QFT ProblemSheet1Soln
QFT ProblemSheet1Soln
Qu. 1 Solution
Using kg one can solve c = 3.00 ⇥ 108 m s 1
and ~ = 6.63 ⇥ 10 34
kg m2 s 1
m = 4.52 ⇥ 1041 kg 1
s = 1.36 ⇥ 1050 kg 1
and then noting that the volume of 1kg of water is 1m3 , and assume 5 minutes
' 300s to drink a cup of tea, one finds;
kg = 5.63 ⇥ 1035 eV
m = 8.04 ⇥ 105 eV 1
s = 2.41 ⇥ 1014 eV 1
1
Qu. 2 Solution
The ⇤µ ⌫ preserve ⌘µ⌫ so that,
µ µ ⌫
⌘↵ = ( ↵ + ✏v ↵ ) + ✏v ⌫ ⌘µ⌫ + O(✏2 )
µ ⌫ µ ⌫ ⌫ µ
= ↵ ⌘µ⌫ + ✏ ↵v + v ↵ ⌘µ⌫ + O(✏2 )
= ⌘↵ + ✏ v ⌫ ⌘↵⌫ + v µ ↵ ⌘µ + O(✏2 )
= ⌘↵ + ✏ (v↵ + v ↵ ) + O(✏2 )
⇤µ ⌫ = µ
⌫ + ✏v µ ⌫
µ
= ⌫ + ✏⌘ µ↵ v↵⌫
µ
= ⌫ + ✏⌘ µ↵ v[↵⌫]
2
0 1 0 1
chr shr 0 0 chr shr 0 0
B shr chr 0 0 C B +shr chr 0 0 C
= B
@ 0
C·B C
0 1 0 A @ 0 0 1 0 A
0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
0 1
cosh2 r sinh2 r 0 0 0
B 0 cosh r + sinh2 r
2
0 0 C
= B
@
C
0 0 1 0 A
0 0 0 1
0 1
1 0 0 0
B 0 1 0 0 C
= B
@ 0
C=⌘
0 1 0 A
0 0 0 1
⇤µ ⌫ = µ
⌫ + ✏v µ ⌫
we see,
0 1
0 0 0 0
B 0 0 1 0 C
vµ ⌫ = ✓B
@ 0
C
1 0 0 A
0 0 0 0
3
Now consider linearising the boost for small rapidity r, and noting that
cosh r ⇠ 1 + O(r2 ), sinh r ⇠ r + O(r3 ) then,
0 1 0 1
1 r 0 0 0 1 0 0
B r 1 0 0 C B C
⇤boost = B C + O(r2 ) = 1 + r B 1 0 0 0 C + O(r2 )
@ 0 0 1 0 A @ 0 0 0 0 A
0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0
so that,
0 1
0 1 0 0
B 1 0 0 0 C
vµ ⌫ = rB
@ 0
C
0 0 0 A
0 0 0 0
([M↵ , M⇢ ])µ ⌫ = (M ↵ )µ (M ⇢ ) ⌫ (M ⇢ )µ (M ↵ ) ⌫
↵ µ ⇢ ⇢ µ ↵
= (M ) (M ) ⌫ (M ) (M ) ⌫
so,
([M↵ , M⇢ ])µ ⌫ = i ⌘ ↵µ ⌘ ⌘↵ ⌘ µ
i ⇢
⌫
⇢
⌫
i (⌘ ⇢µ ⌘ ⌘⇢ ⌘ µ) i ↵
⌫
↵
⌫
= ⌘ ↵µ ⌘ ⇢
⌘ ↵⇢ ⌘ µ
⌫ + ⌘ ↵µ ⌘ ⌘↵ ⌘ µ ⇢
⌫
4
+ (⌘ ⇢µ ⌘ ↵
⌘ ⇢↵ ⌘ µ ) ⌫ ⌘ ⇢µ ⌘ ⌘⇢ ⌘ µ ↵
⌫
= ⌘ ↵µ ⌘ ⇢ ⌫ + ⌘ ↵⇢ ⌘ µ ⌫ + ⌘ ⌘ ⌫⇢ ⌘ ↵ ⌘ µ ⌫⇢ ↵µ
