CAT

Question
Paper 2008

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Instructions:
1. The Test Paper contains 90 questions. The duration of the test is 150 minutes.
2. The paper is divided into three sections. Section-I: 25 Q:, Section-II: 25 Q:, Section-III: 40 Q.
3. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.

1. The integers 1, 2, …, 40 are written on a blackboard. The following operation is then repeated
39 times: In each repetition, any two numbers, say a and b, currently on the blackboard are
erased and a new number a + b – 1 is written. What will be the number left on the board at the
end?
(1) 820 (2) 821 (3) 781 (4) 819 (5) 780

2. What are the last two digits of 72008?

(1) 21 (2) 61 (3) 01 (4) 41 (5) 81

3. If the roots of the equation x3 – ax2 + bx – c = 0 are three consecutive integers, then what is the
smallest possible value of b?

1 1
(1) − 3 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) 1 (5) 3

4. A shop stores x kg of rice. The first customer buys half this amount plus half a kg of rice. The
second customer buys half the remaining amount plus half a kg of rice. Then the third customer
also buys half the remaining amount plus half a kg of rice. Thereafter, no rice is left in the shop.
Which of the following best describes the value of x?
(1) 2≤ ≤x 6 (2) 5≤ ≤x 8 (3) 9≤ ≤x 12
(4) 11≤ ≤x 14 (5) 13≤ ≤x 18

Directions for Questions 5 and 6:

Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, where a, b and c are certain constants and a 0≠ It is known that
f(5) = – 3f(2) and that 3 is a root of f(x) = 0.

5. What is the other root of f(x) = 0?

(1) –7 (2) – 4 (3) 2

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 (4) 6 (5) cannot be determined

6. What is the value of a + b + c?

(1) 9 (2) 14 (3) 13

(4) 37 (5) cannot be determined

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7. The number of common terms in the two sequences 17, 21, 25,…, 417 and 16, 21, 26,…, 466
is
(1) 78 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 77 (5) 22

8. How many integers, greater than 999 but not greater than 4000, can be formed with the digits 0,
1, 2, 3 and 4, if repetition of digits is allowed?
(1) 499 (2) 500 (3) 375 (4) 376 (5) 501

Directions for questions 9 and 10:

The figure below shows the plan of a town. The streets are at right angles to each other. A rectangular
park (P) is situated inside the town with a diagonal road running through it. There is also a prohibited
region (D) in the town.

9. Neelam rides her bicycle from her house at A to her office at B, taking the shortest path. Then
the number of possible shortest paths that she can choose is
(1) 60 (2) 75 (3) 45 (4) 90 (5) 72

10. Neelam rides her bicycle from her house at A to her club at C, via B taking the shortest path.
Then the number of possible shortest paths that she can choose is
(1) 1170 (2) 630 (3) 792 (4) 1200 (5) 936

11. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x)f(y) = f(xy) for all real x, y. If f(2) = 4, then what is the value of

f
?

(1) 0 (2) (3)

(4) 1 (5) cannot be determined

12. Suppose, the seed of any positive integer n is defined as follows: seed(n) = n, if
n < 10
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 = seed(s(n)), otherwise,
where s(n) indicates the sum of digits of n. For example,
seed(7) = 7, seed(248) = seed(2 + 4 + 8) = seed(14) = seed(1 + 4) = seed(5) = 5 etc. How many
positive integers n, such that n < 500, will have seed (n) = 9?
(1) 39 (2) 72 (3) 81 (4) 108 (5) 55
13. In a triangle ABC, the lengths of the sides AB and AC equal 17.5 cm and 9 cm respectively. Let
D be a point on the line segment BC such that AD is perpendicular to BC. If AD = 3 cm, then
what is the radius (in cm) of the circle circumscribing the triangle ABC?
(1) 17.05 (2) 27.85 (3) 22.45 (4) 32.25 (5) 26.25

14. Consider obtuse-angled triangles with sides 8 cm, 15 cm and x cm. If x is an integer, then how
many such triangles exist?
(1) 5 (2) 21 (3) 10 (4) 15 (5) 14

15. Consider a square ABCD with midpoints E, F, G, H of AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Let L
denote the line passing through F and H. Consider points P and Q, on L and inside ABCD, such
that the angles APD and BQC both equal 120°. What is the ratio of the area of ABQCDP to the
remaining area inside ABCD?

4 210 −3 3 1
1
(1) (2) 2 + 3 (3) (4) +(5) 2 3 −1 3
39

16. What is the number of distinct terms in the expansion of (a + b + c) 20?

(1) 231 (2) 253 (3) 242 (4) 210 (5) 228

Directions for Questions 17 and 18:

Five horses, Red, White, Grey, Black and Spotted participated in a race. As per the rules of the race,
the persons betting on the winning horse get four times the bet amount and those betting on the horse
that came in second get thrice the bet amount. Moreover, the bet amount is returned to those betting
on the horse that came in third, and the rest lose the bet amount. Raju bets Rs. 3000, Rs. 2000 and
Rs. 1000 on Red, White and Black horses respectively and ends up with no profit and no loss.

17. Which of the following cannot be true?

(1) At least two horses finished before Spotted
(2) Red finished last
(3) There were three horses between Black and Spotted
(4) There were three horses between White and Red
(5) Grey came in second

18. Suppose, in addition, it is known that Grey came in fourth. Then which of the following cannot be
true?
(1) Spotted came in first
(2) Red finished last
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 (3) White came in second
(4) Black came in second
(5) There was one horse between Black and White
Directions for Questions 19 and 20:
Mark (1) if Q can be answered from A alone but not from B alone.
Mark (2) if Q can be answered from B alone but not from A alone.
Mark (3) if Q can be answered from A alone as well as from B alone.
Mark (4) if Q can be answered from A and B together but not from any of them alone.
Mark (5) if Q cannot be answered even from A and B together.

In a single elimination tournament, any player is eliminated with a single loss. The tournament is played
in multiple rounds subject to the following rules :
(a) If the number of players, say n, in any round is even, then the players are grouped into n/2 pairs.
The players in each pair play a match against each other and the winner moves on to the next
round.
(b) If the number of players, say n, in any round is odd, then one of them is given a bye, that is he
automatically moves on to the next round. The remaining (n–1) players are grouped into (n–1)/2
pairs. The players in each pair play a match against each other and the winner moves on to the
next round. No player gets more than one bye in the entire tournament.

Thus, if n is even, then n/2 players move on to the next round while if n is odd, then (n+1)/2 players
move on to the next round. The process is continued till the final round, which obviously is played
between two players. The winner in the final round is the champion of the tournament.

19. What is the number of Matches played by the champion?

A. The entry list for the tournament consists of 83 players.
B. The champion received one bye.

20. If the number of players, say n, in the first round was between 65 and 128, then what is the exact
value of n?
A. Exactly one player received a bye in the entire tournament.
B. One player received a bye while moving on to the fourth round from the third round.

21. Two circles, both of radii 1 cm, intersect such that the circumference of each one passes through
the centre of the other. What is the area (in sq. cm.) of the intersecting region?
3 (1) −(2) 2π+(3) 4π− π 3 3
4 2 333 2

3 3
(4) 4π+(5) 2π−
3 2 3 2

22. Rahim plans to drive from city A to station C, at the speed of 70 km per hour, to catch a train
arriving there from B. He must reach C at least 15 minutes before the arrival of the train. The
train leaves B, located 500 km south of A, at 8:00 am and travels at a speed of 50 km per hour.

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 It is known that C is located between west and northwest of B, with BC at 60° to AB. Also, C is
located between south and southwest of A with AC at 30° to AB. The latest time by which Rahim
must leave A and still catch the train is closest to
(1) 6 : 15 am (2) 6 : 30 am (3) 6 :45 am

(4) 7 : 00 am (5) 7 : 15 am

23. Three consecutive positive integers are raised to the first, second and third powers respectively
and then added. The sum so obtained is perfect square whose square root equals the total of
the three original integers. Which of the following best describes the minimum, say m, of these
three integers?
(1) 1≤ ≤m 3 (2) 4≤ ≤m 6 (3) 7≤ ≤m 9

(4) 10≤ ≤m 12 (5) 13≤ ≤m 15

24. Find the sum 1+ +1 1 + +1 1 + 1 +.......+ +1 1+1

2 2 2 2
1 2 2 3 20072 20082

(1) 2008− (2) 2007− (3) 2007−

(4) 2008− (5) 2008−

25. Consider a right circular cone of base radius 4 cm and height 10 cm. A cylinder is to be placed
inside the cone with one of the flat surfaces resting on the base of the cone. Find the largest
possible total surface area (in sq. cm) of the cylinder.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

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Directions for Questions 26 to 28: Answer the following questions based on the statements given
below:

(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.

(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.
(iv) The houses are of different heights.
(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.
(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.
(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.
(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.
(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.
(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.

26. What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house? (1) White (2)
Blue (3) Green
(4) Red (5) none of these

27. Which is the second tallest house?

(1) P (2) S (3) Q
(4) R (5) cannot be determined

28. What is the colour of the tallest house?

(1) Red (2) Blue (3) Green
(4) Yellow (5) none of these
Directions for questions 29 to 31: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below:
Telecom operators get revenue from transfer of data and voice. Average revenue received from
transfer of each unit of data is known as ARDT. In the diagram below, the revenue received from data
transfer as percentage of total revenue received and the ARDT in US Dollars (USD) are given for
various countries.

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 ARDT (in USD)

Legend: ASIA EUROPE AMERICAS

29. It was found that the volume of data transfer in India is the same as that of Singapore. Then
which of the following statements is true?
(1) Total revenue is the same in both countries.
(2) Total revenue in India is about 2 times that of Singapore.(3) Total revenue in India is about 4
times that of Singapore.
(4) Total revenue in Singapore is about 2 times that of India.
(5) Total revenue in Singapore is about 4 time that of India.

