing for infusion plastic sets is conducted using
A. rabbits C. white mice
B. dogs D. pigeons

53. Used in the quantitative analysis of calcium ions

A. UV-vis C. MES
B. AES D. IR

54. pH is usually measured using _____.

A. platinum electrode C. mercury electrode
B. glass electrode D. calomel electrode

55. One of the fundamental laws in spectrophotometry

A. Law of mass action C. Boyle’s law
B. Beer’s law D. Arrhenius equation

56. Test animal used in the bioassay of parathyroid hormone

A. cats C. dogs
B. pigeons D. guinea pigs

57. NMR is usually employed for

A. migration rate determination C. identification of compound
B. assays D. Rf values

58. Mineral oils is used in IR as

A. solubilizing agent C. humectant
B. buffer D. mulling agent

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

59. Marked changes in the pH of a solution maybe prevented by

A. antioxidants C. buffers
B. chelating agents D. indicators

60. The status of a material that is kept in isolation and is not available for release or use is termed
A. quarantine C. Both A and B
B. quality control D. none of the above

61. The risk of rejecting a good batch

A. alpha error PRODUCER’S RISK C. consumer’s risk
B. beta error D. all of the above

62. A method used to assay Vitamin B6 and calcium panthothenate is _____.

A. fluorometry C. iodometry
B. HPLC new notes ni maam says D. turbidimetry
hplc
63. Product quality test for tablets include the following, except
A. tablet uniformity C. bioavailability
B. disintegration D. breaking force

64. Retention or preservation samples of all pharmaceutical products should be monitored for signs
of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is
A. 1 year after expiration date C. 2 years after production
B. 2 years after expiration date D. 1 year after distribution

65. IR spectrophotometry is used to ensure which of the following quality of the drug product
A. identity C. potency
B. toxicity D. bioavailability

66. Used to assess durability of tablets during shipping

A. Stokes tester C. Roche friabilator
B. UV-Vis spectrophotometer D. Disintegration apparatus

67. Testing of the raw materials, packaging materials, in-process and finished products in the
laboratory to determine if they meet the standards is called _____.
A. Quality Assurance C. cGMP
B. Quality Control D. ISO

68. Type of sampling plan that consists of master tables and interpretation of findings is
A. square root system C. 100% inspection
B. military standard D. sampling inspection

69. The inspection and checking section of Quality Control is responsible for
A. sampling of raw materials C. chemical assays
B. sterility testing of products D. pyrogen testing

70. Material controlled by the QC

A. drug substance C. packaging materials
B. excipients D. all of the above

71. Stokes-Monsanto tester is used to measure _____.

A. tablet friability C. tablet breaking force
B. tablet thickness D. tablet disintegration

72. Water attack test is used in this type of glass container

A. Type I C. Type III
B. Type II D. Type NP

73. The number of complete cycles that pass a given point per unit time
A. wavelength C. radiant energy

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

B. spectrum D. frequency

74. Generally used for concentrated sulfuric acid

A. Type I glass C. Type III glass
B. Type II glass D. Type NP glass

75. Beer’s plot in the sample is prepared to determine

A. absorbance of sample C. concentration of sample
B. wavelength to be used D. pathlength to be used

76. Type of container that is impenetrable by air

A. well-closed C. hermetic
B. tight D. child-resistant

77. What is added to the desiccator to maintain the humidity inside during moisture permeability
test?
A. anhydrous calcium chloride C. silica gel
B. glass beads D. saturated sodium chloride solution

78. Which is not used in Microbial Enumeration Test?

A. P. aeruginosa C. B. subtilis
B. A. brasiliensis D. E. coli

79. Saboraud dextrose agar is used to grow

A. fungi C. virus
B. bacteria D. prions

80. Temperature at which disintegration test is done

A. 370C C. 36-370C
B. 35-390C D. 36.5-37.50C

81. A type of sampling which permits second level sampling if sample fails in the first sampling
A. single C. multiple
B. double D. none of the above

82. The Pfizer tester which measures the force required to break a tablet is used to determine ____.
A. breaking force C. friability
B. thickness D. disintegration
83. According to USP, which is not a universal test for tablets?
A. definition C. identification
B. impurities D. disintegration

84. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of parenteral solutions

A. sterile purified water C. water for injection
B. purified water D. sterile water for injection

85. Long-term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room temperature conditions
for Climatic Zone IV is carried out at _____.
A. 23±20C, 60±5% RH C. 30±20C, 65±5% RH
B. 25±20C, 60±5% RH D. 40±20C, 75±5% RH

86. The dye used in the leaker test is _____.

A. methylene blue C. phenolphthalein
B. thymol blue D. none of the above

87. The MIL-STD-105D is used in sampling for _____.

A. attributes C. defects
B. variables D. all of the above

88. The upper control limit if mean is 27.5mm and one standard deviation is 0.625.
A. 25.625 mm C. 28.125 mm UCL = Mean + (3*std. dev)
B. 26.875 mm D. 29.375 mm LCL = Mean + (3*std. dev.)
QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC
Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

89. Loss on Drying, USP can be used to test

A. moisture permeability C. impurities
B. leak D. volatile content

90. Rotatory power is measured using a _____.

A. polarimeter C. pH meter
B. refractometer D. polarograph

91. HPLC is a type of chromatography referring to

A. High Pressure Liquid Chromatography C. High Performance Liquid Chromatography
B. High Purity Liquid Chromatography D. both A and C

92. Cimetidine Tablet has a dissolution specification of nlt Q+5%. Using 75% as Q, the dissolution limit
is not less than
A. 70% C. 80%
B. 75% D. 85%

93. Dissolution testing is an example of a/an

A. pharmacopoeial standard C. in-house standard
B. regulatory standard D. cGMP standard

94. Ability of an assay procedure to elicit test results that are directly proportional to the
concentration of the analyte in the sample
A. specificity C. linearity
B. robustness D. selectivity

95. Official test for uniformity of dosage units of capsules containing active drug that consists less than
25% of the total formulation > 25 = weight variation
A. weight variation test C. dissolution test
B. content uniformity D. tablet weight determination

96. Quality control tests on semi-solid preparations, except

A. pH C. microbial content
B. particle size D. bacterial endotoxin test

97. Amount of laboratory sample to be taken, if quantity required for one complete analysis of
Atorvastatin is 35 mg
A. 35 mg3 times for laboratory sample C. 105 mg
B. 70 mg D. 140 mg

98. This is a performance test for oral drug products

A. dissolution C. deliverable volume
B. friability D. pH

99. Immersion fluid used in Disintegration test for enteric-coated tablets

A. water C. intestinal fluid
B. gastric fluid D. all of the above

100. In normal phase chromatography

A. stationary phase and mobile phase are polar
solvent: nonpolar
B. stationary phase is non-polar, mobile phase is polar
column: polar
C. stationary phase is polar, mobile phase is non-polar
D. stationary phase and mobile phase are non-polar

“If any of you lacks wisdom, he should ask God, who gives generously to all without finding fault, and it will be
given to him.”
James 1:5 (NIV)

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

43. The ff. will react with water to form basic solution
A. sulfur trioxide C. nitrogen dioxide
B. ammonia D. carbon dioxide

44. The only official compound of Titanium which is used as a solar ray protectant
A. TiO2 C. TiO3
B. Ti2O3 D. TiO

45. Chemical formula of mineral chameleon:

A. K2SO3 C. K2Cr2O7
B. KMnO4 D. KCN

46. Water that is used for extemporaneous compounding is

A. Purified Water USP C. Water USP
B. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection D. Water for Injection USP

47. Household ammonia which is also known as 16 degrees ammonia is:

A. 10% C. 36%
B. 28% D. 48%

48. Peroxides produce perchromic acid from acid chromate solution and colors ether layer:
A. violet C. orange
B. deep blue D. green

49. A solution with same osmotic pressure as blood is a/an _____solution:

A. hypertonic C. isotonic
B. ionic D. hypotonic

50. A solution containing the maximum amount of solute the solvent can dissolve at a given temp.:
A. unsaturated solution C. supersaturated solution
B. saturated solution D. concentrated solution

51. The ff. is/are polar solvents except:

A. benzene C. methanol
B. methanol and water D. water

52. A solution whose exact concentration is known:

A. standard solution C. normal solution
B. molar solution D. saturated solution

53. A powder which absorbs moisture from the air and liquefy in the water it absorbed:
A. hygroscopic C. efflorescent
B. deliquescent D. none of these

54. This is essentially a mixture of various silicates:

A. marble C. sand
B. glass D. brick

55. The molar volume of a gas at STP is:

A. 224.0 mL C. 2.4 Liters
B. 22.4 Liters D. 22.4 mL

56. Members of group IV anions, except:

A. S2O3-2 C. AsO3-3
B. NO3- D. CrO4-2

PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY I ASSOC. PROF. MA. CRISTINA C. DORIA, PHD, RPH

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

QUALITY CONTROL I

Course Audit 2019-2020

 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

QUALITY CONTROL 1 (DRUG TESTING AND ASSAYING)

1. Reaction of fat or oil to form soap and glycerol

A. Esterification C. Neutralization
B. Hydrogenation D. Saponification

2. Primary standard for KMnO4

A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate C. Sodium oxalate
B. Potassium biphthalate D. Sodium tartrate

3. Method employed in the assay of aldehyde content in volatile oils

A. Azeotropic method C. Bisulfite method
B. Babcock method D. Gravimetric method

4. Temperature for ignition described as dull red heat

A. 500-5500C C. 800-10000C
B. 550-7000C D. 1000-12000C

5. Component analyzed using Karl Fischer electrometric titration

A. Carbonate C. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen D. Water

6. Oil classification for IV of 112

A. Drying C. Semi-drying
B. Non-drying D. Volatile

B 7. Masking agent that screens cobalt, nickel, copper, and zinc

A. Ammonium fluoride C. Thioglycol
B. Potassium cyanide D. Triethanolamine

8. Method used in the assay of Menadione sodium sulfate (Vitamin K)

A. Acid-base titration C. Precipitation method
B. Complex-formation D. Redox titration

9. Color of phenolphthalein in caustic potash

A. Colorless C. Salmon
B. Pink D. Yellow

10. Oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7

A. +3 C. +5
B. +4 D. +6

11. Number by which the molecular weight of phosphoric acid has to be divided to find the equivalent
weight
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D. 3

12. Percent silica obtained from a 7.8525 g crude drug sample, if residue after incineration was 0.1152 g
and the residue after treatment of ash with diluted HCl was 0.0651 g
A. 0.638% C. 1.47%
B. 0.829% D. 2.30%

13. Substances analyzed using iodometry

A. Compound salts C. Oxidizing agents
B. Metals D. Reducing agents

14. Method used in the assay of Sulfonamide

A. Chromatographic C. Gravimetric
B. Diazotization D. Titrimetric

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

15. Statement that does not apply to Cupric sulfate

A. Agent that gains electrons C. A reducing agent
B. An oxidizing agent D. Reduced in a redox reaction

16. Formed when a metal combines with a molecule containing one electron-donating group
A. Chelate C. Ligand
B. Complex D. Sequestrant

17. Class of compounds for which the ester value cannot be determined
A. Alcohols C. Resins
B. Fats D. Volatile oils

18. Koettsdorfer number

A. Acid value C. Iodine number
B. Ester value D. Saponification number

19. Apparatus for digesting organic nitrogen

A. Babcock bottle C. Kjehdahl flask
B. Cassia flask D. Soxhlet apparatus

20. Measure of the degree of unsaturation of fat samples

A. Acid number C. Iodine number
B. Ester value D. Saponification number

21. Method used to determine low concentration of water in a sample

A. Azeotropic method C. Gravimetric
B. Electrolytic hygrometry D. Karl Fischer method

22. Type of titration where the titrant is added in excess and the excess is back-titrated with a second
standard solution
A. Direct C. Residual
B. Indirect D. None of the above

23. Component that is most effectively extracted with concentrated alcohol

A. Acids C. Resins
B. Fats D. Volatile Oil

24. Indicator of choice in dichromate titrations

A. Diphenylamine C. Potassium permanganate
B. Orthophenanthroline D. Starch

25. Gram equivalent weight of KMnO4 (FW = 158.03) in an acidic medium

A. 29.60 C. 79.01
B. 31.60 D. 158.03

26. Recommended indicator for the assay of alkaloids

A. Litmus paper C. Methyl red
B. Methyl orange D. Phenolphthalein

27. Analysis of acids using standard base solutions

A. Acidimetry C. Precipitimetry
B. Alkalimetry D. Redox

28. Classification of orthophenanthroline as an indicator

A. Acid-base C. General redox
B. Adsorptive D. Specific redox

29. Agent that gains electrons during a redox reaction

A. Complexing agent C. Precipitating agent
B. Oxidizing agent D. Reducing agent

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

30. The As2O3 (MW = 197.64) titer value of 0.2000N Iodine

A. 0.00198 g C. 0.00396 g
B. 0.00988 g D. None of the above

31. Residual precipitimetry

A. Fajan’s method C. Volhard’s method
B. Mohr method D. None of the above

32. Method used in the assay of aryl amino-containing compounds

A. Ceric sulfate method C. Iodometric method
B. Diazotization method D. Permanganate method

33. Solution whose exact concentration is known

A. Standard solution C. Volumetric solution
B. Titrant D. All of the above

34. Composition of the crude fiber content of a crude drug sample

A. Cellulose C. Phytosterols
B. Inorganic salts D. Silica

35. Method used in water hardness determination

A. Ceric sulfate method C. Precipitation method
B. Complexometric method D. Redox method

36. Reagent that gives a light yellow precipitate with an alkaloid

A. Karl’s Fischer’s reagent C. Valser’s reagent
B. Mayer’s reagent D. Wagner’s reagent

37. Analysis of a class of compound

A. Proximate C. Ultimate
B. Specific D. All of the above

38. Assay methods for alkaloids

A. Gravimetry C. Titrimetry
B. Spectrophotometry D. All of the above

39. Role of sodium thiosulfate in iodometry

A. Indicator C. Reducing agent
B. Oxidizing agent D. Analyte

40. Composition of sample in a one-sample double-indicator titration wherein the volume of standard acid
using methyl orange is greater than the volume of the same acid using phenolphthalein
A. Pure hydroxide
B. Pure carbonate
C. Mixture of hydroxide and carbonate
D. Mixture of carbonate and bicarbonate

For nos, 41-44.

A 0.6890 g sample of cupric sulfate (MW = 249.7) was dissolved in water, acidified and KI reagent added.
The liberated iodine required 11.87 mL of 0.1634N sodium thiosulfate to reach the endpoint.

41. Role of KI in the assay

A. Oxidizing agent C. Source of iodine
B. Reducing agent D. Both B&C

42. Assay method used

A. Compleximetry C. Iodometry
B. Iodimetry D. Precipitation

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

43. Substance acted upon by sodium thiosulfate

A. Cupric sulfate C. Potassium iodide
B. Iodine D. Starch

44. Concentration of analyte in the sample

A. 35.1% C. 105.0%
B. 70.3% D. None of the above

45. Type of assay employed in the determination of % MgO in a sample of Milk of Magnesia using EDTA as
titrant
A. Direct compleximetry C. Residual compleximetry
B. Indirect compleximetry D. Volhard’s method

46. Normality of solution prepared by adding 95.0 g of KOH (MW = 56) to make a 1.5L solution
A. 1.13 N C. 3.39 N
B. 2.26 N D. None of the above

47. Type of titration involved in the assay of agua oxigenada

A. Complex formation C. Precipitation
B. Neutralization D. Redox

48. Used to liberate free alkaloids from alkaloidal salts

A. Acid C. Organic solvent
B. Base D. Water

49. Divisor of the molecular weight of a reducing agent to find the number of milliequivalents
A. Total number of electrons gained
B. Total number of electrons lost
C. Total positive or negative valence
D. Total valence of precipitated ion

50. Acid value of raw material weighing 1.230 g which required 30.0 mL of 0.110 N NaOH to bring about
the endpoint (NaOH = 40; KOH = 56.11)
A. 109.18 mg/g C. 150.54 mg/g
B. 124.41 mg/g D. 157.72 mg/g

51. Water content of powder sample that weighs 0.350 g, if water equivalence factor of the KF reagent
was 4.6 and the volume of the reagent used was 9.2 mL
A. 0.0121% C. 42.32%
B. 12.09% D. None of the above

52. Used to form a chelate

A. Amine group C. Multivalent metal
B. Ethylenediamine group D. Triple bond

53. Soluble constituents of a crude drug in a certain solvent

A. Ash C. Extractives
B. Crude fiber D. Unsaponifiable matter

54. Measure of the agreement among the values in a group of data

A. Accuracy C. Precision
B. Mean D. Standard deviation

55. Solvent used to dissolve unsaponifiable matter

A. 1N HCl C. Hexane
B. 1N NaOH D. Water

56. Unsaponifiable matter from an animal source

A. Cellulose C. Extractive
B. Cholesterol D. Phytosterol

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

57. Refers to the solvent used in crude drug extraction

A. Eluate C. Menstruum
B. Hydroalcohol D. Vehicle

58. Apparatus used to determine the optical activity of volatile oils

A. Polarimeter C. Refractometer
B. Pycnometer D. Spectrophotometer

59. Process of determining the volume of standard solution required to reach the endpoint with a known
amount of substance being assayed
A. Neutralization C. Standardization
B. Oxidation D. Titration

60. Indicator of choice when titrating a weak acid and a strong base
A. Methyl orange C. Methylene blue
B. Methyl red D. Phenolphthalein

61. Type of alkaloidal assay where total alkaloids are determined

A. Exact C. Specific
B. Proximate D. Ultimate

62. Most effective substance for removing stains of iodine

A. Calamansi juice C. Sodium tartrate
B. Hydrogen peroxide D. Sodium thiosulfate

63. Classification of iodine as a component of titration reactions

A. Complexing agent C. Precipitating agent
B. Oxidizing agent D. Reducing agent

64. Apparatus used to keep samples free from moisture

A. Dessicator C. Iodine flask
B. Incubator D. Refrigerator

65. Number of milligrams of KOH required to saponify the esters in 1 gram of fat or oil
A. Acid value C. Iodine value
B. Ester value D. Saponfication value

66. Orthophenanthroline as ferroin

A. Chelated form C. Precipitated form
B. Oxidized form D. Reduced form

67. Weight of substance chemically equivalent to 1 mL of a standard solution

A. Chemical factor C. Milliiequivalent
B. Gravimetric factor D. Titer value

68. One thousandth of a liter

A. One liter C. Half a teaspoon
B. One millilitre D. 5 gtts

69. Involves use of alcoholic KOH solution to neutralize the acid and saponify the ester of one gram of oil
or fat
A. Acid value C. Iodine value
B. Ester value D. Saponification value

70. Indicator of choice when titrating a strong base and a strong acid
A. Methyl orange C. Methylene blue
B. Methyl red D. Phenolphthalein

71. One of the products formed in neutralization

A. Gas C. Precipitate
B. Oil D. Water

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

72. Normality of the NaOH solution, if 20.0 mL of the solution requires 24.0 mL of 0.5N HCl for complete
neutralization
A. 0.06N C. 0.6N
B. 0.24N D. 12N

73. Basis for iodine value determination

A. Oxidation of FA by iodine
B. Analysis of iodine content of FA
C. Addition of iodine at the double bond of FA
D. All of the above

74. Type of analysis involved in the quantitative analysis of morphine

A. Composite analysis C. Total analysis
B. Proximate analysis D. Ultimate analysis

75. Normality of sulphuric acid (FW = 98 g/mole) solution containing 73.5 g per 500 mL solution
A. 1.0 N C. 2.5 N
B. 2.0 N D. 3.0 N

76. Specific method of water content determination official in the USP/NF

A. Azeotropic method C. Gravimetric method
B. Dewpoint method D. Karl Fischer method

77. Solvent used to test acid-insoluble ash

A. Acetic acid C. Diluted nitric acid
B. Diluted hydrochloric acid D. Diluted sulphuric acid

78. Properties of volatile oils, EXCEPT

A. Alkaline reaction C. Refractive index
B. Congealing point D. Specific gravity

79. Determination of the strength or potency of a drug or pharmaceutical product

A. Identification C. Pharmacopoeial test
B. Pharmaceutical assay D. Special methods

For nos. 80-83.

The following data where obtained in the analysis of a crude drug sample:
Wt. of empty crucible = 52.4520 g
Wt. of crucible and sample = 61.6840 g
Wt. of crucible and Sx after drying to constant weight = 60.5200 g
Wt. of crucible and residue left after incineration - 53.0050 g

80. Moisture content of the sample in grams

A. 1.144 C. 1.265
B. 1.164 D. None of the above

81. Percent moisture

A. 12.25% C. 12.60%
B. 12.55% D. None of the above

82. Total ash content

A. 0.553 g C. 8.679 g
B. 7.515 g D. None of the above

83. Percent total ash

A. 5.99% C. 9.40%
B. 8.14% D. None of the above

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

84. Water content of an antibiotic powder, if 360 mg sample was used and volume of KF reagent (water
equivalence factor = 4.7) consumed was 10.1 mL
A. 0.13% C. 13%
B. 1.3% D. 1.3 x 104%

85. Chemical compound found in volatile oils, EXCEPT

A. Alcohol C. Ester
B. Aldehyde D. None of the above

86. Apparatus used in the assay of Peppermint spirit for its volatile oil content
A. Acetylization flask C. Cassia flask
B. Babcock bottle D. Iodine flask

87. At the endpoint of titration, reactants must have the same

A. Number of equivalents C. Volume
B. Number of moles D. Weight

88. Moisture content of the sample analyzed using the azeotropic method, where a 35.0 g sample was
used and the water in the graduated tube measured 1.7 mL
A. 4.0% C. 4.9%
B. 4.8% D. 20.6%

89. Substance formed in the USP identification test for saccharin where resorcinol and sulphuric acid are
heated
A. Acrolein C. Phenolphthalein
B. Fluorescein D. Phenol sulphuric acid

90. Percent phenol of a volatile oil sample, if a 15.0 mL sample gives a 3.2 mL layer in the graduated neck
of the cassia flask after treatment with KOH solution
A. 21.0% C. 79.0%
B. 73.0% D. None of the above

91. Titrant in non-aqueous alkalimetry

A. Ammonium hydroxide C. Sodium hydroxide
B. Perchloric acid D. Sodium methoxide

92. Volatile agent used in the azeotropic method of water determination

A. Acetone C. Toluene
B. Ethanol D. Xylene

93. Method used in the assay of ascorbic acid content in hexavitamin capsules or tablets
A. Cerimetric method C. Iodometric method
B. Iodimetric method D. Permanganate method

94. Substance being analyzed

A. Analyte C. Sample
B. Chemical D. Titrant

95. A reaction is led to completion by

A. Formation of ash
B. Formation of gas
C. Production of slightly-ionized molecule
D. All of the above

96. Purity of the sample, if a 1.5659 g sample analyzed iodometrically required 26.6 mL of 0.1120 N sodium
thiosulfate to reach the endpoint (Note: Each mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate is equivalent to 49.03 mg of
potassium dichromate.)
A. 93.28% C. 93.50%
B. 93.40% D. 95.33%

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

97. Substance used to form a film over the precipitated silver chloride particles in Volhard’s method
A. Nitric acid C. Sodium chloride
B. Nitrobenzene D. Triethanolamine

98. Concentration expression represented as the number of equivalents of solute in one liter solution
A. Molality C. Normality
B. Molarity D. Titer

99. Components of a blank assay, EXCEPT

A. Indicator C. Sample
B. Reagent D. Solvent

100. Limit for the difference between 2 consecutive weighings when drying to constant weight
A. nmt 0.2 mg/g of substance C. nmt 1.0 mg/g of substance
B. nmt 0.5 mg/g of substance D. None of the above

“If any of you lacks wisdom, let him ask GOD,

who gives generously to all without reproach, and it will be give him.”
James 1:5 (ESV)

QUALITY CONTROL I ASST. PROF GINA C.CASTRO, PHD

Course Audit 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

QUALITY CONTROL II

Course Audit 2019-2020

 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

QUALITY CONTROL II with INSTRUMENTATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item
by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. A defect due to substandard weight is classified as _____.

A. attribute C. performance
B. ocular D. internal

2. Biological test/s
A. sterility C. microbiological
B. pyrogens D. all of the above

3. Materials to be sampled include the following, except

A. final products C. intermediate products
B. records D. raw materials

4. A wrong dosage instruction on the label is considered to be a _____ defect.

A. critical C. minor
B. major D. attribute

5. The process of removing an appropriate number of items from a population in order to make
inferences of the entire population
A. sampling C. statistic
B. inspection D. validation

6. Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) assay method is applicable in the determination of

A. pyrogens C. microorganisms
B. chemical impurities D. all of the above

7. Jars, bottles and tubes are considered _____ packaging components.

A. primary C. auxiliary
B. secondary D. none of the above

8. A material warehouse is subdivided into several sections to avoid

A. traffic C. inconvenience
B. mix-ups D. contamination

9. In one shipment of liquid glucose, three different batch numbers were noted. Therefore, _____
receiving numbers should be assigned.
A. one C. three
B. two D. none of the above

10. A copy of the final proof is kept by the QC Department as

A. final copy C. souvenir
B. standard D. retention

11. All materials placed in the dispensing area should have a _____ sticker.
A. approved C. reject
B. quarantine D. reprocessed

12. A _____ sampling may be applied to materials delivered by a reliable supplier.

A. tightened C. strict
B. normal D. none of the above

13. To determine the performance of a cellophane or foil during actual run, a ____ is performed.
A. crimping C. stress crack
B. vapor transmission test D. leak test

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

14. The instrument used to determine the tightness of caps is a_____.

A. torque tester C. friabilator
B. caliper D. hardness tester

15. The types of contamination are _____.

A. particulate C. microbial
B. cross D. all of the above

16. One batch may be broken up into several _____.

A. ingredients C. components
B. lots D. Products

17. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of

A. 0.2 µm C. 1 µm
B. 0.5 µm D. none of the above

A 18. The temperature at which the refrigerator is thermostatically maintained

A. 360F to 460F C. 460F to 590F
B. -13 F to 14 F
0 0 D. -230F to 340F

19. In the microbial assay of antibiotics, the microorganism used for Pen G is _____.
A. S. aureus C. E. coli
B. P. aeruginosa D. B. subtilis

20. Toxins released by some microorganisms that can cause febrile reactions
A. parenterals C. endotoxins
B. pyrogens D. contaminants

B 21. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in

A. 5 units C. 20 units
B. 10 units D. 30 units

22. Parenterals are filled into sterile containers inside _____.

A. release area C. aseptic rooms
B. quarantine area D. packaging area

23. Gas used in gas sterilization

A. oxygen C. ethylene oxide
B. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen

24. The _____ operation unites the product, container and label to form a single finished unit.
A. manufacturing C. packaging
B. filling D. quality control

25. At the end of the packaging operation, all unused and wasted labels should be properly ____.
A. tested C. reconciled
B. cleaned D. returned

26. The recommended maximum limit for overage of vitamins is _____.

A. 10% C. 90%
B. 30% D. 95%

27. Loss of _____ of labeled potency during storage is considered normal at the end of validity of the
product.
A. 10% C. 90%
B. 30% D. 95%

28. The _____ is used as the control sample when a test is done on the complaint sample.
A. preservation sample C. expired drug product
B. reference standard D. random sample

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

29. Drug products for stability studies are stored in _____.

A. intended pack size C. intended packaging container
B. any packaging container D. heat-stable packaging container

30. A specific excess of a material added to the product during manufacture to compensate loss
A. stability overage C. production sample
B. manufacturing overage D. reference standard

31. The expiration date is a direct application of the knowledge gained from _____.
A. raw material testing C. in-process quality control
B. stability testing D. all of the above

32. A chart that makes use of data from measurable quality characteristics is called _____.
A. control chart C. variable chart
B. attribute chart D. fraction defective chart

33. Thiamine and riboflavin are assayed by _____.

A. Fluorometry C. Atomic Emission Spectrophotometry
B. Turbidimetry D. Nephelometry
34. Absolute unit to express radioactivity
A. faraday C. coulomb
B. curie D. ampere

35. The variations in the amount of defectives present can be shown in a _____.
A. P chart C. R chart
B. X chart D. Q chart

36. A process is in control if the values obtained are within _____ standard deviations.
A. two C. four
B. three D. none of the above

37. The comparison of certain attributes and dimensions of a product against a standard to find out
if the product is within the prescribed limit.
A. sampling C. analysis
B. inspection D. disposition

38. Type of QC equipment for measuring the absorbance of substances between regions 200-750
nm
A. colorimeter C. fluorometer
B. UV-Vis spectrophotometer D. infrared

39. The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium ions quantitatively
A. ion chamber C. colorimeter
B. UV-Vis spectrophotometer D. flame photometer

40. The most current apparatus being used for the determination of drug mixtures and components
A. NMR C. IR
B. HPLC D. GC

41. Limit tests for chlorides and sulfates can be conducted using
A. nephelometry C. fluorometry
B. turbidimetry D. spectrophotometry

42. Trace minerals in multivitamin preparations can be assayed with speed using
A. mass spectroscopy C. flame photometry
B. NMR D. AAS

43. The fingerprint of a molecule is determined in the region of the specimen from
A. 3-8 µm C. 8-15 µm
B. 3-15 µm D. none of the above

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

44. The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation
in the UV or IR region is
A. moiety C. chromophore
B. carbonyl D. nitrile

45. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is _____ by particles of a turbid solution
or suspension.
A. absorbed C. reflected
B. transmitted D. diffracted

46. Instruments for radiation measurement

A. Geiger-Muller counter C. Proportional counter
B. Scintillation detector D. any of the above

47. Assay used to determine the calcium and sodium content in the blood
A. flame spectrometry C. colorimetry
B. nephelometry D. turbidimetry

48. Stationary phase in Gas Chromatography

A. gas C. cellulose
B. liquid substance D. chromatogram

49. Optical activity is measured using

A. polarimeter C. pH meter
B. refractometer D. potentiometer
50. The following solvents may be used in IR spectrophotometric analysis, except
A. chloroform C. carbon tetrachloride
B. liquid paraffin D. water

51. Potentiometry finds application in _____.

A. bioassay C. pH determination
B. EDTA titration D. microbial assays

52. Safety or toxicity testing for infusion plastic sets is conducted using
A. rabbits C. white mice
B. dogs D. pigeons

53. The principle involved in refractometric method of analysis is based on

A. volumes of substances assayed C. molecular weights of substances
B. densities of two substances D. UV spectrum of substances assayed

54. pH is usually measured using _____.

A. platinum electrode C. mercury electrode
B. glass electrode D. calomel electrode

55. One of the fundamental laws in spectrophotometry

A. Law of mass action C. Boyle’s law
B. Beer’s law D. Arrhenius equation

56. In radiopharmacy, REM means

A. roentgen equivalent man C. roentgen emission per minute
B. radiation equivalent man D. radiation emission per minute

57. NMR is usually employed for

A. migration rate determination C. identification of compound
B. assays D. Rf values

58. In IR spectrometry, the fingerprint region is

A. Near IR C. Far IR
B. Medium IR D. both A and B

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

59. Marked changes in the pH of a solution maybe prevented by

A. antioxidants C. buffers
B. chelating agents D. indicators

60. The status of a material that is kept in isolation and is not available for release or use is termed
A. quarantine C. Both A and B
B. quality control D. none of the above

61. Radiant energy refers to

A. Visible C. IR
B. UV D. all of the above

62. A method used to assay Vitamin B12 and calcium panthothenate is _____.
A. fluorometry C. iodometry
B. iodimetry D. turbidimetry

63. In-process control test for tablets include the following, except
A. tablet weight C. bioavailability
B. disintegration D. tablet thickness

64. Retention or preservation samples of all pharmaceutical products should be monitored for signs
of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is
A. 1 year after expiration date C. 2 years after production
B. 2 years after expiration date D. 1 year after distribution

65. IR spectrophotometry is used to ensure which of the following quality of the drug product
A. identity C. potency
B. toxicity D. bioavailability

66. Used to assess durability of tablets during shipping

A. Stokes tester C. Roche friabilator
B. UV-Vis spectrophotometer D. Disintegration apparatus

67. Testing of the raw materials, packaging materials, in-process and finished products in the
laboratory to determine if they meet the standards is called _____.
A. Quality Assurance C. cGMP
B. Quality Control D. ISO

68. Type of sampling plan that consists of master tables and interpretation of findings is
A. square root system C. 100% inspection
B. military standard D. sampling inspection

69. The inspection and checking section of Quality Control is responsible for
A. sampling of raw materials C. chemical assays
B. sterility testing of products D. pyrogen testing

70. Material controlled by the QC

A. drug substance C. packaging materials
B. excipients D. all of the above

C 71. Stokes-Monsanto tester is used to measure _____.

A. tablet friability C. tablet hardness
B. tablet thickness D. tablet disintegration

72. Water attack test is used in this type of glass container

A. Type I C. Type III
B. Type II D. Type NP

73. The number of complete cycles that pass a given point per unit time
A. wavelength C. radiant energy
B. spectrum D. frequency

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

74. The absorbent in TLC may be any of the following, except

A. alumina C. calcium oxide
B. silica gel D. none of the above

75. Beer’s plot in the sample is prepared to determine

A. absorbance of sample C. concentration of sample
B. wavelength to be used D. pathlength to be used

76. Radiant energy required in the analysis of drugs under Fluorometry

A. UV region C. IR region
B. Visible region D. both A and B

77. The following are optical devices, except

A. pH meter C. colorimeter
B. spectrophotometer D. flame photometer

78. Compute for the Rf value of a substance if the distance travelled by the solvent is 12.5 cm and
that of the sample is 7.5 cm.
A. 0.60 C. 1.66
B. 0.70 D. 1.67

79. Determine the angle of repose of the sample powder using fixed funnel method, if the height and
diameter obtained were 5 cm and 13 cm respectively.
A. 35.80 C. 36.60
B. 36.00 D. 37.60

80. Temperature at which disintegration test is done

A. 370C C. 36-370C
B. 35-390C D. 36.5-37.50C

81. A type of sampling which permits second level sampling if sample fails in the first sampling
A. single C. multiple
B. double D. none of the above

82. The Pfizer tester which measures the force required to break a tablet is used to determine ____.
A. hardness C. friability
B. thickness D. disintegration
A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter in the presence of _____.
83.
A. prism C. cell compartment
B. lamp house D. all of the above

84. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of parenteral solutions

A. sterile purified water C. water for injection
B. purified water D. sterile water for injection

85. Long-term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room temperature conditions
for Climatic Zone IV is carried out at _____.
A. 23±20C, 60±5% RH C. 37±20C, 60±5% RH
B. 25±2 C, 60±5% RH
0 D. 40±20C, 60±5% RH

86. The dye used in the leaker test is _____.

A. methylene blue C. phenolphthalein
B. thymol blue D. none of the above

87. The MIL-STD-105D is used in sampling for _____.

A. attributes C. defects
B. variables D. all of the above

88. The upper control limit if mean is 27.5mm and one standard deviation is 0.625.
A. 25.625 mm C. 28.125 mm
B. 26.875 mm D. 29.375 mm

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

89. USP Limit for tablet content uniformity

A. 85-115% C. 95-105%
B. 90-110% D. 100%

90. Rotatory power is measured using a _____.

A. polarimeter C. pH meter
B. refractometer D. polarograph

91. HPLC is a type of chromatography referring to

A. High Pressure Liquid Chromatography C. High Performance Liquid Chromatography
B. High Purity Liquid Chromatography D. both A and C

92. Cimetidine Tablet has a dissolution specification of nlt Q+5%. Using 75% as Q, the dissolution limit
is not less than
A. 70% C. 80%
B. 75% D. 85%

93. Dissolution testing is an example of a/an

A. pharmacopoeial standard C. in-house standard
B. regulatory standard D. cGMP standard

94. Ability of an assay procedure to elicit test results that are directly proportional to the
concentration of the analyte in the sample
A. specificity C. linearity
B. robustness D. selectivity

95. Official test for uniformity of dosage units of capsules containing active drug that consists less than
50% of the total formulation
A. weight variation test C. dissolution test
B. content uniformity D. tablet weight determination

96. Quality control tests on semi-solid preparations, except

A. viscosity C. microbial content
B. minimum fill D. bacterial endotoxin test

97. Amount of laboratory sample to be taken, if quantity required for one complete analysis of
Atorvastatin is 35 mg
A. 35 mg C. 105 mg
B. 70 mg D. 140 mg

98. Amount of laboratory sample to be taken, if quantity required to qualify granules of Drug A prior
to compression is 100 mg
A. 100 mg C. 300 mg
B. 200 mg D. 400 mg

99. Immersion fluid used in Disintegration test for enteric-coated tablets

A. water C. intestinal fluid
B. gastric fluid D. all of the above

100. In normal phase chromatography

A. stationary phase and mobile phase are polar
B. stationary phase is non-polar, mobile phase is polar
C. stationary phase is polar, mobile phase is non-polar
D. stationary phase and mobile phase are non-polar

“If any of you lacks wisdom, he should ask God, who gives generously to all without finding fault, and it will be
given to him.”
James 1:5 (NIV)

QUALITY CONTROL 2 with INSTRUMENTATION ASST. PROF. RHONA RAMOS, MSC

Course Audit 2019 – 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

MICROBIOLOGY

Course Audit 2019-2020

 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item
by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

1. Which of the following infectious agents lack nucleic acid

A. Viroids C. Protozoa
B. Viruses D. Prions

2. Which of the following is a Prokaryote

A. Archae C. Fungi
B. Protozoa D. Helminths

3. Which of the following structures is not a part of bacterial cell envelope

A. Peptidoglycan C. Capsule
B. Lipopolysaccharide D. Spore

4. Spores are found in select groups of bacteria. Which of the following statements describes the major
advantage to the bacteria that possess these structures?
A. Spores are resistant to heat, cold, drying, most chemicals and boiling
B. Spores allow an organism to be motile
C. Spores allow an organism to attach or adhere to host tissue
D. Organisms with spores have more efficient exchange of genetic materials

5. Which of the following components is present in a Gram negative bacteria but not in a Gram positive
bacteria
A. Peptidoglycan C. Capsule
B. Lipid A D. Flagella

6. Eubacteria that lacks cell wall and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan layer are
A. Gram negative bacteria C. Mycoplasmas
B. Viruses D. Bacilli

7. Organism capable of growing at temperature above 100 °C are termed as

A. Mesophiles C. Halophiles
B. Psychrophiles D. Thermophiles

8. The action of which of the following agents or processes on bacteria can be reversed
A. Disinfectant C. Bacteriostatic agent
B. Bactericidal agent D. Dry heat at 160 °C for 1.5 hours

9. The growth rate of bacteria during the exponential phase of growth is

A. Zero C. Constant
B. Increasing D. Decreasing

10. Bacteria that are obligate intracellular pathogens of human are considered to be
A. Autotrophs C. Auxotrophs
B. Chemolithotropes D. Heterotrophs

11. A housewife was brought to the ER complaining of doubling vision and difficulty talking. After 2 hours, dry
mouth and generalized weakness were observed. It was later mentioned that she served home canned
green beans. None of the other members got ill. Upon examination, there is symmetrical descending
paralysis of upper extremities and trunk. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis
A. Tetanus C. Botulism
B. Food poisoning D. Anthrax

12. The reported incubation period of Woolsorter’s disease can be up to

A. 2 days C. 3 weeks
B. 10 days D. 6 weeks

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY ASST. PROF. MA. GINA SADANG, MSC

COURSE AUDIT 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

13. Choose the binomial name that is correctly written

A. Staphylococcus Aureus C. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus specie aureus D. Staphylococcus aureus

14. Which of the following processes involves the exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial
cells that uses an intracellular bridge?
A. Transformation C. Plasmidization
B. Transduction D. Conjugation

15. Which of the following statements refer to the process of transduction

A. The change of bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another
B. An internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism
genome
C. The process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one
genomic location and insert into another
D. A mechanism that is medicated by viruses by which DNA from one bacteria may come together
in one cell, thus allowing for recombination

16. All of the following are properties characteristic of Bacillus anthracis except
A. Motility on wet mount C. Susceptibility to penicillin
B. Medusa head colonies D. Gamma hemolytic on BAP

17. A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell.
A. Safranin C. Gram’s iodine
B. Crystal violet D. Acetone – alcohol

18. Which of the following bacteria should be considered an important pathogen when reading a Gram-
stained smear of soft tissue abscess?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Staphylococcus aureus

19. Which type of organism best grow in this environmental condition: 85 % N2, 10 % H2, 5 % CO2 ?
A. Aerobes C. Capnophiles
B. Anaerobes D. Microaerosols

20. Which medium contains bile salt and dyes (Bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin) to selectively slow down
the growth of most non-pathogenic Gram negative bacilli found in the gastrointerstinal tract and allow
Salmonella spp. and Shigela spp. to grow?
A. Eosin methylene blue C. Phenylethyl alcohol
B. MacConkey D. Hektoen Enteric agar

21. Gram positive, catalase positive and facultative anaerobic bacteria that form grape like cluster
A. Neiserria spp. C. Staphylococcus spp.
B. Streprococcus spp. D. Micrococcus spp.

22. Which of the following is the first identification test to be performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive,
catalase positive cocci?
A. Penicillin test C. Oxidase test
B. Gram stain D. Coagulase test

23. The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the detection of
A. Clumping factor C. Extracellular coagulase
B. Free coagulase D. Catalase

24. Which species of Staphylococcus is more likely to cause uncomplicated non-hospitalized hosts, especially
sexually active young women?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus intermedius

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY ASST. PROF. MA. GINA SADANG, MSC

COURSE AUDIT 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

25. The TS toxin-1 is an important virulence factor in staphylococcal disease. In which of the following groups
of toxins is this toxin classified
A. Cytolytic toxin C. Phospholipase
B. Leukocidin D. Enterotoxin

26. MSA is a selective and differential for which group of organism

A. Staphylococcus spp. C. Gram-positive cocci
B. Enterococcus spp. D. Streptococcus spp.

27. Within 5 hours of returning home from lunch at your most favorite fast food restaurant you feel very sick
and are vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Shigella sonnei
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. Escherichia coli

28. A 36-year old patient has an abscess with a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that is. b - lactamase positive.
This indicates that the organism is resistant to which of the following antibiotics?
A. Penicillin G, ampicillin and Piperacillin C. Erythromycin, Clarithromycin, and
B. Trimethoprim – sulfamethoxazole Azithromycin
D. Vancomycin

29. An 8 year old develops severe sore throat. On examination, a grayish – white exudate is seen on the tonsils
and pharynx. The cause of the boy’s pharyngitis is most likely:
A. A catalase – negative Gram positive coccus
B. A catalase – negative Gram positive bacillus
C. A coagulase – negative, catalase – positive Gram positive coccus
D. A coagulase – positive, catalase – positive Gram positive coccus

30. An 18 year old student has abdominal cramps and diarrhea. A plate of MacConkey is inoculated and
grows Gram negative rods. Triple sugar iron agar is used to screen the isolates for Salmonella and Shigella.
A result suggesting one of these two pathogens would be:
A. Production of urease C. Fermentation of glucose
B. Inability to ferment lactose and D. Production of gas in the medium
sucrose

31. A 43 year old with diabetes has a 4 cm non healing foot ulcer. Culture of the ulcer yields Staphylococcus
aureus, Bacteroides fragilis, a Gram negative bacillus that swarms around the BAP covering the entire
surface of the agar after 36 hours. The gram negative bacillus belong to the Genus
A. Escherichia C. Serratia
B. Enterobacter D. Proteus

32. A 4-year old boy is suffering from a diarrheal illness characterized by fever, severe lower abdominal pain,
watery stool with tinge of blood. Which of the following is most likely pathogen causing the illness?
A. An enterotoxigenic strain of E. coli C. Shigella sonnei
B. Salmonella enteritica subspecie D. Edwardsiella tarda
enteritica serovar Typhi

33. A Gram stain of sputum reveals Gram negative rods that appear to have a capsule. The organism is
lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar and is very mucoid. It is non-motile and lysine decarboxylase
positive. This gram negative bacilli is
A. Serratia marcescens C. Proteus mirabilis
B. Enterobacter aerogenes D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

34. Gram stain of a sputum sample shows gram-negative rods. This organism grew well at 42 °C on a clear
agar medium and produce green color on the agar that fluoresces when exposed to UV light. The
organism is:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumonia D. Serratia marcescens

35. Bacterimia associated with a gastrointestinal infection is most likely to occur with which of the following?
A. Salmonella typhi C. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Vibrio cholera D. Campylobacter jejuni

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY ASST. PROF. MA. GINA SADANG, MSC

COURSE AUDIT 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

36. All of the following causes zoonotic infections except:

A. Francisella tularensis C. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bordetella pertussis D. Leptospira interrogans

37. Which of the following groups of antimicrobial agents act on microorganisms by inhibiting protein synthesis
A. Aminoglycosides C. Penicillin
B. Fluoroquinolones D. Polymyxins

38. Which of the following statements about virus propagation is not true?
A. Some mammalian viruses can be cultivated in hen’s eggs
B. Some viruses scan be propagated in cell free media
C. Some human viruses can be grown on mice
D. Some viruses with broad host ranges can multiply in many types of cells

39. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin abrasion
A. Adenovirus C. Rhinovirus
B. Rotavirus D. Papillomavirus

40. Which of the following does not fulfill the criteria for exposure to vaccinia?
A. Smallpox vaccination C. Intrauterine exposure
B. Close contact with a recent smallpox D. Injection of vaccinia immune globulin
infected person

41. A current infection with hepatitis B will show the following laboratory results
A. HBsAg positive, anti-HBs positive C. HBsAg positive, anti-HBs negative
B. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive D. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs negative

42. A defective hepatitis virus that can replicate only in a cell that is also infected by HBV
A. HAV C. HDV
B. HCV D. HEV

43. Which organism is most often responsible for impetigo

A. S. epidermis C. S. agalactiae
B. S. pyogenes D. S. saprophyticus

44. A catalase-positive, Gram positive Bacillus that is non-acid fast, does not branch and does not form spores
could possibly belong to which group of bacteria
A. Corynebacterium C. Nocardia
B. Bacillus D. Mycobacterium

45. A patient presents a long standing cutaneous lesion, which is cultured for bacteria and fungi. An AFB
smear is made and is reported as positive. After 8 weeks of culture on both non-selective and selective
AFB media, no colonies appear. Which of the following organisms should be suspected?
A. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Mycobacterium avium

46. Gram negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate positive, indole negative,
citrate positive, methyl red positive, urease negative and H2S positive is most likely which of the following?
A. Klebsiella pneumonia C. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella enteritidis D. Shigella sonnei

47. Profuse watery diarrhea leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration and hypotension that
frequently leads to death is the hallmark of which toxin?
A. Cholera toxin C. Shiga toxin
B. Enteric enterotoxin D. Toxin A

48. The selective medium TCBS is especially formulated for isolating which pathogen from stool culture
A. Vibrio spp. C. Shigella spp.
B. Salmonella spp. D. Proteus spp.

49. In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of the following
A. Ammonia and CO2 B. Ammonia and water

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY ASST. PROF. MA. GINA SADANG, MSC

COURSE AUDIT 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

C. Amine and CO2 D. Amine and water

50. An organism was isolated into a TSI tube and gave the following reaction K/A, the organism is most likely
which of the following
A. Klebsiella spp. C. Salmonella spp.
B. Shigella spp. D. E. coli

51. Organism belonging to the genus Neisseria are described as which of the following?
A. Gram positive diplococci C. Gram negative coccobacilli
B. Gram negative diplococci D. Gram negative bacilli

52. Which of the following is a stage of venereal disease that is characterized by the appearance of a
chancre?
A. Primary C. Latent
B. Secondary D. Tertiary

53. When performing antimicrobial susceptibility test, the following definition of MIC is correct
A. The highest concentration of an antibiotic in a dilution series that inhibits growth
B. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic in a dilution series that inhibits growth
C. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic in a dilution series that kills the bacteria
D. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic that can be given to a patient without toxicity

54. Which of the following terms is best described as the process of reproduction in yeast that begins with a
weakening and outpouching of the yeast cell wall and then formation of a cell wall septum between the
mother and daughter yeast cell?
A. Binary fission C. Budding
B. Unisexual division D. Outpouch germing

55. The loose interwined network of the basic structural units of molds that penetrates the substrate from
which it obtains the necessary nutrients for growth is called which of the following
A. Hyphae C. Pseudohyphae
B. Germ tube D. Mycelium

56. Which of the following viruses are thought to predominantly cause gastroenteritis
A. Hepadnaviruses C. Noroviruses
B. Filoviruses D. Arboviruses

57. Which of the following groups contain the SARS virus

A. Calivivirus C. Flavivirus
B. Coronavirus D. Filovirus

58. Which of the following groups of viruses is best described as: enveloped RNA virus pleomorphic / spherical
capsid, large club-shape spike on surface, 15 % of cold like illness?
A. Influenza A C. Coronavirus
B. Influenza B D. Pneumovirus

59. Which of the following is the choice for detecting rotavirus

A. Throat swab C. Bronchoalveolar wash
B. Urine sample D. Feces sample

60. Trophozoite form of amoebae are found in what type of stool sample
A. Formed C. Soft
B. Loose D. Watery

61. If the ova of this parasite are ingested by humans, the oncosphere form can migrate through the body
via the bloodstream, resulting in the condition known as cysticercosis
A. Taenia solium C. Hymenolepis nana
B. Entemoeba histolytica D. Clonorhis isnensis

62. Ova recovered from the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following,
except

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY ASST. PROF. MA. GINA SADANG, MSC

COURSE AUDIT 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

A. Necator americanus C. Trichuris trichiura

B. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Strongyloides stercoralis

63. The parasite that possess a fleshy anterior end, a thread like posterior end and an ovum that is
characteristically football-shaped inhabiting the large intestine
A. Ascaris lumbrocoides C. Necator americanus
B. Ancylsotoma duodenale D. Trichuris trichiura

64. The egg of this fluke, recovered from the urine, is characterized by measuring about 160µm long, & 60µm
wide and possessing a terminal spine
A. Diphylobothrium latum C. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma haematobium D. Schistosoma mansoni

65. Microfilaria found in the blood that have a sheath, demonstrate nocturnal periodicity and exhibit nucleus
that do not extend to the tail tip are which of the following?
A. Brugia malayi C. Loa loa
B. Onchocerca volvulus D. Wuchereria bancrofti

66. The only known human tapeworm with an operculated egg is

A. Diphylobothrium latum C. Giargia lamblia
B. Hymenelopis nana D. Schistosoma japonicum

67. A 20-year old Asian woman develops fever and a cough productive of blood streaked sputum. She has
lost 6 kg of body weight in the past 6 weeks. Her chest radiograph shows bilateral upper lobe infiltrates
with cavities. Which of the following drug regimens would be the best appropriate initial therapy while
awaiting culture results?
A. Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
B. Penicillin G and Rifampin
C. Cefotaxime, clindamycin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D. Ampicillin-sulbactam

68. Which one of the following groups of antimicrobial agents acts on the microorganism by inhibiting protein
synthesis
A. Fluoroquinolones C. Penicillin
B. Aminoglycoside D. Polymyxin

69. The skin is an impenetrable barrier to virus entry, but a few viruses are able to breach this barrier and
initiate infection of the host. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin
abrasion
A. Adenovirus C. Rhinovirus
B. Rotavirus D. Papillovirus

70. Many virus use the respiratory tract as the route of entry to initiate infections. Which of the following virus
groups does not?
A. Adenovirus C. Hepadnavirus
B. Coronavirus D. Poxvirus

71. Which of the following viruses causes mononucleosis-like syndrome and is excreted in the urine
A. Cytomegalovirus C. Varicella zoster virus
B. Epstein – Barr virus D. Herpes simplex virus type 2

72. A 4 year old boy develops an acute febrile illness. His pediatrician diagnoses mumps. The organ
commonly exhibiting signs of mumps is the
A. Lungs C. Parotid glands
B. Ovary D. Testes

73. A 27 year old woman who is 2 months pregnant develops fever, malaise, and arthralgia. A fine
maculopapular rash appears on her face, trunk and extremities. Rubella is diagnosed, and there is
concern that the fetus will be infected, resulting in congenital rubella syndrome. Which of the following
statements about this syndrome is correct
A. The disease can be prevented by vaccination of school age children with measles vaccine

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY ASST. PROF. MA. GINA SADANG, MSC

COURSE AUDIT 2019 - 2020
 UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

B. Congenital abnormalities occur when a nonimmune pregnant woman is infected at any time
during the pregnancy
C. Deafness is a common defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome
D. All of the above

74. A 5 year old kidney transplant patient being treated with cyclosporine develops a lymphoproliferative
disorder. Which of the following viruses is most likely responsible for this disorder?
A. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus
B. Herpes simplex virus D. Epstein Barr virus

75. Microbes commonly encountered in health care-associated infections in hospital are

A. Salmonella spp., Shigella spp. Hepatitis C., Neisseria meningitides
B. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, MRSA, Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Hepatitis C, Lice, Giardia spp.
D. All of the above

76. Microbial pathogens of potential bioterrorism activity includes

A. Bacillus anthracis, Staphylococcus aureus, West Nile virus
B. Yersinia pestis, Staphylococcus aureus, Hepatitis C
C. Bacillus anthracis, Yersinia pestis, Fransicella tularensis
D. Bacillus anthracis, Escherichia coli, Coronavirus, Giardia spp.

