GENESIS

(Post Graduation Medical orientation Centre)

Exam : Mock Test-I Surgery
Class/Chapter :
Total Mark : 200 Time : 180 Min
Pass Mark : 120 Question 181 to End is Based on Single Answers Date : 0000-00-00

1. Following are the features of costal surface of scapula- 2. Apex of the lung is related anteriorly with-
a) It is concave a) Subclavian artery
b) It is directed medially and forward b) Internal thoracic artery
c) It presents two longitudinal ridges which provides attachment of c) Scalenus anterior
subscapularis muscle d) Ventral ramus of 1st thoracic nerve
d) The subscapularis muscle arises from the medial 1/3rd of the e) Sympathetic chain
subscapularis fossa
e) The serratus anterior muscle inserted into this surface along the 3. Dorsal surface of coccyx-
medial border and the inferior angle a) Provides origin on each side to gluteus maximus
b) Provides origin to sphincter ani externus at the tip
c) Provides attachment to filum terminale on the 1st coccygeal
vertebrae
d) Related to rectum
e) Anastomotic site between median sacral and lateral inferior
sacral artery

4. Following embryological remnant of testis and epididymis 5. Pectineus is a-

is correct match according to origin- a) Flat quadrilateral muscle
a) Appendix of testis: Remnant of upper pole of testis b) Arises from pecten pubis
b) Appendix of epididymis: Remnant of cranial end of c) Inserted in to the upper end of linea aspera
mesonephric/Wolffian duct d) Supplied by femoral nerve only
c) Paradidymis: Remnant of caudal mesonephric tubule e) Adduct & flexes the thigh at hip joint
d) Superior aberrant ductules: Remnant of intermediate
mesonephric tubules 6. Norma frontalis show the following features-
e) Inferior aberrant ductules: Remnant of upper mesonephric a) Frontal region formed by frontal bone
tubules b) Orbital opening
c) Prominence of cheek formed by maxilla
d) Bony external nose and posterior nasal aperture
e) Upper and lower jaw bearing teeth

7. Cell groups present in the posterior gray column of spinal 8. Transverse section of medulla at the level of sensory
cord are- decussation shows following structure-
a) Substantia gelatinosa a) Dorsal nucleus of vagus
b) Nucleus proprius b) Internal arcuate fiber
c) Nucleus dorsalis c) Inferior olivary nucleus
d) Visceral afferent nucleus d) Hypoglossal nucleus
e) Phrenic nucleus e) Nucleus intercalatus

9. Following sources of major hematopoietic cytokine 10. In female mullerian duct gives rise to-
matches correctly- a) Epophoron
a) Stem cell factor- Stromal cell of bone marrow b) Prostatic utricle
b) Erythropoietin- Peritubular endothelial cell of kidney c) Upper part of vagina
c) Thrombopoietin- Liver & kidney d) Vulva
d) GM-CSF- Endothelial cell of bone marrow and macrophage e) Uterus
e) M-CSF- Endothelial cell of bone marrow and T-lymphocyte
11. Glands of ectodermal origin-
a) Gonadal cortex
b) Pituitary gland
c) Adrenal Cortex
d) Sweat gland
e) Parotid gland

12. During choledocolithotomy, structures in the posterior 13. A 48-year-old man feels a little discomfort, When moving
relation of common bile duct can be injured. Structures in his tongue, pharynx, and larynx. Physical examination
the posterior relation of supraduodenal part of common indicates that the muscles attached to the styloid process
bile duct is/are- are paralyzed. Which of the following nerve are
a) 1st part of duodenum responsible for this condition?
b) Head of pancreas a) Facial nerve
c) Hepatic artery b) Hypoglossal nerve
d) Epiploic foramen c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
e) Portal vein d) Spinal accessory nerve
e) Vagus nerve

14. A patient came to emergency doctor with partial claw 15. Adult Vestiges derived from the fetal circulatory system-
hand. In this situation, doctor will also find positive- a) Umbilical artery
a) Phalen test b) Ligamentum teres
b) Pen test c) Median umbilical ligaments
c) Book test d) Medial umbilical ligaments
d) Card test e) Ductus venosus
e) Froment’s sign
16. Following structure are found in Superficial perineal 17. A 42-year patient complaints of chest pain with
pouch except? hypertension to you. An ECG demonstrate Left
a) Superficial transverse perineal muscle Ventricular Hypertrophy you have noticed, True regarding
b) Deep transverse perineal muscle left ventricle?
c) Root of the penis a) Semilunar shape cavity
d) Membranous urethra b) Moderator band
e) Bulbospongiosus muscle c) Thicker muscular wall than right
d) Two papillary muscle
e) Receive carbonated Blood

18. Derivative of 3rd pharyngeal pouch - 19. Pancoast Syndrome is characterised by-
a) Superior parathyroid
a) Pain along the medial side of forearm and hand
b) Inferior parathyroid
c) Thymus b) Wasting of brachioradialis muscle
d) Lateral thyroid elements c) Develops ptosis
e) Palatine tonsil d) Erosion of first rib
e) Involves ventral ramus of T2

