Mechanical Unit Operations in Food Engineering Model Questions

for Exit Exam – 2017 (2025)

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For the following questions, for alternatives are given please carefully read each
question and then choose alternative that could be the best response of the
respective question.
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1. Which of the following is NOT considered as a mechanical unit operation in food processing?

A. Size reduction

B. Fermentation

C. Separation

D. Mixing

Answer: B

(Explanation: Fermentation is a biochemical process, not a mechanical operation, which involves

microbial activity).

2. Which unit operation is used to improve the texture and consistency of food products by
reducing particle size?

A. Centrifugation

B. Size reduction

C. Heat exchange

D. Extraction

Answer: B

(Explanation: Size reduction, such as grinding or milling, improves the texture and surface area of
food materials.)
3. Why it is essential to understand the flow properties of bulk solids in food processing?

A. To enhance the flavor of the food product

B. To ensure the safety of food additives used

C. To design efficient handling, storage, and transportation systems

D. To select the best packaging material for the product

Answer: C

(Explanation: Flow properties determine how solids move through equipment like silos, hoppers,
and conveyors, ensuring smooth operations.)

4. Why understanding particle sphericity is critical in designing size reduction or separation

equipment in food processing?

A. It determines the chemical composition of particles.

B. It impacts the flow behavior and energy requirements of the process.

C. It dictates the moisture content of the food material.

D. It is only relevant for biological materials like grains.

Answer: B

(Explanation: Sphericity influences the flow behavior, packing density, and the effectiveness of
processes like sieving or separation, as well as energy needs for size reduction.)

5. In size reduction, which property of the material is most critical for determining whether
impact, compression, or attrition mechanisms will be effective?

A. Thermal conductivity

B. Hardness and brittleness

C. Specific heat capacity

D. Viscosity and density

Answer: B

(Explanation: Hardness determines resistance to deformation, while brittleness indicates

susceptibility to fracture. These properties dictate the suitable mechanism for size reduction.)
6. Which of the following unit operations is most commonly used to extend the shelf life of food
products?

A. Mixing

B. Heat transfer

C. Size reduction

D. Packaging

Answer: B

(Explanation: Heat transfer operations like pasteurization and sterilization are widely used to
destroy microorganisms and enzymes that can spoil food, thereby extending its shelf life.)

7. What is the primary reason for using bulk solids handling equipment, such as hoppers or
conveyors, in food processing?

A. To reduce the production cost of food additives

B. To minimize the energy consumption in size reduction

C. To enable efficient movement, storage, and processing of raw materials

D. To improve the texture and appearance of the final product

Answer: C

(Explanation: Bulk solids handling equipment ensures the smooth transport, storage, and feeding
of materials, which is essential for efficient food production operations.)

8. In food processing, why mixing is considered a critical mechanical unit operation?

A. It enhances the visual appeal of food products.

B. It ensures the uniform distribution of ingredients for consistent product quality.

C. It increases the shelf life of food materials.

D. It minimizes the energy requirements of subsequent operations.

Answer: B

(Explanation: Mixing ensures uniformity in ingredient distribution, which is essential for

maintaining product quality and consistency.)
9. What is the main purpose of fluidization in food processing?

A. To reduce the size of food particles

B. To enhance heat and mass transfer rates

C. To improve the texture of processed food

D. To separate particles based on their size

Answer: B

(Explanation: Fluidization involves suspending particles in a fluid (air or liquid) to improve heat
and mass transfer, often used in drying or cooling processes.)

10. Which unit operation in food processing is typically used to remove suspended solids from
liquids?

A. Mixing

B. Filtration

C. Agglomeration

D. Size reduction

Answer: B

(Explanation: Filtration separates solid particles from liquids or gases using a porous medium,
making it ideal for clarifying liquids in food processing.)