30. It is expected that by 2010, revenue from data transfer as a percentage of total revenue will triple
for India and double for Sweden. Assume that in 2010, the total revenue in India is twice that of
Sweden and that the volume of data transfer is the same in both the countries. What is the
percentage increase of ARDT in India if there is no change in ARDT in Sweden?
(1) 400% (2) 550% (3) 800%
(4) 950% (5) cannot be determined
31. If the total revenue received is the same for the pairs of countries listed in the choices below,
choose the pair that has approximately the same volume of data transfer.
(1) Philippines and Austria

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 (2) Canada and Poland
(3) Germany and USA
(4) UK and Spain
(5) Denmark and Mexico

Directions for Questions 32 to 34: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different
sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the
sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get
admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections
and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the
college.
Sectional Cut – off Marks Aggregate Cut-
off Marks
Section A Section B Section C Section D
College 1 42 42 42 176
College 2 45 45 175
College 3 46 171
College 4 43 45 178
College 5 45 43 180
College 6 41 44 176
32. Bhama got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained by
her?
(1) 180 (2) 181 (3) 196 (4) 176 (5) 184

33. Charlie got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a
section?
(1) 0 (2) 21 (3) 25 (4) 35 (5) 41

34. Aditya did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum aggregate
marks obtained by him?
(1) 181 (2) 176 (3) 184 (4) 196 (5) 190
Directions for Questions 35 to 38: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches
are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage –
II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of
the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.
Stage-I:
• One team won all the three matches.
• Two teams lost all the matches.
• D lost to A but won against C and F.
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• E lost to B but won against C and F.
• B lost at least one match.
• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II:
• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.
• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost
both matches.
• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
35. The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are:

(1) F & D (2) E & F (3) B & D (4) E & D (5) F & D

36. The only team(s) that won both matches in Stage-II is (are):

(1) B (2) E & F (3) A, E & F (4) B, E & F (5) B & F

37. The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are:

(1) A, D & F (2) D & E (3) E & F (4) D, E & F (5) D & F

38. The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are):

(1) A (2) A & C (3) F (4) E (5) B & E

Directions for Questions 39 to 42: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below: The bar chart below shows the revenue received in million US Dollars (USD), from subscribers
to a particular Internet service. The data covers the period 2003 to 2007 for the United States (US) and
Europe. The bar chart also shows the estimated revenues from subscription to this service for the
period 2008 to 2010.
1000

900

800

700

600

500 US
400 Europe

300

200

100

0
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 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Years

39. The difference between the estimated subscription in Europe in 2008 and what it would have
been if it were computed using the percentage growth rate of 2007 (over 2006), is closest to:
(1) 50 (2) 80 (3) 20 (4) 10 (5) 0
40. In 2003, sixty percent of subscribers in Europe were men. Given that women subscribers
increase at the rate of 10 percent per annum and men at the rate of 5 percent per annum, what
is the approximate percentage growth of subscribers between 2003 and 2010 in Europe? The
subscription prices are volatile and may change each year.
(1) 62 (2) 15 (3) 78 (4) 84 (5) 50

41. Consider the annual percent change in the gap between subscription revenues in the US and
Europe. What is the year in which the absolute value of this change is the highest?
(1) 03 - 04 (2) 05 - 06 (3) 06 - 07 (4) 08 - 09 (5) 09 - 10

42. While the subscription in Europe has been growing steadily towards that of the US, the growth
rate in Europe seems to be declining. Which of the following is closest to the percent change in
growth rate of 2007 (over 2006) relative to the growth rate of 2005 (over 2004)?
(1) 17 (2) 20 (3) 35 (4) 60 (5) 100

Directions for questions 43 to 47: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below:

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd.
Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the
close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11 am, 12
noon, 1 pm, and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day. Further, he buys an equal
number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is
somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The
profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day
less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or
loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.

43. On a day of fluctuating market prices, the share price of XYZ Ltd. ends with a gain, i.e, it is higher
at the close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on
that day?
(1) Bikram
(2) Chetan
(3) Abdul
(4) Bikram or Chetan
(5) cannot be determined

44. Which one of the following statements is always true?

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 (1) Abdul will not be one with the minimum return
(2) Return for Chetan will be higher than that of Bikram
(3) Return for Bikram will be higher than that of Chetan
(4) Return for Chetan cannot be higher than that of Abdul
(5) none of the above

45. On a “boom” day the share price of XYZ Ltd. keeps rising throughout the day and peaks at the
close of the day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?
(1) Bikram (2) Chetan (3) Abdul
(4) Abdul or Chetan (5) cannot be determined
One day, two other traders, Dane and Emily joined Abdul, Bikram and Chetan for trading in the shares
of XYZ Ltd. Dane followed a strategy of buying equal numbers of shares at 10 am. 11 am and 12 noon,
and selling the same numbers at 1 pm, 2 pm and 3 pm. Emily, on the other hand, followed the strategy
of buying shares using all her money at 10 am and selling all of them at 12 noon and again buying the
shares for all the money at 1 pm and again selling all of them at the close of the day at 3 pm. At the
close of the day the following was observed.
i. Abdul lost money in the transactions. ii. Both Dane and Emily made profits. iii. There was an
increase in share price during the closing hour compared to the price at 2 pm. iv. Share price
at 12 noon was lower than the opening price

46. Share price was at its highest at

(1) 10 am (2) 11 am (3) 12 noon
(4) 1 pm (5) cannot be determined

47. Which of the following is necessarily false?

(1) Share price was at its lowest at 2 pm
(2) Share price was at its lowest at 11 am
(3) Share price at 1 pm was higher than the share price at 2 pm
(4) Share price at 1 pm was higher than the share price at 12 noon
(5) none of the above

Directions for Questions 48 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below:

There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the
department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an
employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
Number of Average Average Basic Allowances (%
Department
Employees Age (Years) Pay (Rs.) of Basic Pay)
HR 5 45 5000 70
Marketing 30 35 6000 80
Finance 20 30 6500 60

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 Business
35 42 7500 75
Development
Maintenance 10 35 5500 50
There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments.
Whenever a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department
of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above
his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is
transferred/promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average
age.

Questions below are independent of each other.

48. What is the approximate percentage change in the average gross of the HR department due to
transfer of a 40-year old person with basic pay of Rs. 8000 from the Marketing department?
(1) 9% (2) 11% (3) 13% (4) 15% (5) 17%
49. There was a mutual transfer of an employee between Marketing and Finance departments and
transfer of one employee from Marketing to HR. As a result, the average age of Finance
department increased by one year and that of Marketing department remained the same. What
is the new average age of HR department?
(1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 40
(4) 45 (5) cannot be determined

50. If two employees (each with a basic pay of Rs. 6000) are transferred from Maintenance
department to HR department and one person (with a basic pay of Rs. 8000) was transferred
from Marketing department to HR department, what will be the percentage change in average
basic pay of HR department?
(1) 10.5% (2) 12.5% (3) 15% (4) 30% (5) 40%

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Directions for Questions 51 to 54: In each of the following questions there are sentences that form a
paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and
usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate
option.

51. A. In 1849, a poor Bavarian imigrant named Levi Strauss

B. landed in San Francisco, California,
C. at the invitation of his brother-in-law David Stern
D. owner of dry goods business.
E. This dry goods business would later became known as Levi Strauss & Company.
(1) B only (2) B and C (3) A and B (4) A only (5) A, B and D

52. A. In response to the allegations and condemnation pouring in, B. Nike implemented
comprehensive changes in their labour policy.

C. Perhaps. sensing the rising tide of global labour concerns,

D. from the public would become a prominent media issue,

E. Nike sought to be a industry leader in employee relations.

(1) D and E (2) D only (3) A and E (4) A and D (5) B, C and E

53. A. Charges and countercharges mean nothing B. to the few million who have lost their home.

C. The nightmare is far from over, for the government

D. is still unable to reach hundreds who are marooned.

E. The death count have just begun.

(1) A only (2) C only (3) A and C (4) A, C and D (5) D only

54. A. I did not know what to make of you.

B. Because you’d lived in India, I associate you more with my parents than with me.
C. And yet you were unlike my cousins in Calcutta, who seem so innocent and obedient when
Ivisited them.
D. You were not curious about me in the least.
E. Although you did make effort to meet me.
(1) A only (2) A and B (3) A and E (4) D only (5) A and D
Directions for Questions 55 to 58: In each question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has a
pair of words that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted words, select the
most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that

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indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options
given, choose the most appropriate one.

55. Anita wore a beautiful broach (A)/brooch (B) on the lapel of her jacket.
If you want to complain about the amenities in your neighbourhood, please meet your
councillor(A)/counsellor(B).
I would like your advice(A)/advise(B) on which job I should choose.
The last scene provided a climactic(A)/climatic(B) ending to the film.
Jeans that flair(A)/flare(B) at the bottom are in fashion these days.
(1) BABAA (2) BABAB (3) BAAAB (4) ABABA (5) BAABA

56. The cake had lots of currents(A)/currants(B) and nuts in it.

If you engage in such exceptional(A)/exceptionable(B) behaviour, I will be forced to punish
you.
He has the same capacity as an adult to consent(A)/assent(B) to surgical treatment.
The minister is obliged (A)/compelled(B) to report regularly to a parliamentary board.
His analysis of the situation is far too sanguine(A)/genuine(B).
(1) BBABA (2) BBAAA (3) BBBBA (4) ABBAB (5) BABAB

57. She managed to bite back the ironic(A)/caustic(B) retort on the tip of her tongue.
He gave an impassioned and valid(A)/cogent(B) plea for judicial reform.
I am not adverse(A)/averse(B) to helping out.
The coupé(A)/coup(B) broke away as the train climbed the hill.
They heard the bells peeling(A)/pealing(B) far and wide.
(1) BBABA (2) BBBAB (3) BAABB (4) ABBAA (5) BBBBA

58. We were not successful in defusing(A)/diffusing(B) the Guru’s ideas.

The students baited(A)/bated(B) the instructor with irrelevant questions.
The hoard(A)/horde(B) rushed into the campus.
The prisoner’s interment(A)/interment(B) came to an end with his early release.
The hockey team could not deal with his unsociable(A)/unsocial(B) tendencies.
(1) BABBA (2) BBABB (3) BABAA (4) ABBAB (5) AABBA

Directions for Questions 59 to 62: In each of the questions, a word has been used in sentences in
five different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is
incorrect or inappropriate.