20. Following are the coverings of the content of male 21. Which of the following are most likely to happen if the
inguinal canal- ileum of a patient is completely resected?
a) Impaired lipoprotein formation and fat malabsorption
a) External spermatic fascia
b) Bloody diarrhoea
b) Camper’s fascia c) Vit-K deficiency
c) Cremasteric fascia d) Increased Oxalate absorption
d) Scarpa’s fascia e) Vitamin B12 deficiency
e) Internal spermatic fascia
22. Skeletal muscle is different from cardiac muscle in that-
a) Skeletal muscle has L type calcium channel
b) Skeletal muscle has fast sodium channel
c) Strength of contraction largely depend on extracellular fluid
calcium concentration
d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is well developed than cardiac muscle
e) Calcium ion is diffuse from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to the 'T'
Tubule

23. Chronic type-II respiratory failure can occur in 24. Nerve fiber carries-
a) Narcotic drugs a) A alpha carries touch
b) Flail chest injury b) Aγ motor to muscle spindle
c) Lung fibrosis c) B fiber carries pain and temperature
d) Muscular dystrophy d) Aδ carries proprioception
e) Obstructive Sleep apnoea e) C carries postganglionic sympathetic impulse

25. In obesity, serum concentration of the following 26. ECG changes associated with hypokalemia include
hormones is/are increased a) Prominent U wave
a) Serum cortisol b) Shortened P-R interval
b) Serum growth hormone c) Prolonged QRS complex
c) Serum insulin d) S-T segment depression
d) Serum T4 e) Prolongation of QT interval
e) Serum T3
27. Hormones act by binding with intra- cellular Receptor?
a) Thyroxine hormone
b) Oestrogen hormone
c) Growth hormone
d) Insulin
e) Vit – D

28. Regarding plasma clearance 29. Signs of brainstem death includes

a) Renal clearance of glucose is zero a) Unconsciousness.
b) Increase in renal failure b) Loss of pupillary reaction to light.
c) Renal clearance of a substance is inversely related to its plasma c) Loss of tendon jerks in the arms and legs.
conc. d) Loss of respiratory response to CO2 in the absence of hypoxia.
d) It is used to measure renal plasma flow e) Nystagmus in response to cold water in the external auditory
e) Creatinine provides an estimate of renal plasma flow canal.

30. Haemodynamic effects of respiration are 31. Factors that cause an increase in both GFR and RBF are
a) JVP falls during inspiration a) By increasing total peripheral resistance
b) Wide fixed splitting of S2 in Inspiration b) Hyperglycaemia
c) HR slows during inspiration c) Prostaglandin E2
d) 2nd heart sound splits during expiration d) Increased tubular hydrostatic pressure
e) Inspiration prolongs RV ejection e) Moderate constriction of afferent arteriole

32. Which hormones acting on kidneys? 33. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis found in
a) ADH a) Type –IV RTA
b) Angiotensin- II b) Intestinal fistula
c) PTH c) CKD
d) Cortisol d) Starvation Ketosis
e) ANP e) Urinary diversion procedure

34. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis are – 35. Functions of parathyroid hormone are
a) Straw colour fluid a) Increase osteoblastic activity
b) Oligoclonal band must be positive b) Formation of active form of Vit-D
 c) Reduced protein level c) Increase phosphate excretion in CT, CD
d) Raised glucose level " d) Increase 1α-hydroxylase enzyme activity
e) Presence of cob web e) Renal tubular calcium ion reabsorption

36. Coagulation factors produced in the liver are 37. Insulin tends to increase the activity of the following
a) Factor II hormones-
b) Protein C a) Glucokinase
c) Factor VI b) Glucose 6 phosphatase
d) Factor XI c) Glycogen synthase
e) Factor X d) Lipoprotein lipase
e) Hormone-sensitive lipase

38. Causes of stagnant hypoxia? 39. At the level of the lesion due to Hemisection of the Spinal
a) CCF Cord cause-
b) Haemorrhage a) Loss of Fine touch, Proprioception of the opposite side
c) CO poisoning b) Loss of All deep tendon jerk of the same side
d) Cyanide poisoning c) Flexor plantar response of the same side
e) Shock d) Loss of crude touch, Pain sensation of the opposite side
e) Increased knee jerk of the same side

40. Contra-indications of lumbar puncture are 41. Regarding fetal hemoglobin

a) Presence of a space occupying intracranial legion a) It is only type identifiable in fetal blood
b) Features suggestive of Raised ICP b) It is almost disappeared by four months
c) DIC c) It has high oxygen carrying capacity than adult hemoglobin
d) Postural headache d) It binds 2,3-BPG less avidly than adult hemoglobin
e) Sudden Hemiparesis e) It has higher affinity for oxygen binding than adult hemoglobin

42. Biochemical change(s) occur(s) during pregnancy is 43. Intestinal enteroendocrine cells secrete
(are) a) Somatostatin
a) Fasting glucose decreases during early pregnancy b) Prolactin
b) Fasting insulin increases during late pregnancy c) Gastrin
c) 1st phase insulin response increases throughout the pregnancy d) Cholecystokinin
d) Lipid profile increases during early pregnancy e) Thyroid stimulating hormone
e) Peripheral insulin sensitivity remains unchanged in early
pregnancy 44. Features of SIADH are
a) Low plasma sodium concentration
b) High plasma osmolality
c) Urine osmolality > 150 mmol/L
d) Urine sodium concentration < 30 mmol/L
e) Raised plasma uric acid

