Ch 1 : Introduction, Temperature & Pressure Measurement

1) In a measurement system, a transducer serves to _____________

a) codify input signal b) indicate the measurement
c) amplify & transmit the measurand d) convert input signal from one form to another

2) Intermediate stage of an instrument is used to _________________

a) sense primary signal b) condition & transmit the signal
c) give a record or indication d) covert the signal form

3) Output stage of a measurement system comprises of _____________

a) detector – transducer b) transmission element
c) indicating or recording element d) manipulating element

4) Measurement of speed of a rotating shaft by an electric tachometer is a ___________

a) primary measurement b) non-contact type measurement
c) secondary measurement d) tertiary measurement

5) Which of the following is a self generating type instrument?

a) piezo-electric pickup b) thermistor
c) potentiometer d) LVDT

6) Which of the following is externally powered type instrument?

a) spring balance b) centrifugal tachometer c) thermocouple d) photo-emissive cell

7) Closeness of output to the true value of measurand is called _________

a) accuracy b) sesitivity c) precision d) constancy

8) The least change in the measured variable which can be detected at the output of an instrument is __
a) sensitivity b) least count c) tolerance d) dead zone

9) Resolution of a system refers to ___________

a) difference between the true value and the indicated value of the input
b) retardation of the response
c) smallest change in the measurand that can be measured
d) range of inaccuracy which can be tolerated

10) The ratio of output to input change for a given measuring system is known as __________
a) sensitivity b) linearity c) stability d) fidelity

11) A flow meter with a range of 0-200 m3/s has accuracy of +- 0.75% above 25% of scale reading. If the
instrument indicates 160 m3/s , static error will be ___________
a) +- 1.5 m3/s b) +- 1.2 m3/s c) +- 0.75 m3/s d) +- 0.3 m3/s

12) Minimum value of input necessary to cause a detectable change from zero output is called ________
a) least count b) resolution c) threshold d) drift

13) The largest change in the measurand which produces no instrument response is called ________
a) dead zone b) dynamic error c) fidelity d) threshold
14) Ability of an instrument to reproduce output in the same form as input is called ______
a) accuracy b) fidelity c) sensitivity d) precision

15) Maximum distance by which the pointer of an instrument moves beyond the steady state is called ___
a) threshold b) resolution c) overshoot d) dead band

16) Ability of an instrument to reproduce same readings when time intervals between readings are large
is known as ____________
a) reproducibility b) repeatability c) stability d) constancy

17) Spring of a transducer deflects 0.04 mm when subjected to a force of 8 KN. Find the sesitivity.
a) 0.005 mm/KN b) 200 KN/mm c) 0.32 mm/KN d) 0.05 mm/KN

18) Which of the following is a widely used thermometric liquid?

a) glycerin b) water c) mercury d) alcohol

19) In a thermocouple, emf generated is mainly due to ____________

a) Peltier effect b) Thompson effect c) Joule effect d) Seebeck effect

20) Unit of thermoelectric power is _____________

a) mV/˚C b) ˚C / mV c) mA /˚C d) ˚C / m

21) Which of the following metals is preferred in a resistance-thermometer employed for measuring
temperature in the range -200˚C 1000˚C?
a) Platinum b) Copper c) Nickel d) Tungston

22) A dead weight pressure gauge is used for ___________

a) producing high pressures b) accurate load measurement
c) checking magnitude of given weight d) calibrating mechanical pressure gauges

23) Thermistors are _______________

a) bi-metallic stripes used in thermometers
b) semiconductors with negative coefficient of resistance
c) metals with positive coefficient of resistance
d) nonmetallic transducers

24) Which thermocouple type is usually preferred in the cryogenic range?

a) J type b) K type c) T type d) S type

25) Sensitivity is higher for _______________ thermocouples.

a) noble metal b) base metal c) refractory d) semiconductor

26) Unit of thermoelectric power is _____________

a) mV/˚C b) ˚C / mV c) mA /˚C d) ˚C / mA

27) Which thermocouple type is usually preferred in the cryogenic range?

a) J type b) K type c) T type d) S type
28) Sensitivity is higher for _______________ thermocouples.
a) noble metal b) base metal c) refractory d) semiconductor

29) Which condition is essential in the operation of Mcleod gauge?

a) isobaric b) adiabatic c) isothermal d) isochoric

30) Which of the following metals is preferred in a resistance-thermometer employed for measuring
temperature in the range -200˚C 1000˚C?
a) Platinum b) Copper c) Nickel d) Tungston

