HEMATOLOGY

1. Swollen due to leakage in large tissue (Hematoma)

2. Method of sample collection for newborn screening (Capillary)
3. In automate counters, what will increase if there are clumps of platelets? (WBCs)
4. Stable Factor (Factor VII and Factor XI) *Labile factor (Factor V and Factor VIII)
5. Allowable difference between manually-counted WBCs on each side (10-12 counts)
6. Term usually termed between MPO & SBB (parallel)
7. Average of 6 WBC in ten 50xOIO fields (WBC ct x 3000 = 18,000)
8. WBC Cells to be counted >40x10^9/L (200)
9. WBC Cells to be counted >100x10^9/L (300-400)
10. Angle between 2 slides when making blood smear (30 to 45)
11. Not measured by cyanmethemoglobin (Sulfonamide only)
12. Erythroleukemia M6 (PAS+)
13. Centrifugation for microhematocrit (5 minutes) *10,000g
14. Phase where DNA replication take place (S phase)
15. How many hours for DNA replication (8 hours)
16. Diluting fluids for platelets (1% ammonium oxalate)
17. DIC is a disorder of (Fibrinolysis)
18. Correct order of draw for vacutainer system? (Yellow, blue,red, green, purple gray)
19. Test for PNH ( Sugar water test , sucrose hemolysis test , acidified serum test/ham’s test)
20. Composition of drabkin’s reagent ( Surfactant , potassium ferricyanide , dihydrogen
potassium phosphate)
21. Fibrinogen increases per decade ( 10mg/dL)
22. Normal value for template bleeding time (6 to 10 minutes)
23. NK cell marker (CD 16 and CD 56)
24. CD marker for hematopoietic stem cell (CD 34)
25. In preparing blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood from the label or end of the slide
should be (1.0cm/ 0.25inch) *Size of drop of blood 2-3mm
26. Third layer in the examination of a spun hematocrit (Buffy coat)
27. Hematological procedure yields to formation of “holly leaf apperance” of red cells after
incubation (Sodium Metabisulfite method)
28. Reed sternberg cells are characteristically seen in what condition (Hodgkin’s lymphoma)
29. Stage in the megakaryocytic series where thrombocytes are visible (Metamegakaryocyte)
30. Leakage of blood into small area of skin (Ecchymosis)
31. RBC metabolic pathway responsible for producing 2,3-BPG (Rapaport-luebering pathway)
32. This cell has a coarse, partially clumped chromatin with a “wheel spoke” pattern; nucleoli are
present but not always visible (Basophilic normoblast)
33. Quality of reagent used in Protime (200ul)
34. A partially clotted blood specimen may cause a (shortened) clotting time
35. Order of draw for a skin puncture blood specimen (Blood gases - Smear – EDTA – Other
anticoagulant - Serum )
36. Which of the following are the site of hematopoiesis (Iliac crest, Skull , Ribs)
37. Leukemia associated with DIC (M3) *M3= Acute promyelocytic leukemia
38. A platelet estimate of 200,000-400,000 (Normal)
39. Platelet estimate of a patient with 600,000/ul platelet count (Moderate increase)
40. Printed on the electrical impedance written report (Histogram)
41. Derived from platelet histogram (MPV and PDW)
42. What coagulation factor deficiency is commonly found in Ashkenazi Jews/Rosenthal (Factor
XI)
43. Stage in the myelocytic series wherein a given granulocyte can be identified (Myelocyte)
44. 5-15 degree light scatter (High angle forward scatter)
45. Pathways maintain hemoglobin iron into ferrous state in order to be functional
(Methemoglobin reductase pathway)
46. The size threshold range used by electrical impedance method to count particles as
platelets is (2-20fL)
47. If the patient has normal RBC count, how many RBCs per OIF can be seen in a peripheral
blood smear (200 to 250) *Average (200) | in WBC (100)
48. Cyanmethemoglobin for hemoglobin determination requires measurement at what
wavelength (540nm)
49. MPV should be measure at what period (1-3 hours after collection)
50. If WBC count reaches 100 to 300 x10^9/L, the sample dilution used to be (1:200)
51. If WBC count reaches >30x10^9/L, the sample dilution used to be (1:100)
52. Cell could be seen in lesion of mycosis fungoides (T-cell)
53. Length of needle used in routine phlebotomy (1.0 to 1.5 inches)