+⌘ ⇢µ ⌘ ↵ ⌫ ⌘ ⇢↵ ⌘ µ ⌫ ⌘ ⇢µ ⌘ ⌫↵ + ⌘ ⇢ ⌘ µ ↵
⌫
= ⌘ ↵⇢ ⌘ µ ⌫ ⌘ µ ⌫ + ⌘ ↵ ⌘ ⇢µ ⌫ ⌘ µ ⌫⇢
⌘ (⌘ ⇢µ ↵
⌫ ⌘ ↵µ ⌫⇢ ) ⌘ ⇢
(⌘ ↵µ ⌫ ⌘ µ ↵
⌫)
⇣
= i ⌘ ↵⇢ i⌘ µ ⌫ ⌫ ⌘ ↵ i⌘ µ ⇢
⌫
⇢
⌫
⌘
µ ↵ ⇢ ⇢ ↵ ⇢ µ ↵ ↵
+⌘ i⌘ ⌫ ⌫ ⌘ i⌘ ⌫ ⌫
= i ⌘ ↵⇢ (M )µ ⌫ ⌘ ↵ (M ⇢ )µ ⌫ ⌘ ⇢ (M ↵ )µ ⌫ + ⌘ (M ↵⇢ )µ ⌫
1
([Ji , Jj ])µ ⌫ = ✏iab ✏jmn ([Mab , Mmn ])µ ⌫
4
1
= i✏iab ✏jmn ⌘ am (M bn )µ ⌫ ⌘ an (M bm )µ ⌫ ⌘ bm (M an )µ ⌫ + ⌘ bn (M am )µ ⌫
4
1
= i✏iab ✏jmn am (M bn )µ ⌫ an
(M bm )µ ⌫ bm
(M an )µ ⌫ + bn (M am )µ ⌫
4
1
= i ✏iab ✏jan (M bn )µ ⌫ ✏iab ✏jma (M bm )µ ⌫ ✏iab ✏jbn (M an )µ ⌫ + ✏iab ✏jmb (M am )µ ⌫
4
1
= i ✏aib ✏ajn (M bn )µ ⌫ + ✏aib ✏ajm (M bm )µ ⌫ + ✏bia ✏bjn (M an )µ ⌫ + ✏bia ✏bjm (M am )µ ⌫
4
= i✏aib ✏ajn (M bn )µ ⌫
bn µ
= i ( ij bn in bj ) (M ) ⌫
= i(M ji )µ ⌫
= i(M ij )µ ⌫
ij µ
noting that ij (M ) ⌫ = 0 due to antisymmetry of M . But,
5
so we see,
1
([Ji , Jj ])µ ⌫ = i(M ij )µ ⌫ = i✏ijk ✏kab (M ab )µ ⌫
2
= i✏ijk (Jk )µ ⌫
One might think it confusing these have spacetime indices, µ, ⌫, not just
space, but if µ = 0 or ⌫ = 0 these generators are trivial so there is no con-
tradiction.
6
Qu. 3 Solution
and since this must hold for any function we see that,
[Pµ , P⌫ ] = [@µ , @⌫ ] = 0
(ii) Let us do the same for a Lorentz transformation. Then from the last
question,
✓✓ ◆ ◆
1 µ i ↵ µ
f (⇤ x) = f ⌫ + !↵ (M ) ⌫ + . . . x⌫
2
✓ ◆
µ i ↵ µ ⌫
= f x + !↵ (M ) ⌫ x + . . .
2
i
= f (xµ ) + !↵ (M ↵ )µ ⌫ x⌫ @µ f (x) + . . .
2
µ 1
= f (x ) !↵ ⌘ µ⇢ ( ⇢↵ ⌫ ↵ ⌫
⌫ ⇢ )x @µ f (x) + . . .
2
µ i
= f (x ) !↵ ⌘ µ⇢ ( ⇢↵ ⌫ ↵ ⌫
⌫ ⇢ )x ( i)@µ f (x) + . . .
2
µ i
= f (x ) !↵ ( ⇢↵ ⌫ ↵ ⌫ µ⇢
⌫ ⇢ )x ⌘ Pµ f (x) + . . .
2
i
= f (xµ ) !↵ ( ⇢↵ ⌫ ↵ ⌫ ⇢
⌫ ⇢ )x P f (x) + . . .
2
i
= f (xµ ) + !↵ (x↵ P x P ↵ )f (x) + . . .