59. Run
(1) I must run fast to catch up with him.
(2) Our team scored a goal against the run of play.
(3) You can’t run over him like that.
(4) The newly released book is enjoying a popular run.
(5) This film is a run-of-the-mill production.
60. Round
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 (1) The police fired a round of tear gas shells.
(2) The shop is located round the corner.
(3) We took a ride on the merry-go-round.
(4) The doctor is on a hospital round.
(5) I shall proceed further only after you come round to admitting it.

61. Buckle
(1) After the long hike our knees were beginning to buckle.
(2) The horse suddenly broke into a buckle.
(3) The accused did not buckle under police interrogation.
(4) Sometimes, an earthquake can make a bridge buckle.
(5) People should learn to buckle up as soon as they get into a car.

62. File
(1) You will find the paper in the file under C.
(2) I need to file an insurance claim.
(3) The cadets were marching in a single file.
(4) File your nails before you apply nail polish.
(5) When the parade was on, a soldier broke the file.

Directions for Questions 63 to 66: Each of the following questions has a sentence with two blanks.
Given below each question are five pairs of words. Choose the pair that best completes the sentence.

63. The genocides in Bosnia and Rwanda, apart from being mis-described in the most sinister and
_________ manner as ‘ethnic cleansing’, were also blamed, in further hand-washing rhetoric, on
something dark and interior to __________ and perpetrators alike.
(1) innovative; communicator (2) enchanting; leaders
(3) disingenuous; victims (4) exigent; exploiters
(5) tragic; sufferers

64. As navigators, calendar makers, and other __________ of the night sky accumulated evidence
to the contrary, ancient astronomers were forced to __________ that certain bodies might move
in circles about points, which in turn moved in circles about the earth.
(1) scrutinizers; believe (2) observers; agree
(3) scrutinizers; suggest (4) observers; concede
(5) students; conclude

65. Every human being, after the first few days of his life, is a product of two factors: on the one
hand, there is his __________ endowment; and on the other hand, there is the effect of
environment, including _____
(1) constitutional; weather (2) congenital;
education
(3) personal; climate (4) economic; learning
(5) genetic; pedagogy

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66. Exhaustion of natural resources, destruction of individual initiative by governments, control over
men’s minds by central _______ of education and propaganda are some of the major evils which
appear to be on the increase as a result of the impact of science upon minds suited by
__________ to an earlier kind of world.
(1) tenets; fixation (2) aspects; inhibitions
(3) institutions; inhibitions (4) organs; tradition
(5) departments; repulsion
Directions for Questions 67 to 70: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the
last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the
paragraph in the most appropriate way.

67. Most people at their first consultation take a furtive look at the surgeon’s hands in the hope of
reassurance. Prospective patients look for delicacy, sensitivity, steadiness, perhaps
unblemished pallor. On this basis, Henry Perowne loses a number of cases each year. Generally,
he knows it’s about to happen before the patient does: the downward glance repeated, the
prepared questions beginning to falter, the overemphatic thanks during the retreat to the door.
(1) Other people do not communicate due to their poor observation.
(2) Other patients don’t like what they see but are ignorant of their right to go elsewhere.
(3) But Perowne himself is not concerned.’
(4) But others will take their place, he thought.
(5) These hands are steady enough, but they are large.

68. Trade protectionism, disguised as concern for the climate, is raising its head. Citing
competitiveness concerns, powerful industrialized countries are holding out threats of a levy on
imports of energy-intensive products from developing countries that refuse to accept their
demands. The actual source of protectionist sentiment in the OECD countries is, of course, their
current lacklustre economic performance, combined with the challenges posed by the rapid
economic rise of China and India - in that order.
(1) Climate change is evoked to bring trade protectionism through the back door.
(2) OECD countries are taking refuge in climate change issues to erect trade barriers against
these two countries.
(3) Climate change concerns have come as a convenient stick to beat the rising trade power of
China and India.
(4) Defenders of the global economic status quo are posing as climate change champions.
(5) Today’s climate change champions are the perpetrators of global economic inequity.

69. Mattancherry is Indian Jewry’s most famous settlement. Its pretty streets of pastel coloured
houses, connected by first-floor passages and home to the last twelve saree-and-sarong-
wearing, whiteskinned Indian Jews are visited by thousands of tourists each year. Its synagogue,
built in 1568, with a floor of blue-and-white Chinese tiles, a carpet given by Haile Selassie and
the frosty Yaheh selling tickets at the door, stands as an image of religious tolerance.
(1) Mattancherry represents, therefore, the perfect picture of peaceful co-existence.
(2) India’s Jews have almost never suffered discrimination, except for European colonizers and
each other.
(3) Jews in India were always tolerant.

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 (4) Religious tolerance has always been only a façade and nothing more.
(5) The pretty pastel streets are, thus, very popular with the tourists.
70. Given the cultural and intellectual interconnections, the question of what is ‘Western’ and what
is ‘Eastern’ (or ‘Indian’) is often hard to decide, and the issue can be discussed only in more
dialectical terms. The diagnosis of a thought as ‘purely Western’ or ‘purely Indian’ can be very
illusory.
(1) Thoughts are not the kind of things that can be easily categorized.
(2) Though ‘occidentalism’ and ‘orientalism’ as dichotomous concepts have found many
adherents.
(3) ‘East is East and West is West’ has been a discredited notion for a long time now.
(4) Compartmentalizing thoughts is often desirable.
(5) The origin of a thought is not the kind of thing to which ‘purity’ happens easily.

Directions for Questions 71 to 75: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

When I was little, children were bought two kinds of ice cream, sold from those white wagons with
canopies made of silvery metal: either the two-cent cone or the four-cent ice-cream pie. The two-cent
cone was very small, in fact it could fit comfortably into a child’s hand, and it was made by taking the
ice cream from its container with a special scoop and piling it on the cone. Granny always suggested I
eat only a part of the cone, then throw away the pointed end, because it had been touched by the
vendor’s hand (though that was the best part, nice and crunchy, and it was regularly eaten in secret,
after a pretence of discarding it).

The four-cent pie was made by a special little machine, also silvery, which pressed two disks of sweet
biscuit against a cylindrical section of ice cream. First you had to thrust your tongue into the gap
between the biscuits until it touched the central nucleus of ice cream; then, gradually, you ate the whole
thing, the biscuit surfaces softening as they became soaked in creamy nectar. Granny had no advice
to give here: in theory the pies had been touched only by the machine; in practice, the vendor had held
them in his hand while giving them to us, but it was impossible to isolate the contaminated area.

I was fascinated, however, by some of my peers, whose parents bought them not a four-cent pie but
two two-cent cones. These privileged children advanced proudly with one cone in their right hand and
one in their left; and expertly moving their head from side to side, they licked first one, then the other.
This liturgy seemed to me so sumptuously enviable, that many times I asked to be allowed to celebrate
it. In vain. My elders were inflexible: a four-cent ice, yes; but two two-cent ones, absolutely no.

As anyone can see, neither mathematics nor economy nor dietetics justified this refusal. Nor did
hygiene, assuming that in due course the tips of both cones were discarded. The pathetic, and
obviously mendacious, justification was that a boy concerned with turning his eyes from one cone to
the other was more inclined to stumble over stones, steps, or cracks in the pavement. I dimly sensed
that there was another secret justification, cruelly pedagogical, but I was unable to grasp it.

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Today, citizen and victim of a consumer society, a civilization of excess and waste (which the society
of the thirties was not), I realize that those dear and now departed elders were right. Two two-cent
cones instead of one at four cents did not signify squandering, economically speaking, but symbolically
they surely did. It was for this precise reason, that I yearned for them: because two ice creams
suggested excess. And this was precisely why they were denied to me: because they looked indecent,
an insult to poverty, a display of fictitious privilege, a boast of wealth. Only spoiled children ate two
cones at once, those children who in fairy tales were rightly punished, as Pinocchio was when he
rejected the skin and the stalk. And parents who encouraged this weakness, appropriate to little
parvenus, were bringing up their children in the foolish theatre of “I’d like to but I can’t.” They were
preparing them to turn up at tourist-class check-in with a fake Gucci bag bought from a street peddler
on the beach at Rimini.

Nowadays the moralist risks seeming at odds with morality, in a world where the consumer civilization
now wants even adults to be spoiled, and promises them always something more, from the wristwatch
in the box of detergent to the bonus bangle sheathed, with the magazine it accompanies, in a plastic
envelope. Like the parents of those ambidextrous gluttons I so envied, the consumer civilization
pretends to give more, but actually gives, for four cents, what is worth four cents. You will throwaway
the old transistor radio to purchase the new one, that boasts an alarm clock as well, but some
inexplicable defect in the mechanism will guarantee that the radio lasts only a year. The new cheap
car will have leather seats, double side mirrors adjustable from inside, and a panelled dashboard, but
it will not last nearly so long as the glorious old Fiat 500, which, even when it broke down, could be
started again with a kick.

The morality of the old days made Spartans of us all, while today’s morality wants all of us to be
Sybarites.

71. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(1) Today’s society is more extravagant than the society of the 1930s.
(2) The act of eating two ice cream cones is akin to a ceremonial process.
(3) Elders rightly suggested that a boy turning eyes from one cone to the other was more likely
to fall.
(4) Despite seeming to promise more, the consumer civilization gives away exactly what the
thing is worth.
(5) The consumer civilization attempts to spoil children and adults alike.