77. What type of filter does a class II biological safety cabinet use to filter out infectious agents
A. Millipore filter C. Charcoal filter
B. HEPA filter D. Dust filter

78. Which of the following stains is best used to detect mycobacterial organism in clinical samples
A. Gram stain C. Acid-fast stain
B. Giemsa stain D. Fulton Schaeffer

79. What do the dark pink colonies on MacConkey agar indicate

A. Glucose fermentation C. Sucrose fermentation
B. Lactose fermentation D. Xylose fermentation

80. What genus of bacteria would you suspect if you find alpha hemolytic organism on BAP from respiratory
samples
A. Staphylococcus C. Bacillus
B. Streptococcus D. Escherichia

81. Which of the following test detects the production of mixed acids as a result of subsequent metabolism
of pyruvate
A. Methyl red test C. Citrate test
B. Voges Proskauer test D. Indole test

82. A triple agar iron butt slant is inoculated with an oxidase-negative, Gram negative bacilli. After
incubation, the slant is red and the butt (deep) is black. What biochemical reaction occurred
A. Fermentation of glucose, lactose, and sucrose with H2S production
B. Glucose fermentation with H2S production
C. Lactose fermentation with gas production
D. Fermentation of glucose, lactose and sucrose with gas production

83. Corynebacterium spp. often appear as _____ on Gram stain

A. Pleomorphic Gram positive club shaped bacilli that appear in palisades or in V and L formation
B. Branching Gram positive bacilli that appears as fine, intertwined, delicate filaments
C. Short thin gram positive bacilli that appears in chains
D. Gram negative coccobacilli in singles
84. Identify the virulence factor of the pathogenic Neisseria specie that is responsible for the initial
attachment of the organism to the host tissue
A. Pili C. Cell membrane protein
B. Endotoxin D. Peptidoglycan

--- END ---

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY ASST. PROF. MA. GINA SADANG, MSC

COURSE AUDIT 2019 - 2020
PROBLEM 1
How many millimoles of solute are contained in
2.00 L of 2.76 x 10-3 M KMnO4?

5.52 mmol
PROBLEM 2
How many millimoles of solute are contained in
250mL of a solution that contains 4.20ppm of
Cu = 63.546
CuSO4? S = 32.06
O = 15.999 (4)

6.58 x 10-3 mmol

PROBLEM 3
How many milligrams of solute are contained in
26.0 mL of 0.150M sucrose (FW = 342 g/mole)?

1.33 x 103 mg
PROBLEM 4
Calculate the molar concentration of a solution
that is 50.0% (w/w) in NaOH and has a O specific
=
gravity of 1.52. 15.999
H=
1.008

19.0 M
PROBLEM 5
Calculate the molar concentration of a dilute HCl
solution if titration of 0.2694 g of primary
standard Na2CO3 required 38.77 mL of the
acid.

0.1311 M
PROBLEM 6
The benzoic acid extracted from 106.3 g of
catsup required a 14.76 mL titration with
0.0514M NaOH. Express the results of this
analysis in terms of % Na benzoate
(144.10 g/mol).

0.1028%
PROBLEM 7
A 25.0 mL aliquot of vinegar was diluted to
250 mL in a volumetric flask. Titration of
50.0 mL aliquots of the diluted solution
required an average of 34.88 mL of
0.09600M NaOH. Express the acidity of the
vinegar in terms of % (w/v) of CH3COOH.

25 mL : 250 mL :: x : 50mL
x mL = 5 mL 4.02%
PROBLEM 8
A 0.5843g sample of a plant food preparation
was analyzed for its N content by the Kjeldahl
method, the liberated NH3 being collected in
50.00 mL of 0.1062M HCl. The excess acid
required an 11.89 mL back-titration with
0.0925M NaOH. Determine % N.

10.09% N
PROBLEM 9
Titration of a 0.485g sample by the Mohr
method required 36.8 mL of standard
0.1060M AgNO3 solution. Calculate the %
Cl- in the sample.

28.5% Cl-
PROBLEM 10
The theobromine (C7H8N4O2) in a 2.95g sample of
ground cocoa beans was converted to the sparingly
soluble silver salt, C7H7N4O2Ag by warming in an
ammoniacal solution containing 25.0mL of 0.0100M
AgNO3. After reaction was complete, all solids were
removed by filtration. Calculate the % theobromine
(180.1 g/mole) in the sample if combined filtrate and
washings required a back-titration of 7.69mL of
0.0108M KSCN.
1.02%
1.02%
PROBLEM 11
Calculate the volume of 0.0500M EDTA needed to
titrate 26.37mL of 0.0741M Mg(NO3)2.

39.1 mL EDTA
 PROBLEM 12
A 1.509 g sample of a Pb/Cd alloy was dissolved in
acid and diluted to exactly 250.0mL in a volumetric
flask. A 50.00mL aliquot of the diluted solution was
brought to a pH of 10.0 with an NH4+/NH3 buffer.
The subsequent titration involved both cations and
required 28.89mL of 0.06950M EDTA. A 2nd 50.00mL
aliquot was brought to a pH of 10.0 with an HCN/NaCN
buffer, which also served to mask the Cd+2; 11.56mL of
the EDTA solution were needed to titrate the Pb+2.
Calculate the % Pb and Cd in the sample.
55.16% Pb and 44.86% Cd
PROBLEM 13
The iodine produced when an excess of KI
was added to a solution
0
containing 0.1518g
of K2Cr2O7 required 46.13mL titration with
Na2S2O3. Calculate the molar concentration
of the thiosulfate solution.

0.06711 M
PROBLEM 14
Titration of 0.1467g of primary standard
Na2C2O4 required 28.85mL of KMnO4
solution. Calculate the normal concentration
of KMnO4 in the solution.

0.07590 N
PROBLEM 15
Treatment of a 0.4000g sample of impure
KCl with an excess of AgNO3 resulted in the
formation of 0.7332g of AgCl. Calculate the
% KCl in the sample.

95.35% KCl
PROBLEM 16
A 0.1799g sample of an organic compound
was burned in a stream of O2, and the CO2
produced was collected in a solution of
Ba(OH)2. Calculate the % of C in the sample
if 0.5613g of BaCO3 was found.

18.99% C
 QUALITY CONTROL MANOR
2010
1.Most of the official drugs containing calcium and zinc are assayed by:
A. Compleximetry B. gravimetry C. precipitimetry D. acidimetry
2. Type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determined:
A. Ultimate B. specrophotometric C. chromatographic D. Proximate
3. Limulus ameobocyte lysate(LAL) assay method is applicable in the determination of:
A. pyrogens B. Chemical impurities C. Microorganism D. Heavy metals
4. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with a standard acid is:
A. Acidimetry B. Compleximetry C. Alkalimetry D. Cerimetry
5. The following compounds are assayed by acidimetrically,EXCEPT:
A. Sodium Hydroxide B. Caffeine C. Citric acid D. Zinc oxide
6. Which of the following substances is assayed by residual alkalimetric analysis?
A. Aspirin B. Sodium hydroxide C. Hydrochloric acid D. Zinc oxide
7. A common sampling plan that uses master tables to interpret the results:
A. 100% inspection B. Square root system C. Military standard D. simple random sampling
8. Materials to be sampled include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Final product B. Records C. Intermediate products D. Raw materials
9. The process of removing an appropriate number of items from a population in order to make
interferences to the entire population is called:
A. Sampling B. Inspection C. Statistics D. Rejection
10. A tool for detecting variations in a process:
A. Pie chart B. Bar chart C. Quality control chart D. T-chart
11. The Quality Control Department is important to:
A. Ensure uniform production of high quality product
B. Safeguard public health
C. Ensure that the product complies with the FDA requirements
D. All of the above
12. The functions of Quality Control include the following EXCPT:
A. Analytical control B. Inspection control C. Auditing D. Planning
13. The QC manager is in charge of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Specification and assay development C. Research and development studies
B. Analytical testing laboratory D. Biological testing
14. The First-In First-Out policy must always be observed to:
A. Assures that the oldest stock is used first
B. Prevent contamination and mix-ups of materials
C. Contain the information regarding the activity if the active ingredient
D. Prevent microbial spoilage
15. The kjeldahl method of analysis is used to determine:
A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C.Nitrogen D. oxygen
16. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:
A. Carbon B. Nitrogen C. Inorganic matter D. Volatile component
17. The Iodine value of oils is a quantitative measure of:
A. Phenol content B. Saturation C. Unsafonifiable matter D. unsaturation
18. Analysis wherein the constituents of a sample are separated and then the product is weighed:
A. Volmetric B. Gravimetric C. Spectrophotometric D. Chromatographic
19. The number of mg of KOH needed to neutralize the free acids and saponify the esters in 1g
of oil or fat:
A. acid value B. Ester value C. safonification value D. Iodine value
20. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of NaOH pellets are needed to make
500mL of 1.5N solution?
A. 20 B. 30 C.40 D. 60
21. If 1mL of HCL is equivalent to 1.5mL of 0.5N NaOH, the volume of the alkali that would be
consumed by 30mL of acid is:
A. 4.5mL B. 45mL C. 20mL D. 30mL
22. The most effective chemical substance in removing stains of potassium permanganate:
A. Oxalic acid B. Sodium thiosulfate C. Sodium hypochlorite D. Ferric chloride
23. The ester value determination of substances is applicable to the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fats B. Volatile oils C. Alcohols D. Fixed oils
24. The following are indicators used for acid-base titrations, EXCEPT:
A. Methyl orange B. Phenolphthalein C. Ferric alum D. methyl red
 QUALITY CONTROL MANOR
2010
25. An accurately measured sample of hydrogen peroxide 2g was dissolved in a mixture of 20mL
water and 20mL diluted sulfuric acid and was titrated with 0.1N potassium permanganate
consuming 30mL to reach the endpoint. Compute for the percentage of hydrogen peroxide
(MW=34)
A. 2.55% B. 5.1% C. 2.5% D. 5.5%
26. Residual method titration with disodium edentate VS is applicable to what metal ion:
A. Calcium B. aluminum C. Zinc D. Magnesium
27. Chemical reactions that involve a charge in the valence number of reacting substances:
A. Neutralization B. Complexation C. Oxidation-reduction D. precipitation
28. A process wherein the sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a
standard solution of sodium thiosulfate:
A. Direct titration B. Residual titration C. Iodometry D. Iodometry
29. A buret with a glass stopcock can be used for:
A. alcohols B. Acids C. Bases D. Aldehydes
30. Malic acid present in cherry juice may be determined by:
A. Indirect permanganate oxidation method C. Alkalimetry
B. Direct permanganate oxidation method D. Acidimetry
31. Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:
A. Oxidizing agents B. Reducing agents C. Acids D.Bases
32. The unsaponified matter present in animal fat is:
A. Cholesterol B. Stigmasterol C. Lard D. Wax
33. The bisulfate method is used in the assay of volatile oils to determine:
A. Aldehyde content B. Acid content C. Ester content D. Phenol content
34. The crude fiber of a drug usually consists of:
A. Cellulose B. Cholesterol C. Stigmasterol D. Starch
35. In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the Cassia
flask reached 2.7mL obtained from a sample of 10mL after treatment with KOH solution. The
percentage of oil is:
A. 73% B. 69% C. 7.3% D. 27%
36. This determines the shelf life of a product:
A. Sampling inspection program C. Validation program
B. Quality control program D. Stability testing program
37. Amount of dissolved drug can be determined by:
A. Analytical balance C. Brookefield viscometer
B. Dissolution tester D. Dioctyl phthalate spray
38. Trace minerals in a multivitamin preparation can be assayed faster by:
A. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer C. Gas Liquid Chromatography
B. Ultraviolet-visible spectrophotometer D. High performance liq.chromatography
39. Potency of a 100mg tablet at the expiry date
A. 95mg B. 90mg C. 105mg D. 110mg
40. Inspection station are placed in the following areas, except:
A. Analytical laboratory B. Manufacturing area C. warehouse D. Packaging area
41. In the microbial assay of antibiotics, the microorganism used for Pen G is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Bacillus subtilis
42. the expiration date is:
A. The direct application and interpretation of knowledge gained from the stability testing
B. Used to limit the period during which a preparation may be expected to have its labeled
potency, provided it has been stored as directed
C. A and B are correct
D. A and B are incorrect
43. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture of the
formulation until its chemical or biological activity is not less than __ of labeled potency:
A. 90% B. 95% C. 93% D. 99%
44.What I not considered as a primary packaging component?
A. Bottles B. Vials C. Caps D. Packer boxes
45. Drug substances that are withheld from distribution until batch certification from the FDA
has been received:
A. Antibiotics B. Antineoplastics C. Antihistamines D. Antidiarrheals
46. Factors that can be manipulated to accelerate instability:
 QUALITY CONTROL MANOR
2010
A. Temperature B. Moisture C. Light D. All of the above
47. Cross-examination and mix0up can happen in the following situations, EXCEPT:
A. Improperly dispensed components
B. Wrong labels
C. Improper partitioning of production area
D. Components are kept in tightly-sealed containers
48. Content uniformity is to be performed for all tablets whose active ingredients are:
A. 50mg or less B. 100mg or less C. 50mg or more D. 100mg or more
49. Which of the following is not a QC function?
A. In-process analysis C. Labeling and packaging materials
B. Inspection of containers D. Inventory control
50. Total quality means:
A. Production is responsible for quality
B. Quality control combines strict adherence to standard D. All of the above
51. The presence of a cotton fiber in a liquid preparation is considered as a/an:
A. Internal defect B. Critical defect C. Ocular defect D. Variable defect
52. Materials to be sampled include the following, except:
A. Intermediate product B. Raw materials C. Records D. Final products
53. An analyst who determines the strength, potency and percentage purity of a drug or
pharmaceutical product is performing:
A. Special method B. Identification test C. pharmaceutical assaying D. Pharmacopoeial test
54. The chemical factor used in calculation of percent purity of a substance in volumetric
analysis:
A. mEq weight B. Molarity C. Titer D. A and C
55. The instrument used in measuring the optical activity of a sample:
A. polarimeter B. Refractometer C. Spectrometer D. Flame photometer
56. In Azeotropic method for water analysis, the solvent that can be used is/are:
A. Water B. Toluene C. Xylene D. B and C
57. Adsorption indicators are used in:
A. Complexometry B. Acidimetry C. Precipitimetry D. Alkalimetry
58. The moisture content of a drug may be:
A. Water of hydration B. Water in absorbed form C. Water of emulsion D. A and B
59. The indicator used in permanganate titration:
A. Methyl orange TS C. Potassium permanganate VS
B. Phenolphthalein TS D. Oxalic acid VS
60. The indicator of disodium edentate VS direct titration of calcium carbonate:
A. Thymol blue B. Hydroxynaphthol blue C. Methyl red D. Methylene blue
61. Volatile oils are complex compounds composed of the following, Except:
A. Phenols B. Fatty acids C. Esters D. Aldehydes
62. The specific method for water content determination official in the USP/NF, except
A. Karl Fischer method C. Gravimetric method
B. Azeotropic method D. Dew point process
63. Safety or toxicity test for infusion plastic sets is conducted using:
A. Rabbits B. Dogs C. White mice D. Guinea pig
64. In infrared spectrometry, the finger print region is:
A. Near IR B. Medium IR C. Far IR D. A and B
65. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent, divide the molecular weight by:
A. No. of electrons gained B. No. of electron lost C. valence no. D. Atomic no.
66. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the adsorbent:
A. Column chromatography C. Paper chromatography
B. Gas chromatography D. Thin Layer chromatography
67. A parenteral is declared to be pyrogenic if the total rise in temperature of the rabbits is:
A. Less than 3.3°C in the 8 rabbits C. More than 3.3°C in the 8 rabbits
B. More that 3.4°C in the 8 rabbits D. Less than 3.4°C in the 8 rabbits
68. Microbiological assay of antibiotics may be performed by using the following, Except
A. Test tube dilution B. Cylinder plate C. Paper disc D. Gram staining method
69. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of
another metal is:
A. Redox B Masking C. Linking D. Complexing
70. Two substances reacting upon reaching the endpoint must have the same:
 QUALITY CONTROL MANOR
2010
A. Normality B. Volume C. No. of equivalents D. Weight
71.All of the following are optical devices or instruments, except:
A. pH meter B. Spectrophotometer C. Colorimeter D. Flame photometer
72. The method of assay for sulfonamides is:
A. Neutralization titration C. Diazotization with nitrite
B. Gravimetric D. Oxidation titration
73. Which of the following is reducing agent?
A. Ascorbic acid B. Potassium permanganate C. Iodine D. Hydrochloric acid
74. In using spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following data
were obtained:
Absorbance of the standard solution= 0.39
Absorbance of the sample solution = 0.42
Concentration of the standard = 15mcg
The concentration of the sample is:
A. 16.15mcg B. 17.5mcg C. 15.75mcg D. 16.0mcg
76. Radiant energy required in the analysis of drugs under Fluorometry is in:
A. UV region B. Visible region C. IR region D. X-ray region
77. The method of assay for vit. B12 and calcium pantothenate is by:
A. Iodimetry C. Fluorometry
B. Microbal-turbidimetric method D. Oxidation titration
78. The pH of a solution is usually measured by using:
A. Platinum electrode B. Glass electrode C. Mercury electrode D. Calomel electrode
79. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) is used for:
A. Radioisotopes B. Irradiation C. Identification of chemicals D. A and B
80. In the assay of acetic acid (MW = 60.05), each mL of 1N NaOH is equivalent to:
A. O.60000g of acetic acid C. 0.60050g of acetic acid
B. 0.00605g of acetic acid D. 0.06005g of acetic acid
81. Chemical analysis, which determines the amount or percentage content of a certain
component in a sample:
A. Qualitative B. Proximate C. Quantitative D. Ultimate
82. One of the fundamental laws in spectrophotometry is

83. The most effective way to clean glass apparatus:

A. Soaking in detergent
B. Rinsing with Nitric acid
C. Treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid
D. Acetic acid
84. Potentiometry finds application in:
A. Biological assay C. Qualitative assay
B. pH determination D. Chromatogrphy
85. If a 0.2250g of sodium bicarbonate (96.5% NaHCO3) is titrated with 0.1165N sulfuric acid.
What volume of the acid is required to reach the endpoint?
At.Wts = Na = 23; H = 1.0; C = 12; O = 16
A. 22.19mL B. 21.98mL C. 21.20mL D. 21.22mL
86. A sample of 0.1350g of arsenic trioxide (As2O3) was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4mL
of 0.1055N iodine solution. The percentage purity of the sample is:
A. 90.44 B. 89.10 C. 90.54 D. 90.23
87. In column chromatography, the separation of the sampe mixture into a series of narrow bands
in a column is:
A. Chromatogram B. Eluent C. Elution D. Chromatograph
88. In spectrophotometry procedure for assay, aside from the sapmle or unknown, this is also
required:
A. Raw material of the sample B. Reference C. Dosage form D. Excipients
89. The following conditions cause a reaction to go to completion, except:
A. Formation of a gas C. Formation of soluble products
B. Formation of a precipitate D. Formation of slightly ionized substances
90.
A. Absorbance of the sample C. Absorbance of the blank
B. Wavelength to be used D. Concentration of the sample
91. A plot of absorbance against concentration of a standard drawn in straight line is:
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92. The study of the optical activity of a substance is:

A. Polarimetry B. Refractometry C. Spectrophotometry D. Potentiometry
93. The unit of wavelength in spectrophotometry, EXCEPT:
A. Nanometer B. Micron C. Millimeter D. Micrometer
94. Ways to prepare the sample for Infrared determination, except:
A. Use of Mull technique C. Use of alcohol as solvent
B. Use of potassium bromide pellet D. Use of liquid petrolatum as solvent

95. Chromatography can be used to separate compounds that are:

A) Colored B) Colorless C) Precipitate D) A and B
96. A water content determination method that uses Xylene tube is:
A) Gravimetry B) Karl Fischer titrimetry C) Azeotropic method D) Dew point method
97. Calculate the normality of sulfuric acid solution using 22.5mL. The volume of standardized
NaOH used in the standardization was 20.70mL, and its normality was 1.1055:
A) 1.0171 B) 1.1071 C) 1.0175 D) 1.0711
98. Calculate the calcium carbonate content of a sample of chalk weighing 0.2545g and
consuming 16.67mL of 0.1150M of EDTA solution in titration. At.Wt of Ca = 40.08; C = 12; O
= 16. The percentage of CaCO3 is:
A) 75.52 B) 75.50 C) 37.76 D) 37.78
99. In the Statistical Quality Control, the chart used to measure the variations in the products
inspected in the production:
A) Variable chart B) P-chart C) Attribute chart D) B and C
100. Substances that have the power of rotating the plane polarized light are said to be:
A) Light sensitive B) Active constituents C) Optically active D) Dextrorotatory
101. The indicator used in the assay of weak acid reacting with a strong base is:
A) Methyl red TS B) Methyl orange TS C) Eriochrome black D) Phenolphthalein TS
102. The substance being analyzed is the:
A) Titrant B) Indicator C) Salt D) Analyte
103. In infrared spectrometry, water is not used as solvent for the sample because the water will:
A) Absorb IR radiation C) Not dissolve the sample
B) Dissolve the sodium chloride cell holder D) A and B
104. The law related to spectrometry wherein the power of transmitted light decreases
exponentially as the thickness of the solution increases arithmetically is:
D
105. The end point in iodimetry using starch TS as indicator is:
A) Blue color B) Disappearance of blue color C) Greenish blue color D) A or C
106. The type of titration in ultimate assay of alkaloids is:
A) Direct B) Residual C) Back D) B and C
107. What would be the aldehyde content of peppermint oil if the sample used was 15mL and
the insoluble portion as read in the graduated neck of the Cassia flask was 2.2mL. The
percentage of aldehyde content is:
A) 85.33 B) 83.33 C) 84.30 D) 14.67
108. A sample of Magnesia Magma weighing 12.35g was dissolved in 50mL of 1.0340N
sulfuric acid and titrated unti end point is reached consuming 24.6mL of 1.1255N sodium
hydroxide solution. The percentage of MgO content is:
At.Wt. of Mg = 24.3: O = 16
A) 3.92 B) 4.0 C) 3.85 D) 3.91
109. The alcohol content of a volatile oil can be determined by:
A) Bisulfite method B) Complexation process C) Acetylization process D) A and C
110. The index of refraction of a volatile oil can be determined by:
A) Spectrophotometer B) Pycnometer C) Refractometer D) Polarimeter
111. Turbidimetric and nephelometric methods of assay are applied to:
A) Suspensions B) Solutions C) Colored samples D) A and B
112. The adsorbent in the thin layer chromatography may be as follows, except:
A) Alumina B) Silica gel C) Calcium oxide D) Silica gel G
113. Way to separate the constituents in gravimetric analysis:
A) Neutralization process B) Physical means C) Chemical means D) B and C
114. Way to obtain the gram equivalent of a substance (GEW) is:
A) Based on the replaceable H+ ion C) A or B
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B) Based on the valence of the cation D) Based on atomic weight
115. Expression of concentration in volumetric solutions, except:
A) Normality B) Titer C) Molarity D) Molality
116. The assay procedures in volumetric precipitation were introduced by the following
scientists, except:
A) Arrhenius B) Mohr C) Fajan D) Volhard
117. The following are characteristics of a product with quality, except:
A) Safe B) Acceptable C) Cheap price D) Effective therapeutically
118. The terms used when equivalent amounts of each reactant have reacted are the following,
except:
A) End point B) Equivalence point C) Stoichiometric pont D) Theoretical point
119. Constant weight in analytical procedures of drying means that consecutive weighing after
heating and cooling do not differ by:
A) More than 0.25mg B) More than 0.50mg C) More than 0.255mg D) Not more than 0.75mg
120. The concentration of an unknown sample in spectrophotometric procedures can be
calculated by:

B. Use of chemical factor D) A or C

121. In thin layer chromatography, finding the spot of the colorless compound in the
chromatogram can be done by:
A) Use of sulfuric acid spray to obtain a brown color C) Use of carbon tetrachloride spray
B) Use of ultraviolet radiation D) A or B
122. In paper chromatography, the data needed to compute for Rf value:
A) Distance traveled by the solute C) A and B
B) Distance traveled by the solvent D) Distance traveled by the blank
123. The mobile phase in the gas chromatography is consists of:
A) Alcohol-ethyl acetate mixture C) Inert gas
B) Alcohol-chloroform mixture D) A and B
124. In gas chromatography, the result in the chromatogram is in terms of:
A) Retention on the column C) A and B
B) Retention of time/volume D) Volume of sample injected in the column
125. The components of a blank used in the assay of a substance are, except:
A) Solvent B) Reagent C) Indicator D) Analyte
126. The purpose of using a combination of indicators is:
A) To attain a sharp end point C) To attain a complete reaction
B) To facilitate reaction D) A and B
127. The purity and strength of chemicals and drugs official in the USP/NF is usually expressed
in terms of:
A) Percentage B) g/mL C) mg/mL D) g/L
128. The gram equivalent of Magnesium oxide (MW = 40.30) is:
A) 0.0403 B) 0.0215 C) 21.15 D) 0.4030
129. A sample of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) weighing 1.5650g was assayed
iodometrically using 26.6mL of
0.1120N sodium thiosulfate. Each mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate is equivalent to 49.03mg of
K2Cr2O7. The percentage purity of the sample is:
A) 93.50 B) 95.33 C) 93.33 D) 93.40
130. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is:
A) Reflected B) Absorbed C) Transmitted D) Adsorbed by the particles of a
suspension
131. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance has a wavelength range
of:A) 200 380 nm B) 380 780 nm C) 780 3000 nm D) 3 15 m
132. Flame spectroscopy procedures may be divided into:
A) Flame emission B) Atomic absorption C) Nuclear magnetic resonance D) A and B
133. The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium ions quantitatively:
A) Colorimeter B) Refractometer C) Spectrophotometer D) Flame photometer
134. The following are optical methods of analysis, except:
A) Colorimetry B) Nephelometry C) Chromatography D) Spectrophotometry
135. The calcium and sodium content of the blood can be determined by:
A) Flame spectrometry B) Nephelometry C) Colorimetry D) Turbidimetry
136. Thiamine is assayed by:
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A) Refractometry B) Potentiometry C) Colorimetry D) Fluorimetry
137. The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum
radiation in UV or IR region is:
A) Moiety B) Carbonyl C) Chromophore D) Nitrile
138. Content uniformity test is conducted in:
A) 10 tablets B) 15 tablets C) 20 tablets D) 30 tablets
139. It is the number of complete cycles that pass a given point per second:
A) Wavelength B) Spectrum C) Radiant energy D) Frequency
140. The operating speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is:
A) 150 rpm B) 100 rpm C) 200 rpm D) 50 rpm

A) Absorbance of the sample C) Blank

B) Wavelength to be used D) Concentration of the sample
142. The pharmaceutical excipient, which affects the disintegration of a tablet is:
A) Disintegrant B) Lubricant C) Filler D) Colorant
143. Antibiotics are assayed by:
A) UV-Vis Spectrometry B) IR C) NMR D) Turbidimetry E) Fluorimetry
144. USP limit for tablet content uniformity:
A) 90 110% B) 90 100% C) 95 105% D) 85 115%
145. The heart of HPLC and GC:
A) Pumps B) Injection valve C) Column D) Detectors E) Integrator
146. Gas chromatography is used in the separation of:
A) Volatile liquids B) Amino acid C) Carbohydrates D) Lipids E) Carboxylic acid
147. In TLC, the separation takes place on a planar surface by:
A) Dufferential migration B) Electrostatic force C) Relative solubility D) Capillary action
E) Any of the above
148. The separation of the components of an organic dye mixture is accomplished by using:
A) PC B) TLC C) HPLC D) GC E) Any of the above
B 149. This is the primary cause of product instability and involves the addition of oxygen or
the removal of hydrogen:
A) Incompatibility B) Oxidation-Reducation C) Hydrolysis D) Racemization
E) Decarboxylatio
150. This is the method of analysis based on the measurement of current resulting from the
electrolysis of an electroactive species at a given electrode potential under controlled condition:
A) Potentiometry B) Polarimetry C) Polarography D) Refractometry E) pH measurement
151. The most preferred medium in dissolution testing is:
A) Alcohol B). Acetone C) Ether D) Water E) Benzene
152. The following are the basic principles behind chromatographic separation, except:
A) Partition B) Adsorption C) Absorption D) Ion-exchange
153. The stationary phase used in gas chromatography is:
A) Gas B) Liquid C) Substrate D) Cellulose E) Chromatogram
154. The most widely used chromatographic method in drug analysis is:
A) Gas chromatography D) Supercritical fluid chromatography
B) Column chromatography E) Thin-layer chromatography
C) High performance liquid chromatpgraphy
155. In gas chromatography, the result of the assay is expressed in:
A) Retention on the column D) Adsorbent
B) Rf value E) A and C
C) Volume of gas used
156. In column chromatography, the resulting patterns with several bands is called:
A) Chromatogram B) Eluate C) Spectrum D) Band E) Chromatograph
157. Color of phenolphthalein in vinegar:
A) Pink B) Yellow C) Colorless D) Orange
158. The primary standard used in the standardization of potassium permanganate is:
A) Hydrogen peroxide C) Potassium dichromate
B) Sulfuric acid D) Sodium oxalate
159. An organic compound that changes from one color to another at a certain pH is called:
A) Test solution B.) Standard solution C) Buffer E) Indicator
160. To find the gram equivalent weight of Phosphoric acid, divide its molecular weight by:
A) 1 2) 0 C) 2 D) 3
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161. A combining molecule containing one or more groups that donate electrons will form ____
with a metal.
A) Complex B) Chelate C) Sequestering agent D) Masking agent
162. A chelate must always contain a/an:
A) Multivalent metal C_Amine group
B) Ethylenediamine group D) Hydroxyl group
163. The assay of Menadione Sodium Sulfate (Vit. K) uses this method of analysis:
A) Complexometry B) Alkalimetry C) Precipitimetry D) Cerimetry
164. In the standardization of HCl using pure anhydrous sodium carbonate as primary standard
and methyl orange as indicator, 1.0mL HCl was found to be equivalent to 0.05g of sodium
carbonate (MW = 106). The normality of HCl is:
A) 1.0 N B) 0.94 N C) 0.4716 N D) None of the above
165. An accurately measured sample of hydrogen peroxide 2.00g was dissolved in a mixture of
20mL water and 20mL and 20mL diluted sulfuric acid and was then titrated with 0.100N
potassium permanganate consuming 30.0mL to reach the end point. Compute for the percentage
of peroxide (MW = 34)
A) 2.55% B). 5.1% C)2.5% D) None of the above
166. USP requires not less than 2.5g and not more than 3.5g of hydrogen peroxide /100 parts.
Does the sample conforms with the standard requirement?
A) Yes B) No C) Maybe D) Cannot be determined
167. One twentieth molar solution of sulfuric acid is:
A) 0.05 M B) 0.1 M C) 0.005 M D) 0.5 M
168. Precipitation method using potassium chromate test solution as indicator and silver nitrate
standard solution:
A) Volhard B) Fajan C) Mohr D) None of the above
169. The titrant most commonly used for direct complexometry titration is:
A) Zinc sulfate VS C) Silver nitrate VS
B) Disodium edentate VS D) Perchloric acid VS
170. The titer value of 1.0mL of 0.1N ceric sulfate for arsenic trioxide (MW = 197.94)
A) 9.496 mg B) 197.84 mg C) 9.892 mg D) 14.838 mg
171. The masking agent used in the assay of Mg with EDTA in the presence of Al is:
A) Triethanolamine C) Potassium cyanide
B) Thioglycol D) Ammonium fluoride
172. In the assay of ZnO (MW = 81.38), each mL of 1N of H2SO4 is equivalent to ____ of ZnO.
A) 81.38 mg B) 40.69 mg C) 27.13 mg D) 20.34 mg
173. The substance used to form a film over the precipitated silver chloride particles in

A) Nitric acid B) Sodium chloride C) Triethanolamine D) Nitrobenzene

174. Assay of Sodium Nitrite is an example of:
A) Neutralization B) Precipitation C) Complexation D) Redox method
175. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration, drying and weighing the
residue is classified as:
A) Direct precipitimetry C) Gravimetry
B) Residual precipitimetry D) Gasometry
176. Ceric sulfate is a/an:
A) Precipitating agent B) Oxidizing agent C) Reducing agent D) Complexing
agent
177. The valence number of Mn in KMNO4 is:
A) +2 B) +1 C) +5 D) +7
178. The apparatus used to wash down drops of standard solution clinging to the tip of the buret
is:
A) Bobcock bottle B) Cassia flask C) Plastic bottle D) Wash bottle
179. An sample of sodium sulfate weighing 1.800g yielded 0.900g of barium sulfate (MW =
233.25). Calculate the percentage of sulfur ( AW = 32.06) in the sample.
A) 12.18% B) 6.870% C) 27.48% D) 30.44%
180. How many grams of drug are required to make 500 mL of 25.0% solution?
A) 30.0 g B) 50.0 g C) 125 g D) 130 g
181. The following are methods of determining the end point in precipitimetry, except:
A) Use of adsorption indicators C) Formation of turbidity
B) Cessation of precipitation D) Appearance of turbidity
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182. The reagent that loses the electron/s in a redox reaction is the:
A) Substance that decreases in oxidation number C) Reducing agent
B) Oxidizing agent D) Substance reduced
183. A substance that has a high degree of purity and is used in direct standardization purposes:
A) Technical grade reagent C) Analyzed reagent
B) USP grade reagent D) Primary standard reagent
184. The type of assay employed in determining the % ZnO in a sample of Zinc White Powder
using EDTA as titrant is:
A) Residual precipitimetry C) Direct complexometry
B) Direct precipitimetry D) Residual Complexometry
185. The experimental way of determining when equivalent amounts of reactants have reacted
together is:
A) Titration C) Standardization
B) Stoichiometric point D) Equivalence point
186. Calculate the calcium carbonate content of a sample of chalk weighing 0.2545g and
consuming 16.7 mL of 0.1150 M EDTA. At. Wt. Of Ca = 40.08
A) 75.52% B) 75.50% C) 37.76% D) 37.78%
187. Twenty tablets of ascorbic acid weighed 4.2500g and a powdered sample of 0.3075g was
titrated consuming 21.5mL of 0.1085N Iodine solution. Each mL of 0.1N Iodine is equivalent to
8.80mg of ascorbic acid. What is the amount of ascorbic acid per dose of two tablets?
A) 283.72 mg B) 141.86 mg C) 283.22 mg D) A and C

188. The official USP gravimetric methods are:

A) Assay involving direct ignition
B) Assay involving sublimation
C) Assay involving extraction
D) Assay involving precipitation followed by ignition
A) 1, 3 and 4 B) 2, 3 and 4 C) 1, 2 and 4 D) 1, 2 and 3
189. Hexane is the best solvent for extracting:
A) Resins B) Fats C) Carbohydrates D) Acids
190. Alkaloidal test solutions include:
D) All of the above
191. How many mL of water is expected from a 20 g Digitalis sample containing 1.5%
moisture?
A) 0.3 mL B) 30 mL C) 3 mL D) None of the above

For numbers 20 23:

The following data were obtained after the moisture and total ash content determination of
acacia powder:
Wt. of empty crucible 52.452 g
Wt. of crucible & sample 61.648 g
Wt. of crucible & sample after drying to constant wt. 60.502 g
Wt. of crucible and residue left after incineration 53.006g

192. Moisture content in grams:

A) 1.146 B) 1.144 C) 1.164 D) 1.166
193. Percent moisture:
A) 12.64% B) 12.46% C) 12.45% D) 12.54%
194. Total ash content in grams:
A) 0.545 B) 0.555 C) 0.554 D) 0.445
195. Percent total ash:
A) 6.20% B) 6.02% C) 6.22% D) 6.92%
196. Find the acid value of a sample weighing 1.230 g that consumes 30.0 mL pf 0.110 N NaOH
to bring about the end point using KOH in the titration:
A) 150.54 mg/g B) 157.72 mg/g C) 109.18 mg/g D) 124.41 mg/g
197. During an in-process control testing, the following data were obtained from loss on drying
test:
Wt. of sample before drying 1.146 g
Wt. of tare & sample after drying 25.653 g
Wt. of tare 24.632 g
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What is the weight of moisture lost?
A) 1.021 g B) 0.125 g C) 1.125 g D) 0.021 g
198. Calculate the water content of an antibiotic powder using 350mg sample. The water
equivalence factor (F) of the Karl Fischer reagent is 4.6 and the volume of the reagent used was
9.2 mL. The % of water content is:
A) 12.09% B) 1.21% C) 12.11% D) A and B
199. Determination of iodine value of oils depends on:
A. Substitution with iodine for the hydrogen in the fatty acid
B. Addition of iodine at the double bond of the fatty acid
C. Oxidation of the fatty acid by iodide
D. All of the above
200. The soluble constituents of crude drug in a certain solvent:
A) Extractive B) Ash C) Crude fiber D) Stigmasterol
201. In-process specification requires that the percent loss on drying should not exceed 0.65% of
the sample weight. Based on the given data below, what is the total amount of moisture?
Tare wt. 26.839 g
Gross wt. 36.506 g
Gross wt. after drying 36.495 g
A) 0.237 g B) 0.060 g C) 9.607 g D) 0.011 g
202. A reaction is led to completion by:
A. Formation of ash C) Production of slightly ionized molecules
B. Formation of insoluble acid D) All of the above
203. Karl Fischer electrometric titration is a method used to assay for its:
A) Oxygen content B) Nitrogen content C) Oil content D) Water content
204. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:
A) Potasium carbonate C) Sodium tartrate
B) Potassium bipthalate D) Sodium oxalate
205. Assay of atropine in Belladonna is an example of:
A) Proximate assay B) Ultimate assay C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B
206. Oils with iodine value above 120 are classified as:
A) Non-drying B) Semi-drying C) Drying D) None of the above
207. If a sample is beeswax is found to have an acid number of 15.5 and a saponification value
of 71.2, the ester value of the sample is:
A) 86.7 B) 55.7 C) 90 D) None of the above
208. The temperature for ignition described as dull red heat is:
A) 500 1000 oC B) 550 700 oC C) 500 750 oC D) 300 450 oC
209. The assay of the aldehyde content of volatile oils may be done by:
A) Potassium hydrxide method C) Bobcock method
B) Bisulfite method D) Gravimetric method
210. Quantitative determinations of alkaloids may be done by:
A) Volumetric B) Gravimetric C) Spectrophotometric D) Any of the above
211. Calculate percentage of Atropine in Belladonna powder using 10.7 g sample and adding 20
mL of 0.0225N H2SO4 and back titrated with 12.5 mL of 0.0295N NaOH. Each mL of 0.02N
H2SO4 is equivalent to 5.788g of Belladona alkaloids in terms of Atropine.
A) 5.60% B) 0.56% C) 0.59% D) 0.22%
212. Calculate the normality of sulfuric acid solution using 22.15 mL of it. The volume of NaOh
used in the standardization was 20.75 mL and its normality was 1.1055.
A) 1.0356 B) 1.3056 C) 1.0035 D) 1.0030
213. Compute for the iodine value of corn oil 0.2048g dissolved in 10 mL chloroform and 25
mL iodobromide TS was added, mixed and allowed to stand for one hour. Thirty mL of KI TS
and 100 mL distilled water were added and titrated with 10 mL of 0.1065 N sodium thiosulfate.
The volume of sodium thiosulfate consumed in the blank was 25.7. I is equal to 126.9.
A) 103.61 B) 103.16 C) 101.36 D) 103.66
214. This is the acceptable tablet hardness range of chewable tablets:
A) 4 10 kg B) 2 3 kg C) 5 8 kg D) 2 8 kg
215. How many samples should be tested if a batch consists of 120 bottles of paracetamol
suspension when the square root method is used?
A) 12 B) 11 C) 10 D) 9
216. In normal phase chromatography:
A) Stationary phase and mobile phase are both polar
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B) Stationary phase is nonpolar, mobile phase is polar
C) Stationary phase is polar, mobile phase is nonpolar
D) Stationary phase and mobile phase are both nonpolar
217. Fats are:
A) Esters of glycerin and fatty acid
B) Esters of glycerin and phosphoric acid
C) Compounds of glycerol, fatty acid. Phosphoric acid and choline
D) Steroids with one or more hydroxyl groups
E) Esters of fatty acids with high molecular weight alcohol
218. Acid insoluble ash is the part of the total ash, which is insoluble in:
A) Dilute nitric acid C) Dilute sulfuric acid
B) Dilute acetic acid D) Dilute hydrochloric acid
219. What would be the accepted weight range of tablets weighing 130mg?
A) 123.5 136.5 mg C) 117 123 mg D) 120.9 139.1 mg
B) 120.25 - 139.75 mg
220. Disintegration test is done at this temperature:
A) 36.5 37.5 oC B) 36 37 oC C) 35 39 oC D) 37 oC
221. Efficiency of HEPA filters is assessed using:
A) Dioctyl phthalate test C) Pyrogen test
B) Water attack test D) Bubble point test
222. A concentration expression referring to the number of equivalents of solute per liter of
solution is:
A) Normality B) Molarity C) Molality D) Formality
223. A solution of known concentration used to standardize another solution is:
A) Primary standard B) Dilute solution C) Secondary standard D) B and C
224. Water attack test is used in this type of glass container:
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type III
225. A person who determines the presence of pyrogens and microorganisms of a
pharmaceutical product is performing:
A) Microbial test B) Identification tests C) Pharmaceutical assaying D)
Biologic assaying
226. The process by which the exact concentration of a solution is determined is:
A) Standardization B) Neutralization C) Titration D) Dissolution
ed to keep samples free from moisture is:
A) Oven B) Dessicator C) Furnace D) Dryer
228. Materials being controlled by Quality Control, except:
A) Active ingredient B) Excipients C) Finished products D) Packages
229. To assure stability of the product until expiry date, the label should indicate:
A) Proper storage B) Proper dosage C) Proper color D) Proper drug
administration
230. Neutralization reactions in titrimetric methods of analysis may be:
A) Argentimetry B) Alkalimetry C) Compleximetry D) Mercurimetry
231. The type of ligand where EDTA belongs;
A) Unidentate B) Bidentate C) Hexadentate D) Tridentate
232. To remove stains of iodine, the most effective chemical substance is:
A) Hydrogen sulfide C) Sodium thiosulfate
B) Hydrogen peroxide D) Sodium hypochlorite
233. A type of titration where the first titrant is added in excees with the sample and the second
titrant reacts with the added excess is:
A) Back B) Direct C) Residual D) A and C
234. Light scattering method of analysis include/s:
A) Flourometry B) Turbidimetry C) Nephelometry D) B and C
235. Ferric alum TS is used as indicator in volumetric precipitation method if the titrant is:
A) AgNO3 B) BaCl2 C) NH4SCN D) NH4Cl
237. In gravimetric analysis, when the process used in extraction to obtain the original
constituent, this method belongs to:
A) Chemical B) Physical C) Precipitation D) Any of the above
238. To find the milliequivalent factor of a reducing agent, divide its molecular weight by:
A) No. of electrons gained C) No. of electrons lost
B) Valence D) Replaceable hydrogen
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239. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter because it consists of:
A) Prism B) Lamp house C) Cell compartment D) Optical scale
240. Compute for the angle of repose of the sample powder using fixed funnel method if the
height and diameter obtained was 5 cm and 13 cm respectively.
A) 37.57o B) 36.57o C) 35.75o D) 36o
241. Volatile oils are complex compounds composed of:
A) Phenols B) Inorganic salts C) Hydrocarbons D) A and C
242. The name of originator who introduced the adsorption dyes as an indicator in volumetric
precipitation method:
A) Volhard B) Liebig C) Mohr D) Fajans
243. The acid necessary for permanganate titrations is:
A) Acetic acid B) Sulfuric acid C) Hydrochloric acid D) Nitric acid
244. Using a sampling plan by military standard 105 D, the sample size required is obtained
from:
A) Master table B) Ratio and proportion C) Samples needed D) A and B
245. To control finished products in the warehouse of a company, the distribution practice is:
A) First-in first-out B) Samples needed C) Ratio and proportion D) A and B
246. The number of retention samples collected by the Quality Control Inspector from the
packaging line is:
A) Two times the number required for testing C) Not less than two labeled
containers
B) Three labeled containers D) Any of A and C
247. A type of quality control chart based on the number of defectives found is:
A) Go or no-go B) Variable C) Attribute D) A and C
248. Sources of quality variations are as follows, except:
A) Technician B) Inadequate procedure C) Equipment D) General manager
249. Acetylation mehod of analysis in volatile oils is done to determine:
A) Phenol B) Aldehyde C) Alcohol D) Ketone
250. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a reference
standard, they are:
A) Isometric substances C) Similar preparations
B) Similar solutions D) B and C
251. The material used to make the cell holder for infrared analysis are, except:
A) Sodium bromide C) b
B) Potassium chloride D) Thymolphthalein
252. Calculate the water content of str C) Sodium chloride D) Thymolphthalein eptomycin
powder weighing 4.20g as sample. The water equivalence factor (F) of the Karl Fischer reagent
was found to be 5.1 and the volume consumed was 11.50. The % of water is:
A) 1.39 B) 1.40 C) 1.41 D) 13.96
253. The Karl Fischer reagent used for moisture content determination consists of the following
except:
A) Pyridine B) Acetone C) Sulfur dioxide D) Iodine
254. This is the sum of all tests performed to determine the conformance of the product to
specifications:
A) Quality control B) Quality Assurance C) Good manufacturing practices
D) Good documentation practices
A 255. Complex inorganic compounds that are used to determine the end point in titration:
A) Indicators B) Standard solutions C) Precipitating agents D) Masking agents
256. The name of the originator who introduced the use of 0.1N silver nitrate as the titrant and
potassium chromate TS as the indicator in volumetric precipitation of chlorides is:
A) Volhard B) Mohr C) Fajan D) Liebig
257. In the assay of ascorbic acid by iodimetry, it acts as:
A) Reducing agent B) Oxidizing agent C) Acid D) Base
258. This is the weight of the substance chemically equivalent to 1 mL of the standard solution:
A) Titrand B) Equivalence point C) Titer D) End point
259. When a strong acid is titrated against a weak base, the indicator is:
A) Methyl red C) Methyl orange
B) Phenolphthalein D) Thymolphthalein
260. Residual titration method under EDTA titrations is applied to metal ion:
A) Zinc B) Calcium C) Bismuth D) Manganese
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261. The gram equivalent weight of potassium permanganate (MW = 158.03) is:
A) 29.60 B) 31.60 C) 158.03 D) 79.01
262. Assay method that determines the presence of pyrogens in injectables:
A) Rabbit test
B) Limulus amoebocyte lysate test C) White mice test D) A and B
263. The measurement of a weak base in nonaqueous medium of a given sample by titration
with standard perchloric acid:
A) Acidimetry B) Alkalimetry C) Complexometry D) Precipitimetry
264. This is used for quantitative preparation of a standard solution:
A) Pipet B) Graduated cylinder C) Volumetric flask D) Buret
265. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?
A) Ascorbic acid B) KMNO4 C) Sodium thiosulfate D) Sodium nitrite
266. The concentration of official diluted alcohol is:
A) 10% B) 50% C) 80% D) 70%
267. The oxidation number of atomic iodine is:
A) -1 B) +2 C) 0 D) +3
268. Safety and toxicity tests are conducted for:
A) Plastic tubings B) Solutions in vial C) Tablets D0 Oral liquids
269. The type of ash where sulfuric acid is used to whiten the ash is:
A) Acid-insoluble ash B) Sulfated ash C) Loss on ignition D) Residue on
ignition
270. A sample of 0.1350 g of As2O3 was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4 mL of 0.1055N
Iodine solution. The percentage purity of the sample is: At.wt. of As = 74.92; O = 16
A) 90.44 B) 90.23 C) 89.00 D) 90.54
271. The residue after incineration of a drug was 0.1185 g from a sample of 7.0 g. The
percentage of ash is:
A) 1.56 B) 2.56 C) 2.0 D) 1.55
272. Calculate the amount of caffeine extracted from coffee beans using 1.0215g of the sample.
The volume of 0.0252N H2SO4 added to the extract was 25.4 mL, the excess titrated by 21.75
mL of 0.02115N NaOH. Each mL of 0.02 N H2SO4 is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of caffeine
(C9H10O2). The percentage of caffeine is:
A) 3.40 B) 3. 5 0 C) 3.42 D) 3.60
273. If a 0.4600g of potassium iodide (KI) yielded a 0.715g of silver iodide precipitate by
gravimetric assay, what would be the percentage purity of KI? At.wt.: Ag = 107.87; K = 39.1; I
= 126/9
A) 110.90 B) 110.89 C) 45.08 D) 109.90
274. Compute for the Rf value of a substance if the substance traveled by the solvent is 12.5 cm
and the distance traveled by the sample is 7.5 cm:
A) 0.70 B) 0.60 C) 1.67 D) 1.66
275. Compute for the percentage loss on ignition of magnesium sulfate hydrated using 3.20 g
sample yielding a residue of 2.15g. The loss is:
A) 33.81% B) 32.98% C) 32.81 D) 32.75%
276. If a 0.3800 g sample of sodium sulfate yielded 0.55 g of barium sulfate precipitate by
gravimetric assay, what would be the percentage purity of sodium sulfate? At.wt.: Ba = 173.3; S
= 32.06; Na = 23; O = 16
A) 88.11 B) 99.94 C) 99.15 D) 88.51
277. Analysis of substances that fluoresce falls under:
A) Fluorometry C) Absorbance reading is obtained
B) Requires UV light D) A and B
278. An instrument in spectrometry using the filter as radiant energy device:
A) Filter photometer C) UV Vis spectrometer
B) Infrared spectrometer D) Flame photometer
279. Region in an electromagnetic spectrum:
A) Visible B) Infrared C) Ultraviolet D) All of the above
280. Cause of quality variation due to men:
A) Fatigue due to overwork C) Resourceful at work
B) Requires high salary D) Health problems
281. Acetylene and aldehyde group present in a compound that absorbs radiant energy are
called:
A) Chromophore B) Inactive C) Inert D) Pharmacophore
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282. The reading that must be obtained in a spectrophotometer:
A) Concentration error B) Absorbance C) Retention D) Angular rotation
283. The acid used in sulfated ash determination of a crude drug is:
A) Hydrochloric acid B) Nitric acid C) Sulfuric acid D) Periodc acid
284. Silica from the soil that is left after treatment of the ash with diluted HCl is the:
A) Acid-insoluble ash B) Sulfated ash C) Residue on ignition D) Loss on ignition
285. The end point in the water content determination using Karl Fischer reagent is determined
by:
A) Use of chemical indicator C) Use of spectrometer
B) Use of potentiometer or volumeter D) Use of chrmatograph
286. In microbial assay, the instrumental method used to prepare the inoculum is:
A) Turbidimetry C) Paper Chromatography
B) B) Nephelometry D) Column Chromatography

287. A polarimeter is used whether a substance is:

A) Dextrorotatory B) Levorotatory C) Optically active D) All of the above
288. A similar preparation in spectrometry refers to:
A) Reference standard and sample identically made C) Sample greater than
reference standard
B) Reference standard greater than sample D) All of the above
289. Stoichiometric point in titration means that:
A) Equivalent amounts of the titrant and analyte have reacted.
B) Normality or molarity of the reactants are the same.
C) End point in titration has been reached
D) A and C
290. In-process control tablets include the following, except:
A) Weight B) Hardness and thickness C) Disintegration D) Bioavailability
291. Content uniformity test is to be performed for all products whose active ingredient is:
A) 50 mg or less B) 130 134 mg C) 130 mg or less D) 324 mg or more
292. A date limiting the time during which a preparation may be expected to have retained its
labeled potency:
A) Shelf life B) Manufacturing date C) Expiry date D) Half-life
293. To identify the place where materials have to be stored in a material warehouse, a _____ is
pasted on the container of the material.
A) Sticker B) Label C) Ribbon D) Tag
294. Caps, bottles, labels and shipping containers are considered as:
A) Active components C) Packaging materials
B) Drug products D) Excipient
295. A ____ is a specific amount produced according to a single manufacturing order during a
single period of production.
A) Batch B) Lot C) Component D) None of the above
296. One batch can be broken into several:
A) Ingredients B) Lots C) Components D) None of the above
297. The recommended maximum limit for overage of vitamins is:
A) 30% B) 10% C) 90% D) 70%
298. ______ is the comparing of attributes and dimensions of a product against a standard to
find out if the product is within the prescribed limit.
A) Sampling B) Inspection C) Analysis D) Action
299. A ______ is a definite working rule regarding N, n and c.
A) Sampling plan C) Risk management
B) Quality Control analysis D) Control chart
300. Accelerated stability testing is, except:
A) Performed at higher temperatures to intensify degradation through time
B) Done to determine the shelf life of the product in a short period of time
C) Enough proof of shelf life and need not be further validated
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 QUALITY CONTROL

