OPERATING SYSTEM MCQ

BCA-3rd YEAR

UNIT-1

1. What is the primary function of an operating system?

a) To provide a user interface
b) To manage hardware resources
c) To execute application programs
d) All of the above

2. Which of the following is not a type of operating system?

a) Batch operating system
b) Network operating system
c) Database operating system
d) Real-time operating system

3. In a simple batch system, what happens while the current job is executing?
a) The CPU remains idle
b) The next job is prepared
c) Multiple jobs run simultaneously
d) The system waits for user input

4. Which characteristic best describes multiprogramming?

a) Multiple CPUs executing jobs
b) Multiple users sharing the system
c) Multiple programs in memory at once
d) Multiple input devices being used

5. Time-sharing systems were developed to provide:

a) Better CPU utilization
b) Interactive user experience
c) Batch processing capabilities
d) Real-time processing

6. What is the minimum number of processes that exists in a modern operating system?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

7. Which system would be most suitable for a bank's transaction processing?

a) Batch system
 b) Real-time system
c) Time-sharing system
d) Personal computer system

8. In parallel systems, processors typically share:

a) Clock
b) Memory
c) Both clock and memory
d) Neither clock nor memory

9. Distributed systems are characterized by:

a) Multiple processors in one computer
b) Multiple computers sharing resources
c) Single processor handling multiple tasks
d) Single computer with multiple terminals

10. What is the key advantage of real-time systems?

a) High throughput
b) Guaranteed response time
c) Resource sharing
d) User friendliness

## Memory Organization

11. Fixed partition memory allocation:

a) Causes internal fragmentation
b) Causes external fragmentation
c) Causes both types of fragmentation
d) Causes no fragmentation

12. The problem of external fragmentation can be solved by:

a) Compaction
b) Segmentation
c) Paging
d) All of the above

13. Variable partition scheme is also known as:

a) Dynamic partition
b) Static partition
c) Fixed partition
d) None of the above

14. Which memory allocation strategy typically has the highest memory utilization?
a) First fit
b) Best fit
c) Worst fit
 d) Next fit

15. In fixed partitioning, if a program is smaller than the partition size:

a) External fragmentation occurs
b) Internal fragmentation occurs
c) Both types of fragmentation occur
d) No fragmentation occurs

## Memory Management

16. What is the purpose of the Memory Management Unit (MMU)?

a) To increase memory size
b) To translate logical to physical addresses
c) To compress memory
d) To allocate memory

17. Logical addresses are:

a) Generated by the CPU
b) Same as physical addresses
c) Visible to the user
d) Used by the I/O devices

18. Swapping is:

a) Moving a process from disk to memory
b) Moving a process between memory and disk
c) Moving data between registers
d) Moving data between caches

19. The minimum size of a swap space should be:

a) Equal to the size of RAM
b) Twice the size of RAM
c) Half the size of RAM
d) Four times the size of RAM

20. Contiguous memory allocation requires:

a) Process to be divided into pages
b) Process to be loaded in consecutive memory locations
c) Process to be divided into segments
d) None of the above

21. Paging helps to:

a) Reduce internal fragmentation
b) Reduce external fragmentation
c) Eliminate both types of fragmentation
d) Eliminate external fragmentation only
22. In paging, the physical address is divided into:
a) Page number and offset
b) Frame number and offset
c) Segment number and offset
d) Block number and offset

23. Segmentation is a memory management scheme that:

a) Supports user view of memory
b) Reduces fragmentation
c) Improves memory utilization
d) All of the above

24. The main advantage of segmentation over paging is:

a) No internal fragmentation
b) No external fragmentation
c) Support for modularity
d) Easier implementation

25. A page table is used to:

a) Store page numbers
b) Map logical pages to physical frames
c) Store frame numbers
d) Map physical frames to logical pages

## Virtual Memory

26. Virtual memory is implemented using:

a) Segmentation
b) Paging
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

27. Demand paging means:

a) Pages are brought into memory when requested
b) All pages are loaded at once
c) Pages are never loaded into memory
d) Pages are swapped continuously

28. A page fault occurs when:

a) Page is corrupted
b) Page is not in memory
c) Page table is full
d) Memory is full

29. The valid-invalid bit in a page table entry indicates:

a) Whether the page is corrupted
 b) Whether the page is in memory
c) Whether the page is on disk
d) Whether the page exists

30. Which page replacement algorithm suffers from Belady's anomaly?

a) FIFO
b) LRU
c) Optimal
d) MRU

31. The optimal page replacement algorithm:

a) Is practically implementable
b) Is used as a benchmark
c) Causes maximum page faults
d) Is easiest to implement

32. LRU page replacement algorithm:

a) Uses a counter
b) Uses a stack
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

33. Page replacement algorithms try to:

a) Minimize page faults
b) Maximize page faults
c) Keep memory empty
d) Keep disk empty

34. Thrashing occurs when:

a) CPU utilization is high
b) Paging activity is high
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

35. To prevent thrashing, we can:

a) Increase the degree of multiprogramming
b) Decrease the degree of multiprogramming
c) Increase page size
d) Decrease page size

36. The working set of a process is:

a) All pages in memory
b) All pages on disk
c) Pages actively used by the process
d) Pages never used by the process
37. Local page replacement means:
a) Pages are replaced within same process
b) Pages are replaced across processes
c) No pages are replaced
d) All pages are replaced

38. Frame allocation algorithms determine:

a) How many frames to allocate to each process
b) Which frames to allocate
c) When to allocate frames
d) Where to store frames

39. The copy-on-write technique is used to:

a) Save memory
b) Improve security
c) Increase speed
d) Reduce page faults

40. Page size is typically:

a) Fixed by hardware
b) Variable
c) Determined by OS
d) Determined by user

## Advanced Concepts

41. Which of these is not a page replacement algorithm?

a) FIFO
b) LRU
c) Round Robin
d) Second Chance

42. A translation lookaside buffer (TLB) is used to:

a) Speed up virtual-to-physical address translation
b) Store frequently used data
c) Manage disk space
d) Handle page faults

43. The principle of locality states that:

a) Programs access memory randomly
b) Programs tend to reuse recently accessed items
c) Programs only use sequential memory
d) Programs don't reuse memory

44. In a pure demand paging system:

a) No pages are loaded initially
 b) All pages are loaded initially
c) Only system pages are loaded
d) Only user pages are loaded

45. The page fault rate is:

a) Number of page faults per second
b) Number of pages in memory
c) Number of free frames
d) Number of processes in memory

46. Which of these affects page fault frequency?

a) Page size
b) Number of frames
c) Replacement algorithm
d) All of the above

47. In segmentation with paging:

a) Segments are divided into pages
b) Pages are divided into segments
c) Neither exists
d) Both exist independently

48. The inverted page table:

a) Increases memory usage
b) Decreases memory usage
c) Has no effect on memory usage
d) Eliminates the need for memory

