GENESIS

(Post Graduation Medical orientation Centre)

Exam : Mock Test-I Pediatrics
Class/Chapter :
Total Mark : 200 Time : 180 Min
Pass Mark : 120 Question 181 to End is Based on Single Answers Date : 0000-00-00

1. Following are the features of costal surface of scapula- 2. Apex of the lung is related anteriorly with-
a) It is concave a) Subclavian artery
b) It is directed medially and forward b) Internal thoracic artery
c) It presents two longitudinal ridges which provides attachment of c) Scalenus anterior
subscapularis muscle d) Ventral ramus of 1st thoracic nerve
d) The subscapularis muscle arises from the medial 1/3rd of the e) Sympathetic chain
subscapularis fossa
e) The serratus anterior muscle inserted into this surface along the 3. Dorsal surface of coccyx-
medial border and the inferior angle a) Provides origin on each side to gluteus maximus
b) Provides origin to sphincter ani externus at the tip
c) Provides attachment to filum terminale on the 1st coccygeal
vertebrae
d) Related to rectum
e) Anastomotic site between median sacral and lateral inferior
sacral artery

4. Following embryological remnant of testis and epididymis 5. Pectineus is a-

is correct match according to origin- a) Flat quadrilateral muscle
a) Appendix of testis: Remnant of upper pole of testis b) Arises from pecten pubis
b) Appendix of epididymis: Remnant of cranial end of c) Inserted in to the upper end of linea aspera
mesonephric/Wolffian duct d) Supplied by femoral nerve only
c) Paradidymis: Remnant of caudal mesonephric tubule e) Adduct & flexes the thigh at hip joint
d) Superior aberrant ductules: Remnant of intermediate
mesonephric tubules 6. Norma frontalis show the following features-
e) Inferior aberrant ductules: Remnant of upper mesonephric a) Frontal region formed by frontal bone
tubules b) Orbital opening
c) Prominence of cheek formed by maxilla
d) Bony external nose and posterior nasal aperture
e) Upper and lower jaw bearing teeth

7. Cell groups present in the posterior gray column of spinal 8. Transverse section of medulla at the level of sensory
cord are- decussation shows following structure-
a) Substantia gelatinosa a) Dorsal nucleus of vagus
b) Nucleus proprius b) Internal arcuate fiber
c) Nucleus dorsalis c) Inferior olivary nucleus
d) Visceral afferent nucleus d) Hypoglossal nucleus
e) Phrenic nucleus e) Nucleus intercalatus

9. Following sources of major hematopoietic cytokine 10. In female mullerian duct gives rise to-
matches correctly- a) Epophoron
a) Stem cell factor- Stromal cell of bone marrow b) Prostatic utricle
b) Erythropoietin- Peritubular endothelial cell of kidney c) Upper part of vagina
c) Thrombopoietin- Liver & kidney d) Vulva
d) GM-CSF- Endothelial cell of bone marrow and macrophage e) Uterus
e) M-CSF- Endothelial cell of bone marrow and T-lymphocyte
11. Glands of ectodermal origin-
a) Gonadal cortex
b) Pituitary gland
c) Adrenal Cortex
d) Sweat gland
e) Parotid gland

12. During choledocolithotomy, structures in the posterior 13. A 48-year-old man feels a little discomfort, When moving
relation of common bile duct can be injured. Structures in his tongue, pharynx, and larynx. Physical examination
the posterior relation of supraduodenal part of common indicates that the muscles attached to the styloid process
bile duct is/are- are paralyzed. Which of the following nerve are
a) 1st part of duodenum responsible for this condition?
b) Head of pancreas a) Facial nerve
c) Hepatic artery b) Hypoglossal nerve
d) Epiploic foramen c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
e) Portal vein d) Spinal accessory nerve
e) Vagus nerve

14. A patient came to emergency doctor with partial claw 15. Adult Vestiges derived from the fetal circulatory system-
hand. In this situation, doctor will also find positive- a) Umbilical artery
a) Phalen test b) Ligamentum teres
b) Pen test c) Median umbilical ligaments
c) Book test d) Medial umbilical ligaments
d) Card test e) Ductus venosus
e) Froment’s sign
16. Following structure are found in Superficial perineal 17. A 42-year patient complaints of chest pain with
pouch except? hypertension to you. An ECG demonstrate Left
a) Superficial transverse perineal muscle Ventricular Hypertrophy you have noticed, True regarding
b) Deep transverse perineal muscle left ventricle?
c) Root of the penis a) Semilunar shape cavity
d) Membranous urethra b) Moderator band
e) Bulbospongiosus muscle c) Thicker muscular wall than right
d) Two papillary muscle
e) Receive carbonated Blood

18. Derivative of 3rd pharyngeal pouch - 19. Pancoast Syndrome is characterised by-
a) Superior parathyroid
a) Pain along the medial side of forearm and hand
b) Inferior parathyroid
c) Thymus b) Wasting of brachioradialis muscle
d) Lateral thyroid elements c) Develops ptosis
e) Palatine tonsil d) Erosion of first rib
e) Involves ventral ramus of T2

