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NBTS

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs
NCERT Booster Test Series
(for NEET-2022)

Topics covered :
Physics Work, Energy and Power, System of particles and Rotational motion.
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter, Thermodynamics.
Botany : Biological Classification, Morphology of Flowering Plant.
Zoology : Breathing and exchange of gases, Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and their
Elimination.

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

SECTION-A Select the correct options.

1. Consider the following two statements. (1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
incorrect
A. A body can’t exert force on another body
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is
from a distance. incorrect
B. No external force is required to keep the (3) Both statement A and B are correct
body in uniform motion. (4) Both statement A and B are incorrect

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2. According to Aristotelian idea of motion 7. Four particles of masses 4 kg, 4 kg, 1 kg and
(1) Force is not always in the direction of 1 kg are arranged at the corners A, B, C, D of a
acceleration square ABCD of side 4 m as shown in figure. The
distance of centre of mass from the side AB is
(2) An external force is required to keep a body
in motion
(3) A body may change its state of rest even
without any external force
(4) Every action has an equal and opposite
reaction
3. Two particles each of mass 100 g have position
vectors (2iˆ  8 jˆ  12kˆ ) and (6iˆ  4 ˆj  2kˆ ) . The
(1) 2 m (2) 0.4 m
position vector of their centre of mass will be
(3) 1 m (4) 0.8 m
(1) (2iˆ  6 jˆ  7kˆ )
8. Which of the following statement is correct
(2) (iˆ  8 ˆj  6kˆ ) regarding friction on a body?

(1) Static friction acting on the body is fs = sN

(3) (4iˆ  12 jˆ  14kˆ )
(2) Static friction opposes impending motion
(4) (14iˆ  12 jˆ  7kˆ )
(3) Kinetic friction opposes motion of the body
4. A body of mass 10 kg is acted upon by two
(4) Static friction depends on the area of contact
perpendicular forces 16 N and 12 N. Magnitude
between two bodies
of acceleration of the body is
9. Two sides of a parallelogram are given by two
(1) 1 ms–2 (2) 2 ms–2 r r
vectors a  (3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ ) and b  (2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ )m .
(3) 3 ms–2 (4) 4 ms–2
The area of the parallelogram will be
5. A bullet of mass 0.05 kg moving with a speed of
100 ms–1 enters a heavy wooden block and is (1) 5 m2 (2) 5 3 m2
stopped after a distance of 60 cm. Average
(3) 3 m2 (4) 3 3 m2
resistance force exerted by the block on the
bullet is nearly 10. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the

(1) 318 N (2) 521 N trolley and the surface in given situation is 0.4,
acceleration of block A will be
(3) 417 N (4) 627 N
6. Statement A : Algebraic sum of moments of
masses about the centre of mass is zero.
Statement B : For small bodies, on earth’s
surface, centre of mass coincides with centre of
gravity.
(1) Only A is correct
6 19
(2) Only B is correct (1) ms2 (2) ms2
17 7
(3) Both A and B are correct 16 14
(3) ms2 (4) ms2
(4) Neither A nor B are correct 9 5

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11. Which of the following is a self adjusting force? 17. A nucleus at rest in the laboratory frame of
reference. If it disintegrates into two smaller
(1) Static friction (2) Kinetic friction
nuclei of unequal masses then
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(1) The products must move in same direction
12. A monkey of mass 60 kg climbs on a rope which
(2) The products may move in any random
can withstand a maximum tension of 900 N. For direction
which of the following value of acceleration
(3) The products must move in opposite
monkey will not be able to climb safely on the
directions
rope?
(4) The products must move perpendicular to
(1) 4 ms–2 (2) 5 ms–2 each other
(3) 0.8 ms–2 (4) 8 ms–2 r
18. Angle between the force F  (3iˆ  2 jˆ  4kˆ ) N and
13. A particle of mass 0.2 kg is moving with linear r
the displacement d  (iˆ  2 jˆ  4kˆ ) m is
velocity (iˆ  jˆ  2kˆ ) m/s. If the radius vector is
r 1  15  1  15 
r  (4iˆ  jˆ  kˆ ) m, then the angular momentum of (1) sin   (2) cos  
 609   609 
the particle will be
1  15  1  23 
(1) 2.14 kgm2/s (2) 4.28 kgm2 /s (3) cos   (4) cos  
 609   609 
(3) 5 kgm2/s (4) 107 kgm2 /s 19. A ballet dancer spin about a vertical axis at 60
rpm with his armed closed. Now he stretched his
14. Normal reaction acting on a body of mass ‘M’
arms such that moment of inertia increased by
placed over a surface is 50%. The new speed of revolution is
(1) Always equal to mg (1) 80 rpm (2) 40 rpm
(2) Always greater than mg (3) 90 rpm (4) 30 rpm
(3) Always less than mg 20. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
(4) May be less than, greater than or equal to mg about its diametric axis is I. Its moment of inertia
about a tangent perpendicular to the plane will be
15. A constant torque of 1000 Nm acts on a wheel of
(1) 3I (2) 2I
moment of inertia 200 kgm 2 about an axis
through centre. The angular velocity of the wheel (3) 6I (4) I
at t = 2 s will be (wheel was at rest initially) 21. A body constrained to move along the z-axis of a
co-ordinate system is subject to a constant force
(1) 15 rad/s (2) 10 rad/s r r
F given by F  (2iˆ  3 jˆ  5kˆ ) N. Work done by
(3) 6 rad/s (4) 12 rad/s
this force in moving the body by a distance of 6
16. A stone of mass m tied to the end of a string m along negative z-axis is
revolves in a vertical circle of radius R. If speed (1) 10 J (2) 20 J
of the particle at lowest point of its path is v then
(3) 30 J (4) 40 J
net force acting on the mass at this position. (T is
tension in string at this position) 22. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) If a conservative force does positive work on
mv 2
(1) mg  a body, the potential energy of the body
R increases.
mv 2 (2) Work done by a body against friction always
(2) T 
R results in a loss of its total energy