49. Memory mapping is used to:

a) Map files into virtual memory
b) Map virtual memory to physical memory
c) Map physical memory to disk
d) Map disk to physical memory

50. What is the primary purpose of demand paging?

a) To increase CPU utilization
b) To decrease memory usage
c) To run programs larger than physical memory
d) To improve I/O performance

51. Which of these is true about pure segmentation?

a) No external fragmentation
b) No internal fragmentation
c) Both types of fragmentation
d) Neither type of fragmentation
52. The dirty bit in a page table entry indicates:
a) The page is corrupted
b) The page has been modified
c) The page is invalid
d) The page is not in use

53. Page tables are usually stored in:

a) Registers
b) Cache
c) Main memory
d) Disk

54. The replacement scope in page replacement refers to:

a) Which pages can be replaced
b) When pages can be replaced
c) How pages are replaced
d) Why pages are replaced

55. In buddy system allocation:

a) Memory blocks are split in half
b) Memory blocks are combined
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

56. Virtual memory allows:

a) Programs to be larger than physical memory
b) Better memory utilization
c) Memory protection
d) All of the above

57. Page replacement algorithms try to:

a) Predict future page references
b) Count past page references
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

58. The clock algorithm is:

a) A variant of FIFO
b) A variant of LRU
c) An optimal algorithm
d) A random algorithm

59. Prepaging means:

a) Loading pages before they are needed
b) Removing pages before replacement
c) Not loading any pages
 d) Loading all pages at once

60. The working set model is based on:

a) Program size
b) Program locality
c) Program priority
d) Program type

## System-Level Concepts

61. Real-time systems are classified as:

a) Hard and soft
b) Fast and slow
c) Big and small
d) High and low priority

62. In distributed systems, transparency means:

a) System is visible to users
b) System appears as one system to users
c) System is invisible
d) System is multiple systems

63. Personal computer systems emphasize:

a) Performance
b) User interface
c) Security
d) Resource sharing

64. Multiprogramming systems aim to:

a) Maximize CPU utilization
b) Minimize CPU utilization
c) Maintain constant CPU utilization
d) None of the above

65. Batch systems are characterized by:

a) Interactive processing
b) No user interaction during processing
c) Real-time processing
d) Distributed processing

66. Time-sharing systems typically use:

a) Round-robin scheduling
b) FIFO scheduling
c) Priority scheduling
d) Random scheduling
67. Parallel systems can be:
a) Tightly coupled
b) Loosely coupled
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

68. Which system type provides the fastest response time?

a) Batch system
b) Time-sharing system
c) Real-time system
d) Personal computer system

69. In client-server systems:

a) All computers are equal
b) One computer provides services
c) No services are provided
d) Services are distributed equally

70. The main challenge in distributed systems is:

a) Coordination
b) Hardware
c) Software
d) User interface

## Memory Management Techniques

71. Page tables can be organized as:

a) Single-level
b) Multi-level
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

72. The advantage of multi-level paging is:

a) Reduced memory usage
b) Increased speed
c) Better security
d) Simplified implementation

73. Shared pages are:

a) Always read-only
b) Always writable
c) Can be either
d) Neither readable nor writable

74. Memory protection is implemented using:

a) Protection bits
 b) Valid bits
c) Dirty bits
d) Reference bits

75. The page size is typically a power of 2 because:

a) It's easier to implement
b) It's more efficient
c) It's required by hardware
d) It's faster

76. In segmentation, each segment has:

a) Base and limit registers
b) Page tables
c) Frame numbers
d) Fixed size

77. The purpose of memory compaction is:

a) To reduce fragmentation
b) To increase memory size
c) To improve access speed
d) To enhance security

78. Which allocation strategy is most likely to cause external fragmentation?

a) First fit
b) Best fit
c) Worst fit
d) All equally likely

79. The buddy system is efficient for:

a) Small allocations
b) Large allocations
c) Both sizes
d) Neither size

80. Memory protection in paging is implemented at:

a) Page level
b) Frame level
c) Process level
d) System level

## Virtual Memory Implementation

81. Page fault handling is done by:

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Both hardware and software
 d) Neither hardware nor software

82. The optimal page replacement algorithm requires:

a) Past knowledge
b) Future knowledge
c) Present knowledge
d) No knowledge

83. Second chance algorithm modifies FIFO by:

a) Adding a reference bit
b) Adding a dirty bit
c) Adding both bits
d) Adding neither bit

84. The working set window size affects:

a) Program performance
b) System performance
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

85. Page fault frequency can be used to:

a) Detect thrashing
b) Prevent thrashing
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

86. In demand paging, the valid-invalid bit is used to:

a) Trigger page faults
b) Prevent page faults
c) Count page faults
d) Ignore page faults

87. Copy-on-write is most useful for:

a) Process creation
b) Process termination
c) Process suspension
d) Process resumption

88. Page replacement algorithms try to minimize:

a) CPU usage
b) Memory usage
c) Disk access
d) Network access

89. The page fault handler must:

a) Find a free frame
 b) Swap out a page if necessary
c) Update page tables
d) All of the above

90. Thrashing can be detected by monitoring:

a) CPU utilization
b) Page fault rate
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

## Advanced Memory Management

91. Memory mapped files:

a) Improve file access
b) Reduce memory usage
c) Enhance security
d) All of the above

UNIT-2
1. What is a process?
a) A program in execution
b) A program stored on disk
c) A thread
d) An application

2. The Process Control Block (PCB) contains:

a) Process state only
b) Process number only
c) Process state and registers
d) All process-related information

3. Which of these is not a valid process state?

a) New
b) Ready
c) Executing
d) Suspended-ready

4. A process in "blocked" state:

a) Is running
b) Is ready to run
c) Is waiting for an event
d) Has finished execution

5. The degree of multiprogramming is:

a) Number of CPUs
 b) Number of processes in memory
c) Number of I/O devices
d) Number of ready processes

6. Long-term scheduler:
a) Selects processes from disk to memory
b) Selects process from ready queue to run
c) Moves processes from memory to disk
d) Handles I/O requests

7. Short-term scheduler:
a) Controls degree of multiprogramming
b) Selects next process to run
c) Swaps processes
d) Handles interrupts

8. Context switching occurs when:

a) CPU switches from one process to another
b) Process makes I/O request
c) New process is created
d) Process terminates

9. Medium-term scheduler:
a) Handles memory management
b) Performs swapping
c) Creates new processes
d) Terminates processes

10. Process scheduling is triggered by:

a) I/O interrupts only
b) Timer interrupts only
c) System calls only
d) All of the above

11. fork() system call:

a) Creates exact copy of parent process
b) Creates new empty process
c) Terminates process
d) Blocks process

12. In Unix, after fork():

a) Child gets new PID
b) Child has same PID as parent
c) Parent gets new PID
d) Both get new PIDs
13. exec() system call:
a) Creates new process
b) Replaces process image
c) Creates copy of process
d) Terminates process