20. Following are the coverings of the content of male 21. Which of the following are most likely to happen if the
inguinal canal- ileum of a patient is completely resected?
a) Impaired lipoprotein formation and fat malabsorption
a) External spermatic fascia
b) Bloody diarrhoea
b) Camper’s fascia c) Vit-K deficiency
c) Cremasteric fascia d) Increased Oxalate absorption
d) Scarpa’s fascia e) Vitamin B12 deficiency
e) Internal spermatic fascia
22. Skeletal muscle is different from cardiac muscle in that-
a) Skeletal muscle has L type calcium channel
b) Skeletal muscle has fast sodium channel
c) Strength of contraction largely depend on extracellular fluid
calcium concentration
d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is well developed than cardiac muscle
e) Calcium ion is diffuse from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to the 'T'
Tubule

23. Chronic type-II respiratory failure can occur in 24. Nerve fiber carries-
a) Narcotic drugs a) A alpha carries touch
b) Flail chest injury b) Aγ motor to muscle spindle
c) Lung fibrosis c) B fiber carries pain and temperature
d) Muscular dystrophy d) Aδ carries proprioception
e) Obstructive Sleep apnoea e) C carries postganglionic sympathetic impulse

25. In obesity, serum concentration of the following 26. ECG changes associated with hypokalemia include
hormones is/are increased a) Prominent U wave
a) Serum cortisol b) Shortened P-R interval
b) Serum growth hormone c) Prolonged QRS complex
c) Serum insulin d) S-T segment depression
d) Serum T4 e) Prolongation of QT interval
e) Serum T3
27. Hormones act by binding with intra- cellular Receptor?
a) Thyroxine hormone
b) Oestrogen hormone
c) Growth hormone
d) Insulin
e) Vit – D

28. Regarding plasma clearance 29. Signs of brainstem death includes

a) Renal clearance of glucose is zero a) Unconsciousness.
b) Increase in renal failure b) Loss of pupillary reaction to light.
c) Renal clearance of a substance is inversely related to its plasma c) Loss of tendon jerks in the arms and legs.
conc. d) Loss of respiratory response to CO2 in the absence of hypoxia.
d) It is used to measure renal plasma flow e) Nystagmus in response to cold water in the external auditory
e) Creatinine provides an estimate of renal plasma flow canal.

30. Haemodynamic effects of respiration are 31. Factors that cause an increase in both GFR and RBF are
a) JVP falls during inspiration a) By increasing total peripheral resistance
b) Wide fixed splitting of S2 in Inspiration b) Hyperglycaemia
c) HR slows during inspiration c) Prostaglandin E2
d) 2nd heart sound splits during expiration d) Increased tubular hydrostatic pressure
e) Inspiration prolongs RV ejection e) Moderate constriction of afferent arteriole

32. Which hormones acting on kidneys? 33. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis found in
a) ADH a) Type –IV RTA
b) Angiotensin- II b) Intestinal fistula
c) PTH c) CKD
d) Cortisol d) Starvation Ketosis
e) ANP e) Urinary diversion procedure

34. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis are – 35. Functions of parathyroid hormone are
a) Straw colour fluid a) Increase osteoblastic activity
b) Oligoclonal band must be positive b) Formation of active form of Vit-D
 c) Reduced protein level c) Increase phosphate excretion in CT, CD
d) Raised glucose level " d) Increase 1α-hydroxylase enzyme activity
e) Presence of cob web e) Renal tubular calcium ion reabsorption

36. Coagulation factors produced in the liver are 37. Insulin tends to increase the activity of the following
a) Factor II hormones-
b) Protein C a) Glucokinase
c) Factor VI b) Glucose 6 phosphatase
d) Factor XI c) Glycogen synthase
e) Factor X d) Lipoprotein lipase
e) Hormone-sensitive lipase

38. Causes of stagnant hypoxia? 39. At the level of the lesion due to Hemisection of the Spinal
a) CCF Cord cause-
b) Haemorrhage a) Loss of Fine touch, Proprioception of the opposite side
c) CO poisoning b) Loss of All deep tendon jerk of the same side
d) Cyanide poisoning c) Flexor plantar response of the same side
e) Shock d) Loss of crude touch, Pain sensation of the opposite side
e) Increased knee jerk of the same side

40. Contra-indications of lumbar puncture are 41. Regarding fetal hemoglobin

a) Presence of a space occupying intracranial legion a) It is only type identifiable in fetal blood
b) Features suggestive of Raised ICP b) It is almost disappeared by four months
c) DIC c) It has high oxygen carrying capacity than adult hemoglobin
d) Postural headache d) It binds 2,3-BPG less avidly than adult hemoglobin
e) Sudden Hemiparesis e) It has higher affinity for oxygen binding than adult hemoglobin

42. Biochemical change(s) occur(s) during pregnancy is 43. Intestinal enteroendocrine cells secrete
(are) a) Somatostatin
a) Fasting glucose decreases during early pregnancy b) Prolactin
b) Fasting insulin increases during late pregnancy c) Gastrin
c) 1st phase insulin response increases throughout the pregnancy d) Cholecystokinin
d) Lipid profile increases during early pregnancy e) Thyroid stimulating hormone
e) Peripheral insulin sensitivity remains unchanged in early
pregnancy 44. Features of SIADH are
a) Low plasma sodium concentration
b) High plasma osmolality
c) Urine osmolality > 150 mmol/L
d) Urine sodium concentration < 30 mmol/L
e) Raised plasma uric acid