(3) mg (3) The rate of change of total momentum of a

many particle system is proportional to the
mv 2 external force on the system
(4)
R (4) Both (2) & (3)

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23. According to work energy theorem, total work 28. Which of the following statement is correct
done by net force acting on the body is equal to among the following?
(1) Change in potential energy of the body (1) In an elastic collision of two bodies, the
(2) Change in kinetic energy of the body momentum and energy of each body is
conserved
(3) Change in mechanical energy of the body
(2) Total energy of a system is always
(4) Change in internal energy of the body
conserved, no matter what internal and
24. For a collision, which of the following statement is external forces on the body are present
not true?
(3) Work done in the motion of a body over a
(1) The total linear momentum of system is closed loop is zero for every force in nature
conserved at each instant of the collision (4) In an elastic collision final kinetic energy is
(2) Kinetic energy of colliding bodies is equal to initial kinetic energy of the system
conserved at each instant of the collision in 29. A hollow sphere starts rolling down a 30° incline
elastic collision of length 6 m without slipping. The speed of
(3) For elastic collision, kinetic energy before centre of mass at the bottom of the plane will be
collision is equal to kinetic energy after (1) 6 m/s (2) 3 m/s
collision
(3) 6 2 m/s (4) 3 2 m/s
(4) Linear momentum of individual body in
collision does not remain conserved. 30. A car of mass 2000 kg moving with a speed of
54 km/h on a road collides with a horizontally
25. A uniform rod is 4 m long and weight is 10 kg. If it
mounted spring. If maximum compression in the
is supported on a knife edge at one metre from
spring is 4 m, then value of spring constant of the
one end, what weight should be placed at that
spring is
end to keep the rod horizontal?
(1) 3125 Nm–1 (2) 62125 Nm–1
(1) 8 kg
(3) 28125 Nm–1 (4) 67215 Nm–1
(2) 10 kg
31. A man pushes a trunk on a railway platform
(3) 12 kg
which has a rough surface. Variation of force with
(4) 16 kg the distance travelled by the trunk is shown in the
26. A bullet of mass 50 gram and horizontal speed figure. Work done by the man on the trunk over
80 ms–1 strikes a block of wood of mass 500 distance of 10 m will be
gram and instantly comes to rest with respect to
the block. The block is suspended from the
ceilling by means of thin long wire. The height to
which the block rises will be
(1) 7.84 cm (2) 12.5 cm
(3) 2.64 m (4) 3.7 m
27. A ring and a disc of same mass and radius rolls
without slipping on a rough horizontal surface
(1) 250 J
with same velocity. If the kinetic energy of ring is
8 J, then kinetic energy of the disc is (2) 150 J

(1) 2 J (2) 6 J (3) 175 J

(3) 4 J (4) 16 J (4) 375 J

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32. A uniform circular ring is rolling without slipping 37. If a disc of diameter R is removed from a large
on rough horizontal surface as shown in figure. disc of radius R, from one side, then the shift in
The ratio of the speed of point A to the point B centre of mass will be
will be R R
(1) (2)
6 3
R R
(3) (4)
8 9
38. A circular race track of radius 200 m is banked at
an angle of 30°. If the coefficient of friction
between the wheels of a race-car and the road is
0.3, then the value of optimum speed of the race-
car to avoid wear and tear on its tyres will be
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
2000 2000
(3) 2 :1 (4) 3 : 1 (1) ms1 (2) ms1
3 5
33. An elevator, which can carry a maximum load of
3
1600 kg (elevator + passengers), is moving up (3) 2000 3 ms1 (4) ms1
2000
with a constant speed of 3 ms–1. The frictional
force opposing the motion is 6000 N. Minimum 39. A cyclist comes to a skidding stop in 15 m.
power delivered by the motor to the elevator is During this process, the force on the cycle due to
the road is 120 N. Work done by the cycle on the
(1) 68000 W (2) 48000 W road during this process is
(3) 59 hp (4) 88.5 hp (1) 1800 J (2) –1800 J
34. A shaft rotating at 3000 rpm is transmitting a (3) 3000 J (4) Zero
power of 3.14 kW. The magnitude of the driving 40. A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its
torque is centre. When two coins, each of mass 9 g are
(1) 6 Nm (2) 10 Nm put one over the other at 15 cm mark, stick is
found to be balanced about 30 cm. Mass of the
(3) 15 Nm (4) 22 Nm stick is
35. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one- (1) 2 g (2) 4 g
dimensional motion with constant acceleration.
(3) 13.5 g (4) 6 g
Power delivered to the body at time t is
41. Two small balls of masses m and 2m, moving
proportional to
along a straight line, collides inelastically as
(1) t (2) t2 shown in the figure. Speed of combined system
formed after collision is
(3) t1/2 (4) t3/2

SECTION-B
36. Three uniform discs each of mass ‘M’ and radius 3v
(1)
‘r’ kept touching each other, such that their 5
centres form a triangle. The moment of inertia of v
the system about the median of this triangle is (2)
3
5 3 v
(1) Mr 2 (2) Mr 2 (3)
4 2 5
9 11 2 5v
(3) Mr 2 (4) Mr (4)
4 4 3