45. Propiomelanocortin is the precursor of- 46. What are the symptoms & signs of hypothalamic disease?​
a) ACTH​ a) Diabetes insipidus​
b) Aldosterone ​ b) Obesity ​
c) Endorphins ​ c) Precocious puberty ​
d) Melanotropin​ d) Hypotension ​
e) FSH ​ e) Diarrhoea ​

47. Hypersecretion of growth hormone is accompanied by-​ 48. Stimuli for ADH release :
a) Hypersecretion of prolactin in a patient with gigantism ​ a) Hyperosmolarity
b) 50% patient is found to have abnormal glucose tolerance ​ b) Hypoglycemia
c) 4% develop lactation in the absence of pregnancy ​
c) Hypervolemia
d) Acromegaly is only caused by intrapituitary growth hormone
d) Stress
secreting tumors ​
e) Hirsutism, soft tissue swelling, osteoarthritis etc is a feature of e) Hypotension
acromegaly ​
49. Function of nervous system at subcortical level includes:
a) Control of arterial pressure
b) Feeding
c) GI movement
d) Response to pleasure
e) Memory

50. Cauda equina syndrome- 51. During normal quiet breathing-

a) Saddle anaesthesia a) Rate of air flow greatest at mid expiration
b) Bowel and bladder involvement is late
b) Intrapleural pressure is highest at end of expiration
c) Hyper -reflex
c) Intraalveolar pressure is lowest at mid expiration
d) Bilateral sciatica
e) Fecal incontinence uncommon d) Intraesophageal pressure is highest at mid expiration
e) Intrathoracic pressure highest at end of expiration

52. Regarding Chloride shift-

a) Decreased Cl- content of RBC in venous blood
b) HCO3- exchange for CO2
c) Helps in CO2 transport
d) It increases haematocrit
e) Maintain pH of blood
53. Neurotransmitter substances that are released by the 54. Absolute refractory period in the ventricles
nerve endings of different types of enteric neurons of the a) Corresponds to the period of ventricular depolarization.
gastrointestinal enteric nervous system- b) Corresponds to the period of ventricular contraction.
a) Somatostatin c) Is the period when the ventricles are completely unexcitable.
b) Leu-enkephalin d) Is shorter than the corresponding atrial muscle.
c) Adenosine Biphosphate e) Decrease during stimulation of the vagus nerve to the heart.
d) Met-enkephalin
e) Bombesin 55. Regarding pulse pressure
a) It indicates CO
b) Indicates constant load against which heart works
c) Strength of pulse related to pulse pressure
d) Atherosclerosis decrease pulse pressure
e) Increase in elderly

56. Erythropoietin- 57. Completely reabsorbed substances by renal tubules..

a) Is a glycoprotein a) Vitamins
b) Stimulates RBC production b) Proteins
c) Is secreted in response to hypoxia c) Acetoacetate ions
d) Is secreted only from kidney d) Sucrose
e) Is activated in lung e) Keto acid

58. Sporicidal agents that destroy spores are 59. Antibiotics that act through inhibition of protein
a) Formaldehyde synthesis-
b) Gamma radiation a) Clindamycin
c) Hypochlorite b) Cycloserin
d) Alcohol c) Colistin
e) Hot air oven d) Daptomycin
e) Streptogramin

60. Regarding Clostridium followings are true: 61. Parasite causing surgical jaundices:
a) Clostridium tetani tenis racket shaped a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Clostridium perfringes motile b) Clonorchis sinensis
c) Clostridium botulinum Produced by canned food. c) Opisthorchis virini
d) Clostridium perfringes capsulated. d) Oxyuris vermicularis
e) Clostridium defficile produce psudomembranous colitis. e) Schistosoma haematobium

62. Parasite having both rhabditiform and filariform larva 63. Granuloma producing systemic fungus are:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides a) Blastomyces dermatidis
b) Ancylostoma duodenale b) Coccidiodes immitis
c) Nocardia americana c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Giardia d) Paracoccidiodes braziliensis
e) W. Bancrofti. e) Rhinisporidiosis

64. Viral infections that may occur in kidney transplant 65. Non enveloped DNA viruses are:
patients are a) Adeno virus
a) BK virus b) EBV
b) CMV c) Corona virus
c) Ebola virus d) Norovirus
d) Herpes simplex virus e) Papilloma virus
e) Hepatitis D virus
66. Cytomegalo virus causes:
a) Abortion
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Macrocephaly
d) Hepatosplenomegaly
e) Hodgekin lymphoma

67. Examples of Type ll Hypersensitivity: 68. Macrophage:

a) Autoimmune agranulocytosis a) Phagocytic cell
b) Goodpasture's syndrome b) Antigen presenting cell
c) Cryoglobulinemia c) Short lived
d) Reactive arthritis d) When attached with tissue named as monocyte
e) Insulin resistance Diabetes mellitus e) Not produce cytokines

69. HLA typing is useful in: 70. Natural killer (NK) cells-
a) Disputed paternity a) Is a component of innate immunity
b) Forensic thanatology b) Thymus is required for development
c) Genetic fingerprinting c) Kills virus infected cell
d) Organ transplantation d) Kills by perforin only
e) Sex determination e) Large granular lymphocyte