45. Propiomelanocortin is the precursor of- 46. What are the symptoms & signs of hypothalamic disease?​
a) ACTH​ a) Diabetes insipidus​
b) Aldosterone ​ b) Obesity ​
c) Endorphins ​ c) Precocious puberty ​
d) Melanotropin​ d) Hypotension ​
e) FSH ​ e) Diarrhoea ​

47. Hypersecretion of growth hormone is accompanied by-​ 48. Stimuli for ADH release :
a) Hypersecretion of prolactin in a patient with gigantism ​ a) Hyperosmolarity
b) 50% patient is found to have abnormal glucose tolerance ​ b) Hypoglycemia
c) 4% develop lactation in the absence of pregnancy ​
c) Hypervolemia
d) Acromegaly is only caused by intrapituitary growth hormone
d) Stress
secreting tumors ​
e) Hirsutism, soft tissue swelling, osteoarthritis etc is a feature of e) Hypotension
acromegaly ​
49. Function of nervous system at subcortical level includes:
a) Control of arterial pressure
b) Feeding
c) GI movement
d) Response to pleasure
e) Memory

50. Cauda equina syndrome- 51. During normal quiet breathing-

a) Saddle anaesthesia a) Rate of air flow greatest at mid expiration
b) Bowel and bladder involvement is late
b) Intrapleural pressure is highest at end of expiration
c) Hyper -reflex
c) Intraalveolar pressure is lowest at mid expiration
d) Bilateral sciatica
e) Fecal incontinence uncommon d) Intraesophageal pressure is highest at mid expiration
e) Intrathoracic pressure highest at end of expiration

52. Regarding Chloride shift-

a) Decreased Cl- content of RBC in venous blood
b) HCO3- exchange for CO2
c) Helps in CO2 transport
d) It increases haematocrit
e) Maintain pH of blood
53. Neurotransmitter substances that are released by the 54. Absolute refractory period in the ventricles
nerve endings of different types of enteric neurons of the a) Corresponds to the period of ventricular depolarization.
gastrointestinal enteric nervous system- b) Corresponds to the period of ventricular contraction.
a) Somatostatin c) Is the period when the ventricles are completely unexcitable.
b) Leu-enkephalin d) Is shorter than the corresponding atrial muscle.
c) Adenosine Biphosphate e) Decrease during stimulation of the vagus nerve to the heart.
d) Met-enkephalin
e) Bombesin 55. Regarding pulse pressure
a) It indicates CO
b) Indicates constant load against which heart works
c) Strength of pulse related to pulse pressure
d) Atherosclerosis decrease pulse pressure
e) Increase in elderly

56. Erythropoietin- 57. Completely reabsorbed substances by renal tubules..

a) Is a glycoprotein a) Vitamins
b) Stimulates RBC production b) Proteins
c) Is secreted in response to hypoxia c) Acetoacetate ions
d) Is secreted only from kidney d) Sucrose
e) Is activated in lung e) Keto acid

58. Sporicidal agents that destroy spores are 59. Antibiotics that act through inhibition of protein
a) Formaldehyde synthesis-
b) Gamma radiation a) Clindamycin
c) Hypochlorite b) Cycloserin
d) Alcohol c) Colistin
e) Hot air oven d) Daptomycin
e) Streptogramin

60. Regarding Clostridium followings are true: 61. Parasite causing surgical jaundices:
a) Clostridium tetani tenis racket shaped a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Clostridium perfringes motile b) Clonorchis sinensis
c) Clostridium botulinum Produced by canned food. c) Opisthorchis virini
d) Clostridium perfringes capsulated. d) Oxyuris vermicularis
e) Clostridium defficile produce psudomembranous colitis. e) Schistosoma haematobium

62. Parasite having both rhabditiform and filariform larva 63. Granuloma producing systemic fungus are:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides a) Blastomyces dermatidis
b) Ancylostoma duodenale b) Coccidiodes immitis
c) Nocardia americana c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Giardia d) Paracoccidiodes braziliensis
e) W. Bancrofti. e) Rhinisporidiosis

64. Viral infections that may occur in kidney transplant 65. Non enveloped DNA viruses are:
patients are a) Adeno virus
a) BK virus b) EBV
b) CMV c) Corona virus
c) Ebola virus d) Norovirus
d) Herpes simplex virus e) Papilloma virus
e) Hepatitis D virus
66. Cytomegalo virus causes:
a) Abortion
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Macrocephaly
d) Hepatosplenomegaly
e) Hodgekin lymphoma

67. Examples of Type ll Hypersensitivity: 68. Macrophage:

a) Autoimmune agranulocytosis a) Phagocytic cell
b) Goodpasture's syndrome b) Antigen presenting cell
c) Cryoglobulinemia c) Short lived
d) Reactive arthritis d) When attached with tissue named as monocyte
e) Insulin resistance Diabetes mellitus e) Not produce cytokines

69. HLA typing is useful in: 70. Natural killer (NK) cells-
a) Disputed paternity a) Is a component of innate immunity
b) Forensic thanatology b) Thymus is required for development
c) Genetic fingerprinting c) Kills virus infected cell
d) Organ transplantation d) Kills by perforin only
e) Sex determination e) Large granular lymphocyte

71. Organism causing latent infection- 72. Organism transmitted through breast milk-
a) VZV a) CMV
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) HIV
c) Toxoplasma c) HBV
d) HIV d) Treponema pallidum
e) Meningococcus e) Staphylococcus aureus