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42. A road is banked at angle . If coefficient of 47. An electron and a proton are detected in a
friction between the road and tyre of the car experiment, the first with kinetic energy 10 keV
moving on the road is , then maximum possible and second with kinetic energy 100 keV. Which
safe speed of car moving over the road on a particle is moving faster?
circular track of radius R will be
(1) Electron
   tan      tan  
(1) Rg   (2) Rg   (2) Proton
 1   tan    1  s tan  
(3) Both are moving equally faster
 1   tan    1   tan   (4) Either electron or proton, depending on the
(3) Rg   (4) Rg  
   tan      tan   experiment
43. For a system to be in equilibrium, the torques 48. A thin circular ring and a disc of equal mass and
acting on it must balance. This is true only if the radii roll down from the top of the rough inclined
torques are taken about plane. The ratio of time taken by them to reach
(1) The centre of mass of the system the bottom will be
(2) The centre of gravity of the system
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 1
(3) Any point on the system
(4) Any point on the system or outside it (3) 3 :1 (4) 2 : 3

44. A train runs along an unbanked circular track of 49. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of mass M
radius 40 m at a speed of 72 km/h. The mass of and length l about an axis perpendicular to the
the train is 106 kg. The centripetal force required l
for this purpose is provided length and passing through a distance from its
3
(1) By the force applied by engine on train one end will be
(2) By the thrust applied by train on the rail
l
(3) By the lateral thrust by the rail on the flanges (1)
3
of the wheels
(4) By the flanges of the wheels on the rail. l
(2)
3
45. A hollow sphere rolls down without slipping from
rest on a 30° incline. It’s linear acceleration is l
(3)
5g 3g 2
(1) (2)
7 10 l
(4)
3g g 2
(3) (4)
7 2 50. Which of the statement is not correct about
46. A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal impulse?
wall with speed 375 ms–1 and at angle 60° with
(1) Impulse is the product of force and time
the normal to the wall and rebounds with the
same speed. In this phenomenon, which equals change in momentum

(1) Linear momentum of gas molecule is (2) The notion of impulse is useful when a large
conserved force acts for a short time to produce a
(2) Linear momentum of wall of container is measurable change in momentum
conserved (3) There must be an appreciable change in the
(3) Linear momentum of (wall + molecule) position of the body during the action of the
system is conserved impulsive force
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) SI unit of impulse is kgms–1

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CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 57. Intramolecular hydrogen bond is absent in which

of the given molecules?
51. Which among the following has maximum bond
length?
(1) (2)
(1) C = O (2) N = O
(3) C = C (4) C  N
(3) (4)
52. Consider the following statements.
(a) NO2 and NO are odd-electron molecules.
58. Diamagnetic species among the following is
(b) Expanded octet is observed in SF6 and SCl2
(1) N2 (2) O22
molecules.
(c) Octet theory explains the relative stability of (3) B2 (4) O2
molecules.
The incorrect statements are 59. Highest occupied molecular orbital of B2 ion is

(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (1)  (2) *
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (3)  (4) *
53. The pair of species having same bond order is 60. The species which is see-saw in shape is
(1) N2 and NO+ (2) F2 and O2 (1) XeO2F2 (2) SiCl4

(3) H2 and He2 (4) B2 and C2 (3) XeF4 (4) SO24

54. Correct order of dipole moments of the given 61. Bond order of N2 ion is
molecules is
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5
(1) H2O > NH3 > H2S (2) NH3 > H2S > H2O
(3) 3 (4) 2
(3) H2O > H2S > NH3 (4) NH3 > H2O > H2S
62. Maximum number of atoms present in a plane in
55. Isostructural pair among the following is
SbF5 is
(1) ClF3 and PCl3
(1) 5 (2) 4

(2) SF4 and NH4 (3) 3 (4) 2

(3) SO3 and BCl3 63. Correct order of critical temperature of the given
gases is
(4) PCl3F2 and BrF5
(1) N2 > He > H2 > NH3 (2) NH3 > N2 > He > H2
56. Incorrect statement among the following is
(3) NH3 > N2 > H2 > He (4) NH3 > He > N2 > H2
(1) In SF6, the central atom is sp3d2 hybridised
64. A gas present in a closed cylinder exerts a
(2) SF6 molecule is octahedral in shape
pressure of 0.41 atm at 127°C. If density of gas is
(3) In PCl5 molecule, the five sp3d orbitals of
0.8 g/L, then the molar mass of the gas will be
phosphorus overlap with the singly occupied
p orbitals of chlorine atoms to form five P – Cl (1) 16 g/mol
sigma bonds (2) 32 g/mol
(4) In PCl5, equatorial bonds are longer than (3) 44 g/mol
axial bonds
(4) 64 g/mol