54. Youngest cell to appear in peripheral blood smear, with its characteristics sausage shape
nucleus (Band cell)
55. What is the effect of microcytosis on platelet count using automated cell counters (Spurious
increase)
56. What is the effect of pancytosis on ESR result (Decreased)
57. Best way to make a blood smear (Smooth and rapid)
58. Mauve lavender color of blood is associated with increased concentration of what
hemoglobin (Sulfhemoglobin)
59. A monocyte that is positive with PAS stain (Gaucher cell)
60. On a well stained blood smear of a normal patient, there should be how many platelet in
each OIF (8-20)
61. Diluting fluid contains reagent that will not lyse RBCs (Hayem fluid)
62. Number of platelet stages (SIX)
63. Configuration of Gower II hemoglobin (2 Alpha and 2 Epsilon) *Gower I (2 Zeta and 2
Epsilon) | *Portland (2 Zeta and 2 gamma)
64. What are the markers seen in a Thoma WBC pipet (0.5 , 11 , 1.0) *In RBC (0.5, 101, 1.0)
65. What is the major cause of death for patient with sickle cell anemia (Bacterial infection)
66. Which if the following test is not routinely performed in the laboratory (Euglobin)
67. Included in the 3-part differential (Granulocyte, Lymphocyte and Monocyte)
68. A structure found in WBCs that can be used to determined the sex of an individual (Barr
body)
69. Effect of spleenectomy on platelet count (Increased) *Spleenomegaly (Decreased)
70. Bone marrow malignancy termed (Myeloma)
71. Anticoagulant for methemoglobin determination (EDTA and Heparin)
72. Needle most commonly used in standard venipuncture (1 inch, 21 gauge)
73. In a manual platelet count using 1% ammonium oxalate as the diluent, what is the usual
area counted (1mm2)
74. In the steps involved in phagocytosis of neutrophils, which is the second step (Ingestion)
75. In FAB classification of leukemias, which is corresponds to M3 (Acute Promyelocytic
Leukemia (APL))
76. In patient with cold agglutinin disease, what will happen to the RBC indices when using an
automated analyzer (Low RBC count , high MCV and high MCHC)
77. Which Disorder is characterized by iron loading and its accumulation in the mitochondria of
erythroid precursors as a result of defective heme synthesis (Sideroblastic anemia)
78. Which protein has a role in iron regulation by binding to ferroportin, inactivating it and
subsequently decreasing iron absorption (Hepcidin)
79. Red cell index corresponds with the degree of anisocytosis (RDW)
80. What is the specimen of choice for OFT (Heparinized blood)
81. It is also known as tissue factor (Factor III)
82. It is known as the Giant platelet syndrome (Bernard-Soulier syndrome)
83. Which of the following can be found in the peripheral blood as compensation for platelet
consumption disorder such as immune thrombocytopenic purpura (Stress platelet and
Reticulated platelets)
84. In which stage in the megakaryocyte maturation series does endomitosis begin (LD-CFU-
Meg)
85. Platelet count before adjusting drabkin’s (700x10^9/L)
86. Prostaglandin pathway other names (Thromboxane , Eicosanoid and Cyclooxygenase)
87. HCT difference in reading should be (1%)
88. Hgb is 14 what is the HCT (39% to 45%)
89. Fitzgerald Factor (HMWK) *Fletcher factor (PK)
90. Most common coagulation factor deficiencies (Factor VII , Factor VIII and Factor IX)
91. Hemophilia C (Factor XI) *Hemophilia A (Factor VII) | *Hemophilia B (Factor IX)
92. In hemoglobin molecules there are how many heme group and polypeptides respectively (4
& 4)
93. Primary hemostasis (Epistaxis and Hematemesis)
94. Substrate of thrombin (Factor I)
95. WBC chamber wait until how many minutes before counting (10 minutes)
96. Dithionite tube test is used to measure (Hgb S)
97. Small lymphoblast, Scanty cytoplasm (L1)
98. Insidious onset cause gradual change in blood (CML and CLL)
99. Aplastic anemia (Fanconi’s anemia)
100. Oldest method in classification of anemia (Cytochemical staining)
101. Measure of erythropoietic activity (Reticulocyte)
102. Globin Denaturation (Heinz bodies)
103. Platelet are usually diluted (1:100)