73. Statements are not true for primary syphillis 74. Antibiotics active against methicillin resistant
a) Caused by treponema pallidum staphylococcus aureus-
 b) Painless chancre is formed a) Vancomycin
c) Maculopapular rash is found on palm and sole b) Carbapenem
d) Snail tract ulcer is found c) Daptomycin
e) Chancre don’t bleed on touch d) penicillin
e) Ceftaroline

75. Features of innate immunity- 76. A 4 years boy came with complaints of parotid glands
a) Non specific swelling. The likely complication the child can face-
b) Has memory a) Orchitis
c) Cells- NK cell, Macrophages b) Encephalitis
d) Discriminates self and non self c) Transient hearing loss
e) Classical type of complement activation is innate immunity d) SSPE
e) Meningitis

77. Enveloped virus containing single stranded genome- 78. Viruses from picorna family-
a) Polio a) Polio
b) Noro virus b) Nipah
c) Corona c) Rhino
d) Influenza d) Noro
e) Parvo virus B19 e) HAV

79. Parasites known as intestinal flukes are- 80. Organism causing meningitis-
a) S. japonicum a) Cryptococcus
b) C.sinensis b) Paracoccidiodes
c) H.heterophyes c) Candida
d) F.buski d) Naegleria
e) P. westermani e) HSV-2

81. Plasmid 82. H1N1 viruse– Systemic Virology

a) Cannot be detected by PCR a) Is an enveloped virus
b) Cannot replicate independently b) Possesses diploid genome
c) Is a carrier gene for antibiotic resistance c) Contains heamagglutinin and nuraminidase on different spike
d) Is an extrachromosomal DNA of bacteria d) Produces multinucleated giant cell
e) Is not transmissible e) Is associated with swine flue

83. In acellular vaccine only bacterial component is used. 84. Acute immune cytokines are-
Acellular vaccine are- a) IL-1
a) Salmonella b) IL-12
b) Meningococcus c) TNF-B
c) DPT d) Interferon-a
d) BCG e) IL-6
e) Rickettsia
85. Bacterial components associated with induction of septic
shock are-
a) Bacterial capsule
b) LPS
c) Peptidoglycan
d) Phospholipid
e) Teichoic acid

86. Factors that limit the growth of microorganisms within 87. Regarding mycobacterium Tuberculosis-
the body- a) Obligate anaerobe
a) Alveolar macrophages b) A positive skin that result indicates previous infection
b) Complement c) Humans are natural reservoir
c) Fever d) Cord factor virulence of the organism
d) Defensins e) Can not be done in ager-based media
e) Transferrin
88. Polysacchride capsule is the virulence factor of following
bacteria?
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus pyogens
d) Yersinia
e) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

89. Toxins act as super antigen 90. Bacterial endoxia -

a) Enterotoxin of staphylococci a) Polypedtide
b) Toxicity more than exotoxin
b) Cholera toxin
c) Antigenicity more than exotoxin
c) Shiga toxin
d) Stable at 1000C for 1 hour
d) Botulinum toxin e) Gene located in bacterial chromosome
e) Erythrogenic toxin of streptococci
91. Type I lepra reaction includes 92. Facultative intracellular micro-organisms are-
a) Fever a) Salmonella
b) Inflammation of existing lesion b) Bacteroid
c) Lymphadenopathy c) Mycobacterium
d) Orchitis d) Yersina
e) Painful tender nerve e) Bacillus

93. Coxsackie virus Type- A causes: 94. Parasites causing autoinfection are
a) Herpangina a) Taenia solium
b) Hand, foot& mouth disease
b) Echinococcus granulosus
c) Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
c) Strongyloid stercoralis
d) Myocarditis
e) Myositis d) Hymenolepis nana
e) Dracunculus medinensis

95. Dystrophic calcification. 96. Triggering factors of apoptosis is/are-

a) Occurs locally in viable cells a) P53
b) Nucleation of intracellular calcification occurs in the nucleus b) bc12
c) Psammoma bodies are characteristic features of medullary c) mcl 1
carcinoma of thyroid d) BAX
d) Beaded dumbell appearance found in me Asbestosis. e) Cytochrome
e) They can be found intracellular only
97. CRP is useful marker to indicate active disease in-
a) SLE
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Systemic sclerosis
d) Crohn's disease
e) Ulcerative colitis

98. Oedema occurs in- 99. Choose the correct pair regarding DIC-
a) Cushing's syndrome a) APTT ® decreased
b) Conn's Syndrome b) Platelet count ® Decreased
c) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome c) FDP ® Increased
d) Klinefelter's Syndrome d) D-dimer ® Decreased
e) Pregnancy e) PT ® Increased

100. Characteristics of autosomal dominant inheritants 101. Cytogenetic disorders involving sex chromosomes are-
is/are- a) Down syndrome
a) Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be b) Klinefelter syndrome
affected. c) Turner syndrome
b) Both sexes are equally affected d) Pataue syndrome
c) More often the gene codes an enzyme e) Prader-willi syndrome
d) Carriers have normal phenotype
e) Have reduced penetrance 102. Indication for Analysis of inherited Genetic alteration in
newborn or children-
a) Single congenital anomaly
b) Suspicion of metabolic syndrome
c) Unexplained intellectual disability
d) Suspected aneuploidy
e) Neuro degenerative disorder