72. In the passage, the phrase “little parvenus” refers to

(1) naughty midgets. (2) old hags. (3) arrogant people.
(4) young upstarts. (5) foolish kids.

73. The author pined for two two-cent cones instead of one four-cent pie because
(1) it made dietetic sense.
(2) it suggested intemperance.
(3) it was more fun.
(4) it had a visual appeal.
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 (5) he was a glutton.

74. What does the author mean by “nowadays the moralist risks seeming at odds with morality”?
(1) The moralists of yesterday have become immoral today.
(2) The concept of morality has changed over the years.
(3) Consumerism is amoral.
(4) The risks associated with immorality have gone up.
(5) The purist’s view of morality is fast becoming popular.

75. According to the author, the justification for refusal to let him eat two cones was plausibly
(1) didactic. (2) dietetic. (3) dialectic. (4) diatonic. (5) diastolic.

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Directi The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the answer to each
question.
ons for Questions 76 to 80:
most appropriate

Language is not a cultural artifact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal
government works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the biological makeup of our brains. Language is a
complex, specialized skill, which develops in the child spontaneously, without conscious effort or formal
instruction, is deployed without awareness of its underlying logic, is qualitatively the same in every
individual, and is distinct from more general abilities to process information or behave intelligently. For
these reasons some cognitive scientists have described language as a psychological faculty, a mental
organ, a neural system, and a computational module. But I prefer the admittedly quaint term “instinct”.
It conveys the idea that people know how to talk in more or less the sense that spiders know how to
spin webs. Web-spinning was not invented by some unsung spider genius and does not depend on
having had the right education or on having an aptitude for architecture or the construction trades.
Rather, spiders spin spider webs because they have spider brains, which give them the urge to spin
and the competence to succeed. Although there are differences between webs and words, I will
encourage you to see language in this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will
explore.

Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been passed down
in the canon of the humanities and social sciences. Language is no more a cultural invention than is
upright posture. It is not a manifestation of a general capacity to use symbols: a three-year-old, we
shall see, is a grammatical genius, but is quite incompetent at the visual arts, religious iconography,
traffic signs, and the other staples of the semiotics curriculum. Though language is a magnificent ability
unique to Homo sapiens among living species, it does not call for sequestering the study of humans
from the domain of biology, for a magnificent ability unique to a particular living species is far from
unique in the animal kingdom. Some kinds of bats home in on flying insects using Doppler sonar. Some
kinds of migratory birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the positions of the constellations
against the time of day and year. In nature’s talent show, we are simply a species of primate with our
own act, a knack for communicating information about who did what to whom by modulating the sounds
we make when we exhale.

Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness hut as a
biological adaptation to communicate information, it is no longer as tempting to see language as an
insidious shaper of thought, and, we shall see, it is not. Moreover, seeing language as one of nature’s
engineering marvels — an organ with “that perfection of structure and co-adaptation which justly excites
our admiration,” in Darwin’s words - gives us a new respect for your ordinary Joe and the much-
maligned English language (or any language). The complexity of language, from the scientist’s point of
view, is part of our biological birthright; it is not something that parents teach their children or something
that must be elaborated in school — as Oscar Wilde said, “Education is an admirable thing, but it is
well to remember from time to time that nothing that is worth knowing can be taught.” A preschooler’s
tacit knowledge of grammar is more sophisticated than the thickest style manual or the most state-of-
the-art computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human beings, even the
notorious syntaxfracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage
Directi The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the answer to each
question.
skateboarder. Finally, since language is the product of a wellengineered biological instinct, we shall
see that it is not the nutty barrel of monkeys that entertainercolumnists make it out to be.
76. According to the passage, which of the following does not stem from popular wisdom on
language?
(1) Language is a cultural artifact.
(2) Language is a cultural invention.
(3) Language is learnt as we grow.
(4) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.
(5) Language is a psychological faculty.

77. Which of the following can be used to replace the “spiders know how to spin webs” analogy as
used by the author?
(1) A kitten learning to jump over a wall
(2) Bees collecting nectar
(3) A donkey carrying a load
(4) A horse running a Derby
(5) A pet clog protecting its owner’s property

78. According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human beings?
(1) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.
(2) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation.
(3) Ability to communicate information to other members of the species.
(4) Ability to use sound as means of communication.
(5) All of the above.

79. According to the passage, complexity of language cannot be taught by parents or at school to
children because
(1) children instinctively know language.
(2) children learn the language on their own.
(3) language is not amenable to teaching.
(4) children know language better than their teachers or parents.
(5) children are born with the knowledge of semiotics.

80. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

(1) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.
(2) Language is neither learnt nor taught.
(3) Language is not a cultural invention or artifact as it is made out.
(4) Language is instinctive ability of human beings.
(5) Language is use of symbols unique to human beings.
ons for Questions 81 to 85:
most appropriate

To summarize the Classic Maya collapse, we can tentatively identify five strands. I acknowledge,
however, that Maya archaeologists still disagree vigorously among themselves in part, because the
Directi The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the answer to each
question.
different strands evidently varied in importance among different parts of the Maya realm; because
detailed archaeological studies are available for only some Maya sites; and because it remains puzzling
why most of the Maya heartland remained nearly empty of population and failed to recover after the
collapse and after re-growth of forests.

With those caveats, it appears to me that one strand consisted of population growth outstripping
available resources: a dilemma similar to the one foreseen by Thomas Malthus in 1798 and being
played out today in Rwanda, Haiti and elsewhere. As the archaeologist David Webster succinctly puts
it, “Too many farmers grew too many crops on too much of landscape.” Compounding that mismatch
between population and resources was the second strand: the effects of deforestation and hillside
erosion, which caused a decrease in the amount of useable farmland at a time when more rather than
less farmland was needed, and possibly exacerbated by an anthropogenic drought resulting from
deforestation, by soil nutrient depletion and other soil problems, and by the struggle to prevent bracken
ferns from overrunning the fields.

The third strand consisted of increased fighting, as more and more people fought over fewer resources.
Maya warfare, already endemic, peaked just before the collapse. That is not surprising when one
reflects that at least five million people, perhaps many more, were crammed into an area smaller than
the US state of Colorado (104,000 square miles). That warfare would have decreased further the
amount of land available for agriculture, by creating no-man’s lands between principalities where it was
now unsafe to farm. Bringing matters to a head was the strand of climate change. The drought at the
time of the Classic collapse was not the first drought that the Maya had lived through, but it was the
most severe. At the time of previous droughts, there were still uninhabited parts of the Maya landscape,
and people at a site affected by drought could save themselves by moving to another site. However,
by the time of the Classic collapse the landscape was now full, there was no useful unoccupied land in
the vicinity on which to begin anew, and the whole population could not be accommodated in the few
areas that continued to have reliable water supplies.

As our fifth strand, we have to wonder why the kings and nobles failed to recognize and solve these
seemingly obvious problems undermining their society. Their attention was evidently focused on their
short-term concerns of enriching themselves, waging wars, erecting monuments, competing with each
other, and extracting enough food from the peasants to support all those activities. Like most leaders
throughout human history, the Maya kings and nobles did not heed long-term problems, insofar as they
perceived them.

Finally, while we still have some other past societies to consider before we switch our attention to the
modern world, we must already he struck by some parallels between the Maya and the past societies.
As on Mangareva, the Maya environmental and population problems led to increasing warfare and civil
strife. Similarly, on Easter Island and at Chaco Canyon, the Maya peak population numbers were
followed swiftly by political and social collapse. Paralleling the eventual extension of agriculture from
Easter Island’s coastal lowlands to its uplands, and from the Mimbres floodplain to the hills, Copan’s
inhabitants also expanded from the floodplain to the more fragile hill slopes, leaving them with a larger
population to feed when the agricultural boom in the hills went bust. Like Easter Island chiefs erecting
ever larger statues, eventually crowned by pukao, and like Anasazi elite treating themselves to
necklaces of 2,000 turquoise beads, Maya kings sought to outdo each other with more and more
Directi The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the answer to each
question.
impressive temples, covered with thicker and thicker plaster — reminiscent in turn of the extravagant
conspicuous consumption by modern American CEOs. The passivity of Easter chiefs and Maya kings
in the face of the real big threats to their societies completes our list of disquieting parallels.

81. According to the passage, which of the following best represents the factor that has been cited
by the author in the context of Rwanda and Haiti?
(1) Various ethnic groups competing for land and other resources
(2) Various ethnic groups competing for limited land resources
(3) Various ethnic groups fighting with each other
(4) Various ethnic groups competing for political power
(5) Various ethnic groups fighting for their identity

82. By an anthropogenic drought, the author means

(1) a drought caused by lack of rains.
(2) a drought caused due to deforestation.
(3) a drought caused by failure to prevent bracken ferns from overrunning the fields.
(4) a drought caused by actions of human beings.
(5) a drought caused by climate changes.

83. According to the passage, the drought at the time of Maya collapse had a different impact
compared to the droughts earlier because
(1) the Maya kings continued to be extravagant when common people were suffering.
(2) it happened at the time of collapse of leadership among Mayas.
(3) it happened when the Maya population had occupied all available land suited for agriculture.
(4) it was followed by internecine warfare among Mayans.
(5) irreversible environmental degradation led to this drought.

84. According to the author, why is it difficult to explain the reasons for Maya collapse?
(1) Copan inhabitants destroyed all records of that period.
(2) The constant deforestation and hillside erosion have wiped out all traces of the Maya
kingdom.
(3) Archaeological sites of Mayas do not provide any consistent evidence.
(4) It has not been possible to ascertain which of the factors best explains as to why the Maya
civilization collapsed.
(5) At least five million people were crammed into a small area.