31) Thermistors are _______________

a) bi-metallic stripes used in thermometers
b) semiconductors with negative coefficient of resistance
c) metals with positive coefficient of resistance
d) nonmetallic transducers

32) A dead weight pressure gauge is used for ___________

a) producing high pressures b) accurate load measurement
c) checking magnitude of given weight d) calibrating mechanical pressure gauges

33) Which of the following has positive temperature coefficient of resistance?

a) thermocouple b) thermistor c) RTD d) thermometer

34) Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient of resistance?

a) thermocouple b) thermistor c) RTD d) thermometer

34) For a thermistor, resistance-temperature relationship is ___________

a) linear b) quadratic c) cubic d) exponential

35) For a resistance thermometer, resistance-temperature relationship is ___________

a) linear b) quadratic c) cubic d) exponential
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 Ch 2 : Measurement of displacement, speed and flow

1) In _________ , a transformer is used.

a) potentiometer b) LVDT c) tachometer d) turbine meter

2) LVDT stands for ____________

a) Linear Variable Differential Transducer b) Lateral Variable Direct Transducer
c) Linear Variable Differential Tachometer d) Linear Variable Differential Transformer

3) A permanent magnet is used in __________ tachometer.

a) inductive pickup b) capacitive pickup c) mechanical d) photoelectric pickup

4) A PV cell is used in ___________ tachometer.

a) inductive pickup b) capacitive pickup c) mechanical d) photoelectric pickup

5) A flashing light source is used in ___________

a) photoelectric pickup b) capacitive pickup c) stroboscope d) inductive pickup

6) Which of the following is a contactless instrument?

a) stroboscope b) capacitive pickup c) inductive pickup d) photoelectric pickup

7) If speed of flashing light is twice the rotational speed of a shaft, which of the conditions is correct?
a) fr = 2 ff b) ff = 2 fr c) ff = fr d) ff = 1/2 fr

8) If speed of flashing light is thrice the rotational speed of a shaft, we observe ____________
a) two stationary images separated by 180˚ b) three stationary images separated by 120˚
c) a single stationary image d) three stationary images separated by 60˚

9) If we observe four stationary images of a mark on a rotating shaft, ___________

a) fr = 1/4 ff b) fr = 4 ff c) fr = (ff)4 d) ff = (fr)4

10) ___________ must be mounted vertically to use.

a) turbine meter b) gas flow meter c) rotameter d) anemometer

11) Principle of RTD is used in case of ____________ to measure flow rate.

a) turbine meter b) rotameter c) hot wire anemometer d) gas flow meter

12) A Platinum sensor is an essential part of _____________

a) turbine meter b) hot wire anemometer c) gas flow meter d) rotameter

13) Which of the following is a quantity meter?

a) rotameter b) gas flow meter c) turbine meter d) domestic water meter

14) ___________ is an example of constant head, variable area meter.

a) orifice meter b) venturi meter c) rotameter d) pitot tube

15) In a rotameter, density of float must be ___________ density of liquid.

a) less than b) equal to c) half the d) more than

16) The tube of a rotameter ___________

a) tapers in upward direction b) tapers in downward direction
c) tapers in horizontal direction d) is of uniform cross-section
17) Hot wire anemometer is a variable ___________ transducer.
a) resistance b) inductance c) capacitance d) frequency

18) Tachometers are used to measure ___________

a) displacement b) linear velocity c) angular velocity d) vibration

19) The average speed measurements are given by ___________

a) centrifugal tachometer b) drag cup tachometer
c) stroboscope d) revolution counter & timer

20) Change in resistance of a wire by positioning of a slider is used in __________

a) LVDT b) electric tachometer c) potentiometer d) turbine meter
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 Ch3:Measurement of Force, Torque

1)A prony Brake dynamometer measures the _______.

a) Crank shaft force b) Crank shaft torquec) Engine Brake Power d) Power input of Pump

2) The relation between motion &force provided by laws of Dynamics is ____________.