__________ 1. A buret with a glass stopcock can be used for:

A. Alcohols C. Acids
B. Bases D. Salts

__________ 2. The operation speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is:

A.150 rpm C.100 rpm
B. 200 rpm D. 50 rpm

__________ 3. Radiant energy refers to:

A. Visible C. UV
B. IR D. All of the above

__________ 4. High pressure liquid chromatography method of analysis is more advantageous than the other
column chromatography as to:
A. Ease to operate C. More precise
B. Greater speed D. All of the above

__________ 5. Content uniformity test is to be performed for all tablet products whose active ingredient is:
A. 50 mg or smaller C. 130-324 mg
B. 324 mg or more D. 130 mg or less

__________ 6. The statement of expiration date assures the patient:

A. Absence of toxicity C. Complete absorption of drug
B. Full therapeutic efficacy D. Absence of interaction

__________ 7. A factor obtained by taking the ratio of the actual normality to the theoretical normality is:
A. Titer C. Flame photometer
B. Normality factor D. Polarimeter

__________ 8. To measure the optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is:
A. Spectrometer C. Flame photometer
B. Refractometer D. Polarimeter

__________ 9. In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia
flask read 2.7 ml obtained from a sample of 10 ml of the oil after treatment of KOH. The %
phenol is:
A. 69.8 C. 73.0
B. 27.0 D. 7.30

__________ 10. Using the Karl Fischer method, determine the moisture content of a sample of raw material
where a 63 mg sample consumed 0.75 ml of titrant. Water equivalence factor is 1.10.
A. 1.8% C. 2.10%
B. 1.3% D. 0.74%

__________ 11. During shipment of the finished product to the wholesale or retail outlets, the responsible person
should ensure:
A. Product identification C. Segregation of different types
B. No damage, spillage or breakage D. All of the above

__________ 12. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent is to divide the molecular weight by:
A. Valence C. No. of electrons gained (VDGEROA)
B. No. of electron lost D. Replaceable hydrogen

__________ 13. Lower control limit if mean is 10.5 ml and one standard deviation is 0.025.
A. 10.450 ml C. 10.575 ml
B. 10.420 ml D. 10.425 ml

__________ 14. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation and identification of:
A. Amino acid C. Volatile liquids in a mixture
B. Alkaloids D. Blood components

__________ 15. The name of the originator of using silver nitrate as the titrant and potassium chromate as the
indicator in volumetric precipitation of chloride.
A. Volhard C. Mohr

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013

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B. Beer D. Fajan

__________ 16. Reassay date of thiamine Hcl if tested in December 1992.

A. 6/93 C. 12/94
B. 12/93 D. 6/94

__________ 17. Find the acid number of a raw material a mole weighing 1.230 g which required 30 ml of
0.1100 N NaOH to bring out the end point using alcoholic KOH in the titration.
A. 150.54 mg/g C. 109.18 mg/g
B. 157.72 mg/g D. 124.41 mg/g

__________ 18. A critical defect that would stop the packaging operation is:
A. Misaligned label C. Smeared label
B. Wrong label D. Inverted label

__________ 19. An instrument use to measure the durability of tablets to shipping/transportation against shock
and abrasion.
A. Metal detector C. Friabilator
B. Top loading balance D. Colorimeter

__________ 20. Methods of microbial assay of antibiotics:

A. Turbidimetric C. Both A and B
B. Cylinder plate D. None of the above

__________ 21. Retention or preservation of samples and records of all pharmaceutical products should be
monitored for signs of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is:
A. 2 years after date of expiration C. 2 years
B. 1 year after date of expiration D. 3 years

__________ 22. Potentiometry finds application in:

A. Biological assay C. Qualitative analysis
B. Identification test D. pH determination

__________ 23. In the assay of sulfonamides, the method used is:

A. Diazotization C. Gravimetric
B. Acid-base titration D. Volumetric

__________ 24. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of another
metal.
A. Linking C. Complexing
B. Masking D. Redox

__________ 25. cGMP is:

A. An agency created by RA 3720
B. Also known as Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are incorrect

__________ 26. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the:
A. Documentation C. Material inspection
B. Biological testing laboratory D. Analytical laboratory

__________ 27. The indicator for EDTA direct titration against CaCO3 is:
A. Methyl red C. Methylene blue
B. Hydroxynaphthol blue D. Thymol blue

__________ 28. Safety or toxicity for infusion plastic sets is conducted using:
A. Dogs C. White mice
B. Food ingestion D. Rabbits

__________ 29. Chemical analysis which determines the amount of percentage content in which the component
of a substance is present:
A. Quantitative C. Qualitative
B. Proximate D. Ultimate

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__________ 30. The addition of overage is justified when:
A. The clinical studies show that the overage is safe therapeutically
B. The unstable active ingredients cannot be possibly standardized
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

__________ 31. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture of the
formulation until its chemical or biological activity is not less than ___ of the labeled potency.
A. 99% C. 90%
B. 93% D. 95%

__________ 32. Adsorbents used in TLC:

A. Silica gel and aluminum oxide C. Silica gel
B. Aluminum oxide D. Kieselguhr

__________ 33. Content uniformity test is conducted in:

A. 5 tablets C. 10 tablets
B. 20 tablets D. 15 tablets

__________ 34. The most effective manner to clean glass apparatus is:
A. Soaking in detergent C. Rinsing with alcohol
B. Treatment with chromic acid D. Rinsing with nitric acid

__________ 35. Ferrous sulfate is:

A. Agent that loses electron C. Reducing agent
B. An oxidizing agent D. Both A and C

__________ 36. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each production batch and
assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay of the individual compedial monograph.
A. Content uniformity C. Disintegration test
B. Weight variation D. Dissolution test

__________ 37. These are instruments under spectrometric methods which operate based on the absorption or
emission of electromagnetic radiation as a result of it interation with matter, EXCEPT:
A. Potentiometer C. X-ray
B. NMR D. IR

__________ 38. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:

A. Inorganic matter C. Gas
B. Carbon D. Volatile oil

__________ 39. Type of Q.C equipment used for measuring the absorbance of substances between regions
380- 780 nm.
A. UV_VIS spectrophotometer C. Mass spectrophotometer
B. Infrared spectrophotometer D. Colorimeter

__________ 40. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis:

A. Neutralization C. Direct
B. Residual D. Both B and C

__________ 41. The choice method of determining the alcohol content of pharmaceutical preparation:
A. Specific gravity C. Fractional distillation
B. Percolation D. Cryoscopic

__________ 42. The gram molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. A solution containing 49 g/L of solution is:
A. 0.2 M C. 1 N
B. 0.5 N D. 1 M

__________ 43. USP steroid identification test:

A. Gravimetric C. Fluoroscopic
B. Spectrophotometric D. Chromatographic

__________ 44. Which of the following are principles of chromatographic separation?

I. Adsorption III. Ion-exchange
II. Partition IV. Molecular exclusion

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A. I and II C. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III D. None of the above

__________ 45. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of:

A. g/L C. g of solute/100 ml
B. mg/L D. g or mg/ml

__________ 46. Titrating an alkaline sample with an acid standard solution is known as:
A. Direct alkalimetry C. Precipitation method
B. Gravimetric analysis D. Indirect alkalimetric

__________ 47. Retention or preservation of samples and records of all pharmaceutical products should be
monitored for sign of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is:
A. 2 years
B. 1 year after the expiry date of the product
C. 3 years
D. 2 years after the expiry date

__________ 48. LAL reagent is used to:

A. Measure pH of solution C. Prevent the oxidation of parenteral prep
B. Test the presence of pyrogens D. Acts as preservative for pharmaceutical

__________ 49. Control chart limit which alerts the operator to closely monitor the process:
A. Warning limit C. Acceptable limit
B. Action limit D. Any of these

__________ 50. In-process inspection tests to be perform during the filling of parenteral products:
A. Viscosity
B. Light inspection for clarity of solution
C. Fill volume
D. Light inspection and fill volume

__________ 51. USP limit for tablet content uniformity:

A. 90-110% C. 95-110%
B. 90-100% D. 85-115%

__________ 52. Analysis function would include:

A. Shelf-life studies C. Raw material control
B. In-process control D. All of these

__________ 53. In the SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is called:
A. Attribute chart C. Beer's plot
B. Bar chart D. Variable chart

__________ 54. The number of linear openings per square inch is known as:
A. Sieve C. Both A and B
B. Mesh D. None of these

__________ 55. Test used to determine the strength of tablets includes:

A. Content uniformity C. Weight variation
B. Hardness D. Both A and B

__________ 56. Which of the given is the least used as sampled materials?
A. Final product C. Intermediate product
B. Records D. Raw materials

__________ 57. The presence of cotton fiber in a liquid preparation is considered a/an:
A. Critical defect C. Internal defect
B. Variable defect D. Ocular defect

__________ 58. A special residual method in acidimetry intended for the determination of nitrogen content in
organic compounds.
A. Karl Fischer method C. Volhard method
B. Back titration D. Kjeldahl method

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__________ 59. Assay of 250 mL solution of Dopamine 200 mg injection resulted in the following data. Based on
these, determine the amount of Dopamine in 100 mL solution:
Sample volume 5.0 mL
Solution volume 250.0 mL
Absorbance sample 38259
Absorbance standard 20163
A. 0.04 mg/100mL C. 3.8 mg/100mL
B. 4.5 mg/100mL D. 4.5 mg/100mL

__________ 60. The disintegration constant of a radioisotope is 0.0502 day1. Calculate the half life of the
radioisotope.
A. 11 days C. 15 days
B. 13 days D. 21 days

__________ 61. Determine the distance traveled by the solute, if its Rf value is 0.688 and the solvent travels
8.0 cm. the sample weight is 1.02 mg.
A. 11.6 cm C. 5.5 cm
B. 11.8 cm D. 0.70 cm

__________ 62. One mole of dichromate ions gains a total of ___ electrons when converted to chromous ion.
A. 3 C. 10
B. 6 D. None of the above

__________ 63. Koetsdorfer number is a synonym for:

A. Ester value C. Iodine value
B. Saponification value D. Acetate value

__________ 64. The chemical constant used in the analysis of fats and oils are:
A. Iodine value C. Acid value
B. Saponication value D. All of the above

__________ 65. Water content of raw materials is determined by quality control equipment, such as:
I. Ohaus moisture balance III. pH meter
II. Karl Fischer Tritrimetry IV. Vacuum oven

A. I, II and IV C. I, II and III

B. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

__________ 66. The primary standard used to standardize Karl fisher reagent is:
A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate C. Sodium tartrate
B. Potassium bipthalate D. Sodium oxalate

__________ 67. Plastic containers for ophthalmic or parenteral preparations are sterilized by:
A. Microwave C. Soaking in formalin
B. Autoclaving D. Ethylene oxide

__________ 68. A sample is:

A. Is taken from a population
B. It should represent the whole batch from where it is taken
C. Is a finite number of objects selected from a population
D. All of the above

__________ 69. Instrument to determine the tightness of a cap is:

A. Crimper C. Resister
B. Torque tester D. pH meter
__________ 70. Its primary objective is to monitor all features of a product.
A. SOP C. Stability testing
B. Sampling D. IPQC

__________ 71. It has a high degree of purity and is used in direct standardization purposes:
A. Technical grade C. Primary standard
B. CP grade D. Any of the above

__________ 72. The primary standard used for standardization of Ce(SO4)2 in cerimetric method of analysis is:
A. K2Cr2O7 C. KmnO4

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B. As2O3 D. H2C2

__________ 73. In paper partition chromatography, what is the Rf value of a compound if the solute travels 3.1
cm and the solvent moves 4.3 cm after 5 minutes?
A. 3.605 C. 13.33
B. 0.721 D. 1.387

__________ 74. A sampling inspection in which decision is made to accept or not to accept an item:
A. Rejection number C. Acceptance number
B. Acceptance sampling D. Any of the above

__________ 75. Indicators used for acid-base titration, EXCEPT:

A. Methyl red C. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl orange D. Ferric alum

__________ 76. Sample size of bottles to check for cap tightness.

A. 10 C. 20
B. 30 D. 15

__________ 77. Quantitative analysis of morphine.

A. Ultimate analysis C. Ultimate assay
B. Proximate assay D. Proximate analysis

__________ 78. What is the normality of sulfuric acid containing 73.5 g/500 mL of solution?
A. 2.0 N C. 3.0 N
B. 2.5 N D. 1.0 N

__________ 79. Three months of acceptable data at 37-400C/75% RH can be extrapolated to ___ year/s
expiry date.
A. 1 C. 4
B. 5 D. 2

__________ 80. The periodic examination on the quality of inventories is a function of:
A. Quality coordination office C. Analytical lab
B. Biological testing lab D. Material inspection section

__________ 81. The spotting agnt for amino acids in paper chromatography is:
A. Potassium chromate C. Silver nitrate
B. Ninhydrin D. Iodine

__________ 82. Negligible ash in a pharmaceutical preparation is:

A. 200 mg C. 500 mg
B. 1000 mg D. 500 mcg

__________ 83. The reassay date of raw material is based on their:

A. Stability C. Quantity purchased
B. Price D. None of the above

__________ 84. Quality must be built into the product during:

A. Research C. Production
B. Development D. All of the above

__________ 85. Recommended indicator in the assay of alkaloids:

A. Phenolphthalein C. Methyl orange
B. Methyl red D. Litmus paper

__________ 86. The titrant in non-aqueous alkalimetry is:

A. Ammonium hydroxide C. Sodium methoxide
B. Perchloric acid D. Sodium hydroxide

__________ 87. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same:
A. Number of equivalents C. Normality
B. Volume D. Weight

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__________ 88. In radiopharmacy, REM means
A. Roentgen equivalent man C. Radiation per minute
B. Radiation per mill second D. Roentgen exposure per minute

__________ 89. One of the laws in spectrophotometry:

A. Law of mass action s law

__________ 90. Substances that have the power of rotating the plane polarized light are said to be.
A. Light sensitive C. Active constituents
B. Optically active D. Dextrorotatory

__________ 91. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is:

A. Reflected C. Absorbed
B. Transmitted D. Adsorbed

__________ 92. The process of determining the volume of standard solution required to react with a known
amount of substance being assayed.
A. Neutralization C. Oxidation
B. Titration D. Hydrolysis

__________ 93. Color of phenolphthalein in caustic potash.

A. Pink C. Colorless
B. Yellow D. Orange

__________ 94. The potency of drug component is commonly determined by:

A. HPLC C. GC
B. Titrimetric method D. Spectrophotometric method

__________ 95. The index of refraction of a volatile oil is determined by using:

A. Pectrophotometer C. Refractometer
B. Pycnometer D. Polarimeter

__________ 96. A type of sampling which is permitted if the first one falls:
A. Double C. Both A and B
B. Single D. None of the above

__________ 97. What is preferred for standardization of permanganate?

A. Sodium oxalate C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Sodium carbonate D. Sodium nitrate

__________ 98. Instability will be accelerated by:

A. Temperature C. Light
B. Heat D. All of the above

__________ 99. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration, drying, and weighing the residue
is classified as:
A. Precipitimetry C. Gravimetric analysis
B. Volhard method D. Residual precipitimetry

__________ 100. An analyst who determines the strength, potency, and percentage purity of a drug or
pharmaceutical product is performing:
A. Pharmaceutical assaying C. Pharmacopeial test
B. Identification test D. Special test

__________ 101. Type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determined.
A. Ultimate C. Extraction
B. Specific D. Proximate

__________ 102. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with a standard acid is known as:
A. Acidimetry C. Alkalimetry
B. Compleximetry D. Redox

__________ 103. Which of the following substance is assayed by residual alkalimetric analysis.
A. Aspirin C. Hydrochloric acid

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B. Sodium hydroxide D. Zinc oxide

__________ 104. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of NaOH pellets are needed to make
500mL of 1.5 N solution?
A. 20 C. 40
B. 30 D. 60

__________ 105. Which of the following is the most effective chemical substance in removing stains of
potassium permanganate?
A. Oxalic acid C. Chalk
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Vinegar

__________ 106. Which of the following indicators is the least used for acid-base titration?
A. Methyl Orange C. Ferric Alum
B. Phenolpthalein D. Methyl Red

__________ 107. Residual method titration with EDTA is applicable to what metal ion?
A. Calcium C. Zinc
B. Aluminum D. Magnesium

__________ 108. Chemical reactions that involves a change in the valence number of reacting substances.
A. Neutralization C. Oxidation-Reduction
B. Complexation D. Precipitation

__________ 109. A process wherein the sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard
solution of sodium thiosulfate.
A. Volumetric titration C. Iodometry
B. Back titration D. Iodimetry

__________ 110. Malic acid represent in cherry juice may be determined by:
A. Indirect Permanganate oxidation Method
B. Direct Permanganate Oxidation Method
C. Alkalimetry
D. Acidimetry

__________ 111. Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:

A. Oxidizing agents C. Acids
B. Reducing agents D. Bases

__________112. The chemical factor used in calculation of percent purity of a substance in volumetric analysis.
A. mEq weight C. Molality
B. Molarity D. None of the above

__________ 113. Adsorption indicators are used in:

A. Complexity C. Volumetric Precipitation
B. Acidimetry D. Alkalimetry

__________ 114. The indicator used in permanganate titration:

A. Methyl Orange C. Permanganate solution
B. Phenolpthalein D. Methyl Red

__________ 115. The indicator for EDTA direct titration of calcium carbonate:
A. Thymol blue C. Methyl red
B. Hydroxynapthol blue D. Methylene blue

__________ 116. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent, divide the molecular weight by:
A. No. of electrons gained C. Valence
B. No. of electrons lost D. Replaceable hydrogen

__________ 117. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of
another metal is:
A. Redox C. Linking
B. Masking D. Complexing

__________ 118. Two substance reacting upon reaching the endpoint must have the same:

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A. Normality C. No. of equivalents
B. Volume D. Weight

__________ 119. The method of assay for sulfonamides is:

A. Acid-base titration C. Diazotization with nitrite
B. Gravimetric D. Redox titration

__________ 120. Which of the following is a reducing agent?

A. Ascorbic acid C. Iodine
B. Potassium Permanganate D. Hydrochloric acid

__________ 121. Chemical analysis, which determines the amount or percentage content of a certain component
in a sample.
A. Qualitative C. Quantitative
B. Proximate D. Gravimetric

__________ 122. The indicator used in the assay of weak acid reacting with a strong base is:
A. Methyl red TS C. Eriochrome Black
B. Methyl orange TS D. Phenolpthalein

__________ 123. The substance being analyzed is the:

A. Titrant C. Salt
B. Indicator D. Analyte

__________ 124. Expression of concentration in volumetric EXCEPT:

A. Normality C. Molarity
B. Titer D. Molality

__________ 125. The assay procedures in volumetric precipitation were introduced by the following scientists,
EXCEPT:
A. Arrhenlus C. Fajan
B. Mohr D. Volhard

__________ 126. The terms used when equivalent amount of each reactants have reacted are the following
EXCEPT:
A. End point C. Stoichiometric
B. Equivalence point D. Theoretical point

__________ 127. Component of a blank used in the assay of a substance are, EXCEPT:
A. Solvent C. Indicator
B. Reagent D. Analyte

__________ 128. The color of phenolphthalein in vinegar.

A. Pink C. Colorless
B. Yellow D. Orange

__________ 129. The primary standard used in the assay of potassium permanganate.
A. Hydrogen peroxide C. Potassium dichromate
B. Sulfuric acid D. Sodium oxalate

__________130. An organic compound that changes from one color to another at a certain pH is called.
A. Test solution C. Buffer
B. Standard solution D. Indicator

__________ 131. The assay of menadione sodium sulfate (Vitamin K) uses this method of analysis:
A. Gravimetric method C. Precipitation method
B. Acid base method D. Redox titration

__________ 132. Precipitation method using potassium chromate TS as indicator and silver nitrate standard
solution.
A. Volhard C. Mohr
B. Fajan D. None of the above

__________ 133. The titrant most commonly used for direct compleximetry titration.
A. Zinc sulfate C. Silver nitrate

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B. EDTA D. HClO4

__________ 134. The masking agent used in the assay of Mg with EDTA in the presence of Aluminum.
A. Triethanolamine C. Potassium cyanide
B. Thioglycol D. Ammonium fluoride

__________ 135. The substance used to form a film over the precipitated silver chloride particles in Volhard's
method.
A. Nitric acid C. Triethanolamine
B. Sodium chloride D. Nitrobenzene

__________ 136. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of:

A. Neutralization C. Complexation
B. Precipitation D. Redox method

__________ 137. Ceric sulfate is a/an:

A. Precipitating agent C. Reducing agent
B. Oxidizing agent D. Complexing agent

__________ 138. The valence number of Mn in KmnO4 is:

A. +2 C. +5
B. +1 D. +7

__________ 139. The apparatus used to wash down drops of standard solution clinging to the tip of
the buret:
A. Bobcock bottle C. Acetylization flask
B. Cassia flask D. Wash bottle

__________ 140. The following are methods of determining the end point in precipitimetry:
A. Use of adsorption indicators C. Formation of turbidity
B. Cessation of precipitation D. Appearance of turbidity

__________ 141. The quality control manager is in-charge of the following sections, EXCEPT:
A. Analytical laboratory
B. Specifications and analytical development
C. Research and development
D. Biological testing laboratory

__________ 142. Used to describe the overall organization body designed to assure product quality.
A. Quality control C. Drug assaying
B. Quality assurance D. All of the above

__________ 143. Serve as basis in accepting or rejecting the product.

A. Standards C. A and B
B. Specifications D. None of the above

__________ 144. It shows mainly the conformance or non-conformance of the material to specifications.
A. Variable defects C. Minor defects
B. Attribute defects D. Ocular defects

__________ 145. Crack in the bottle is an example of ___ defect.

A. Minor C. Critical
B. Major D. Serious

__________ 146. Environmental monitoring is conducted by:

A. Material inspection section C. Biological testing laboratory
B. Analytical laboratory D. Specification and analytical laboratory

__________ 147. A basic quality function is that of deciding whether the product conforms to specifications. This
function is generally called ___.
A. Sampling C. Acceptance
B. Standard D. Inspection

__________ 148. It is a finite number of objects selected from a batch of a product.

A. Sample C. Population

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B. Sampling D. Inspection number

__________ 149. In a ___, a decision is made after the result of the second sampling is known.
A. Single sampling C. Multiple sampling
B. Double sampling D. None of the above

__________ 150. The following are the numbers that must be specified in sampling plan, EXCEPT:
A. Population C. Acceptance
B. Sample D. Rejection

__________ 151. The following are the member countries that worked in the improvement of MIL-STD-105D,
EXCEPT:
A. USA C. Canada
B. UK D. Australia

__________ 152. The MIL-STD-105D is used in sampling by:

A. Attribute C. Defects
B. Variable D. A and B only

__________ 153. AQL is defined in the ABC standard as:

A. Maximum percent defectives C. Rejection number
B. Acceptance quality level D. Acceptance number

__________ 154. In a table for sample size code, the inspection level ___ is used when less discrimination is
needed.
A. I C. III
B. II D. S

__________ 155. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the use of Q.C stickers?
A. Decision stickers are pasted on the top of quarantine stickers
B. Green stickers means approved for use
C. Green sticker should be pasted above the red sticker
D. Red sticker can be pasted even without removing yellow sticker

__________ 156. Approved raw materials are audited to assure that they are rotated in such a manner that the
old stocks are used first. This is known as:
A. FIFO C. FIPA
B. IFOF D. FOFI

__________ 157. The following are examples of primary packaging components, EXCEPT:
A. Plunger C. Boxes
B. Seals D. Stripping

__________ 158. Minimum criteria for acceptance of printed materials, EXCEPT:

A. Color C. Cleanliness
B. Expiration date D. Shape

__________ 159. Labeling requirements for drugs and cosmetics, EXCEPT:

A. Name C. Description
B. Lot number D. Business address

__________ 160. Package insert include the following text, EXCEPT:

A. Action C. Indication
B. Warning D. Expiration date

__________ 161. One of the physico-chemical test conducted for containers.

A. Stress crack resistance C. Light Transmission
B. Torque D. Thermal analysis

__________ 162. Torque test is an example of:

A. Container control C. Closure control
B. Leak test D. Volatilization test

__________ 163. Based on the stability of raw materials, reassay date assigned to flavoring agent is:
A. 6 months C. 24 months

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B. 12 months D. 36 months

__________ 164. This is generated to explain in detail the reason behind a procedure and proper sequence of
step to be done, and how equipments are maximum performance.
A. Manufacturing monograph C. Batch record
B. Quality control monograph D. Standard operating procedure

__________ 165. It means any distinctive combinations of markings, letters, or number by which the history of
the manufacture and control of a batch or lot of a product can be determined.
A. Batch number C. Control number
B. Lot number D. All of the above

__________ 166. Which of the following is NOT included in the minimum test requirement for solid preparations?
A. Friability C. Hardness
B. Weight variation D. Pourability
__________ 167. Minimum requirements common to solid and liquid preparations, EXCEPT:
A. Color C. Texture
B. Odor D. Taste

__________ 168. For the sample size of 8 with AQL of 1.5, the acceptance number is:
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D. 3

__________ 169. If AQL is 1.0 and the sample size is 13, the rejection number is:
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

__________ 170. Ability of the formulation to remain within its physical, chemical, therapeutic and toxicological
specifications.
A. Endurance C. Purity
B. Stability D. Friability

__________ 171. Results that agree closely with one another are said to be:
A. Accurate C. Bias
B. Precise D. A and B only

__________ 172. Which of the following given has the principal concern for residual contamination which could
alter or adversely affect a subsequent product and cannot be detected by an ordinary SOP
methods?
A. Assay validation C. Process validation
B. Instrument validation D. Cleaning validation

__________ 173. High Efficiency Particulate Air ( HEPA ) is an example of:

A. Mill C. Dryer
B. Filter D. Sprayer

__________ 174. Physical stability is of importance for formulator for the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A. Appearance C. Bioavailability
B. Uniformity D. Taste

__________ 175. A class of raw materials, which are to be subjected to tests and assays by the Q.C department
and are not yet to be used in the production of pharmaceuticals:
A. Approved for use materials C. Quarantined materials
B. Rejected materials D. In-process materials

__________ 176. A section of the warehouse which houses products which have been bottled, stripped or blister
packed, but not yet labeled or packed into boxes/cartons and are still awaiting the final
disposition of the Q.C department.
A. Finished goods section C. Returned goods section
B. In-process section D. Raw material section

__________ 177. An important parameter in the quality control of tablets, shown to be related to tablet solubility
properties:
A. Thickness C. Friability
B. Disintegration D. Tensile strength

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__________ 178. An analyst who determines the strength, potency, and percentage purity of a drug
pharmaceutical product is performing:
A. Pharmaceutical assaying C. Identification test
B. Pharmacopoeial testing D. Special method

__________ 179. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablets.
A. Bioavailability C. Hardness and thickness
B. Weight variation D. Disintegration

__________ 180. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet products?
A. Disintegration C. Purity
B. Bioavailability D. Potency

__________ 181. Which of the following apparatus is the least accurate?

A. Pipet C. Volumetric flask
B. Buret D. Graduated cylinder

__________ 182. Which of the following is the least true about cleaning volumetric apparatus?
A. Adherence of droplets to the wall of buret is positive evidence that the
apparatus is dirty
B. Hot cleaning solution should be used
C. Solution to be contained in it is used in final rinsing
D. All of the above

__________ 183. Which of the following can be used in cleaning glass wares?
A. Sodium dichromate in sulfuric acid
B. Trisodium phosphate solution
C. Solution of synthetic detergent
D. All of the above

__________ 184. The calibration of burets may be performed by means of :

A. Ostwald-calibrating pipet C. Mohr buret
B. Kiehl buret D. A and B only

__________ 185. Apparatus used in cooling the sample or object and keeping them dry.
A. Crucibles C. Dessicator
B. Rubber policeman D. Evaporating dish

__________ 186. The ideal type of buret used for bases:

A. Glass buret C. Geissler's buret
B. Teflon buret D. Mohr buret

__________ 187. It is an expression of the concentration for solution in terms of the number of milliequivalents
per milliliter of solution.
A. Molar C. Molal
B. Normal D. Formal

__________ 188. It is a process of determining the more accurate concentration of roughly prepared standard
solution.
A. Titration C. Calibration
B. Standardization D. Assay
__________ 189. May be defined as the weight of a substance chemically equivalent to 1 ml of the standard
solution.
A. Titrant C. Molarity
B. Equivalent weight D. Titer

__________ 190. Which of the following substance/s is/are the least used as primary standard grade for
standardization of basic solutions.
A. Sulfamic acid C. Potassium biphthalate
B. Benzoic acid D. THAM

__________ 191. The temperature specified in the USP and NF for volumetric measurement is:
A. 20 ºC C. 30 ºC
B. 25 ºC D. A and B only

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__________ 192. The theoretical point at which equivalent amounts of analyte and titrant have reacted is called:
A. End point C. Equivalence point
B. Stoichiometric point D. B and C only

__________ 193. Salt and water are always the products in ___ reaction.
A. Neutralization C. Complexation
B. Precipitation D. Redox

__________ 194. When a weak acid is titrated with strong alkali, the indicator of choice is:
A. Methyl red C. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl orange D. No indicator can be used

__________ 195. Primary standard sodium carbonate must be heated at a temperature of about 270 ºC for one
(1) hour prior to use to convert any ___ that might be present to anhydrous sodium carbonate.
A. NaHCO3 C. CO2
B. H2CO3 D. H2O

__________ 196. Which of the following can be used to standardize HCl solution?
A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate C. Gravimetrically using AgNO3
B. Standard NaOH solution D. All of the above

__________ 197. What is the use of barium hydroxide in the preparation of standard NaOH solution?
A. Preservative
B. Precipitate any CO3 present in solution
C. Prevent reaction of NaOH with CO3
D. Catalyst

__________ 198. In the preparation of a standard solution of NaOH more than 1 equivalent, 4.0 g of NaOH is
weighed because it is:
A. Volatile C. Hygroscopic
B. Effervescent D. Corrosive

__________ 199. Milk of Magnesia is assayed by:

A. Direct acidimetry C. Residual acidimetry
B. Direct alkalimetry D. Residual alkalimetry

__________ 200. The most suitable indicator to use in the assay of sodium bicarbonate by direct acidimetry.
A. Methyl orange C. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl red D. Thymolphthalein

__________ 201. The following substances can be assayed successfully only by residual method, EXCEPT:
A. ZnO C. Magnesium carbonate
B. Aspirin D. Acetic acid

__________ 202. The USP macro method for determination of total nitrogen is:
A. Method I C. Method III
B. Method II D. Method IV

__________ 203. In Kjeldahl method of nitrogen determination, addition of which of the following can hasten the
digestion of ammonia with sulfuric acid?
A. Potassium sulfate C. Copper sulfate
B. Selenium D. All of the above

__________ 204. Standardization can be optional to:

A. 0.1 N oxalic acid C. 0.1 N ceric sulfate
B. 0.1 N potassium dichromate D. 0.1 N silver nitrate

__________ 205. Roughly prepared standard solution of oxalic acid can be standardized using:
A. Pure iodine in KI C. Standad permanganate solution
B. Standard NaOH solution D. All of the above

__________ 206. Metal ion indicator is used in:

A. Precipitimetry C. Compleximetry
B. Fajan method D. Ceremetry

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__________ 207. Standard solution used in precipitation method:

A. Disodium edetate C. AgCl
B. Ammonium thiocyanate D. Ferric alum

__________ 208. Used to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element:
A. Nitrobenzene C. Evaporation
B. Masking D. Buffering

__________ 209. Assay of sodium nitrite can be done using:

A. Indirect permanganometry C. Diazotization
B. Iodometry D. All of the above

__________ 210. The end point using this indicator is illustrated by the formation of a secondary colored
precipitate in:
A. Potassium chromate C. Fluorescein
B. Ferric alum D. Thiosulfate

__________ 211. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of thiosulfate solution in optimum range for
the stability of the solution?
A. Sodium carbonate C. Thymol
B. Sodium bicarbonate D. Chloroform

__________ 212. If starch TS is used as indicator, end point is illustrated by:

A. Appearance of blue color C. Either
B. Disappearance of blue color D. Neither

__________ 213. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of metal ion ith ligand is called:
A. Solubility constant C. Stability constant
B. Solubility product constant D. Ionization constant

__________ 214. What is the use of chloroforn in sodium tetraphenylboron titration?

A. Solvent C. Stabilizer
B. Extraction indicator D. Catalyst

__________ 215. Can be assayed by direct titration with standard acetic acid:
A. Sodium bicarbonate C. Ammonium chloride
B. Dilute HCI D. KOH

__________ 216. Which of the following is/are true about auxiliary complexing agent?
I. They are ligands
II. They are masking agents
III. Hydroxynapthol blue is an example
A. I only C. II and III only
B. I and III only D. I,II and III

__________ 217. Zn will not interfere in the analysis of Ca using EDTA at pH:
A. 2 C. 8
B. 4 D. 13

__________ 218. Bacteria labile solution:

A. Sodium thiosulfate C. Potassium dichromate
B. Potassium permanganate D. Oxalic acid

__________ 219. The oxidation number of sulfur in sodium thiosulfate is:

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

__________ 220. Drugs containing Ca can be assayed by:

A. Gravimetric method C. Complexometric method
B. Compleximetry D. All of the above

__________ 221. Adsorption indicators are used in:

A. Precipitimetry C. Permanganometry

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B. Compleximetry D. Neutralization

__________ 222. Which of the following can Not be assayed by sodiyn tetraphenylboron titration?
A. KCI C. AgNO3
B. NH4CI D. NaCI

__________ 223. Metal ion indicator that forms violet complex with Cu:
A. Dithiazone C. Hydroxynapthol blue
B. Pyridylazonaphthol D. Eriochrome black T

__________ 224. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?

A. Thiosulfate C. Bromate
B. Arsenite D. Ferrous

__________ 225. To remove the stain of potassium permanganate, the most effective chemical is:
A. Chlorox C. Oxalic acid
B. Vinegar D. Calamansi juice

__________ 226. HCI and calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as:
A. Carbonic acid C. Calcium chloride
B. Calcium hydroxide D. A and B only

__________ 227. Differentiating titration is applied to:

A. Alkali solution C. Hard water
B. Mixture of acids D. Oxidant - reductant

__________ 228. Assay of selenium sulfide uses ___ method.

A. Iodometric C. Koppeschaar's
B. Iodimetric D. Titration with hypoiodite

__________ 229. Can be used in the assay of sodium chloride:

A. Mohr method C. Fajan method
B. Volhard method D. All of the above

__________ 230. True about permanganate method:

I. Reaction is carried out in acidic solution
II. Standard permanganate is used as titrant in direct and indirect method
III. No indicator is required

A. I and II only C. I and III only

B. II and III only D. I, II and III

__________ 231. Concentrated HCI ( 36.46 g/mol) has a purity of 36.5% w/w and sp.gr. 1.18; approximately
how many milliliter of concentrated HCI is needed to prepare 500 ml of 0.2 N solution?
A. 3.1 C. 6.8
B. 5.7 D. 8.5

__________ 232. What weight of 98.5% KHC8H4O4 ( 204 g/mol) is equivalent to 40.0 ml of 0.1 N NaOH?
A. 0.82 g C. 0.84 g
B. 0.83 g D. 0.85 g

__________ 233. Exactly 30.2 ml of HCI was consumed in the titration of 1.6 gram of primary standard sodium
carbonate ( 106 g/mol). What was the normal concentration of HCI solution?
A. 0.5 C. 1.5
B. 1.0 D. 2.0

__________ 234. 33.5 ml of 0.9998N NaOH was sued in the titration of 50 ml HCI solution. Calculate the
normality of HCI.
A. 0.6689 C. 0.6699
B. 0.6779 D. 0.6969

__________ 235. A Sodium bicarbonate (84 g/mol) tablet was dissolved in 200 ml of water and consumed 38.2
ml of 0.1009 N HCI. Calculate the % labeled claim. The labeled amount was 325 mg.
A. 99.0 % C. 99.6 %
B. 99.4 % D. 99.8 %

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013

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__________ 236. Calculate the MgO (40.30 g/mol) content of milk of magnesia, 12.32 g of which was dissolved
in 50.00 ml of 1.034 N Sulfuric acid producing a mixture that required 24.6 ml of 1.1255 N
sodium hydroxide.
A. 3.63 % C. 3.83 %
B. 3.73 % D. 3.93 %

__________ 237. A 4.052 g sample of HCI sp.gr. 1.18 required 44.15 ml of 0.9035 N NaOH in a titration.
Calculate the Na2CO3 (106) titre of the sample.
A. 0.5 C. 0.7
B. 0.6 D. 0.8

__________ 238. Twenty sodium salicylate tablets labeled 325 mg were dispersed in sufficient water to make
200.0 ml. A 15.0 ml aliquot of the filtrate was titrated to a bromophenol blue end point in the
usual way by 29.11 ml of 0.1 N HCI. Calculate the percent labeled amount of C7H5NaO3
(160.11):
A. 95.5 % C. 97.5 %
B. 96.5 % D. 98.5 %

__________ 239. Mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 was assayed by double indicator method, 42.0 ml of a 0.0955
N HCI was consumed by 2.5 ml sample to produce pph end point. Calculate the %
Na2CO3 if % NaOH is 4.12.
A. 3 % C. 5 %
B. 4 % D. 6 %

__________ 240. 10 ml sample of diluted phosphoric acid consumed 35.0 ml of 1.002 N NaOH to produce a
thymolphthalein end point. If the indicator blank is 0.7 ml, what is the % w/v H3PO4 (98)?
A. 16.2 % C. 16.8 %
B. 16.5 % D. 17.0 %

__________ 241. The experimental way of determining when equivalent amounts of reactants have reacted
together is known as.
A. Titration C. Standardization
B. Stoichiometric method D. Equivalence point

__________ 242. Assay of atropine in belladonna is an example of:

A. Proximate assay C. Both A and B
B. Ultimate assay D. Neither A nor B

__________ 243. A solution of known concentration used to standardize another solution is:
A. Primary standard C. Secondary standard
B. Dilute solution D. B and C

__________ 244. The process of determining the exact concentration of a solution is:
A. Standardization C. Redox
B. Neutralization D. Acidimetry

__________ 245. The type of ligand where EDTA belongs:

A. Unidentate C. Hexadentate
B. Bidentate D. Tridentate

__________ 246. Ferric alum TS is used as indicator in volumetric precipitation method if the titrant is:
A. AgNO3 C. NH4SCN
B. BaCI2 D. NH4CI

__________ 247. The pH of a solution is usually measured using:

A. Platinum electrode C. Mercury electrode
B. Glass electrode D. Calomel electrode

__________ 248. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance is sued for:

A. Radioisotopes C. Identification of chemicals
B. Irradiation D. A and B

__________ 249. Potentiometry find application in:

A. Biologic assay C. Qualitative analysis

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B. pH determination D. A and B

__________ 250. In column chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of narrow bands
in a column is:
A. Chromatogram C. Development
B. Eluant D. A and C

__________ 251. Beer's plot in spectrometry is prepare to determine:

A. Absorbance the sample C. Absorbance the Blank
B. Wavelength be used D. Concentration of the sample

__________ 252. A plot of absorbance against concentration of a standard drawn in straight line is:
A. Charle's C. Lamber's
B. Beer's D. B and C

__________ 253. The study of the optical activity of a substance is:

A. Polarimetry C. Spectrophotometry
B. Refractometry D. Potentiometry

__________ 254. Chromatography can be sued to separate compounds that are:

A. Colored C. Precipitate
B. Colorless D. A and B

__________ 255. A water content determination method that uses xylene tube is:
A. Gravimetry C. Azeotropic method
B. Karlscher Tritrimetry D. Dew point method

__________ 256. In infrared spectrometry, water is not used as solvent for the sample because the water will:
A. Absorb IR radiation
B. Dissolve the sodium chloride cell holder
C. Not dissolve the sample
D. A and B only

__________ 257. The Law related to spectrometry wherein the power of transmitted light decreases
exponentially as the thickness of the solution increases arithmetically:
A. Charle's C. Lamber's
B. Beer's D. Henry's

__________ 258. The alcohol content of volatile oil can be determined by:
A. Bisulfite method C. Acetylization process
B. Complexation process D. A and C only

Problem Solving:
ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount
of C8H9NO2.
ASSAY:
Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g
Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml
Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml
Absorbance of sample = 0.805
Absorbance of standard = 0.705

__________ 259. Based on the problem given, calculate the weight of one (1) tablet.
A. 0.598 C. 0.596
B. 0.569 D. 0.599

__________ 260. Calculate the weight of reference standard in the final dilution based on the problem given.
A. 0.01022 mg C. 0.0101 mg
B. 0.0102 mg D. 0.09090 mg

__________ 261. What is the weight of sample in the final dilution in mg,based your calculation on the problem
given?
A. 0.0129 C. 0.0128
B. 0.01288 D. 0.0134

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013

 QUALITY CONTROL
__________ 262. What is the percent purity based on the problem given?
A. 99.02 % C. 90.29 %
B. 92.90 % D. 90.60 %

__________ 263. What is the amount of acetaminophen in one (1) tablet? ( based your answer on the problem
given):
A. 539.39 mg C. 539.33 mg
B. 539.93 mg D. 541.79 mg

__________ 264. Calculate the potency ( % labeled claim) based your calculation on the problem given.
A. 89.90 % C. 89.09 %
B. 89.99 % D. 90.30 %

__________ 265. Based on the problem iven, what is your disposition.

A. Approved C. Either
B. Disapproved D. Neither

__________ 266. If the sample of beeswax has an acid value of 18.45 and ester value of 74, what is the
saponication number of the sample?
A. 85 % C. 88 %
B. 98 % D. 92 %

__________ 267. Determine the iodine value of a sample of olive oil weighing 0.21 g if 24.15 ml and 12 ml of
0.11 N sodium thiosulfate solution are required for the blank and residual titrations,
respectively.
A. 76 % C. 85 %
B. 80 % D. 90 %

__________ 268. Water content determination by Karl Fischer, means:

A. Azeotrophic C. Dew point
B. Titrimetric D. Electrolytic hydrometric

__________ 269. Which of the following is the least in the Karl Fischer reagent?
A. Iodine C. Sulfur dioxide
B. Pyridine D. Ethanol

__________ 270. The minimum amount of moisture present in vegetable drugs should be ___ % for the
Toluene.
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

__________ 271. If the wavelength of light is 10 - 7 cm, this is equal to one ___.
A. um C. Angstrom
B. nm D. m

__________ 272. Which of the following components of energy is NOT involved in spectroscopy?
A. Electronic C. Rotational
B. Vibrational D. Translational

__________ 273. Calculate the water equivalence factor of Karl Fischer (KF) reagent, if 179.5 mg sample of
sodium tartrate dihydrate required 15.3 ml of KF reagent?
A. 1.8 C. 2.2
B. 2.0 D. 2.4

__________ 274. A plot of absorbance against concentrations of a standard drawn in straight line is:
A. Spectral absorbance plot C. Beer's plot
B. Calibration curve plot D. Standardization plot

__________ 275. The radiant energy required in the analysis of drugs using fluometry.
A. UV C. IR
B. VIS D. All of the above

__________ 276. The following are used in Fourier Transformed Infra Red (FTIR) transmission technique,
EXCEPT:
A. KBr pellet C. Liquid petrolatum

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013

 QUALITY CONTROL
B. NaCI pellet D. ATR

__________ 277. Nephelometric method for drug assaying is applied to:

A. Suspensions C. Colloids
B. Turbid solutions D. B and C only

__________ 278. Which of the following substances is least applicable for ester value determination?
A. Fats C. Alcohols
B. Essential oils D. Fatty oils

__________ 279. The bisulfite method is used on assaying volatile oils to determine:
A. Aldehyde content C. Ester content
B. Acid content D. Alcohol content

__________ 280. The principle involved in the isulfite method for assay of volatile oils is....
A. Formation of insoluble complex C. Formation of soluble product
B. Formation of turbidity D. Formation of a dense liquid

__________ 281. In phenol content determination of volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia
flask reached 2.7 ml from the sample of 10 ml after treatment with KOH solution. The % oil is..
A. 73 % C. 7.3 %
B. 69 % D. 27 %

__________ 282. Which of the following is NOT true about NMR

A. C-NMR uses C-13 C. Sample probe is very small
B. Very sensitive analytical technique D. TMS is used as reference standard

__________ 283. The adsorbent used in paper chromatography is:

A. Cellulose C. Silica
B. Alumina D. Charcoal

__________ 284. In using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of the sample, the following date
were obtained: absorbance of the standard = 0.39, absorbance of the sample 0.42,
concentration of the standard = 15 mcg. The concentration of the sample is ___ mcg.
A. 16.15 C. 15.75
B. 17.5 D. 14.5

__________ 285. True about NMR spectroscopy, EXCEPT:

A. External magnetic field is applied to the sample
B. Radio wave is applied
C. Protium is used
D. Used for mixtures

__________ 286. Plane polarized light can be produced by using:

A. CaCO3 C. Icelandspar
B. Polaroid D. All of the above

__________ 287. Which of the following solvents in NOT used in NMR studies?
A. CCI4 C. Ether
B. CHCI3 D. CS2

__________ 288. Gypsum is added to silica which is used as adsorbent in TLC to serve as:
A. Hardening agent C. Thickening agent
B. Binder D. Lubricant

__________ 289. In gas chromatography, the stationary phase is:

A. Inert gas C. High boiling zliquid
B. Powedered adsobent D. Volatile oil

__________ 290. The operating speed for paddle in dissolution apparatus is:
A. 50 rpm C. 150 rpm
B. 100 rpm D. 200 rpm

__________ 291. GC is utilized in the resolution of:

A. Volatile compounds C. Water soluble compounds

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013

 QUALITY CONTROL
B. Biological compounds D. B and C only

__________ 292. In column chromatography, the resulting patterns with several bands is:
A. Chromatogram C. Spectrum
B. Eluate D. Adsorbate

__________ 293. When the current flows from SHE to the substance, the electrode potential of ___ is
designated for the substance?
A. + C. 0
B. - D. >

__________ 294. U.S.P. Method 1 for iodine value determination is ___ method.
A. Hanus C. Hubi's
B. Wij's D. Wagner's

__________ 295. When alcoholic KOH is used to neutralize the acid and saponify the ester in 1 gm of the of fat,
the constant determined is:
A. Acid value C. Acetyl value
B. Ester Value D. Iodine value

__________ 296. Calculate the water content of Streptomycin powder using 3.5 g sample. The water
equivalence factor of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume consumed was 9.2 ml. The
% water content was:
A. 1.2 C. 12.1
B. 1.21 D. 1.1

__________ 297. In NMR analysis, many absorption peak are split into mutiplets because of the phenomenon
known as:
A. Proton chemical shifts C. Spin spin coupling
B. Chemical exchange D. Nuclear magnetic moment

__________ 298. The adsorbent commonly used in GC is:

A. Alumina C. Siliceous earth
B. Calcium carbonate D. Cellulose

__________ 299. The relative tendency of metals, ions of molecules to gain or lose electrons can be studied
quantitatively by determination of:
A. Electrode C. Heat absorbed
B. Electron change D. SHE

__________ 300. Phenmetrazine HCI USP is assayed for chloride using 0.1 NagNO3 and the end point is
determined potentiometrically using:
A. Silver electrode as indicator electrode
B. Hg2SO4 as reference electrode
C. Ag reference and Hg2SO3 indicator electrode
D. A and B only

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013

Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

1. Other name of Ferric ammonium sulfate

a. Ferric alum
b. Fe NH4 (SO4)2
c. Fe (NH4)2(SO4)2
d. A and B
e. A and C

2. The following is/are example/s of metal-ion indicators.

I. Murexide III. Pyrocathecol violet
II. Calmagite IV. Ferric alum
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III and IV
3. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in:
a. % w/w
b. % w/v
c. Both a and b
d. None of the choices
4. Standard solution in precipitation method od analysis
a. Disodium edetate
b. Silver nitrate
c. Sodium Methoxide
d. Perchloric acid
5. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element
a. Masking agent
b. Demasking agent
c. Both a and b
d. None of the choices
6. Argentometric titration is titration with ______ ion.
a. Magnesium
b. Sodium
c. Silver
d. Potassium
7. Fajans titration uses ____ indicator.
a. Acid-base
b. Adsorption
c. Metal-ion
d. None of the choices
8. Reasons why residual titration are performed.
a. Reaction proceeds slowly
b. Poor solubility of the sample
c. Sample does not give sharp end point
d. All of the choices

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

9. Solutions containing all the reagents and solvents used in the analysis, but no
deliberately added analyte.
a. Blank solution
b. Solution with sample
c. Standard solution
d. Test solution
10. Describes how close a measured value is to the true value.
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Range
d. Standard deviation
11. Primary standard in the standardization of perchloric acid
a. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Benzoic acid
d. Sodium carbonate
12. Primary standard in the standardization of sodium methoxide.
a. Benzoic acid
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
13. The term dried to constant weight means that two consecutive weighing do not differ by
more than:
a. 0.0002 g
b. 0.2 mg
c. 0.5 mg/g
d. All of the choices
e. C only
14. Other name of systematic error
a. Determinate
b. Indeterminate
c. Random
d. Both b and c
15. Ferric ammonium sulfate is used as indicator in the standardization of:
a. Silver nitrate
b. Ammonium thiocyanate
c. Edetate disodium
d. All of the choices
16. The end point of using number ferric ammonium sulfate is:
a. White precipitate
b. Red-brown color
c. Pink color
d. Blue color
17. Limit moisture in nonaqueous titrimetric analysis is less than:

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

a. 0.5 %
b. 0.05 %
c. 0.2 %
d. 0.02 %
18. Complete reaction: H2C4H4O6 + NaOH -
a. Na2C4H4O6
b. H2O
c. Both a and c
d. None of the choices
19. A ligand that binds to a metal ion through only one atom.
a. Monodentate
b. Bidentate
c. Tridentate
d. Tetradentate
20. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of sodium thiosulfate in optimum
range for the stability of the solution?
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Chloroform
c. Thymol
d. Sodium carbonate
21. Standard solution in non-aqueous titrimetric analysis-acidimetry
a. perchloric acid
b. hydrogen bromide
c. both a and b
d. none of the choices
22. Standards solutions are also known as:
a. test solutions
b. volumetric solutions
c. saturated solution
d. none of the choices
23. If starch is used as an indicator, the end point is/are:
a. appearance of intense blue color
b. disappearance of intense blue color
c. both of the choices
d. none of the choices
24. Types of chemical reaction used in the volumetric analysis
a. redox
b. neutralization
c. diazotization
d. all of the choices
e. a and b only
25. Use of KI in the preparation of iodine solution.
a. Solubilizing agent
b. Change in pH of the solution

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

c. As preservative
d. All of the choices
26. Other name of ferrous phenanthroline.
a. eosin Y
b. crystal violet
c. ferroin
d. ferric alum
27. Color of the complex resulting from reaction with ferrous phenanthroline:
a. blue
b. red
c. pink
d. violet
28. Primary standard in the standardization of ceric sulfate solution
a. potassium hydrogen phthalate
b. calciuim carbonate
c. sodium bicarbonate
d. arsenic trioxide
29. In the standardization of iodine solution, why is there a need to boil the solution of
arsenic trioxide?
a. it increases the solubility
b. it makes the solution stable
c. both a and c
d. none of the choices
30. Indicator in iodometric method of analysis.
a. KMnO4
b. Methyl red TS
c. Methyl orange TS
d. Starch TS
31. A molecule which provides groups of attachment to metal ions.
a. Ligand
b. Chelate
c. Both a and b
d. None of the choices
32. HCl + Calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as:
a. Carbonic acid
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Both a and c
d. None of the choices
33. The reaction between HCl and calcium carbonate can be seen in the standardization of:
a. Silver nitrate
b. Ammonium thiocyanate
c. Edetate disodium
d. Sulfuric acid
34. A substance which gains electrons in a redox reaction.