14. Process termination occurs when:

a) exit() is called
b) abort() is called
c) error occurs
d) All of the above

15. Zombie process is:

a) Running process
b) Terminated process not yet cleaned up
c) Blocked process
d) Ready process

16. CPU scheduling deals with:

a) Allocation of CPU to processes
b) Allocation of memory to processes
c) Allocation of I/O to processes
d) Process creation

17. Dispatcher:
a) Creates new processes
b) Terminates processes
c) Switches context between processes
d) Handles I/O

18. Dispatch latency is:

a) Time to add process to ready queue
b) Time to switch between processes
c) Time process waits in ready queue
d) Time process executes

19. CPU scheduling happens when:

a) Process switches from running to waiting
b) Process terminates
c) Process switches from waiting to ready
d) All of the above

20. Non-preemptive scheduling:

a) Process runs until completion
b) Process can be interrupted
c) Process runs for fixed time
 d) Process never runs

21. Turnaround time is:

a) Time in ready queue
b) Time from submission to completion
c) Time process executes
d) Time waiting for I/O

22. Response time is:

a) Time from submission to first response
b) Total execution time
c) Time in system
d) Time between responses

23. CPU utilization means:

a) Percentage of time CPU is busy
b) Number of processes completed
c) Time spent in context switching
d) Number of ready processes

24. Throughput refers to:

a) Number of processes completed per unit time
b) CPU efficiency
c) Memory usage
d) I/O efficiency

25. Waiting time is:

a) Total time in system
b) Time spent in ready queue
c) Time spent executing
d) Time spent in I/O

26. First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) is:

a) Preemptive
b) Non-preemptive
c) Both
d) Neither

27. Round Robin scheduling:

a) Uses time quantum
b) Is non-preemptive
c) Has no waiting time
d) Has no context switches

28. Shortest Job First (SJF):

 a) Is always optimal
b) Minimizes average waiting time
c) Maximizes throughput
d) Is easiest to implement

29. Priority scheduling can lead to:

a) Starvation
b) Deadlock
c) Race condition
d) Context switching

30. Multilevel Queue scheduling:

a) Has single ready queue
b) Has multiple ready queues
c) Has no ready queue
d) Uses single algorithm

31. In SMP systems:

a) All processors are identical
b) Processors have different speeds
c) Only one processor runs OS
d) Processors cannot share memory

32. Load balancing is:

a) Required in single processor systems
b) Required in multiprocessor systems
c) Never required
d) Required in uniprocessor systems

33. Processor affinity means:

a) Process prefers specific processor
b) Processor prefers specific process
c) Process uses all processors
d) Processors share load equally

34. Gang scheduling is used for:

a) Single processes
b) Independent processes
c) Cooperating processes
d) I/O bound processes

35. In multiprocessor scheduling:

a) One queue per processor
b) Shared queue
c) Both a and b possible
 d) Neither possible

36. Race condition occurs when:

a) Multiple processes access shared data
b) Process terminates abnormally
c) Process waits indefinitely
d) Processes form circular wait

37. Critical section is:

a) Code accessing shared resources
b) Entire process code
c) OS code
d) User input code

38. Mutual exclusion means:

a) No process in critical section
b) Only one process in critical section
c) Multiple processes in critical section
d) All processes in critical section

39. Critical section problem solution must satisfy:

a) Mutual exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded waiting
d) All of the above

40. Peterson's solution is:

a) Hardware solution
b) Software solution
c) OS solution
d) Application solution

41. Test-and-Set instruction is:

a) Software construct
b) Hardware instruction
c) OS feature
d) Application feature

42. Compare-and-Swap is:

a) Atomic operation
b) Non-atomic operation
c) Software operation
d) Multiple operations

43. Atomic operations are:

 a) Interruptible
b) Non-interruptible
c) Multiple steps
d) Software implemented

44. Hardware solutions for synchronization:

a) Are simple to use
b) Are complex to use
c) Cannot fail
d) Are not reliable

45. Busy waiting means:

a) Process is executing
b) Process is continuously testing
c) Process is blocked
d) Process is terminated

46. A binary semaphore can have values:

a) 0 and 1 only
b) Any positive number
c) Any integer
d) Any number

47. Counting semaphore can have:

a) Only 0 and 1
b) Any positive value
c) Only negative values
d) Only zero

48. wait() operation:

a) Increments semaphore
b) Decrements semaphore
c) Doesn't change semaphore
d) Sets semaphore to zero

49. signal() operation:

a) Increments semaphore
b) Decrements semaphore
c) Doesn't change semaphore
d) Sets semaphore to one

50. Semaphores can be used for:

a) Mutual exclusion
b) Process synchronization
c) Both a and b
 d) Neither a nor b

51. Producer-Consumer problem involves:

a) Single buffer
b) Multiple buffers
c) No buffer
d) Infinite buffer

52. Readers-Writers problem prioritizes:

a) Readers
b) Writers
c) Neither
d) Both equally

53. Dining Philosophers problem illustrates:

a) Deadlock
b) Starvation
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

54. In Sleeping Barber problem:

a) Barber always sleeps
b) Customers always wait
c) Neither sleeps
d) Both sleep

55. Bounded Buffer problem is also known as:

a) Producer-Consumer
b) Readers-Writers
c) Dining Philosophers
d) Sleeping Barber

56. Deadlock occurs when:

a) Processes wait for each other
b) Process terminates
c) Process executes
d) Process is created

57. Necessary conditions for deadlock:

a) Mutual exclusion only
b) Hold and wait only
c) No preemption only
d) All four conditions

58. Resource allocation graph shows:

 a) Process execution
b) Resource usage
c) Memory allocation
d) CPU scheduling

59. Deadlock prevention:

a) Prevents deadlock occurrence
b) Recovers from deadlock
c) Detects deadlock
d) Ignores deadlock

60. Safe state means:

a) System can deadlock
b) System can allocate resources safely
c) System has deadlocked
d) System has crashed

61. Hold and wait condition can be prevented by:

a) Requesting all resources initially
b) Never requesting resources
c) Releasing all resources
d) Keeping all resources

62. Mutual exclusion can be prevented by:

a) Sharing resources
b) Not using resources
c) Using more resources
d) Cannot be prevented

63. Circular wait can be prevented by:

a) Resource ordering
b) Resource sharing
c) Resource requesting
d) Resource releasing

64. No preemption means:

a) Resources cannot be taken away
b) Resources can be taken away
c) Resources are shared
d) Resources are not used

65. Deadlock prevention:

a) Is always efficient
b) May cause low resource utilization
c) Increases system performance
 d) Has no drawbacks

66. Banker's Algorithm is used for:

a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock avoidance
c) Deadlock detection
d) Deadlock recovery

67. Safe sequence ensures:

a) No deadlock
b) Deadlock
c) Maximum resource usage
d) Minimum resource usage

68. Resource allocation state includes:

a) Available resources
b) Allocated resources
c) Maximum needs
d) All of the above