71. Organism causing latent infection- 72. Organism transmitted through breast milk-
a) VZV a) CMV
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) HIV
c) Toxoplasma c) HBV
d) HIV d) Treponema pallidum
e) Meningococcus e) Staphylococcus aureus

73. Statements are not true for primary syphillis 74. Antibiotics active against methicillin resistant
a) Caused by treponema pallidum staphylococcus aureus-
 b) Painless chancre is formed a) Vancomycin
c) Maculopapular rash is found on palm and sole b) Carbapenem
d) Snail tract ulcer is found c) Daptomycin
e) Chancre don’t bleed on touch d) penicillin
e) Ceftaroline

75. Features of innate immunity- 76. A 4 years boy came with complaints of parotid glands
a) Non specific swelling. The likely complication the child can face-
b) Has memory a) Orchitis
c) Cells- NK cell, Macrophages b) Encephalitis
d) Discriminates self and non self c) Transient hearing loss
e) Classical type of complement activation is innate immunity d) SSPE
e) Meningitis

77. Enveloped virus containing single stranded genome- 78. Viruses from picorna family-
a) Polio a) Polio
b) Noro virus b) Nipah
c) Corona c) Rhino
d) Influenza d) Noro
e) Parvo virus B19 e) HAV

79. Parasites known as intestinal flukes are- 80. Organism causing meningitis-
a) S. japonicum a) Cryptococcus
b) C.sinensis b) Paracoccidiodes
c) H.heterophyes c) Candida
d) F.buski d) Naegleria
e) P. westermani e) HSV-2

81. Plasmid 82. H1N1 viruse– Systemic Virology

a) Cannot be detected by PCR a) Is an enveloped virus
b) Cannot replicate independently b) Possesses diploid genome
c) Is a carrier gene for antibiotic resistance c) Contains heamagglutinin and nuraminidase on different spike
d) Is an extrachromosomal DNA of bacteria d) Produces multinucleated giant cell
e) Is not transmissible e) Is associated with swine flue

83. In acellular vaccine only bacterial component is used. 84. Acute immune cytokines are-
Acellular vaccine are- a) IL-1
a) Salmonella b) IL-12
b) Meningococcus c) TNF-B
c) DPT d) Interferon-a
d) BCG e) IL-6
e) Rickettsia
85. Bacterial components associated with induction of septic
shock are-
a) Bacterial capsule
b) LPS
c) Peptidoglycan
d) Phospholipid
e) Teichoic acid

86. Factors that limit the growth of microorganisms within 87. Regarding mycobacterium Tuberculosis-
the body- a) Obligate anaerobe
a) Alveolar macrophages b) A positive skin that result indicates previous infection
b) Complement c) Humans are natural reservoir
c) Fever d) Cord factor virulence of the organism
d) Defensins e) Can not be done in ager-based media
e) Transferrin
88. Polysacchride capsule is the virulence factor of following
bacteria?
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus pyogens
d) Yersinia
e) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

89. Toxins act as super antigen 90. Bacterial endoxia -

a) Enterotoxin of staphylococci a) Polypedtide
b) Toxicity more than exotoxin
b) Cholera toxin
c) Antigenicity more than exotoxin
c) Shiga toxin
d) Stable at 1000C for 1 hour
d) Botulinum toxin e) Gene located in bacterial chromosome
e) Erythrogenic toxin of streptococci
91. Type I lepra reaction includes 92. Facultative intracellular micro-organisms are-
a) Fever a) Salmonella
b) Inflammation of existing lesion b) Bacteroid
c) Lymphadenopathy c) Mycobacterium
d) Orchitis d) Yersina
e) Painful tender nerve e) Bacillus

93. Coxsackie virus Type- A causes: 94. Parasites causing autoinfection are
a) Herpangina a) Taenia solium
b) Hand, foot& mouth disease
b) Echinococcus granulosus
c) Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
c) Strongyloid stercoralis
d) Myocarditis
e) Myositis d) Hymenolepis nana
e) Dracunculus medinensis

95. Dystrophic calcification. 96. Triggering factors of apoptosis is/are-

a) Occurs locally in viable cells a) P53
b) Nucleation of intracellular calcification occurs in the nucleus b) bc12
c) Psammoma bodies are characteristic features of medullary c) mcl 1
carcinoma of thyroid d) BAX
d) Beaded dumbell appearance found in me Asbestosis. e) Cytochrome
e) They can be found intracellular only
97. CRP is useful marker to indicate active disease in-
a) SLE
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Systemic sclerosis
d) Crohn's disease
e) Ulcerative colitis

98. Oedema occurs in- 99. Choose the correct pair regarding DIC-
a) Cushing's syndrome a) APTT ® decreased
b) Conn's Syndrome b) Platelet count ® Decreased
c) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome c) FDP ® Increased
d) Klinefelter's Syndrome d) D-dimer ® Decreased
e) Pregnancy e) PT ® Increased

100. Characteristics of autosomal dominant inheritants 101. Cytogenetic disorders involving sex chromosomes are-
is/are- a) Down syndrome
a) Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be b) Klinefelter syndrome
affected. c) Turner syndrome
b) Both sexes are equally affected d) Pataue syndrome
c) More often the gene codes an enzyme e) Prader-willi syndrome
d) Carriers have normal phenotype
e) Have reduced penetrance 102. Indication for Analysis of inherited Genetic alteration in
newborn or children-
a) Single congenital anomaly
b) Suspicion of metabolic syndrome
c) Unexplained intellectual disability
d) Suspected aneuploidy
e) Neuro degenerative disorder