α ma
a) fα b) f α(1/ma)c) f α(m-a) d) f α (m+a)

3) Newton’s second law of motion states that force is proportional to ______________.

a) Rate of change of momentum b) Area c) Volumed) None of these

4) In Proving ring amount of ring deflection is measured by

a) Bore Gauge b) Venire Caliperc) Micrometer d) None of these

5) The Hydraulic load Cell is used to measure load up to

a) 25 MN b) 250 MN c) 2.5MN d) 0.5 MN

6)The Hydraulic load Cell is used to measure load up to

a) 25 KN b) 2500 KN c) 2.5 KN d) 0.5 KN

7) The Stroboscope is used in _____________ torsion Meter.

a) Optical b) Electrical c) Mechanical d) None of these

8)The whetstone Bridge circuit is used in _____________ torsion Meter.

a) Optical b) Electrical c) Strain gauge d) None of these

9) The Eddy current dynamometer is Suitable up to the speed range of

a) 600rpm b) 60rpm c) 6000rpm d) 6 rpm

10) The Rope & Band Brake dynamometer is Suitable up to the speed range of
a) 400rpm b) 40rpm c) 4000rpm d) 4 rpm

11) The Rope & Band Brake dynamometer may be used for the range of
a) 75 to 36800W b) 50 to 100KW c) 75 to 36800KW d) 100 to 200 W

12) The strain gauge converts Mechanical displacement in to change in _____________

a) Inductance b)Resistance c) Capacitance d) None of these

13) The gauge factor of strain gauge defines

∆ ∆ /
a) = ∆R b) = c) = d) =
∆ ∆/

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Ch. 4 : Fundamentals of Automatic Control, Representation of Control Components,
Modes of Control and Block Diagram Algebra

1. Traffic signals used for controlling the traffic across cross roads is __________
a) closed loop control system b) manual control system c) open loop control system
d) none of these

2. A person driving a car and required to maintain speed of the car at 60 km/hr is an example of _______
a) open loop system b) closed loop system c) automatic control system d) discrete control system

3. A refrigerator is an example of closed loop control system.

a) True b) false

4. In robot control, microprocessor and encoders are present.

a) True b) false

5. Automatic washing machine is an example of _________

a) closed loop system b) open loop system c) analog system d) none of these

6. The output of a feedback control system should be a function of _________

a) reference input b) reference input & feedback signal c) feedback signal d) none of these

7. Feedback control system is_________

a) open loop b) closed loop c) semi-open d) none

8. Manual control system is most often __________

a) closed loop system b) open loop system c) hybrid system d) none of these

9. In a feedback control system, control elements are actuated by _________

a) input only b) error signal c) feedback signal d) output only

10. Liquid level control in an overhead tank with a float is an example of _________
a) automatic control system b) manual control system c) hybrid system d) none of these

11. A comparator is an essential feature of ___________

a) manual system b) open loop system c) any system d) feedback control system

12. In block diagram algebra, series blocks are______________

a) added b) integrated c) multiplied d) subtracted

13. In block diagram algebra, closed loop transfer function is ______________

a) R(S)/C(S) b) C(S)/E(S) c) C(S)/R(S) d) E(S)/C(S)

14. The closed loop transfer function for a system with positive feedback is given by________
G(S) G(S) H(S) H(S)
a) ---------------- b) ---------------- c) ---------------- d) ----------------
1+G(S)H(S) 1-G(S)H(S) 1+G(S)H(S) 1-G(S)H(S)
 15. The closed loop transfer function for a system with negative feedback is given by________
G(S) G(S) H(S) H(S)
a) ---------------- b) ---------------- c) ---------------- d) ----------------
1+G(S)H(S) 1-G(S)H(S) 1+G(S)H(S) 1-G(S)H(S)

16. In block diagram algebra, parallel blocks are______________

a) divided b) integrated c) multiplied d) added or subtracted

17. While shifting a summing point to RHS of a block, we have to_______________

a) add the same block b) divide by same block
c) subtract same block d) multiply by same block

18. While shifting a take-off point to LHS of a block, we have to_______________

a) add the same block b) divide by same block
c) subtract same block d) multiply by same block

19. In block diagram algebra, open loop transfer function is the ratio of ______________
a) output to input b) feedback signal to error signal
c) controlled variable to error signal d) controlled variable to feedback signal

20. In block diagram algebra, closed loop transfer function is the ratio of ______________
a) output to input b) feedback signal to error signal
c) controlled variable to error signal d) controlled variable to feedback signal

21. Derivative Time is given by ____________

a) Kd / Kp b) Kp / Kd c) Kd / Ki d) Ki / Kd

22. Integral Time is given by ____________

a) Kp / Ki b) Kp / Kd c) Kd / Kp d) Ki / Kp

23. Reset Control action is _____________

a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action

24. Universal controller means ___________

a) P+I+D controller b) P+I controller c) P+D controller d) ON-OFF controller

25. Which of the following cannot be used alone ?

a) P – action b) D – action c) I – action d) none of these

26. Offset Error is the drawback of __________

a) I-Control b) D-Control c) P-Control d) ON/OFF Control

27. _________ control action is preferred in the transient state of the system.
a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action
28. _________ control action is preferred in the steady state of the system.
a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action