85. Which factor has not been cited as one of the factors causing the collapse of Maya society?
(1) Environmental degradation due to excess population
(2) Social collapse due to excess population
(3) Increased warfare among Maya people
(4) Climate change
(5) Obsession of Maya population with their own short-term concerns
Directi The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the answer to each
question.
ons for Questions 86 to 90:
most appropriate

A remarkable aspect of art of the present century is the range of concepts and ideologies which it
embodies. It is almost tempting to see a pattern emerging within the art field - or alternatively imposed
upon it a posteriori - similar to that which exists under the umbrella of science where the general term
covers a whole range of separate, though interconnecting, activities. Any parallelism is however - in
this instance at least - misleading. A scientific discipline develops systematically once its bare tenets
have been established, named and categorized as conventions. Many of the concepts of modern art,
by contrast, have resulted from the almost accidental meetings of groups of talented individuals at
certain times and certain places. The ideas generated by these chance meetings had twofold
consequences. Firstly, a corpus of work would be produced which, in great part, remains as a concrete
record of the events. Secondly, the ideas would themselves be disseminated through many different
channels of communication - seeds that often bore fruit in contexts far removed from their generation.
Not all movements were exclusively concerned with innovation. Surrealism, for instance, claimed to
embody a kind of insight which can be present in the art of any period. This claim has been generally
accepted so that a sixteenth century painting by Spranger or a mysterious photograph by Atget can
legitimately be discussed in surrealist terms. Briefly, then, the concepts of modern art are of many
different (often fundamentally different) kinds and resulted from the exposures of painters, sculptors
and thinkers to the more complex phenomena of the twentieth century, including our ever increasing
knowledge of the thought and products of earlier centuries. Different groups of artists would collaborate
in trying to make sense of a rapidly changing world of visual and spiritual experience. We should hardly
be surprised if no one group succeeded completely, but achievements, though relative, have been
considerable. Landmarks have been established - concrete statements of position which give a pattern
to a situation which could easily have degenerated into total chaos. Beyond this, new language tools
have been created for those who follow - semantic systems which can provide a springboard for further
explorations.

The codifying of art is often criticized. Certainly one can understand that artists are wary of being
pigeonholed since they are apt to think of themselves as individuals - sometimes with good reason.
The notion of self-expression, however, no longer carries quite the weight it once did; objectivity has
its defenders. There is good reason to accept the ideas codified by artists and critics, over the past
sixty years or so, as having attained the status of independent existence - an independence which is
not without its own value. The time factor is important here. As an art movement slips into temporal
perspective, it ceases to be a living organism - becoming, rather, a fossil. This is not to say that it
becomes useless or uninteresting. Just as a scientist can reconstruct the life of a prehistoric
environment from the messages codified into the structure of a fossil, so can an artist decipher whole
webs of intellectual and creative possibility from the recorded structure of a ‘dead’ art movement. The
artist can match the creative patterns crystallized into this structure against the potentials and
possibilities of his own time. As T.S. Eliot observed, no one starts anything from scratch; however
consciously you may try to live in the present, you are still involved with a nexus of behaviour patterns
bequeathed from the past. The original and creative person is not someone who ignores these patterns,
but someone who is able to translate and develop them so that they conform more exactly to his - and
our - present needs.
Directi The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the answer to each
question.
86. Many of the concepts of modern art have been the product of
(1) ideas generated from planned deliberations between artists, painters and thinkers.
(2) the dissemination of ideas through the state and its organizations.
(3) accidental interactions among people blessed with creative muse.
(4) patronage by the rich and powerful that supported art.
(5) systematic investigation, codification and conventions.

87. In the passage, the word ‘fossil’ can be interpreted as

(1) an art movement that has ceased to remain interesting or useful.
(2) an analogy from the physical world to indicate a historic art movement.
(3) an analogy from the physical world to indicate the barrenness of artistic creations in the past.
(4) an embedded codification of pre-historic life.
(5) an analogy from the physical world to indicate the passing of an era associated with an art
movement.

88. In the passage, which of the following similarities between science and art may lead to erroneous
conclusions?
(1) Both, in general, include a gamut of distinct but interconnecting activities.
(2) Both have movements not necessarily concerned with innovation.
(3) Both depend on collaborations between talented individuals.
(4) Both involve abstract thought and dissemination of ideas.
(5) Both reflect complex priorities of the modern world.

89. The range of concepts and ideologies embodied in the art of the twentieth century is explained
by
(1) the existence of movements such as surrealism.
(2) landmarks which give a pattern to the art history of the twentieth century.
(3) new language tools which can be used for further explorations into new areas.
(4) the fast changing world of perceptual and transcendental understanding.
(5) the quick exchange of ideas and concepts enabled by efficient technology.

90. The passage uses an observation by T.S. Eliot to imply that

(1) creative processes are not ‘original’ because they always borrow from the past.
(2) we always carry forward the legacy of the past.
(3) past behaviours and thought processes recreate themselves in the present and get labeled
as
‘original’ or ‘creative’.
(4) ‘originality’ can only thrive in a ‘greenhouse’ insulated from the past biases.
(5) ‘innovations’ and ‘original thinking’ interpret and develop on past thoughts to suit
contemporary needs.
1 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 5 2 6 5 7 3 8 4 9 4 10 1
11 2 12 5 13 5 14 3 15 5 16 1 17 4 18 3 19 4 20 4
21 5 22 2 23 1 24 1 25 1 26 4 27 5 28 2 29 5 30 3
31 4 32 2 33 3 34 3 35 2 36 4 37 5 38 5 39 1 40 1
41 4 42 3 43 5 44 5 45 1 46 1 47 1,4 48 3 49 3 50 2
51 1 52 4 53 3 54 1 55 3 56 2 57 2 58 1 59 3 60 4
61 2 62 5 63 3 64 4 65 2 66 4 67 2 68 4 69 2 70 5
71 3 72 4 73 2 74 2 75 1 76 5 77 2 78 2 79 1 80 4
81 1 82 4 83 3 84 4 85 5 86 3 87 5 88 1 89 4 90 5
MY PERFORMANCE

Total Time Taken Total Correct Incorrect Net

Questions (Min) Attempts Attempts Attempts Score

Quantitative Ability Section I 25

Data Interpretation and

Section II 25
Reasoning

Language Comprehension
Section III 40
and English Usage

TOTAL 90 150
Disclaimer: There are mismatches in our VA Answer key (Question nos. 54, 60, 66, 67 & 69) with the
solutions that IIMs have provided. However, all these questions are quite controversial and Career
Launcher stands by its answer key as we have debated, discussed and 'googled' it time and again.
1. 3 Total sum of the numbers written on the blackboard
 = 40 × 41 = 820 Amount of rice bought by the third customer =
2
When two numbers ‘a’ and ‘b’ are erased and replaced 1× x 4− 3 + 21 = x8+1 kgs
by a new number a + b – 1, the total sum of the
numbers written on the blackboard is reduced by 1. 2
Since, this operation is repeated 39 times, therefore, As per the information given in the question
the total sum of the numbers will be reduced by 1 × 39
= 39.
Therefore, after 39 operations there will be only 1 x + 1 = x − 3 because there is no rice left after the
number that will be left on the blackboard and that will 8 4
be 820 – 39 = 781. third customer has bought the rice. Therefore,
the value of ‘x’ = 7 kgs.
2. 3 The last two digits of any number in the form of 74n will
always be equal to 01.
5. 2 Given that f(x) = ax2 + bx + c Also, f(5) = –3f(2) ⇒ f(5) +
For example: 74 = 2401 and 78 = 5764801.
3f(2) = 0
⇒ (25a + 5b + c) + 3(4a + 2b + c) = 0
3. 2 x3 – ax2 + bx – c = 0
Let the roots of the above cubic equation be ⇒ 37a + 11b + 4c = 0 …(i)
(α – 1), α, (α + 1) Also, as 3 is a root of f(x) = 0, thus, f(3) = 0. Therefore,
⇒ α (α – 1) + α (α + 1) + (α + 1) (α –1) = b 9a + 3b + c = 0 …(ii)
Using equation (i) and (ii), we get that a = b
⇒ α2 – + α2 + α + α2 – 1 = b ⇒ 3α2 – 1 = b
Therefore, c = –12a
Thus, the minimum possible value of ‘b’ will be equal ⇒ f(x) = a(x2 + x –12) = a(x + 4) (x – 3)
to – 1 and this value is attained at α = 0. Therefore, the other root of f(x) = 0 is –4.

4. 2 Amount of rice bought by the first customer 6. 5 f(x) = a(x2 + x –12)

Therefore, the value of a + b + c cannot be uniquely
determined.
= 2x + 21 kgs
7. 3 Total number of terms in the sequence 17, 21, 25 …

1
417 is equal to + = 101 .
x 1
Amount of rice remaining = x − 2 +2 = Total number of terms in the sequence 16, 21, 26 …
x 1
2− kgs 1
466 is equal to + =91.
Amount of rice bought by the second customer nth term of the first sequence = 4n + 13. mth
term of the second sequence = 5m + 11.
As per the information given in the question 4n + 13
= 21 × x2−1 + 21 = x4+1 = 5m + 11 ⇒ 5m – 4n = 2.
kgs Possible integral values of n that satisfy 5m = 2 + 4n
are (2, 7, 12 … 97)
Therefore, the total number of terms common in both
Amount of rice remaining
the sequences is 20.