103. Dysplasia- 104. Asbestosis is associated with

a) Includes a loss in the uniformity of individual cells a) Sarcoidosis
b) How has loss in their architectural orientation b) Pulmonary fibrosis
c) Nuclei is hypo chromatic c) Carcinoma lung
d) Chromatin is finely distributed d) Colon carcinoma
e) Common in squamous & transitional epithelium e) Carcinoma stomach

105. Fixative used in histopathological examination- 106. Regarding autophagy-

a) 10% Formaldehyde a) Nucleation and formation of an isolation membrane
b) Bouin's solution b) Isolation membrane derived from the ER
c) Helly's solution c) Can trigger cell death if it is inadequate to cope with the
d) 100% methanol stressor
e) Liquid nitrogen d) Adaptive recompose that is decrease during nutrient deprivation
e) Can only promote cancer growth

107. Pyogenic membrane is formed by- 108. Which of the following molecular changes occurs in
a) Dead neutrophils formation of neoplasm-
b) Healthy neutrophils a) Immortality
c) Macrophage b) Necrosis
d) Capillary c) Warburg effect
c) Young fibroblasts d) Evade the host immune response
e) Limitless apoptosis

109. Cytokine causes- 110. Trinucleotide repeat disorder involving noncoding

a) Expression of adhesion molecule regions-
a) Spinobulbar atrophy
b) Increased vascular permeability
b) Spinocerebellar ataxia
c) Fever
c) Myotonic dystrophy
d) Hypotension d) Fragile X syndrome
 e) Chemotaxis e) Hungtinton disease

111. Which of the cellular adaptation can transform to 112. Fatty liver occurs in the following conditions
malignancy- a) Type-II DM
a) Hypertrophy b) Wilson disease
b) Hyperplasia c) Thyrotoxicosis
c) Atrophy d) Alcohol
d) Metaplasia e) Amiodarone
e) Dysplasia
113. Complications of phlebothrombosis-
a) Infraction
b) Skin ulcer
c) Gangrene
d) Apoptisis
e) Hemorrhage

114. Features Caseation necrosis- 115. Acute pulmonary congestion is characterized by-
a) Is a distinctive form of coagulation necrosis a) Engorged alveolar capillaries
b) Is encountered most often in tuberculosis b) Alveolar septal edema
c) Appears cheesy white on naked eye c) Focal intra-alveolar hemorrhage
d) Implies preservation of basic outline of necrosed cells d) Fibrotic thick alveolar septa
e) Is characteristic of focal bacterial/fungal infection e) Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveolar spaces

116. Vasodilation caused by 117. FNAC is indicated in diagnosis of

a) Histamine a) Carcinoma of breast
b) IL-6 b) Adrenal carcinoma
c) Platelet activating factor c) Cervical carcinoma
d) Prostacyclin d) Follicular carcinoma
e) Thromboxane A2 e) Follicular adenoma

118. Following amino acids has both glucogenic and 119. Common metabolic source and fate of pyruvate-
ketogenic property- a) Lactate
a) Alanine b) Acetyl CoA
b) Tyrosine c) Alanine
c) Lysine d) Oxaloacetic acid
d) Isoleucine e) Glucose
e) Leucine
120. HMP shunt-
a) Mitochondrial pathway
b) Carbon di oxide produces directly
c) ATP production is less
d) Produces NADPH
e) Helps in Anti-phagocytic activity

121. Causes of Ammonia intoxication - 122. Regarding acetone which stems are true?
a) Chronic liver disease a) Excreted via urine
b) Acute liver failure b) Produced by decarboxylation of acetoacetate.
c) Acute kidney injury c) Metabolic fuel of heart
d) Chronic Kidney disease d) Has characteristic odour
e) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase deficiency e) Used by skeletal muscle during starvation

123. Insulin-dependent transport of glucose occurs in - 124. Vitamin C helps in synthesis of -

a) Fatty tissue a) Tyrosine
b) Skeletal muscle b) Bile acids
c) Pancreas c) Collagen
d) Kidney d) Bile salts
e) Cardiac muscle e) Catecholamines

125. Bioavailability of a drug is 126. Following are partial agonist drugs

a) A fraction of unchanged drug in the systemic circulation a) Clonidine
b) Identical with different formulations of the same drug
b) Pindolol
c) Is affected by metabolism in the liver
c) Acebutolol
d) 100% with intravenous route
e) A measure of the rate of absorption of the drug d) a methyl-dopa
e) Reserpine

127. Ocular effect of atropine? 128. Phase 1 reaction of drug metabolism is-
a) Dry sandy eyes a) Non synthetic
b) Increase lipid solubility
b) Miosis
c) Includes acetylation
c) Light reflex intact
d) It can introduce or remove functional group
d) Blurred vision e) Synthetic reactions may occur
e) Cycloplegia
129. Following are Beta 2 selective drugs
a) Atenolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Bisoprolol
d) Esmolol
e) Carvedilol
130. Using which will result in failure of primary drug? 131. Which are best statements regarding Digoxin?
a) Smoking a) Can be used in Liver disease
b) Barbiturate b) No need to dose adjustment in CKD
c) Isoniazid c) Toxicity causes dysrhythmia & heart block
d) Na - valproate d) Hypokalemia exacerbate digoxin toxicity
e) Rifampicin e) Toxicity can be reversed by Fab: Digibind