69. Safety algorithm determines:

a) If state is safe
b) If state is unsafe
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

70. Resource request algorithm:

a) Grants all requests
b) Denies all requests
c) Checks safety before granting
d) Ignores safety

71. Deadlock detection requires:

a) Wait-for graph
b) Resource allocation graph
c) Process graph
d) Any graph

72. Detection algorithm:

a) Prevents deadlock
b) Finds existing deadlock
c) Avoids deadlock
d) Removes deadlock
73. Detection algorithm should run:
a) Continuously
b) Never
c) When suspected
d) When system crashes

74. When deadlock is detected:

a) System crashes
b) Recovery is initiated
c) Nothing happens
d) New processes start

75. Detection algorithm complexity depends on:

a) Number of processes
b) Number of resources
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

76. Process termination method:

a) Terminates all processes
b) Terminates deadlocked processes
c) Terminates no process
d) Creates new processes

77. Resource preemption involves:

a) Taking resources from processes
b) Adding new resources
c) Removing resources
d) Sharing resources

78. Rollback means:

a) Starting process from beginning
b) Terminating process
c) Continuing process
d) Ignoring process

79. Recovery through preemption:

a) Always succeeds
b) May cause starvation
c) Never fails
d) Is not possible

80. Cost of recovery depends on:

a) Number of processes
b) Type of resources
 c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

81. Priority inversion occurs when:

a) High priority process waits for low priority
b) Low priority process waits for high priority
c) Processes have same priority
d) No process has priority

82. Priority inheritance:

a) Prevents priority inversion
b) Causes priority inversion
c) Has no effect on priority
d) Removes all priorities

83. Livelock is:

a) Same as deadlock
b) Similar to deadlock but processes change state
c) Opposite of deadlock
d) Impossible situation

84. Starvation can be prevented by:

a) Aging
b) Priority scheduling
c) FCFS scheduling
d) Round Robin scheduling

85. Coffman conditions are for:

a) Process creation
b) Deadlock occurrence
c) Process termination
d) Resource allocation

86. Two-phase locking:

a) Prevents deadlock
b) Causes deadlock
c) Detects deadlock
d) Recovers from deadlock

87. Wait-die scheme is:

a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock avoidance
c) Deadlock detection
d) Deadlock recovery
88. Wound-wait scheme:
a) Younger process waits
b) Older process waits
c) No process waits
d) All processes wait

89. Deadlock handling policies:

a) Prevention only
b) Detection only
c) Multiple approaches possible
d) No approach possible

90. In distributed deadlock:

a) Detection is easier
b) Detection is harder
c) Detection is impossible
d) Detection is not needed

91. Process synchronization is needed for:

a) Shared resources
b) Independent processes
c) Single process
d) Process creation

92. Monitor is:

a) Hardware construct
b) Software construct
c) Both
d) Neither

93. Condition variables are used for:

a) Process synchronization
b) Memory management
c) CPU scheduling
d) File management

94. Message passing systems:

a) Need shared memory
b) Don't need shared memory
c) Cannot synchronize
d) Cannot communicate

95. Event counters are:

a) Synchronization tools
b) Memory management tools
 c) CPU scheduling tools
d) File management tools

UNIT-3
1. Device management is primarily responsible for:
a) Managing memory
b) Controlling I/O devices
c) Process scheduling
d) File organization

2. A device driver is:

a) A hardware component
b) A software interface to hardware
c) A type of CPU
d) A memory module

3. Dedicated devices are:

a) Assigned to one process until completion
b) Shared among processes
c) Virtual devices
d) Always input devices

4. Device controllers:
a) Are software programs
b) Are hardware components
c) Don't exist in modern systems
d) Are virtual components

5. Interrupt-driven I/O:
a) Wastes CPU cycles
b) Is more efficient than polling
c) Is never used
d) Requires no CPU intervention

6. Buffering is used to:

a) Speed up I/O operations
b) Slow down I/O operations
c) Prevent I/O
d) Stop device management

7. DMA stands for:

a) Direct Memory Access
b) Device Memory Access
c) Direct Module Access
 d) Device Module Access

8. Spooling is used for:

a) Memory management
b) Managing printer output
c) CPU scheduling
d) File deletion

9. The main advantage of buffering is:

a) Reduced storage need
b) Speed matching
c) Increased complexity
d) Reduced reliability

10. Which is not a type of device:

a) Dedicated
b) Shared
c) Virtual
d) Permanent

11. Primary storage is:

a) Hard disk
b) RAM
c) Tape
d) CD-ROM

12. Secondary storage:

a) Is volatile
b) Is non-volatile
c) Has faster access than RAM
d) Is directly accessible by CPU

13. Storage hierarchy is based on:

a) Cost only
b) Speed only
c) Multiple factors
d) Size only

14. Magnetic disks are:

a) Random access devices
b) Sequential access devices
c) Direct access devices
d) Both a and c

15. Optical storage:

a) Uses magnetism
 b) Uses laser
c) Uses electricity
d) Uses mechanical parts only

16. A disk sector is:

a) A portion of track
b) A collection of tracks
c) The entire disk
d) The disk controller

17. Disk platters are:

a) Software components
b) Physical disk components
c) Virtual components
d) Memory components

18. Track sectors are:

a) Always same size
b) Different sizes
c) Non-existent
d) Virtual components

19. Cylinder consists of:

a) Same track on all surfaces
b) All tracks on one surface
c) One track only
d) Random tracks

20. Disk arm:

a) Reads data
b) Writes data
c) Moves read/write head
d) Stores data

21. FCFS disk scheduling:

a) Minimizes seek time
b) Is fair
c) Is most efficient
d) Maximizes throughput

22. SCAN algorithm:

a) Moves in one direction only
b) Moves in both directions
c) Doesn't move
d) Moves randomly
23. C-SCAN performs:
a) Circular scan
b) One-way scan
c) Random scan
d) No scan

24. Seek time is:

a) Time to rotate disk
b) Time to move head
c) Time to transfer data
d) Time to process request

25. Rotational latency is:

a) Time for disk rotation
b) Time for head movement
c) Time for data transfer
d) Processing time

26. Bad blocks are:

a) Damaged disk sectors
b) Empty sectors
c) Full sectors
d) Virtual sectors

27. Disk formatting:

a) Removes all data
b) Creates file system
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

28. Boot block:

a) Contains OS loader
b) Contains user data
c) Is always empty
d) Is virtual

29. Partitioning divides disk into:

a) Sectors
b) Tracks
c) Logical drives
d) Files

30. RAID stands for:

a) Random Array of Independent Disks
b) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
 c) Rapid Array of Internal Disks
d) Regular Array of Internal Disks