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Both a and c
d. None of the choices
35. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the metal ion with a ligand is called _____.
a. Formation constant
b. Solubility product constant
c. Solubility constant
d. None of the choices
36. NaCl ______ the stability of EDTA complex.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
d. None of the choices
37. Organic solvents _______ the stability of EDTA complex.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
d. None of the choices
38. Indicator in Redox Titration using KMnO4
a. Starch TS
b. KMnO4
c. Methyl red TS
d. Methyl orange
39. Developed in 1883, this method of analysis remains as one of the accurate and widely
used method for determining nitrogen in substance.
a. Non-aqueous titrimetry
b. Precipitation
c. Redox itration
d. Kjeldahl method
40. Most suitable indicator to use in titration of organic acids
a. Methyl red TS
b. Methyl orange TS
c. Phenolphthalein
d. All of the choices
41. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte is weakly acidic
II. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is acid halide.
III. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte contains heterocyclic nitrogen
compound.
IV. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is barbiturate.
a. I only c. I, II, and III only
b. I and II only d. I, II, and IV
42. Indicator/s used in nonaqueous titrimetry

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

I. Nile blue
II. Crystal violet
III. Malachite green
IV. Phenolphthalein
a. I only c. I, II, and III only
b. I and II only d. I, II, III and IV
43. Standard solutions in nonaqueous alkalimetry.
I. Lithium methoxide
II. Perchloric acid
III. Hydrogen bromide
IV. Sodium hydroxide
a. I only c. I, II, and III only
b. I and II only d. I, II, III and IV
44. The use of chloroform in sodium thiosulfate solution.
a. To stabilize the solution
b. To increase its solubility
c. To prevent bacterial growth
d. To maintain pH of the solution
45. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of organic solvent.
II. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of electrolytes.
III. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature above 25 °C
IV. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature of 25°C.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III and IV

46. When a weak base is to be titrated with weak acid, the indicator used is:
a. Phenolphthalein
b. Methyl orange
c. Methyl red
d. No indicator is suggested
47. The formula to compute the equivalent weight of a reducing agent.
a. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons gain
b. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons loss
c. Both a and b
d. None of the choices
48. The used of sodium bicarbonate in the standardization of iodine solution ______.
a. Increase the solubility
b. as buffer
c. As preservative
d. To prevent bacterial growth
49. Method/s determining the total nitrogen in a sample

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

a. Macromethod
b. Semimicro method
c. Both a and c
d. None of the choices
50. To keep samples moisture free, the appropriate apparatus to use is:
a. Desiccator
b. Separatory funnel
c. Furnace
d. Incubator

51. The following is/are true about EDTA:

I. EDTA forms strong 1:1 complexes with most metal ions.
II. It prevents metal-catalyzed oxidation of food.
III. It is a pentadentate molecule
IV. It contains 3 oxygen and 2 hydrogen atoms that are capable of entering
complexation reaction with metal ion.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III and IV
52. Sulfamic acid (H3NSO3) is a primary standard that can be used to standardized sodium
hydroxide. What is the molarity if 33.26 mL reacts with 0.3337 g sulfamic acid. MW=97
a. 0.304
b. 0.1004
c. 0.1005
d. 0.403
53. A 0.2185 g sample of NaCl was assayed using Volhard method using 50 mL of 0.998N
silver nitrate and 11.9 mL of 0.1350N ammonium thiocyanate. Calculate the NaCl in the
sample. MW NaCl = 58.45
a. 42.6
b. 62.4
c. 90.5
d. 6.24
54. A 4.59 mL sample of HCl, specific gravity 1.3, required 50.5 mL of 0.9544N NaOH in a
titration. Calculate the % w/w HCl.
a. 29%
b. 1%
c. 92%
d. 69%
55. What is the titer value for 0.05 M calcium chloride with 2 moles of water? MW= 142.9
a. 3.57 mg
b. 7.15 mg
c. 73.5 mg
d. 53.7 mg

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

56. A 10 mL sample of sulfuric acid solution required 16.85 mL of NaOH solution in a

titration. Each mL of the NaOH solution was equivalent to 0.2477 g of potassium
hydrogen phthalate. Calculate the sulfuric acid content in %w/v. MW=98
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
57. Limestone consists mainly of the mineral calcite, CaCO3. The carbonate content of
0.5413 g of powdered limestone was measured by suspending the powder in water,
adding 10 mL of 1.392 M HCl and heating to dissolve the solid and expel CO2. The
excess acid required 39.96 mL of 0.1004 M NaOH for complete titration to a
phenolphthalein end point. Find the weight % of the calcite in the limestone. MW=100
a. 29%
b. 39%
c. 92%
d. 96%
58. The Kjeldahl procedure was used to analyzed 256µL of a solution containing 37.9 mg
protein/mL. The liberated ammonia was collected in 5 mL of 0.0336 M HCl, and the
remaining acid required 6.34 mL of 0.010 M NaOH for complete titration. What is the
weight % of nitrogen in the protein? MW= 14
a. 3.86
b. 15.1
c. 51.5
d. 5.65
59. How many grams of Cupric (II) Sulfate pentahydrate should be dissolves in a volume of
500 ml to make 8 X 10-3 M solution?
MW= 249.54
a. 0.998
b. 9.98
c. 99.8
d. 109.1
60. The molarity of concentrated HCl purchased in the laboratory is approximately 12.1 M.
How many mL of this reagent should be diluted to 2 L to make 0.1 M?
a. 1.65
b. 6.53
c. 16.53
d. 165.3
61. A solution with a final volume of 500 mL was prepared by dissolving 25 mL of methanol
(density= 0.7914 g/mL) in chloroform. Calculate the molarity of methanol in the solution.
MW= 32.
a. 0.12
b. 1.24
c. 12.4
d. 124

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

62. The above solution (question no.61) has a density of 1.454 g/mL. Find the molality of
methanol.
a. 0.87
b. 0.77
c. 8.7
d. 7.7
63. What is the use of HgI2 in the preparation of starch TS?
a. To increase the solubility of starch
b. To impart color
c. As a preservative
d. To stabilize the pH
64. Process of measuring the actual quantity mass, volume, force, etc. that correspond to an
indicated quantity on the scale of an instrument.
a. Weighing
b. Calibration
c. Both a and c
d. None of the choices
65. Also known as Eosin Y.
a. Dichlorofluorescein
b. Tetrabromophenolpthalein
c. Tetrabromofluorescein
d. Xylenol orange
66. The active fraction of starch which reacts with iodine to form an intense blue color
a. Amylopectin
b. Amylose
c. Glucose
d. Sucrose
67. When a reducing analyte is titrated directly with iodine, the method used is called
a. Iodometry
b. Iodimetry
c. Cerimetry
d. Permanganometry
68. The 0.1 N iodine solution is standardized using
a. Potassium permanganate
b. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
c. Arsenic trioxide
d. Sodium carbonate
69. Iodimetry is an indirect analysis of:
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Acid
d. Base
70. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct according to USP 27?
I. In azeotropic method of water of analysis toluene is used as solvent.

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

II. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene and xylene are used as solvents.
III. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene, xylene, and water are used as
solvents.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. None of the statement is correct
71. What weight of arsenic trioxide (93.73%) would be used as a sample so that 26.6 mL of
0.1120 N iodine would be needed to titrate it? MW = 197.46
a. 0.14896 g
b. 0.4896 g
c. 0.1111 g
d. 0.9145 g
72. The type of alkaliodal assay where the total alkaloid is determined.
a. Ultimate
b. Specific
c. Proximate
d. Extraction
73. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the azeotropic
toluene distillation method.
II. Method II of water content determination in USP 27 is the titrimetric
method.
III. Method III of water content determination in USP 27 is the gravimetric
method.
IV. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the Karl Fischer
method.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
74. Residue on ignition is also called:
a. Loss on ignition
b. Loss on drying
c. Acid-soluble ash
d. Sulfated ash
75. Primary standard used to standardized Karl Fischer reagent is:
a. Anhydrous sodium carbonated
b. Sodium tartrate
c. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
d. Sodium oxalate
76. Method 1 for determining alcohol-soluble extractives is also known as:
a. Hot extraction method
b. Cold extraction method

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

c. Hot compressed method

d. Cold compressed method
77. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct
I. Iodine value is a quantitative measure of the amount of unsaturated fatty acid in
fats.
II. Method I of determining iodine value is also known as Hanus method.
III.
IV.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I, II and III
d. All of the statements are correct
78. Koettsdorfer number is also known as:
a. Acid value
b. Saponification value
c. Ester value
d. Iodine value
79. The gram-equivalent weight of sodium oxalate (MW = 134 g/mole) is:
a. 67
b. 0.067
c. 0.114
d. 0.026
80. Orthophenanthroline TS is used as indicator in
a. Permanganometry
b. Ceric sulfate titration
c. iodometry
d. Iodimetry
81. A sample of Chlorpheniramine maleate weighing 0.502 g was assayed by nonaqueous
titrimetry using 22.2 mL of perchloric acid with normality of 0.1125. Calculate the %
purity of the sample. Each mL of 0.1 N perchloric acid is equivalent to 19.54 mg of
C16H19CLN2. C4H4O4
a. 97.2
b. 72.9
c. 27.9
d. 9.72
82. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 mL of 0.5 N of the solution.
MW = 126
a. 36.5 g
b. 63.5 g
c. 31.5 g
d. 23.5 g
83. If 10g of olive oil required 20 mL of 0.0211 N NaOH in the titration of the free fatty acids.
What is the acid number of the oil?
a. 2.9

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

b. 2.4
c. 11.50
d. 115
84. Does the acid value of the above conform with the official requirement? (In 10g of olive
oil, the specification is <5mL of 0.1N NaOH.)
a. Yes
b. No
c. Uncertain
d. None of the above
85. In phenol contain determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the
cassia flask read 2.3 mL obtained from a sample of 10 mL of the oil after treatment with
KOH solution. The % phenol is:
a. 73
b. 69
c. 7.3
d. 77
86. A 4.0570 g sample of chlorinated lime was mixed with enough water to make 1000mL. A
100 mL of the mixture was treated with potassium iodide and acetic acid, then titrated
with 22.4 mL of sodium thiosulfate solution. A 20 mL sample of sodium thiosulfate was
found to be equivalent to 0.2996 g of pure iodine. Calculate the available chlorine in the
sample.
MW Iodine = 126.9 ; MW Cl = 35.45
a. 27.35%
b. 27.45%
c. 29.02%
d. 23.1%
87. Military standard table is also known as:
a. Government sampling plan
b. MIL-STD-105D
c. ABC-STD 105D
d. All of the choices
88. The % hexane extractive obtained from 27.5820 g of crude drug yielding a residue of
0.9155g of extractive is:
a. 3.32%
b. 33.2%
c. 4.30%
d. 4.6%
89. Calculate the menthyl acetate content in % if 9.5 g sample of peppermint oil was
refluxed with 25 mL of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and required 22.5 ml of 0.4900N HCl for the
residual titration. The blank was run using the same volume of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and
required 26.0mL of 0.4900N HCl to bring about the end point. Each mL of 0.5N alcoholic
KOH consumed in the saponification is equivalent to 99.15 mg menthyl acetate.
a. 4.82%
b. 3.58%

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

c. 4.80%
d. 8.4%
90. Calculate the % alkaloid extracted from a bark of plant using 1.0215g of the crude drug;
the volume of 0.0245N sulfuric acid added to the extract was 25.7 mL, the excess was
back titrated by 21.75 mL of 0.0225N sodium hydroxide solution. Each ml of 0.02N
sulfuric acid is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of the alkaloid.
a. 2.67%
b. 6.72%
c. 7.62%
d. 6.5%
91. Determine the iodine value of an unknown sample of oil weighing 0.21g if 26mL and 12
mL of 0.1100 N of sodium thiosulfate are required for the blank and residual titration
respectively.
a. 90
b. 93
c. 108
d. 200
92. Identify the sample of the above question with USP requirement of:
a. Persic oil 90-108
b. Corn oil 102-128
c. Olive oil 79-88
d. None of the choices
93. Find the acid value of oleic acid sample weighing 2g which require 45mL 0f 0.1102
NaOH to bring about the end point.
a. 196
b. 200
c. 345
d. 139
94. If a sample of white wax is found to have an ester value of 65.7 and a saponification
value of 74.2, what is the acid value of the sample?
a. 8.5
b. 86.5
c. 186.5
d. 56.5
95. A 50 mL aliquot of solution containing .450g of magnesium sulfate in 0.5L required 37.6
mL of EDTA solution for titration. How many mg of calcium carbonate will react with 1
mL of this EDTA solution? MW magnesium sulfate = 120.37; MW CaCO3 = 100
a. 0.9943 mg
b. 9.99 mg
c. 99.94 mg
d. 9943 mg
96. The following is/are true about auxillary complexing agent.
I. Eriochrome black is an example of an auxillary complexing agent
II. Auxillary complexing agents are also ligands

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III. Auxillary complexIng agents binds the metal strong enough to prevent the
hydroxide from precipitating, but weakly enough to give up the metal ion when
EDTA is added.
IV. It is used to permit many metals to be titrated in alkaline solution with EDTA.
a. I only
b. II and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. III, and IV
e. I, II, III and IV
97. The following is/ are true about EDTA titration.
I. EDTA titration is also known as complexometric titration.
II. The equilibrium constant in EDTA titration is called EDTA indicator.
III. For end-point detection, commonly used indicator is called EDTA indicator
IV. EDTA titration technique includes displacement titration.
a. I only
b. II and III
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II and IV
e. I, II, III and IV
98. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. A redox indicator is a compound that changes color when it goes from oxidized to
reduced state
II. Starch is a redox indicator
III. Ferroin is a redox indicator
IV. The hydrolysis is product of starch is glucose which is a reducing agent
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III, I, II, and III
d. I, III, and IV
e. I, II, III, and IV
99. Which of the following statement/ is/are correct?
I. KMnO4 can be standardized using arsenic trioxide
II. KMnO4 serves as indicator in acidic solution.
III. Hydrogen peroxide can be analyzed using KMnO4.
IV. KMnO4 in acidic solution is reduced to colorless Mn+2
a. I and II
b. I, II, and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. II and IV
e. I, II, III and IV
100. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Potassium dichromate is an oxidizing agent
II. Potassium dichromate is used chiefly for the determination Fe+2 and indirectly
sample that will oxidized Fe+2 to Fe+3.

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III. Potassium dichromate to chronous ion, gains 6 electrons

a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I, II, and III
101. Which of the statement/s is/are correct?
I. Direct titration of a reducing agent with iodine is called iodometry.
II. In iodimetry, an oxidizing agent is added to excess I- to produce iodine which us
then titrated with sodium thiosulfate.
III. In iodimetry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
IV. In iodometry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
e. I, II, III, and IV
102.
a. 0.1 N Iodine solution
b. 0.1 N Bromine solution
c. 0.1 M sodium nitrite solution
d. 0.1 N sodium thiosulfate solution
103. Assay of sulfa drugs can be determined by this reaction with sodium nitrite.
a. Neutralization
b. Complexation
c. Precipitation
d. Diazotization
104. 0.1 N Bromine is employed as:
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Masking agent
d. Demasking agent
105. A precisely manufactured glass tube with graduations enabling to measure the
volume of liquid delivered through the stopcock at the bottom.
a. Separatory funnel
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Buret
d. Pipet
106. Dichlorophenol-indophenol solution is standardized using:
a. Sulfanilamide USP
b. ascorbic acid USP
c. Sulfathiazole USP
d. Resorcinol USP
107. 1 N HCl VS can be standardized using:
a. Sodium bicarbonate

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b. Potassium phthalate
c. Sodium oxalate
d. Tromethamine
108. Method II of determining iodine value is also known as:
a.
b.
c. Hanus method
d. All of the choices
109. Residual titration method is also known as:
a. Direct titration
b. Indirect titration
c. Back titration
d. Redox titration
110. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + -
25°C. This temperature is represented by:
a. Very dull heat
b. Dull red heat
c. White red heat
d. Bright red heat
111. The standard substance used in checking the cleanliness of Abbe refractometer
by determining its refractive index is:
a. Rose oil
b. Water
c. Methanol
d. Peanut oil
112. Coulometric Titration of water determination is also known as:
a. Method I c
b. Method II
c. Method I a
d. Method III
113. Perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid and perchloric acid in dioxane are volumetric
solution used in what type of analysis?
a. Direct acidimetry
b. Direct alkalimetry
c. Non-aqueous acidimetry
d. Non-aqueous alkalimetry
114. The primary standard used in the standardization of the above VS is:
a. Sodium carbonate
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Potassium biphthalate
d. Benzoic acid
115. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. Phenol is assayed using residual iodometry using excess bromine
solution.

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II. 0.1 N Bromine solution contains potassium bromide and potassium

bromate.
III. Bromine vapor is liberated from KBr and KBrO3 in basic environment.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. None of the choices
116. A 1.5g of liquefied phenol was dissolve in enough water to make 1000mL. A 30
mL sample of the solution was treated with 30 mL of 0.1 N Bromine solution and
HCl. The mixture was treated with KI and titrated with 8.7 mL of 0.1N sodium
thiosulfate. It was also found that 21 mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate was required
in the titration of the iodine liberated when 20 mL of the bromine solution was
treated with KI and HCl. Compute for the % phenol in the sample. MW Phenol =
94.
a. 59.4
b. 69.4
c. 79.4
d. 89.4
117. Hydrolysis products of ASA
a. Acetic acid + sodium hydroxide
b. Acetic acid + salicylic acid
c. Salicylic acid + sodium hydroxide
d. Sodium salicylate + water
118. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration of standard acid is:
a. Acidimetry
b. Alkalimetry
c. Compleximetry
d. Redox Titration
119. A characteristic of a substance which is suitable for non-aqueous titrimetry is:
a. Weakly reactive
b. Weakly basic
c. Very soluble in water
d. a and b
e. b and c
120. To remove stain of KMnO4, the most effective chemical substance is :
a. Oxalic acid
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Vinegar
d. Bromine solution
121. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 is:
a. +2
b. +1
c. +5
d. +7

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122. Which of the following chemicals is not included in preparing the Karl Fischer
reagent?
a. Pyridine
b. Acetone
c. Sulfur dioxide
d. Iodine
123. The process in which the exact concentration of solution is determined.
a. Neutralization
b. Standardization
c. Titration
d. Complexation
124. Titer is an expression of concentration of solution is determined.
a. g of solute/ 100 mL
b. g or mg/mL
c. g of solute / L
d. b and c
125. Methyl orange in base medium is colored:
a. Yellow
b. Pink
c. Colorless
d. Green
126. Assay of zinc oxide is what type of analysis?
a. Alkalimetric residual
b. Acidimetric direct
c. Acidimetric residual
d. Alkalimetric direct
127. The indicator used if weak acid is titrated with strong alkali.
a. Methyl orange
b. Methyl red
c. Phenol red
d. Phenolphthalein
128. Phenolphthalein in alkali medium is colored:
a. Yellow
b. Pink
c. Colorless
d. Blue
129. Suppository that does not melt at body temperature is what kind of defect?
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Performance
130. Performs and evaluate microbiological assay, sterility, pyrogen, and
bacteriological test, safety or acute toxicity test.
a. Material inspection section

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b. Analytical laboratory
c. Biological testing
d. Specification and analytical laboratory
131. This analysis is done by dissolving the substance under examination in an
accurately measured quantity of standard solution known to be in excess and
back titrating the excess solution with another standard solution.
a. Gravimetric analysis
b. Acidimetric analysis
c. Direct alkalimetric analysis
d. Residual titration
132. When the alcoholic KOH is used to neutralized the acid and saponify the ester of
1 gram of the oil or fat, the constant determined is:
a. Acid value
b. Ester value
c. Hydroxyl value
d. Saponification value
133. The instrument used to measure the optical activity of the sample is:
a. Refractometer
b. Polarimeter
c. Spectrometer
d. Flame photometer
134. Analysis in which separation of the constituents from the sample is done and
then weighing the product is:
a. Volumetric analysis
b. Instrumental method of analysis
c. Gravimetric analysis
d. Special method of analysis
135. The end point of iodometry using starch TS as indicator is:
a. Intense blue color
b. Disappearance of blue color
c. Greenish-blue color
d. Disappearance of green-blue color
136. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Ester value is the number of mg of KOH required to saponify the ester in 1 g of
fat or oil.
II. Ester value = saponification value + Acid value
III. Ester value determination is applicable to fats, volatile oils, and alcohols.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. All of the statements are incorrect
137. Which of the following area is not a responsibility of quality control manager?
a. Specification and analytical development
b. Biological testing lab

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c. Analytical lab
d. Market research
138. Hexane is the best solvent extracting:
a. Resins
b. Fats
c. Volatile oil
d. Acid
139. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number?
a. Acid value
b. Saponification value
c. Ester value
d. Iodine value
140. The unsaponifiable matter present in animal fats is:
a. Cholesterol
b. Phytosterol
c. Lard
d. Wax
141. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of:
a. Cellulose
b. Cholesterol
c. Phytosterol
d. All of the choices
142. The unsaponifiable matter present in vegetable oils and fats is:
a. Cholesterol
b. Cellulose
c. phytosterol
d. lard
143. If a 0.47 g sample of potassium iodide yielded 0.7564 g of silver iodide
precipitate by gravimetric assay, compute for the % purity of the potassium
iodide. MW KI = 165.90; MW AgI = 234.76
a. 83.7%
b. 93.7%
c. 103.7%
d. 113.7%
144. Which of the following volumetric solutions is used in diazotization analysis of
sulfa drugs?
a. 0.1 M sodium nitrite
b. 0.05 edetate disodium
c. 0.01 M sodium nitrite
d. 0.1 N Iodine solution
145. Phenol is assayed using this method of analysis.
a. Residual alkalimetry
b. Volumetric precipitation
c. Residual iodometry using excess bromine

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d. Iodimetry
146. Calculate the molarity of sodium nitrite volumetric solution, if 31.6 mL of this
solution reacts with 0.5004 g of sulfanilamide (C6H8N2O2S) to reach an end point.
MW of sulfanilamide = 172.2
a. 0.09196
b. 0.91960
c. 0.21090
d. 0.01209
147. A 0.5110 g sample of sulfathiozole was assayed using 18.8 mL of 0.1005 M
sodium nitrite solution in a titration. Each mL of 0.1 M sodium nitrite is equivalent
to 25.53 mg of C9H9N3O2S2. Calculate the % C9H9N3O2S2 in the sample.
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 94%
d. 93%
148. Which of the following standard solutions is not used in redox titration?
a. Sodium thiosulfate solution
b. Iodine solution
c. Bromine solution
d. Sodium hydroxide solution
149. Assay of ASA (raw material) is an example of what method of analysis?
a. Direct alkalimetry
b. Residual alkalimetry
c. Direct acidimetry
d. Residual acidimetry
150. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of what method of analysis?
a. Direct titration Redox
b. Indirect titration Redox
c. Residual titration Redox
d. Iodimetry
151. An analyst who determines the strength, potency and percentage purity of a drug
or pharmaceutical product is performing:
a. Special method
b. Identification test
c. Pharmacopeial testing
d. Pharmaceutical assaying
152. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same
a. Normality
b. Volume
c. Number of mEq
d. Weight
153. Most of the official drugs containing Calcium and Magnesium are determine by:
a. Gravimetric
b. Complexometry

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c. Bioassay
d. Non-aqueous matter
154. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis:
a. Direct
b. Residual
c. Indirect
d. All of the above
155. The iodine value of an oil is a quantitative measure of:
a. Phenol coefficient
b. Saturated fatty acid
c. Unsaturated fatty acid
d. Unsaponifiable matter
156. A sample of 0.1350 g of As2O3 was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4 mL of
0.1055 N iodine solution (atomic weight: As=74.92, O=16) The percentage purity
of the sample is:
a. 90.44
b. 90.23
c. 89.0
d. 90.54
157. Calculate the water content of streptomycin powder using 3.50 g sample. The
water equivalence factor, F, of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume
consumed was 9.2 mL. The % water content was:
a. 1.20
b. 1.21
c. 12.10
d. 1.10
158. Twenty tablets of Ascorbic acid weighed 4.250 g and a powdered sample of
0.3075 g used up 21.5 mL of 0.1085 N iodine solution. What was the amount of
Ascorbic acid per dose of 2 tablets? Each mL of 0.1 N iodine is equivalent to 8.80
mg of C6H6O6 (Ascorbic Acid). The amount is:
a. 283.7 mg
b. 141.86 mg
c. 0.2836 g
d. A and C
159. The primary staining reagent of the Gram procedure is:
a. Methyl red
b. Carbol fucshin
c. Crystal violet
d. Saffranin
160. The bacterial structure responsible for selective permeability is:
a. Cell wall
b. Fimbriae
c. Spore
d. Cytoplasmic membrane

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161. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with the standard acid
is:
a. Acidimetry
b. Alkalimetry
c. Complexometry
d. Redox
162. Analysis where separation of the constituent from the sample is done that
weighing the products is:
a. Volumetric
b. Gravimetric
c. Special
d. Gasometric method
163. Adsorption indicators are used in:
a. Complexometric reaction
b. Acidimetry
c. Volumetric precipitation
d. Alkalimetry
164. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of:
a. g of solute per 100 mL
b. g or mg of solute per mL
c. g per liter
d. A and C
165. Iodimetry is what type of titration?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Residual
d. A and C
166. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determines is:
a. Ultimate
b. Specific
c. Proximate
d. Precision
167. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is:
a. Polarimeter
b. Refractometer
c. Spectrometer
d. Flame photometer
168. The indicator for EDTA titration against CaCO3 is:
a. Thymol blue
b. Hydroxynapthol blue
c. Methyl red
d. Methylene blue
169. In neutralization methods in aqueous medium, a product is:
a. Oil

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b. Salt
c. Precipitate
d. A and B
170. The moisture content of a drug maybe:
a. Water of hydration
b. Water in the adsorbed form
c. Water of crystallization
d. All of the above
171. The oxidation number of atomic iodine is:
a. +1
b. +2
c. +4
d. +3
172. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter is that it consists of:
a. Prism
b. Lamp house
c. Cell compartment
d. B and C
173. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:
a. Prism
b. Lamp house
c. Oil
d. Volatile oil
174. To keep samples moisture-free the apparatus used is:
a. Desiccator
b. Furnace
c. Incubator
d. Oven
175. Microbial assay of an antibiotics maybe performed using the following except:
a. Test tube inoculation
b. Cylinder plate method
c. Paper disk method
d. Titration process
176. Result of the experiment that are close to one another is considered to be:
a. Accurate
b. Cylinder plate method
c. Approximate
d. A and C
177. Flame Spectroscopy procedures maybe divided into:
a. Flame emission
b. Atomic adsorption
c. Nuclear magnetic resonance
d. A and B
178. Safety and Toxicity test are conducted using:

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

a. Rabbits
b. Dogs
c. White mice
d. Guinea pig
179. A parenteral is declared pyrogenic if the temperature rise in rabbits is:
a. Less than 1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
b. 0.6°C in in the 1 of the 9 readings
c. >1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
d. None of the above
180. The ester value determination of substance is applicable to the following except:
a. Fats
b. Volatile oil
c. Alcohols
d. Fatty oils
181. In Gas chromatography, the results of the assay is expressed in:
a. Retention on the column
b. Rf value
c. Volume of the gas used
d. Adsorbent
182. The process by which the exact concentration of a solution is determined by:
a. Neutralization
b. Standardization
c. Hydration
d. Titration
183. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance uses a
wavelength range of:
a. 3-5 µm
b. 380-780 µm
c. 200-380 µm
d. 15-300 µm
184. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:
a. Sodium carbonate anhydrous
b. Potassium biphthalate
c. sodium tartrate dihydrate
d. sodium bicarbonate
185. the molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Its equivalent weight is:
a. 98
b. 49
c. 0.098
d. 0.049
186. The type of ash where sulfuric acid used to whiten the ash is:
a. acid insoluble ash
b. sulfated ash
c. loss on ignition

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

d. ROI
187. The oil from peppermint can be determined by using:
a. Cassia flask
b. Bobcock bottle
c. Pycometer
d. Titration
188. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of sodium hydroxide
pellets are needed to make 500 mL of 1.5 N solution?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60
189. Using spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following
data were obtained: absorbance (A) of the standard solution was 0.55. A of the
sample was 0.58. Concentration of the standard used was 16.5 mcg. The
concentration of the sample was:
a. 15.5 mcg
b. 17.55 mcg
c. 17.40 mcg
d. 15.9 mcg
190. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is ______ by the
particles of a suspension.
a. Reflected
b. Absorbed
c. Transmitted
d. Absorbed
191. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the
adsorbent is:
a. Column
b. Paper
c. TLC
d. Gas
192. All of the following are optical devices except:
a. pH meter
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Colorimeter
d. Filter photometer
193. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. KMnO4
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Sodium nitrite
194. A method used to assay Vitamin B12 and Ca panthothenate is by:
a. Iodimetry

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

b. Micro-bio/ turbidimetric
c. Fluorometry
d. Iodometry
195. The assay of aldehyde content in volatile oil may be by:
a. Gravimetric
b. Bisulfite
c. Hydroxylamine
d. B and C
196. One of the fundamental laws in spectroscopy is:
a. Law of mass action
b.
c.
d.
197. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation of:
a. Volatile component in a liquid mixture
b. Amino acids
c. Blood components
d. A and B
198. In column Chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of
narrow bands in a column is called:
a. Chromatogram
b. Eluent
c. Development
d. A and B
199. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a
reference standard, they are called:
a. Isomeric substance
b. Similar solutions
c. Similar preparations
d. B and C
200.
a. Absorbance of the sample
b. Wavelength to be used
c. Blank
d. Concentration of the drug substance
201. A one percent (1%) solid in liquid solution is officially (USP) understood as:
a. 1g in 100 mL
b. 100 mg in 1 mL
c. 10g in 1000 mL
d. 10 g in 1 L
202. When packaging and storage requirements specifies
understood that;
a. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
b. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

c. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors

d. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
203. When pack it is
understood that;
a. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
b. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
c. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors
d. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
204. When packaging and storage requirements specifi
understood that;
a. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
b. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
c. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors
d. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
205. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of compedial dosage forms
is
a. Deionized water
b. Distilled water
c. Purified water
d. Water for injection
206. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of parenteral solutions is
a. Sterile purified water
b. Purified water
c. Water for injection
d. Sterile water for injection
207. Metallic impurities detected in the USP Heavy Metal test are
a. Lead and mercury
b. Copper and tin
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
208. Treated soda lime glass is classified as
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. NP
209. A Soda Lime glass becomes a Treated Soda Lime glass through
a. Dealkilation
b. Oxidation
c. Hydrolysis
d. None of the above
210. The water attack test determines the chemical resistance to water of what type of
glass?
a. Type I
b. Type II

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

c. Type III
d. NP
211. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparation is
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. NP
212. An amber glass bottle for an oral syrup preparation is considered light resistant if
it
allows not more than what percent of light to be transmitted?
a. 10% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
b. 15% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
c. 20% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
d. 25% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
213. The suitability of plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug
products is
determined through what type of test?
a. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
b. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
214. The classification plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug
products is
determined through what type of test?
a. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
b. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
215. Plastic materials which comply with the requirements of Biological Reactivity
Test, In Vitro are essentially?
a. Non cytotoxic
b. Non carcinogenic
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
216. The conductivity of water is expressed in what unit?
a. µS/cm
b. µS/cm2
c. µmho2/cm
d. None of the above
217. The acceptable pH level of water used for pharmaceutical compounding is
a. Between 6.0 and 7.0
b. Between 5.0 and 7.0
c. Between 7.0 and 8.0
d. None of the above

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218. In the manufacture of sterile parenteral solutions all added raw materials must be
sterile.
a. Necessary
b. Not necessary
c. Always
d. None of the above
219. A large volume intravenous solution has a minimum volume of
a. 1000mL
b. 200mL
c. 500mL
d. None of the above
220. A small volume of intravenous solution has a maximum volume of
a. 1000mL
b. 200mL
c. 500mL
d. None of the above
221. A sterile parenteral solution is also non pyrogenic
a. All the time
b. Most of the time
c. Sometime
d. Not at all
222. If the bacterial endotoxin limit of a dosage form is 0.25EU/mL it means all
components of the preparations shoul contribute
a.
b.
c. <0.25EU/mL
d. None of the above
223. Finished product sterilization by autoclaving will destroy pyrogens in the
preparation
a. All the time
b. Most of the time
c. Sometime
d. Not at all
224. Sterility Testing of Pharmacopeial articles test for the presence of
a. Gram (+) and gram (-) organism
b. Aerobic and anaerobic organism
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
225. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles is carried out at
a. 23 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
b. 25 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
c. 20 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
d. None of the above

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

226. Accelerated stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room

temperature
conditions is carried out at
a. 30 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
b. 35 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
c. 40 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
d. None of the above
227. The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies is
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. None of the above
228. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. None of the above
229. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles stored in a refrigerator is
carried
out at
a. 5 ± 3°C
b. 8 ± 3°C
c. 4 ± 3°C
d. None of the above
230. Stability indicating test procedures include
a. Antimicrobial effectiveness test
b. Dissolution test
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
231. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of
a. 0.5 µm
b. 0.2 µm
c. 1 µm
d. None of the above
232. The reference microorganism for testing the retention efficiency of a sterilizing
filter is
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Pseudomonas diminuta
c. E. coli
d.
None of the above
233. Autoclaving or Steam Sterilization should be validated to ensure that the
likelihood of survival of the most resistant microorganism is no greater than
a. 10 -5
b. 10 -6

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

c. 10 6
d. 10 5
234. What is the time (in minutes) required to reduce the microbial population by 90%
or 1 log cycle (i.e., to a surviving fraction of 1/10), at a specific temperature.
a. Sterilization time
b. D value
c. F0
d. None of the above
235. What is the time (in minutes) required to provide the lethality equivalent to that
provided at 121° for a stated time. 10% at any wavelength in the range from 290
to 450 nm.
a. Sterilization time
b. D value
c. F0
d. None of the above
236. A passing tablet friability result is a maximum weight loss of not more than what
percent of the weight of the tablets being tested.
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 1%
d. None of the above
237. A tablet friability apparatus also test the friability of this dosage form
a. Soft gelatin capsule
b. Hard gelatin capsule
c. Liquid fill capsule
d. None of the above
238. Disintegration is an essential attribute of this dosage form
a. Plain coated tablet
b. Hard gelatin capsule
c. Chewable tablet
d. All of the above
239. What tablet attribute is correlated with the biological availability of the active
ingredient.
a. Disintegration
b. Dissolution
c. Content uniformity
d. None of the above
240. A belonging to climatic zone IV is officially described as
a. Temperate
b. Hot, humid
c. Hot, dry
d. None of the above
241. The Philippines belong to what climatic zone
a. I

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

b. II
c. III
d. None of the above
242. Which of the following is not an official hard gelatin capsule size for human
consumption
a. 000
b. 00 mL
c. 0000
d. None of the above
243. A calibrated volumetric apparatus was calibrated using standards traceable to
a. ASTM
b. ATCC
c. NIST
d. None of the above
244. Pharmaceutical articles like raw materials must not harbor these organism
except.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Salmonella
d. None of the above
245. The units of osmolar concentration are usually expressed as
a. mOsM
b. mOsm
c. mOSm
d. none of the above
246. Clean room classification are specified in Federal standard
a. 211E
b. 210E
c. 209E
d. None of the above
247. Air particle counts in clean rooms is base on what particle size
a. 0.5 µm
b. 0.2 µm
c. 1 µm
d. None of the above
248. The level in microbiological environmental monitoring is that level of
microorganism that shows a potential drift from normal operating procedure.
a. Alert level
b. Action level
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
249. In validation procedures the closeness of test results obtained by that method to
the true value is called
a. Precision

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
d. None of the above
250. In validation procedures, what is the degree of agreement among individual test
results when the method is applied repeatedly to multiple sampling of a
homogeneous sample.
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
d. None of the above
251. Which is not a method of neutralizing the antimicrobial properties of a product
a. Neutralization by chemical inhibition
b. Neutralization by dilution
c. Neutralization by sterilization
d. None of the above
252. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilization
a. Bacillus stearothermophilus
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Bacillus coagulans
d. None of the above
253. Which is the following is not a terminal sterilization procedure
a. Steam sterilization
b. Sterilization by filtration
c. Dry heat sterilization
d. None of the above
254. In validation procedures the ability to assess unequivocally the analyte in the
presence of components that may be expected to be present is called
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
d. None of the above
255. In analytical methods, the measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small
but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its
reliability during normal usage is called.
a. Linearity
b. Robustness
c. Ruggedness
d. None of the above
256. The following are tablet properties necessary to withstand the mechanical shocks
of manufacture, packaging and shipping EXCEPT
a. Hardness
b. Resistance to weight loss
c. Resistance to friability
d. Disintegration

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

257. In disintegration, enteric-coated tablets must

a. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated gastric fluid
b. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated intestinal fluid
c. In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus the time
specified
d. In simulated gastric fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus in time specified
258. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the accepted range?
a. 0.4465-0.4935 cm
b. 0.4348-0.5050 cm
c. 0.4230-0.5170 cm
d. 0.3525-0.5875 cm
259. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the acceptable tablet weight
range?
a. 0.1170-0.1430 g
b. 0.1203-0.1398 g
c. 0.0300-0.2300 g
d. 0.0550- 0.2050 g
260. Which of the following is NOT used in Method II of USP test for bulk density?
a. 250 mL graduated cylinder
b. No.18 screen
c. Volumeter
d. Baffle box
261. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablet:
a. Bioavailability
b. Hardness and thickness
c. Weight variation
d. Disintegration
262. Pyrogen test is performed in:
a. Pigeons
b. Mice
c. Rabbits
d. Guinea pigs
263. Which is the following statements is NOT true about closure:
a. Should fit the thread of the containers
b. Should produce no leaks
c. Should be made of plastic materials
d. Should be reasonably tight and look elegant
264. Friability testing is done using a Roche friability that must be set to ensure:
a. 10 falls of tablets
b. Either A or B
c. 100 falls of tablets
d. 100 rpm
265. Evaluation of Aspirin Granules (IPQC)
Weight of the sample = 50 grams

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

Height of cone formed (fixed funnel) = 5 cm

Diameter of cone formed = 13 cm
The repose angle is
a. 25°
b. 38°
c. 30°
d. 50°
266. The temperature wherein the refrigerator is thermostatically maintained is:
a. 36°F and 46°F
b. 46°F and 59°F
c. -13°F and 14°F
d. -23°F and 34°F
267. Water attack test as an official test for glass is done on:
a. Type I glass
b. Type II glass
c. A and B
d. Type III glass
268. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in:
a. 10 tablets
b. 20 tablets
c. 15 tablets
d. 5 tablets
269. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet
products:
a. Disintegration
b. Purity
c. Bioavailability
d. Potency
270. In SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is
called:
a. Attribute chart
b.
c. Bar chart
d. Variable chart
271. Common component of cap liners, stoppers, and parts of dropper assemblies:
a. Metal
b. plastic
c. Glass
d. Rubber
272. This class of drugs require batch certification from the Bureau of Food and Drugs
a. Anti-convulsants
b. Antibiotics
c. analgesic
d. Vitamins

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

273. While waiting for its release by the quality control, materials are held in:
a. Packing area
b. Quarantine area
c. Analytical laboratory
d. Biological laboratory
274. One of the following is a secondary packaging component:
a. Caps
b. Corrugated cartons
c. vials
d. Bottles
275. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each
production batch and assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay
of the individual compedial monograph.
a. Content uniformity
b. Weight variation
c. Disintegration test
d. Dissolution test
276. The gas that is used in gas sterilization is:
a. Oxygen
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen
277. The bioassay for Parathyroid Injection is based on measuring the increase in
serum calcium in
a. Cat
b. Dog
c. Sheep
d. Rat
278. Biological reactivity test(s) in vitro except
a. Agar diffusion test
b. Direct contact test
c. Implantation test
d. Elution test
279. Animal employed for the biological assay of oxytocin injection
a. Pigeon
b. Rabbit
c. Chicken
d. Rat
280. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in
a. Capsules
b. Emulsions
c. Ointments
d. Tablets
281. The test for content uniformity is required for

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

a. Film-coated tablets
b. Solutions for inhalation
c. suspensions
d. Liquid-filled soft capsules
282. Powdered glass test is done on the following except
a. Borosilicate glass
b. Soda lime glass
c. Treated soda lime glass
d. General purpose soda lime glass
283. In what type of dosage form is the determination of zeta potential needed?
a. Suspensions
b. Solutions
c. emulsions
d. Aerosols
284. Determine the shelf-life of a product
a. Sampling inspection program
b. Validation program
c. Stability testing program
d. All
285. The QC manager is not in charged of this section
a. Analytical laboratory
b. Biological testing laboratory
c. Specs and analytical program
d. Research and development section
286. The dye used in the leaker test
a. Methylene blue
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Thymol blue
d. None of the above
287. A defect that may affect the function of an object and therefore, may render the
product useless.
a. Major defect
b. Critical defect
c. Minor defect
d. Ocular defect
288.
a.
Drug recall
b.
Market withdrawal
c.
Stock recovery
d.
None of the above
289. Which question is used to predict the shelf life of a drug product?
a. Michaelis-Menten equation
b. Arrhenius theory
c. Hixson-Crowell equation

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

d. Stokes equation
290. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a
function of the :
a. Documentation section
b. Biological testing laboratory
c. Material inspection method
d. Analytical laboratory
291. Pyrogen test in vitro:
a. Colorimeter
b. Cylinder-plate method
c. Fluorophotometer
d. LAL method
292. Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date:
a. 95 mg
b. 90 mg
c. 105 mg
d. 110 mg
293. A critical defect that would stop the packaging line operations:
a. Wrong labels
b. Misaligned labels
c. Inverted labels
d. smeared labels
294. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP):
a. Concerned with record keeping
b. Step by step method on how to go about a job
c. Done to facilitate recall
d. All of these are correct
295. Samples of raw materials in the quarantine area will not be subjected to this test:
a. Physical and organoleptic examination
b. Leaker test
c. Potency assay
d. Microbiological test
296. It is the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of a tablet from the
main body
a. Lamination
b. Capping
c. Mottling
d. Picking
297. The round bottom flask used for the dissolution rate in the evaluation of tablets
should be submerge in constant temperature water bath maintained at what
temperature.
a. 37°C
b. 25°C
c. 40°C

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Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]

d. 30°C
298. The type of container which is impervious to air or any other gas under the
ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipping, storage and distribution.
a. Tight-container
b. Well-closed container
c. Single-unit container
d. Hermetic container
299. The word GITS as a drug delivery system means
a. Gastro-intestinal tract system
b. Gastric infection treatment support
c. Gastro-intestinal therapeutic system
d. General internal therapeutic system
300. The temperature used for ignition to constant weight is:
a. 725 ± 25°C
b. 800 ± 25°C
c. 825 ± 25°C
d. 750 ± 25°C

Page 40 of 40
Quality control 1 and 2 (PACOP REVIEWER) B. Assay of Sodium Chloride, USP

C. Assay of Zinc Chloride, USP

1. Acceptable glassware to be used to deliver an D. Assay of Sodium Nitrite, USP

exact volume of a certain standard solution to be used E. Assay of Sulfurated Potash, USP

for titration: 7. Volhard Method in volumetric precipitation involves

A. Beaker D. Analytical balance the use of what indicator?

B. Buret E. Volumetric flask A. Eosin TS

C. Graduated cylinder B. Ferric Ammonium Sulfate TS

2. An inert type of stainless steel used in dissolution C. Phenolphthalein TS

apparatus recognized by the USP: D. Potassium Chromate TS

A. Type 114 D. Type 489 E. Orthophenanthroline TS

B. Type 239 E. All of the choices 8. Nitrogen content determination of foods and

C. Type 316 pharmaceuticals involves what method?

3. Volumetric apparatus designed to contain a definite D. Gravimetric method

volume of liquid: B. Gay-Lussac method E. Winkler method

A. Beaker D. Volumetric flask C. Kjeldahl method

B. Buret E. B and C 9. Fat constant that states the degree of unsaturation

C. Pipet in fats and fixed oils:

4. Titrant employed for non-aqueous alkalimetric A. Polenske number D. Iodine number

titration: B. Koettsdorfer number E. Acetyl number

A. Ammonium Hydroxide C. Unsaponifiable matter

B. Hydrochloric Acid VS 10. In potentiometric titration, the equivalence point in

C. Perchloric Acid in Glacial Acetic Acid VS the first derivative plot is signified by:

D. Potassium Hydroxide VS A. The steepest part of the curve

E. Sodium Methoxide VS B. The line that crosses 0 in the x axis

5. USP specifies that the standardization of Sodium C. Maxima or minima of the plot

Hydroxide VS should be done using ______ as D. Sharp change in pH reading

standard: E. Change in color of the solution

A. Hydrochloric Acid VS 11. An instrument that measures the durability of

B. Sodium Carbonate tablets to withstand shock and abrasion during

C. Tromethamine transport:

D. Potassium Biphthalate A. Hardness tester D. Polarimeter

E. Potassium Dichromate B. Caliper E. Friabilator

6. Gravimetric analysis is an appropriate method for: C. Analytical balance

A. Determination of Atropine content of Belladonna 12. USP definition of negligible:

leaf
A. A quantity of not exceeding 0.25 mg Molecular Weight of Potassium

B. A quantity of not exceeding 0.50 mg Dichromate=294.18g/mol

C. A quantity of not exceeding 2.5 mg A. 1.5801 D. 1.3337

D. A quantity of not exceeding 5.0 mg B. 0.2635 E. 1.8153

E. None of the choices C. 0.6669

13. An example of drying oil: 18. Titrant used for the official assay of ascorbic acid

A. Cod liver oil D. Sesame oil dosage forms:

B. Olive oil E. Lard A. Sodium Tetraphenylboron VS

C. Coconut oil B. Iodine VS

14. Orthophenanthroline TS undergoes a color C. Potassium Hydroxide VS

transition from ______ to ______: D. Disodium Edelate VS

A. Colorless to pink D. White to black E. Dichlorophenol-Indophenol VS

B. Yellow to red E. Blue to yellow 19. Equivalence factor for potassium permanganate

C. Red to blue as an oxidizing agent:

15. A tightly closed container of suitable size and A. 2 D.10

design that maintains an atmosphere of low moisture B. 3 E. 23

content by means of appropriate drying agents: C. 5

A. Desiccator 20. Assay of volatile oil which involves bisulfate

B. Muffle furnace addition method:

C. Oven A. Olive oil D. Peppermint spirit

D. Glass stoppered bottle B. Caraway oil E. Clove oil

16. Apparatus used for determination of alcohol- C. Lemon oil

soluble extractives of benzoin: 21. A glassware usually used in gravimetric analysis

A. Acetylization flask that has a perforated bottom upon which is bedded of

B. Cassia flask asbestos that is used for separation of precipitates by

C. Babcock bottle use of suction filtration:

D. Soxhlet apparatus A. Aspirator D. Soxhlet apparatus

E. Clavenger apparatus B. Buchner funnel E. Reflux condenser

17. Calculate the normality factor for 0.1N Sodium C. Gooch Crucible

Thiosulfate VS given the following data: 22. For samples which contain 50-100% of the active

Weight of Potassium Dichromate=0.2256g constituent, the difference in percent between two

Volume of titrant consumed during determinations should be:

standardization=34.55mL A. 0.03-0.05% D. 0.30-0.45%

Volume of titrant consumed during blank B. 0.10-0.20% E. Not more than 3%

determination=0.05mL C. 0.20-0.25%

Molecular Weight of Sodium Thiosulfate=248.19g/mol

23. In analytical chemistry, cleaning solution is A. Erlenmeyer flask D. stirring rod

basically a solution containing: B. Policeman E. Watchglass

A. Nitric acid D. Chromic acid C. Spatula

B. Joy® E. Liquid Sosa®

C. Sodium phosphate 29. Assay involves an acidimetric type of titration:

24. pH-adjusting agent used in EDTA titrations using A. Determination of total alkalinity of NaOH

Dithizone TS as indicator: B. Phosphomolybdate assay for phosphates

A. 3N HCL C. Assay of Precipitated Sulfur using oxygen flask

B. CH3COOH-CH3COONa buffer combustion

C. NH3-NH4Cl buffer D. Assay of Cupric Sulfate

D. 1N NaOH E. Assay of Zinc Chloride

E. Any of the choices 30. Extraction of alkaloids could be done by using:

25. Acid color of phenol red: A. Clavenger apparatus D. Separatory funnel

A. Colorless D. Yellow B. HPLC E. Spectrophotometer

B. Red E. Green C. Brine shrimp assay

C. Blue 31. Stability projection for shelf life of pharmaceuticals

26. Reducing titrant that is susceptible to bacterial are commonly based on ______ equation:

degradation: A. Arrhenius equation

A. Oxalic Acid VS B. Clausius-Clapeyron equation

B. Potassium Permanganate VS C. Dieterici equation

C. Sodium Thiosulfate VS D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

D. Ferrous Ammonium Sulfate VS E. Van Deemter equation

E. Ceric Sulfate VS 32. A plot of the absorbance of the analyte vs.

27. Actual indicating species in the assay of Hydrogen max at which the

Peroxide Topical Solution: absorbance of the standard and unknown solutions

A. Free iodine extracted by chloroform will be made:

B. Intense purple color of permanganate ion

C. Blue color of starch-iodo complex

D. Use of Diphenylamine TS as indicator C. Rf value

E. None of the choices D. Spectral absorbance curve

28. A piece of soft rubber tubing fitted to the end of a E. None of the choices

glass rod. It is used to loosen from the walls of the 33. A suitable detector for radioactive samples:

containing vessel adhering particles that are not A. UV detector D. Vanillin reagent

removable by a stream of water from the wash bottle: B. Echelette grating E. Iodine vapour

C. Geiger-Muller Counter
34. Type of crucible that can withstand high 40. Most popular indicator electrode for pH

temperature and is suitable for use in ignition of drugs determinations that involves the exchange of

and precipitates: hydrogen ions on its surface:

A. Borosilicate Glass D. B and C A. Standard Hydrogen Electrode

B. Sintered crucible E. A, B and C B. Glass electrode

C. Porcelain C. Fluoride electrode

35. In the official assay, Boric Acid, NF acts as a D. Quinhydrone electrode

strong monobasic acid due to the addition of what E. Calomel electrode

sugar alcohol: 41. The use of potassium chromate TS as indicator in

A. Erythritol D. Sorbitol Volumetric precipitation is also known as the ______

B. Glycerol E. Xylitol method:

C. Mannitol s Method D. Dumas Method

36. Measures the free fatty acid present in a given B. Gay-Lussac Method E. Volhard Method

sample of fats of fixed oil: C. Mohr Method

A. Acid Value 42. An aqueous solution composed of potassium

B. Ester Value iodide and red mercuric iodide used for the detection

C. Crude Fiber of alkaloids:

D. Iodine Value

E. Unsaponifiable Matter

37. Assay method for Sodium Hypochlorite Solution,

USP: 43. The reciprocating cylinder, basket apparatus and

A. Acidimetry paddle apparatus are used for what in-vitro test for

B. EDTA titration tablets?

C. Iodometry A. Assay D. Dissolution

D. Permanganometry B. Content Uniformity E. Friability

E. Volumetric precipitation C. Disintegration

38. Official method of water content determination of 44. In weight variation test for tablets, a 5.0%

pharmaceutical samples: difference in average tablet weight is accepted for

A. Azeotropic distillation D. A and C tablets with an average weight of:

B. Gravimetric determination E. A, B and C A. 130 mg or less D. A and B

C. Karl Fischer method B. 130 mg to 324 mg E. A, B and C

39. Analyte that involves an alkalimetric type of assay: C. More than 324 mg

A. Magnesium Sulfate D. 2-Phenoxyethanol 45. In what case/s will addition of nitrobenzene be

B. Sodium Chloride E. Selenium Sulfide unnecessary in Volhard analysis?

C. Hydrogen Peroxide Solution

I. Determination of chloride 51. Insufficient sulphuric acid added to the analyte

II. Determination of bromide solution during permanganate titration will:

III. Determination of iodide A. Will turn the solution intense purple

A. I only D. III only B. Promote formation of a brown precipitate

B. II and III E. I, II and III C. Will discharge the color of permanganate ion

C. I and II D. Promote completion of the reaction

46. Solve for the acid number of a 2g sample of cod E. Will turn the solution green

liver oil which required 4.5mL of 0.02 KOH in the 52. EDTA titration using dithizone TS as indicator

titration.(MW of KOH 56.11g/mol): should be conducted at what pH?