11. What is the primary goal of size reduction in solids?

A) Enhance chemical composition

B) Reduce bulk density

C) Increase surface area for reaction

D) Decrease cost of raw materials

Answer: C) Increase surface area for reaction

12. In size reduction, which of the following grinders is most suitable for fibrous materials?

A) Hammer mill

B) Rod mill

C) Ball mill

D) Disc mill

Answer: A) Hammer mill

13. What is the principle of operation for a ball mill?

A) Cutting

B) Impact and attrition

C) Compression

D) Shearing

Answer: B) Impact and attrition

14. The term ‘critical speed’ in ball mills refers to:

A) Maximum speed of rotation

B) Speed at which centrifugal forces equal gravitational forces

C) Optimum speed for energy consumption

D) Speed at which balls stick to the wall

Answer: B) Speed at which centrifugal forces equal gravitational forces

15. Which equipment is primarily used for crushing large-sized lumps of material?

A) Jaw crusher

B) Ball mill

C) Hammer mill

D) Roller crusher

Answer: A) Jaw crusher

16. Kick’s law is more applicable for:

A) Fine size reduction

B) Medium size reduction

C) Coarse size reduction

D) Ultrafine size reduction

Answer: C) Coarse size reduction

17. Identify the correctly matched mechanism with equipment:

A) Impact – Ball mill

B) Compression – Jaw crusher

C) Cutting – Gyratory crusher

D) Attrition – Fluid energy mill

Answer: B) Compression – Jaw crusher

18. What is the unit of Bond’s work index?

A) kWh/ton

B) Joules

C) Nm

D) kWh/kg

Answer: A) kWh/ton

19. For a certain size reduction process, Bond's law provides the energy requirement as 50
kWh/ton. If the final particle size is halved, what will be the energy requirement?

A) 100 kWh/ton

B) 70 kWh/ton

C) 200 kWh/ton

D) 25 kWh/ton

Answer: B) 70 kWh/ton
20. Which factor does NOT affect the performance of a size reduction process?

A) Moisture content of the material

B) Temperature of operation

C) Hardness of the material

D) Shape of the feed particles

Answer: B) Temperature of operation

21. If a material is brittle, the most effective size reduction mechanism is:

A) Compression

B) Cutting

C) Impact

D) Attrition

Answer: C) Impact

22. A hammer mill operates at a speed of 1500 rpm with a feed particle size of 10 mm and
produces an output size of 0.2 mm. What is the reduction ratio?

A) 10

B) 20

C) 50

D) 100

Answer: C) 50

23. Select the correctly matched law and its use:

A) Kick’s law – Fine grinding

B) Rittinger’s law – Coarse grinding

C) Bond’s law – Intermediate particle sizes

D) All of the above

Answer: C) Bond’s law – Intermediate particle sizes

24. Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Hammer mill – Grinding brittle materials

B) Jet mill – High-energy consumption

C) Roller crusher – Producing uniform-sized particles

D) Jaw crusher – Ultrafine powder production

Answer: D) Jaw crusher – Ultrafine powder production

25. Which of the following defines screening?

A) Separation of solids by magnetic properties

B) Separation of solids by electrical properties

C) Separation of solid particles by size

D) Separation of liquids from solids

Answer: C) Separation of solid particles by size

26. What does the term "mesh number" indicate?

A) Size of the screen

B) Number of openings per linear inch

C) Thickness of the screen material

D) Weight of particles retained

Answer: B) Number of openings per linear inch

27. Identify the mismatched pair:

A) Undersize – Material passing through the screen

B) Oversize – Material retained on the screen

C) Open area – Total screen area

D) Screening efficiency – Ratio of fines retained

Answer: D) Screening efficiency – Ratio of fines retained

(Correct: Screening efficiency measures separation success)