104. Patient has hematoma on right arm where do you get blood (Left arm)
105. Chemokine’s primary function (Chemotaxis)
106. Red cell mass and ESR relation (Directly proportional)
107. Increase platelet synthesis would lead to (More megakaryocyte , Bigger megakaryocyte
and Faster releasing time)
108. Nonspecific Enzymatic stains (Macrophages) *Reagent (Alpha Naphthyl butyrate or Alpha
Naphthyl acetate) | *In mast cells (Chloroacetate esterase)
109. Best blood collection tube for Hematology (EDTA)
110. A procedure that utilizes saponin and a filter paper (Sodium Dithionite tube test)
111. What is the positive result of Sodium dithionite tube test (Turbidity and Black line cannot be
seen through the solution)
112. What is the lifespan of neutrophils in the peripheral blood (Approximately 7 hours)
113. Percentage of blasts for diagnosis of acute leukemia according to FAB (30%) *WHO (20%)
114. First blood cell in Mesoblastic/Megaloblastic phase (Primitive erythroblast or RBC)
115. M:E ratio in leukemia (10:1) *Normal (2:1 or 4:1)
116. Lymphocyte cytoplasm appearance in Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast/Intermediate
normoblast (Sky-blue or Robin egg blue)
117. Average life span of RBC (120 days)
118. Basophilic stippling / Punctale basophilia associated in what condition (Lead poisoning /
Phubism)
119. Heinz bodies associated in what condition (G-6-PD)
120. Graveyard of RBCs (Spleen)
121. On determining WBC maturity, MOST valuable and reliable criterion is (Nuclear chromatin
pattern)
122. If the metamyelocyte is the “First stage of nuclear identation what is the shape of the
nucleus? (Kidney bean shape)
123. Pelger huet cell appearance (Pince-nez or Spectacle)
124. A blood picture shows multiple undifferentiated blasts. What classification of AML is this?
(M0)
125. Pathologic cytoplasmic inclusion seen in Myeloblasts (Auer Rods)
126. INR of Pulmonary Embolism (3.0)
127. Is the stage where DMS is first formed? (Promegakaryocyte) , Differentiating the
(Maturation)
128. Fragment of DNA (Okazaki)
129. Lymphocytes are (Not an obligate end cell): A mature cell commited to perform a function
then die
130. In Factor II deficency, what are the expected results for PT, PTT, TCT? (Abnormal,
Abnormal , Normal)
131. In Factor VIII deficiency, what are the expected results for PT, PTT, TCT? (Normal,
Abnormal, Normal)
132. MK1 is a (Megakaryoblast)
133. What is neocytes? (Young RBCs)
134. Take approximately 4 hours and make sure division is OK (G2)
135. Fluorescent tags in cells (Flow cytometry)
136. Initial tests for VwD (CBC, PT and APTT)
137. MK III (Deeply and Variably condensed chromatin)
138. Initial anemia classification (RDW and MCV)
139. Initial test for DIC (Platelet count, PT, APTT, Blood film, D-dimer and Fibrinogen assay)
140. Excessive lysis will cause (Bleeding)
141. Uses 2 electrodes (Impedance)
142. Extrinsic causes of hemolysis (Immune, Drugs, Infection)
143. Intrinsic causes of hemolysis (Membrane problem, Enzyme Deficiencies)
144. Monokine (IL-1 and IL-2)
145. Phagocytosis and Platelet activation (Membrane system)
146. Adhesion disorder (Bernard-Soulier syndome) *Aggreagation disroder (Glanzman
thrombasthenia)
147. Affect platelet activation and vasoconstriction? (Dense granule deficiency)
148. Clumped ribosomes and iron particles (Pappenheimer bodies)
149. What to wear during Enteric isolation? (Gloves and Gown)
150. What is the most likely pathogen during enteric isolation? (Salmonella, E.coli and Parasitic
infections)
151. A hemogram is also known as a (CBC)
152. Activated factor V is also known as (Factor VI)
Chronic compensated DIC lab test result
1. Normal PT, APTT , TT
2. Normal fibrinogen
3. Increased D-dimer
Answer All of the above
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Calculate the corrected reticulocyte count of the patient whose hematocrit is 30% and
reticulocyte count is 6% (average normal hematocrit is 45%)
a. 3%
b. 4%
c. 5%
d. 6%
____________________________________________________
Calculate the MCV and MCHC fir the following values
RBC count= 5.00 x 10/L
Hgb= 9g/dL
Hct= 30%