103. Dysplasia- 104. Asbestosis is associated with

a) Includes a loss in the uniformity of individual cells a) Sarcoidosis
b) How has loss in their architectural orientation b) Pulmonary fibrosis
c) Nuclei is hypo chromatic c) Carcinoma lung
d) Chromatin is finely distributed d) Colon carcinoma
e) Common in squamous & transitional epithelium e) Carcinoma stomach

105. Fixative used in histopathological examination- 106. Regarding autophagy-

a) 10% Formaldehyde a) Nucleation and formation of an isolation membrane
b) Bouin's solution b) Isolation membrane derived from the ER
c) Helly's solution c) Can trigger cell death if it is inadequate to cope with the
d) 100% methanol stressor
e) Liquid nitrogen d) Adaptive recompose that is decrease during nutrient deprivation
e) Can only promote cancer growth

107. Pyogenic membrane is formed by- 108. Which of the following molecular changes occurs in
a) Dead neutrophils formation of neoplasm-
b) Healthy neutrophils a) Immortality
c) Macrophage b) Necrosis
d) Capillary c) Warburg effect
c) Young fibroblasts d) Evade the host immune response
e) Limitless apoptosis

109. Cytokine causes- 110. Trinucleotide repeat disorder involving noncoding

a) Expression of adhesion molecule regions-
a) Spinobulbar atrophy
b) Increased vascular permeability
b) Spinocerebellar ataxia
c) Fever
c) Myotonic dystrophy
d) Hypotension d) Fragile X syndrome
 e) Chemotaxis e) Hungtinton disease

111. Which of the cellular adaptation can transform to 112. Fatty liver occurs in the following conditions
malignancy- a) Type-II DM
a) Hypertrophy b) Wilson disease
b) Hyperplasia c) Thyrotoxicosis
c) Atrophy d) Alcohol
d) Metaplasia e) Amiodarone
e) Dysplasia
113. Complications of phlebothrombosis-
a) Infraction
b) Skin ulcer
c) Gangrene
d) Apoptisis
e) Hemorrhage

114. Features Caseation necrosis- 115. Acute pulmonary congestion is characterized by-
a) Is a distinctive form of coagulation necrosis a) Engorged alveolar capillaries
b) Is encountered most often in tuberculosis b) Alveolar septal edema
c) Appears cheesy white on naked eye c) Focal intra-alveolar hemorrhage
d) Implies preservation of basic outline of necrosed cells d) Fibrotic thick alveolar septa
e) Is characteristic of focal bacterial/fungal infection e) Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveolar spaces

116. Vasodilation caused by 117. FNAC is indicated in diagnosis of

a) Histamine a) Carcinoma of breast
b) IL-6 b) Adrenal carcinoma
c) Platelet activating factor c) Cervical carcinoma
d) Prostacyclin d) Follicular carcinoma
e) Thromboxane A2 e) Follicular adenoma

118. Following amino acids has both glucogenic and 119. Common metabolic source and fate of pyruvate-
ketogenic property- a) Lactate
a) Alanine b) Acetyl CoA
b) Tyrosine c) Alanine
c) Lysine d) Oxaloacetic acid
d) Isoleucine e) Glucose
e) Leucine
120. HMP shunt-
a) Mitochondrial pathway
b) Carbon di oxide produces directly
c) ATP production is less
d) Produces NADPH
e) Helps in Anti-phagocytic activity

121. Causes of Ammonia intoxication - 122. Regarding acetone which stems are true?
a) Chronic liver disease a) Excreted via urine
b) Acute liver failure b) Produced by decarboxylation of acetoacetate.
c) Acute kidney injury c) Metabolic fuel of heart
d) Chronic Kidney disease d) Has characteristic odour
e) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase deficiency e) Used by skeletal muscle during starvation

123. Insulin-dependent transport of glucose occurs in - 124. Vitamin C helps in synthesis of -

a) Fatty tissue a) Tyrosine
b) Skeletal muscle b) Bile acids
c) Pancreas c) Collagen
d) Kidney d) Bile salts
e) Cardiac muscle e) Catecholamines

125. Bioavailability of a drug is 126. Following are partial agonist drugs

a) A fraction of unchanged drug in the systemic circulation a) Clonidine
b) Identical with different formulations of the same drug
b) Pindolol
c) Is affected by metabolism in the liver
c) Acebutolol
d) 100% with intravenous route
e) A measure of the rate of absorption of the drug d) a methyl-dopa
e) Reserpine

127. Ocular effect of atropine? 128. Phase 1 reaction of drug metabolism is-
a) Dry sandy eyes a) Non synthetic
b) Increase lipid solubility
b) Miosis
c) Includes acetylation
c) Light reflex intact
d) It can introduce or remove functional group
d) Blurred vision e) Synthetic reactions may occur
e) Cycloplegia
129. Following are Beta 2 selective drugs
a) Atenolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Bisoprolol
d) Esmolol
e) Carvedilol
130. Using which will result in failure of primary drug? 131. Which are best statements regarding Digoxin?
a) Smoking a) Can be used in Liver disease
b) Barbiturate b) No need to dose adjustment in CKD
c) Isoniazid c) Toxicity causes dysrhythmia & heart block
d) Na - valproate d) Hypokalemia exacerbate digoxin toxicity
e) Rifampicin e) Toxicity can be reversed by Fab: Digibind