2
7
by again Taylor expanding, and using (M ↵ )µ ⌫ = i⌘ µ⇢ ( ↵
⇢ ⌫
↵
⌫ ⇢)
from the question above. This should equal
i
f (⇤ 1 x) = f (xµ ) !↵ J ↵ f (x) + . . .
2
so we see,
J↵ = x↵ P x P↵
[J ↵ , J ⇢ ] = [x↵ P x P ↵ , x⇢ P x P ⇢]
= [x↵ P , x⇢ P ] [x↵ P , x P ⇢ ] [x P ↵ , x⇢ P ] + [x P ↵ , x P ⇢ ]
so that,
[x↵ P , x⇢ P ] = i ⌘ ⇢ x↵ P ⌘ ↵ x⇢ P
Then,
[J ↵ , J ⇢ ] = i ⌘ ⇢ x↵ P ⌘ ↵ x⇢ P + i ⌘ x↵ P ⇢ ⌘ ↵⇢ x P
+i ⌘ ⇢↵ x P ⌘ x⇢ P ↵ i ⌘ ↵x P ⇢ ⌘ ⇢x P ↵
= i⌘ ↵⇢ x P x P + i⌘ ⇢
(x P ↵ x↵ P )
+i⌘ ↵ x⇢ P x P⇢ i⌘ (x⇢ P ↵ x↵ P ⇢ )
= i⌘ ↵⇢ J + i⌘ ⇢
(J ↵ ) + i⌘ ↵ J ⇢
i⌘ (J ↵⇢ )
= i ⌘ ↵⇢ J ⌘ ⇢J ↵ ⌘↵ J ⇢
+ ⌘ J ↵⇢
8
Now lets consider;
[P µ , J ↵ ] = P µ J ↵ J↵ P µ
= P µ x↵ P x P ↵ + x↵ P x P↵ Pµ
= P µ x ↵ P + x ↵ P Pµ + Pµ x P ↵ x P ↵ P µ
= (P µ x↵ x↵ P µ ) P + P µ x x Pµ P↵
⇥ ⇤
= [x↵ , P µ ] P x ,Pµ P↵
[xµ , P ⌫ ] = i⌘ µ⌫
and so then,
⇥ ⇤
[P µ , J ↵ ] = [x↵ , P µ ] P x ,Pµ P↵
= i ⌘ µ↵ P ⌘µ P ↵
so that,
1 ⇣ ⌘
1
Û (⇤)P̂ µ Û (⇤) = P̂ µ + !↵ ⌘ µ↵ P̂ ⌘ µ P̂ ↵ + . . .
2
9
1
= P̂ µ + !↵ ⌘ ↵µ ⌫ ⌘ µ ⌫↵ P̂ ⌫ + . . .
2
i
= P̂ µ !↵ (M ↵ )µ ⌫ P̂ ⌫ + . . .
✓ 2 ◆
µ i
= ⌫ !↵ (M ) ⌫ + . . . P̂ ⌫
↵ µ
2
10
Qu. 4 Solution
1
(i) Firstly from Û (a)x̂i Û (a) = x̂i + ai we have,
Û (a)|xj i = |xj + aj i
11
which indeed gives the RHS for n = 1. Assume for induction the
statement holds for n. Then consider;
⇥ i j n+1 ⇤ ⇥ ⇤
x̂ , (a p̂j ) = x̂i , (aj p̂j )n (aj p̂j )
⇥ ⇤ ⇥ ⇤
= x̂i , (aj p̂j )n (aj p̂j ) + (aj p̂j )n x̂i , (aj p̂j )
= inai (aj p̂j )n 1 (aj p̂j ) + iai (aj p̂j )n
= i(n + 1)ai (aj p̂j )n
using [A, BC] = [A, B]C + B[A, C], and hence the statement holds also
for (n + 1). Thus by induction it is true for all n 1.
So then,
h i X ( i)n
i ip̂j aj i
x̂ , e = x̂ , (p̂j aj )n
n=0
n!
X ( i)n ⇥ ⇤
= x̂i , (p̂j aj )n
n=0
n!