A. 0.25% D. 2.5mg/g A. 2 D. 10

B. 2.5% E. 0.25mg/g B. 4.6 E. 13

C. 25mg/g C. 7

47. Diazotization assay is used for analysis of what 53. The water content of an 875.4mg samle of dried

class of analytes? neem leaves was determined with a moisture

A. Mercaptans D. Cyanides analyzer. What is the % w/w H2o in the leaves if the

B. Sulfonamides E. Volatile oils final mass was found to be 545.8mg?

C. Alkaloids A 1.60% D. 98.40%

48. Optical rotation is measured using what B. 37.85% E. 5.42%

instrument? C. 62.35%

A. Refractometer D. Polarimeter 54. This value represents the percentage of test

B. ph meter E. Spectrophotometer material which is volatilized and driven off under the

C. HPLC condition specified:

49. Masking agent that permits the determination of A. Water content Determination

Mg+2 in the presence of Al+3 ions: B. Ignition to constant weight

A. Absolute alcohol C. Loss on drying

B. Ammonium Fluoride D. Loss on ignition

C. Triethanolamine E. Acid insoluble ash

D. Potassium Sodium Tartrate 55. Potassium biphthalate is a primary standard used

E. Nitric acid for standardization of ______:

50. A parameter that checks the homogeneity of the A. Sulfuric Acid VS

active ingredient in tablets and is usually done by B. Sodium Hydroxide VS

assaying a certain number of tablets individually: C. Ammonium Thiocyanate VS

A. tablet hardness D. Content Uniformity D. Potassium Permanganate VS

B. Tablet thickness E. Weight variation E. Disodium Edetate VS

C. Dissolution
56. Type of chromatography wherein the mobile 63. Suitable form of starch for the preparation of

phase is polar in nature and the stationary phase is Strach TS:

nonpolar in nature: A. Arrowroot starch

A. Thin layer chromatography B. Soluble Starch

B. Ion-exchange chromatography -amylose content

C. Normal phase chromatography D. A and B

D. Reversed-phase chromatography E. A, B and C

E. Paper chromatography 64. Reagent added during preparation of Sodium

57. Tromethamine is a primary standard used for the Thiosulfate VS that imparts stability to the volumetric

standardization of what VS? solution by acting as an antimicrobial preservative

A.Sodium Nitrite VS D. Silver Nitrate VS and suppresses acid-catalyzed hydrolysis of the

B. Ammonium Thicyanate VS E. Perchloric Acid VS volumetric solution:

C. Sulfuric Acid VS A. Hydrochloric acid D.Carbon tetrachloride

58. Stationary phase in paper chromatography: B. Sodium bicarbonate E. Starch

A. Cellulose D. Water C. Sodium carbonate

B. Acetic acid E. Methanol 65. Volumetric solution that is used for analysis of

C. Acetonitrile vitamin C raw material according to USP:

59. Method of detection for TLC: A. Potassium Arsenite VS

A. Iodine vapour D. Vanillin Reagent B. Sodium Nitrite VS

B. Sulfuric acid E. All of the choices C. Iodine VS

C. UV lamp D. Dichlorophenol-indophenol VS

60. What does G stand for in silica gel G? E. Ceric Sulfate VS

A. Gauss D. Gall 66. Preservative in Starch TS:

B. Germanium E. Ghrelin A. Sodium thiosufate D. Carbon disulfide

C. Gypsum B. Red mercuric iodide E. Arsenic trioxide

61. Purpose of potassium iodide in preparation of C. Saliva

Iodine VS: 67. Titrant which involves the formation of iodine

A. To protect iodine from microbial degradation monochloride during titration:

B. To permit dissolution of iodine in water A. Iodine VS

C. As an Antioxidant B. Perchloric acid Vs

D. A and B C. Potassium iodate VS

E. A, B and C D. hydrochloric acid VS

62. Iodometry is a suitable method for: E. Sodium Thiosulfate VS

A. Ascorbic acid D. Sugar alcohol

B. Mercaptans E. Antimony K Tartrate A. 0.1N Bromine VS

C. Sulfites B. Chlorine Water

C. 0.1N Iodine VS 73. Method in Iodine Value determination which

D. Phosphoric Acid employs the use of Iodobromide Ts as source of

E. Ammonium Phosphomolybdate TS iodine:

69. A 1.4500g sample of liquefied phenol was A. Hanus method D. Karl Fischer method

dissolved in enough water to make 1000mL. A 30mL E. Winkler method

sample of the solution was treated with 30mL of 0.1 N

Bromine Vs and HCL. The mixture was treated with 74. A polarity scale of solvent arranged according to

potassium iodide and titrated with 7.38mL of 0.1N increasing eluting power:

sodium Thiosulfate VS. It was also found that 21mL of A. Electromotive series D. pH scale

0.1N Sodium thiosulfate VS was required in the B. Eluotropic series E. Partition coefficient

titration of the iodine liberated when 20mL of 0.1N C. Irving-Williams scale

bromine VS was treated with KI and HCL. Calculate 75. The assay of Opium for % Morphine content is an

the % phenol in the sample. (MW phenol=94.11g/mol) example of:

A. 29.00% D. 65.56% A. Limit Test D. Identification Test

B. 86.99% E. 13.33% B. Trace Constituent Analysis E. Proximate Assay

C. 8.70% C. Ultimate Assay

70. What is the pH of a 0.400M HNO3 solution? 76. An unknown sample of a soluble sulphate

A. 0.40 D. 4.12 weighing 1.8000g yielded 0.9000g of barium sulphate.

B. 2.05 E. 1.67 Calculate the % sulfur present in the unknown. (MW

C. 0.60 of barium sulfate=233.40g/mol, MW of

71. calculate the NaHCO3 content of a 1.2500g sulfur=32.06g/mol).

sample of a mixture containing sodium carbonate and A. 6.87% D. 3.43%

sodium bicarbonate requiring 13.80mL of 0.5250N B.7.28% E. 14.56%

HCL on titration to phenolphthalein endpoint and an C. 13.74%

additional 16.30mL on further titration to a methyl 77. The acid value of a certain fixed oil is .96 and the

orange endpoint.(MW NaHCO3=84.01g/mol) ester value is 2.48. What is the saponification number

A. 61.4% D. 30.7% of the sample?

B.8.82% E. 70.22% A. 0.50 D. 7.44

C. 17.64% B. 2.48 E. 12.30

72. When organic compound is placed on a very high C. 3.72

magnetic field, the protons absorb radiant energy and 78. Unsaponifiable matter in the plant matter may

produce characteristics peaks due to the organic represent:

groups associated with the protons: A. Unsaturated fatty acid D. Silica

A. UV spectrophotometry D. HPLC B. Paraffin E. Rancidity

B. Colorimetry E. Polarography C. Phytosterol

C. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

79. Alcoholic hydroxyl groups present in fatty acids is A. Differentiating D. Protophilic

estimated using what fat constant? B. Leveling E. Aprotic

A. Acetyl value D. Iodine value C. Protogenic

B. Acid value E. Ester value 86. Analyte that is can be assayed by ferric chloride

C. Unsaponifiable matter titration:

80. Assay which involves back titration: A. Antimony potassium tartrate D. Titanium Dioxide

A. alkalimetric determination of esters B. Precipitated sulfur E. Vanadyl Sulfate

B. Total alkalinity of fixed alkalis C. Sodium Fluoride

87. Assayed by iodimetry:

D. EDTA titration of zinc ion A. Iodine Tincture for Iodine Content

E. Determination of peroxide by permanganate B. Sodium Thioglycollate

method C. sodium metabisulfite

81. An example of drying agent used in desiccators: D. A and B

A. Anhydrous calcium chloride D. Silica gel E. A, B and C

B. Solid potassium hydroxide E. All of the choices 88. Equivalence factor when arsenic trioxide is used

C. Phosphorus pentoxide for standardization of iodine VS:

82. Appropriate glassware to be used in the assay of A. 1 D. 4

cupric sulfate, USP: B. 2 E. 5

A. Beaker D. Iodine flask C. 3

B. Buret E. Volumetric flask 89. Titrations involving oxidation of sugar alcohols

C. Erlenmeyer flask involve the use of what oxidizing agent?

83. Reproducibility of data within a series of results is A. Ammonium thiocyanate D. Oxalic acid

usually reported as: B. Potassium periodate E. Sodium thiosulfate

A. Absolute error D. t-test C. Potassium permanganate

B. Relative error E. Q-test 90. Titrimetric assay for ferrous salts employ what

C. Standard deviation method?

84. Appropriate indicator for a strong acid-weak base A. Cerimetry D. Precipitimetry

titration: B. Acidimetry E. Gravimetry

A. Phenolphthalein D. Diphenylamine C. Iodometry

B. Methyl red E. Starch 91. Equivalence factor for sodium thiosulfate:

C. Eriochrome black T A. 1 D. 6

85. Several acids, dissolved in a solvent, are B. 2 E. 10

completely ionized. The solvent can be classified as a C. 3

______ solvent: 92. Determination of bulk density of a power can be

done using:
A. Scott volumeter D. A and B D. Indication of molecular structure

B. Graduated cylinder E. A, B and C E. All of the choices

C. Viscometer 99. Examples of in-plane bending vibration of atoms:

93. Assayed by precipitation as calcium oxalate, A. Scissoring and twisting

conversion to oxalic acid and titrating with acidified B. Rocking and wagging

permanganate: C. Wagging and twisting

A. cherry juice for malic acid D. scissoring and rocking

B. sodium nitrite E. All of the items mentioned

C. titanium dioxide 100. Appropriate weighing vessel for liquid samples:

D. Selenium sulfide A, Beaker D. Dropper bottle

E. hydrogen peroxide topical solution B. Weighing bottle E. Volumetric flask

94. Formes a chelate with divalent and multivalent C. Watchglass

cations: 101. Faulty calibration of laboratory apparatus can

A. Ammonia D. Oxalate ion result in what type of error?

B. Ededate ion E. All of the choices A. Systematic, methodic error

C. Fluoride ion B. Systematic, instrumental error

95. Extrction using two immiscible solvents using a C. Indeterminate, personal error

separatory funnel is governed by _______: D. Indeterminate, absolute error

D. common-ion effect E. Gross

E. Law of entropy 102. What is the pH of a 0.1M solution of acetic acid?

C. Rf value (Ka=1.75x10-5):

96. Organic precipitant employed for the assay for A. 5.00 D. 7.00

MgO content of magnesium citrate oral solution: B. 2.88 E. 9.24

A. Cupferron D. DMG C. 4.76

B. Nitron E. Ferroin 103. the direct or residual titrimetric determination of

C. Oxine organic or inorganic acids using an accurately

97. A parameter that denotes the nearness of the measured volume of base:

experimental dta of the true value: A. Acidimetry D. Precipitimetry

A. Accuracy D. Ruggedness B. Alkalimetry E. Oxidimetry

B. Deviation between trials E. B and C C. Potentiometric titration

C. Precision 104. the current official assay for aspirin tablets

98. Chromatography is useful for: employs what method?

A. Resolution of mixtures into constituents parts A. Residual alkalimetry D. HPLC

B. ID test by comparing the unknown to a standard B. TLC E. bioassay

C. Determination of homogeneity C. UV spectrophotometry

105. Alcohol content determination in the USP A. 14% D. 86%

involves ______ step to separate the alcohol from the B. 28% E. 100%

sample matrix followed by determination of _____ to C. 43%

determine its concentration: 111. Assayed for ketone content:

A. HPLC, viscosity A. Caraway oil D. A and B

B. Extraction using immiscible solvent, TLC B. Spearmint oil E. A, B and C

C. Distillation, specific gravity C. Cinnamon oil

D. Soxhlet extraction, optical rotation 112. Saponifying agent used for the analysis of

E. Acetylization, titration volatile oils and fixed oils:

106. An instrument that produces ions the substance A. alcohol KOH VS D. A and B

under investigation, separates them according to m/z B. NaOH VS E. A, B and C

(charge to mass) ratio, and records the relative C. strong ammonia solution

abundance of each ionic species present: 113. Used to determine the content of inorganic

A. NMR D. HPLC impurities in an organic substance. This involves a

B. MS C. FTIR procedure to measure the amount of substance not

E. Fluorimeter volatilized from a sample when the sample is ignited

107. Riboflavin assay: in the presence of sulfuric acin:

A. HPLC D. Turbidimetry A. Total ash D. A and C

B. TLC E. Colorimetry B. Loss on drying E. A, B and C

C. Fluorimetry C. Residue on ignition

108. if an air-dried drug containing 10% moisture 114. type of ionization in mass spectrometry which

2.5% ash calculated ion the basis of the air-dried involves a high energy beam of neutral atoms,

drug, what percent of ash would the moisture-free typically Xe or Ar, causing ionization of the sample.

drug contain? This is useful for determination of molecular weight:

A. 25% D. 6.25% A. Electron impact

B. 4% E. 7.5% B. Chemical ionization

C. 2.25% C. Fast atom bombardment

109. Reagents that are used to prepare Bromine VS: D. MALDI-TOF

A. Bromine and water E. Electrospray ionization

B. Bromine and potassium bromide 115. The microbial assay for niacin and calcium

C. potassium bromide and potassium bromate pantothenate employs:

D. Potassium hypoiodite and potassium perbromate A. Lactobacillus plantarum

E. Potassium bromide and hydrochloric acid B. Lactobacillus leichmannii

110. If a 10.0mL sample of clove oil yields 1.4mL of C. Pediococcus acidilactici

residual liquid in a cassia flask, what is the % eugenol D. Streptococcus pyogenes

content of the sample? E. Streptomyces venezuelae

116. test animal used in pyrogen testing: 122. A nitrometer is employed in:

A. Cat D. Horseshoe crab A. Column Chromatography

B. Dog E. rabbit B. Soxhlet extraction

C. guinea pig C. Gasometric analysis

117. IR region that is used in the identification of D. NMR

functional groups sucs as carbonyl, amino and E. Polarography

hydroxyl groups, present in an organic compound: 123. The biological assay for digitalis employs what

A. Fingerprint region test animal?

B. Radiofrequency region A. Rats D. Pigeons

C. Group frequency region B. Guinea pigs E. rabbit

D. Absorption spectrum C. dogs

E. Near-IR region 124. Gonad-stimulating principle of placental origin

118. Samples to be subjected to titration should prepared from the urine of pregnant women:

consume approximately how many mL of titrant such A. Estrogen D. Vasopressin

that errors in buret readings and weighings will not be B. Chorionic gonodotropin E. Progesterone

significant? C. Human growth hormone

A. 5mL D. 30mL 125. Equivalence factor for dichromate ion when it

B. 8mL E. 45mL acts as an oxidizing agent:

C. 15mL A. 2 D. 7

119. A sample of sodium bicarbonate powder weighs B. 3 E. 10

5.6424g. The powder was transferred to a graduated C. 6

cylinder and its volume was 8.5mL. the graduated 126. Assayed residually by EDTA titration:

cylinder was tapped repeatedly following USP A. Calcium carbonate D. Acetic acid

guidelines and the volume of the powder after tapping B. Aluminum hydroxide E. Sodium thiosulfate

was 4.2 mL. what is the hausner ratio of the powder? C. Zinc sulfate

A. 0.49 D. 6.35 127. Spectrometric method tha measures the amount

B. 2.00 E. 35.7 of light scattered by a suspension:

C. 2.25 A. Spectophotometry D. Colorimetry

120. Elastomeric closures are assayed by: B. Turbidimetry E. Flame photometry

A. Agar diffusion test D. Elution test C. Nephelometry

B. Cylinder plate method E. leaker test 128. Sodium and potassium ions are determined by

C. Bacterial endotoxins test this method which involves the emission of energy of

121. Vitamins assayed by fluorometric method: a particular wavelength when diluted solution of a

A. Thiamine D. A and B metallic ion is sprayed into a colorless flame. The

B. Riboflavin E. A, B and C intensity of the emitted radiation is determined by a

C. Cyanocobalamin suitable spectrometer and compared to the standard:

A. Atomic absorption spectroscopy A. Beer- s law

B. Supercritical fluid extraction law

C. Flame photometry C. Ne

D. Tandem mass spectrometry 134. Calibration weights that are used as working

E. Refractometry standards for calibration, built-in weights for analytical

129. A self-indicating volumetric solution: balances, and laboratory weights for routine analytical

A. Iodine VS work:

B. Ceric sulfate VS A. Class P or class 4

C. Potassium permanganate VS B. Class s-1 or class 3

D. Ammonium thiocyanate VS C. Class S or class 2

E. sodium hydroxide VS D. class M or class 1

130. Alkalimetric assay which involves a preliminary E. none of the choices

oxidation step via oxygen flask combustion prior to 135. A substance of known purity that is used for

titration. deyermination of the exact soncentration of a

A. Ethyl acetate volumetric solution:

B. Formaldehyde solution A. Analyte D. Primary standard

C. Zinc undecylenate B. Blak determination E. Titer value

D. Precipitated sulfur C. Equivalence factor

E. Sodium metabisulfite 136. The eye should be at same level as the

131. Preferred titrant for the analysis of ferrous salts meniscus to prevent ______:

in mixtures that contain excipient or diluents that have A. Color blindness D. Calibration error

a reducing action on permanganate: B. Number bias E. Capillary action

A. Silver nitrate VS C. Parallax error

B. Ceric sulfate VS 137. Extemporaneously compounded 10% potassium

C. Sodium thiosulfate VS chloride should be used within _______ when stored

D. Disodium EDTA VS at cold temperatures:

E. Hydrochloric acid VS A. 7days D. 60days

132. Oxidizing agents are assayed titrimetrically by: B. 14days E. 120days

A. Acidimetry D. Iodometry C. 30days

B. Cerimetry E. Iodimetry 138. Assay which employs the use of a jones

C. Miscellaneous redox redactor:

133. The law which relates the power of the incident A. Alkaloid content of opium

and transmitted beams to the thickness and B. Cherry juice for malic acid

concentration of solution containing the absorbing C. Titanium dioxide

chemical species: D. Selenium sulfide

E. Dimercaprol
139. Kjeldahl method: 145. Powder flow testing:

A. Water content deretmination A. Angle of repose D. Shear cell

B. Nitrogen content determination B. Compressibility index E. All of the choices

C. Oxygen flask combustion C. Hausner ratio

D. Nonaqueous titration 146. Total alkalinity of sodium hydroxideis due to what

E. Specific gravity determination chemical species?

140. The following tests cannot be done by ignition: A. Carbonate ion D. A and B

A. Moisture content determination B. hydroxide ion E. A, B and C

B. Ash content determination C. Phosphate ion

C Extractives 147. For stability testing purposes, the Philippines is

D. A and B categorized in what climatic zone:

E. A, B and C A. I D. IV

141. In method II of water content determination, the B. II E. V

sample should yield about _____ mL of water for C. III

accurate readings: 148. Calcium pantothenate assay employs what

A. 5-8mL D. 1-3mL method?

B. 3-6mL E. None of the choices A. Refractometry D. NMR

C. 2-4mL B. TUrbidimetry E. Potentiometric

142. Glassware employed in method II of water C. HPLC

content determination in USP: 149.Buffer solution:

A. Soxhlet apparatus A. Arrhenius Equation

B. Toluene moisture apparatus B. Clausius-Clapeyron equation

C. Clavenger apparatus C. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

D. Babcock bottle D. Nernst equation

E. Reflux condenser E. Whitney-Noyes equation

143. Azeotropic distillation is utilized in the USP for 150. In pharmaceutical assaying, the official

determination of ______ of pharmaceutical articles: requirement of diluted acids is expressed on __ basis.

A. Alcohol content D. Water content A. Molarity D. Percent volume in volume

B. Aflatoxins E. Steroid content B.Percent weight in weight E.Normality

C. Bacterial endotoxins C Percent weight in volume

144. Calculate for Rf value given the following data: 151. Titanium Dioxide is assayed by what method?

Distance travelled by solvent=8.7cm A. Alkalimetry D. Gravimetry

Distance travelled by solute=3.2cm B. Iodometry E. Volumetric pricipitation

A. 0.37 D. 0.63 C. Permanganometry

B. 2.72 E. 5.95 152. Equivalence factor for assay of Pjosphoric Acod,

C. 27.84 NF:
A. 1 D. 4 A. 500-550oC D. 1000-1200oC

B. 2 E. 10 B. 550-700oC E. 1200-1600oC

C. 3 C. 800-1000C

153. Calibration of burets may be done using_: 158. Represent the inorganic salts naturally occurring

A. Kiehl buret in the drug and adhering to it, but may also include

B. Mohr buret inorganic matter added for the purpose of

C. Ostwals calibrating pipet adulteration.

D. A and C A. Ash content D. Water content

E. A and B B. Crude fiber E. Unsaponifiable matter

154. Given the following log Kf values for the C. Loss on ignition

following metal ion-EDTA complexes, which of the 159. Vitamin b12 activity assay employs what method

following cannot be titrated successfully with EDTA? of analysis?

I. Ba-EDTA-2 = 7.76 A. fluorimetry D. Turbidimetry

II. Co-EDTA-2 = 16.39 B. HPLC E. Reverse osmosis

III. V-EDTA = 25.9 C. Colorimetry

IV. Sr-EDTA-2 = 8.63 160. Official methods of demonstrating antimicrobial

activity:
A. II and III D. III only
A. Turbidimetric assay D. A and C
B. I and IV e. I, II, III AND IV
B. Brine shrimp assay E. B and C
C. I only
C. Cylinder-plate assay
155. Sodium tetraphenylboron will quantitavely 161. Cultute media of fungi:
precipitate: A. V5 agar
I. Alkaloids B. Eosin- Methylene blue media
II. Quaternary salts C. Thioglycollate media
III. Silver ions

A. I only D. I,II and III E. Soy-bean- casein digest media

B. I and II E. I and III 162. Plane polarized light is produced by what type of

C. II and III optical lens?

A. Echelette grating D. LASER

156. An excellent solvent for fats and fatty oils used in
B. Iceland spar E. Concave lens
the determination of extractive content of a plant
C. Oil immersion objective
sample:
163. Assayeed by double titration:
A. alcohol D. Hexane
A. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium bromide
B. Diluted alcohol E. water
B. Sodium nitrite E. Calcium Disodium Edetate
C. Ether
C. Dibasic sodium phosphate
157. Temperature equivalent of dull-red heat:
164. Which of the following volumetric solution should A. 42.54 mL D. 2.27 mL

be read using upper meniscus? B. 27.48 mL E. 0.00mL

A. Ceric sulphate C. 12.47 mL

B. Ferrous ammonia sulfate VS 169. Starch TS is a satisfactory indicator for what

C. HCl VS volumetric solution?

D. Potassium permanganate VS A. HCl VS D. Sodium Thiosulfate VS

E. Sodium nitrite VS B. Potassium Iodate VS E. Silver nitrate VS

165.EDTA titration of calcium salts requires a pH of C. Cerric sulfate VS

__ to ensure to complete reaction. 170. A type of redox reaction that leads to n increase

A. 2 D. 14 in positive valence of a chemical species:

B. 4.6 E. None of the choices A. Oxidation D. Combustion

C. 13 C. Reduction E. Displacement

166. Determine the %w/w of alakaloids present in the E. Decomposition

belladonna leaf ( calculated as atropine) if 15 ml of 171. A specific gravity bottle that has a thermometer

0.0210 N sulfuric acid was added to the extracted stopper and a capillary overflow tube:

alkaloids and 7.30 ml of 0.0198 N sodium hydroxide A. Geissler pycnometer

was required for the residual titration. The weight of B. Pycnometer E. Saccharometer

the powder of Belladona leaf was 10.21 g. in that C. hygrometer

reaction, 2 moles of atropine consume 1 mole of 172. A nicol prism is an intergral part of what

sulfuric acid during titration. (MW of atropine= 239.8 instrument?

g/mol). A. Refractometer D. IR spectrometer

A. 0.966% D. 96.60% B. Polarimeter E. Analytic balance

B.0.483% E. 24.20% C. HPLC

C. 0.242% 173. Failure to judge color change sharply during

167. An acetylization flask is used in the titration can lead to what type of error?

determination of: A. Interminate error D. Personal error

A. Total ester content of peppermint oil B. Instrumental error e. Number bias

B. Total menthol content of peppermint oil C. Methodic error

C. Carvone content of caraway oil 174. Given the ff. Ksp values for the ff. sulfides, rank

D. Benzaldehyde the ff. insoluble sulfides according to increase

E. Clove oil solubitliy:

168. If a 1.2500 g sample of Zinc oxide, 95.0% ZnO, MnS= 3.0 x 10 -14

were treated with 50.00% ml of 1.1230 N sulphuric CdS= 8.0 x 10-28

acid in the casual way, what volume of 0.9765 N Cos = 4.0 x 10-21

sodium hydroxide would be required in the back A. CdS>Cos> Mns D. CoS< CdS < MnS

titration? (MW of ZnO= 81.38 g/mol). B. CdS<Cos< Mns E. None of the choices
C. CdS>MnS>CoS A. Ferrous ammonium sulphate TS

175. Suitable precipitate for the determination of B. Oxalic Acid VS

mercury content by gravimetric analysis: C. Sodium thoisufate VS

A. Sodium Sulfate TS D. Magnesia Mixture D. Titanium trichloride

B. Ammonia TS E. Barium Chloride E. Potassium arsenite

C. Hydrogen Sulfide 182. Addition of an excess titrant to permit complete

176. Sulfated potash is assayed gravimetrically by reaction of the analyte with the titrant and then the

converting it to __, which is then weighed. unreacted excess titrant with another standard

A. Barium sulfate soulution:

B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate A. Blank determination D. Residual titration

C. Zinc oxide B. Direct titration E. Displacement titration

D. Cupric oxide C. Double titration

E. Potassium bipthalate 183. In the assay of Ro

177. Appropriate laboratory apparatus for carrying formed after ignition prior to titration is:

out ignition: A. Carbonate D. Carbon

A. Oven D. Fume hood B. Oxide E. Tartaric Acid

B. Electric furnace E. Hot plate E. Bicarbonate and carbonate

C. Biosafety cabinet 184. primary interference present during alkalimetric

178. Appropriate solvent for resins for extraction titration:

purposes; A. Carbonate D. Saliva

A. Ether D. Ethanol B. Metal ions E. Halides

B. Water E. Petroleum Ether C. Organic matter

C. Hexane 185.The weight of a substance chemically equivalent

179. Residue consisting chiefly of cellulose that to 1mL of a standard solution:

remains undissolved after successive treatment with A. Equivalent weight D. Mole

boiling acid and alkali: B. Titer E. Calibration standard

A. Total ash D. Unsaponifiable Matter E. Molecular weight

B. Crude Fiber E. Looss on Drying 186. Acid titrant preferred for hot titrations:

C. Sulfated Ash A. Percholic acid VS D. Acetic acid VS

180. A solution that contains methanol, iodine. B. HCl VS E. Nitric acid VS

Sulphur dioxide, and pyridine: E. Sulphuric scid VS

187. Purpose of chloroform in the assay of Phenol.

USp:

C.Karl fischer rgt. A. Serves as extracting indicator for liberated iodine

181. Standard solution that is most susceptible t air during titration

oxidation? B. To act as co-solvent for the analyte

C. To dissolve tribomophenol for clesar observation of B. Saponification value E. Polenske value

endpoint C. Ester value

D. all of the choices 194. In the assay of peppermint oil for total ester, the

188. In iodometric titration, what should be the color blank determination serves to:

be the color of the solution prior to the addition of A. Account for an absorption if CO2 by the base

Stratch TS? B. Corrects any alkalinity arising from interaction of

A. Intense brown D. Colorless the analyte solution with the glass

B. Amber E. Intense blue C. Accounts for air-oxidation of analyte which might

E. Green have occurred

189. How many gram-atom of iodine is liberated by D. A and B

one of sodium hypochlorite in the assay of sodium E. A, B and C

hypochlorite solution? 195.Reagent that provides a blanket of inert

A. 1 D.10 atmosphere during iodometric determination:

B. 2 E.46 A. HCl D. Strach TS

C. 4 B. Sodium bicarbonate E. KI

190. Type of reaction that is involved for C. Sodium carbonate

compounding such as aniline and resorcinol; assayed 196. Suitable backtitrant for titration involving the use

by bromination: of excess silver nitrate VS:

A. Rearrangement D. Free radical formation A. Ammonium thiosulfate VS

B. Substitution E. Condensation B. Sodium tetraphenylboron VS

C. Elimination C. Lithium methoxide VS

191. A volumetric Solution that is prepared from a D. Potassium Ferrocyanide VS

very pure substance and hence do not require E. Ceric Sulfate VS

standardization step: 197. Complementary color of yellow:

A. Iodine VS D. Dichlorophenol-Iodophenol VS A. Red D. Yellow-green

B. Silver Nitrate VS E. Bromine VS B. Purple E. Blue-green

C. Potassium Iodate VS C. Blue

192. In ash content determination, incomplete 198. Energy of a molecule that is NOT involve in

combustion leads to formation of: spectroscopic studies:

A. Carbon dioxide D. Carbonyl A. electronic D. translational

B. Carbon E. Carbide B.vibrational E. A and B

E. Carbonate ion C. rotational

193. Fat constant that aids in the detection of the 199. Suitable method of separating highly volatile

presence of glyceridesof acides containing less than compounds:

16 or more that 18 carbon atoms: A. Chiral chromatography

A. Acid value D. Reichert-Messl number B. Supercritical fluid chromatography

C. Gas chromatohraphy B. Total organic carbon E. NOTA

D. Medium pressure liquid chromatography C. Organic Carbon

E. Medium pressure liquid chromatography 206. this date limits the time during whick the product

200. In the equation HF + H2O H30 + F-: may be dispensed or used.

A. H2O is a base, and HF is its conjugated acid. A. Manufacturing date D. Choices B and C

B. H2O is an acid, and HF is the conjugated base. B. Exiration date E. NOTA

C. HF is an acid and F is its conjugated base. C Use date

D. HF is a base and H3O is its conjugated acid. 207. It is a measure of propensity of a powder to be

E. HF is a base. And F is its conjugated acid. compresed:

201. This type of airflow has a varying velocity and is A. Bulk density

usually for Class 1000 and 10000, B. Tapped Density E. AOTA

A. Laminar fairflow D. Down flow C. angle of repose

B. Unidirectional airflow E. Up flow 208.Weight Variation method can be applkied to the

C. Non-uniderectional airflow ff. dosage forms EXCEPT:

202. It is a property of liquids that is closely related to A. Liquid filled soft capsule

resistance to flow B. Transdermal system

A. Surface tension D. Temperature C. Singe unit for inhalation

B. Rheology E. Melting Range D. Sterile solid with no added active substance

C. Viscosity E. Hard gelatin capsule

203. In the absolute scale, viscosity is measured in 209. Initially, how many samples are required for

the poise of centipose. In the kinematic scale, it is minimum fil?

measured in the __. A. 10 D. 30

A. Poise D. Newton B. 15 E. AOTA

B. Contipoise E. Milinewton C. 20

C. Stokes 210. The ff. are official tests employed in semisolid

204. This test determines the resistance to water dosage forms, EXCEPT:

attack of new glasses containers EXCEPT: A. viscosity . Particle size distribution estimation

A. Powdered glass test B. pH E. AOTA

B. Surface attack test C. spreadability

C.Water attack test 211. It is designed to limit to a level considered to be

D. Acidimetry objectionable the number and size of discrete metal

E. NOTA particles that may occur in ophthalmic ointments.

205. it is an indirect measure if inorganic molecules A. particle size distribution D. deliverable volume

present in pharmaceutical waters measured as B. metal particles E. NOTA

carbon. C. minimum fill

A. Total inorganic Carbon D. Choices B and C

212. the consistency values of semisolid form can be 218.This Raw Material Quality Control test entails

determined using a: addition of barium chloride to a sulfuric acid __

A. viscometer D. mechanical tap density tester standard.

B. Spatula E. Rheometer A. Limit test for Chloride

C. penetrometer B. limit test for sulfates

213. Minimum fill is applicable to any of the ff., C. limit test for sulfides

EXCEPT: D. litim test for chlorates

A. container with a labeled amount of 60g or less E. limit test for acetates

Container with a labeled amount of 150g or less 219.This Raw Material Quality Control test entails the

C. container with a labeled amount of 150g use if lead acetate paper:

D. container with a labeled amount of more than 150g A. Limit test for Chloride

214. Minimum fill can be applied to such articles, B. limit test for sulfates

EXCEPT: C. limit test for sulfides

A. creams D. lotion D. litim test for chlorates

B. gels E. NOTA E. limit test for acetates

C.jellies 220. This official ID test entails comparison of

215. Color comparison tubes are used for what official retention factor.

C? A. Thin layer chromatography

A. Limit test for chlorides B.UV

B. color comparison test C. IR

C. test for readily carbonizable substance D.GC

D. limit test for sulfates E. NMR

E. NOTA 221. Measurement where the sample is diverted from

216. All of the ff. are used as colorimetric standars, the manufacturing process, and maybe returned to

except: the process stream.

A. Ferric chloride CS D. Calcium Chloride CS A. At-line D. Off-line

B. Cupric sulfate CS E. NOTA B. On-line E. NOTA

C. Cobaltous chloride CS C. In-line

217. This Raw Material Quality Control test entails 222. which of the ff. is an official ID test for Aspirin

addition if silver nitrate to a HCl acid standard. A. limit of free p-aminophenol

A. Limit test for Chloride B. limit of free salicylic acid

B. limit test for sulfates C. FECl3 test

C. limit test for sulfides D. limit for magnesium

D. litim test for chlorates E. NOTA

E. limit test for acetates 223. Method II of water determination involves

A. tartration D. stoichiometry
B.Azeotropic distillation E. NOTA 230. The performance variationtest is performed in

C.Gravimetry dissolution apparatus 1 and 2 using

224. In HPLC analysis, the official measure of A.USP Aspirin Tablet RS

column efficiency is B. USP Salicilic acid RS

A. Retention time D. width C. USP Prednisone Tablet RS

B. tailing factor E. AOTA D. USP Chlorpheneramine Maleate Extended

C. number of theoretical plates Release Tablets RS

225. The official measure of peak symmetry in HPLC E. AOTA

is: 231. The performance variation test is performed in

A. retention time D. width dissolution apparatus 1 and 2 using

B.Tailing factor E. AOTA A.USP Aspirin Tablet RS

C. number of theoretical plates B. USP Salicilic acid RS

226. Which of the ff. is used to identify peaks in the C. USP Prednisone Tablet RS

chromatogram? D. USP Chlorpheneramine Maleate Extended

A. Retention time D. width Release Tablets RS

B. tailing factor E. AOTA E. AOTA

C. number of theoretical plates 232. Official temperature for determination of specific

227. The test od weight variation is applicable for the gravity

ff. dosage forms, EXCEPT: A. 10oC D. 30oc

A. Uncoated tablets D. Solution in soft capsule B.20 oc E.35oc

B. Film-coated tablets E.Enteric-coated tablets C.25oc

C.Suppositories 233. Powders with an angle of repose equivalent to

228. The test for conformity is required for the ff. 30o is said to have

dosage forms EXCEPT: A. Excellent flow property D.Poor flow property

A. Suppositories D. Solutions in soft capsules B. Good flow property E. Very poor flow property

B. Transdermal system E. NOTA C. Fair flow property

C. Suspension 234. Powders with compressibility index of 18% and

229.Passage of fluid or solution through a sterilizing

grade membrane to produce a sterile effluent A. Passable flow character

B. Fair flow character

A. Terminal sterilization C. Good flow character

B. Sterilization by filtration D. Excellent Flow character

C. Aseptic processing E. NOTA

D. Disinfection 235. The test limit for powdered glass test of highly

E. NOTA resistant, borosilicate glass is

A. 5.0mL D. 1.5mL
B. 8.5mL E.1.8mL 242. The ff. are dissolution media employed in the

C. 1.0mL comparative dissolution profile testing for

236. The critical test parameter for each dissolution bioequivalence, except:

apparatus is true, except: A. pH 1.2 buffer D. pH 7.5 buffer

A. Apparatus 1-Rotation speed B. pH 4.5 buffer E. NOTA

B. Apparatus 2- Rotation speed C. pH 6.8 buffer

C. Apparatus 3-Dip rate 243. Method I of measuring bulk density

D. Apparatus 4- Flow rate of medium A. Measurement in a graduated cylinder

E. NOTA B. Measurement in a volumeter

237. The test limit for powdered glass test of general C. Measurement in a tachometer

purpose glass is D. Measurement in a manometer

A. 1.0mL D. 15mL E. Measurement in a rheometer

B . 8.5mL E. 18mL 244. Method II of measuring bulk density

D.10mL A. Measurement in a graduated cylinder

238. This is a purified water that has been boiled B. Measurement in a volumeter

vigorously for 5 min. or more and allowed to cool C. Measurement in a tachometer

while protected from absorption for carbon dioxide D. Measurement in a manometer

from the atmosphere E. Measurement in a rheometer

A. Distilled water Carbon-dioxide free water 24

B.Deionized water E. Nitrogen-free water A. Excellent flow D. Poor flow

E.UV treated water B. GOOD flow E. Very poor flow

239. For measurement of viscosity, the temperature C. Passable flow

of the substance should be held to within 246 Dissolution testing should be conducted at this

A. +0.1 D. +0.4 temperature

B. + 0.2 E. +0.5 A 37+0.5oC D. 37+2oC

C. 0.3+ B. 37+2oC E. 37+0.1oC

240. The following dissolution apparatus can be used C. 37+0.2oC

for the drug release requirement of transdermal 247. Disintegration testing should be conducted at

delivery system except: this temperature

A. Apparatus 4 D. Apparatus 7 A 37+0.5oC D. 37+2oC

B. Apparatus 5 E. Apparatus 8 B. 37+2oC E. 37+0.1oC

C. Apparatus 6 C. 37+0.2oC

241. Reciprocating cylinder is also known as: 248. delayed release tablet can also be called

A. Apparatus 1 D. Apparatus 4 A. Enteric coated tablet D. SGF

B. Apparatus 2 E. Apparatus 5 resistant tab

C. Apparatus 3 B. Avid resistant tablet E. 0.1N HCl resistant

C. SIF resistant tablet 256. This test shows how well a resists chipping ang

249. Buccal tablet should disintegrate within crumbling when external stresses are applied.

A. 1hr D. 4hr A. Weight variation D. Hardness

B. 2hr E. 5hr B. Assay E. Disintegration

C. 3hr C. Moist content

250. It is a test to detect or quantify endotoxin from 257. This hardness tester is based on compressing

Gram negative bacteria using amoebocyte lysate from tablets between two jaws via a spring gauge and

horshoe crab. screw

A. A. Erweka D. Strong-Cobb

B. Bacterial endotoxin test B. Monsanto E. Varian

C. Light transmission test E. Pfizer

D. Surface contamination test 258. Powder fineness can be blassified using this

E. Flow through test method.

251. Kb is the equation of colligative property is AKA? A. Optical Microscopy D. Sedimentation

A.Cryoscropic constant B. Analytical Seiving E. Strokes

B.Dissociation constant C. Moisture content

C.Ebbuliooscopic constant 259. The ff. shoud be strictly avoided when using

D. Freezing point constant analytical sieves, except:

E. nota A. Oven drying

252. This test determines whether the dose in a batch B. Cleaning using liquid stream

of units is uniform and it the dosage form can deliver C. Removal of blockade by brushing

the right amount of dose in each patient D. Rinsing with nitric acid

A. Weight variation D. Hardness E. Choices C and D

B. Assay E. Disintegration 260. The following are methods of sieving, EXCEPT:

E. Moist content A. Mechanical method- Dry sieving

253. This test stimulus the physiological conditions of B. Air Entrapment method-Air jet sieving

the body and can therefore predict bioavailability as C. Air Entrapment method- sonic sifter sieving

this prerequisite of absorption. D. AOTA

A. Weight variation D. Hardness E. NOTA

B. Assay E. Disintegration 261. Method 1 in determining particulate matter in

E. Moist content injection involves:

255. This test shows how well a resists chipping ang A. Light obscuration particle count test

crumbling when external stresses are applied. B. Sedimentation Test

A. Weight variation D. Hardness C. Microscopic particle count test

B. Assay E. Disintegration D. minimum fill

E. Moist content E. Melting range

262. This test determines the consistency of dosage 268. An analyst performed powdered glass test. The

units and if each unit in a batch has a drug substance volume of 0.02N H2SO4 consumed for trials 1 and 2

within a narrow range around the label claim. were found to be 0.70mL and 0.75mL, respectively,

A. Content uniformity D. Solubility and corrected for a blank. The general description of

B. Weight variation E. Minimum fill the container should be:

C. Spreadability A. Highly resistant, borosilicate glass

263. This test will determine whether a suspension B. Treated soda-lime glass

will not settle out rapidly in the container, will become C. soda lime glass

fluid on shaking, and will remain so long enough for a D. General- purpose soda-lime glass

dose to be dispensed: E. NOTA

A. Sedimentation volume D. Minimum fill 269. Example/s of product/s where containers of type

B. Viscosity E. Assay 1 glass are generally used:

C. Deliverable volume A. Oral suspensions

264. This test provides assurance that oral liquids will, B. Hair cream

when transferred from the original container, deliver C Dextrose 5% in water

the volume of dosage form that is declared on the D. Salicylic acid ointment

label of the article: E. AOTA

A. Sedimentation volume D. Minimum fill 270. 6 ampoules were filled with medium up to height

B. Viscosity E. Assay of the shoulder and the volumes were found to be in

C. Deliverable volume 8.21mL, 8.24mL, 8.21mL, 8.25mL, 8.23mL and

265. This test classifies whether the suspension is 8.25mL. The filling volume for the particular ampoule

flocculated or deflocculated one: lot is:

A. Sedimentation volume D. Minimum fill A. 8.1mL D. 8.4mL

B. Viscosity E. Assay B. 8.2mL E. 8.5mL

C. Deliverable volume C. 8.3mL

266. Method 1 of determining particulate matter in 271. Based on the previous problem, the volume(mL)

injections cannot be applied to, EXCEPT: of the test liquid necessary for one titration should be:

A. Emulsions D. Solutions A. 25.0 D. 125

B. Colloids E. NOTA B. 50.0 E. 130

C. Liposomes C. 100

267. This method of determining particulate matter in 272. Referring to item # 70, the extraction solutions

injections utilizes a binocular microscope: are analyzed by titration. How many trials are

A. Method 1 D. Method 4 required?

B. Method 2 E. NOTA A. 2 D. 5

C. Method 3 B. 3 E. 6

C. 4
273. The volume(mL) of 0.02N H2SO4 for treated A. Bulk density

soda lime glass with a volume of 80mL should not B. Tapped density E. NOTA

exceed: C. Angle of response

A. 0.2 D. 1.0 280. This method of determining the type of emulsion

B. 0.7 E. 1.2 utilizes the knowledge that a water soluble dye will

C. 0.9 dissolve in the aqueous phase of an emulsion while

274. the filing volume is the volume to be filled with an oil-soluble dye will taken up by the oil phase:

_____ in the container for the purpose of the test: A. Dilution Test D. B and C

A. Purified water D. 0.02N NaOH B. Conductivity test E. NOTA

B. water for injection E. NOTA C. Dye-solubility test

C. 0.02N H2SO4 281. This test is designed to limit to a level considered

275. Sterile filling facilities are usually: to be unobjectionable the number and size of discrete

A. Class100 D. Class100000 metal particles that may occur in ophthalmic

B. Class1000 E. Class1000000 ointments:

C. Class10000 A. Sterility

276. For ampoules the filling volume is the volume up B. Metal particles in ophthalmic ointment

to the height of the ____: C. Microbial count

A. Neck D. Vent D. pH

B. Shoulder E. NOTA E. Arsenic release

C. Tip 282. This test is an indication of crystal habit,

277. A glass container intended to provide protection presence of polymorphic form etc.:

form light should meet requirement of what test? A. Optical microscopy

A. light transmission test B. particle size distribution estimation

B. Arsenic test C. viscosity

C. Light deflection test D. Minimum fill

D. light absorption/ionization test E. Deliverable volume

E. Absorption 283. This test is intended is to determine the

278. Sublingual tablets must disintegrate within: temperature at which the semisolid melts and

A. 30mins D. 4hours therefore indicates proper storage and application:

B. 60mins E. As specified in the A. Loss on drying D. thickness

monograph B. Melting range E. Friability

C. 1hour C. solubility

279. This refers to the ratio of the mass of an 284. What is/are the required immersion fluid/s for

untapped powder sample and its volume including the coated tablets?

contribution of the interparticulate void volume: A. water

B. simulated gastric fluid

C. simulated intestinal fluid A. sieving D. Diffusion

D. A and B B. impaction E. AOTA

E. B and C C. interception

285. This test stimulates the flow of a bed of powder 292. This refers to the contamination of a starting

or granules in a hopper: material, intermediate product, or finished product

A bulk density with another starting material or product during

B. tapped density manufacture.

C. angle response A. mixed-ups D. Scale up

286. Efficiency of separation could be increased with: B. cross contamination E. AOTA

A. Increase in plate height C. Sanitation

B. Decrease in plate height 293. This is the heart of a clean room:

C. decrease in plate count A. Barometer D. HEPA filter

D. Decrease in pressure B. HPLC E. Laminar flow wood

E. increasing in tailing C. oven

287. This test is intended for type 1 containers for 294. This is a room or area where the product is

aqueous parenteral preparation: formulated, filled and sealed:

A. powedered glass test D. surface glass test A. critical area

B. arsenic release E. NOTA B. Controlled area

C. water attack test C. assimilated Area

288. Explosives can be identified by what color of D. Think-tank area

placards? E. filling area

A. red D. yellow 295. This is the zone/part of room where filling of

B. orange E. blue sterile products or other sterile processes take place:

C. green A. critical area

289. Oxidizers and organic peroxides fall under class: B. Controled area

A. class5 D. class8 C. assimilated Area

B. class6 E. class9 D. Think-tank area

C. class7 E. filling area

290. it refers to the time a certain constituents passes 296. This type of pressure must be maintained to

through the HPLC column. ensure airflows from the cleanest space to less clean

A. Retardation factor D. Retention Time space:

B. Retardation time E. NOTA A. Negative pressure

C. Retardation factor B. Positive pressure

291. These are the four basic mechanisms in which C. Intermittent pressure

fibrous air filter remove contamination from D. slight pressure E. isobaric pressure

airstreams:
297. This type of airflow is used where particle sizes

are relatively large.

A. Unidirectional Airflow

B. Non-unidirectional airflow

C. down flow

D. up flow

E. NOTA

298. This type of airflow is used when low airborne

concentrations of particles or bacteria are present:

A. critical area

B. Controled area

C. assimilated Area

D. Think-tank area

E. filling area

299. A synthetic contaminant often used to test high

efficiency filters is composed of atomized droplets of

hot di-octyl-phthalate. This test refers to:

A. DOP testing D. Two flow testing

B. Leak testing E. Scan testing

C. HC emery

300. It measures the ability of a HEPA filter to remove

fine particles

A. Arrestance D. Adsorption

B. Efficiency E. interference

C. Integrity
 MICROBIOLOGY & PUBLIC HEALTH

A 1. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

A) Outbreak B) Zoonotic C) Endemic D) Sporadic

D 2. A causative agent of peptic ulcer:

A) Escherichia coli B) Bordetella pertussi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Helicobacter pylori

A 3. The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the Department of Health is designed to prevent the spread of:
A) Dengue fever B) Tuberculosis C) Malnutrition D) Malaria

A 4. The first drug available for HIV:

A) ZDU B) RMP C) TMP D) CMC

B 5. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate

antigen:
A) Hay fever B) Anaphylaxis C) Asthma D) Desensitization

D 6. A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:

A) Cilium B) Trichome C) Flagellum D) Pilus

B 7. The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:

A) It can discolor the meat
B) It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
C) It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments
D) It is not readily available

B 8. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies:

A) Lysol B) Chlorine C) Ozone D) Reverse osmosis

B 9. An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms:

A) Mite B) Fomite C) Arthropod D) Vector

C 10. Administration of a toxoid confers:

A) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity

A 11. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease
within a susceptible population during a specific period:
A) Morbidity rate B) Prevalence rate C) Mortality rate D) All of the above

D 12. The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:

A) Population size C) Concentration of the disinfectant
B) Duration of exposure D) All of the above

A 13. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:
A) Koplik spot B) Peyer’s pathches C) Rose spots D) Rashes

C 14. Anaerobic bacteria that derive energy by converting formates, acetates and other compounds to
methane:
A) Microaerophilic B) Metanochromic C) Methanogenic D) Cyanobactreria

B 15. Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:

A) Attenuated microorganism C) Toxoids
B) Immunoglobulin preparations D) Cyanobacteria

A 16. Nosocomial infections are:

A) Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
B) Infections of the nasal area
C) Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose
D) Infections among animals

C 17. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:

A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Toxicity

B 18. The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:

A) Industrial wastes B) Fecal coliforms C) Red tide D) Oil spills

D 19. The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:
A) Straight B) Slim C) Blunt D) Curved

A 20. It refers to water suitable for drinking:

A) Potable B) Edible C) Bacteria-free D) Odor-free

B 21. Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:
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A) Fermentation B) Putrefaction C) Dentrification D) Transpeptidation

D 22. Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:

A) Bacilli B) Cocci C) Spiral D) Vibrios

A 23. This statement is true about viral infection:

A) Viral infections are self-limiting
B) Viral infections confer lifetime immunity
C) Viral infections are treated by antibiotics
D) All statements are correct

D 24. The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the
host is known as:
A) Tetanospasmin B) Aflatoxin C) Enterotoxin D) Endotoxin

A 25. The ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known
as:
A) Invasiveness B) Pathogenicity C) Toxigenicity D) Virulence

D 26. The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as:
A) Mutualism B) Commensalism C) Symbiosis D) All of the above

B 27. Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be:

A) Recyclable B) Biodegradable C) Earth-friendly D) Reversible

B 28. Dengue virus vector:

A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Aedes aegypti C) Anopheles mosquito D) None of the above

D 29. It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:

A) Tinea capitis B) Tines corporis
C) Trichophyton rubrum D) Malasseria furfur

D 30. The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners:

A) Chlamydia pneumoniae B) Salmonella typhi
C) Pneumocystis carinii D) Legionella pneumophila

D 31. The following are communicable diseases, except:

A) Measles B) Pneumonia C) Hepatitis D) Tetanus

A 32. The following are zoonotic diseases, except:

A) Mumps B) Leptospirosis C) Anthrax D) Brucellosis

A 33. Hansen’s disease is caused by:

A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Myoplasma leprae D) None of the above

B 34. The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except:
A) Makes use of an autoclave C) Makes use of steam under pressure
B) Causes oxidation of cell components D) Can kill both vegetative cells and spores

D 35. A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:

A) Endospore B) Exospore C) Transposon D) Capsule

D 36. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:
A) F plasmids B) R plasmids C) Transposons D) Both B and C

B 37. Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects:
A) Protozoa B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Myoplasmas

C 38. The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated:

A) Sulfonamide B) Penicillin C) Salvarsan D) None of the above

C 39. Thioglycollate agar is an example of:

A) Enriched media B) Selective media C) Anaerobic media D) Differential media

B 40. A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the
spores is known as:
A) Antiseptic B) Disinfectant C) Sanitizer D) Germicide

A 41. An example of ionizing radiation:

A) X-ray B) UV C) Sunlight D) All of the above

D 42. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:

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 MICROBIOLOGY & PUBLIC HEALTH

A) Ribosomes B) Nucleus C) Cytoplasm D) Mitochondria

A 43. The organism with atypical cell walls:

A) Mycoplasmas B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Viruses

A 44. Koch’s postulates include the following, except:

A) The suspected organism should be present in health individuals
B) The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory
C) The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals
D) The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured again in the laboratory

B 45. The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:

A) Terms “aerobic” and “anaerobic” C) Pasteur flask
B) Fractional sterilization D) Fermentation

C 46. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:

A) Dimorphism B) Polymorphism C) Pleomorphism D) Fleximorphism

A 47. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:

A) Olive oil B) Culture media C) Water D) Glassware

C 48. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:

A) Virus B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus D) Clostridium botulinum

C 49. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth:
A) Log phase B) Lag phase C) Stationary phase D) Death phase

C 50. A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state:

A) Polymorphism B) Mutagenicity C) Germination D) Sporulation

B 51. Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as:

A) 70s B) 80s C) 90s D) 100s

D 52. Organisms that can grow at body temperature:

A) Thermophiles B) Psychrophiles C) Acidophiles D) Mesophiles

B 53. Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes:

A) Sporulation B) Transverse binary fission C) Germination D) None of the above

A 54. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus:

A) Transduction B) Conjugation C) Transformation D) Both A and C

A 55. A structurally mature infections viral particle:

A) Virion B) Capsid C) Capsule D) Spore

A 56. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:

A) Dinoflagellate B) Diatom C) Euglenoid D) None of the above

A 57. A theory that states that life originates from non-life:

A) Theory of Spontaneous Generation C) Germ Theory
B) Koch’s Postulates D) None of the above

A 58. Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:

A) T-helper lymphocytes B) B-lymphocytes C) Phagocytes D) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

C 59. A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and
hospitals:
A) Health Sector Reform Agenda D) Health Passport Initiative
B) National Health Objectives E) None of the above
C) Sentrong Sigla

B 60. Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health
among various sectors:
A) Health Sector Reform Agenda D) Health Passport Initiative
B) National Health Objectives E) None of the above
C) Sentrong Sigla

A 61. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health
related matters:
A) DOH B) WHO C) QUERT D) Sentrong Sigla E) None of the above

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D 62. Backyard gardening, community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under
this program:
A) Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy D) WHO
B) Nutrition Program E) None of the above
C) National Drug Policy Program

D 63. Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health:
A) Philhealth B) DOH Hospitals C) UNICEF D) WHO E) None of the above

D 64. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster:
A) Internal Management D) Health Regulation Development
B) Health Regulation E) None of the above
C) External Affairs

B 65. An employee liability law that provides financial supports for workers unemployed because of work
related injuries:
A) OSH Act D) Coal Mine Health and Safety Act
B) Workers Compensation Law E) None of the above
C) Civilian Rehabilitation

E 66. A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust:

A) Mesothelioma C) Physical hazards E) None of the above
B) Chemical hazards ` D) Ergonomic hazards

C 67. A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration:
A) Biological C) Physical E) None of the above
B) Chemical D) Ergonomic

B 68. Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration:

A) Sulfur dioxide B) CO C) CO2 D) Lead E) None of the above

E 69 The following are functions of Amiotic fluid, except:

A) Allows the movement of fetus D) Allows the fetus to float
B) Protects against mechanical injury E) None of the above
C) Provides stable temperature

A 70. Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic
microorganism:
A) Canning B) Pasteurization C) Irradiation D) Drying E) None of the above

C 71. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidants:

A) Vit. A B) Vit. D C) Vit. E D) Vit. K E) None of the above

C 72. The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:

A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholic hepatitis C) Fatty liver D) All E) None

E 73. The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:

A) Smaller size B) Deformities of limb C) Heart defects D) Poor coordination E) None

B 74. Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts:

A) Initial stage B) Middle stage C) Third stage D) final stage E) None

E 75. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, hair or fog:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulfur dioxide C) Nitrogen oxide D) A and B E) B and C

D 76. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the
accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in
the number of organisms:
A) Acidification D) Eutrophication
B) Alkalinification E) None
C) Nitrification
B 77. A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol:
A) Naltrexone B) Antabuse C) Tranquilizers D) All E) None

A 78. This is a period between conceptions through complete delivery of the product of conception:
A) Pregnancy B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Cleavage E) None

A 79. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
A) Copper B) Manganese C) Chromium D) Zinc E) None

A 80. It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
A) RDA B) REA C) RAD D) RAE E) None

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B 81. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and
excretion of nutrients:
A) Primary malnutrition D) Overnutrition
B) Secondary malnutrition E) None
C) Undernutrition

A 82. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:

A) Beri-beri B) Pellagra C) Stomatitis D) A and B E) B and C

C 83. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:

A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholism C) Hang-over D) A and B E) B and C

C 84. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

A) Steven Johnson’s Syndrome D) A and B
B) Down Syndrome E) None
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

B 85. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least
accurate?
A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

D 86. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting
phagocytosis.
B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types.
C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the
Pneumococcus.
D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

C 87. The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body.
B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site
of infection is the lungs.
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.