132. Drugs with high plasma protein binding capacity have - 133. Nephrotoxic drugs includes
a) Long duration of action a) Rifampicin
b) Short half life b) Ranitidine
c) Active form c) Ceftriaxone
d) Slow excretion d) Paracetamol
e) More biotransformatiom e) PPI

134. Less sedative anti –Histamines are. 135. Match the anti TB adverse effect:
a) Desloratadine a) Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy
b) Chlorpheniramine b) Rifampicin-Acute gouty attack
c) Fexofenadine c) Pyrazinamide- Hepatitis
d) Cinnarizine d) Ethambutol-Retro-bulbar neuritis
e) Promethazine e) Streptomycin-nephrotoxicity

136. Bromocriptine- 137. Following are true for ACE inhibitors -

a) Stimulates lactation a) First line treatment for hypertension
b) Beneficial for patient with diabetic nephropathy
b) Is used to treat hyperprolactineamia
c) Cause dry cough by decreasing bradykinin and substance P
c) Is a D2 receptor antagonist
d) Cause hypokalemia
d) May cause peripheral vasospasm e) Prevents ventricular remodeling
e) Should use cautiously in postpartum hallucinations
138. A 7 years old boy taking Salbutamol tablet for persistent
asthma over a period of 5 months. Which problems may
he face?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Tremor
c) Bradycardia
d) Headache
e) Nervousness

139. Which antibiotics are responsible for superinfection? 140. Spironolactone

a) Amoxicillin a) Is an aldosterone antagonist
b) Moxifloxacin b) May produce gynaecomastia
c) Tetracycline c) Acts on loop of Henle
d) Ampicillin d) Is contraindicated in nephrotic syndrome
e) Chloramphenicol e) May produce hypokalaemia

141. Drug causing hypothyroidism- 142. Zero - order kinetics

a) Carbimazole a) Constant amount of drug will be eliminated
b) Propylthiouracil b) T ½ is constant
c) Lithium c) Occurs when metabolizing / eliminating system is saturated
d) Thyroxine d) Accounts for elimination of most drug
e) Propanol e) Rate of elimination dependent on drug concentration

143. A-5-month-old girl has presented with cough, 144. What are the typical syndromes of zinc deficiency?
respiratory distress, wheeze. She has low grade fever. a) Hair loss
Which are the causative organisms? b) Anorexia
a) S. Pneumoniae c) Anemia
b) RSV d) Dermatitis
c) Influenza e) Growth retardation
d) H. influenza
e) M. Pneumoniae 145. What are the dengue diagnostic tests?
a) Blood for NS1 antigen
b) CBC
c) Blood for PT
d) Blood for Dengue IgM
e) Blood foe SGOT

146. Cause(s) of disproportionate short stature is/are - 147. What are the features of west syndrome?
a) Turner syndrome a) Normal EEG
b) Untreated Congenital hypothyroidism b) Mental retardation
c) Achondroplasia c) Occurs after the age of 10 years
d) Constitutional delay in growth and puberty d) Hypsarrhythmia
e) Rickets e) Seizure

148. Early onset neonatal sepsis- 149. Hypocalcemia in neonatal period commonly found in -
a) Is an indicator of poor neonatal service a) Post term babies
b) Presents with respiratory distress b) Intent of diabetic mother
c) May be asymptomatic c) PNA
d) Presents after 96 hours d) Maternal hypothyroidism
e) Is maternal origin e) Maternal hyperparathyroidism

150. Indications of exchange Transfusion - 151. Causes of gross haematuria in children include:
 a) Cord Hb% 20 g/dl or more a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Cord bilirubin 5mg/dl or more b) IgA nephropathy
c) Unconjugated serum bilirubin of 10 mg/dl or more in a term c) Alport syndrome
baby d) SLE
d) Cord bilirubin 5 mg/dl or less e) Acute post streptococcus glomerulonephritis
e) Unconjugated serum bilirubin >10 mg/dl within 24 hours or rate
of rise >0.5mg/dl/hr 152. Immediate complications of a 1850 gm weighing baby-
a) Retinopathy of prematurity
b) Hypothermia
c) Anemia of prematurity
d) Metabolic diseases
e) Apnoea

153. True regarding clinical features of Hirschsprung 154. A 12 years old icteric boy presented with complaints of
disease- deterioration of handwriting & tremor at rest. O/E.
a) Not passing meconium within 48 hours hepatomegaly present. Which of the following points go
b) Repeated vomiting in favour of your diagnosis?
c) Acute diarrhoea a) Autosomal dominant disease
d) Normal Abdomen b) Increased ceruloplasmin in blood
e) Rectul examination reveals empty rectum c) Sunflower cataract found in eye examination.
d) Mutation in ATP 7B gene
e) Confirmed by 24 hours urinary copper excretion.