28. What does the term "screen effectiveness" measure?

A) Total throughput per hour

B) Success in separating oversize and undersize

C) Capacity of the screen material

D) Efficiency of the vibrating mechanism

Answer: B) Success in separating oversize and undersize

29. Identify the correctly matched pair:

A) Cyclone separator – Separation by size and density

B) Jigging – Based on electrical conductivity

C) Froth flotation – Based on differences in density

D) Magnetic separator – Used for hydrophilic materials

Answer: A) Cyclone separator – Separation by size and density

30. What is the principle of froth flotation?

A) Difference in settling velocity

B) Differences in surface properties

C) Magnetic susceptibility differences

D) Density differences

Answer: B) Differences in surface properties

31. Which equipment separates solids from liquids using centrifugal force?

A) Jig

B) Magnetic separator

C) Cyclone separator

D) Froth flotation cell

Answer: C) Cyclone separator

32. Which process involves pulsating liquid to separate solids based on density?

A) Cyclone separation

B) Electrostatic separation

C) Froth flotation

D) Jigging

Answer: D) Jigging

33. Which material is least suitable for froth flotation?

A) Hydrophobic material

B) Hydrophilic material

C) Sulfide ores

D) Organic solids

Answer: B) Hydrophilic material

34. What is the primary force responsible for sedimentation?

A. Centrifugal force

B. Gravitational force

C. Electromagnetic force

D. Vacuum pressure

Answer: B

35. What is a characteristic of hindered settling?

A. Particles do not interact with each other

B. High particle concentration in suspension

C. Settling velocity is unaffected by neighboring particles

D. It occurs at very low particle concentrations

Answer: B
36. Filtration is defined as:

A. The separation of solids from a liquid using gravity

B. The separation of solids from a liquid using a porous medium

C. The separation of gases from liquids

D. None of the above

Answer: B

37. The purpose of a filter aid in filtration is to:

A. Reduce filtration rate

B. Improve flow by preventing clogging of the filter medium

C. Separate immiscible liquids

D. Increase particle settling

Answer: B

38. Filtration rate is directly proportional to:

A. Viscosity of the liquid

B. Thickness of the cake

C. Pressure difference across the filter medium

D. Resistance of the filter medium

Answer: C

39. Which equipment is best suited for handling highly viscous liquids in filtration?

A. Rotary vacuum filter

B. Plate and frame filter press

C. Sand filter

D. Basket centrifuge

Answer: B
40. In a filter press, the pressure is applied to:

A. Reduce the particle size of solids

B. Remove excess liquid from the cake

C. Separate immiscible liquids

D. Increase viscosity of the liquid

Answer: B

41. Which of the following is true for free settling?

A. Occurs in highly concentrated suspensions

B. Particles settle without mutual interference

C. Settling velocity is not affected by particle size

D. Always results in a compact sludge

Answer: B

42. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Rotary drum filter – Continuous filtration

B. Plate and frame filter – Continuous operation

C. Sand filter – High solid concentration

D. Centrifugal filtration – Requires gravity force

Answer: A

43. What is true about constant rate filtration?

A. The filtration rate decreases with time.

B. The driving force decreases over time.

C. The cake resistance remains constant.

D. The filtration rate is unaffected by cake thickness.

Answer: C
44. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Vacuum filter – High-pressure filtration

B. Deep bed filter – Continuous clarification

C. Sand filter – Large particles filtration

D. Plate and frame press – No cake formation

Answer: B

45. In cake filtration, the cake resistance depends on:

A. The type of filter medium.

B. The viscosity of the fluid.

C. The nature of the solid particles.

D. All of the above.

Answer: D

46. Which of the following is an example of deep bed filtration?

A. Using a sand filter for water treatment

B. Separation of sugar crystals in a plate and frame press

C. Removal of oil from water using a membrane filter

D. Clarification of juice using a rotary vacuum filter

Answer: A

47. Correctly matched pairs include:

A. Cake filtration – No driving force

B. Hindered settling – Free movement of particles

C. Plate and frame press – Batch filtration

D. Sand filter – Requires vacuum pressure

Answer: C
48. What is the primary difference between free and hindered settling?

A. The particle size

B. The concentration of particles

C. The density of the liquid

D. The gravitational force acting on particles

Answer: B

49. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

A. Free settling – Particles settle independently

B. Hindered settling – Low solid concentration

C. Terminal settling velocity – Balanced drag and gravity forces

D. Clarification zone – Continuous removal of clear liquid

Answer: B

50. What is the primary role of coagulating agents in sedimentation?

A. To increase the settling velocity of particles

B. To reduce the viscosity of the liquid

C. To prevent the formation of flocs

D. To improve the flow through a filter medium

Answer: A

51. A sedimentation tank processes 1000 m³ of slurry daily. The clarified liquid obtained is 900 m³.
What is the sludge volume percentage?