29. Which of the following actions gives a rapid response by the system?
a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action

30. Which of the following actions gives a sluggish response by the system?
a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action

31. Which of the following actions eliminates the offset error ?

a) P - action b) D- actionc) ON/OFF action d) I – action

32. Which of the following controllers is the most expensive ?

a) P+I+D controller b) P+I controller c) P+D controller d) ON-OFF controller

33. Which of the following controllers has the least initial cost ?
a) P - controller b) I - controller c) D - controller d) ON-OFF controller

34. If error is constant, _______ action gives a constant output.

a) P - action b) D- actionc) ON/OFF action d) I – action

35. If error is constant, _______ action gives zero output.

a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action

36. In a graph of P+I controller, point of intersection indicates where __________

a) mp = mi b) mp = 0 c) mi = 0 d) md = 0

37. In a graph of P+D controller, X-coordinate of the point of intersection indicates __________
a) proportional time b) derivative time c) integral time d) ON/OFF time

38. Which of the following actions gives the best control ?

a) P+I controller b) P+I+D controller c) P+D controller d) ON-OFF controller

39. Which of the following actions eliminates the sluggish response?

a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action

40. For a resistor, impedance is given by ____________

a) RD b) R c) 1/RD d) RD2

41. For a inductor, impedance is given by ____________

a) LD b) L c) 1/LD d) LD2

42. For a viscous damper, mechanical impedance is given by ____________

a) BD b) B c) BD2 d) 1/BD
43. For a mass M, mechanical impedance is given by ____________
a) MD b) M c) MD2 d) 1/MD

44. In a series mechanical system, which of the following is true?

a) force acting on each element is the same b) displacement of each element is the same
c) velocity of each element is the same d) impedance of each element is the same

45. In a graph of P+I controller, X-coordinate of the point of intersection indicates __________
a) proportional time b) derivative time c) integral time d) ON/OFF time

46. If error linearly varies with time, _______ action gives the output proportional to time.
a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action

47. In a graph of P+I controller, point of intersection indicates where __________

a) mp = mi b) mp = 0 c) mi = 0 d) md = 0

48. In a graph of P+D controller, point of intersection indicates where __________

a) mp = 0 b) md = 0 c) mi = 0 d) mp = md

49. In a graph of P+I controller, X-coordinate of the point of intersection indicates __________
a) proportional time b) derivative time c) integral time d) ON/OFF time

50. In a graph of P+D controller, X-coordinate of the point of intersection indicates __________
a) proportional time b) derivative time c) integral time d) ON/OFF time

51. Which of the following actions gives the best control ?

a) P+I controller b) P+I+D controller c) P+D controller d) ON-OFF controller

52. Which of the following actions eliminates the sluggish response?

a) P - action b) D- action c) ON/OFF action d) I – action
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 Ch 5 : Root Locus Method

1) ‘Centroid’ of asymptotes is a point which_____________

a) may be real or complex b) is real but may or may not lie on the root locus
c) is real and always lies on the root locus d) is always imaginary

2) A root locus is always____________

a) symmetric about the real axis b) symmetric about the imaginary axis
c) symmetric about the origin d) in the left half plane

3) A root locus has any branches originating from infinity when_____________

a) P = Z b) P > Z c) Z > P d) Z = 0

4) Angles of departure are needed in a root locus if a system has ___________

a) real poles b) real zeros c) complex conjugate poles d) complex conjugate zeros

5) A root locus has any branches approaching infinity when_____________

a) P = Z b) P > Z c) Z > P d) Z = 0

6) Angles of arrival are needed in a root locus if a system has ___________

a) real poles b) real zeros c) complex conjugate poles d) complex conjugate zeros

7) A root locus is finite when_____________

a) P > Z b) P = Z c) Z > P d) Z = 0

8) Angle condition in R.L. decides _____________

a) the value of K for a point on R.L.
b) the stability of the system
c) point of intersection of R.L. with the imaginary axis.
d) the existence of any point on the R.L.

9) Magnitude Condition in R.L. decides _______________

a) the value of K for a point on R.L.
b) the stability of the system
c) point of intersection of R.L. with the imaginary axis.
d) the existence of any point on the R.L.