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65. For a given gas at fixed temperature which of the 71. For the given pressure-temperature graph for
following relation is correct? fixed mass of a gas, the correct relation between
V1, V2 and V3 is
(1) Ump > Uav > Urms (2) Urms > Uav > Ump
(3) Uav > Urms > Ump (4) Urms > Ump > Uav
66. Unit of surface tension is
(1) Nm–2 (2) Nm–1
(3) Nm–3 (4) Nm2
67. Consider the following statements.
(a) Greater is the viscosity, more slowly the
(1) V1 > V2 > V3 (2) V2 > V3 > V1
liquid flows.
(3) V3 > V2 > V3 (4) V3 > V1 > V2
(b) Viscosity coefficient is the force when velocity
72. Dipole-dipole interaction energy between rotating
gradient is unity and the area of contact is polar molecules is proportional to (r is the
unit area. distance between polar molecules)
(c) S.I unit of viscosity coefficient is Nm –2. 1 1
(1) (2)
The correct statements are r r2
1 1
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (4)
3
r r6
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
73. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 50°C
68. A 12 L closed cylinder contains 4 g of H2 gas and expands from 2.5 L to 3.5 L against a constant
16 g of He gas at 27°C. The pressure exerted by external pressure of 4 atm. The work done by the
the mixture of gases is gas is
(1) – 603.4 J (2) – 312.6 J
(1) 4.5 atm (2) 8.2 atm
(3) – 820 J (4) – 405.2 J
(3) 12.3 atm (4) 18.4 atm
74. Extensive property among the following is
69. Incorrect statement about kinetic molecular
(1) Pressure (2) Volume
theory of gases is
(3) Temperature (4) Density
(1) There is no force of attraction between the
75. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of which of
particle of a gas at ordinary temperature and the given substances is zero at 298 K?
pressure
(1) C6H6(l) (2) H2O(l)
(2) Particles of a gas move in all possible (3) Br2(l) (4) C(diamond)
direction in straight lines
76. Which of the following is not a state function?
(3) At any particular time, different particles in (1) H (2) U
the gas have same speed and hence same (3) W (4) H – TS
kinetic energies
77. For the given reaction, which of the following
(4) Collisions of gas molecules are perfectly relation is correct?
elastic N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
70. The least compressible gas among the following (1) H > 0 and S > 0
is (2) H < 0 and S > 0
(1) N2 (2) CO2 (3) H < 0 and S < 0
(3) CH4 (4) O2 (4) H > 0 and S < 0
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78. Standard entropies of A2, B2 and A2B3 are 50, 20 84. The number of  bonds and  bonds in the given
and 60 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. molecule respectively are
For the reaction CH2 = C = CH – CN
3 (1) 3 and 7 (2) 4 and 7
A 2  B2  A 2B3 , H° = – 7.5 KJ, to be at
2 (3) 2 and 7 (4) 2 and 6
equilibrium, the temperature should be
85. Which among the following has highest number
(1) 375 K (2) 350 K of lone pairs on central atom?
(3) 450 K (4) 475 K (1) XeO3 (2) [ICl2]–
79. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all
(3) SO32 (4) XeF3
temperature, which of the given relation is
correct?
SECTION-B
(1) rH° > 0 and rS° > 0
86. Correct order of covalent character of the given
(2) rH° < 0 and rS° > 0
compounds is
(3) rH° > 0 and rS° < 0
(1) MgBr2 > AlBr3 > NaBr
(4) rH° < 0 and rS° < 0
(2) NaBr > MgBr2 > AlBr3
80. rGº for the following reaction at 25°C in J
(3) AlBr3 > MgBr2 > NaBr
mol–1 will be
(4) AlBr3 > NaBr > MgBr2

87. The number of bonding electrons in O2 and

(Kp for the reaction at 25°C = 100)
number of antibonding electrons in N2
(1) – 4.606 × 298 × 8.314
respectively are
(2) – 2.303 × 298 × 0.082
(1) 8 and 4 (2) 10 and 5
(3) 2.303 × 298 × 8.314
(4) – 298 × 2 × 8.314 (3) 9 and 5 (4) 10 and 4

81. If one mole of an ideal gas undergoes expansion 88. Which among the following has highest lattice
in volume from 10 L to 100 L at 27°C, enthalpy?
isothermally and reversibly, then the work done (1) LiCl (2) NaCl
by the gas is
(3) LiI (4) NaI
(1) – 8.4 kJ (2) – 5.7 kJ
89. In which of the given species Cl – O bond length
(3) – 12.3 kJ (4) – 2.3 kJ is shortest?
82. For the reaction, 2X(g) + 3Y(g)  X2Y3(g), if
(1) ClO4 (2) ClO–
U = – 4.5 kcal and S = – 10 calK–1 at 300 K,
then G of the reaction will be (3) ClO2 (4) ClO3
(1) – 5.2 kcal (2) – 1.2 kcal
90. In which of the following transformation, the bond
(3) – 3.9 kcal (4) – 4.5 kcal order has increased and magnetic behavior is
unchanged?
83. The bond order of P – O bond PO34 is

(1) 1.5 (2) 2 (1) O2  O22 (2) NO  NO+

(3) 1.25 (4) 1.75 (3) N2 N2 (4) O2  O2

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91. At low pressure the compressibility factor of one 96. If heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is –94
mole of van der Waals gas will be kcal/mol then heat released on the formation of
66 g of CO2 from carbon is
a Pb
(1) 1  (2) 1  (1) 592.2 kJ (2) 675.5 kJ
VRT RT
Pb a (3) 375.8 kJ (4) 462.5 kJ
(3) 1  (4) 1  97. Which among the following is an exothermic
RT VRT
process?
92. A closed cylinder containing 8 g helium gas and
64 g methane gas exerts a pressure of 15 atm at (1) Melting of ice
273 K. The partial pressure of helium gas in the (2) Sublimation of camphor
cylinder is (3) Condensation of steam
(1) 2.5 atm (2) 5 atm (4) Vapourisation of water
(3) 7.5 atm (4) 10 atm 98. If bond dissociation enthalpy of HCl(g), H2(g) and
93. If temperature is increased, then which of the Cl2(g) are 431, 436 and 243 kJ mol–1 respectively
following is an incorrect statement about then enthalpy of formation of HCl will be
Maxwell- Boltzmann distribution of speed curve? (1) – 248 kJmol–1 (2) – 91.5 kJmol–1
(1) The entire curve shifts towards right (3) – 463.5 kJmol–1 (4) – 65.7 kJmol–1
(2) The most probable speed increases 99. For reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal
(3) The fraction of molecules having most gas which of the following relation is incorrect?
probable speed increases (1) H = 0 (2) U = 0
(4) Fraction of molecules having lower speed (3) q < 0 (4) S > 0
decreases 100. Statement I: A spontaneous process is an
94. Which among the following has highest surface irreversible process.
tension at 25°C? Statement II: For spontaneous process, Stotal > 0.
(1) Benzene (2) Water In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Acetone (4) Ethanol correct answer from the options given below.
95. An open flask containing air is heated from 300 K (1) Statement I is incorrect but statements II is
to 700 K. The fraction of air escaped to the correct
atmosphere is (2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
1 2 (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) (2)
7 7 incorrect
4 3 (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) (4) incorrect
7 7