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 5%

D. 15%

Answer: A (Sludge % = [(Total - Clarified) / Total] × 100 = [(1000 - 900) / 1000] × 100 = 10%).
51. During filtration, a cake of thickness 5 cm builds up on a filter medium. If the porosity of the
cake is 0.4, what fraction of the cake is occupied by solid particles?

A. 0.6

B. 0.4

C. 0.8

D. 0.2

Answer: A (Fraction occupied by solids = 1 - Porosity = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6)

52. In sedimentation, the settling velocity of a particle will decrease if:

A. The liquid density is decreased.

B. The particle size is increased.

C. The viscosity of the liquid is decreased.

D. The particle density is increased.

Answer: A

(Explanation: Lower liquid density reduces the driving force (difference between particle and fluid
density), slowing down settling.)

53. Which statement about vacuum filtration is FALSE?

A. It uses a pressure difference to drive filtration.

B. It is suitable for handling high-viscosity liquids.

C. The filtrate is collected on the low-pressure side.

D. Cake moisture content is higher than in centrifugal filtration.

Answer: B

(Explanation: Vacuum filtration is not effective for high-viscosity liquids because the flow
resistance is significant.)
54. If a sedimentation tank's outlet flow rate is greater than the settling velocity of particles, what
is most likely to occur?

A. Clear liquid will be obtained.

B. Particles will not settle and will be carried out with the effluent.

C. Settling will occur at a faster rate.

D. The system will operate as designed without any issues.

Answer: B

(Explanation: If the outlet flow velocity exceeds the settling velocity, particles cannot settle and
are carried out with the liquid.)

55. Which is NOT a practical aim of mixing?

A. Promoting chemical reactions

B. Separating immiscible fluids

C. Blending miscible liquids

D. Suspending solids in liquids

Answer: B

56. What is the typical size ratio of an impeller diameter to a tank diameter in an agitated vessel?

A. 1:1

B. 1:3

C. 1:5

D. 1:2

Answer: B

57. In an agitated vessel, the primary function of baffles is to:

A. Increase vortex formation

B. Convert swirling into top-to-bottom circulation

C. Reduce turbulence during mixing

D. Generate radial flow currents (Answer: B)

58. Mixing is required in industrial processes for various reasons. Which of the following is NOT
a valid purpose of mixing?

A. Homogenization of liquids with varying viscosities

B. Enhancing heat and mass transfer rates

C. Creating temperature gradients in a fluid system

D. Uniform distribution of suspended particles

Answer: C

(Explanation: Mixing aims to reduce, not create, gradients like temperature or concentration.)

59. Which of the following situations would result in the MOST inefficient mixing?

A. An unbaffled tank with an off-center impeller.

B. A high-viscosity liquid in a tank with a small impeller.

C. A tank with baffles and a high-speed impeller.

D. A low-viscosity liquid mixed using a propeller in a baffled tank.

Answer: B

(Explanation: A small impeller in a high-viscosity liquid provides insufficient mixing action.)

60. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Paddle impeller – Low-shear mixing

B. Marine propeller – High-viscosity fluids

C. Flat-blade turbine – Low-viscosity fluids

D. Helical ribbon – Gas dispersion in liquids

Answer: A

(Explanation: Paddle impellers provide gentle, low-shear mixing for delicate materials.)
61. A tank is equipped with a flat-blade turbine impeller and has a baffled design. Which type of
flow pattern will dominate?

A. Axial flow

B. Radial flow

C. Laminar flow

D. Transitional flow

Answer: B

(Explanation: Flat-blade turbines produce radial flow, which is ideal for gas dispersion and
blending low-viscosity fluids.)