10) As per angle condition, a point is on R.L. if the angle of G(S)H(S) is _________ (q = 0,1,2…..)
a) +_ (q+1)180˚ b) +_ (q-1)180˚ c) +_ (2q+1)180˚ d) +_ (2q+1)90˚

11) For a given point on R.L. magnitude condition is ___________

a) lG(S)H(S)l = 1 b) lG(S)H(S)l = 180˚ c) lG(S)H(S)l = 0 d) lG(S)H(S)l = 90˚
12) A point on the real axis is on the R.L. if the total number of real poles & zeros __________
a) to the right side of this point is even.
b) to the left side of this point is even.
c) to the left side of this point is odd.
d) to the right side of this point is odd.

13) Which of the following is not true regarding the real break-away points in R.L.?
a) There is a minimum one break-away point between two consecutive real poles if the
section of the real axis between them is on the R.L.
b) There is a minimum one break-away point between two consecutive real zeros if the
section of the real axis between them is on the R.L.
c) There is a minimum one break-away point beyond the zero on the extreme right on the
real axis if the real axis beyond this zero is on the R.L.
d) There is a minimum one break-away point beyond the pole on the extreme right on
the real axis if the real axis beyond this zero is on the R.L.

14) The part of R.L. in the left half plane represents the __________________ system.
a) unstable b) marginally stable c) stable d) oscillatory

15) The part of R.L. in the right half plane represents the __________________ system.
a) unstable b) marginally stable c) stable d) oscillatory
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 Ch 6 : Bode Plots

1) ‘Phase Margin’ is always calculated at _______________

a) corner frequency b) phase cross-over frequency
c) gain cross-over frequency c) highest magnitude

2) The frequency at which the magnitude of closed loop response drops by 3 db from its
zero frequency value is known as______________
a) gain cross-over frequency b) cut-off frequency
c) corner frequency d) phase cross-over frequency

3) For an unstable system________________

a) G.M. & P.M. are zero b) G.M. & P.M. are positive
c) G.M. & P.M. are infinity d) G.M. & P.M. are negative

4) ‘Gain Margin’ is always calculated at _______________

a) gain cross-over frequency b) resonant frequency
c) corner frequency d) phase cross-over frequency

5) For a marginally stable system, ________________

a) G.M. & P.M. are positive b) G.M. & P.M. are zero
c) G.M. & P.M. are infinity d) G.M. & P.M. are negative

6) For a stable system, ________________

a) G.M. & P.M. are positive b) G.M. & P.M. are zero
c) G.M. & P.M. are infinity d) G.M. & P.M. are negative

7) In Bode Plots, magnitude in decibel is given by _______________

a) – 20 log G(jω)H(jω) b) 10 log G(jω)H(jω)
c) – 10 log G(jω)H(jω) d) 20 log G(jω)H(jω)

8) At the phase cross-over frequency, the phase angle is

a) -900 b) 900 c) -1800 d) 1800

9) If a system has two zeros at the origin, its Magnitude Plot will have a starting slope of __________
a)-20 db/decade b) - 40 db/decade c) 20 db/decade d) 40 db/decade

10) If a system has two poles at the origin, its Magnitude Plot will have a starting slope of __________
a)-20 db/decade b) - 40 db/decade c) 20 db/decade d) 40 db/decade

11) Every simple pole contributes which of the following slope to magnitude plot?
a) 20 db/decade b) 40 db/decade c) -20 db/decade d) -40 db/decade

12) Every simple zero contributes which of the following slope to magnitude plot?
a) 20 db/decade b) 40 db/decade c) -20 db/decade d) -40 db/decade
13) If a system has two zeros at the origin, then the phase angle contribution by them is ____
a) 180° b) -180° c) -90° d) 90°

14) If a system has two poles at the origin, then the phase angle contribution by them is ____
a) 180° b) -180° c) -90° d) 90°

15) In Bode plots, constant gain factor K contributes a slope of __________

a) -20 db/decade b) zero c) 20 db/decade d) -40 db/decade

16) In ‘magnitude plot’ of Bode plots the slope changes at __________

a) the point of zero magnitude b) gain crossover frequency
c) every corner frequency d) phase crossover frequency

17) The initial slope of Bode plot for a system with a single pole at the origin is __________
a) 20 db/dec b) -40 db/dec c) 40 db/dec d) -20 db/dec

18) The initial slope of Bode plot for a system with a single zero at the origin is __________
a) 20 db/dec b) -40 db/dec c) 40 db/dec d) -20 db/dec

19) If a system has P poles at the origin, then the phase angle contribution by them is ____
a) 180° P b) -180° P c) -90°P d) 90°P

20) If a system has P zeros at the origin, then the phase angle contribution by them is ____
a) 180° P b) -180° P c) -90°P d) 90°P
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