31. Swap space is used for:

a) Virtual memory
b) File storage
c) Boot loading
d) Disk scheduling

32. Swap space location:

a) Must be on hard disk
b) Must be in RAM
c) Can be anywhere
d) Must be on SSD

33. Swap space size should be:

a) Equal to RAM
b) Less than RAM
c) More than RAM
d) Independent of RAM

34. Swapping affects:

a) System performance
b) Hardware only
c) Software only
d) Nothing

35. Page files are:

a) Regular files
b) Swap files
c) Boot files
d) System files

36. RAID 0 provides:

a) Redundancy
b) Striping
c) Mirroring
d) Parity

37. Disk mirroring is:

a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 2
d) RAID 3
38. Hot swapping allows:
a) Disk removal while running
b) Disk formatting
c) Disk partitioning
d) Disk scheduling

39. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):

a) Measures reliability
b) Measures speed
c) Measures capacity
d) Measures temperature

40. Error detection is done by:

a) Operating system
b) Disk controller
c) CPU
d) Memory

41. A file is:

a) Collection of related records
b) Collection of sectors
c) Collection of tracks
d) Collection of cylinders

42. File attributes include:

a) Name only
b) Size only
c) Multiple properties
d) Location only

43. File operations include:

a) Create and delete
b) Read and write
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

44. File types are identified by:

a) Name
b) Extension
c) Size
d) Location

45. File access methods include:

a) Sequential only
b) Random only
 c) Both sequential and random
d) Neither sequential nor random

46. Single-level directory:

a) Has multiple levels
b) Has one level
c) Has no levels
d) Is not a directory

47. Tree-structured directory:

a) Has single path to file
b) Has multiple paths to file
c) Has no paths
d) Is linear

48. Acyclic graph directory:

a) Allows file sharing
b) Prevents file sharing
c) Has no structure
d) Is linear

49. Directory operations include:

a) Create file only
b) Delete file only
c) Multiple operations
d) No operations

50. Path names can be:

a) Absolute only
b) Relative only
c) Both absolute and relative
d) Neither absolute nor relative

51. Access rights include:

a) Read only
b) Write only
c) Execute only
d) Multiple rights

52. Access control lists:

a) List users and rights
b) List files only
c) List users only
d) List nothing
53. Protection is implemented at:
a) Hardware level
b) Software level
c) Both levels
d) Neither level

54. File ownership:

a) Cannot be changed
b) Can be changed
c) Doesn't exist
d) Is automatic

55. Group rights:

a) Apply to all users
b) Apply to group members
c) Don't exist
d) Are always same as owner rights

56. Allocation methods include:

a) Contiguous only
b) Linked only
c) Indexed only
d) Multiple methods

57. Contiguous allocation:

a) Causes fragmentation
b) Prevents fragmentation
c) Has no effect on fragmentation
d) Doesn't exist

58. Linked allocation:

a) Supports random access
b) Doesn't support random access
c) Is not used
d) Is always used

59. Indexed allocation:

a) Uses index block
b) Uses no index
c) Is contiguous
d) Is linked

60. Free space management uses:

a) Bit vector
 b) Linked list
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

61. File system structure includes:

a) Control blocks
b) Directory structure
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

62. Volume control block contains:

a) File system details
b) File details
c) Directory details
d) Nothing

63. File control block contains:

a) File system details
b) File details
c) Volume details
d) Nothing

64. Directory structure implementation:

a) Uses linear list
b) Uses hash table
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

65. Virtual file system:

a) Provides file system interface
b) Is physical file system
c) Doesn't exist
d) Is same as physical file system

66. File creation involves:

a) Allocating space
b) Creating directory entry
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

67. File deletion:

a) Removes file content
b) Removes directory entry
 c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

68. File open operation:

a) Reads file
b) Creates file
c) Brings file info to memory
d) Deletes file

69. File seeking:

a) Changes current position
b) Reads file
c) Writes file
d) Closes file

70. File closing:

a) Updates directory
b) Updates file
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

71. Journaling file systems:

a) Maintain transaction log
b) Don't maintain logs
c) Are not file systems
d) Are virtual systems

72. Log-structured file systems:

a) Treat disk as log
b) Don't use logs
c) Are not file systems
d) Are virtual systems

73. Network file systems:

a) Work on single computer
b) Work across network
c) Don't exist
d) Are same as local file systems

74. Distributed file systems:

a) Are centralized
b) Are distributed
c) Don't exist
d) Are local only

75. File system mounting:

 a) Attaches file system
b) Detaches file system
c) Creates file system
d) Deletes file system

76. Caching improves:

a) File system performance
b) CPU performance
c) Memory performance
d) Disk performance

77. Blocking factor affects:

a) File system performance
b) CPU performance
c) Memory performance
d) Nothing

78. Buffer cache:

a) Speeds up file access
b) Slows down file access
c) Has no effect
d) Is not used

79. File system optimization:

a) Is not possible
b) Is always possible
c) Depends on usage
d) Is automatic

80. Performance metrics include:

a) Access time
b) Transfer rate
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

81. RAM disk is:

a) Physical disk
b) Memory-based file system
c) Virtual disk
d) Not a disk

82. Flash file systems:

a) Use flash memory
b) Use hard disk
c) Use RAM
 d) Use virtual memory

83. CD-ROM file systems:

a) Are read-only
b) Are write-only
c) Are read-write
d) Don't exist

84. DVD file systems:

a) Are different from CD-ROM
b) Are same as CD-ROM
c) Don't exist
d) Are virtual

85. Tape file systems:

a) Are sequential
b) Are random access
c) Don't exist
d) Are virtual

86. Device pooling:

a) Manages device sharing
b) Prevents device sharing
c) Is not used
d) Is virtual

87. Device reservation:

a) Is always needed
b) Is never needed
c) Depends on device
d) Is automatic

88. Device allocation:

a) Is static
b) Is dynamic
c) Doesn't exist
d) Is automatic

89. Virtual devices:

a) Are physical devices
b) Simulate devices
c) Don't exist
d) Are always used

90. Device scheduling:

a) Is same as CPU scheduling
 b) Is different from CPU scheduling
c) Doesn't exist
d) Is automatic

91. Device-file integration:

a) Treats devices as files
b) Treats files as devices
c) Is not possible
d) Is automatic

92. System calls for devices:

a) Are same as file calls
b) Are different from file calls
c) Don't exist
d) Are automatic

93. Device naming:

a) Must be unique
b) Can be duplicate
c) Is not needed
d) Is automatic

94. Device errors:

a) Must be handled
b) Can be ignored
c) Don't occur
d) Are automatic

95. Device initialization:

a) Is done at boot
b) Is done at runtime
c) Is never done
d) Is automatic

96. Device access control:

a) Is necessary
b) Is optional
c) Is not needed
d) Is automatic

97. File system security:

a) Protects data
b) Protects devices
c) Is not needed
 d) Is automatic

98. Access permissions:

a) Apply to files only
b) Apply to devices only
c) Apply to both
d) Apply to neither