132. Drugs with high plasma protein binding capacity have - 133. Nephrotoxic drugs includes
a) Long duration of action a) Rifampicin
b) Short half life b) Ranitidine
c) Active form c) Ceftriaxone
d) Slow excretion d) Paracetamol
e) More biotransformatiom e) PPI

134. Less sedative anti –Histamines are. 135. Match the anti TB adverse effect:
a) Desloratadine a) Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy
b) Chlorpheniramine b) Rifampicin-Acute gouty attack
c) Fexofenadine c) Pyrazinamide- Hepatitis
d) Cinnarizine d) Ethambutol-Retro-bulbar neuritis
e) Promethazine e) Streptomycin-nephrotoxicity

136. Bromocriptine- 137. Following are true for ACE inhibitors -

a) Stimulates lactation a) First line treatment for hypertension
b) Beneficial for patient with diabetic nephropathy
b) Is used to treat hyperprolactineamia
c) Cause dry cough by decreasing bradykinin and substance P
c) Is a D2 receptor antagonist
d) Cause hypokalemia
d) May cause peripheral vasospasm e) Prevents ventricular remodeling
e) Should use cautiously in postpartum hallucinations
138. A 7 years old boy taking Salbutamol tablet for persistent
asthma over a period of 5 months. Which problems may
he face?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Tremor
c) Bradycardia
d) Headache
e) Nervousness

139. Which antibiotics are responsible for superinfection? 140. Spironolactone

a) Amoxicillin a) Is an aldosterone antagonist
b) Moxifloxacin b) May produce gynaecomastia
c) Tetracycline c) Acts on loop of Henle
d) Ampicillin d) Is contraindicated in nephrotic syndrome
e) Chloramphenicol e) May produce hypokalaemia

141. Drug causing hypothyroidism- 142. Zero - order kinetics

a) Carbimazole a) Constant amount of drug will be eliminated
b) Propylthiouracil b) T ½ is constant
c) Lithium c) Occurs when metabolizing / eliminating system is saturated
d) Thyroxine d) Accounts for elimination of most drug
e) Propanol e) Rate of elimination dependent on drug concentration

143. The formation of complex intracellular proteins known 144. Deep vein thrombosis-
as inflammasomes. which cell(s) is/are the cells of a) Bedridden for more than 3 days in the postoperative period
inflammasomes? increases the risk of DVT
a) Basophil b) Common site of beginning of thrombus is soleal veins
b) Dendritic cell c) Commonly it is symptomatic
c) Eosinophil d) Fever is most common symptoms
d) Macrophage e) Immobility is most common cause
e) Neutrophil
145. Familial adenomatous polyp-
a) Is an autosomal dominant condition (mutation on chromosome
no. 5q21)
b) Presents in older age group
c) Incidence is equal in both sex
d) Over 80% cases come from APC gene mutation
e) Malignant tumours can develop particularly around the duodenal
ampulla

146. In Obstructive jaundice- 147. Intramural cause of hydronephrosis-

a) Factors II, VII, IX, and X levels are increased a) Aberrant renal vessels
b) It causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia b) Congenital PUJ obstruction
c) Preoperative use of Inj. Vit.K to reduce the surgical complication c) Retrocaval ureter
d) Steatorrhoea occurs due to absorption of fat soluble vitamins d) Stone in the ureter
e) Urine contains urobilinogen e) Ureterocele

148. Hirschsprung’s disease- 149. Ewing’s sarcoma

a) Down' s syndrome (Triosomy 21) is the commonest association a) Arise in the diaphysis of a long bone
b) Gene mutation commonly occur in chromosome no.10 b) Frequently females are affected
c) It is a genetic defect that causes thin nerve trunks in the distal c) It is common in middle age people
bowel d) Radiologically –shows onion skin appearance
 d) It is common in males e) Translocation usually seen in chromosome no. 11 & 22
e) Most of the cases –aganglionosis extend from anus to proximal
colon 150. Characteristics of Rickets-
a) Alkaline phosphatase: Decreased
b) Bone density: Increased
c) Muscles: Normal
d) Metaphysis: Broad & cup shaped
e) Pain: Generalized chronic pain

151. For pain management-WHO advises use of the ‘WHO 152. Clinical features of uncompensated shock-
analgesic ladder’- a) Urine output --------------------- Anuric
a) First step: Paracetamol b) Conscious level -------------------Mild anxiety
b) First step: Anticonvulsant drugs c) Respiratory rate ----------------- Laboured
c) Second step: NSAIDs d) Pulse rate--------------------------decreased
d) Second step: Tramadol e) Blood pressure------------------- Normal
e) Third step: Morphine
153. Features of secondary wound closure and healing-
a) Wound initially left open
b) Edges apposed later when healing conditions favourable
c) Heals by granulation, contraction and re-epithelialization
d) Increased inflammation and proliferation
e) Poor scar