X ( i)n X ( 1)n 1
ip̂j aj
= inai (aj p̂j )n 1
= ai (aj p̂j )n 1
= ai e
n=0
n! n=0
(n 1)!
so that,
1 j ip̂j aj
Û (a)x̂i Û (a) = e+ip̂j a x̂i e
j ip̂j aj j ip̂j aj
= e+ip̂j a [x̂i , e ] + e+ip̂j a e x̂i
j ip̂j aj
= e+ip̂j a (ai e ) + x̂i
= x̂i + ai
12
Qu. 5 Solution
so then,
Now consider,
k k
U (R) 1 x̂i U (R) = ein L̂k x̂i e in L̂k
= x̂i ink [x̂i , L̂k ] + . . .
13
(iii) Let us check the commutator;
h i
L̂i , L̂j = ✏iab bm ✏jcd dn [x̂a p̂m , x̂c p̂n ]
= ✏iab bm ✏jcd dn
(x̂a p̂m x̂c p̂n x̂c p̂n x̂a p̂m )
= ✏iab bm ✏jcd dn
(x̂a [p̂m , x̂c ]p̂n x̂a x̂c p̂m p̂n x̂c [p̂n , x̂a ]p̂m + x̂c x̂a p̂n p̂m )
= ✏iab bm ✏jcd dn
( x̂a [x̂c , p̂m ]p̂n + x̂c [x̂a , p̂n ]p̂m x̂a x̂c p̂m p̂n + x̂a x̂c p̂m p̂n )
= ✏iab bm ✏jcd dn
( ix̂a m c
p̂n + ix̂c na p̂m )
bc dn a
= i✏iab ✏jcd x̂ p̂n + bm ad x̂c p̂m
bc dn a ad bm c
= i + ✏bia ✏cjd x̂ p̂n ✏aib ✏djc x̂ p̂m
dn a bm c
= i ( ij ad id aj ) x̂ p̂n ( ij bc ic bj ) x̂ p̂m
bn a
= i ib aj x̂ p̂n + ia bj bn x̂a p̂n
bn a
= i ( ia bj ib aj ) x̂ p̂n
km bn a
= i ✏kij ✏mab x̂ p̂n
= i km ✏kij L̂m = i✏ijk L̂k
14
Qu. 6 Solution
(ii) Consider,
†
N̂ † = ↠â = (â)† (↠)† = ↠â = N̂
Then,
and similarly,
(iii) So,
Hence we must have ↠|ni = k|n + 1i for some (complex) constant k,
since it is an eigenstate of N̂ with eigenvalue (n + 1). To determine k
we just consider the normalization,
✓ ◆† ✓ ◆
1 † 1 †
1 = hn + 1|n + 1i = â |ni â |ni
k k
1
= hn|â↠|ni
|k|2
15
1 1
= 2
hn|[â, ↠]|ni + 2 hn|↠â|ni
|k| |k|
1 1
= 2
hn|1̂|ni + 2 hn|N̂ |ni
|k| |k|
1 1
= hn|ni + 2 nhn|ni
|k|2 |k|
1
= (1 + n)
|k|2
so that,
p
k =↵ n+1
Likewise,
16
where |↵0 | = 1 is again a complex phase, giving,
p
â|ni = ↵0 n|n 1i
p
(iv) Taking |0i then using the previous answer, â|ni = ↵0 n|n 1i,
p
â|0i = ↵0 0| 1i = 0 ⇥ | 1i = 0
p
Now using ↠|ni = ↵ n + 1|n + 1i and choosing ↵ = 1 and relabeling
n ! n 1,
1
|ni = p ↠|n 1i
n
and so,
(v) Consider an eigenstate |ni so that N̂ |ni = n|ni, but n is not necessarily
integer so we can’t just use the form above. Then,
n = (hn|↠)(â|ni) = h | i 0
using the fact that the Hilbert space norm is positive definite.
Let us show n must be an integer. Suppose for contradiction there
p exists
0
a state with positive but non-integer n. Then using â|ni = ↵ n|n 1i,
we could lower the excitation number as,
p p p
âp |ni = (↵0 )p n ⇥ n 1 ⇥ . . . ⇥ n p + 1|n pi
p p
wherepwhat ever we choose for p we note the factors n ⇥ n 1 ⇥
. . . ⇥ n p + 1 are all non-zero (since n was not integer). Then tak-
ing p > n we conclude that âp |ni is proportional to a state |n pi of
17
negative excitations numbers (n p) < 0. But these cannot exist as
we have just shown and hence this is a contradiction.
18
Qu. 7 Solution
19