99. Security policies:

a) Are system-wide
b) Are file-specific
c) Don't exist
d) Are automatic

100. Protection mechanisms:

a) Are hardware-based
b) Are software-based
c) Are both
d) Don't exist

UNIT-4
1. Which command is used to log into a Unix system?
a) login
b) enter
c) start
d) begin

2. The Unix prompt typically ends with:

a) $
b) #
c) @
d) >

3. To get help about a command using man pages:

a) help command
b) man command
c) info command
d) about command

4. The command to log out of Unix system is:

a) logout
b) exit
c) quit
d) Both a and b
5. Which command clears the terminal screen?
a) clear
b) cls
c) clean
d) wipe

6. The root directory is represented by:

a) /
b) \
c) *
d) &

7. The home directory symbol is:

a) ~
b) #
c) @
d) $

8. To change directory, the command is:

a) cd
b) chdir
c) changedir
d) move

9. Which command shows current directory?

a) pwd
b) cd
c) ls
d) dir

10. The parent directory is represented by:

a) ..
b) .
c) /
d) ~

11. To list files in Unix:

a) ls
b) dir
c) show
d) list

12. To create a new file:

a) touch
b) create
 c) new
d) make

13. To remove a file:

a) rm
b) del
c) delete
d) remove

14. To copy a file:

a) cp
b) copy
c) duplicate
d) xcopy

15. To move a file:

a) mv
b) move
c) cut
d) paste

16. File permissions in Unix are represented by:

a) Numbers
b) Letters
c) Both numbers and letters
d) Symbols only

17. The command to change file permissions:

a) chmod
b) chperm
c) permission
d) change

18. Read permission is represented by:

a) r
b) w
c) x
d) p

19. Write permission is represented by:

a) w
b) r
c) x
d) p

20. Execute permission is represented by:

 a) x
b) e
c) r
d) w

21. Which is not a Unix text editor?

a) vi
b) emacs
c) notepad
d) nano

22. To save and quit in vi:

a) :wq
b) :q
c) :w
d) :x

23. To enter insert mode in vi:

a) i
b) a
c) o
d) e

24. Which editor is considered user-friendly for beginners?

a) nano
b) vi
c) emacs
d) ed

25. To force quit without saving in vi:

a) :q!
b) :wq
c) :w!
d) :x

26. To redirect output to a file:

a) >
b) <
c) |
d) >>

27. To append output to a file:

a) >>
b) >
 c) <
d) |

28. To view file contents:

a) cat
b) show
c) display
d) view

29. The tee command:

a) Displays and saves output
b) Only displays output
c) Only saves output
d) Neither displays nor saves

30. To pipe output between commands:

a) |
b) >
c) <
d) >>

31. To compare two files:

a) diff
b) cmp
c) comp
d) both a and b

32. The comm command:

a) Compares sorted files
b) Compares any files
c) Communicates between files
d) Combines files

33. To find differences line by line:

a) diff
b) cmp
c) comm
d) cp

34. Which command shows byte-by-byte comparison?

a) cmp
b) diff
c) comm
d) comp
35. To compare three files:
a) diff3
b) cmp3
c) comp3
d) compare3

36. To search for a pattern in file:

a) grep
b) find
c) search
d) locate

37. To find files by name:

a) find
b) grep
c) search
d) locate

38. Case-insensitive search with grep:

a) -i
b) -c
c) -n
d) -l

39. To count matching lines in grep:

a) -c
b) -n
c) -l
d) -i

40. To search recursively through directories:

a) -r
b) -d
c) -s
d) -f

41. To see who is logged in:

a) who
b) users
c) whoami
d) loggedin

42. To check your username:

a) whoami
 b) who
c) me
d) username

43. To send message to another user:

a) write
b) mail
c) send
d) msg

44. To change file ownership:

a) chown
b) chmod
c) chgrp
d) change

45. To switch user:

a) su
b) switch
c) change
d) user

46. To check disk space:

a) df
b) du
c) disk
d) space

47. To check directory size:

a) du
b) df
c) ls -l
d) size

48. To see system information:

a) uname
b) sysinfo
c) info
d) system

49. To check process status:

a) ps
b) proc
c) status
d) check
50. To check system load:
a) top
b) load
c) sys
d) check

51. Hidden files in Unix start with:

a) .
b) _
c) -
d) #

52. Maximum filename length in modern Unix:

a) 255 characters
b) 128 characters
c) 64 characters
d) 32 characters

53. The command to create directory:

a) mkdir
b) md
c) create
d) newdir

54. To remove empty directory:

a) rmdir
b) rd
c) delete
d) remove

55. To create multiple directories at once:

a) mkdir -p
b) mkdir -m
c) mkdir -r
d) mkdir -f

56. To find links to a file:

a) find -links
b) ls -l
c) link
d) ln -l

57. To create symbolic link:

a) ln -s
b) link -s
 c) symlink
d) newlink

58. To sort file contents:

a) sort
b) order
c) arrange
d) organize

59. To count words in file:

a) wc
b) count
c) words
d) number

60. To compress file:

a) gzip
b) zip
c) compress
d) pack

61. To kill a process:

a) kill
b) end
c) stop
d) terminate

62. To run process in background:

a) &
b) bg
c) back
d) run

63. To see background jobs:

a) jobs
b) bg
c) ps
d) list

64. To bring process to foreground:

a) fg
b) fore
c) bring
d) front
65. To suspend current process:
a) Ctrl+Z
b) Ctrl+C
c) Ctrl+D
d) Ctrl+S

66. Shell prompt for root user ends with:

a) #
b) $
c) @
d) >

67. To view command history:

a) history
b) hist
c) commands
d) show

68. To clear command history:

a) history -c
b) clear history
c) delete history
d) clean

69. Command separator in Unix:

a) ;
b) ,
c) :
d) .

70. To execute previous command:

a) !!
b) !
c) ^
d) $!

71. Default permission for new files:

a) 644
b) 666
c) 777
d) 755

72. To make file executable:

a) chmod +x
b) chmod +r
c) chmod +w
 d) chmod +e

73. To remove all permissions:

a) chmod 000
b) chmod -rwx
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b

74. Group permissions are changed using:

a) chgrp
b) chmod
c) chown
d) change

75. Sticky bit is set using:

a) chmod +t
b) chmod +s
c) chmod +x
d) chmod +r

76. Location of system logs:

a) /var/log
b) /log
c) /etc/log
d) /usr/log

77. To check system uptime:

a) uptime
b) time
c) up
d) system

78. To check memory usage:

a) free
b) mem
c) memory
d) check

79. To check CPU info:

a) cat /proc/cpuinfo
b) cpu
c) processor
d) info

80. To check mounted filesystems:

 a) mount
b) mounts
c) fs
d) filesystems

81. To check IP address:

a) ifconfig
b) ipconfig
c) ip
d) network

82. To ping a host:

a) ping
b) check
c) connect
d) test

83. To check network connections:

a) netstat
b) network
c) connect
d) stat

84. To download file:

a) wget
b) download
c) get
d) fetch

85. To check DNS:

a) nslookup
b) dns
c) lookup
d) check

86. Shell variables are accessed using:

a) $
b) #
c) @
d) %

87. Comment in shell script starts with:

a) #
b) //
c) /*
 d) --

88. To make script executable:

a) chmod +x
b) chmod +r
c) chmod +w
d) set +x

89. First line of shell script should contain:

a) Shebang (#!)
b) Comment
c) Variable
d) Command

90. To read user input:

a) read
b) input
c) get
d) scan

91. Regular expression metacharacter .(dot) matches:

a) Any single character
b) Multiple characters
c) No character
d) Special characters