154. Mechanical haemostatic technique used 155. Common clinical diseases of the hip in children-
intraoperatively- a) Perthes’ disease
a) Wound packing b) Septic arthritis
b) Bone wax c) Secondary osteoarthritis
c) Image-guided embolisation d) Inflammatory arthritis
d) Electrosurgery e) Osteomyelitis
e) Cryosurgery
156. Pathological causes of a flat foot include-
a) Tibialis posterior tendon dysfunction
b) Tarsometatarsal arthritis/injury
c) Charcot neuroarthropathy
d) Spring ligament rupture
e) Tarsal coalition

157. Prostate specific antigen- 158. Testis tumor markers are-

a) Is a glycoprotein a) B- HCG
b) Is responsible for liquefaction of seminal fluid b) µ Fetoprotein
c) Is not significantly altered by UTI c) AST
d) Level is increased by finasteride d) CA-125
e) 50-60% with an elevated PSA will not have prostate cancer e) LDH

159. Maternal (environmental) factors associations with 160. Indications for endotracheal intubation are -
congenital heart disease- a) Cardiac arrest
a) Rubella b) Major surgery with general anesthesia
b) Systemic lupus erythematosus c) Patient with Glasgow coma scale-15
c) Maternal phenylketonuria d) Vital capacity > 15 ml/kg
d) Down syndrome e) PaO2 <50 mm of Hg with 50% Fi02
e) Edwards syndrome
161. ERCP is superior to MRCP as a diagnostic tool in -
a) Bile duct injury
b) Choledochal cyst
c) Chronic calcific pancreatitis
d) Hepaticolithiasis
e) Traumatic pancreatic duct disruption

162. Metabolic keratopathies develop in the following 163. Causes of mydriasis-

metabolic disease- a) Optic atrophy
a) Wilson’s disease b) Horner’s syndrome
b) Cystinosis c) 3rd nerve paralysis
c) Fabry disease d) Deep sleep
d) DM e) Absolute glucoma
e) HTN
164. Indication of surgical intervention in secondary
hyperthyroidism-
a) Persistant high PTH
b) Age <50
c) Hyperphospatemia
d) Established largest gland
e) Urinary tract calculi

165. Cause of reffered otalgia- 166. Extra-cranial complication of CSOM is/are-

a) Dental caries via 5th nerve a) Sub periosteal abcess
b) Acute tonsilitis via 5th nerve b) Petrositis
c) Peritonsillar abcess via 9th nerve c) Facial nerve paralysis
d) Epiglotitis via 10th nerve d) Purulent labyrinthitis
e) Cervical spondylosis via cervical 5th nerve e) Otitic hydrocephalus

167. Cushing triad in raised ICP- 168. Causes of ascites with exudative collection-
 a) Papilloedema a) Peritoneal alignancy
b) Systemic HTN b) Tuberculous peritonitis
c) Bradycardia c) Pancreatic ascites
d) Irregular respiration d) Portal vein thrombosis
e) Headache e) Cirrhosis

169. Indication of splenectomy with maximum benefit- 170. Complications of acute pancreatitis-
a) Thalassaemia a) ARDS
b) CML b) Hypercalcaemia
c) Sickle cell disease c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hypersplenism d) Hypolipidaemia
e) Splenic injury e) Ileus

171. Causes of gynaecomastia- 172. Sub type of fibroid uterus-

a) Idiopathic a) Interstitial
b) Hypothyroidism b) Sub serous
c) Hypergonadism c) Submucosal
d) Liver failure d) Extraligamentary
e) Teratoma testis e) Pedunculated

173. Important events of ovulation- 174. In HELLP syndrome-

a) Occurs 34-36 hours after LH surge a) Low blood pressure
b) 36 hour after LH peak b) Proteinuria
c) Synthesis of progesterone c) Low platelet count
d) End of secretory phase d) Low liver enzymes
e) Leutinization of granulosa cell e) Hemolysis

175. Immediate life threatening condition in chest injury- 176. Regarding hydatid disease diagnosis-
a) Pulmonary contusion a) Usual sufferer - sheep farmer
b) Rupture diaphragm b) Liver - most commonly affected
c) Aortic injury c) Anaphylactic shock never occur
d) Flail chest d) Best imaging ultrasound
e) Massive haemothorx e) Best imaging CT scan

177. Coagulation diathermy differs from cutting diathermy 178. Obesity/Lack of physical exercise may be associated
are- with following tumors-
a) Low voltage current a) Breast
b) Energy dispersed over a large area b) Kidney
c) Tissue is heated rapidly c) Urinary bladder
d) Interrupted d) Colon
e) Minimal lateral spread e) Lungs

179. Followings are feature of acute limb ischemia- 180. Toxicity from hyperbaric oxygen therapy causes-
a) Cold and pale skin a) Painful joints
b) Intermittent claudication b) Pulmonary edema
c) Hair loss c) Acute tubular necrosis
d) Muscle weakness d) Convulsions
e) Pain e) Bradycardia

181. In direct inguinal hernia neck of the hernial sac lies 182. A 10 years old boy presented with multiple
which side of inferior epigastric artery? lymphadenopathy in the axillary region, cervical chain
a) Lateral and also inguinal region. What is the area of drainage of
b) Medial superficial inguinal lymph node?
c) Anterior a) Anal canal above the pectinate line
d) Posterior b) Anterior abdominal wall above the umbilicus
e) Inferior c) Glans penis
d) Knee joint
e) Upper part of lateral side of thigh