BOTANY
SECTION-A 102. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
101. Dinoflagellates Statement A: Euglenoids have pigments
(1) Are mostly found in fresh water identical to those in higher plants
Statement B: Euglenoids behave as
(2) Contribute in formation of diatomaceous
heterotrophs when deprived of sunlight.
earth
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Have two longitudinally placed flagella
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(4) Have cell wall made up of stiff cellulose (3) Both statements are correct
plates on the outer surface (4) Both statements are incorrect

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103. Sexual reproduction in fungi involves formation of 112. In mustard

(1) Conidia (2) Zoospores (1) Placentation is free central type
(3) Sporangiospores (4) Oospores (2) Placenta is axial in position
104. Dikaryophase occurs in (3) Ovary has basal placentation
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Phycomycetes (4) Ovary becomes two-chambered due to
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Both (1) and (3) formation of false septum

105. Which fungi is used extensively in biochemical 113. Pneumatophores

and genetic work? (1) Are modification of stem
(1) Agaricus (2) Neurospora (2) Help to get oxygen for respiration
(3) Morels (4) Trichoderma (3) Are found in Rhizopus
106. Viruses that infect bacteria usually have (4) Are modification of root for support
(1) Single stranded RNA 114. Stems of Euphorbia are
(2) Double stranded RNA (1) Flattened and carry out photosynthesis
(3) Double stranded DNA (2) Cylindrical and non-photosynthetic
(4) Single stranded DNA (3) Flattened and bear thorns
107. Infectious agent that causes potato spindle tuber (4) Cylindrical and photosynthetic
disease
115. In which of the following plants, the underground
(1) Is found to be a free DNA
stem spreads to new niches and form new plants
(2) Lacks the protein coat when older parts die?
(3) Was discovered by D.J. Ivanovsky (1) Eichhornia (2) Pistia
(4) Is bigger than viruses (3) Strawberry (4) Pea
108. Viruses could be crystallised, it was first shown 116. Opposite phyllotaxy is found in
by
(1) Alstonia (2) China rose
(1) Pasteur (2) T.O. Diener
(3) Mustard (4) Calotropis
(3) M.W. Beijerinck (4) W.M. Stanley
117. In racemose type of inflorescences
109. In roots, the region of meristematic activity
(1) Main axis continues to grow
(1) Has cells which do not divide at all
(2) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order
(2) Has larger cells with thick wall and dense
cytoplasm (3) Main axis terminates in a flower

(3) Is present few millimetres above the root cap (4) Growth of main axis is limited

(4) Is responsible for the growth of the root in 118. Epigynous flowers are found in
length (1) Rose
110. Root hairs arise from the epidermal cells of (2) Brinjal
(1) Region of maturation (3) Ray florets of sunflower
(2) Region of elongation (4) Peach
(3) Root cap 119. Flowers cannot be divided into two similar halves
(4) Region of meristem by any vertical plane passing through the centre
in
111. The edible plant of Liliaceae family is
(1) Canna (2) Cassia
(1) Tulip (2) Asparagus
(3) Datura (4) Chilli
(3) Chilli (4) Soyabean

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120. Select the correct match w.r.t. five kingdom 125. Read the following statements and select the
system of classification. correct option.
Statement A: All protozoans are heterotrophs.
(1) Fungi Nuclear membrane absent in
Statement B: Protozoans are believed to be
some
primitive relatives of animals.
(2) Protista Cell wall present in some (1) Only statement A is correct

(3) Animalia Loose tissue body organisation (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Monera Cellulosic cell wall
(4) Both statements are correct
121. Main criteria for classification used by R.H. 126. Match the following columns and select the
Whittaker includes correct option.
(a) Thallus organisation Column I Column II
(b) Mode of nutrition
a. Amoeboid protozoa (i) Plasmodium
(c) Phylogenetic relationship
b. Ciliated protozoa (ii) Trypanosoma
(d) Simple morphological characters
c. Sporozoa (iii) Entamoeba
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (a) and (b) only d. Flagellated protozoa (iv) Paramoecium

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

122. On the basis of five kingdom, system of 127. Which of the following statement is not related to
sac-fungi?
classification Chlorella and Amoeba belong to
kingdom (1) They can be both multicellular and unicellular

(1) Monera (2) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic

or coprophilous
(2) Plantae and Animalia respectively
(3) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(3) Protista
(4) Sexual spores are produced endogenously
(4) Plantae and Protista respectively 128. Wheat rust-causing fungi belongs to the class
123. Which of the following statement is incorrect (1) Phycomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
regarding Chrysophytes?
(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Ascomycetes
(1) They include both diatoms and desmids 129. Lichens
(2) They are microscopic and float passively in (1) Are very good pollution indicators
water current
(2) Grow well in air polluted area
(3) They belong to kingdom Protista
(3) Are mutually useful association between
(4) Most of them are heterotrophs roots of plants and fungi
124. Slime moulds (4) Have mycobiont partner which is autotrophic
(1) Are saprophytic protists 130. Capsomeres

(2) Form plasmodium during unfavourable (1) Are subunits of nucleic acid
condition (2) Surrounds the protein coat
(3) Lack true wall in their spores (3) Are never arranged in helical form

(4) Are responsible for causing red tides (4) Protects the nucleic acid

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131. Two kingdom system of classification 139. Syncarpous gynoecium is found in

distinguishes between a. Rose and China rose
(1) Eukaroytes and prokaryotes
b. Mustard and Tomato
(2) Unicellular and multicellular organisms
c. Potato and Tulip
(3) Plants and animals
d. Lotus and Brinjal
(4) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic
organisms Choose the correct one(s).