= x2−1 − x4+1 =x 8. 4 In other words we need to find the total number of 4-digit
numbers not more than 4000 using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and
4− 3 kgs 4.
The digit at the thousands place can be selected in 3
ways.
The digits at the hundreds place can be selected in 5
ways.
The digits at the tens place can be selected in 5 ways. For the shortest route, Neelam follows the following
The digits at the units place can be selected in 5 ways. path:
Therefore, the total number of 4-digit numbers less
A E F B→ → →
than 4000 is equal to 3 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 375.
Therefore, the total number of 4-digit numbers not
more than 4000 is equal to 375 + 1 = 376. (2 + 2 ! )
No. of ways to reach from A to E: = 6 2! × 2!
No. of ways to reach from E to F: 1

(4 + 2 ! )
No. of ways to reach from F to B: = 15
4! ×2!
⇒ Total number of possible shortest paths14. 3 The three sides of the obtuse triangle are 8 cm, 15 cm
 = 6 × 1 × 15 = 90and x cm. As 15 is greater than 8, hence either x or 15
will be the largest side of this triangle. Consider two
10. 1 Neelam has to reach C via B.cases:
From A to B, the number of paths are 90, as found in question 9.Case I:
From B to C, Neelam follows the route:
Case I: B → →X CA

OR Case II: B → →Y C .

Case I: B X C→ →

No. of ways to reach from B to X: (5 +1)! = 6 x 5! ×1!

No. of ways to reach from X to C : 2
So, total number of paths are 6 × 2 = 12 ways.C
B 8 cm
Case II: B Y C→→ :
There is just one way.
Therefore, from B to C, there are 6 × 2 + 1 = 13Consider the right ∆ABC above,

ways 8 12.68 cm
x = 152 − 2 =
∴Total number of ways of reaching from A to C, via
B = 90 × 13 = 1170.
For all values of x < 12.68, the ∆ABC will be obtuse.
But as the sum of two sides of triangle must be greater
11. 2 f(x).f(y) = f(xy) than the third side, hence (x + 8) > 15 or x > 7.
Given, f(2) = 4
Thus, the permissible values of x are 8, 9, 10, 11 and
We can also write,
12. f(2) = f(2 × 1) = f(2) × f(1)
OR f(1) × 4 = 4Case II:
⇒ f(1) = 1
Now we can also write,

1 1
f(1) = f 2 × 2 = f(2)× f 2

⇒f 21 = f(2)f(1) = 4115 cm

12. 5 seed(n) function will eventually give the digit-sum of

any given number, n.BC

All the numbers ‘n’ for which seed(n) = 9 will give the remainder 0 when divided by 9.
For all positive integers n, n < 500, there are 55 multiplesIn the right ∆ABC above, x= 15 +8 =17 . of 9.
For all values of x > 17, ∆ABC will be obtuse. But, as
13. 5 We can use the formula for the circum radius of athe length of third side should be less than the sum of triangle:other
two sides, hence x < (15 + 8) or x < 23. The
 =
a×b×cpermissible values of x are: 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22.From Case I and II, x can take 10 values.
R

4×(Area of the triangle)

or R = a b c× × = a c×

4× 21× ×b AD 2×AD

17.5 9
= × = 26 . 2 5 c m
2×3
Also, area of ∆ ABC = ab Sin C

2 ×( Areaof ∆ APD)

= 231 −
 = bc Sin A = ac Sin B
In the given figure

For ∆APD, Let AP = PD = x cms

⇒ a = x = x
sin120° sin 30° sin 30°

⇒ sin120° = sin (90 + 30) = cos 30 = , sin 30 = 2

3 1 3
⇒ 2 2 a = x ⇒ x = a cms

AP PD 12 0
Thus, area of ∆APD is × × × sin °

=1 a a 3 a2 2
× × × = cm
2 3 3 2 4 3

by symmetry, Area of ∆APD = Area of ∆BQC

Area of ABQCDP
Thus, ratio of
[Removing area inside square ABCD

= Area of square ABCD − 2×(Area of ∆APD)

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th

I Black Grey/Spotted White Red Spotted/Grey

II Black Grey/Spotted White Spotted/Grey Red

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th

I Grey/Spotted Black Red White Spotted/Grey

II Grey/Spotted Black Red Spotted/Grey White
16. 1 Number of terms in the given expansion is nothing but
 the non-negative integral solutions of the equation a + 18. 3 If Grey came fourth, we consider cases (a) and (b). All
b + c = 20. the options except (c) can hold true for these cases. White
Total number of non-negative integral solutions horse can either be 2nd or 5th in the race.

=20 3 1+ − C3 1− =22 C2= 231 19. 4 Statement A: If the number of players at the entry level
is 83, we can get the following table.
Alternative Method: Round Number of Pair of Byes Number of
players players matches

(a + +b c)20 ={(a + +b) c}20 1 83 41 1 41

2 41 + 1 = 42 21 0 21
=20 C (a0 +b)20 0 20.C + C (a1 +b)19 1.C +...20C20(a +b) .C0 3 21 10 1 10
20 4 10 + 1 = 11 5 1 5
Number of terms = 21 + 20 + 19 + ….. + 1 = 231 5 5+1=6 3 0 3
6 3 1 1 1
For questions 17 to 18: 7 1+1=2 1 0 1
Raju bets on the horses as follows: Since we do not know the number of byes given to the
champion, we cannot ascertain the number of
Red – Rs.3000 , White – Rs.2000 and Black – Rs.1000 = matches played by him.
Total of Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient. Statement
B: The champion received one bye, but no information
Rs.6000 is given regarding the number of entrants in the
tournament.
He makes no profit no loss in the game. So the possible ways Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient.
of recovering his money (Rs.6000) is as follows:
Combining statements A and B, we get that the total
Case (i): 3000 + 3(1000) number of matches played by the champion = 7 - 1 =
6
Case (ii): 2000 + 4(1000) Hence, statements A and B both are required to
answer.
Case (iii): 3(2000) + 0
20. 4 Using statement A:
Case (a): A breakup of 3000 + 3(1000) can be arrived at if When n = 127, exactly one bye is given in round 1.
the Black horse finished at 2nd and the Red horse at 3rd When = 96, exactly one bye is given in round 6. As
positions. no unique value of n can be determined, hence,
statement A alone is not sufficient.
Then the White horse is either on the 4th or 5th position.
Using statement B:
Case (b): A breakup of 2000 + 4(1000) can be arrived at if As we do not know exactly how many bye 5 are given
the Black horse finished at 1st and the White horse at 3rd in total, we cannot determine the value of n, uniquely.
positions.
Then the Red horse is either on the 4th or 5th position. Combining statement A and B:
There is a unique value of n = 124, for which exactly 1
bye is given from the third round to the fourth round.

Case (c): A breakup of 3(2000) + 0 can be arrived at if the

White horse finished at 2nd position.

Then the Red and Black horses must have finished at the 4th
and 5th positions, not necessary in that order.
17. 4 None of the cases has three horses between White and
Red horses.

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th

I Spotted/Grey White Grey/Spotted Red/Black Black/Red

21. 5 23. 1 The time by which Rahim must start from A ‘n’
= 13 : 00 – 0 : 15 – 6 : 12 = 6 : 33 ‘n’ = 4 or
Therefore, the latest time by which Rahim must leave A and still
catch the train is closest to 6:30 a.m.

Let the three consecutive positive integers be equal to ‘n – 1’,

‘n’ and ‘n + 1’.

⇒ n − + + +1 n2 (n1)3 =(3n)2
1+ 1 + 1
2007 2008 2
2
⇒ +n3 4n2+ =4n 9n2
It is given that AB = BC = AC = BD = DC = 1 cm.
⇒ − + =n2 5n 4 0
Therefore, ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.
∴n = 1or n = 4
Hence, ∠ACB 60= ° 24. 1 Since, the three integers are positive, the value of cannot be
equal to 1, therefore the value of m = n – 1 = 3.
Now area of sector AB = ×π(1)2 = Hence, the three consecutive positive integers are 3, 4 and 5.

ABC
Area of equilateral triangle ∆ 3 3
(1)2 = 1+
1 + 1 + + 1 + 1 ++
1 ...
= 12 22 22 32
4 4
1 + 1
Tn = 1 +
Area of remaining portion in the common region n2 (n +1)2 1
=2008−
ABC excluding ABC 1
4+ 3+ 2+
= 3 = n 2n 3n 2n +1
2×
2 + 2
n(n 1) +1 2008
π
6
n2 + n +1 = + 1
= 1
−4 n2 + n n2 + n
22. 2

Hence, the total area of the intersecting region =

 3 3 S=
4 π
2× ×(1)2 + 4 × 6 −4 2007 2007 1 S T 2007
− 3 n n
2
= π sq. cm. C
3 2 S

As per the conditions given in the questions, we get

‘h’ cm and radius
the following figure.

25.
1 Let, the height of the cylinder be be ‘x’ cm.
∆ANQ is similar to ∆QSC

The train leaving at B reaches C at 1:00 p.m.

taking a total time of 5 hours, which means that
Rahim should reach C by 12:45 p.m.
Now total time taken by Rahim moving with a speed
of 70 km/hr is ‘t’.

250 3
t= km/hr = 6 hrs 12 mins
(approx) 70
26. 4 Diagonally opposite to yellow is red.

27. 5 Second tallest house is either Q or S. So, we can not

determine.

28. 2 Tallest house is T whose colour is Blue.

29. 5 Let volume of data transfer in India = Volume of data

transfer in Singapore = x

For INDIA:

ARDT for India ≈ $1 (approx) ∴ Revenue

from data transfer = $x (approx)

Revenue from data transfer
×100 = 9%
TotalRevenue
(approx)

⇒ Total Re venue ×100

x
 (
approx )9

For SINGAPORE:

ARDT = $9 (approx)

∴ Revenue from data transfer = $9x (approx)

Revenue from data transfer
×100 = 20.5%
(approx)
Total Revenue
⇒ Total Re venue = 9 x ×
100 ( approx)
20.5

9x

Total Revenue forSingapore = 20.5 ×100 ≈ 4 (approx)

Total Revenue for India x ×100

9

30. 3 Let total revenue of Sweden in 2010 = x Therefore

total Revenue of India in 2010 = 2x

For Sweden in 2010:

ARDT = $6
Revenue from data transfer = 2 × 18% of x

∴ 2 × 18 %o fx
Volume of data transfer =
6
For India in 2010:
Let ARDT = y
Revenue from data transfer = 3×9% of 2x

3 9%of 2x
∴ Volume of data transfer = × y

3 9% of 2x
Therefore 2 18× %of x = × ⇒ y = $9
6 y
Therefore % change in ARDT of India

= × 100 = 800%
31. 4 For UK:
 Revenue from Data transfar sectional cut-off of section D for college 1, 2, 3 or 5.
×100 = 30% approx( Hence, 25 is the correct answer.