183. Which of the following characteristics is shared by 184. A patient presents with respiratory alkalosis following
simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose? RTA. Following which can be found in this patient blood?
a) Occurs down an electrochemical gradient a) Low PCO2
b) Requires a Na+ gradient
b) Increased K+
c) Requires metabolic energy
c) Reduce plasma anion gap
d) Is saturable
e) Is inhibited by the presence of galactose d) Increased HCO3-
e) Positive base excess

185. A patient who injured himself in a bike accident screams 186. A – 8-years old child develops thrombocytopenia,
out of pain but he spontaneously opens his eyes, obeys hemolytic anaemia & kidney failure after treating with
the words that are commanded to him and abnormal fluroquinolones for diarrhoea. Which organism is
flexion of wrist. What is the GCS score for him? responsible for the diarrhoea?
a) 11 a) Compylobacter jejuni
b) 12 b) E. Coli
c) 13 c) Salmonella
d) 14 d) Shigella
e) 15 e) V. Cholerea

187. A 36-year-old woman was well until two days ago, when 188. Treatment with drug whose mode of action is inhibition
she experienced sudden onset of fever and sweating. of reverse transcription is used in which one of the
Today she complains of headeche and abdominal pain following disease?
 but no nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea. She does not have a a) Acute hepatitis A
stiff neck, rash or altered mental status. Blood smear b) Acute hepatitis B
reveals ring shaped trophozoites and banana shaped c) Acute hepatitis C
gametocytes within red blood cells. The most probable d) Chronic hepatitis B
diagnosis is: e) Chronic hepatitis C
a) P. Ovale
b) P. Vivax 189. Recently the whole nation is talking about the Gender
c) P. Falciparum oriention of different people which started with the
d) P. Malariae context of class 7th "sharif Sharifa" story. Many of your
e) Histoplasma capsulatum non- medical friends want to know the fact from you as
you are a doctor. You know, The term true
hermaphrodite implies the presence of-
a) No sexual organ
b) Disagreement between phenotypic & gonadal sex
c) Has overies but male external genitalia
d) Testicular tissue but female type genitalia
e) Both ovarian and testicular tissue

190. A 50 years old reffered to a oncologist with a FNAC 191. Statement that is true for electron transport chain -
report of right sided breast lump. It Stated "suspicious a) Three protein complexes are formed
cytology". What is the next step he would advice? b) Three sites of ATP production
a) Repeat FNAC c) Substrate is NADPH
b) Biopsy d) RLE: Cytochrome dehydrogenase
c) Frozen section e) Produces reduced co-enzymes.
d) Immuno histochemistry
e) Exfoliative cytology 192. A boy, 8 years old presented with ptosis, difficulty in
chewing & loss of facial.expression. How do acetyl
cholinesterase inhibitor work here?
a) Blocks the action of acetylcholine
b) Increases the acetyl choline destruction
c) Decreases the level of acetyl choline
d) Increases the level of acetyl choline
e) Increase the number of acetyl cholien receptor

193. A 5 yeara old boy was diagnosed as a case of nephrotic 194. Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA) is becoming very
syndrome. He received prednisolone but development popular now-a-days. It is used due to lack of cumulative
multiple relapses during treatment & finally gets effect, better haemodynamic stability, excellent recovery
diagnosed as steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome. profile. Lead in: Drug of choice for TIVA is-
Which drug will be suitable for him now? a) Etomidate
a) Prednisolone b) Fospropofol
b) Methylprednisolone c) Ketamine
c) Hydrocortisone d) Propofol
d) Cyclophosphamide e) Thiopentone
e) Dexamethasone
195. A 07-year-old child with his parent’s came to Surgical
OPD with the complaints of retention of urine for last 12
hours. His parent’s gave H/O accidental fall while he
was riding on a Bi Cycle. Lead in: Most common cause of
retention of urine in this condition is-
a) Bladder outlet obstruction
b) BPH
c) Carcinoma of prostate
d) Posterior urethral valve
e) Urethral stricture

196. A 30-year-old male came to department of casualty, 197. A 65-year-old male patient presents to the outpatient
DMCH with multiple injury over the body following RTA. clinic with a long history of constipation only. Which of
His pulse was 98 b/min, BP-90/50 mmHg, GCS- 13/15. the following is the most appropriate investigation for
After proper resuscitated patient was stable. Lead in: him?
which one of the following parameters decreased in a) Barium enema
metabolic response to injury? b) Colonoscopy
a) IL-1 c) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
b) IL-6 d) Flexible sigmoidoscopy
c) IGF-1 e) Rigid sigmoidoscopy
d) Adrenalin
e) Growth hormone 198. A pregnant lady came to opd with per vaginal bleeding
which is painless, bright red recurrent bleeding that
without any cause. on ultrasonogram placenta in lower
segment. What is the likely diagnosis?
a) Ca cervix
b) Hydatidiform mole
c) Abortion
d) Abruptio placenta
e) Placenta previa
199. Main causative organism for breast abscess- 200. Most common presenting symptoms of nasopharyngeal
a) Streptococcus pyogenes carcinoma
b) Staphylococcus aureus a) Hearing loss
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Nasal obstruction
d) Streptococcus saprophyticus c) Cervical lymphadenopathy
e) E. coli d) Epistaxis
e) Cranical nerve palsy