132. Which among the following is not related to (1) b and c (2) a, c and d
modification of leaves? (3) a and b (4) b only
(1) Leaves are converted into tendrils for 140. Mango
climbing in grapevines
(1) Is parthenocarpic fruit
(2) Petioles become green and photosynthetic in
(2) Has fibrous mesocarp
Australian Acacia
(3) Fleshy leaves in garlic store food (3) Develops from monocarpellary ovary

(4) Spines of cacti are modified leaves (4) Has stony epicarp
133. Valvate aestivation is seen in petals of 141. Choose the odd one w.r.t. castor seed.
(1) China rose (2) Lady’s finger (1) Endosperm (2) Radicle
(3) Calotropis (4) Gulmohur (3) Cotyledon (4) Coleoptile
134. Select the correct match. 142. Lupin is used as ornamental plant. Which of
(1) Axile placentation – Primrose following feature will not be seen in lupin?
(2) Epiphyllous stamen – Lily (1) Presence of both male and female sex
(3) Free central placentation – Lemon organs
(4) Hypogynous flower – Plum (2) Superior ovary
135. Papilionaceous corolla is found in members of (3) Racemose inflorescence
family
(4) Epipetalous stamens
(1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae
143. By looking into a floral formula of a plant one can
(3) Brassicaceae (4) Fabaceae not conclude that flower
SECTION-B (1) Is actinomorphic or zygomorphic
136. Select the odd one for corolla. (2) Has how many ovules or locules
(1) They are of various shapes tubular, funnel or (3) Has how many number of floral whorls
wheel-shaped
(4) Is bisexual or unisexual
(2) They are brightly coloured in insect pollinated
144. Select the kingdom in which all members are
flowers
heterotrophic.
(3) They may be united with each other called
gamotepalous (1) Plantae (2) Monera
(4) Their number varies among plant species (3) Fungi (4) Protista
137. Margins of petals overlap one another but not in 145. The most abundant microorganisms, bacteria
a particular direction as in (1) Are very simple in behaviour
(1) Pea (2) Cotton
(2) As a group show most extensive metabolic
(3) Tomato (4) Cassia diversity than many other organisms
138. Stamens are united into two bundles in (3) Are majorly photosynthetic autotrophic
(1) China rose (2) Pea
(4) Are grouped under seven categories based
(3) Citrus (4) Solanum on their shape

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146. Member of kingdom Monera responsible for the 149. _______ are the chief ‘produces’ in the oceans
production of biogas from the dung of ruminant
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Dinoflagellates
animals are known as
(1) Thermoacidophiles (2) Halophiles (3) Diatoms (4) Euglenoids

(3) Eubacteria (4) Methanogens 150. Mark True (T) or False (F) for the statements
147. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. eubacteria. given below.

(1) They often form blooms in non-polluted water I. Only the sexual phases of imperfect fungi are
bodies known.
(2) They are characterised by the presence of a II. The mycelium is septate and branched in
rigid cell wall Deuteromycetes.
(3) Have chlorophyll a similar to green plants III. Members of Deuteromycetes help in mineral
(4) Colonies are generally surrounded by cycling.
gelatinous sheath
I II III
148. Mycoplasma
(1) T T F
(1) Completely lack a cell membrane
(2) F T T
(2) Cannot survive without oxygen
(3) Possess cell wall (3) F F T
(4) Are smallest living cell known (4) T F F

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 153. Match the formed elements in column I with their
percentage of total WBC count listed in column II.
151. How much oxygen is delivered to the tissues by
Column I Column II
100 mL of oxygenated blood under normal
physiological conditions?

(1) 0.5 mL (2) 5 mL a. (i) 6-8%

(3) 15 mL (4) 10 mL

152. Read the given statements w.r.t. blood plasma.

(A) 50-55 percent of plasma is water.

b. (ii) 20-25%
(B) Albumin helps in defense mechanism of the
body.

(C) Plasma without clotting factors is called

serum. c. (iii) 60-65%

(D) Clotting factors are present in an inactive

form in plasma.

How many of the given statements are correct?

d. (iv) 2-3%
(1) One

(2) Two
Select the correct option.
(3) Three
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Four
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

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154. The thread-like bands of fibrous tissue which 159. Read the statements given below and select the
attaches edges of tricuspid and mitral valves of incorrect one.
the heart to ventricular wall with the special (1) Ammonia is the most toxic excretory form
muscles are called and least soluble in water
(1) Bundle of His (2) Chordae tendinae (2) Reptiles, birds and land snails excrete
(3) AV bundle (4) Purkinje fibres nitrogenous wastes in the form of pellet or
paste
155. Select the correct option to complete the
analogy. (3) Aquatic insects and many bony fishes are
ammonotelic in nature
Between right atrium and right ventricle :
Tricuspid valve : : Between left ventricle and (4) Protonephridia are primarily concerned with
aorta : _______ ionic and fluid volume regulation