a. MCV = 30 fL; MCHC= 18g/dL

b. MCV = 60 fL; MCHC= 30g/dL
c. MCV = 65 fL; MCHC= 33g/dL
d. MCV = 85 fL: MCHC= 35g/dL
Follow up question: Describe the blood picture if the person (Microcytic, Hypochromic)
____________________________________________________
Which of the following is/are considered complication in phlebotomy?
a. Vascular
b. Neurological
c. Dermatoloogical
d. All of the above
____________________________________________________
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
a. Forward scatter - cell size
b. Forward low-angle scatter – 2 to 3 degrees
c. Forward high-angle scatter – 5 to 15 degrees
d. None of these

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Which of the following is not consistent with a shift to the right in the oxygen dissociation curve?
a. Increase in 2,3-BPG
b. Decrease in the pH
c. Increased oxygen affinity
d. Increased temperature
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A flow cytometer has which of the following?
1- Fluidics
2- Optics
3- Electronics
4- Computer

a. 1 and 2 c. 4 only
b. 1,2 and 3 d. 1,2,3 and 4
____________________________________________________
Which are included in the laboratory manual?
1. Title of the assay
2. Principle of the assay and its application
3. Step by Step procedure
4. Training certificates of the laboratory personnel

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
____________________________________________________
A falsely decreased ESR may caused by:
a. Vibration
b. Heat released from the refrigerator
c. A and B
d. Lower temperature from air rushing out on opening the refrigerator/ freezer
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Which of the following is (are) the error(s) caused by the nature of the specimen?
1. Aperture plugs
2. Giant platelets
3. Agglutinated red cells or platelets
4. Bubbles in the sample caused by too vigorous mixing

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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When anticoagulant are used in blood collection, which of the following tests cannot be
performed?
a. MPV and RDW
b. Agglutination reactions
c. Complement- dependent tests
d. Platelet aggregation studies

True about microhematocrit

a. Centrifuge for 5 minutes at 10,000g
b. Uses a capillary tube with 1.2mm bore
c. The clay seal should be 4-6mm thick
d. The capillary tube should be 2/3 filled with blood
e. All of the above
____________________________________________________
A patient was rushed to the ER following a motor accident. After 2 days, the physician
requested for hematologic tests as the case of the patient gets worse. The laboratory findings
are as follows:
Bleeding time = prolonged
APTT = prolonged
Platelet count = low
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
b. DIC
c. Increased heparin intake
d. Platelet satellitosis
___________________________________________________
Identify the cell
This is cell has a curved nucleus with more than ½ nuclear indentation presence of
granules is noted, cytoplasm is pale blue to light violet
there is low nucleus: cytoplasm ratio
a. Myeloblast
b. Promyelocyte
c. Band cell
d. Myelocyte
____________________________________________________
Which is not an automated coagulation instrument?