A 88. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and
one that ha the toxic activity.
D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in
certain vaccines.

D 89. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways.
B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells.
C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils.
D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.

C 90. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?
A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause
disease but leaves its antigenicity intact.
B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and
produce significant side effects in children.
D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is
recommended primarily for older people.

D 91. Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which one of the following is least
likely to do this?
A) Hepatitis A virus B) Poliovirus C) Rotavirus D) Mumps virus

C 92. Penicillin is a very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reactions. In these
allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate?

A) Penicillin is a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody
response.
B) Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them.
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C) Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The
carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper-T cell.
D) Penicillin interacts with the early complements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory
mediators.

Choices for numbers 93 – 97:

A) Staphylococcus aureus D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B 93. The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases
like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.

A 94. The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS and skin boils.

D 95. Norma flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis.

B 96. A group B Streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis.

C 97. The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children.

Choices for numbers 98 – 102:

A) Meningococcus D) Clostridium tetani
B) Gonococcus E) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Bacillus antracis

B 98. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci causing gonorrhea.

A 99. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule
referred to as glycocalyx.

D 100. Anaerobic, gram positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons
that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm.

E 101. Aerobic, non-spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis
and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients.

C 102. Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-D-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s
disease.

Choices for numbers 103 – 106:

A) Clostridium perfringens D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Clostridium tetani E) Clostridium dificile
C) Clostridium botulinum

B 103. Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile.”

A 104. The causative agent of gas gangrene.

D 105. In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and
may infect the respiratory system.

E 106. Anaerobic, gram positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin
that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.

C 107. The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods.

Choices for numbers 108 – 112:

A) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio cholerae
B) Salmonella typhi E) Camphylobacter jejuni
C) Shigella dysenteriae

D 108. A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.

E 109. A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in
Skirrow’s agar.

C 110. Facultative gram negative rods, non-lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).
A 111. Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travelers diarrhea” are the most common
diseases caused by this gram negative, non-lactose fermenting bacilli.

B 112. Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non-lactose fermenting, gram
negative rod which is capable of producing H2S.
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Choices for numbers 113 – 117:

A) Mycobacterium leprae D) Treponema pallidum
B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis E) Leptospira interrogans
C) Borrelia burgdorferi

D 113. Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis.

E 114. Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis.

C 115. Spirochete, which is the causative agent of Lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early
stage and Pen G for late stages.

A 116. An acid-fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement.

B 117. An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and is capable
of producing Niacin. It can be treated with Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH.

Choices for numbers 118 – 122:

A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 D) Cytomegalovirus
B) Varicella-Zoster virus E) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2

D 118. Gangcyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective.

E 119. The causative agent of Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East
African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease.

C 120. The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can then be treated with Acyclovir.

A 121. The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis.

B 122. The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults.

D 123. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal
cells?
A) Human cells undergo mitosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do.
B) Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains
peptidoglycan.
C) Human and bacterial cells have plasmids, whereas fungal cells do not have.
D) Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.

C 124. The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except:

A) They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins.
B) They are more heat stable than exotoxins.
C) They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.
D) They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not.

B 125. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:

A) Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B) IgG and IgM antibodies
C) Helper-T cells
D) Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin

D 126. The following events involve recombination of DNA, except:

A) Transduction of a chromosomal gene
B) Transposition of a mobile genetic element
C) Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
D) Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor

B 127. The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except:
A) The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat.
C) Colon is the major site where Bacteroides fragilis can be found.
D) Nose is one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus aureus can be found.

C 128. Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defenses against
bacteria?
A) Activation of the lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
B) Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
C) Facilitation of phagocytosis
D) Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

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D 129. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
A) Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B) Inactivates elongation factor-2
C) Blocks release of acetylcholine
D) Causes the release of necrosis factor

D 130. The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the
following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
A) Capsule B) Flagella C) Cell wall D) Ribosomes

Choices for numbers 131 – 135:

A) Diphtheria toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin
B) Tetanus toxin E) Cholera toxin
C) Botulinum toxin

C 131. Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine

A 132. Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor-2

D 133. Stimulates T cells to produce cytokines

E 134. Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP-ribose to a G protein

B 135. Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms

B 136. An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occured in the newborn nursery. You are
called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the norma flora , what is the most likely source of
the bacteria?
A) Colon B) Nose C) Throat D) Vagina

A 137. The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except:

A) Clostridium perfringens B) Streptococcus fecalis C) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio cholerae

C 138. A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridans group of
Streptococcus. Which one of the following sites is most likely to be the source of the organism?
A) Skin B) Colon C) Oropharynx D) Urethra

C 139. The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus faecalis
B) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
C) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis

C 140. Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and
diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?
A) Clostridium perfringens C) Bacillus cereus
B) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli D) Salmonella typhi

C 141. Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector?

A) Plague B) Lyme disease C) Brucellosis D) Epidemic typhus

B 142. Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A) Salmonella typhi B) Rickettsia typhi C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Coxiella burnetii

D 143. The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except:

A) Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize sufficient ATP.
B) Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. psittaci has only one serotype.
D) Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods.

D 144. A 55-year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram-negative
rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non-lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of
swarming motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent of his urinary
tract infection?

A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Proteus vulgaris D) Escherichia coli

B 145. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following
organisms?
A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus agalactiae

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C 146. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent
patient?
A) Nocardia asteroides B) Serratia marcescens
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae D) Legionella pneumophila

A 147. Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
A) Passive immunity B) Passive-active immunity
C) Active immunity D) Cell-mediated immunity

D 148. The following statements concerning Interferon are correct, except:

A) Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses.
B) Interferon is induced by double-stranded DNA.
C) Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species.
D) Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.

C 149. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct,
except:
A) Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell.
B) Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell.
C) Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides.
D) Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.

A 150. The following statements about lysogeny are correct, except:

A) Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes.
B) Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed.
C) Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
D) Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that cause human diseases.

B 151. The following viruses possess an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:

A) Varicell-zoster virus B) Papillomavirus C) Influenza virus D) HIV virus

B 152. The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
A) Hepatitis A virus B) Smallpox virus C) Mumps virus D) Rotavirus

A 153. The following viruses possess double-stranded DNA as its genome, except:
A) Coxsackie virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Rotavirus D) Adenovirus

B 154. Which of the following statements best describe a viriod?

A) It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
B) It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
C) It causes tumor in experimental animals.
D) It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.

B 155. The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except:
A) They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
C) They each have a single antigenic type.
D) They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.

D 156. The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except:
A) They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
C) Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses.
D) They each have a single antigenic type.

C 157. The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except:
A) They are non-enveloped RNA viruses.
B) They each have multiple antigenic types.
C) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
D) They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell.
Choices for numbers 158 – 161:
A) DNA enveloped virus D) RNA non-enveloped virus
B) DNA non-enveloped virus E) Viriod
C) RNA enveloped virus
A 158. Herpes simplex virus

C 159. Human Tcell leukemia virus

B 160. Human papillomavirus

D 161. Rotavirus

B 162. The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except:
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A) Cytomegalovirus B) Hepatitis A virus C) Hepatitis B virus D) Herpes simples virus

D 163. Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to
poliovirus?
A) Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine
B) Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin
C) Parenteral administration of live vaccine
D) Oral administration of live vaccine

C 164. The following clinical syndromes are associated with infection by picornavirus, except:
A) Myocarditis/Pericarditis B) Hepatitis C) Mononucleosis D) Meningitis

A 165. The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except:
A) The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus.
B) If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given.
C) When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given.
D) The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic
encephalomyelitis.

C 166. The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except:

A) The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract.
B) Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children.
C) Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.
D) Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons.

Choices for numbers 167 – 171:

A) Hepatitis C virus D) Dengue virus
B) Cytomegalovirus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
C) Human papilloma virus

C 167. It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix.

E 168. Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus.

B 169. It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.

A 170. Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus ahould not be used for transfusion.

D 171. It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening.

D 172. Bacteria lack all of the following organelles, except:

A) Mitochondria B) Nucleus C) Mitotic apparatus D) DNA E) Nuclear membrane

D 173. The following are true about prokaryotes, except:

A) They are relatively small.
B) Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only.
C) They lack autonomous organelles.
D) Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.

A 174. Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission:

A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Protozoa D) Helminths

B 175. Phylogenetic classifications are based on:

A) Shared morphologic attributes B) Evolutionary relationships
C) Shape D) Unusual growth characteristics

E 176. The peptidoglycan of gram-negative bacteria probably is:

A) 20 layers thick D) 80 layers thick
B) 40 layers thick E) 1 layer thick
C) 10 layers thick

C 177. Porins are:

A) Cytoplasmic membrane proteins B) Periplasmic proteins
C) Outer membrane proteins D) Inclusion bodies

B 178. Gram-negative bacterial cell wall contains the following components, except:
A) Lipoproteins B) Lipotechoic acid C) Lipopolysacchatide D) Phospholipid

C 179. This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial
cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the
DNA.
A) Nucleoid B) Plasmids C) Mesosomes D) Transposons

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A 180. The bacterial organelle that is used for motility:

A) Flagella B) Pili C) Cilia D) Pseudopods

B 181. An intracytoplasmic granule may contain:

A) Nucleic cids B) Glycogen C) Steroids D) Spindle fibers

C 182. The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores:

A) Polymerized d-glutamic acid B) Flagellin C) Dipicolinic acid D) Techoic acid

B 183. This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the
necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms:
A) Flagella B) Fimbriae C) Capsule D) Endospores

B 184. This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and
even catheters:
A) Capsule B) Slime layer C) Pili D) Flagella

D 185. The following are true for endospores, except:

A) Highly resistant to disinfectants
B) Can survive for many years, especially in soil
C) Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation
o
D) Killed by heating at 100 C

A 186. A rod-like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and is killed by the presence
of oxygen is best described as:
A) Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
B) Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacilli
C) Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic streptobacillus
D) Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli

A 187. Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as:
A) Heterotrophs B) Autotrophs C) Chemoautotrophs D) Photoautotrophs

C 188. The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity
occurs but cells do not divide is the:
A) Stationary phase B) Log phase C) Lag phase D) Death phase

C 189. The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as:
A) Thermal death time B) Growth rate constant C) Generation time D) Thermal death point

C 190. Which of the following organisms is a predatory bacterium?

A) Salmonella thypinurium C) Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D 191. Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by:

A) Activated transport B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Carrier-mediated transport D) Any of the above

B 192. Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called:
A) Heterofermenters B) Homofermenters
C) Glyoxalate shunt fermenters D) Oxidative fermenters

B 193. The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:

A) Carbohydrates/Nucleic acids/Steroids C) Nucleic acids/Chitin/Peptidoglycans
B) Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids D) Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin

C 194. Which of the following statements is true about drug-resistant plasmids?

A) Found only in gram-negative bacteria
B) Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic
C) May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant
D) Two of the above

B 195. Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation?

A) It requires the F factor
B) It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
C) It is mediated by a bacterial virus
D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria

C 196. It is the relationship between the host and the normal microbiota:
A) Disease B) Infection C) Symbiosis D) Parasitism

C 197. It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria:

A) Disease B) Infestation C) Infection D) Syndromes
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A 198. Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
A) Acute B) Subacute C) Chronic D) Latent

B 199. This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease:
A) Decline phase B) Prodormal stage C) Illness stage D) Convalescence stage

C 200. The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is
described as:
A) Endemic B) Epidemic C) Pandemic D) Acute

B 201. It is an indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
A) Virulence B) Pathogenicity C) Attenuation D) In vitro growth rates

A 202. The two major components of virulence include:

A) Invasiveness and toxigenicity C) Adherence factors and antiphagocytic mechanisms
B) Intracellular and extracellular survival D) Capsules and spreading factors

B 203. The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the
release of acetycholine, is produced by:
A) Bacillus anthracis C) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D 204. The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian protein synthesis by inactivating EF-2 of
eukaryotic cells is produced by:
A) Bacillus anthracis C) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A 205. The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase, resulting in accumulation of cyclic
AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining, is:
A) Escherichia coli C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Staphylococcus aureus

D 206. The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:

A) They are also known as lipopolysaccharides.
B) They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
C) They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins.
D) Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.

C 207. The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except:
A) Teeth B) Urethra C) Bronchi D) Skin

D 208. The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora:
A) Skin B) Colon C) Vagina D) Mouth

B 209. Vancomycin is produced naturally from:

A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep. orientalis C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. orchidaceous

C 210. Polymixin is produced from:

A) Bacillus subtilis B) Bacillus cereus C) Bacillus polymyxa D) Bacillus anthracis

D 211. The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:
A) Aminoglycosides B) Tetracyclines C) Lincomycin D) Cephalosporins

C 212. Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins,
although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or a
deficiency of:
A) Plasmid that codes for penicillinase C) Cellular growth rates
B) Autolytic enzymes D) Certain cytochromes

B 213. Nystatin is produced naturally from:

A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep.noursei C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. natalensis

D 214. This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB:
A) Penicillin B) Bacitracin C) Vancomycin D) Cycloserine

B 215. Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic:
A) Gentamicin B) Chloramphenicol C) Bacitracin D) Polymixin

B 216. It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms:

A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis

D 217. It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice:

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A) Chlorine B) Merthiolate C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Iodine

A 218. This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It
kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids:
A) Ethylene oxide B) Formaldehyde C) Acids and alkalis D) Hydrogen peroxide

B 219. It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive solutions:

A) Autoclave B) Filtration C) Radiation D) Pasteurization

D 220. This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose
patients have Gonorrhea:
A) Merthiolate B) Mercurochrome C) Silver sulfadiazine D) Silver nitrate

D 221. The following are milk-borne pathogens, except:

A) Mycobaterium bovis B) Salmonella C) Streptococcus D) Clostridium

D 222. Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution?

A) Autoclaving B) Dry heat (oven) C) Ethylene oxide D) Filtration

C 223. The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:

A) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
B) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
D) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B 224. The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:

A) L-glutamic acid B) D-glutamic acid C) Polysaccharide D) Nucleic acid

D 225. Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:

A) It is a large, gram-positive rod
B) It is a spore-former.
C) It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins.
D) It can live inside phagocytic cells.

A 226. Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:

A) It is a spore-former. C) It can live inside phagocytic cells.
B) It is a short, gram-positive rod D) It is actively motile.

A 227. The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci:

A) M protein B) Group A carbohydrate C) Hyaluronic acid capsule D) Protein A

C 228. The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
A) Gram staining B) Catalase test C) Coagulase test D) Hemolysis test

D 229. An example of a streptococcal disease sequela:

A) Scarlet fever B) Pharyngitis C) Puerperal sepsis D) Rheumatic fever

C 230. The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis:
A) 2 B) 7 C) 12 D) 19

C 231. The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Viridans streptococci
B) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C 232. Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhea?
A) Polysaccharide capsule C) Genus-specific protein
B) Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin D) Production of IgA protease

D 233. Neisseria are all:

A) Gram positive B) Anaerobes C) Coagulase positive D) Oxidase positive

D 234. In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhea by:
A) Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
B) Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
C) The presence of pili
D) Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate

C 235. The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans:
A) Blood-sucking arthropods D) Contact with contaminated urine
B) Contact with contaminated feces E) Handling of infected tissues
C) Animal bites and scratches

B 236. Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?

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A) Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible.

B) The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract.
C) Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen.
D) All of the above

E 237. Tularemia may occur in:

A) Ulderoglandular form B) Oculoglandular form C) Pulmonary form D) All of the above

D 238. The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, facultative anaerobic,
nosocomial pathogen:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Proteus vulgaris D) Escherichia coli

A 239. A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated
from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
A) Klebsiella B) Pseudomonas C) Proteus D) Serratia

A 240. A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism
is lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
A) Proteus B) Escherichia C) Serratia D) Klebsiella

C 241. Leprosy may manifest itself as:

A) Lepromatous leprosy B) Tuberculoid leprosy C) A and B D) B and C

D 242. Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:

A) Cutaneous lesions C) Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
B) Mucous membrane lesions D) Absence of spirochetes in the lesions

D 243. The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:

A) Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later
B) Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
C) The VDRL test
D) Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present

B 244. The smallest known free-living microorganism is:

A) Viruses B) Mycoplasma species C) Rickettsia D) Chlamydiae

B 245. The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:

A) Sporozoite B) Trophozoite C) Merozoite D) Cysts

D 246. A class in which only parasitic forms occur:

A) Sarcodina B) Mastigophora C) Ciliata D) Sporozoa

D 247. In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found:
A) Stool B) Urine C) Sputum D) All of the above E) None of the above

E 248. Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms?
A) Formalin-ether B) Kato thick smear C) Stool dilution D) A and B E) B and C

B 249. Blastocyctis hominis is a:

A) Zooparasite B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
C) New name for Enatamoeba coli D) Bacteria

C 250. The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies:
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

C 251. Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells:
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

A 252. Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation:
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

C 253. Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei:

A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

C 254. The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped:

A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii
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D 255. Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts):
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

A 256. In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
A) The period just before a paroxysm
B) At the beginning of a paroxysm
C) During the late paroxysmal stage
D) The period just following a paroxysm

B 257. Definitive host of human malarial parasites:

A) Any domestic animal B) Anopheles mosquito C) Man D) B and C

A 258. The sexual cycle is the:

A) Sporogony B) Schizogony C) Either B or C D) Neither B nor C

A 259. Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

C 260. As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which
includes:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A 261. The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

B 262. Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:

A) Mice B) Cats C) Dogs D) Pigs

C 263. Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by:

A) Stool examination B) Thin blood film
C) Flourescent antibody tests D) Intradermal test

B 264. Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by:

A) Bite of the vector insect
B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
C) In the body of the parasitic nematode
D) Ingestion of infected food

A 265. The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance:

A) Chilomastix mesnili B) Giardia lamblia
C) Trichomonas hominis D) Retortamonas

C 266. An axostyle is present in this organism:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

B 267. Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A 268. This organism has lemon-shaped cysts:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae

C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A 269. This causes visceral leishmaniasis:

A) Leishmania donovani C) Leishmania braziliensis
B) Leishmania tropica D) Trypanosoma cruzi

C 270. The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection:

A) Dog B) Cat C) Pig D) Cattle

B 271. A viviparous organism:

A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichenella spiralis C) Hookworm D) Pinworm

B 272. Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal?
A) Hookworm B) Pinworm C) Trichinella spiralis D) Trichuris trichiura

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B 273. “Old world” hookworm:

A) Necator americanus B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Ancylostoma caninum D) Toxocara canis

C 274. This organism causes tropical elephantiasis:

A) Loa loa B) Onchocerca volvulus C) Wucheria bancrofti D) Dracunculus medinensis

C 275. The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis
C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Strongyloides stercoralis

B 276. The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis

A 277. The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis

C 278. Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of:
A) Pig B) Monkey C) Dog D) Cat

E 279. Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin:

A) Enterobius vermicularis D) A and B
B) Strongyloides stercoralis E) B and C
C) Hookworm

E 280. Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Hookworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides
B) Whipworm E) Strongyloides stercoralis
C) Pinworm

B 281. Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with
A) Whipworm B) Hookworm C) Pinworm D) Large intestinal roundworm

C 282. The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:

A) Hymenolepsis nana B) Hymenolepsis diminuta C) Dipylidium caninum D) Taenia solium

C 283. The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish:
A) Taenia solium C) Dipyllobotrium latum E) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia saginata D) Dipylidium caninum

E 284. The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments:
A) Taenia solium C) Dipyllobotrium latum E) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia saginata D) Dipylidium caninum

C 285. The eggs of this worm are operculated:

A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum

B 286. Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

A 287. This causes Egyptian hematuria:

A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum
B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica

B 288. The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine:

A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum
B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica

D 289. This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish:

A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

C 290. This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke:

A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

B 291. The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes
C) Hashimotos’s thyroiditis D) Pernicious anemia

B 292. The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
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A) Myasthenia gravis C) Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia

B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia D) Rheumatoid arthritis

B 293. The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
A) Antibody thyroglobuin C) Antibody to mitochondria
B) Antibody to DNA D) Antibody to smooth muscle

C 294. In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:

A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.
B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with
antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns.
C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.

C 295. In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
A) Capsule
B) Mucopeptide layer
C) M and/or T proteins
D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci

D 296. Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by:

A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus
B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum
C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus
D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant

D 297. Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following
viruses?
A) Varicella-zoster B) Cytomegalovirus C) Poliovirus D) Herpes simplex virus

A 298. Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong
to genus:
A) Epidermophyton B) Trichophyton C) Microsporum D) Trichosporum

B 299. A hapten is a substance that:

A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production
B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response
when coupled to a larger molecule
C) Induces tolerance when given alone
D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes

B 300. Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus?
A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication.
B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.
C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form.
D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.

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1. According to the frequency of occurrence, a disease that is acquired by many in a given area in a short time
is
A. Sporadic C. Epidemic
B. Endemic D. Pandemic

2. The opaque whitish liquid secreted by mammary gland which gives infants certain degree of immunity to
some infectious diseases.
A. Colesterum C. Colostomy
B. Colostrom D. Colostrum

3. Malnutrition in the Philippines is more of

A. Deficiency of food intake D. Excessive food intake
B. Improper utilization of food E. Improper distribution of food
C. Defective absorption of food

4. Foodborne diseases can be controlled by

I. Proper disposal of sewage
II. Purification of water for domestic use
III. Proper hygiene and sanitation
IV. Use of mask in crowded areas
A. I only C. I,II,III and IV
B. I and II only D. I,II and III only

5. This antibody optimizes bacteria, fixes complement, neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses and it is the
only bacteria that crosses the placenta.
A. IgM D. IgE
B. IgA E. IgD
C. IgG

6. Which antibody mediates type 1 hypersensitivity and also mediates immunity to worm infections.
A. IgM D. IgE
B. IgA C. IgD
C. IgG

7. Of the important cytokines in the body which is an endogenous pyrogen

A. IL-1 D. IL-4
B. IL-2 E. IL-5
C. IL-3

8. Which cytokine is secreted by helper T cells and stimulate production of IgE

A. IL-1 D. IL-4
B. IL-2 E. IL-5
C. IL-3

9. Transplant rejection that occurs months to years after transplantation and the damage is irreversible
A. Acute rejection C. Hyperacute rejection
B. Chronic rejection D. Superacute rejection

10.
A. B-cell deficiency C. T-cell deficiency
B. B and t-cell deficiency D. Phagocyte deficiency

11. It means programmed cell death:

A. Apoptosis C. Hayflick effect
B. Angiogenesis D. None of the above

12. The cellular immune response is mediated by

A. B cells C. both B and T cells
B. T cells D. endothelial cells

13. The humoral immune response

A. Results in the production of antibody by differentiated B cells
B. Involves T cell only
C. Requires macrophages to present antigen to B cells
D. Is part of natural/innate immune system

14. T-cell epitopes are those regions of an immunogen that

A. Bind specifically to IgM and IgD on the surface of B cells
B. Bind to Fc receptors on macrophages
 C. Are bound by MHC antigens, presented to T cells and for which specific T-cell receptors are
Present
D. Bind to receptor on polymorphonuclear leukocytes and aid in the subsequent opsonization of
the immunogen

15. Heterogenetic antigens

A. Are found in some members of a given species
B. May show idiotypic variation
C. Are specific to macrophages
D. Are found in unrelated species

16. It is true to say that the lymphatic system

A. Is the richest source of secretory IgA
B. Is primarily involved in the innate response to infection
C. Drain into the left subclavian vein near the heart
D. Is very rich in platelets

17. In human, the primary lymphatic organ include

A. Thymus and liver C. Bursa-equivalent regions and the thymus
B. Spleen and kidney D. Stomach and the lung

18. Molecules are present on the surface of B cells but not on T cells include
A. A receptor for sheep RBCs and another for pokeweed mitogen
B. IgM and IgD plus receptors for the C3 component of complement
C. CD4 + and CD8+
D. TCR receptor and CD28

19. It is true to say that natural killer cells

A. Arise in the bone marrow C. Express their TCR genes
B. Rearrange their Ig genes D. Have IgG molecules on their cell surface

20. Macrophages
A. First appear in the blood as immature T cells
B. Mature into plasma cells
C. Are major source of specific immunoglobulin
D. None of these

21. In an acute inflammatory reaction:

A. Kallikrein and bradykinin are not formed
B. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are not released
C. Cross-reactive protein appears, binds to bacterial cell walls and begins the complement
cascade.
D. The Hageman factor is not involved

22. The spleen contains

A. C. Islet of Langerhans cells
B. Bursa of Fabricus cells D. Regions derived embryogically from the
third pharyngeal pouch

23. A lymph node contains the following anatomic regions

A. Cortex and medulla C. Regions of red and white pulp
B. No primary follicles D. No germinal centers

24. Immature B lymphocytes

A. Have both IgM and IgD on their surface
B. Produce L chains and u H chains to form surface IgM
C. Produce only u H chains intracellularly with no surface Ig
D. Have not yet begun cutting and splicing of their immunoglobulin genes

25. Bence Jones proteins are produced by:

A. Some patients with multiple myeloma
B.
C. Patients with AIDS
D. Patients with SCID

26. Helper T cells

A. Have CD8 on their cell surface C. Have CD4 on their cell surface
B. Have IgM on their cell surface D. Have IgD on their cell surface

27. Secretory component is

A. Synthesized by B cells C. Synthesized by epithelial cells
 B. Attached to secretory IgM D. Attached to IgG found in saliva

28. The mucosal immune system includes the

A. Popliteal lymph nodes C. Thymus
B. Spleen D. Gut-associated lymphoid tissues

29. The most important feature of immunologic tolerance is its

A. Dependence on dosage
B. Dependence on the nature of the tolerated substance
C. Specificity
D. Dependence on the generic makeup of the individual

30. Antigenic cross-reactivity is shown by tumors induced by:

A. Smoking C. UV radiation
B. Oncogenic DNA viruses D. Carcinogens

31. The ability of the immune system to deal with a tumor is influenced by the
A. Location of the tumor
B. Ability of the tumor to change its surface antigen
C. Ability of the tumor to secrete blocking factors
D. All of these

32. As compared to primary response, a typical amnestic response yields

A. About the same antibody level but the level persists longer
B. More antibody level but the level is slower to develop
C. A much higher antibody level that also persists longer
D. A higher antibody level that, however declines much more rapidly

33. A 27 year old white man returning from a 2 month active duty in Panama was hospitalized with chills and
fever, and a unilateral conjunctivitis with facial edema and regional lymphagitis. Stained thin blood smears
revealed extracellular trypomastigotes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. African trypanosoniasis
B. Babesiosis
C.
D. Malaria
E. Lymphatic filariasis

34. Opportunistic infections in immunocompromised patients may include all of the following except
A. Acanthamebic keratitis D. Protracted cryptosporidiosis
B. Chronic granulomatous acanthamebic E. Reactivation
Encephalitis
C. Disseminated strongylodiasis

35. In a young child with a history of recurrent febrile illness, transient pneumonitis, hypereosinophilia, and
hepatomegaly, which of the folloing should always be included in the differential diagnosis:
A. Amebic liver disease D. Visceral larva migrans
B. Clonorchiasis E. Unilocular hydatid disease
C. Hepatic schistosomiasis

36. Progressive dyspnea resulting from the alveolocapillary blockage caused by asexually reproducing
trophozoites that fail to evoke a tissue macrophage response describe the pathogenicity of
A. Cystecercosis D. Pulmonary ascariasis
B. Paragonimiasis E. Pulmonary schistosomiasis
C. Pneumocystosis

37. Enterobiasis, strongylodiasis and hymenolepiasis have which of the following in common
A. Autoinfection D. Nonpathogenic
B. Filariform larvae E. Zoonoses
C. Nematodes

38. Because of the primary exoerythrocytic cycle of schizogony cannot be repeated, I is necessary to treat
the infection with only an erythrocytic schizonticidal drug in which of the following?
A. Leishmania donovani D. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium falciparum E. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Plasmodium vivax

39. A 3-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with severe emaciation and anemia secondary to a long
term bloody diarrhea. While hospitalized, she experienced several episodes of rectal prolapse. Numerous
white worms were seen attached to the surface of the prolapsed rectal mucosa. The patient was
successfully treated with mebendazole without further complications. What was the diagnosis?
 A. Dwarf tapeworm D. Visceral larva migrans
B. Hookworm E. Whipworm
C. Pinworm

40. The infective larval stage in fascioliasis, fasciolopsiasis, clonorchiasis and paragonimiasis that is
encysted on certain plant and animal foods is called
A. Cercaria D. Metacercaria
B. Cesticercoid E. Plerocercoid
C. Filariform

41. Rhabditiform larvae in unstained fecal smears is the usual diagnostic finding in
A. Ascariasis D. Strongyloidiasis
B. Enterobiasi E. Trichuriasis
C. Hookworm

42. Finding intraerythrocytic trophozoite, schizont and gametocyte stages in stained thin blood smears
during febrile periods is the usual means of diagnosis of
A. African trypanosomiasis D. Toxoplasmacosis
B. American trypanosomiasis E. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Malaria

43. Sparganosis, cysticercosis, trichinosis and toxoplasmosis have this in common

A. Immunodeficiency D. Transplacental
B. Neuropathy E. Tapeworms
C. Raw meat

44. Liquid wastes conducted from residence together with ground surface or rain water is known as
A. Garbage C. Refuse
B. Sewage D. Rubbish

45. Extreme hypersensitivity to a given protein is manifested by

A. Anaphylactic shock reaction C. Urticaria
B. Immunity D. Itching

46. The time interval between the infection of a susceptible person and the appearance of symptoms of the
disease
A. Prodromal period C. Period of illness
B. Incubation period D. Convalescence period

47. The simplest and most efficient method of providing specific protection against a communicable disease
A. Disinfection C. Artificial active immunization
B. Vaccination D. Passive immunization

48. A toxoid is
A. Endotoxin C. Attenuated toxin
B. Exotoxin D. Poison

49. Disease that is prevalent in the usual number in a given population and there is no increase in the
number of cases
A. Prevalent C. Pandemic
B. Endemic D. Sporadic

50. Test use to differentiate E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes

A. IMVIC test C. Weil-Felix test
B. Schick test D. Coagulase test

51. The process of all elimination of all microbes from a material by physical means
A. Sanitation C. Sterilization
B. Disinfection D. Antisepsis

52.
A. Ciliates C. Amoeba
B. Flagellates D. Sporozoites

53. The following are intestinal protozoans except

A. E. histolytica C. E. nana
B. G.lamblia D. I. Butschii

54. Cestodes are

A. Roundworms C. Tapeworms
B. Flukes D. Trypanosome
55. Proportion of population suffering from a disease at a given time:
A. Incidence rate C. Prevalence rate
B. Morbidity rate D. None

56. Waste materials such as bottles, broken glass, tin cans, are called
A. Refuse D. Garbage
B. Sewage E. Night soil
C. Rubbish

57. Expressed as a percentage or the number of persons diagnosed as having a specified disease who died
as a result of that disease:
A. Mortality rate C. Morbidity rate
B. Case fatality rate D. Incidence rate

58. Which of the following dust is responsible for Byssinosis

A. Silica dust C. House dust
B. Cotton fiber dust D. Mine dust

59. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by:

A. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium falciparum

60. Constitute health promotion and specific protection

A. Primary prevention C. Secondary prevention
B. Tertiary prevention D. None

61. The amount of residual chlorine to ensure bacteriological safety of water is

A. O.5 ppm C. 1 ppm
B. 0.1 ppm D. 0.5 ppm

62. The phase of pre-pathogenesis in the natural history of disease starts when
A. When the disease agent enters human host
B. Agent, host, environment interact
C. When signs and symptoms appear
D. When host recover from the disease

63. Deals with the data and laws of human mortality, morbidity and natality
A. Statistics C. Biostatistics
B. Epidemiology D. Ecology

64. An insect vector which harbor part of the life cycle of the infective agent
A. Mechanical C. Biological
B. Artificial D. None

65. Restoration of the disabled to useful place in society with maximum use of his remaining capabilities
A. Public health C. Primary care
B. Rehabilitation D. Senior citizen

66. Class of antibody which is present in mucous membranes and in body secretions
A. IgA C. IgE
B. IgD D. IgG

67. Metals that have been associated with an increase incidence of lung cancer in occupationally exposed
workers include:
A. Copper C. Iron
B. Chromium D. Silver

68. The first oral cholera vaccine

A. Vivotif C. Orofar-L
B. Orochol-E D. Tetramune

69. Workers associated with occupational exposure to lead include all of the following except
A. Battery makers C. Coal miners
B. Painters D. Gasoline station attendant

70. Cigarette smoking increases the risk of acquiring cancers of all of the following except
A. Liver C. Esophagus
B. Larynx D. Pancreas

71. The first person to become sick in an epidemic

A. Contact C. Index case
 B. Primary case D. Secondary case

72. One of the most useful index to measure the risk of transfer of infection in a community is
A. Survival rate C. Cause specific death rate
B. Case fatality rate D. Secondary attack rate

73. Important index of measuring the communicability of a disease

A. Primary attack rate C. Secondary attack rate
B. Incidence rate D. Crude birth rate

74. Excess of fluorine in drinking water give rise to

A. Osteoporosis C. Dental carries
B. Dental fluorosis D. Ketoacidosis

75. The most common physical health hazard in most industries

A. Heat C. Humidity
B. Noise D. Ionizing radiation

76. Permissible limit of fluorine in drinking water is

A. 0.5g 1g/liter C. 0.5ug 1 ug/liter
B. 0.5 mg 1mg/liter

77. The most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice

A. Iodine C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Chlorine D. Gentian violet

78. Which of the following organisms are not eukaryotic?

A. Bacteria C. Molds
B. Yeasts D. Protozoa

79. Which microorganisms are used to make microbiological growth media?

A. Bacteria C. Algae
B. Fungi D. Protozoa

80. In which habitat would you most likely find archaea?

A. Acidic hot springs C. Great salt lake
B. Swamp mud D. All of the above

81. Of the following scientists, who defended the theory of abio-genesis?

A. Aristotle C. Needham
B. Pasteur D. Spallanzani

82. Which of the following scientists hypothesized that a bactericidal colony arises from a single bacterial
cell?
A. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek C. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur D. Richard Petri

83. Which scientist first hypothesized that medical personnel can infect patients with pathogens?
A. Edward Jenner B. John Snow
B. Joseph Lister D. Ignaz Semmelweis

84. A cell may allow a large or charged chemical to move across the cytoplasmic membrane, down the
called
A. Active transport C. Endocytosis
B. Facilitated diffusion D. Pinocytosis

85. Which of the following statements concerning growth and reproduction is not true?
A. Growth and reproduction may occur simultaneously in living organisms.
B. A living organism must reproduce to be considered alive.
C. Living things may stop growing and reproducing, yet still alive.
D. Normally, living organisms have the ability to grow and reproduce themselves.

86. Which of the following is not associated with prokaryotic organisms?

A. Nucleoid C. Cilia
B. Glycocalyx D. Circular DNA

87. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The cell walls of bacteria are composed of peptidoglycan.
B. Peptidoglycan is a fatty acid.
C. Gram-positive cell walls have relatively thin layer of peptidoglycan anchored to the
cytoplasmic membrane by teichoic acids.
 D. Peptidoglycan is found mainly in the cell walls of fungi, algae and plants.

88. Which of the following is not a function of aglycocalyx?

A. It forms pseudopodia for faster mobility of an organism.
B. It can protect a bacterial cell from drying out.
C. It hides the bacterial cell from other cells.
D. It allows a bacterium to stick to a host.

89. Which cellular structure is important in classifying a bacterial species as Gram-positive or Gram-
negative?
A. Flagella C. Cilia
B. Cell wall D. Glycocalyx

90. Gram-positive cells

A. Have a thick cell wall, which retains crystal violet dye
B. Contain teichoic acids in their cell walls
C. Appear purple under magnification
D. All of the above

91. Redox reactions

A. Transfer energy C. Involve oxidation and reduction
B. Transfer electrons D. Are involved in all of the above

92. A reduced molecule

A. Has gained electrons C. Has lost electrons
B. Has become more positive in charge D. Is an electron donor

93. Activation energy

A. Is the amount of energy required during an activity such as flagellar motion
B. Requires the addition of nutrients in the presence of water
C. Is usually lowered by the action of organic catalysts
D. Results from the movement of molecules.

94. Coenzymes
A. Are types of apoenzymes C. Are inorganic cofactors
B. Are proteins D. Are organic cofactors

95. Which of the following statements best describes ribozymes?

A. Ribozymes are proteins that aid in the production of ribosomes.
B. Ribozymes are nucleic acids that produce ribose sugars.
C. Ribozymes store enzymes in ribosomes.
D. Ribozymes process RNA molecules in eukaryotes.

96. Which of the following does not affect the function of enzymes?
A. Ubiquinone C. Temperature
B. Substrate concentration D. Competitive inhibitors

97. Most oxidation reactions in bacteria involve the

A. Removal of hydrogen ions and electrons
B. Addition of hydrogen ions and electrons
C. Removal of oxygen
D. Addition of hydrogen ions

98. Under ideal conditions, the fermentation of one glucose by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many
ATP molecules?
A. 2 C. 38
B. 4 D. 0

99. Under ideal conditions, the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose by a bacterium allows
a net gain of how many ATP molecules?
A. 2 C. 38
B. 4 D. 0

100. Reactions involved in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis constitute the

A. Krebs cycle C. Calvin-Benson cycle
B. Entner-Duodoroff pathway D. Pentose phosphate pathway

101. Which of the following would be found growing in a Petri plate?

A. An anaerobe C. Viruses on an agar surface
B. A colony on an agar surface D. barophiles
102. Which of the following terms best describes an organism that cannot exist in the presence of oxygen?
A. Obligate aerobe C. Obligate anaerobe
B. Facultative aerobe D. Facultative anaerobe

103. Superoxide dismutase

A. Causes hydrogen peroxide to become toxic
B. Detoxifies superoxide radicals
C. Neutralizes singlet oxygen
D. Is missing in aerobes

104. The most reactive of the four toxic forms of oxygen is the
A. Hydroxyl radical C. Superoxide radical
B. Peroxide anion D. Singlet oxygen

105. Microaerophiles that grow best with a high concentration of carbon dioxide in addition to a low level of
oxygen are called
A. Aerotolerant C. Facultative anaerobes
B. Capnophiles D. Fastidious

106. Which of the following is not a growth factor for various microbes?
A. Cholesterol C. Vitamins
B. Water D. Heme

107. Organisms that may be found thriving in icy waters are described as
A. Barophiles C. Mesophiles
B. Thermophiles D. Psychrophiles

108. Barophiles
A. Cannot cause diseases in humans C. Die if put under high pressure
B. Live at normal barometric pressure D. Thrive in warm air

109.
following?
A. Broth culture C. Streak plate
B. Pour plate D. Dilution plate

110. In a defined medium

A. The exact composition of the medium is known
B. Agar is available for microbial nutrition
C. Blood may be included
D. Organic chemicals are excluded

111. Which of the following methods is best for counting fecal bacteria from a stream to determine the safety
of the water for drinking?
A. Dry weight C. Viable plate counts
B. Turbidity D. Membrane filtration

112. A Coulter counter is

A. A statistical estimation using five dilution tubes and a table of numbers to estimate the
number of bacteria per milliliter.
B. An indirect method of counting microorganisms.
C. A device that directly counts microbes as they pass through a tube in front of an electronic
detector.
D. A device that directly counts microbes that are differentially stained with fluorescent dyes.

113. Lyophilization is best described as

A. Freeze-drying C. Refrigeration
B. Deep-freezing D. Pickling

114. Quorum sensing is

A. The ability to respond to changes in population density
B. A characteristic of most bacteria
C. They are located in the cytosol
D. They are associated in linear pairs

115. Which of the following is a true statement concerning prokaryotic chromosomes?

A. They typically have two or three origins of replications
B. The contain single-stranded DNA
C. They are located in the cytosol
D. They are associated in linear pairs
116. Which of the following substances or processes kills microorganisms on laboratory surfaces?
A. Antiseptics C. Degermers
B. Disinfectants D. Paseurization

117. Which of the following terms best describes the disinfecting of cafeteria plates?
A. Pasteurization C. Sterilization
B. Antisepsis D. Sanitization

118. The microbial death rate is used to measure

A. The efficiency of a detergent C. The efficiency of sanitization techniques
B. The efficiency of antiseptic D. All of the above

119. Which of the following statements is true concerning the selection of an antimicrobial agent?
A. An ideal antimicrobial agent is stable during storage
B. An antimicrobial agent is fast acting
C. Ideal microbial agents do not exist
D. All of the above

120. Which of the following items functions most like an autoclave?

A. A boiling pan C. A dessicator
B. An incinerator D. A pressure cooker

121. The spores of which organisms are used as biological indicator of sterilization?
A. Bacillus staerothermophilus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Salmonella typhi D. Staphylococcus aureus

122. Which of the following substances would most effectively inhibit anaerobes in a deep wound?
A. Phenol C. Isopropanol
B. Hexachlorophene D. Hydrogen peroxide

123. Which of the following adjectives best describes a surgical procedure that is free of microbial
contaminants?
A. Disinfected C. Degermed
B. Sanitized D. Aseptic

124. A sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time and 90% of the cells have been
destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event?
A. Thermal death point C. Decimal reduction time
B. Thermal death time D. None of the above

125. In Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing
antimicrobial agents indicates
A. That the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents
B. That the microbe grows well in the presence of the agents
C. The smallest amount of the agent that will inhibit the growth of the microbe
D. The minimum amount of an agent that kills the microbe in question

126. The key to successful chemotherapy is

A. Selective toxicity C. The minimum inhibitory concentration
B. The diffusion test D. The spectrum of action

127. Which of the following is most closely associated with a B-lactam ring?
A. Penicillin C. Bacitracin
B. Vancomycin D. Isoniazid

128. Drugs that act against protein synthesis include

A. Beta-lactams C. Polymyxin
B. Trimethoprim D. Aminoglycosides

129. The type of reproduction in prokaryotes that results in a palisade of cells is called
A. Pleomorphic division C. Snapping division
B. Endospore formation D. Binary fission

130. The thick-walled reproductive spores produced in the middle of cyanobacterial filaments are called
A. Akinetes C. Metachromatic granules
B. Terminal enospores D. Myxospores

131. Which of the following terms best describes stiff, spiral-shaped prokaryotic cell?
A. Cocci C. Spirilla
B. Bacilli D. Spirochetes
132. Endospores
A. Can remain alive for decades
B. Can remain alive in boiling water
C. Live in a state of suspended animation
D. All of the above

133. Which genus is the most common anaerobic human pathogen?

A. Bacteriodes C. Chlamydias
B. Spirochetes D. Methanopyrus

134. Which of the following sequences reflects the correct order of events in mitosis?
A. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
B. Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
C. Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
D. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

135. Multiple nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic divisions result in cells called
A. Myoses C. Haustoria
B. Coenocytes D. Pseudohypa

136. Branched, tubular filaments with crosswalls found in large fungi are
A. Septate hyphae C. Aseptate haustoria
B. Aseptate hyphae D. Dimorphic mycelia

137. A phycologist study which of the following?

A. Classification of eukaryotes
B. Alternation of generations in algae
C. Rusts, smuts and yeasts
D. Parasitic worms

138. The stemlike portion of a seaweed is called its

A. Thallus C. Stipe
B. Holdfast D. Blade

139. Carrageenan is found in the cell walls of which group of algae?

A. Red algae C. Dinoflagellates
B. Green algae D. Yellow-green algae

140. The motile feeding stage of protozoan is called

A. An apicomplexa C. A cyst
B. A gametocyte D. A trophozoite

141. In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction?
A. Mutualism C. Commensalism
B. Parasitism D. Pathogenesis

142. An axenic environment is one that

A. Exist in the human mouth
B. Is free of microbes
C. Exist in the human colon
D. Both a and b

143. The most frequent portal of entry of pathogens is

A. The respiratory tract C. The conjunctiva
B. The skin D. A cut or wound

144. The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is

A. Infection C. Disease
B. Contamination D. Adhesion

145. When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesins, they
A. Become virulent C. Absorb endotoxin
B. Produce endotoxin D. Increase in virulence

146. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases?
A. Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
B. Incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence
C. Prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence
D. Convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline
147. A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is
termed a(n)
A. Subacute disease C. Chronic disease
B. Acute disease D. Latent disease

148. Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease?
A. It normally occurs in a given geographic area
B. It is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical
area/group/population
C. It occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population
D. It is an epidemic that occurs on more than 1 continent at the same time

149. Consider the ff. case, an animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated
with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector?
A. Animal C. Mosquito
B. Virus D. Person

150. -term use of a medication. His physician explained that the

malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed:
A. Nosocomial infections C. Iatrogenic infections
B. Exogenous infection D. Endogenous infections

151. Fixed phagocytes of the epidermis are called:

A. Lysozymes C. Kupffer cells
B. Goblet cells D. Dendritic cells

152. The alternate pathway

A. Is also called the Properdin pathway
B. Involves the cleavage of C5 to form C9
C. Is more efficient than the classical pathway
D. Involves recognition of antigens bound to specific antibodies

153. The type of interferon present late in an infection is

A. Alpha-interferon C. Gamma-interferon
B. Beta-interferon D. Delta-interferon

154. Interferons
A. Do not protect the cell that secretes them
B. Stimulate the activity of neutrophils
C. Cause muscle aches, chills and fever
D. All of the above

155. An autoantigen is
A. An antigen from bacteria D. Any carbohydrate antigen
B. A normal body component E. A nucleic acid
C. An artificial agent

156. Which of the following vaccine types is commonly given with an adjuvant?
A. Attenuated vaccine D. An immunoglobulin
B. A modified live vaccine E. An agglutinating antigen
C. A chemically killed vaccine

157.
A. Impetigo C. Carbuncle
B. Folliculitis D. Toxic shock syndrome

158. A bacterium associated with bacteremia, meningitis, and pneumonia in newborns is

A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococci pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus epidermitis D. Streptococcus agalactiae

159. Which type of anthrax is more common in animals than humans?

A. Cutaneous anthrax C. Gastrointestinal anthrax
B. Inhalation anthrax D. Mucoid anthrax

160. Motility is observed best with a

A. Hanging drop preparation C. Streak plate
B. Negative stain D. Flagellar stain

161. Active transport of a substance across the membrane requires

A. A gradient C. Water
B. The expenditure of ATP D. Diffusion
162. A cell exposed to a hypertonic environment will _________ by osmosis
A. Gain water C. Neither gain nor lose water
B. Lose water D. Burst

163. An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from carbon dioxide using energy
from the sun is a
A. Photoautotroph C. Chemoautotroph
B. Photoheterotroph D. Chemoheterotroph

164. A laboratory medium for bacteria can be enriched by:

A. Adding ATP C. Including salt in the medium
B. Adding blood D. Increasing the level of potassium

165. Superoxide ion is to toxic to strict anaerobes because they lack

A. Catalase C. Dismutase
B. Peroxidase D. Oxidase

166. Psychrophilic bacteria are those that grow best

A. In oxygen-free environments C. At cold temperatures
B. At pH levels of 8 or above D. Only in the presence of viruses

167. Microorganisms that survive in moisture-free environments do so because they

A. Form spores C. Have no cell membranes
B. Metabolize glucose molecules only D. Have no chromosomes

168. An obligate halophile requires high

A. pH C. Salt
B. Temperature D. Pressure

169. The process of binary fission proceeds most frequently in

A. Viruses C. Bacteria
B. Protozoa D. Fungi

170. During the stationary phase of growth of microorganisms:

A. The rate of cell division increases
B. The rate of cell division decreases
C. The population is at its most vigorous state
D. The population is at its least vigorous state

171. The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the
A. Exponential growth rate C. Generation time
B. Growth curve D. Lag period

172. Bacterial growth is expressed mathematically as ______, and this is a reflection of their growth by
________.
A. Linear/budding C. Exponential fusion
B. Linear/binary fission D. Exponential/binary fission

173. The part of the bacterial growth curve that reflects an adjustment to the media and a replenishment of
the pools of metabolic intermediates is the:
A. Stationary phase D. Death phase
B. Exponential phase E. Interphase
C. Lag phase

174. For purposes of microbial control, the term sterilization implies:

A. The removal of pathogenic forms of microorganisms
B. The lowering of the microbial count
C. The destruction of all forms of life
D. The destruction of microorganisms only on body surface

175. The moist heat of sterilization employing 15 lbs of pressure psi in a temperature of steam at 121°C is
called:
A. Autoclaving C. Membrane-filter method
B. Fractional sterilization D. Any of the above

176. The difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is that:

A. A disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while an antiseptic is used on skin surface
B. A disinfectant kills bacterial spores, while an antiseptic does not
C. A disinfectant does not achieve sterilization, and an antiseptic does
D. Disinfectants are chemical substances, while antiseptics are not chemical substances
177. A process widely used in the dairy industry that destroys a very high percentage of undesirable microbial
population by heating at a certain temperature is known as:
A. Tyndallization C. Dry-heat sterilization
B. Pasteurization D. Moist-heat sterilization

178. Dry heat is often used to sterilize:

A. Saline solutions C. Oily materials
B. Bacterial media D. Hospital blankets

179. The primary effect of ultraviolet radiations is on microbial

A. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic acids
B. Enzymes D. Cell walls

180. Ionizing radiation acts by

A. Thymine dimerization C. Oxidation
B. Formation of highly reactive radicals D. Protein denaturation

181. The primary action of nonionizing radiation is to

A. Produce superoxide ions C. Denature proteins
B. Make pyrimidine dimers D. Break disulfide bonds

182. The gas that is used in gas sterilization is:

A. Ethylene oxide C. Oygen
B. Carbon dioxide D. None of the above

183. In the clinical situation, silver nitrate is sometimes used:

A. To prevent gonorrhea in the eyes of newborns
B. To prevent passage of streptococci into the blood after a strep throat
C. To sterilize the intestine before surgery
D. To flush out the respiratory tract of tubercle bacilli

184. Betadine is an antimicrobial product containing:

A. Formaldehyde C. Calcium hydroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide D. Iodine

185. The active antimicrobial agent in bleach is:

A. Phenol D. Iodine
B. Hydrochloride E. Bromide
C. Hypochlorite

186. The source of the antibiotic streptomycin is

A. Streptomyces aureofaciens C. Streptococcus lactis
B. Streptomyces griseus D. Streptococcus faecalis

187. Metronidazole is active against

A. Aerobic bacteria D. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Facultatively anaerobic bacteria E. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Obligately anaerobic bacteria

188. Poor clinical results in antimicrobial chemotherapy may be due to:

A. Choice of an effective antibiotic
B. Giving an inadequate or excessive doses
C. Continuing use after bacterial resistance has developed
D. All of the above

189. Anti-infective agents should only be used when:

A. A significant infection has been diagnosed or is strongly suspected
B. An established indication for prophylactic therapy exists
C. Both A & B
D. A only

190. ive to a drug, this is an example of:

A. Superinfection C. Allergy
B. Drug resistance D. Toxicity

191. An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause

A. The teeth to turn down C. A superinfection
B. Aplastic anemia D. Hepatotoxicity

192. Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic?
A. Interrupting ribosomal function C. Preventing cell wall synthesis
 B. Dissolving the cell membrane D. Inhibiting DNA replication

193. In a broth dilution method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, the tube with the lowest concentration of
antimicrobial in which there is no visible growth is the minimal:
A. Antimicrobial concentration C. Inhibitory concentration
B. Bactericidal concentration D. Lethal concentration

194. The MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe
A. Largest concentration C. Smallest concentration
B. Standard dose D. Lowest dilution

195. A disease producing organism is termed as:

A. Vector C. Antigen
B. Pathogen D. Antibody

196. The best descriptive term for the resident flora is

A. Commensals C. Pathogens
B. Parasites D. Mutualists

197. Communicable diseases are transmitted by:

A. Direct contact with an infected person
B. Indirect contact with contaminated substances/materials
C. A&B
D. A only
198. The term defined as the ability of a microorganism to cause disease is:
A. Pathogenesis C. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence D. All of the above

199. Infectious diseases acquired during a hospital stay are known as:
A. Nosocomial infections C. Superficial infections
B. Systemic infections D. Any of the above

200. Virulence factors include:

A. Toxins C. Capsules
B. Enzymes D. All of the above

201. The systemic infection associated with microrganisms multiplying in circulating blood is:
A. Bacteremia C.Septicemia
B. Viremia D. None of the above

202. The presence of a new bacteria in the blood is termed

A. Septicemia C.Bacteremia
B. Toxemia D. a secondary infection

203. The ___ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms.
A. Prodronium C. Period of convalescence
B. Period of invasion D. Period of incubation

204. A/an___is a passive animal transporter of pathogens.

A. Zoonosis C. Mechanical vector
B. Biological vector D. Asymptomatic carrier

205.
A. Skin and tears C. All of the above
B. Cilia on mucous membranes D. A only

206. Which is included in GALT?

A. Thymus C. Tonsils
B. Pey D. Breast lymph nodes

207. Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies pain?