62. Why might a deep vortex in an unbaffled tank cause poor mixing efficiency?

A. It increases turbulence and power consumption.

B. It traps air, reducing the effective volume of the tank.

C. It creates uneven shear forces, damaging the impeller.

D. It prevents top-to-bottom circulation, leading to incomplete mixing.

Answer: D

(Explanation: A deep vortex reduces vertical circulation, causing stratification and incomplete
mixing.)

63. Which of the following would require high-shear mixing equipment?

A. Blending immiscible liquids to form an emulsion

B. Suspending solids in a low-viscosity liquid

C. Dissolving low-molecular-weight polymers

D. Mixing fragile biological cells

Answer: A

(Explanation: Emulsions require high shear to reduce droplet size and stabilize the mixture.)

64. What is the primary difference between tumbling and pressure agglomeration methods?

A. Tumbling relies on chemical bonding, while pressure agglomeration relies on physical

forces.
 B. Tumbling uses rotating drums and a binder, while pressure agglomeration uses high
pressure.

C. Tumbling is suitable for high-density products, while pressure agglomeration is for low-
density products.

D. Tumbling is irreversible, but pressure agglomeration is reversible.

Answer: B

65. In pressure agglomeration, which stage corresponds to significant particle fracture?

A. Bulk Region

B. Densified Region

C. Brittle Region

D. Compacted Region

Answer: C

66. Why is specific surface area important in agglomeration?

A. It determines the cost of the process.

B. It affects the color of the agglomerated product.

C. It influences the strength of the agglomerate structure.

D. It determines the type of binder required.

Answer: C

67. In agglomeration processes, how does particle size distribution influence the choice between
tumbling and pressure agglomeration methods?

A. Tumbling agglomeration is more effective for narrow particle size distributions, while
pressure agglomeration works better for wide distributions.

B. Pressure agglomeration is more suitable for fine particles, whereas tumbling is ideal for
larger particles.

C. Tumbling agglomeration is independent of particle size distribution, while pressure

agglomeration depends on particle size uniformity.

D. Both methods require the same particle size distribution for optimal operation.

Answer: B
(Explanation: Tumbling works better with larger particles because the process depends on rolling
and bridging, while pressure agglomeration can compact fine particles due to applied force).

68. Why does pressure agglomeration often produce agglomerates with lower porosity compared
to tumbling agglomeration?

A. Pressure agglomeration uses chemical binding, which fills the pores between particles.

B. The high compressive forces in pressure agglomeration lead to plastic deformation and
densification.

C. Tumbling agglomeration inherently avoids particle consolidation.

D. Pressure agglomeration relies on high binder content, reducing void space.

Answer: B

(Explanation: The mechanical forces in pressure agglomeration reduce pore space by forcing
particles into close contact, often deforming them plastically.)

69. Which key parameter would you monitor to optimize the rotation speed in tumbling
agglomeration for achieving uniform agglomerate size?

A. The critical speed of the rotating drum

B. The density of the liquid binder

C. The particle moisture content

D. The evaporation rate of the liquid binder

Answer: A

(Explanation: Operating near the critical speed ensures the tumbling action is efficient, promoting
uniform particle interaction and agglomeration.)

70. How does the choice of a chemical binder differ from a liquid binder in terms of long-term
agglomerate stability?

A. Chemical binders ensure reversible bonding, while liquid binders create permanent
bonds.

B. Chemical binders form stronger, irreversible bonds, whereas liquid binders depend on
environmental humidity for stability.

C. Liquid binders perform better under heat, while chemical binders degrade quickly.

D. Both binders behave identically if particle porosity is controlled.

Answer: B

(Explanation: Chemical binders create stable covalent or cross-linked bonds that do not depend on
external conditions, whereas liquid binders may weaken in high-humidity environments.)

71. A tumbling agglomeration drum has a diameter of 2 meters. To optimize the agglomeration
process, the drum's rotation speed is set to 75% of its critical speed. What is the operating speed of
the drum in revolutions per minute (RPM)? (Use g=9.81 m/s2).

A. 9.6 RPM

B. 10.8 RPM

C. 12.0 RPM

D. 13.2 RPM

Answer: A

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