92. The grep command belongs to:

a) Text processing
b) File management
c) Process management
d) User management

93. Core dumps are stored in:

a) Current directory
b) /tmp
c) /var
d) /etc

94. To change terminal settings:

a) stty
b) terminal
c) term
d) set

95. To schedule commands:

 a) cron
b) at
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b

96. Man pages are divided into:

a) Sections
b) Chapters
c) Parts
d) Divisions

97. To search man pages:

a) man -k
b) man -f
c) man -s
d) man -l

98. User documentation is in man section:

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

99. To print man page:

a) man -t
b) man -p
c) man -l
d) man -r

100. The info command:

a) Provides detailed documentation
b) Shows system information
c) Displays file information
d) Lists commands

UNIT-5
1. Which key combination quickly minimizes all open windows and shows the desktop?
a) Windows key + M
b) Windows key + D
c) Alt + Tab
d) Ctrl + D
Answer: b) Windows key + D

2. The Windows desktop is:

 a) A physical component of the computer
b) The main workspace where you can access programs and files
c) Only available in Windows Pro editions
d) A temporary storage location
Answer: b) The main workspace where you can access programs and files

3. The Taskbar is normally located:

a) At the top of the screen
b) On the left side
c) At the bottom of the screen
d) Can only be on the right side
Answer: c) At the bottom of the screen

4. Which of these is NOT a default icon on a fresh Windows installation?

a) Recycle Bin
b) This PC (My Computer)
c) Control Panel
d) Microsoft Edge
Answer: c) Control Panel

5. To automatically arrange desktop icons by name, you can:

a) Right-click desktop > Sort by > Name
b) Press F5
c) Double-click the desktop
d) Press Ctrl + A
Answer: a) Right-click desktop > Sort by > Name

6. The Windows Start menu can be opened by:

a) Clicking the Windows icon
b) Pressing the Windows key
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a and b

7. In Windows 10/11, the Start menu includes:

a) Only shortcuts to programs
b) Only system settings
c) A combination of apps, settings, and personalized content
d) Only recently used files
Answer: c) A combination of apps, settings, and personalized content

8. To pin an application to the Start menu:

a) Delete the application
b) Right-click and select "Pin to Start"
c) Left-click and hold for 10 seconds
 d) Double-click the application
Answer: b) Right-click and select "Pin to Start"

9. The Search bar in the Start menu allows you to:

a) Only search for applications
b) Only search for files
c) Search for apps, files, settings, and web content
d) Only search the web
Answer: c) Search for apps, files, settings, and web content

10. To access the power options in Windows, you can:

a) Click the power icon in the Start menu
b) Press Alt + F4 on the desktop
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a and b

11. The Control Panel is used to:

a) Play games
b) Modify system settings and configurations
c) Create documents
d) Browse the internet
Answer: b) Modify system settings and configurations

12. To uninstall a program in Windows, you can use:

a) Control Panel > Programs and Features
b) Task Manager
c) File Explorer
d) Command Prompt
Answer: a) Control Panel > Programs and Features

13. Which Control Panel category allows you to change your display resolution?
a) System and Security
b) Hardware and Sound
c) Appearance and Personalization
d) Network and Internet
Answer: c) Appearance and Personalization

14. The User Accounts section in Control Panel allows you to:
a) Only delete user accounts
b) Only create new accounts
c) Manage user accounts and their permissions
d) Only change passwords
Answer: c) Manage user accounts and their permissions

15. To adjust your computer's volume from Control Panel, you would use:
 a) System and Security
b) Hardware and Sound
c) Programs
d) Network and Internet
Answer: b) Hardware and Sound

16. "This PC" (formerly "My Computer") shows:

a) Only local drives
b) Only network drives
c) Local drives, network locations, and connected devices
d) Only USB devices
Answer: c) Local drives, network locations, and connected devices

17. The C: drive typically contains:

a) Only user files
b) The operating system and program files
c) Only temporary files
d) Only backup files
Answer: b) The operating system and program files

18. To check a drive's properties, including available space, you can:

a) Double-click the drive
b) Right-click the drive and select Properties
c) Left-click and hold the drive icon
d) Press F1 while selecting the drive
Answer: b) Right-click the drive and select Properties

19. Which file system is most commonly used in Windows?

a) FAT32
b) NTFS
c) exFAT
d) HFS+
Answer: b) NTFS

20. Connected USB drives typically appear:

a) Only after restarting
b) Automatically in This PC
c) Only after running Device Manager
d) Only after formatting
Answer: b) Automatically in This PC

21. Windows Explorer can be opened by:

a) Pressing Windows key + E
b) Clicking the folder icon in taskbar
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
 Answer: c) Both a and b

22. The navigation pane in File Explorer is located:

a) At the top
b) On the left side
c) On the right side
d) At the bottom
Answer: b) On the left side

23. To create a new folder in File Explorer:

a) Press Ctrl + N
b) Press Ctrl + Shift + N
c) Press Alt + F4
d) Press F5
Answer: b) Press Ctrl + Shift + N

24. Quick Access in File Explorer shows:

a) Only pinned folders
b) Only recent files
c) Both frequently accessed folders and recent files
d) Only system folders
Answer: c) Both frequently accessed folders and recent files

25. The address bar in File Explorer:

a) Only shows the current folder name
b) Shows the complete path and allows navigation
c) Only works for web addresses
d) Cannot be modified
Answer: b) Shows the complete path and allows navigation

26. Which Windows accessory is used for basic text editing?

a) Paint
b) Notepad
c) Calculator
d) Snipping Tool
Answer: b) Notepad

27. The Windows Calculator includes:

a) Only basic arithmetic functions
b) Multiple modes including Scientific and Programmer
c) Only currency conversion
d) Only date calculations
Answer: b) Multiple modes including Scientific and Programmer

28. The Snipping Tool is used for:

a) Cutting paper
 b) Taking screenshots
c) Editing videos
d) Recording audio
Answer: b) Taking screenshots

29. Paint 3D is:

a) A basic image editing program
b) A 3D modeling and editing tool
c) A video editor
d) A text editor
Answer: b) A 3D modeling and editing tool