A. Tumor C.calor
B. Dolor D.Rubor

208. An example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates vasodilation is.

A. Histamine C. Complement C5a
B. Collagen D. interferon

209. An acquired resistance to an infectious agent due to prior contact with that agent is known as :
A. Vaccination C. Immunity
B. Immunization D. Any of the above
210. A large protein molecules evoked in response to an antigen that interacts specifically with that antigen is
called:
A. An antitoxin C. An antibody
B. An antiserum D. Any of the above

211. Immunologic memory refers to the ability of the immune system to

A. Recognize millions of different antigens
B. React with millions of different antigens
C. Migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues
D. Recall a previous immune response

212. The primary B cell receptor is

A. IgD C. IgE
B. IgA D. IgG

213. The cross-linkage of antigens by antibodies is known as:

A. Opsonization C. Agglutination
B. A Cross-reaction D. Complement fixation

214. Which type of cell actually secretes antibodies?

A. T cells C. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages D. Monocytes

215. Drugs that prevent the formation of cell wall are

A. Quinolones C. Tetracyclines
B. Beta-lactams D. Aminoglycosides

216. The differential stain which provides for grouping of all true bacteria as either stain-positive or stain-
negative;
A. Simple stain C. Gram-stain
B. Acid-fast stain D. Any of the above

217. The major difference between a spirochete and spirillum is

A. The presence of flagella C. The nature of motility
B. A cell with coils D. Size

218. Eukaryotic, photosynthetic organisms that range in size from unicellular to multicellular.
A. Bacteria C. Algae
B. Fungi D. Virus

219.
A. Bacteria C. Algae
B. Fungi D. Virus

220. A virus that is transmitted by an anthropod:

A. Arbovirus C. Adenovirus
B. Retrovirus D. None of the above

221. A virus that infects a bacterium; known simply as a phage

A. Bacteriophage C. Retrovirus
B. Arbovirus D. Adenovirus

222. Candidiasis is also knows as:

A. Moniliasis C. Schistosomiasis
B. Filariasis D. Stomatitis

223. The external protein coat or covering of a virion:

A. Capsid C. Flagella
B. Capsule D. Pilus

224. A polysaccharide found in fungal cell walls:

A. Chitin C. Murein
B. Cellulose D. Heparin

225. A macromolecule containing the genetic code in the form of genes:

A. DNA C. genome
B. RNA D. None of the above

226. Fungi that causes superficial mycoses of the skin, hair and nails:
A. Dermatophytes C. Prions
B. Conidia D. Virions
227. Tinea infection are also known as:
A. Ringworm C. Filariasis
B. Threadworm D. Whipworm

228. Eukaryotic, nonphotosynthetic microoorganisms that are saprophytic or parasitic:

A. Fungi C. Virus
B. Algae D. Bacteria

229. A functional unit of heredity that occupies a specific space on the chromosomes:
A. Gene C. DNA
B. Genome D. RNA

230. Long, branching, intertwining, cytoplasmic filaments of molds:

A. Hyphae C. Spore
B. Conidia D. Mycelium

231. A fungal colony, composed of a mass of intertwined hyphae:

A. Mycelium C. Conidia
B. Spore D. Fimbriae

232. Study of fungi

A. Mycology C. Virology
B. Phycology D. Microbiology

233. An extrachromosomal genetic element:

A. Plasmid C. DNA
B. RNA D. Gene

234. An infectious agent consisting of atleast one protein, but no demonstrable nucleic acids
A. Prion C. Phage
B. Virion D. Virus

235. An organism that lives on dead or decaying organic matter:

A. Saprophyte C. Lithotroph
B. Dermatophyte D. Virus

236. The synthesis of an mRNA molecule from a DNA template:

A. Transcription C. Transformation
B. Translation D. Transduction

237. It refers to protein synthesis:

A. Translation C. Transduction
B. Transcription D. Transformation

238. A complete, infectious viral particle:

A. Virion C. Virus
B. Viroid D. Prion

239. An infectious agent that consists of nucleic acid, but no protein:

A. Viroid C. Prion
B. Virion D. Virus

240. Acellular microorganisms that are smaller than bacteria:

A. Viruses C. Fungi
B. Bacteria D. Algae

241. A synthetic purine nucleoside derivative with antiviral activity against the herpes simplex virus
A. Acyclovir C. Acetaminophen
B. Amantadine D. Adenovirus

242. Fungal metabolite found in peanuts that can cause cancer:

A. Aflatoxin C. Hydrocyanic acid
B. Tetradotoxin D. Endotoxin

243. An antiviral compound used to prevent type A influenza infections:

A. Amantadine C. Aflatoxin
B. Tetradotoxin D. Endotoxin

244. Warts are caused by:

A. Viruses C. Algae
B. Bacteria D. Fungi
245. Athletes foot is also known as:
A. Tinea pedis C. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea corporis D. None of the above

246. An index of the amount of microbially oxidizable organic matter present:

A. BOD C. CBD
B. COD D. DOA

247. The use of biological processes to remedy problems, particularly those caused by pollution:
A. Bioremediation C. Biotechnology
B. Biotransformation D. Biomagnifications

248. A fungal infection, also known as tinea nigra, that forms hard black nodules on the hairs of the scalp
A. Black piedra C. Tinea corporis
B. Tinea capitis D. Black nodules

249. A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of asexual reproduction
A. Budding C. Hypha
B. Spore D. Conidium

250. Refers to the number of phages released by a host cell during the lytic life cycle;
A. Burst size C. Translation
B. Generation time D. Transduction

251. A group of beta-lactam antibiotics derived from a fungus

A. Cephalosporin C. Amikacin
B. Penicillin D. Nystatin

252. Chickenpox is also known as:

A. Varicella C. Warts
B. Variola D. Parotitis

253. A recombinant plasmid containing foreign DNA, which is used as a cloning vector in genetic engineering:
A. Chimera C. Camera
B. Chitin D. Chameleon

254.
A. Chromosomes C. Nuclei
B. Genes D. None of the above

255. A group of genetically identical cells or organisms derived by asexual reproduction from a single parent
A. Clone C. Chromosomes
B. Gene D. DNA

256. A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during
translation;
A. Codon C. Chitin
B. Apoenzyme D. Antigen

257. A lesion caused by the herpes simplex virus;

A. Cold sore C. Herpes labialis
B. Fever blister D. Any of the above

258. An acute, self-limiting, and highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract that produces
inflammation, profuse discharge, and other symptoms:
A. Common cold C. None of the above
B. Coryza D. Any of the above

259. Algal protists with siliceous cell walls called frustules:

A. Diatoms C. Bloom
B. Phytoplankton D. None of the above

260. The dried sclerotium of Claviceps purpurea:

A. Ergot C. Aflatoxin
B. Strychnine D. penicillin

261. German measles is also known as:

A. Rubella C. Varicella
B. Rubeola D. Variola
262. An antibiotic from a species of Penicillium given orally to treat chronic dermatophyte infections of skin
and nail:
A. Griseofulvin C. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin D. Ampicillin

263. irectly changing its

nucleic acid genome:
A. Genetic engineering C. Biotechnology
B. Biomagnifications D. None of the above

264. The full set of genes present in a cell or virus:

A. Genome C. Proteomics
B. Genomics D. Biotechnology

265. Hepatitis A is caused by:

A. Virus C. Bacterium
B. Fungus D. Algae

266. Lesions of the oral cavity caused by the measles virus that are characterized by bluish white speck in
the center of each:
A. C. Chancre
B. Pustules D. Pox

267. An organism composed of a fungus and an alga in a symbolic relationship:

A. Lichen C. Aerial plant
B. Hyphae D. Mycelium

268. An acute generalized viral infection occurring in school-age children manifested by swelling of the
parotid salivary glands:
A. Mumps C. Colds
B. Measles D. Influenza

269. A mass of viruses or unassembled viral subunit found within the brain neurons of rabies-infected
animals:
A. Negri bodies C. Chancre
B.

270. A polyene antibiotic from Streptomyces noursei that is used un the treatment of candida infections of the
skin, vagina, and alimentary tract:
A. Nystatin C. Chloramphenicol
B. Cephalosporin D. Griseofulvin

271. A natural soil aggregate, formed partly through bacterial and fungal growth in the soil:
A. Ped C. Peplomer
B. Pseudopodium D. Peptidoglycan

272. A group of antibiotics containing a beta-lactam ring, which are active against gram-positive bacteria:
A. Penicillins C. Griseofulvins
B. Cephalosporins D. Chloramphenicol

273. An acute, contagious viral disease that destroys the nerve cells that control the muscles, and sometimes
causing paralysis:
A. Poliomyelitis C. Polio
B. Infantile paralysis D. All of the above
C.
274. An in vitro technique used to synthesize large quantities of specific nucleotide sequences from small
amounts of DNA:
A. PCR C. HPLC
B. Polymerase chain reaction D. A or B

275. Refers to water suitable for drinking:

A. Potable C. Tap
B. Edible D. Mineral

276. Refers to the total number of individuals infected at any one time in a given population regardless of
when the disease began:
A. Prevalence rate C. Epidemiologic rate
B. Incidence rate D. Dominance rate

277. An acute, viral, infectious disease of the CNS, which affects all warm-blooded animals, including
humans:
 A. Rabies C. Any of the above
B. Hydrophobia D. None of the above

278. The techniques used in carrying out genetic engineering:

A. Recombinant DNA technology C. Any of the above
B. Biotechnology D. None of the above

279. The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving
as template:
A. Replication C. Transduction
B. Translation D. Conjugation

280. A site, alternative host, or carrier that normally harbors pathogenic organisms and serves asa source
from which other individuals can be infected:
A. Reservoir C. Passive
B. Intermediate D. Secondary

281. A group of viruses with RNA genomes that carry the enzyme reverse transcriptase and from a DNA copy
of their genome during their reproductive cycle:
A. Retroviruses C. Arboviruses
B. Adenoviruses D. None of the above

282. A tank used to process small quantities of domestic waste:

A. Septic tank C. Gas collector
B. Hydrogen tank D. LPG tank

283. The use of physical and biological processes to remove particulate and dissolved material from sewage:
A. Sewage treatment C. Bioremediation
B. Flocculation D. Effluent treatment

284. A reactivated form of chickenpox caused by the herpes zoster virus

A. Shingles C. Varicella
B. Herpes zoster D. Rubeola

285. A highly contagious, often fatal disease caused by a povirus, manifested by the appearance of blisters
and postules on the skin:
A. Smallpox C. Varicella
B. Variola D. Varicella

286. An inoculum, consisting of a mixture of carefully selected microorganisms, used to start a commercial
fermentation
A. Starter culture C. Pour plate
B. Spread plate D. Pour plate

287. A strand of DNA or RNA that specifies the base sequence of a newly synthesized complementary
strand of DNA or RNA:
A. Template C. Any of the above
B. Temperate D. None of the above

288. A sequence that marks the end of a gene and stops transcription;
A. Terminator C. Scavenger
B. Predator D. Carnivore

289. A type of body that is devoid of root, stem or leaf, characteristic of some algae, many fungi and lichens:
A. Thallus C. Spore
B. Hypha D. Mycelium

290. Infection of the oral mucosa membrane by a fungus;

A. Thrush C. Any of the above
B. Oral candidiasis D. None of the above

291. Also known as jock itch:

A. Tinea cruris C. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea barbae D. Tinea pedis

292. The following are genera of fungi, except:

A. Streptomyces C. Trichophyton
B. Candidiasis D. Epidermophyton

293. Also k
A. Tinea pedis C. Tinea corporis
 B. Tinea ungulum D. Tinea cruris

294. A fungal infection caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur, that forms brownish-red scales on the skin of
the trunk, neck, face and arms:
A. Tinea versicolor C. Tinea manuum
B. Tinea cruris D. Tinea pedis

295. Referred to an animal that has gained new genetic information from the insertion of foreign DNA
A. Transgenic C. Transduced
B. Transient D. Transformed

296. A raised epidermal lesion with horny surface caused by an infection by a human papilloma virus
A. Verruca C. Variola
B. Wart D. A or B

297. Small membrane-bound bodies which are swollen areas in the colonizing hyphae:
A. Vesicles C. Verruca
B. Wart D. Rashes

298. An epidermal tumor of viral origin

A. Wart C. Rash
B. Vesicles D. Pustule

299. A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or
sexually through spore formation:
A. Yeast C. Mushroom
B. Mold D. None of the above

300. A fungal alkaloid that have been associated with witchcraft and lycanthrophy:
A. Ergot C. Penicillin
B. Aflatoxin D. Saxitoxin
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

PUBLICH HEALTH, IMMUNOLOGY;

1. The following are found in the cell wall of certain bacteria. Which of the following is exclusively found among
fungi?
A. Teichoic acid
B. Diaminopimelic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Chitin
2. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with
A. Mesosome
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall
3. This is a specific staining method for spirochetes
A.
B. Ziehl-neilsen stain
C. Acid-fast stain
D.
4. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in that eukaryotes
A. Generally lack sterols in their cell membrane
B. Contain more than one chromosome
C.
D. Have peptidoglycan
5. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine
A. Capsules
B. Endospores
C. Fimbriae
D. Flagella
6. The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to lethal superoxide when they are exposed to air is due to
A. The lack of CYP C oxidase
B. Presence of CYP C oxidase
C. Inability to form the superoxide radical
D. Presence of superoxide dismutase and catalase
7. Lipopolysaccharides are correctly described as
I. Found in both Gram(-) and Gram(+) bacteria
II. Contains lipid A as part of its structure
III. Infection of which are treated by antitoxin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
8. A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of bacterium include
A. Capsule
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Flagella
D. Lecithinase
9. The source of H antigen
A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. Pilus
D. Plasmid
10. The process in which DNA is released by lysis of one bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that
another bacterium is called
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

11.
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
12. A process of gene transfer which involves bacteriophages in the transfer of DNA material from one bacterium to
another
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
13. Transfer of genetic materials which involves sex pilus
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
14. Microbial mutations are due to which of the following cause(s)
I. Inversion
II. Additions (insertions)
III. Substitutions (transversions)
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
15. Endospores have a multi-layered protective coat consisting of
I. Cell membrane
II. Peptidoglycan mesh
III. Exosporium
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
16. Which of the following statement(s) about plasmids is/are true
I. Carry resistance genes for antibiotics called R plasmids
II.
III. Ca
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
17. The most likely cells to be lysed when treated with anti-CD4 antibody and complement are
A. Cytotoxic t cells
B. Macrophages
C. Helper T cells
D. B cells
18. Cytotoxic T cells are best characterized by the following cell-surface marker
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD3
D. CD2
19. The major function of interferon-gamma is to
A. Induce the activation of resident macrophages
B. Inhibit migration of macrophages from reaction sites
C. Promote and maintain the proliferation of T cells
D. Promote B and T cell growth
20. Cytotoxic T cells are involved in which of the following action(s)
I. Antigen presentation
II. Tumor destruction
III. Cell lysis of virus infected cells
A. I only
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
21. T-helper cells are important in augmentation of which of the following
I. Antibody production
II. Mixed lymphocyte reaction
III. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Natural-Killer cells
I. Recognize and destroy certain tumor cells
II. Lyse virus-infected cells
III. Involve in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
23. A male patient suffering from bacterial infection received a penicillin injection and he almost immediately had
respiratory distress. This reaction is most likely to be mediated by
A. T cells
B. IgE
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgG and Complement
24. AIDS patients infected with TB are likely to react less vigorously to tuberculin test because of the deficiency of
A. Platelets
B. CD8
C. CD4
D. B cells
25. An AIDS patient who received a tuberculin test 48 hours after showed a weak erythematous skin reaction (6mm
in diameter) at the site of injection. What is the proper interpretation for the observation? The patient,
A. Has never been exposed to TB bacilli
B. Has active TB
C. Has been exposed to TB bacilli
D. Is infected with multidrug-resistant TB bacilli
26. The ability of the T cells to discriminate between self and non-self is learned in the
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus
27. Which of the following will grow in the presence of optochin
I. Streptococcus pyogenes
II. Streptococcus viridans
III. Streptococcus pneumonia
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
28. Which statement is true for passive immunization
I. Provides long lasting protection
II. Provides protection without hypersensitivity
III. Provides immediate protection
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

29. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is

A. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Rabies vaccine
D. H. influenza Type B vaccine
30. Streptococci are incubated in a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following reactions show beta-hemolytic
streptocci?
A. Completely lyse the RBC
B. Partially lyse the RBC
C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC
D. Leave a greenish discoloration
31. The following contribute(s) to the development of a compromised state of the host defense
I. Radiation therapy
II. Exposure to toxoid
III. Malnutrition
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IIII only
E. I, II and III only
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
I. Toxoides are used as immunogen
II. Exotoxins are highly toxic at very low doses
III. Some G(-) bacteria exotoxins
IV. Some G(+) bacteria produce endotoxins
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II and III only
33. Which of the following is not a correct statement concerning neutrophils
A. They can be differentiated into B cells on activation
B. They constitute the first line of nonspecific host defense mechanism
C. Principal phagocytic cells together with monocytes and macrophages
D. They cannot present antigens
34. Diagnostic lab techniques most frequently employed for the visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue
sections, in cells suspensions, or on cell monolayers include
A. Agglutination
B. Radioimmunoassay
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Precipitation
35. This is/are forces or bonds involved in the interaction between an antigen and an antibody
I. Covalent bonds
II. Van der waals
III. H-bonds
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
36. A man with blood group phenotype AB
A. May donate blood to individuals with blood type O
B. Has anti-A and anti-B in his serum
C. Has A and B antigen in his RBC
D. May be given blood type AB, A, or B but not Type O
37. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is caused by
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus viridans

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 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

38. Immunologic suppression for transplantation may be induced by

I. Lymphoid radiation
II. Cyclosporine
III. Steroids
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
39. The maturation of T-cells in the thymus is accompanied by changes in the
I. Cell surface markers
II. Cell size
III. Surface immunoglobulin class
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
40. Which of the following organisms are correctly paired with their microbial organelles or components known to
enhance their virulence or invasiveness?
I. M protein of Strep. pyogenes
II. Pili of N. gonorrhoeae
III. Mesosome of Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
41. Toxic activities of endotoxin reside in the
I. Muramic acid component of peptidoglycan
II. Lipid A moiety of lipopolysaccharide
III. Capsular polysaccharide
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
42. A vaccine produced from an extracellular toxic bacterial product that is made nontoxic, but maintains
antigenicity, is known as
A. Live attenuated organism
B. Antitoxin
C. Toxoid
D. Killed organism
43. Which statement(s) describes a monocyte
I. They can become macrophages
II. They only populate the lymph nodes
III. They are actively phagocytic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
44. Which of the following statements best describes an antigen
I. Is always an immunogen
II. Has one or more epitopes
III. Molecular weight may be less than 10,000 are potently immunogenic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

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 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

45. A small molecule that can react with preformed antibodies but cannot, by itself, induce their formation is referred
to as
A. Hapten
B. Epitope
C. Complete antigen
D. Cofactor
46. Opsonin-treated bacteria are more readily engulfed by phagocytes than are untreated bacteria because
I. The capsule is removed by opsonin
II. Opsonin digests wall component
III. The surgace of phagocytes contains receptors for opsonins
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
47. The first line of defense against viruses is
A. Interferon
B. IgM directed to internal viral antigens
C. IgG directed to external viral antigens
D. All of the above
48. Type I hypersensitivity
A. Is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity
B. Involves IgE response to an allergen
C. Is independent of inflammatory mediators
D. Involved degranulation of eosinophils
49. Which of the following diseases is caused by an exotoxin release of Staphylococcus aureus
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Meningitis
D. Pneumonia
50. The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction is
A. 2-5 hours
B. 6-10 hours
C. 12-20 hours
D. 48-72 hours
51. Memory cells
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. Basophils
52. First white blood cells to be involved in acute inflammation by pyogenic cocci
A. Macrophages
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Basophils
D. Lymphocytes
53. Antigen presenter
A. Dendritic macrophages
B. NK cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
54. Helminth infections will cause an increase in
A. NK cells
B. Dendritic macrophages
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
55. Vaccine for Rubeola
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms

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 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

56. Vaccine for Whooping cough

A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microoganisms
D. Killed attenuated microogranisms
57. Vaccine for Tetanus
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms
58.
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
59. Asthma
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
60. Contact dermatitis
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
61. Tetanus, botulism and diphteria
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
62. A burn patient developed a wound infection, and a bacteriologic culture of the site indicated a gram-negative rod
that was oxidase-positive and produced a blue-green pigment. The organism was relatively resistant to
antibiotics but susceptible to ticarcillin, gentamicin and tobramycin. This organism is likely
A. E. coli
B. K. pneumonia
C. S. marcescens
D. P. aeruginosa
63. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is
A. Pen G
B. Amikacin
C. Kanamycin
D. Ethambutol
64. Pending the results of cultures, meningitis in children 8-10 months of age should be treated with
A. Ampicillin
B. Pen G
C. Cefortaxime
D. Tetracycline
65. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all EXCEPT
A. LGV
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis
C. Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella
D. Psittacosis
66. Penicillin is the DOC for the following infections caused by EXCEPT
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bacteriodes fragilis
D. Clostridium perfringens

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 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

67. Which of the following is true of staphylococcus epidermidis

I. Catalase-positive
II. Coagulase-positive
III. Facultative
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
68. An adult patient with a history of severe penicillin allergy has a sore throat and low-grade fever. Results of a
throat culture show a large number of beta-hemolytic streptococcal colonies. Of the following, which best suits
the patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cephalothin
C. Tetracycline
D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
E. Erythromycin
69. All of the following are modified penicillins resistant to destruction by staphylococcal beta-lactamase except
A. Naficillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Cloxacillin
E. Methicillin
70. Treatment of herpetic conjunctivitis
A. Streptomycin
B. Iododeoxyuridine
C. Rifampin
D. Nalidixic acid
71. Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of hair
A. Metronidazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Polymyxin
72. Streptomycin is known for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
73. Dapsone is given for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
74. Polypeptide antibiotic inhibiting pseudomonas
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Carbenicillin
D. Methicillin
75. Inhibits the mucopeptide synthesis by affecting alanine racemase
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Cycloserine
D. Methicillin
76. A healthy medical student clearing in Lyme, Connecticut, was bitten by ticks. One week later complains of fever,
stiff neck, stiff joints and arrhythmias. An expanding skin lesion known as erythema chronicum migrans was
found on her leg with sharply formed borders. DOC for this condition is
A. Metronidazole
B. Pen V
C. Flucytosine
D. Chloramphenicol

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 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

77. A 22 year-old nurse who had been in excellent health complained of fatigue and diarrhea. Then he developed
pneumonia that was caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Blood tests repeated showed depletion of CD4 T-
lymphocutes. The patient must be managed with
A. -azidothymidine
B. Chloroquine
C. Acyclovir
D. Enviroxime
78. Which of the following is an example of an aerobic organisms?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
79. The toxin of E. coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is
A. Heat-labile enterotoxin
B. Heat-stable enterotoxin
C. Verotoxin
D. Exfoliative toxin
80. The most recently discovered sexually transmitted disease is
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Condyloma acuminate (warts)
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
81. Congenital syphilis can be best detected by the use of
A. Dark-field examination
B. Silver nitrate staining of the spirochetes
C. The Wassermann Complement fixation test
D. IgM-FTA-ABS test
82. Humans acquire Salmonella typhimurium by
A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
B. Tick bites
C. Mosquito bites
D. Aerosols
83. The main virulence factor of Yersinia pestis is/are the
A. Endotoxin
B. V and W antigens
C. Erythrogenic toxins
D. Lecithinase
84. Mycoplasma are pleomorphic gram-negative bacteria that
A. Are sensitive to penicillin
B. Lack cell walls in all stages of growth
C. Cannot divide by binary fission
D.
85. The spirochete that is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end is
A. Leptospira
B. Borrelia
C. Treponema
D. Vibrio
86. The body louse is the bector for
A. Leptospirosis
B. Pinta
C. Epidemic relapsing fever
D. Meningitis
87. Chlamydia trachomatis infection may result to
A.
B. Ornithosis
C. Undulant fever
D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
88. In the laboratory diagnosis of the enteric pathogens Salmonella and Shigella, the screening procedure includes
testing their inability to
A. Ferment glucose
B. Ferment lactose
C. Reduce nitrates
D. Produce oxidase
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

89. Characterized with marked hypotension, and scarlatiniform rash followed by desquamation
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Botulism
C. Cholera
D. Tetanus
90. Causative agent of undulant fever
A. Brucella
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Chlamydia
91. A nonmotile, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus, usually in pairs, that is a facultative anaerobe with urethral
epithelium in the male
A. Gonococcus
B. Meningococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
92. All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of undercooked meat. Which of the following is vector
transmitted?
A. Trichinella
B. Leishmania
C. Clonorchis
D. Diphyllobothrium
93. A major cause of blindness in tropical Africa is
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
94. A cestode that competes with its host for dietary Vit. B12
A. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
95. Vector of Trypanosoma cruzi
A. Sand Fly (Phlebotomus)
B. Tsetse Fly (Glossina)
C. Reduviid (Kissing Bug)
D. Black Fly (Simulium)
96. The event that correlates with the presence of fever paroxysm in Plasmodium vivax malaria is
A. Invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites
B. Invasion of new RBC by merozoites
C. Schizont rupture
D. Gametocytes
97. Natural resistance to malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax has been demonstrated in populations who are
A. Duffy blood group antigen-positive
B. G6PD deficient
C. Duffy blood group antigen-negative
D. All of the above
98. Flagellated protozoa that cause gastroenteritis in humans include
A. Entamoeba histolytca
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Balantidium coli
D. Giardia lamblia
99. Generally infects human eating raw beef
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Necator americanus
100. This adult parasites are usually in the parenchyma of the human lungs
A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Taenia solium

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101. A 5 year old girl spent a year attending schoolon West Africa. She returnes to the US because of poor
sleeping and intense itching in her anal area. Anal swab samples of the patient would most likely contain the
larvae of which organism?
A. Wuchereria bancorft
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Schistosoma japponicum
102. The Filovidae are a newly recognized family of negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. Which of the
following viruses belongs to this family and causes hemorrhagic fever?
A. Marburg virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. Dengue virus
D. Parvovirus
103. Corona virus are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar
coronas. These viruses are characterized by their ability to
A. Infect infants more frequently than adults
B. Cause common colds
C. Grow well in the usual cultures cell line
D. Agglutinate human red blood cells
104. Mumps virus is biologically relates to the virus causing which of the following disease?
A. Rabies
B. Variola
C. Vaccine
D. Measles
105. Which of the following antiviral agent is purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with lassa
fever, influenza A and B and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
A. Amantadine
B. Ribavirin
C. Acyclovir
D. Gancyclovir
106. ECHOviruses are cytopahogenic human viruses that mainly infects the
A. Respiratory tract
B. Central Nervous System
C. Blood and lymphatic system
D. Intestinal tract
107. A 5 year old child presents with symptoms of low-grade fever, coryza, conjunctivitis
causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Piconavirus
D. Herpesvirus
108. Human rotavirus is best described by which of the following statements
A. It is often associated with infantile diarrhea
B. It I an example of viral STD
C. It is associated with conjunctivitis
D. All of the above
109. Varicella is a member of which of the following viral families
A. Pox virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes virus
D. Paramyxovirus
110. German measles virus is a member of which viral family
A. Herpes
B. Pox virus
C. Togavirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
111. A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with Hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all tests for HAV-
IgG and HAV-IgM are non-reactive A possible cause of this infection id
A. Hepa B surface antigen
B. Hepa C surface antigen
C. Hepa D surface antigen
D. Hepa E surface antigen

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112. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of

A. Measles
B. Chancre
C. Warts
D. Herpes
113. RNA directed DNA polymerase is exclusively found only amiong
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Togavirus
D. Retrovirus
114. Quinolones are bactericidal agents which act by
A. Inhibition of beta-lactamase
B. Inhibition of revered transcriptase
C. Inhibition of chromosome supercoiling
D. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
115. A patient presents with an abscess. The pus was examined containing yellow granules. The sample was
tested negative to acid-fast bacilli. The patient most likely has
A. Nocardiosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Streptococcal infection
D. Staphylococcal infection
116. The species of shigella responsible for the most severe form of shigellosis
A. S. dysenteriae
B. S. sonnei
C. S. boydii
D. S. flexneri
117. Quelling test is used to test for the presence of
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphlococcoss aureus
C. Streptococos pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
118. A goat farmer presents with a fever of unknown origin, which of the following organism is responsible for
this?
A. B. melitensis
B. B. abortus
C. B. suis
D. Bacillus cereus
119. Majority of coagulase-negative staphylococcal infection cases involving prosthetic heart valve endocarditis
are caused by
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph spidermidis
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Staph hemolyticus
120. Botulism is brought by
A. Invasion of the gut epithelium by the organism
B. Secretion of an enterotoxin
C. Ingestion of neurotoxin
D. Activation of cyclic AMP
121. A 28 year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and
symptoms; fever, hypotension, a Scarletiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and soles, extreme fatigue and
diarrhea. The patient above most likely has
A. Sacalded skin syndrome
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Scarletina
D. Chickenpox
122. A campylobacter-like bacteria that is commonly associated with gastric ulcers
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Helicobacter fenneliae

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123. this is the most common form of botulism

A. Infant botulism
B. Foodborne botulism
C. Wound botulism
D. Endemic botulism
124. Which of the following may be used as preventive method in the prevention of botulinum spore germination
in food?
A. Maintaining food in basic pH
B. Storing food at cool temp(8-15 C)
C. Preheat food at 80C for 30 mins
D. Administration of polyvalent antitoxin
125. An anaerobic infection with B. fragilis is characterized by
I. Black discoloration of food containing exudates
II. Susceptibility to penicillins
III. Foul-smelling discharge
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, II and III
126. A person with boil prepared a snack with mayonnaise for their school field trip. Three of his friends whom he
shared his food became violently ill 2 h after eating the food. What is the most likely cause?
I. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin
II. Staphylococcus aureus coagulase
III. Staphylococcus aureus leukocidin
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, and III
127. Treatment of staph. aureus infection with penicillin is often complicated by
I. Inability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of stap. Aureus
II. Production of beta-lactamase by Staph. aureus
III. Lack of penicillin binding sites in Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
128. In staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist on plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are carried
by
I. Prophage
II. Free DNA
III. Transposons
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
129. Which of the following statements will differentiate Mycoplasmas from Chlamydiae
I. Ability to grow in artificial media
II. Ability to cause urinary tract infections
III. Susceptibility to penicillins
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
130. Brill-Zinsser disease is caused by
A. Rickettsia rickettsia
B. R. prowazekii
C. R. typi
D. R. tsutsugamushi
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131. a poultry farmer has symptoms of chills, fever and headache. Two weeks ago he lost a large number of his
livestock to an undiagnosed disease. What is the most likely condition of the farmer.
A. Psittacosis
B. Q-fever
C. Anthrax
D. Ornithosis
132. An ill patient denied being bitten by insects. Which of the following Rickettsial infection is most likely the
cause of the illness?
A. rickettsial pox
B. Q-fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
133. A Mycoplasma which is a common cause of nongonococcal urethritis
A. M. hominis
B. M. pneumonia
C. M. fermentans
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
134. The distinctive characteristic of Mycoplasmas from other bacteria is their lack of
I. Lipopolysaccharide
II. A cell wall
III. ATP synthesis
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
135. Which organism will be most affected by a drug that will inhibit ATP synthesis?
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. R. rickettsia
D. N. gonorrhoeae
136. Which of the following will identify chlamydia trachomatis from chlamydia psittaci?
I. C. trachomatis is sensitive to sulphonamides
II. C. trachomatis has a different lipopolysaccharide antigen
III. C. trachomatis can be stained
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
137. This is/are clinical manifestations of C. trachomatis
I. Lymphogranuloma venereum
II. Perinatal conjunctivitis
III. Otitis-media in young children
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
138. Which of the following is the causative agent of Cat-scratch disease
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia ricketssii
D. Bartonella henselae

139. Which statement(s) explain why beef tapeworm is less serious than pork tapeworm infection?
I. Acute intestinal stoppage is less common in beef tapeworm infection
II. Larval invasion does is not occur in beef tapeworm infection
III. The adult beef tapeworm are smaller
A. I only
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B. II inly
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
140. Which parasitic roundworm hatches in the upper small intestine and releases larves that penetrate the
intestinal wall?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
141. This sexually transmitted protozoan is common among male homosexuals.
A. Giardiasis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Trypanosomiasis
142.

A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
143. Humans are both the intermediate and definitive hosts of which parasite?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
144. Acute infection of trypanosoma cruzi
lesions on which organs.
I. Heart and digestive tract
II. Spleen and pancreas
III. Liver and spleen
A. I
B. II
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
145. A malarial organism producing ringlike and crescentlike forms within red blood cells
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale
146. A fungus formely classified as a parasitic Sporozoan affecting patients with immune deficiency.
A. Microsporidium
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Pneumocystis
D. Blastomyces
147. Diphyllobotrium latum infection may lead to the deficiency of which vitamin?
A. Vit A
B. Vit B9
C. Vit B1
D. VitB12
148. Most macroparasites are extracellular organisms. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Trichinella
C. Strongloides
D. Ascaris

149. Relationship of animals living together in which one species lives in or on the body of another.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
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150. A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical
environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
151. A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between the organisms involved
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
152. A type of relationship that involve one-sided beneficial relationship which usually ending up in a harmful
relationship for one organism.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
153. Which of thef following statement(s) is /are true regarding viruses
I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate
II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new viruses
III. Requires the hosts metabolic machinery to transcribe and translate genetic information
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
154. This is an example of an anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
155. Which of the following virus family is characterized as a single stranded DNA, non-enveloped virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
156. This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
157. This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses
I. papova
II Adeno
III. Parvo
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
157. This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses
I. Herpes
II.Hepadna
III.Pox
A. I only E. I, II and III
B. .... II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
159. Most of the RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following RNA viruses replicate in the
nucleus
A. Retrovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Picorvirus
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D. Paramyxovirus
160. Generally RNA viruses are single stranded viral organism. Which of the following is the only double-
stranded RNA virus
A. Rhinovirus
B. Coronavirus
C. Reovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
161. One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there
are three which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA viruses?
I. Picornavirus
II. Reovirus
III. Retrovirus
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
162. This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which mat later result
to an epidemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
163. This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new
antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system . This may result to a pandemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
164.Which of the influenza viruses is isolated in both man and animals
A. Influenza A
B. Influenza B
C. Influenza C
D. Influenza D
165. this condition that results when children with influenza or varicella are given Aspirin
A. Herxheimer reaction
B. Salicylism
C. Reye syndrome
D. Asthma
166. Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown to be effective preventing which step in the viral
replication process?
A. Penetration
B. Uncoating
C. Assembly
D. Release
167. this is/are examples of viruses classified under PAramyxoviridae family
I. influenza virus
II. Respiratory syncitial Virus
III.Measles virus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

168. A viral organism well known to involve infection of the parotid gland and testes in males.
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Herpes virus
D. Respiratory syncyitial virus
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A. Upper Extremities
B. Lower Extremities
C. Mouth
D. Scalp
170. This/these statement/s is/are regarding patients with measles during pregnancy
I. may result to birth defects
II. is associated with spontaneous abortions
III. may also result to premature labor
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
171. Which of the following is/are transmitted via fecal oral route?
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
172. Which of the following Hepavirus is/are example of RNA virus
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
173. Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused by
A. Pox viridae
B. Varicella
C. Zoster
D. CMV
174.
A. EMV
B. CMV
C. Varicella-Zoster
D. HSV-1
175. The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope is
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Giardia lamblia
176. Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lmablia
C. Trichuris trichuria
D. Enterobius vermicularis
177. This organism is one of the important cause of severe darrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as
patients with AIDS
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Strongyloides stercolis
179. The most common and deadliest plasmodia
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
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180. The organism is the causative agent of erythema infectionism in children

A. Adenovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Polymavirus
D. Cytomegalovirus
181. Which of the following belong/s to the group of the ARBOvirus?
I. Bunyaviridae
II. Falviviridae
Coronaviridae
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
182. The presence of this in the serum patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus.
A. HBsAg
B. Anti HBsAg
C. Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
183. The presence of theis antigen indicates high infectivity and active disease of Hepa B virus
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
184.The presence of this in the serum of the patient with hepatitis will ascertain that the patient have an old Hepatitis
B infection
A. Anti HBsAg
B. IgM-Anti HBcAg
C. IgG-Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
185. This is a parentallu transmitted(Blood-borne) hepatitis which can only replicate and cause infection with help of
Hepatitis B virus
A. HEV
B. HAV
C. HCV
D. HDV
186. This/ These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1
I. Causes gingivostomatitis
II. Causes herpetic keratitis
III. An STD
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
187. This is/are example of organisms that can cross the placenta
I. Rubeola
II. Cytomegalovirus
III. Leprosy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and

188. This is the ARBOvirus family from which the dengue fever and yellow fever virus are classified
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Caliciviridae
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189. Which of the following v

A. Poliovirus
B. Rubella
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
190. This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio vaccine
I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses
II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus
III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
191. This/ These is/are the common viral organism/s
I. Rhinovirus
II. Coronavirus
III. Flavivirus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
192. Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid?
A. Poliovirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
193. This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus
I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in the cytoplasm called Negri bodies
II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune globulin(passive immunization)
III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only as prophylaxis for rabies.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A. Dengue fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Hay fever
D. Relapsing fever
195. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may be classified according to their organ for
locomotion. Which of the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility
A. Sarcodina
B. Mastigophora
C. Ciliaphora
D. Sporozoa
196. Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote
I. Cryptosporidium
II. Plasmodium
III. Toxoplasma
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

197. This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in individuals with defective immune system such as
patients with AIDS
I. Giardia
II. Isospora
III. Crystosporidium
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A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
198. This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans
A. Cysts
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Cytostome
199. This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in man
I. Entamoeba
II. Naegleria
III. Acanthamoeba
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
200. A protozoan which has high incidence of infection among ca
mountain streams.
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
201. This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients suffering from Cryptosporidiosis
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
202. This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from Isospora belli infection\
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
203. This is the causative agent of
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
204. A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among patients with AIDS. It is naturally harboured by cats
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
205. This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Isosporosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Toxoplasmosis
206. This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic treatment of PCP in AIDS patients.
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
207. this
A. P.ovale C. P.malariae
B. P.vivax D. P.falciparum
208. This is/are true statements regarding malaria
I. Schizogeny or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito
II. Sporogeny or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man
III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria
A. I only
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B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
209. This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or banana shaped gametocytes
A. P.ovale
B. P.vivax
C. P.malariae
D. P.falciparum
210. The release of this from of the malarial parasite triggers the fever, chills and sweats of malaria
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
211. This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites
I. P. vivax
II. P.falciparum
III. P.ovale
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
212. This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up ny the mosquito as it bites on human
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
213. Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria?
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
214. This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P. falxiparum
I. Quinine
II. Fansidar
III. Mefloquine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
216. This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is non-flagellated
A. Promastigote
B. Epimastigote
C. Amastigote
D. Trypomastigote
217. This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Viscerla Leishmaniasis
A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi

218. This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi
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219. This is thedrug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis

A. Primaquine
B. Stibogluconate
C. Pentamidine
D. Suramin
220. This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping disease
A. Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense
B. T.brucei gambiense
C. T.cruzi
D. L.donovani
221. this is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping disease
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
222. There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of American sleeping disease, although there are two
drugs currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping
disease?
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
223. This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection by penetrating intact skin
I. Necator americanus
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Enterobius vermacularis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
224. This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired thru the ingestion of eggs
I. Ascaris lumbricoides
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
225. This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of encysted larvae present in pork meat.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichura
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichinella spiralis
226. This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis
A. Pyrantel pamoate
B. Invermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
227. This is the drug of choice for patients having filriasis
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel

228. Drug of choice for patients suffering from strongyloides sterecularis infection
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

229.This is the drug of choice for flukes

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
230. The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine
phosphokinase
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichuris trichura
231. A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result
of the tissue invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not
manifest with elevated level of serum eosinophils.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichuris trichura
232. This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis
A. Kato thick method
B. Kato-katz method
C. Scotch tape swab method
D. Brine flotation technique
233. This is/are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted usually by an arthropod vector.
I. Onchocerca volvulus
II. Wuchereria bancrofti
III. Brugia malayi
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

( Hypseleotris bipartite )
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Trichuris trichura
235. This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian filariasis
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
236. This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal blood stream of vertebrates
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis
237. This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if vertebrates
I. Fasciola hepatica
II. Clonorchis sinensis
III. Paragonimus westermani
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

238. This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a vertebrate as intermediate host
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
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 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
239. Which of the following tepeworms will require an invertebrate as intermediate host?
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
240. This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke infection
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Schistosoma japonicum
241. This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Schistosoma japonicum
242. this is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma
I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal infection
II. They multiply in humans
III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
243. There are different species of Schistosoma and common in them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the
following Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine?
A. Schistosoma heamatobium
B. Schistosoma Israeli
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Schistosoma japonicum
244. Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for tapeworms
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Niclosamide
245. this is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
246. This is the organism causing the so called River blindness
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
247. T
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus

248. This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm
I. Praziquantel
II. Mebendazole
III. Diethylcarbamazine
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 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
249. This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes
I. Wuchereria bancrofti
II. Brugia malayi
III. Loa loa
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
250. Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism. Which of the is the only gram-positive organism
which produces an endotoxin
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium sp
D. Nocardia
251. This is the average time required for the population , or the biomass of an organism to double
A. Lag time
B. Growth rate constant
C. Generation time
D. Priming time
252. This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are
adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates are formed and accumulated until they are present
inn concentrations that permit growth to resume.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
253. This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation
of toxic products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss of cells through death, which is just
balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where the total count slowly
increases although the variable count stays constant.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
254. This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction of bacterial DNA
I. Ionizing radiation
II. Alkylating agents
III. UV light
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
255. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Alteration of cell membrane function
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

256. This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain resistance to antibacterial agents
I. Alteration of the target site
II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial agent
III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria
A. I only
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
257. This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall synthesis
I. Penicillins
II. Cyclosporine
III. Teicoplanin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
258. This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide antibiotics
I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT
II. Given only for gram-positive organism
III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
259. This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from Streptomyces species
I. Streptomycin
II. Gentamicin
III. Azithromycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
260. Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial infection from which organism/s
I. Staphylococcus
II. Mycoplasma
III. Chlamydia
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
261. This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a
nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl
transferase, thereby preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication is for infections of Salmonella
typi
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
262. This is the most common drug used as alternative for patients allergic to penicillins
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
263. This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor
EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the
development of rapid resistance to the drug.
A. Erythromycin C. sulfonamides
B. Fusidic acid D. lincomycin
264. sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors by competing this substrate
A. Aminoacyl C. PABA
B. ATP D. Peptidyl tRNA
265. This is/are example/s of drugs which are structural analogues of the aminohyroxypyrimidine amoiety of folic
acid prevent/s its synthesis to THFS.
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

I. Trimethoprim
II. Pyrimethamine
III. Methotrexate
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
266. These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the bacterial chromosomes
A. Macrolides
B. Rifampicin
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Clindamycin
267. these drugs are contraindicated in children due to the possible toxic effects on cartilage development
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
268. This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
269. This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and
Haemophilus meningitis
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
270. This drug is important in the management of parasites and anaerobic bacteria
A. Rifabutin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Nitrofrantoin
271. This is/are true statements about Colistin
I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane
II. It is systemically given for systemic infections
III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
272. Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s. Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide
its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract?
A. Ethylene
B. Formaldehyde
C. Ammonia
D. Acetic acid
273. This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyridoxine
D. Pyrazinamide
274. This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important
toxic side effects such as optic neuritis
A. Rifampicin C. Pyridoxine
B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
275. This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant M.leprae
A. Thalidomide
B. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Clofazime
D. Rifampicin
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

276. This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic
A. Ketoconazole
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
277. This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol
synthesis
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
Flucytosine
C. Amphotericin
278. This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (candida and
Cryptococcus )
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
279. An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
280. This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids.
A. Haloprogin
B. Tolnaftate
C. Naftifine
D.
281. This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the penetration and uncoating of viral organism
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
282. This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing vial protein synthesis
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
283. This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral DNA or RNA synthesis
I. Idoxuridine
II. Acyclovir
III. Zidovudine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
284. Vaccines are prepared from which of the following
I. Immunoglobulins
II. Killed organism
III. ions
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

285. This was the first vaccine in human used to be made by recombinant DNA technology
A. Polio vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Hepa B
D. Measles vaccine
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

286. This is the only viral disease where post-exposure vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period
A. Polio
B. Rabies
C. Hepa B
D. Measles
287. This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions
288. This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions2
289. These organisms do not require organic nutrients for growth.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
290. These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate as hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon
monoxide as carbon source.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
291. These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over the cell body
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
292. These are organisms that possess no flagella
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
293. These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one end
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
294. There are generally two types of stain ,a n Acidic and Basic stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic
stains
I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion
II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in bacterial cells
III. They are used in negative staining
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
295. This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei
A. Feulgen stain
B. Carbofuchsin
C. Nigrosin

296. This is also known as the Welch method

A. Gram stain
B. Acid-fast stain
C. Spore stain
D. Capsule stain
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

297. A stain specifically used to stain spores

A. Malachite green
B. Carbolfuchsin
C. Nigrosin
D. Methylene blue
298. First proposed the theory of Biogenesis, which states that life must arise from pre-existing life
A. Louis Pasteur
B. John Tyndall
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Lazaro Spallanzani
299. Developed the method of producing immunity by using antitoxin against diphtheria
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich
300. A German physician given credit for developing pure-culture techniques
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND B. Xenograft
PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP) C. Isograft
D. Autograft
1. The internationally recommended E. Transgraft
strategy for the control of tuberculosis
is DOTS, which stands for: 6. Which is true about major
A. Directly Observed Short-Term histocompatibility complex (MHC)?
Strategy A. Twins do not have the same
B. Directly Observed Treatment MHCs
Short Course B. Only identical twins have the same
C. Directly Observed Therapy Short MHCs
Course C. Tissues that produce self-antigens
D. Directly Observable Standard D. Not present in humans
Treatment E. Rejects T cell
E. Duration of Observed Treatment
Short Course 7. Viruses that infect E. Coli
A. Lytic
2. The five components of DOTS are the B. Lysogenic
following except: C. DNA phages
A. Sustained financial and political D. Coliphages
commitment E. Coliforms
B. Diagnosis by quality-ensured
sputum smear microscopy 8. Which of the ff. statements about
C. Standardized short course anti-TB Pneumocystis carinii is true?
drugs given to patients as A. Antibodies are found only in
supervised by treatment partners infected immunocompromised
D. Regular uninterrupted supply of hosts
quality anti-TB drugs B. It is a ricketssia
E. Supervision by DOH C. It can cause pulmonary
tuberculosis
3. Classification of diphtheria toxin D. Pathogenic for patients with AIDS
A. Neurotoxin with CD4 counts of > 800 cells/ml
B. Cytotoxin E. Diagnosis is through sputum
C. Enterotoxin smear microscopy
D. Endotoxin
E. Oxytoxin 9. Aspergillosis is caused by
A. Aspergillus flavus
4. The following are the characteristics of B. Aspergilloma dictus
inflammation except: C. Filobasidiella sp
A. Stomach ache D. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Pain at the injured site E. Adenovirus
C. Redness
D. Increase in temperature 10. Which of the ff. diseases is a primary
E. Swelling zoonotic disease that is associated
with ingestion of contaminated milk?
5. A graft from twin brother to sister A. Anthrax
A. Allograft
 B. Leptospirosis C. Western Blot Technique
C. Diphtheria D. Immunophoresis
D. Lyme disease E. Immunofluorescence
E. Brucellosis
16. Effective sterilization of a dental
11. A group of serum proteins that act in a instrument used in a patient reported
cascade manner resulting in microbial to be infected with AIDS, requires
cell lysis, inflammation and which of the ff. conditions:
opsonisation. A. Open flame
A. Complement system B. 100 °C for 10 mins.
B. Phagocytes C. 70% alcohol solution
C. Lymphatic system D. 3% H2O2 solution
D. Interferons
E. Natural killer cells 17. Ionizing radiation inactivates
vegetative bacteria by:
12. Antibody that is produced first in A. Driving away electrons & splitting
response to a primary infection the molecules into atoms or
A. IgG groups
B. IgA B. Inducing thymine dimmers
C. IgM C. Denaturing nucleoproteins
D. IgD D. Cross-linking sugar groups
E. IgE E. Inducing double-stranded breaks
in DNA

18. An effective membrane pore size

13. Antibody present in breastmilk necessary to filter out most rigid
A. IgG bacteria is approximately
B. IgA A. 25 µm
C. IgM B. 10 µm
D. IgD C. 1 µm
E. IgE D. 0.02 µm
E. 0.20 µm
14. Type of immunity resulting from
vaccination 19. A laboratory method used to show
A. Naturally acquired passive induced mutation
immunity A.
B. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Ames test
C. Artificially acquired passive C. Replica plating
immunity D. Velvet disk replication
D. Artificially acquired active E. Plaque assay
immunity
E. Adaptive immunity 20. Process of gene transfer responsible
for antibiotic resistance
15. A confirmatory test for HIV infection A. Transformation
A. ELISA B. Conjugation
B. Southern Blot Technique C. Transposon insertion
 D. Frameshift mutation B. CUGGUGCUA
E. Both A & C C. CTGGUCGTA
D. CUGGACGUA
21. Algicide used in swimming pools E. CTGGUCGUA
A. Crystal violet
B. Gentian violet 26. Bacterial genes that may code for drug
C. Cupric sulfate resistance:
D. Methylene blue A. R factors
E. Ferric oxide B. F factors
C. Plasmid-encoded toxins
22. Lysol has a phenol coefficient of 5.0 D. Dissimilation plasmids
against Staphylococcus aureus. On E. Bacteriocins
the other hand, Formalin has a 0.5
phenol coefficient. Which of the 27. Which antibiotic acts on the 30S
statements below is incorrect? ribosomal subunit of bacteria and
A. Lysol is half as effective as interferes with the binding of tRNA to
Formalin ribosomes?
B. Lysol is 4.5 times more effective A. Chloramphenicol
than Formalin B. Streptomycin
C. Formalin is twice more effective C. Clindamycin
than phenol D. Erythromycin
D. Formalin is half as effective as E. Lincosamide
phenol
E. Formalin is 5x better than Lysol 28. Any mutant microorganism with a
nutritional requirement that is absent
23. A change in the DNA which results in in the parent microorganism is known
an insertion or deletion of one or more as
bases A. Mesotroph
A. Frameshift mutation B. Phototroph
B. Point mutation C. Auxotroph
C. Nonsense mutation D. Psychrotroph
D. Spontaneous mutation E. Halotroph
E. Induced mutation
29. The following is the bacterium used in
24. A stop codon that signals the end of the Ames test:
protein synthesis is A. Salmonella typhi
A. UUA B. Escherichia coli
B. UAG C. Bacillus subtilis
C. UGG D. Staphylococcus aureus
D. GAG E. Auxotrophic Salmonella
E. AUG typhimurium