155. A 10 months old boy can - 156. Antenatal screening tests done for Down syndrome in
a) Crawls first trimester--
b) Throws object a) a-fetoprotein
c) Releases object b) B-human chorionic gonadotropin
d) Scribbles with pen c) Pregnancy associated plasma protein- A
e) Wave bye bye d) Estriol (unconjugated)
e) Inhibin-A

157. What are the cardiac causes of heart failure? 158. Components of tetralogy of fallot (TOF)--
a) Wet beriberi a) Ventricular septal defect
b) Viral myocarditis b) Coarctation of aorta
c) TAPVD c) Right ventricular hypertrophy
d) Infective endocarditis d) Pulmonary stenosis
e) Asphyxial cardiomyopathy e) Transposition of great arteries

159. What are the clinical features of oesophageal atresia- 160. Features of right sided pleural effusion in a 8 years old
a) Excessive secretion from mouth after birth child suffering from non-Hodgkin lymphoma-
b) Normal respiration a) Trachea deviated to right side
c) History of maternal oligohydramnios b) Decreased vocal fremitus on left side
d) Choking in attempted feeding c) Percussion note stony dull
e) Failure of passage of orogastric tube to stomach d) Breath sound bronchial
e) Apex shifted to left side

161. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by 162. Features of CSF in tubercular-meningitis -

a) Hyperlipidemia a) Normal pressure
b) Albumin level less than 2.25 gm/dl b) Straw colour
c) Moderate proteinuria c) Lymphocyte predominant
d) Hematuria d) Normal protein
e) Generalized edema e) Reduced glucose

163. What features will be found in child of 8 years suffering 164. What are the causes of normochloremic metabolic
from enteric fever? acidosis?
a) Prolonged low grade fever a) Starvation
b) Vomiting is commonly found b) Diarrhoea
c) Fever step ladder pattern is not common c) Renal failure
d) Anorexia may be present d) Sepsis
e) Geographic tongue may be found e) Renal tubular acidosis

165. A neonate weighing 2800 gm born to a HBsAg positive 166. A 15 years old girl has presented to paediatric indoor
mother. What should be furthermore measures? with the complaint of acute abdminal pain. What causes
a) Should receive Hep B Immunoglobuline & Hepatitis B vaccine of following may need surgical intervention?
b) Vaccination should be completed within 24 hours of delivery a) Mesenteric lymphadenitis
c) Should not continue breastfeeding b) Acute appendicitis
d) Serological markers must be checked within 8 months of age c) Diabetic ketoacidosis
e) Continue vaccination according to EPI schedule d) Renal calculi
e) Ovarian tortion

167. What are the pre hepatic causes of Portal Hypertension 168. Risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome in
in children? neonates are
a) Portal vein agenesis a) Maternal hypertension
b) Cirrhosis of liver b) Prematurity
c) Cystic fibrosis c) Antepartum hemorrhage
d) Portal vein thrombosis d) Maternal diabetes
e) Schistosomiasis e) Caesarean section delivery

169. Good position of breast feeding are 170. Milestone of development of a 12 month old child is/are
a) Straight head & body a) Stands with holding
b) Chin touching breast b) Drinks from cup
 c) Body close to mother c) Speaks one or two meaningful words
d) Mouth wide open d) Draws a circle
e) Facing breast, nose opposite to nipple e) Finds hidden object

171. A 1.5-year-old boy presented with bowing of leg with 172. Complication of measles are
respiratory distress. What will be the possible causes? - a) Otitis media
a) Nutritional rickets b) Diarrhea
b) Blount disease c) Pancreatitis
c) Chronic kidney disease d) Vit A deficiency
d) Hypophosphatemic rickets e) Deafness
e) Renal tubular acidosis
173. Indications for antibiotics in childhood diarrhoea are
a) Cholera
b) Shigellosis
c) Entero toxicogenic E coli diarrhoea
d) Rota virus diarrhoea
e) Pseudomembranous colitis

174. Causes of pansystolic murmur are 175. Following are the features of steroid sensitive nephrotic
a) Mitral stenosis syndrome
b) VSD a) Massive proteinuria
c) Aortic stenosis b) Impaired renal function
d) Mitral regurgitation c) Hypoalbuminaemia
e) PDA d) Hypertension
e) Hypocomplimentaemia

176. Delayed bone age is found in 177. CSF changes in tuberculous meningitis include-
a) Growth hormone deficiency a) Elevated pressure
b) Constitutional delay b) Raised adenosine diaminase (ADA) level
c) Genetic short stature c) Cell count - 10,000 — 20,000 /mm3
d) Congenital hypothyroidism d) Protein >50 mg/dl
e) Familial short stature e) Glucose -50-70% of serum glucose

178. Risk factor(s) for recurrence of febrile seizures is/are 179. The following coagulation factors are generated in the
a) Age <1 year liver
b) Duration of fever >24 hour before seizure a) Factor II
c) Family history of febrile seizure b) Factor VII
d) Female gender c) Factor XII
e) Complex febrile seizures d) Factor X
e) Factor IV

180. Rheumatic fever 181. In direct inguinal hernia neck of the hernial sac lies
a) Is an acquired disease which side of inferior epigastric artery?
b) Usually occurs at 5-15 years of age a) Lateral
c) Mainly involve pulmonary valve b) Medial
d) May need lifelong prophylaxis c) Anterior
e) Can be subclinical d) Posterior
e) Inferior