) TotalRevenue 34. 3 Since we have to maximize Aditya’s marks, let us take

the base values of 50 marks in each section and try to
reduce that by minimum values to ensure he doesn’t
Revenue from Data transfer = × T otalRe v enue get any call. We notice that by reducing the marks
obtained in section C to 41, we ensure colleges 1, 2, 3
ARDT = $ 13 (approx)
& 5 are ruled out. Now for colleges 4 & 6, reducing the
3030 To t a lRe v marks obtained in section D to 43, ensures these
enue colleges are also ruled out. Please note that we are
100
∴ Volume of Data transfer = × reducing the score to 1 less than the minimum cut-off
100 13 across all colleges for that particular section. In the
other two sections A and B, Aditya may score 50 each.
So the maximum possible aggregate marks = 50 + 50
T otal Re venue + 41 + 43 = 184.

For Spain: For questions 35 to 38:

The given basic information can be collated as below:
(i) Six teams – A, B, C, D, E, F.
Revenue from Data transfar (ii) Matches scheduled in two stages – I & II.
×100 = 15% approx( (ii) No team plays against the same team more than once. (iv)
) TotalRevenue ARDT = 6.5 (approx) No ties permitted.
As per the instructions given for stage – I, we can
reach the following conclusions:
15 To t a lReve n u e
∴ Volume of Data transfer = × (a) As B lost at least one match, A won all the 3 matches.
100 6.5 (b) The two teams who lost all the matches cannot be A
(as explained above), cannot be B (E lost to B), cannot
be D (D won against C & F). Hence, the two teams
Total Revenue must be C and F.
Similarly, we can check the other options and easily (c) F did not play against the top team (i.e. A). We get the
see that the volume of data transfer is NOT the same following table for stage – I.
for given pair countries.
(To be read from rows)
32. 2 Since Bhama got calls from all colleges, she has to score A B C D E F
marks in each section equal to at least the maximum of the
cut-offs across colleges which means 45, 45, 46 & 45 in
section A, B, C & D respectively. This makes her total to A X W W W
be 181 with which she will clear the overall cut-offs of all
institutes also. B L X W W

33. 3 Since we have to minimise the marks in a particular

section, we will have to maximise the marks in other 3 C L X L L
sections. Let us assume that marks obtained in each of the
three sections in which we are going to maximize the D L W X W
score, is equal to 50. Now, the lowest overall cutoff is 171
& second lowest is 175. Hence, Charlie must have scored
at least 175 – (50 + 50 + 50) = 25 marks in the remaining E L W X W
section.
F L L L X
Let us confirm whether he can clear sectional cutoffs
also with such a distribution. On seeing the sectional
cut-offs, we conclude that they can be cleared As per the instructions given for Stage-II, we can reach the
with 50 marks each in section A, B & C and 25 marks following conclusions.
in section D, which may enable Charlie to clear the (d) A lost both its matches against E and F.
(e) F won against A, hence is the bottom team (out of C &
F) which won both the matches ⇒ F won against C as
well.
This also means that C lost both its matches against
B and F.
(f) Apart from A and C, one more team lost both the
matches in Stage-II.
That team can neither be E (A lost to E), nor B (as C
lost to B), nor F (as F won both its matches). Hence,
the team must be D.

We get the following table for Stage-II.

A B C D E F

A X L L

B X W W

C L X L
D L X L

E W W X

F W W X
(To be read from rows)
35. 2 E and F defeated A. [Please note that in this question,
options (1) and (5) were the same.] 100 35%

36. 4 B, E and F won both the matches in Stage-II. 43. 5 Since we do not know what are the share prices during
different times of the day we cannot come to any
37. 5 D and F won exactly two matches in the event. conclusion.

38. 5 B and E have most wins, 4 each. 44. 5 Abdul buys all his shares at 10 am while the other two
purchases once every hour. Since the share prices
throughout the day is not specified, we cannot compare the
39. 1 Subscription in Europe in 2006 = 380 Mn USD
returns of Abdul with the other two. Let us observe the
Subscription in Europe in 2007 = 500 Mn USD
strategies adopted by Bikram and Chetan.
Bikram buys equal number of shares every one hour,
% change in 2007 irrespective of their prices.
100 30% Chetan invests equal amount every one hour,
Therefore subscription (based upon the growth rate of irrespective of the share prices. This means that
2007 over 2006) in 2008 should have been = 500 × higher the share price, lesser the number of shares
1.3 = 650 Mn USD (approx) Therefore difference from purchased by him. This in turn reduces his return. So
the estimated subscrip- tion = 650 – 600 = 50 Mn USD whenever the prices are changing, Chetan’s returns
(approx) [Please note that the unit is mentioned will be higher than Bikram’s. In case, the share prices
neither in the question, nor in the options] remain the same, the returns of Bikram and Chetan
will be equal.
40. 1 Let the total number of subscribers = 100x Hence, the correct option is (5) – none of the above.
Number of men = 60x
Therefore number of men in 2010 = 60x × (1.05)7 45. 1 As the share prices are increasing throughout the day,
= 84.42x (approx) the earlier a person invests, the more profitable it would be.
Number of women = 40x Therefore, Abdul who invested in the beginning only, had
reaped in the maximum return. Between Bikram and
Therefore, number of women in 2010 = 40x × 1.17
Chetan, Bikram bought a fixed number of shares every one
= 77.94x (approx)
hour, i.e. towards the end , he must have bought the same
Therefore, total number of subscribers = 84.42x +
number of shares at an even higher rate. Meanwhile,
77.94x
Chetan invested same amount every one hour, i.e. he
= 162.36x
bought higher number of shares when the prices were low
Percentage growth of subscribers
and vice versa. Hence, Chetan’s return will be definitely
higher than Bikram’s.
= 162.36 x – 100
x = 62.36( approx ) Additional data for questions 46 to 47:
100 x Let the share prices (in Rs.) at 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon,
1 pm, 2 pm and 3 pm be a, b, c, d, e and f respectively.
Abdul purchased all his shares at 10 am and sold off
41. 4 Gap in 2008 = 780 – 600 = 180 Mn USD Gap in 2009
the same at 3 pm. It is given that he incurred a loss. If
= 810 – 700 = 110 Mn USD
he bought n shares, then his investment = na must be
more than his sale price = nf, i.e. na > nf⇒ a
Annual % change = × 100 = – 39% > f (i)
Absolute change = 39% which is the highest. Among Similarly, Emily bought/sold same number of shares at
the other options, option (3) ’06-07’ is closest, but it will 10 am/12 noon and 1 am/3 pm and finally made profit.
lead to only 22% change in gap. i.e. c + f > a + d (ii)
Similar observation for Dane can be made
42. 3 Growth rate of 2007 = × 100 = 31.58% i.e. d + e + f > a + b + c (iii)

Growth rate of 2005 = × 100 = 4 7.37%

Therefore % change in growth rate of 2007 relative to
growth rate of 2005 is
It is given that share price at 12 noon is less than the
 opening price, i.e. a > c 51. 1 Sentence A is incorrect as the spelling of ‘imigrant’ is not
(iv) correct , should be ‘immigrant’. Sentence D is incorrect
Also, share price at 2 pm is lower than the closing price because of a missing article and should be ‘ the owner of
i.e. f > e (v) a dry goods ….’. Sentence E is incorrect and should be
From (i) and (ii), we get c > d (vi) ‘….. would later be known as…..’. Sentence C is incorrect.
From (i), (iii) and (vi), we get e > b Hence, we We require a comma between ‘brother-in-law’ and ‘David
have a > f > e > b and a > c > d. Stern’.

46. 1 The share price was the highest at 10 am. 52. 4 Sentence B should be’….its labour policy’ because the
subject is Nike and we can’t substitute it with the plural
47. 1 and 4 pronoun ‘their’. Sentence C should be ‘Perhaps sensing
Share price was lowest either at 11 am or 1 pm. that the rising tide…’ as without ‘that’ the sentence
Therefore, option (a) is false. structure is incomplete. Sentence E should be ‘ ….an
Share price at 1 pm was higher than that at 12 noon industry..’ as the word industry begins with a vowel so the
(equation (vi)). appropriate article is ‘an’.

48. 3 Average gross pay of HR department before transfer 53. 3 Sentence B should be ‘…few millions…. ’Sentence D
= Rs. 5000 × 1.7 = Rs. 8500 should be … reach the hundreds who are marooned..
Basic pay of the transferred person = Rs. 8000 Sentence E is incorrect as per subject verb agreement and
New allowance of the transferred person = (80 + 10) should be ‘…death count has begun’.
= 90% of the basic pay
New Gross pay of the transferred person = Rs. 54. 1 Sentence B has tense inconsistency, it should be ‘…I
8000 × 1.9 = Rs. 15,200 New average gross pay associated you…’. Sentence C has a similar error and
should be ‘….who seemed…’. Sentence D has an error of
15200
of HR dept. = Rs. 8500 + modifier placement and should be ‘…not in the least
8500 curious..’ Sentence E has a missing article, should
6− = Rs. (8500 + 1116) be’…you did make an effort…’.