30. WordPad is:

a) A web browser
b) A basic word processor
c) A spreadsheet program
d) A database program
Answer: b) A basic word processor

31. To switch between open windows, you can use:

a) Alt + Tab
b) Windows key + Tab
c) Both a and b
d) Ctrl + Shift
Answer: c) Both a and b

32. To snap a window to half the screen:

a) Press Alt + F4
b) Press Windows key + Arrow key
c) Press Ctrl + Alt + Delete
d) Press F11
Answer: b) Press Windows key + Arrow key

33. Task View can be accessed by:

a) Pressing Windows key + Tab
b) Clicking the Task View button
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a and b

34. To minimize all windows except the active one:

a) Click and shake the window's title bar
b) Press Alt + Space
c) Right-click the taskbar
d) Press F12
 Answer: a) Click and shake the window's title bar

35. Cascade windows option:

a) Closes all windows
b) Arranges windows in an overlapping pattern
c) Minimizes all windows
d) Maximizes all windows
Answer: b) Arranges windows in an overlapping pattern

36. To auto-arrange desktop icons:

a) Right-click desktop > View > Auto arrange icons
b) Press F5
c) Double-click desktop
d) Press Ctrl + A
Answer: a) Right-click desktop > View > Auto arrange icons

37. Desktop icons can be:

a) Only shortcuts
b) Only folders
c) Shortcuts, files, or folders
d) Only system files
Answer: c) Shortcuts, files, or folders

38. To create a shortcut on the desktop:

a) Right-click item > Send to > Desktop (create shortcut)
b) Delete the original file
c) Copy the file to System32
d) Press Alt + F4
Answer: a) Right-click item > Send to > Desktop (create shortcut)

39. The "Show desktop icons" option is found in:

a) Control Panel
b) Right-click desktop > View
c) Task Manager
d) System Properties
Answer: b) Right-click desktop > View

40. To restore default desktop icons:

a) Settings > Personalization > Themes > Desktop icon settings
b) Control Panel > Programs
c) File Explorer > Quick Access
d) Task Manager > Startup
Answer: a) Settings > Personalization > Themes > Desktop icon settings

41. To copy a file or folder:

 a) Ctrl + C to copy, Ctrl + V to paste
b) Alt + F4
c) F5
d) Windows key + L
Answer: a) Ctrl + C to copy, Ctrl + V to paste

42. The default location for user folders is:

a) C:\Windows
b) C:\Users\[username]
c) C:\Program Files
d) C:\System32
Answer: b) C:\Users\[username]

43. To rename a file or folder:

a) Press F2
b) Press Delete
c) Press Enter
d) Press Space
Answer: a) Press F2

44. Files moved to the Recycle Bin:

a) Are permanently deleted
b) Can be restored
c) Are automatically compressed
d) Are automatically backed up
Answer: b) Can be restored

45. To select multiple non-consecutive files:

a) Press Ctrl while clicking
b) Press Alt while clicking
c) Press Shift while clicking
d) Press Windows key while clicking
Answer: a) Press Ctrl while clicking

46. To check a drive for errors:

a) Right-click drive > Properties > Tools > Check
b) Format the drive
c) Delete all files
d) Restart computer
Answer: a) Right-click drive > Properties > Tools > Check

47. Drive letters are assigned:

a) Randomly
b) Alphabetically starting from C
c) Numerically
 d) Based on file system
Answer: b) Alphabetically starting from C

48. To format a drive:

a) Right-click drive > Format
b) Delete the drive
c) Rename the drive
d) Copy files to the drive
Answer: a) Right-click drive > Format

49. Disk Cleanup utility:

a) Formats the drive
b) Removes unnecessary files
c) Installs programs
d) Creates backups
Answer: b) Removes unnecessary files

50. To map a network drive:

a) This PC > Map network drive
b) Control Panel > Programs
c) Task Manager
d) Command Prompt
Answer: a) This PC > Map network drive

51. Windows Media Player is used for:

a) Only playing music
b) Only playing videos
c) Playing both audio and video files
d) Only recording sound
Answer: c) Playing both audio and video files

52. The Volume Control in Windows:

a) Only controls system volume
b) Can control volume for different applications separately
c) Only works with headphones
d) Only controls microphone
Answer: b) Can control volume for different applications separately

53. Sound Recorder allows you to:

a) Only play audio
b) Record audio from microphone
c) Edit video files
d) Create music
Answer: b) Record audio from microphone
54. To adjust audio balance in Windows:
a) Right-click speaker icon > Open Volume mixer
b) Control Panel > Programs
c) Task Manager
d) File Explorer
Answer: a) Right-click speaker icon > Open Volume mixer

55. The default video player in Windows 11 is:

a) Windows Media Player
b) Movies & TV app
c) VLC
d) QuickTime
Answer: b) Movies & TV app

56. To log off Windows:

a) Click Start > User icon > Sign out
b) Press Alt + F4
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a and b

57. Shutting down Windows:

a) Closes all programs
b) Saves all open files automatically
c) Keeps programs running in background
d) Logs off user only
Answer: a) Closes all programs

58. Sleep mode:

a) Turns off the computer completely
b) Maintains power to memory
c) Deletes temporary files
d) Formats the hard drive
Answer: b) Maintains power to memory

59. Fast Startup is:

a) A virus
b) A Windows feature that helps computer start faster
c) A third-party program
d) A web browser
Answer: b) A Windows feature that helps computer start faster

60. Hibernate mode:

a) Saves open documents and programs to hard disk
b) Keeps computer running normally
 c) Only closes programs
d) Only logs off user
Answer: a) Saves open documents and programs to hard disk

61. To permanently delete a file (bypass Recycle Bin):

a) Delete + Enter
b) Shift + Delete
c) Ctrl + Delete
d) Alt + Delete
Answer: b) Shift + Delete

62. File extensions are:

a) Always visible
b) Hidden by default
c) Only visible for system files
d) Only visible for executable files
Answer: b) Hidden by default

63. To show hidden files:

a) View > Hidden items
b) Format drive
c) Restart computer
d) Install new software
Answer: a) View > Hidden items

64. The "Quick Access" feature in File Explorer:

a) Only shows recent files
b) Only shows pinned folders
c) Shows both recent files and pinned folders
d) Shows only system folders
Answer: c) Shows both recent files and pinned folders

65. To compress a file or folder:

a) Right-click > Send to > Compressed folder
b) Delete the file
c) Copy the file
d) Move the file
Answer: a) Right-click > Send to > Compressed folder

66. Windows Search can find:

a) Only files
b) Only programs
c) Files, programs, settings, and web results
d) Only web results
 Answer: c) Files, programs, settings, and web results

67. To search within a specific folder:

a) Use the search box in File Explorer
b) Use Control Panel
c) Use Task Manager
d) Use Command Prompt
Answer: a) Use the search box in File Explorer

68. Advanced search filters include:

a) Only date modified
b) Only file size
c) Date, size, type, an