182. A 10 years old boy presented with multiple 183. Which of the following characteristics is shared by
lymphadenopathy in the axillary region, cervical chain simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose?
and also inguinal region. What is the area of drainage of a) Occurs down an electrochemical gradient
superficial inguinal lymph node? b) Requires a Na+ gradient
a) Anal canal above the pectinate line c) Requires metabolic energy
b) Anterior abdominal wall above the umbilicus d) Is saturable
c) Glans penis e) Is inhibited by the presence of galactose
d) Knee joint
e) Upper part of lateral side of thigh 184. A patient presents with respiratory alkalosis following
RTA. Following which can be found in this patient blood?
a) Low PCO2
b) Increased K+
c) Reduce plasma anion gap
d) Increased HCO3-
e) Positive base excess

185. A patient who injured himself in a bike accident screams 186. A – 8-years old child develops thrombocytopenia,
out of pain but he spontaneously opens his eyes, obeys hemolytic anaemia & kidney failure after treating with
the words that are commanded to him and abnormal fluroquinolones for diarrhoea. Which organism is
flexion of wrist. What is the GCS score for him? responsible for the diarrhoea?
a) 11 a) Compylobacter jejuni
b) 12 b) E. Coli
c) 13 c) Salmonella
d) 14 d) Shigella
e) 15 e) V. Cholerea

187. A 36-year-old woman was well until two days ago, when 188. Treatment with drug whose mode of action is inhibition
she experienced sudden onset of fever and sweating. of reverse transcription is used in which one of the
Today she complains of headeche and abdominal pain following disease?
but no nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea. She does not have a a) Acute hepatitis A
stiff neck, rash or altered mental status. Blood smear b) Acute hepatitis B
 reveals ring shaped trophozoites and banana shaped c) Acute hepatitis C
gametocytes within red blood cells. The most probable d) Chronic hepatitis B
diagnosis is: e) Chronic hepatitis C
a) P. Ovale
b) P. Vivax 189. Recently the whole nation is talking about the Gender
c) P. Falciparum oriention of different people which started with the
d) P. Malariae context of class 7th "sharif Sharifa" story. Many of your
e) Histoplasma capsulatum non- medical friends want to know the fact from you as
you are a doctor. You know, The term true
hermaphrodite implies the presence of-
a) No sexual organ
b) Disagreement between phenotypic & gonadal sex
c) Has overies but male external genitalia
d) Testicular tissue but female type genitalia
e) Both ovarian and testicular tissue

190. A 50 years old reffered to a oncologist with a FNAC 191. Statement that is true for electron transport chain -
report of right sided breast lump. It Stated "suspicious a) Three protein complexes are formed
cytology". What is the next step he would advice? b) Three sites of ATP production
a) Repeat FNAC c) Substrate is NADPH
b) Biopsy d) RLE: Cytochrome dehydrogenase
c) Frozen section e) Produces reduced co-enzymes.
d) Immuno histochemistry
e) Exfoliative cytology 192. A boy, 8 years old presented with ptosis, difficulty in
chewing & loss of facial.expression. How do acetyl
cholinesterase inhibitor work here?
a) Blocks the action of acetylcholine
b) Increases the acetyl choline destruction
c) Decreases the level of acetyl choline
d) Increases the level of acetyl choline
e) Increase the number of acetyl cholien receptor

193. A 5 yeara old boy was diagnosed as a case of nephrotic 194. Which one is the most characteristic feature of
syndrome. He received prednisolone but development congenital hypothyroidism in a 6 years old girl?
multiple relapses during treatment & finally gets a) Prolonged jaundice
diagnosed as steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome. b) Refractory constipation
Which drug will be suitable for him now? c) Coarse facies
a) Prednisolone d) Epiphyseal dysgenesis
b) Methylprednisolone e) Cutis marmorata
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Cyclophosphamide 195. Which one is gold standard test for diagnosing
e) Dexamethasone hirschsprung disease?
a) USG of whole abdomen
b) Plain x-ray abdomen
c) Barium enema study
d) Anorectal manometry
e) Rectal suction biopsy

196. A 5 years old boy presented with low grade fever for 2 197. A child weighing 1500 gms, with gestational age 33
months, progressive pallor, anorexia and bone pain for weeks is born by normal delivery. The child is
one month. On examination, he was found severely pale, hemodynamically stable. Which one choice of initial
bony tenderness present, lymphadenopathy and feeding in this child?
hepatosplenomegaly. Which investigation should be a) Breast feeding directly
done to categorize this condition? b) Paladai feeding
a) Immunophenotyping c) Orogastric feeding
b) PBF d) Nasogastric feeding
c) CSF study e) Total parenteral nutrition
d) Bone marrow study
e) Bone scan 198. A 5 years old boy suffering from paniless haematuria,
hypertension & proteinuria preceded by a respiratory
tract infection 3 days prior to these complaints. Which
one is confirmatory test for diagnosis of this patient?
a) Renal biopsy
b) Serum IgA level
c) Urinary Albumin-Creatinine ration
d) Serum C3 level
e) 24 hours urinary total protein

199. Regarding Croup, which one is correct statement? 200. A 5 years old boy came to you with sudden weakness of
a) Drooling present both lower limb. Patient also has history of loose motion
b) Soft stridor 5-6 days back. On CSF study what will be the expected
c) Low grade fever findings?
d) Thumb sign in X ray neck a) Cytology increased
e) Steeple sign in X ray neck b) Protein decrease
c) Glucose increasd
d) Protein increased
e) Glucose decrease