a. MDA
b. Fibrometer
c. STA-R
d. AMAX
____________________________________________________
A patient has CLL of B Cell lineage. On flow cytometry, what are the expected markers?
A. CD5, CD 20, CD 21
B. CD 19, CD 20, CD 21
C. CD 2, CD 3, CD
4 D. CD2, CD 3, CD 8
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A patient’s blood picture is microcytic, along with a reticulocyte count of low to normal. Based
only on the MCV, what is the possible condition of the patient?
A. Aplastic Anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Lymphoma
D. Sickle Cell Anemia
____________________________________________________
Which are the principles of Flow Cytometry?
1. Forward Light Scatter – Size of cell
2. Right-angle Light Scatter – Granularity of cell
3. Forward scatter – Cell size
4. Side scatter – Cell granularity

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 4
____________________________________________________
Where does Eicosanoid pathway of platelet activation occur?
a. DTS
b. OCS
c. Sol-gel
d. Microtubule
____________________________________________________
Reactive thrombocytosis is associated with:
I. Infection
II. Cancer therapy
III. Malignancies

ANSWER: All of the above

____________________________________________________
Which of the following closely resembles a Promonocyte?
a. Promyelocyte
b. Myelocyte
c. Metamyelocyte
d. Band cell
____________________________________________________
Best method for viewing a peripheral blood smear?
a. Crenellation
b. Longitudinal
c. Cross-Section
d. Battlement
____________________________________________________
The first group of neutrophils to respond to a chemotactic factor
a. Circulating Pool
b. Marginating Pool - Diapedesis
c. Bone Marrow Pool
____________________________________________________
Least differentiated among megakaryocytic lineage precursors
a. LD-CFU-Meg
b. MK I
c. MK II
d. MK III
____________________________________________________
Platelet precursor include
1. BFU-EMk
2. CFU-EMk
3. LD-CFU-Meg
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d.1 , 2 and 3
 Size Shape PAS Content
Dohle bodies Smaller Round (+) Ribosomal RNA
MHA inclusion bodies Large Spindle shape (-) Messenger RNA

GRADING FOR POLYCHROMASIA

Slight = 1%
1+ = 3%
2+ = 5%
3+ = 10%
4+ = 11%

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GRADING FOR HYPOCHROMASIA

1+ Area of central pallor = 1/2

2+ Area of central pallor = 2/3
3+ Area of central pallor = 3/4
4+ = Thin rim of Hgb
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GRADING OF MORPHOLOGY

Polychromatophilia 1+ = 1 to 5 per field

Helmet cells 2+ = 5 to 10 per field
Dacryocytes (Teardrop cells) 3+ Greater than 10 per field
Acanthocytes (Thorn or Spurr cells)
Schistocytes (Fragmented RBCs)
Spherocytes
_________________________________________________________________________

Poikilocytosis 1+ = 3 to 10 per field

Ovalocytes 2+ = 11 to 20 per field
Elliptocytes 3+ = Greater than 20 per field
Burr cells
Bizarre-shaped RBC
Target cell
Stomatocytes (mouth cells)
__________________________________________________________________________

Sickle cells Whenever present,

Basophiliic stippling grade as
Papenheimer bodies POSITIVE ONLY
Howell-Jolly bodies
__________________________________________________________________________
Rouleaux / Pseudoagglutination grading

1+ = aggregates of 3 to 4 RBCs
2+ = aggregates of 5 to 10 RBCs
3+ = Many aggregates with only a few free RBCs