(1) Mitral valve (2) Bicuspid valve 160. All of the given options are functions of the part
of renal tubule which is lined by simple cuboidal
(3) Semilunar valve (4) Pulmonary valve brush border epithelium, except
156. Which of the following is not true for the effect of (A) Minimum reabsorption
sympathetic nervous system on heart?
(B) Impermeability to water
(1) Increased rate of heartbeat
(C) Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes
(2) Decreased speed of conduction of action
(D) Selective secretion of hydrogen and
potential
potassium ions
(3) Increased strength of ventricular contraction
Select the correct option.
(4) Increased cardiac output
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
157. Read the statements A and B and select the
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
correct option.
161. JGA is a special sensitive region formed by
Statement A: In ECG, P-wave represents the
cellular modification in the A and
electrical excitation of the atria.
the B at the location of their contact.
Statement B: The end of T-wave marks the end Choose the correct option to fill the blanks A and
of ventricular systole. B respectively.
(1) Both the statements A and B are correct (1) DCT and efferent arteriole
(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (2) DCT and afferent arteriole
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) PCT and afferent arteriole
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) PCT and efferent arteriole
158. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. disorders of 162. How many of the substances given below in the
circulatory system. box are reabsorbed by active transport in the
renal tubules?
(1) Heart failure Heart is not pumping
blood effectively Glucose, Water, Urea, Na+

(2) Cardiac arrest Heart stops beating (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) Heart attack Heart muscle is suddenly
163. Which of the following is not the function of ADH?
damaged by an
inadequate blood supply (1) It facilitates water and sodium reabsorption
from proximal parts of renal tubule
(4) Atherosclerosis Acute chest pain when (2) Prevents diuresis
inadequate oxygen is
(3) Constrictory effect on blood vessels
reaching the heart muscle
(4) Synthesized by hypothalamus

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164. The RAAS mechanism becomes active in 171. The effect on pregnancy if a Rh+ve male marries a
response to Rh–ve female is that
(1) Excessive loss of body fluid (A) No pregnancy will occur.
(2) Increase in amount of body fluid
(B) Death of first child.
(3) Increase in GFR
(C) Their first child will survive.
(4) Increase in glomerular blood pressure
(D) Rh antibodies from the mother can leak into
165. In interstitial fluid of kidney, there is increasing
blood of second Rh+ve child and destroy its
osmolarity from cortex to inner medulla. This
gradient is mainly caused by RBCs.

(1) Na+ and K+ (2) Urea and HCO3– Select the correct option.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (D)
(3) NaCl and Urea (4) Na+ and HCO3–
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (D) only
166. Urine formed by nephrons is ultimately carried to
the urinary bladder where it is stored till ‘X’ 172. The organism in which mixing of oxygenated and
signals are given by ‘Y’. deoxygenated blood takes place in the ventricle
Select the option that correctly identifies ‘X’ and of heart is
‘Y’ respectively. (1) Frog (2) Crocodile
(1) Involuntary, PNS (2) Voluntary, PNS (3) Whale (4) Sea horse
(3) Involuntary, CNS (4) Voluntary, CNS
173. Assertion (A): ANF mechanism acts as a check
167. Which of the following is not eliminated by on the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
sebaceous glands?
Reason (R): ANF is secreted by the atria of the
(1) Sterols (2) Urea
heart.
(3) Hydrocarbons (4) Waxes
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
168. Which one of the given statements is incorrect
w.r.t. dialysing unit of haemodialysis? correct explanation of (A)

(1) Blood is drained from a convenient vein and (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
is pumped into dialysing unit correct explanation of (A)
(2) Anticoagulant like heparin is added to it (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) It contains a coiled cellophane tube (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) The tube within the unit is surrounded by
174. The condition affecting the vessels that supply
dialysing fluid which has same composition
blood to the heart muscle due to deposition of
as that of plasma except nitrogenous wastes
calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissue is
169. Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of
called
many metabolic disorders as well as
malfunctioning of the kidney. (1) CAD (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
Given are some abnormalities, select the one (3) Heart failure (4) Angina
associated with diabetes mellitus.
175. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and their
(1) Ketonuria (2) Uremia
respiratory structures.
(3) Proteinuria (4) Glycemia
(1) Frogs – Moist skin
170. Which of the following is not secreted by
basophils? (2) Prawns – Gills

(1) Histamine (2) Serotonin (3) Snakes – Lungs

(3) Globulin (4) Heparin (4) Cockroach – Moist cuticle

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176. The total volume of air a person can expire after 181. Value of pCO2 in oxygenated blood is equal to
a normal inspiration is the value of pO2 in
(1) TLC – FRC (1) Systemic arteries (2) Systemic veins
(2) VC – IRV (3) Pulmonary vein (4) Atmosphere
(3) FRC – RV
182. Select the correct statement among the following
(4) VC – ERV given statements.
177. Match the column I with column II w.r.t. (1) In human lungs, the diffusion membrane is
circulatory pathways.
made up of three cellular layers
Column I Column II (2) Conducting part of the respiratory system is
a. Cockroach (i) Incomplete double involved in the regulation of diffusion of O 2
circulation and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air
(3) The role of oxygen in the regulation of
b. Rohu (ii) Double circulation
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant
c. Pavo (iii) Open circulation
(4) The rate of diffusion of gases depends only
d. Naja (iv) Single circulation upon the cooperative diffusion of gases w.r.t.
each other
Select the correct option.
183. What is the volume of air inspired or expired per
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
minute during a normal breathing by a healthy
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
adult man if he breaths 16 times per minute?
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) 500 mL (2) 6000 mL
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) 8000 mL (4) 4500 mL
178. All of the following factors are favourable for
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin at tissues level, 184. For efficient working of lungs, respiratory surface
except should have following features, except
(1) High pCO2 (1) Moist
(2) Low pO2 (2) Thick membrane
(3) Lower temperature (3) Permeable to gases
(4) Higher H+ concentration
(4) Large diffusion area
179. In the pons region of hind-brain, pneumotaxic
185. The enzyme which catalyses the given reaction
centre is located which moderates the functions
is present in
of specialised centre in medulla region. Strong
signals from this centre result in CO2  H2O H2CO3 HCO3–  H
(1) Complete filling of lungs
(A) RBCs (B) Thrombocytes
(2) Decrease in rate of breathing
(3) Decrease in duration of expiration (C) WBCs (D) Plasma

(4) Deep breathing Select the correct option.