25. What will be the transcribed sequence 30. Small segments of DNA that can move
for the ff. DNA sequence of a gene from one region of a DNA molecule to
GACCTGCAT? another.
A. CTGGACGTU A. Plasmids
 B. Genes D. 38 mols ATP/glucose mol
C. F factors E. 4 mols ATP/glucose mol
D. Transposons
E. R factors 36. Net yield of ATP molecules arising
from the complete oxidation of glucose
31. The first chemotherapeutic agent in fungal cells
effective against syphilis A. 2 mols ATP/ glucose mol
A. Penicillin B. 24 mols ATP/ glucose mol
B. Streptomycin C. 36 mols ATP/ glucose mol
C. Chloramphenicol D. 38 mols ATP/ glucose mol
D. Sulfonamide E. 4 mols ATP/ glucose mol
E. Salvarsan
37. A small segment of DNA that carries
32. The original source of penicillin genes for sex pili synthesis
discovered by Fleming was a mold A. R plasmids
known as B. F plasmids
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. S plasmids
B. Penicillium notatum D. L plasmids
C. Penicillium chrysogenum E. RF plasmids
D. Penicillium flavus
E. Aspergillus flavus 38. Gene transfer between bacteria by
means of a virus
33. A biotechnological technique used to A. Transformation
treat disorders where a missing gene B. Conjugation
is inserted or a defective one is C. Transposon insertion
replaced in human cells D. Gene therapy
A. Gene therapy E. Transduction
B. Proteomics
C. Gene transfer 39. These are self-replicating circular
D. Genomics molecules of DNA carrying genes
E. Monoclonal antibody A. Plasmids
B. Genome
34. A process whereby an endospore C. Nucleotides
returns to its vegetative state is known D. Transposons
as E. Bacteriocins
A. Sporulation
B. Germination 40. A technique where a small samples of
C. Sporogenesis DNA can be quickly amplified for
D. Lysis analysis
E. Transformation A. Hybridoma
B. Recombinant DNA
35. Net yield of ATP molecules in aerobic C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
respiration of prokaryotes D. Cloning
A. 2 mols ATP/glucose mol E. Fluorescence
B. 24 mols ATP/glucose mol
C. 36 mols ATP/glucose mol
41. The relative amount of antibody in the 47. Recently discovered antimicrobial
serum is known as peptides produced by humans include
A. Antigen the following except:
B. Antibody titer A. Sideophores
C. Immunoglobulin level B. Dermicidins
D. Memory level C. Defensins
E. Antibody concentration D. Thrombocidins
E. Cathelicidins
42. The following is a macrolide antibiotic
A. Azithromycin 48. A group of serum proteins involved in
B. Streptomycin phagocytosis & lysis of bacteria
C. Kanamaycin A. Neutrophils
D. Gentamycin B. Opsonins
E. Neomycin C. Complement system
D. Immunoglobulins
43. The following is a streptogramin, a E. Major histocompatibility complex
unique group of antibiotics
A. Streptomycin 49. Fixed macrophages that protect and
B. Amikacin reside in the liver
C. Dalfopristin A. Osteoclast
D. Azithromycin B. Alveolar macrophages
E. Clarithromycin C. Kupffer cells
D. Histocytes
44. The Viridans streptococci group E. Sinusoids
includes the following except:
A. Streptococcus mutans 50. The quick response of the immune
B. Streptococcus mitis system due to recall by memory cells
C. Streptococcus pneumonia is known as
D. Streptococcus salivarius A. Anamnestic response
E. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Primary response
C. Memorable response
45. Cause of tuberculosis D. Immunologic response
A. Mycoplasma tuberculosis E. Humoral response
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Pseudomonas tuberculosis 51. Term for programmed cell death
D. Mycobacterium leprae A. Perforin
E. Mycoplasma pneumonia B. Apoptosis
C. Cytolysis
46. The enhancement of phagocytosis D. Inflammation
through coating with a complement E. Antigen presentation
A. Lysis
B. Complement activation 52. Referred to as inactivated toxins that
C. Cytolysis act as vaccines
D. Opsonization A. Exotoxins
E. Inflammation B. Endotoxins
C. Toxoids
 D. Subunit vaccines
E. Inactivated vaccines 58. Discovered the microbial causes of
bacterial infections such as, anthrax
53. Duration of immunity of rabies vaccine and tuberculosis
is A. Robert Hooke
A. 2 years B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
B. 5 years C. Louis Pasteur
C. 10 years D. Robert Koch
D. 6 years E. Joseph Lister
E. 20 years
59. A sequence of experimental steps that
54. A monoclonal antibody used to treat help identify the specific microbe that
inflammatory conditions, such as, caused a specific disease.
rheumatoid arthritis A. Germ Theory of Disease
disease B.
A. Trastuzumab C. Theory of Spontaneous
B. Rituximab Generation
C. Abciximab D. Theory of Immunity
D. Muromonab CD3 E. Transformation of Postulates
E. Infliximab
60.
55. A complement fixation diagnostic rest was among the first scientists who
for syphilis is
A. Wassermann test A. Paul Ehrlich
B. Widal test B. Alexander Fleming
C. Schick test C. Selman Waksman
D. Direct ELISA D. George Domagk
E. Indirect ELISA E. Heide Schulz

56. An amateur scientist who saw 61. The bacterium that can be used as an
le-lens agricultural pest control
microscope A. Escherichia coli
A. Robert Hooke B. Balantidium coli
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek C. Penicillin notatum
C. Louis Pasteur D. Aspergillus flavus
D. Robert Koch E. Bacillus thuringiensis
E. Joseph Lister
62. Collective term for microbes on and
57. His experiments on aseptic techniques inside human bodies
disapproved the Theory of A. Microbial count
Spontaneous Generation B. Too numerous to count
A. Robert Hooke C. Normal microbiota
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek D. Microbiofilm
C. Louis Pasteur E. Biological flora
D. Robert Koch
E. Joseph Lister
63. Term for new or changing diseases
that are increasing or have the 68. A method used to identify bacteria in a
potential to increase in incidence in sample without culturing the bacteria
the near future A. Flow cytometry
A. Neglected Diseases B. Phage typing
B. Emerging infectious diseases C. Immunofluorescence
C. Non-emerging infectious diseases D. Fluorescent in situ Hybridization
D. Rare diseases E. ELISA
E. Degenerative diseases
69. A reference for taxonomic
classification scheme for prokaryotes
64. The cause of avian influenza A is A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology
A. H5N1 virus B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology
B. H1N1 virus C. Botanical taxonomy
C. H1N3 virus D.
D. H3N1 virus Bacteriology
E. HIV E.
Bacteriology
65. Which of the following is n example of
bioremediation? 70. A reference for the identification of
A. Application of oil-degrading bacteria based on criteria, such as,
bacteria to an oil spill morphology, cell wall composition,
B. Application of bacteria to a crop to oxygen requirements etc.
prevent frost damage A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology
C. Fixation of gaseous nitrogen into B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology
usable nitrogen C. Botanical Taxonomy
D. Production by bacteria of a human D.
protein like interferon Bacteriology
E. All of the above. E.
Bacteriology
66. The movement of eukaryotic
cytoplasm from one part of the cell to 71. Founder of the five-kingdom system
another which helps distribute where the prokaryotes were placed in
nutrients is Kingdom Prokaryotae and eucaryotes
A. Brownian movement compromised the other four kingdoms,
B. True motility A. Carolus Linnaeus
C. Pseudo motility B. Robert Murray
D. Cellular motility C. Carl Woese
E. Cytoplasmic streaming D. Robert Whittaker
E. Charles Darwin
67. Cause of Lyme disease
A. Borrelia burgdorferi 72. The following are true about viruses
B. Candida albicans except
C. Salmonella typhi A. Has a single type of nucleic acid,
D. Limulus polyphemus either DNA or RNA
E. Treponema pallidum B. Multiply only inside living host cells
 C. Considered obligate intracellular 78. Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions that
parasites occur immediately upon re-exposure
D. Contains a protein coat that of a sensitized individual to an antigen
surrounds the nucleic acid A. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions
E. Can be infected by bacteria B. Cytotoxic reactions
C. Anaphylactic reactions
73. Protein coat that protects the nucleic D. Immune complex reactions
acid of a virus E. Cell-mediated reactions
A. Plasmid
B. Capsid 79. Hemolytic disease of the newborn will
C. Capsomere occur in this condition:
D. Envelope A. Second or higher pregnancy of
E. Spike sensitized Rh(-) Mother, Rh (+)
baby with an Rh(+) father
74. The following are steps in the B. Second or higher pregnancy of
occurrence of inflammation except: Rh(+) mother, Rh(+) baby with an
A. Tissue response Rh(-) father
B. Production of interferon C. Second or higher pregnancy of
C. Phagocyte migration sensitized Rh(+) Mother, Rh (+)
D. Tissue repair baby with an Rh(-) father
E. Vasodilation D. Second or higher pregnancy of
Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an
75. The following are involved in the Rh(+) father
increase in abnormally high body E. Second or higher pregnancy of
temperature or fever except: Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an
A. Endotoxins Rh(-) father
B. Exotoxins
C. Lipopolysaccharides 80. The following are true about
D. Interleukin-1 immunosuppressants except:
E. TNF- A. Promotes immune response to
protect the transplant
76. The following are RNA viruses except B. Suppress normal immune
A. HIV response against transplant
B. Flu virus C. Include monoclonal antibodies
C. Rabies D. Include cyclosporine
D. Chicken pox virus E. Blocks secretion of interleukin 2 to
E. Ebola virus disrupt cell-mediated immune
response.
77. The following are DNA viruses except
A. HAV 81. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Shingles virus targets which cell in the immune
C. HBV system?
D. Herpes simplex type 2 virus A. CD4+ T helper cell
E. Herpes simplex type 1 virus B. B cell
C. CD8+B helper cell
D.
 E. Natural killer cell
87. A biological vector
82. A condition where antibodies cause A. Anopheles mosquito
antigens to clump together . B. Cockroach
A. Opsonisation C. Housefly
B. Phagocytosis D. Aedes aegypti
C. Complement fixation E. Termite
D. Neutralization
E. Agglutination 88. In the host-parasite relationship, the
mosquito vector of Plasmodium sp
83. Immune response that defends the acts as the
body against fungi, parasites, cancer A. Definitive host
and transplants. B. Intermediate host
A. Cell-mediated C. Parasitic host
B. Humoral D. Insect host
C. Antibody-mediated E. Pathogen
D. B cell-mediated
E. Memory B-cell mediated 89. The following statements about
resistance to antimicrobial drugs are
84. A nosocomial pathogen that normally true except:
inhabits the skin and commonly A. Resistance to chloramphenicol is
contaminates prosthetic devices such due to enzyme that acetylates the
as, catheters and heart valves, leading drug
to symptomatic microbemia B. Resistance to penicillin is due to
A. Staphylococcus aureus reduced affinity of transpeptidases
B. Staphylococcus epidermis C. Resistance to penicillin is known
C. Streptococcus aureus -
D. Streptococcus pyogenes lactamase
E. Streptococcus mutans D. Resistance to tetracycline is due
to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the
85. What is included in the indicator ester linkages
system of a complement fixation test? E. Resistance to anti-TB drugs is due
A. Specific antibody & complement to mutation of the bacteria
B. Red blood cells & hemolysin
C. Heat- 90. The mechanisms of antibiotic
D. Guinea pig serum resistance include the following
E. Rat red blood cells except:
A. Preventing the entry of the drug to
86. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that the target site within the microbial
is transmitted from mosquito to human cell
is the B.
A. Gametocyte C. Rapid entry of the antibiotic to the
B. Merozoite cell
C. Oocyst D. Inactivation of the drug by
D. Trophozoite microbial enzymes
E. Sporozoite
 E. Mutation of the bacteria due to 96. The interval between initial infection
antibiotic misuse and the first appearance of any signs
or symptoms is known as
91. This pathogen is a commen cause of A. Prodromal period
nosocomial infections B. Infection period
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Incubation period
B. Bacillus subtilis D. Period if illness
C. Salmonella cerevisiae E. Period of convalescence
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Rabies virus 97. Time period that the person regains
strength from infection and the body
92. According to the Center for Disease returns to its pre-diseased state
Control and Prevention, the single A. Prodromal period
most important means of preventing B. Infection period
the spread of nosocomial infection is C. Incubation period
A. Education on microbial control D. Period of illness
B. Disinfection of hospital E. Period of convalescence
instruments and devices
C. Use of hand gel 98. A relatively short period of occurrence
D. Handwashing of disease characterized by early mild
E. Placing face masks on al infected symptoms of the disease, such as,
patients body ache, headache and malaise.
A. Prodromal period
93. The following are emerging infectious B. Infection period
diseases starting year 2000 except: C. Incubation period
A. H1N1 influenza D. Period of illness
B. HIV-AIDS E. Perio
C. Anthrax
D. Chagas disease 99. Rabies virus is transmitted to humans
E. Whooping cough through
A. Direct contact transmission
94. Emerging infectious diseases can be B. Indirect contact transmission
due to C. Droplet transmission
A. Climatic changes D. Vehicle transmission
B. Too many vaccines E. Mechanical ventilator transmission
C. Inefficient case reporting
D. Rational antibiotic use 100. Congenital infection, like rubella,
E. Surveillance of DOH occurs as a result of
A. Viral toxins crossing the placenta
95. A continuous source of the diseases B. Viral toxins impairing maternal
organism is known as the nourishment of the fetus
A. Carrier C. Transplacental spread of virus and
B. Reservoir of infection growth in the fetus
C. Deep wells D. Autoimmune response of maternal
D. Hospital cells against fetal tissue
E. Secondary use E. Child naturally has the infection
 C. Lipid O
101. An enzyme produced by virulent D. Lipid A
bacteria to promote the spread of the E. Oligosaccharide
bacteria to the host and otherwise
known as the spreading factor 106. A life-threatening decrease in blood
A. Collagenase pressure caused by bacteria is
B. Streptokinase referred to as
C. Protease A. Shock
D. Hyaluronidase B. Technical knock-out
E. Hemolysin C. Septic shock
D. Hypotension
102. Hemolysins can lyse red blood cells. E. Anemia
Which of the following is not correct?
A. - hemolysin produces greenish 107. An endotoxin producing bacterium
ring around bacterial colonies on A. Neisseria meningitidis
blood agar plate B. Escherichia coli
B. - hemolysin produces clear ring C. Clostridium perfringens
around colonies on blood agar D. Vibrio cholera
plate E. Clostridium tetani
C. - hemolysin produces no visible
change around colonies on blood 108. Inclusion bodies produced by rabies
agar plate virus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes ha - A. Syncytial bodies
hemolysin B. Negri bodies
E. - C. Black bodies
hemolysin D. Interferons
E. Cytopathic areas
103. Exotoxins can lead to the following
diseases except 109. Term for the characteristic of the
A. Rabies disease that can be observed by
B. Tetanus examining the patient
C. Diphtheria A. Symptom
D. Botulism B. Syndrome
E. Cholera C. Observation
D. Sequelae
104. Botulinum toxin is classified as a E. Sign
A. Cytotoxin
B. Enterotoxin 110. Term for the characteristic of the
C. Neurotoxin disease that can be observed or felt
D. Endotoxin only by the patient
E. Phytotoxin A. Symptom
B. Syndrome
105. The endotoxin or the lipid portion of C. Observation
the lipopolysaccharide is called the D. Sequelae
A. Lipid C E. Sign
B. Lipid B
111. Term for the combination of signs A.
and symptoms that occur together and B. Q fever
indicate a particular disease C.
A. Symptom D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
B. Syndrome E. Gray baby syndrome
C. Observation
D. Sequelae 117. This is the only Bacillus species that
E. Sign is highly pathogenic for animals and
humans and is the causative agent for
112. An example of an acute infectious anthrax
disease A. B stearothermophilus
A. Common cold B. B cereus
B. Leprosy C. B thuringiensis
C. Tuberculosis D. B subtilis
D. Diphtheria E. B anthracis
E. Gingivitis
118. Lesions of the oral cavity which
113. According to severity, TB may be manifest as tiny red patches with
classified as central white specks in patients
A. Subacute and latent infected with Rubeola virus
B. Chronic and latent A. Erythema infectiosum
C. Sporadic and latent B. Macular rash
D. Chronic C. Fever blisters
E. Latent D.
E. Negri bodies
114. A secondary infection that results
from destruction of normal microflora 119. During the first 10 minutes or so after
and often follows the use of broad- injection of phage DNA, no phage can
spectrum antibiotics be recovered by disrupting the
A. Mixed infection infected bacterium. This is termed as:
B. Subclinical infection A. Eclipse period
C. Inapparent infection B. Latent period
D. Superinfection C. Rise period
E. Co-morbid infection D. Burst size
115. These are generally benign skin E. Replication cycle
growths caused by viruses
A. Bullae 120. All are major causes of bacterial
B. Warts meningitis except:
C. Boils A. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Acne B. Neisseria meningitidis
E. Papules C. Hib
D. Listeria monocytogenes
116. A severe complication of chickenpox, E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
influenza, and other viral diseases
which affects children and is 121. This gram negative bacteria
aggravated by the use of aspirin produces a water-soluble blue
 pigment, pyocyanin, and a water- cultivated plants. These are also the
soluble fluorescent pigment, pyoverdin smallest known agents of infectious
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa disease.
B. Pseudomonas mallei A. Virion
C. Pseudomonas pseudomallei B. Bacteriophages
D. Pseudomonas syringae C. Paschen bodies
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens D. Viroids
E. Oncogenes
122. These bacteria differ from most other
enterobacteriaceae by being mainly 127. The most common causative agent
associated with plants of genital herpes
A. Proteus A. HSV-1
B. Erwinia B. HSV-2
C. Shigella C. HSV-3
D. Serratia D. HSV-4
E. Yersinia E. HSV-6

123. Which of the following viruses is a 128. Theses are common bread molds
DNA virus? which cause much food spoilage and
A. Bunyaviridae grow on bread, vegetables, fruits and
B. Adenoviridae other food products.
C. Reoviridae A. Mucor
D. Togaviridae B. Saccharomyces
E. Orthomyxoviridae C. Rhizopus
D. Schizosaccharomyces
124. The following RNA viruses are helical E. Agaricus
in shape, except:
A. Rhabdoviridae 129. Streptomyces griseus is the source
B. Arenaviridae of this antibiotic.
C. Bunyaviridae A. Griseofulvin
D. Orthomyxoviridae B. Streptomycin
E. Picornaviridae C. Erythromycin
D. Kanamycin
125. A patient with nausea, vomiting, and E. Chlorampenicol
diarrhea within 5 hours after eating
most likely has: 130. These antimicrobial drugs differ from
A. Shigellosis the antibiotics in that they do not occur
B. Cholera naturally. The prototype of these is
C. E. coli gastroenteritis furfural, an aldehyde derivative.
D. Salmonellosis A. Interferons
E. Staphylococcus food poisoning B. Tetracyclines
C. Sulfonamides
126. These are nucleic acid entities of D. Nitrofurans
relatively low molecular weight (1.1 to E. Anthramycin
1.3 x 105) and unique structure that
cause several important diseases of
131. The following organisms are good greatly reduced by the use of this
recipients of R factor from E. coli drug.
donor, except: A. Sibromycin
A. Enterobacter B. Anthramycin
B. Proteus C. Sulfaguanidine
C. Klebsiella D. Acycloguanosine
D. Salmonella E. Amantadine
E. Shigella
136. This drug is member of the allylamine
132. This is the first known disease for class of antimycotics and inhibits the
which a chemotherapeutic agent was enzyme squalene epoxidase in fungal
used. ergosterol biosynthesis.
A. Mucormycosis A. Clotrimazole
B. Bubonic plague B. Terbinafine
C. Syphilis C. Linezolid
D. HSV-1 D. Flucytosine
E. Gonorrhea E. Nalidixic acid

133. It inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by 137. This is the commonest cause of

binding D-alanyl-D-alanine group on pneumonia and still responds well to
the peptide side chain of one of the penicillin despitea global in isolates
membrane-bound intermediates. showing reduced susceptibility to this
A. Vancomycin agent.
B. Bacitracin A. Legionella pneumophila
C. Methicillin B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
D. Chlortetracycline C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Cycloserine D. Haemophilus influenza
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
134. Because it is a structural analog of
pyridoxine, or Vitamin B6 and 138. The following are fungal infections of
nicotinamide, it can block pyridoxine the skin and nails, except:
and nicotinamide-catalyzed reactions A. Tinea pedis
which may account for its antimicrobial B. Tinea capitis
activity. C. Cryptococcus neoformans
A. Isonicotinic Acid Hydrazide D. Tinea corporis
B. Nalidixic acid E. Malassezia furfur
C. Isoniazid 139. This drug is thought to block the
D. A and B assembly of arabinogalactan
E. A and C polysaccharide by inhibition of an
arabinotranferase enzyme.
135. This is a low-molecular weight A. Rifampin
compound which is very effective B. Isoniazid
against influenza A virus but not C. Pyrazinamide
against influenza B virus. The D. Ethambutol
incidence of influenza A infections is E. Streptomycin
140. These are structural analogues of E. Enteropathogenic
PABA that competitively inhibit the
incorporation of PABA into
dihydropteroic acid. 145. Which of the following is not a
A. Sulfonamides tickborne disease?
B. Nalidixic acid A. Babesiosis
C. Cephalosporins B. Ehrlichiosis
D. B and C C. Lyme disease
E. A and C D. Relapsing fever
E. Tularemia
141. Which of the following is not
matched? 146. Causative agent for Undulant fever.
A. Antihelminthic - inhibition of cell A. Bartonella henselae
wall synthesis B. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Antibacterial inhibition of nucleic C. Brucella melitensis
acid synthesis D. Bacillus anthracis
C. Antiviral inhibition of DNA E. Bordetella pertussis
synthesis
D. Antifungal inhibition of mitosis 147. This refers to the uncontrolled
E. Antifungal injury to plasma proliferation of microbes in the blood.
membrane A. Sepsis
B. Septicemia
142. Characteristics of the causative C. Septic shock
agent of tetanus, except: D. Anaphylaxis
A. Gram positive E. Bacteremia
B. Produces endospores
C. Obligate aerobe 148. This refers to inflammation of the
D. Transmitted through contaminated urinary bladder.
soil A. Cystitis
E. Produces a potent neurotoxin B. Urethritis
C. Ureteritis
143. Viral disease characterized by D. Pyelonephritis
inflammation of the parotid glands, E. Nephritis
fever, and pain during swallowing.
A. Tonsilitis 149. Disease-causing microorganisms are
B. Gingivitis called:
C. Measles A. Vectors
D. Mumps B. Bacteria
E. Typhoid fever C. Fomites
D. Pathogens
144. Strain of E. coli that can produce a E. Toxins
Shigella-like dysentery.
A. Enterotoxigenic 150. Vector-borne diseases,except:
B. Enteroinvasive A. Trypanosomiasis
C. Enterohemmorhagic B. Lyme disease
D. Enterohemolytic C. Cryptosporidiosis
 D. Yellow fever C. Sulfur
E. Plague D. Phosphorus
E. None of the above
151. This type of microscopy does not
require fixing or staining of the 156. Which of the following enzymes
specimen, and also gives a detailed neutralize/s various toxic forms of
examination of internal structures in oxygen?
living microorganisms by using slight A. Superoxide dismuthase
variations in refractive index. B. Catalase
A. Phase-contrast microscopy C. Peroxidase
B. Compound light microscopy D. A, B and C
C. Darkfield microscopy E. None of the above
D. Fluorescence microscopy
E. Both A and C 157. Which of the following is an obligate
anaerobe?
152. What is/are the staining method/s A. Micrococcus luteus
used to identify all bacteria in the B. Staphylococcus aureus
genus Mycobacterium and the disease C. Escherichia coli
producing strains of Nocardia. D. Clostridium perfringens
A. Simple staining E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Gram staining
C. Acid-fast bacilli 158. A type of medium with known
D. Negative staining chemical composition used for
E. Both B and C microbiological assays.
A. Selective media
153. Which of the following dyes cannot B. Differential media
be used in negative staining? C. Complex media
A. Eosin D. Anaerobic Media
B. Nigrosin E. Chemically defined media
C. India ink
D. Safranin 159. This type of media suppresses
E. Both A and D growth of unwanted microbes and
encourage growth of desired
154. These are organisms responsible for microbes.
low temperature food spoilage. A. Enrichment media
A. Psychrotrophs B. Differential media
B. Psychrophiles C. Selective media
C. Thermophiles D. Reducing media
D. Mesophiles E. Chemically defined media
E. Both A and C
160. Which of the following is an indirect
155. Which of the following elements method of estimating bacterial
is/are NOT needed by microbes for number?
the synthesis of cellular materials? A. Turbidity method
A. Nitrogen B. Serial dilution
B. Carbon C. Most probable number
 D. Filtration 166. Which of the following is used as a
E. Direct microscopic count gaseous chemosterilizer?
A. Phenol
161. Process of destroying vegetative B. Ethylene oxide
pathogens but not necessarily C. Ethanol
endospores or viruses, usually or D. Ammonia
inanimate objects. E. Benzalkonium chloride
A. Sterilization
B. Antisepsis 167. Which of the following is not a
C. Sanitization spirochete?
D. Degerming A. Treponema
E. Disinfection B. Leptospira
C. Vibrio
162. Removal of transient microbes from D. Borrelia
the skin by mechanical cleansing or by E. None of the above
the use of an antiseptic.
A. Sterilization 168. Which of the following bacteria are
B. Antisepsis spore formers?
C. Sanitization A. Bacillus
D. Degerming B. Clostridium
E. Disinfection C. Salmonella
D. Both A and B
163. Which of the following is/are an E. Both A and C
effective method of sterilization?
A. Refrigeration 169. Which of the following is not a gram
B. Pasteurization negative facultatively anaerobic rod-
C. Direct flaming shaped bacteria?
D. Autoclaving A. Escherichia
E. Both C and D B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
164. Chemical used for microbial control D. Enterobacter
by Joseph Lister. E. NOTA
A. Iodine
B. Phenol 170. Which of the following is not a
C. Carbolic acid characteristic of the genus Neisseria?
D. Chlorinated Lime A. Diplococcic
E. Both B and C B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Some members cause meningitis
165. Which of the following metals has the D. Some members causes gonorrhea
strongest oligodynamic action? E. NOTA
A. Silver
B. Mercury 171. Which of the following is transmitted
C. Iron via the fecal-oral route?
D. Copper A. HAV
E. Zinc B. HBV
C. HCV
 D. HDV D. Lyophilization involves desiccation
E. Both A and B in high temperature
E. NOTA
172. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of Fungi? 177. Which of the following is the
A. Chemoheterotroph preferred method of sterilizing liquids
B. Unicellular containing toxins, vaccines and
C. Multicellular enzymes?
D. Photoautotroph A. Pasteurization
E. Both B and D B. Autoclaving
C. Filtration
173. Which of the following types of D. Refrigeration
asexual spore is formed within a sac E. NOTA
at the end of an aerial hypha?
A. Blastospore 178. Which type of media is used to grow
B. Chlamydospore obligate anaerobes?
C. Endospore A. Complex media
D. Conidiospore B. Enrichment media
E. Arthrospore C. Differential media
D. Selective media
174. Which of the following is typically E. Reducing media
observed as microscopic grapelike
clusters and yellow-pigmented 179. Aerobes contain this enzyme which
colonies? converts superoxide to oxygen and
A. Staphylococcus aureus hydrogen peroxide.
B. Streptococcus pneumonia A. Catalase
C. Clostridium botulinum B. Superoxide dismutase
D. Neisseria gonorrhea C. Peroxidase
E. Both A and B D. Both B and C
E. NOTA
175. Which of the following is/are true
about moist heat sterilization? 180. This group of anaerobes can grow in
A. An autoclave can be used the presence of oxygen and are not
B. Kills vegetative cells, spores and usually harmed by its presence in the
viruses environment.
C. Works by coagulation of proteins A. Strict anaerobes
D. A and C only B. Obligate anaerobes
E. A, B and C C. Aerotolerant anaerobes
D. Facultative aerobes
176. Which of the following is true? E. Both A and B
A. Pasteurization is a form of
sterilization 181. These microorganisms have an
B. Dry heat destroys cells by optimal growth between -5°C and
oxidation 20°C and which can be found in the
C. Filtration cannot be used for supercooled waters of the arctic and
sterilization Antarctic.
 A. Psychrophiles 186. In Reductase Test using milk, the
B. Mesophiles time it takes for methylene blue to
C. Thermophiles become colorless is the:
D. Hyperthermophiles A. Methylene blue oxidation time
E. NOTA B. Methylene blue reaction time
C. Methylene blue catalysis time
182. This is the time required to kill a D. Methylene blue reduction time
suspension of cells or spores at a E. Methylene blue disappearance
given temperature. time
A. Thermal death point
B. Thermal death time 187. These are indicator bacteria which
C. Burst size are found in the intestines of humans
D. Incubation period and warm-blooded animals, ferment
E. Triple death point lactose to produce acid and gas, and
its presence in water suggests the
183. This is also known as Mixed-Acid potential for disease. Examples of
Fermentation. such organisms are E. coli and
A. Voges-Proskauer test Enterobacter aerogenes.
B. Citrate test A. Enterics
C. Methyl red test B. Coliforms
D. 2,3 Butanediol Fermentation test C. Colony forming units
E. Both A and D D. Enterococcus
E. NOTA
184. The bacteria that are mixed-acid
fermenters generally produce gas 188. Also known as Ziehl-Neelsen
because they elaborate this enzyme Method:
which splits formic acid to produce A. Gram staining
CO2 and H2O. B. Simple staining
A. Formic hydrogenylase C. Acid-fast staining
B. Nitrate reductase D. Negative staining
C. Formicase E. Capsular staining
D. Catalase
E. NOTA 189. Which of the following organisms can
be identified using the answer in
185. This is a multiple test medium that number 188?
will detect the fermentation of glucose A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
and lactose and the production of B. Mycobacterium leprae
hydrogen sulphide resulting from the C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
breakdown of the amino acid cysteine. D. Both A and C
A. SIM medium E. Both B and C
B. Litmus Milk
C. Hydrogen sulfide 190. Property of an ideal antimicrobial
D. Kligler agent
E. NOTA A. Production of drug resistance
B. Selective toxicity
C. Toxic to the host cell
 D. Broad spectrum of activity B. Amphotericin B
E. Produces hypersensitivity C. Terbinafine
D. Fluconazole
191. Drugs that inhibit the 50s portion of E. Caspofungin
the bacterial ribosome, except:
A. Streptomycin 197. Which of the following drugs is most
B. Erythromycin resistant to the action of penicillinase?
C. Chloramphenicol A. Methicillin
D. Quinupristin B. Amoxicillin
E. Clindamycin C. Benzathine penicillin
D. Ticarcillin
192. Microbial source of tetracycline: E. Mezlocillin
A. Streptomyces erythreus
B. Streptomyces griseus 198. The role of cilastatin sodium when
C. Streptomyces aureofaciens combined with imipenem is:
D. Streptomyces nodosus A. It protects against the action of
E. Streptomyces roseosporus beta-lactamase
B. It prevents degradation of
193. Co-trimoxazole is a combination of: imipenem in the kidneys
A. Sulfamethoxazole and clavulanic C. It exerts antimicrobial action to
acid broaden the spectrum of activity
B. Sulfathiazole and trimethoprim D. It potentiates the antimicrobial
C. Sulfamethoxazole and action imipenem
trimethoprim E. It facilitates the absorption of
D. Sulfathiazole and clavulanic acid imipenem
E. None of the above
199. The following aminoglycosides are
194. Fluoroquinolones exert their derived from Streptomyces, except:
antimicrobial action by inhibiting: A. Streptomycin
A. Topoisomerase I B. Tobramycin
B. Topoisomerase II C. Gentamicin
C. Topoisomerase IV D. Neomycin
D. A &B E. Spectinomycin
E. B &C
200. This specie of Plasmodium causes
195. Trimethoprim is an inhibitor of which the most dangerous form of malaria.
enzyme: A. P. falciparum
A. Dihydropteroate synthase B. P. ovale
B. Dihydrofolate synthase C. P. vivax
C. Dihydropteroate reductase D. P. malariae
D. Dihydrofolate reductase E. None of the above
E. None of the above
201. Refers to a continuum of learning
196. A synthetic antifungal agent which which enables people, as individuals
inhibits squalene epoxidase: and as members of social structures,
A. Griseofulvin to voluntarily make decisions, modify
 behaviors and change social of behavior change to another as their
conditions in ways which are health cifidence in their ability to make this
financing. change increases.
A. Health promotion A. Health belief model
B. Health education B. Social cognitive theory
C. Health perception C. Transtheoretical model
D. Health behavior D. Theory of reasoned action
E. Health beliefs E. Ecologic model

202. Refers to the aggregate of all 206. In the Health Belief Model, these are
purposeful activities designed to the messages or triggers that will
improve personal and public health activate the individual to take action.
through a combination of strategies. A. Perceived susceptibility
A. Health promotion B. Cues action
B. Health education C. Perceived barriers
C. Health perception D. Self-efficacy
D. Health behavior E. Contemplation
E. Health beliefs
207. In the Health Belief Model, this refers
203. The health behavior model that
explains that health behavior affects he/she can successfully carry out a
and is affected by multiple levels of particular behavior.
influence of individual, interpersonal, A. Perceived susceptibility
institutional, community and public B. Cues action
policy factors, and that health behavior C. Perceived barriers
shapes and is shaped by the social D. Self-efficacy
environment. E. Contemplation
A. Health belief model
B. Social cognitive theory 208. A health behavior model that
C. Transtheoretical model suggests that people make changes in
D. Theory of reasoned action their behaviors on the basis of their
E. Ecologic model belief that the intended outcome of a
behavior change is positive or
204. A health behavior model that negative.
examines perceptions of the benefits A. Health belief model
of avoiding the health threat and B. Social cognitive theory
factors influencing the decision to act C. Transtheoretical model
on it. D. Theory of reasoned action
A. Health belief model E. Ecologic model
B. Social cognitive theory
C. Transtheoretical model 209. In theory of planned behavior, this
D. Theory of reasoned action
E. Ecologic model behavior.
A. Subjective norm
205. A health behavior model that tackles B. Behavioral control
C. Attitude
 D. Action B. Strengthen community actions
E. Contemplation C. Develop personal skills
D. Build healthy public policy
210. In theory of planned behavior, this E. Reorient health services

that he/she is likely to perform the 214. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action
behavior. area which explains that health
A. Public policy promotion should support personal
B. Behavioral intention and social development through
C. Precontemplation providing information, education for
D. Perceived benefits health, and enhancing life skills.
E. Preparation A. Create supportive environments
B. Strengthen community actions
211. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action C. Develop personal skills
area for health promotion that D. Build healthy public policy
combines diverse but complementary E. Reorient health services
approaches including legislation, fiscal
measures, taxation, and 215. In the Ottawa charter, it is an action
organizational change. area that must lead to a change of
A. Create supportive environments attitude and organization of health
B. Strengthen community actions services which refocuses on the total
C. Develop personal skills needs of the individual as a whole
D. Build healthy public policy person.
E. Reorient health services A. Create supportive environment
B. Strengthen community actions
212. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action C. Develop personal skills
area which explains that health D. Build healthy public policy
promotion should generate living and E. Reorient health services
working conditions that are safe,
stimulating, satisfying and enjoyable. 216.
A. Create supportive environments to assure the conditions in which
B. Strengthen community actions
C. Develop personal skills A. Sustainability
D. Build healthy public policy B. Social marketing
E. Reorient health services C. Intersectoral participation
D. Public health
213. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action E. Community involvement
area which explains that community
development draws an existing human 217. Which of the following is NOT a
and material resources in the macro-level public health activity?
community to enhance self-help and A. Community diagnosis
social support, and to develop flexible B. Patient-directed services
systems for strengthening public C. Policy development
participation in and direction of health D. Health planning
matters. E. Partnership establishment
A. Create supportive environments
218. A spectrum of diseases arising from A. Goiter
a diet that is poor in protein and B. Anemia
calories, especially in children under C. Cretinism
five. D. Parasitism
A. Iodine deficiency disorders E. Xerophthalmia
B. Marasmus
C. Protein energy malnutrition 223. A common preventable lifelong
D. Kwashiorkor mental and physical retardation in the
E. Xerophthalmia fetus and infant brought about by
iodine deficiency.
219. This stems from an inadequate A. Goiter
calorie intake due to insufficient diet, B. Anemia
improper feeding habits, metabolic C. Cretinism
abnormalities or congenital D. Parasitism
malformations that result to gain E. Xerophthalmia
weight, followed by loss of weight until
emaciation occurs. 224. Causative agent for genital herpes,
A. Iodine deficiency disorders or the anogenital vesicular lesions and
B. Marasmus ulcerations
C. Protein energy malnutrition A. Human papilloma virus
D. Kwashiorkor B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
E. Xerophthalmia C. Phthirus pubis
D. Herpes simplex virus
220. Malnutrition type which is due to E. Trichomonas vaginalis
deprivation of sufficient quality protein
foods, impaired absorption of protein, 225. Causative agent for the public lice
or abnormal losses of protein from the infestation, which are commonly called
body, which also later results to fatty
liver. A. Human papilloma virus
A. Iodine deficiency disorders B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
B. Marasmus C. Phthirus pubis
C. Protein energy malnutrition D. Herpes simplex virus
D. Kwashiorkor E. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Xerophthalmia
226. Causative agent genital warts.
221. The term that describes all the eye A. Human papilloma virus
signs of Vitamin A deficiency if it B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
reaches a critically low level. C. Phthirus pubis
A. Iodine deficiency disorders D. Herpes simplex virus
B. Marasmus E. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Protein energy malnutrition
D. Kwashiorkor 227. Causative agent of chancroid, or the
E. Xerophthalmia painful genital ulcers which are
accompanied by inguinal swelling or
222. Thyroid enlargement due to iodine
deficiency. A. Molluscum contagiosum virus
 B. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Administration of parenteral
C. Haemophilus ducreyi oxytocic drugs
D. Trichomonas vaginalis E. Provision of surgical delivery
E. Klebsiella granulomatis (caesarian section)

228. Causative agent of Granuloma 232. Which of the following is not an

inguinale, or Donovanosis. emergency neonatal care given in a
A. Molluscum contagiosum virus Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric
B. Chlamydia trachomatis and Newborn Care (CEMONC)
C. Haemophilus ducreyi facility?
D. Trichomonas vaginalis A. Newborn resuscitation
E. Klebsiella granulomatis B. Oxygen support
C. Antenatal administration of
229. Refers to the death of a woman while (maternal) steroids for threatened
pregnant or within 42 days of premature delivery
termination of pregnancy, irrespective D. Treatment of neonatal sepsis
of the duration or site of the infection
pregnancy, from any cause related to E. None of the above
or aggravated by the pregnancy or its
management, but not from accidental 233. What is the Millennium Development
causes. Goal #5?
A. Morbidity rate A. Promote gender equality
B. Infant mortality B. Improve maternal heath
C. Maternal death C. Achieve universal primary
D. Mortality rate education
E. Population pyramid D. Eradicate extreme poverty
E. Reduce child mortality
230. Which is not part of the Full Package
in Reproductive Health? 234. What is the Millennium Development
A. Family planning Goal #4?
B. Diagnosis and treatment of breast A. Promote gender equality
cancer B. Improve maternal health
C. Antenatal care C. Achieve universal primary
D. Support for exclusive education
breastfeeding D. Eradicate extreme poverty
E. None of the above E. Reduce child mortality

231. Which of the following is not part of 235. Refers to both macronutrient
the services of the Basic Emergency deficiency and micronutrient
Obstetric and Newborn Care deficiency.
(BEMONC) facility? A. Epidemiologic transition
A. Performance of assisted deliveries B. Iceberg phenomenon
in imminent breech C. Wasting
B. Newborn resuscitation D. Global malnutrition
C. Manual removal of retained E. Double burden
placenta
236. Refers to the observed trend that the B. Food Fortification
majority of children have mild C. Nutrition Information,
malnutrition, far fewer have moderate Communication and Education
malnutrition and only few have severe D. Micronutrient Supplementation
malnutrition. E. Food assistance
A. Epidemiologic transition
B. Iceberg phenomenon 241. A national project that involves the
C. Wasting voluntary fortification of processed
D. Global malnutrition foods.
E. Double burden A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of
Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN)
237. Results from inappropriate height-for- B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
age. C. Maternal and Child Health
A. Wasting D. Early Childhood Development
B. Edema project
C. Emaciation E. Safe Motherhood
D. Stunting
E. None of the above 242. Involves center-based
complementary feeding for wasted
238. Results from inappropriate weight- and stunted pregnant women with
for-height record of delivering low birthweight
A. Wasting infants, and for young children aged 6-
B. Edema 72 months old.
C. Emaciation A. Home, School and Community
D. Stunting Food Production
E. None of the above B. Food Fortification
C. Nutrition Information,
239. Communication and Education
achieving nutritional adequacy for all D. Micronutrient Supplementation
Filipinos which is coordinated by the E. Food assistance
National Nutrition Council.
A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of 243. Refers to the promotion and
Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN) maintenance of the highest degree of
B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal physical, mental and social well-being
C. Philippine Plan of Action for of workers in all occupations by
Nutrition (PPAN) preventing departures from health,
D. Early Childhood Development controlling risks and the adaptation of
project work to people, and people for their
E. Safe Motherhood jobs.
A. Ergonomics
240. Refers to the addition of a nutrient to B. Occupational health
a food vehicle commonly consumed C. Occupational hazards
by the population to prevent or correct D. Safety
micronutrient deficiencies. E. Occupations
A. Home, School and Community
Food Production
244. Refers to anything that has the A. Chemical hazards
potential to cause harm. B. Ergonomic hazards
A. Accident C. Biologic hazards
B. Risk D. Physical hazards
C. Danger E. Sociologic hazards
D. Hazard
E. Safety 250. Refers to the science of fitting the job
to the worker.
245. Refers to likelihood that a particular A. Ergonomics
hazard will occur. B. Occupational health
A. Accident C. Occupational hazards
B. Risk D. Safety
C. Danger E. Occupations
D. Hazard
E. Safety 251. Which of the following drugs cannot
be used to treat cases of multidrug-
246. Results from mismanagement or resistant (MDR) tuberculosis?
misuse of chemicals resulting in an A. Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide
unacceptable risk to human health. B. Rifampicin and Ethambutol
A. Chemical hazards C. Isoniazid and Rifampicin
B. Ergonomic hazards D. Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide
C. Biologic hazards E. Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide
D. Physical hazards
E. Sociologic hazards 252. Extensively drug-resistant (XDR)
tuberculosis is defined as:
247. Refers to those that result from living A. Resistance to both the first line
in a society where one experiences drugs
noise, lack of privacy and B. Resistance to both first line drugs
overcrowding. and at least one of the six main
A. Chemical hazards classes of second-line drugs
B. Ergonomic hazards C. Resistance to both the first line
C. Biologic hazards drugs and at least three of the six
D. Physical hazards main classes of second-line drugs
E. Sociologic hazards D. Resistance to both first line drugs
and at least four of the six main
248. Include airborne particles, humidity, classes of second-line drugs
equipment design and radiation. E. Resistance to both the first line
A. Chemical hazards and all of the six main classes of
B. Ergonomic hazards second-line drugs
C. Biologic hazards
D. Physical hazards 253. Which of the following is an
E. Sociologic hazards intracellular parasite?
A. Rickettsia
249. Refers to those arising from microbial B. Mycobacterium
decomposition of various substrates C. Bacillus
associated with particular occupations. D. Staphylococcus
 E. Streptococcus 259. Malaria infection is initiated by the
bite of a mosquito, which injects this
254. This refers to ringworm infection of form of the protozoan into the
the scalp. bloodstream.
A. Tinea capitis A. Sporozoite
B. Tinea cruris B. Merozoite
C. Tinea pedis C. Trophozoite
D. Tinea unguium D. Gametocyte
E. Tinea versicolor E. Promastigote
260. Hepatitis C virus belongs to this
255. This type of ringworm infection is family
also referred to as onychomycosis. A. Picornaviridae
A. Tinea capitis B. Hepadnaviridae
B. Tinea cruris C. Flaviviridae
C. Tinea pedis D. Deltaviridae
D. Tinea unguium E. Caliciviridae
E. Tinea versicolor
261. This type of hepatitis virus contains a
256. This disease is caused by the virus single strand of RNA, which is not
human parvovirus B19 and results in capable of causing an infection. It
symptoms similar to a mild case of becomes infectious when an external
envelope of HBsAG covers the protein
rash. core of the virus.
A. Exanthema subitum A. HAV
B. Roseola infantum B. HBV
C. Erythema multiforme C. HCV
D. Erythema infectiosum D. HDV
E. Shingles E. HEV

257. This is an example of a 262. The following are vertically-

subcutaneous mycosis. transmitted infections,except:
A. Tinea infection A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella B. Hepatitis B
C. Sporotrichosis C. Herpes simplex
D. Cryptococcosis D. Rubeola
E. Candidiasis E. Cytomegalovirus

258. The causative agent of plague, which 263. This is a measure of the biologically
was known in the middle ages as the degradable organic matter in water
Black Death. A. BOD
A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. BER
B. Yersinia pestis C. BID
C. Francisella tularensis D. GIR
D. Trypanosoma cruzi E. GOD
E. Bacillus anthracis
264. This is a protein product separated 269. This is probably the only bacterium
from the whey by the action of rennin that grows in the peripheral nervous
enzyme in certain bacteria. system.
A. Cheese A. Clostridium tetani
B. Curd B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Butter C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Cream D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Casein E. Neisseria meningitidis

265. This is made by churning cream until 270. Strongyloides stercoralis is an

the fatty globules separate. example of:
A. Cheese A. Intestinal nematode
B. Curd B. Extra intestinal nematode
C. Butter C. Trematode
D. Cream D. Anthropods
E. Whey E. NOTA

266. Cell membrane damage causes 271. The following Plasmodium spp.
death because. cause/s benign tertian malaria.
A. The cell undergoes osmotic lysis A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Cell contents leak out B. Plasmodium vivax
C. The cell plasmolyzes C. Plasmodium ovale
D. The cell lacks a wall D. Plasmodium malariae
E. None of the above E. Both B and C

267. Chlorampenicol binds to the 50s 272. The following Plasmodium spp.
portion of a ribosome, which will cause/s malignant tertian malaria.
interfere with: A. Plasmodium falciparum
A. Transcription in prokaryotic cells B. Plasmodium vivax
B. Transcription in eukaryotic cells C. Plasmodium ovale
C. Translation in prokaryotic cells D. Plasmodium malariae
D. Translation in eukaryotic cells E. Both B and C
E. DNA synthesis
273. Treatment of choice for American
268. Which of the following factors does
not contribute to antibiotic resistance? A. Nifurtimox and Benzidazole
A. Destruction of the plasma B. Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine
membrane C. Trimethoprim and
B. Enzymatic destruction or Sulfamethoxazole
inactivation D. Metronidazole
C. Prevention of penetration to the E. Iodoquinol
target site
D. Alteration of the target site 274. Vector of Paragonimiasis.
E. Rapid efflux of the antibiotic A. Mosquito
B. Fly
C. Rat
 D. Crab A. Definitive host
E. Snail B. Intermediate host
C. Final host
275. The drug of choice for Bancroftian D. Paratenic host
filariasis. E. Both A and C
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Diethycarbamazine citrate 281. A type of host in which the parasite
C. Mebendazole does not develop further to later
D. Ivermectin stages. However, the parasite remains
E. Praziquantel alive and is able to infect another
susceptible host.
276. The smallest tapeworm infecting A. Definitive host
humans. B. Intermediate host
A. Taenia saginata C. Final host
B. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Paratenic host
C. Hymenolepsis nana E. Both A and C
D. Hymenolepsis diminuta
E. Dipylidium caninum 282. A type of host which harbors the
asexual or larval stage of the parasite.
277. Fasciola hepatica and F. gigantica A. Definitive host
are what type of flukes? B. Intermediate host
A. Lung flukes C. Final host
B. Liver flukes D. Paratenic host
C. Blood flukes E. Both A and C
D. Heterophyid flukes
E. Intestinal flukes 283. This is defined as a permanent
reduction to zero of the worldwide
278. Vector of Hymenolepiasis. incidence of infection caused by a
A. Chigger mite specific agent, as a result of deliberate
B. Tick efforts.
C. Flea A. Disease elimination
D. Fly B. Disease eradication
E. Crab C. Disease prevention
D. Disease reduction
279. A symbiotic relationship where one E. NOTA
organism lives in or on another,
depending on the latter for its survival 284. This refers to the number (usually
and usually at the expense of the host. expressed as percentage) of
A. Commensalism individuals in a population estimated
B. Mutualism to be infected with a particular parasite
C. Parasitism species at a given time.
D. Symbiosis A. Prevalence
E. NOTA B. Incidence
C. Cumulative prevalence
280. A type of host wherein the parasite D. Morbidity
attains sexual maturity. E. NOTA
 E. Fasciolopsis buski
285. The drug of choice for the treatment
of trichuriasis. 290. This infection requires Oncomelania
A. Albendazole snails as intermediate hosts.
B. Praziquantel A. Paragonimus westrmani
C. Mebendazole B. Fasciola hepatica
D. Metronidazole C. Schistosoma japonicum
E. Both A and B D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. Fasciolopsis buski
286. Human may serve as both a
definitive host and an intermediate 291. This is an example of a parasite of
host of this type of cestode, therefore the bile duct and the gallbladder of
both intestinal and tissue infections humans and fish-eating mammals.
occur in man. A. Paragonimus westrmani
A. Taenia saginata B. Fasciola hepatica
B. Taenia solium C. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Dipylidium caninum D. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Hymenolepsis nana E. Fasciolopsis buski
E. Hymenolepsis diminuta
292. The following are parasites isolated
287. This parasite is the only human in the placenta, except:
tapeworm, which can complete its A. Toxoplasma
entire life cycle in a single host, B. Trypanosoma
indicating that it does not require an C. Malaria
obligatory intermediate host. D. Trichinella
A. Taenia saginata E. NOTA
B. Taenia solium
C. Dipylidium caninum 293. A diagnostic technique used to
D. Hymenolepsis nana recover eggs of Enterobius
E. Hymenolepsis diminuta vermicularis and Taenia spp.
A. Scotch tape method
288. Also known as Oriental blood fluke. B. Kato katz method
A. Paragonimus westermanii C. Perianal swab
B. Fasciola hepatica D. Direct fecal smear
C. Schistosoma japonicum E. Kato tick method
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. Fasciolopsis buski 294. A routine method of stool
examination primarily useful in the
289. The causative agent of lung fluke detection of motile protozoan
disease or pulmonary distomiasism or trophozoites using 0.85% NSS.
endemic hemoptysis or parasitic A. Scotch tape method
hemoptysis. B. Kato katz method
A. Paragonimus westrmani C. Perianal swab
B. Fasciola hepatica D. Direct fecal smear
C. Schistosoma japonicum E. Kato tick method
D. Clonorchis sinensis
295. Technique used in detecting eggs D. Wuchereria bancrofti
with tick shells such as Ascaris and E. Brugia malayi
Trichuris, using a mixture of glycerine
and malachite green solution.
A. Scotch tape method
B. Kato katz method
C. Perianal swab
D. Direct fecal smear
E. Kato tick method

296. Common term for Enterobius

vermicularis.
A. Threadworm
B. Fluke
C. Pinworm
D. Flatworm
E. Hookworm

297. Which of the following is also known

as the cat hookworm?
A. Ancylostoma ceylanicum
B. Ancylostoma braziliense
C. Ancylostoma caninum
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
E. Necator americanus

298.
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
E. Brugia malayi

299. Which of the following is also known

as the Old world hookworm?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Necator americanus
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
E. Brugia malayi

300. Which of the following is also known

as the New world hookworm?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Necator americanus