180. How much carbon dioxide is delivered by 2 L of (1) (A) only

deoxygenated blood to the alveoli? (2) (B) and (C)
(1) 80 mL (2) 100 mL
(3) (A) and (D)
(3) 20 mL (4) 30 mL
(4) (A) and (C)

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SECTION-B 190. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the amount of

blood filtered by kidneys.
186. Rh incompatibility during pregnancy can cause
(1) 1100-1200 mL of blood per minute
disease ‘X’ in subsequent pregnancies which is
fatal to the foetus or could cause ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ to the (2) 1/5th of the blood pumped by each ventricle
baby. of the heart in a minute

Select the option that correctly identifies ‘X’, ‘Y’ (3) 5 × (stroke volume × heart rate)
and ‘Z’. (4) 20% of cardiac output

X Y Z 191. Match the column-I with column-II w.r.t.

components of renal tubule and their functions.
(1) Erythroblastosis Severe Jaundice
foetalis anaemia Column I Column II

a. Proximal (i) Permeable to

(2) Haemophilia Severe Typhoid
convoluted tubule solutes only
anaemia
b. Distal convoluted (ii) Conditional
(3) Stroke Excessive Brain tubule reabsorption of
bleeding damage Na+
(4) Erythroblastosis Haemophilia Jaundice c. Descending limb of (iii) Permeable to
foetalis Henle’s loop water and almost
impermeable to
187. If the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle electrolytes
per minute is 8 litres and the number of heart
beat is 80 beats/min, then what would be the d. Ascending limb of (iv) Selective secretion
Henle’s loop of K+
volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in a
cardiac cycle? Select the correct option.
(1) 1 litre (2) 100 mL (1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) 10 L (4) 10 mL (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

188. The amount of haemoglobin in 1L of blood of a 192. If the amount filtrate formed by the kidneys of an
healthy human adult is individual is 252 litres per day, then calculate the
GFR per minute and select the correct option.
(1) 12 – 16 g (2) 120 – 160 g
(1) 125 mL/min (2) 175 mL/min
(3) 12 – 16 mg (4) 1200 – 1600 mg
(3) 252 mL/min (4) 25.2 mL/min
189. Read the statements given below w.r.t. wall of
193. Kidneys are reddish brown, bean-shaped
blood vessels and select the correct option. structures situated between X vertebra
(A) Tunica intima is the inner lining of squamous and the combined weight of both kidneys is
epithelium. around Y .

(B) Tunica media is the middle layer of smooth Select the correct option to fill the blanks X and
muscles with inelastic fibres. Y.

(C) Tunica externa is the external layer of fibrous X Y

connective tissue with collagen fibres.
(1) T12 – L1 120 – 170 gm
(1) Only statements (A) and (B) are correct
(2) L1 – L4 120 – 240 gm
(2) Only statements (A) and (C) are correct
(3) T12 – L3 240 – 340 gm
(3) Both (B) and (C) are incorrect
(4) T10 – L2 120 – 170 gm
(4) Both (A) and (C) are incorrect

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194. Choose the odd one from the options given 197. Recombinant human protein -1-antitrypsin is
below w.r.t. the excretory structures present in used primarily to treat the disorder in which
given animals. (1) Alveolar walls are damaged leading to
(1) Fasciola decrease in respiratory surface owing to
chronic cigarette smoking
(2) Rotifers
(2) The patient suffers difficulty in breathing
(3) Amphioxus
causing wheezing due to inflammation of
(4) Prawns bronchi
195. All of the given statements are correct for kidney (3) Long exposure gives rise to inflammation to
and nephron, except upper part of lungs
(1) In cortical nephrons, the loop of Henle’s is (4) Long exposure gives rise to proliferation of
too short fibrous tissue

(2) Vasa recta is absent in all cortical nephrons 198. All of the given options are true for movement of
air from atmosphere to lungs, except
(3) Renal cortex extends in between the
medullary pyramids as renal columns called (1) Contraction of diaphragm
columns of Bertini (2) Volume of thoracic cavity increases
(4) Each kidney has nearly one million nephrons (3) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles

196. If pulmonary volumes/capacities of a person are (4) Pressure within the pulmonary cavity
as given below: decreases

Vital capacity = 4200 mL 199. Approximately what percent of CO2 is

transported by the medium which also transports
IRV = 2900 mL
about 97% of O2?
Total lung capacity = 6200 mL (1) 3 (2) 20–25
Tidal volume = 500 mL (3) 70 (4) 7
Expiratory capacity = 1300 mL 200. How many of the given structures of the human
Find the functional residual capacity (FRC) of the respiratory system from the box below are
person. supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings?

(1) 2000 mL Trachea, Tertiary bronchi, Terminal bronchioles,

(2) 2800 mL Initial bronchioles

(3) 1800 mL (1) Three (2) Two

(4) 1500 mL (3) Four (4) One

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