55. 3 In option (1) Anita wore a brooch is the correct option. As

broach means to mention and suggest for the first time.
Percentage change 13% While brooch means a clasp or an ornament. In the second
sentence one has to meet a councillor to complain about
49. 3 Since increase in average age of the Finance neighbourhood amenities as a councillor draws from the
department. is one year, the age of the person moving from word council - which is responsible for keeping the county
Marketing to Finance is more than that moving from in order. A counsellor is one who helps you take an
Finance to Marketing, by 1 × 20 = 20 years. informed decision about one or more of your concerns,
Hence, due to this transfer, cumulative age of therefore councillor is the right option here. In the third
Marketing department has gone down by 20 yrs. But sentence advice has to take the noun form and not the verb
since the average age of Marketing department form, therefore advice is the right option. When Mr.
remaining unchanged, the person moving from Raymond advises people, he gives them advice. Climactic
Marketing to HR has age = (Avg. age of Marketing) – refers to climax, while climatic to weather conditions,
20 = 15 years. therefore climactic is the right option. Flair refers to a
natural talent; it is commonplace to say that one has a flair
for writing. Flare means to spread gradually outward, as
the end of a trumpet, the bottom of a wide skirt, or the sides
New average age of HR dept. =
of a ship. Therefore, BAAAB (3) is the right option.
= 40 yrs.
56. 2 Currents refer to prevailing or flowing, while currants are
50. 2 Total basic pay of HR
deciduous shrubs; therefore B is the right option. In the
= 5 × 5000 (existing) + 2 × 6000 (from Maintenance) +
second sentence, exceptional means unusual or
1 × 8000 (from Marketing) = Rs. 45,000
extraordinary. While, exceptionable means objectionable.
Assent means to concur to or subscribe to. While consent
New average = = Rs. 5,625 means to agree, comply or yield. In the third sentence
obliged refers to bind morally or legally, as by a promise or
contract. While, compelled refers to being forced.
Percentage change = × 100 = 12.5%. Therefore, A is the correct option. Sanguine refers to being
cheerfully optimistic, ‘far too’ in the sentence provides the
cue to choose
option A. While genuine refers to authenticity and is
 usually not used with far too. Therefore BBAAA (2) is 64. 4 In the first blank the word ‘scrutinizers’ is inappropriate
the right option. as the context suggests observation and not analysis,
therefore ‘observers’ is the right word. In the second blank
57. 2 Caustic refers to severely critical or sarcastic, while ironic ‘concede’ would be more appropriate than ‘agree’ as the
draws from irony which refers to the use of words to convey sense is that of yielding ground as suggested by the
a meaning that is the opposite of its literal meaning. expression ‘forced to…’
Therefore B is the correct option. Cogent refers to clear, or
65. 2 The best option is 2 (congenital, education) as the word
an incisive presentation. While valid refers to being sound.
‘environment’ in the sentence is used figuratively to
And, being impassionate usually does not necessitate
suggest the overall surroundings/conditions which shape a
being valid. Averse means having a strong feeling of
person. Option 3 seems close but is incorrect as the word
opposition, or antipathy. While adverse refers to something
‘climate’ is insufficient to convey this figurative sense of
being unfavourable. Therefore B is the correct option.
environment.
Coup is a clever action or accomplishment. A coupé is the
end compartment in a European railroad car. Therefore, A
66. 4 Going by the first blank, option (3) and (4) are close. In
is the correct option. Peal refers to a ringing of a set of
the second blank the context requires a word which goes
bells, especially a change or set of changes rung on bells.
along with the sense of ‘minds’ which are accustomed to
While, peel refers to that which is peeled from something,
the former or the old school of thought and hence the word
as a piece of the skin or rind of a fruit. Therefore, B is the
‘tradition’ aptly fits in here.
right option. Therefore, BBBAB (2) is the right option.
67. 2 In the paragraph the author suggests why the doctor
58. 1 Defusing means to remove the fuse from a bomb, mine
loses some of his patients. Option 5 can be easily
etc. Diffuse means to spread or scatter widely or
eliminated as the pronoun “these” has no antecedent in the
disseminate. Therefore B is the right option. Baited means
para. Option 3 & 4 are farfetched as they are to do with the
to entice, especially by trickery or strategy. While, bated
doctor’s attitude towards the problem, which the para does
means to lessen or diminish; abate. Therefore, A is the
not indicate in any way. Option 1 can also be done away
right option. In sentence three hoard refers to a supply or
with as it suggests those patients who fail to speak up and
accumulation that is hidden or carefully guarded for
not about those who leave his treatment, as indicated in
preservation. While, horde refers to a large group, mass or
the para. Option 2 fits in perfectly as it speaks of those who
crowd. Therefore B is the correct option. In sentence four
have no other alternative but to seek his treatment.
interment refers to burial, while internment refers to restrict
to or confine within prescribed limits. Therefore B is the
68. 4 Options 1 and 3 are very generalized statements. Option
correct option. In sentence five unsociable refers to
2 is a repetition of the idea presented in the beginning of
showing, or marked by a disinclination to friendly social
the paragraph. The para talks about how developed
relations; withdrawn and unsocial comes close in meaning
countries indulge in trade protectionism as a move against
to unsociable and is used more specifically when talking
China and India’s economic rise , under the guise of
about predispositions or tendencies. Therefore, your
climate concern. Option 4 and 5 talk about the same thing
answer choice should have corresponded with the options
but 4 goes along with the subtle suggestive tone of the para
in the previous sentences treating these two words as
while 5 is more curt in its accusation of ‘perpetrators of
synonyms. Therefore BABBA (1) is the correct answer.
inequity’.
59. 3 In Sentence 3 ‘run over’ as a phrasal verb means being
physically mowed down and it is not appropriate to convey 69. 2 The para is a description of the Jewry settlement,. (4) can
the symbolic sense of brow beating somebody. be eliminated as it brings in a hint of skepticism. (3) is a
mere repetition of an idea already discussed in the para
60. 4 Sentence 4 is incorrect and should be ‘ The doctor (that of jews being tolerant). (5) can also be eliminated as
is on a round/the doctor is on a round of the hospital.’ it is brings an alien concept – that of Mattancherry’s
61. 2 The expression ‘the horse suddenly broke into a buckle’ popularity with the tourists . Between (1) and (2), we will
is idiomatically incorrect. The correct idiomatic expression eliminate (1) as it has a more conclusive tone, which is not
is “broke into a gallop”. in sync with the descriptive nature of the paragraph.

62. 5 In sentence 5, the expression ‘…a soldier broke the

file…’ is grammatically incorrect. The correct idiomatic
expression is “broke ranks”.
63. 3 The word ‘disingenuous’ means insincere and is suitable
in the given context (suggested by the word‘sinister’) . The
word ‘victims’ brings out the contrast with ‘perpetrators’
most aptly.
70. 5 Option 1 can be easily eliminated as it is a mere repetition
 of the ideas presented in the para. Option 2 is a little 77. 2 “Spiders know how to spin webs” highlights the inherent
farfetched as it should come one or two more sentences qualities of living species. This analogy can be replaced in
later in the para . Option 3 does not match with the idea a similar way by “Bees collecting nectar” which is also a
presented in the passage. Option 4 does not match with part of their inane trait. Options(1), (3), (4), (5) mention
the tone of the paragraph. Option 5 completes the idea as traits which are acquired over a period of time by putting in
the emphasis in the last line of the para is that the idea of some kind of effort in order to be adept at them.
‘pure Western and pure Indian thoughts’ is deceptive.
78. 2 Refer to the last sentence of the 2nd paragraph of the
71. 3 Refer to the 4th paragraph of the passage. The elders passage. It states that ‘In nature’s talent show, we are
were of the opinion that turning of the eyes by the child simply a species of primate with our own act, a knack for
while having the ice-creams in both hands could make the communicating information about who did what to whom
child fall down or trip over stones, steps in the pavement. by modulating the sounds we make when we exhale’.
The phrase ‘rightly suggested’ changes the meaning of the Hence, communicating with each other through voice
given sentence and hence it cannot be inferred from the modulation is the unique quality of human beings as per
passage. the passage.
72. 4 ‘Parvenus’ refer to persons who have suddenly risen to
a higher social and economic class but have not yet 79. 1 Refer to the 3rd paragraph of the passage where the
received social acceptance by others in that class. Hence, author says that the scientists believe that the complexity
the phrase ‘little parvenus’ would appropriately refer to of language is part of our biological birthright. He further
‘young upstarts’. illustrates the scientists’ point of view that it cannot be
taught. The author strengthens this view by quoting Oscar
73. 2 Refer to the 5th paragraph of the passage. The sentence Wilde, making option(1) as the correct answer option. The
rest of the options are not mentioned in the passage.
‘two two-cent ….suggested excess’ clearly tell us that it
was intemperance on part of the author which made him
pine for two two-cent ice-cream cones instead of one four- 80. 4 Throughout the passage, the author is talking about
cent pie. language as a type of instinct that is existent is human
beings and not any specific attribute or skill that is learnt by
74. 2 In the lines ‘Nowadays the moralist .......spoiled’. The them over a period of time. In the first paragraph, the
author is talking about morality in the context of the present author claims ‘But I prefer the admittedly quaint term
day world. The rest of the options are out of the scope of instinct’. Similarly in the last paragraph of the passage, the
the passage. author concludes by saying that ‘Finally, since language is
the product of a well engineered biological instinct, we shall
75. 1 Refer to the last line of the 4th paragraph of the passage. see that it is not the nutty barrel of monkeys that
Here the author says that the intentions of his elders in not entertainercolumnists make it out to be’.
letting him eat two-cent cones was ‘cruelly pedagogical’.
This implies that the justification was ‘didactic’ in nature. 81. 1 The 2nd paragraph of the passage begins with ‘With
This makes option (1) correct. The rest of the options are those caveats, it appears to me that one strand consisted
incorrect in context of the passage. ‘Dietetic’ refers to .........to prevent bracken ferns from over running the fields’.
anything related with diet or the use of food. ‘Dialectic’ Hence in the context of Rwanda and Haiti, the author is
refers to the nature of logical argumentation. ‘Diatonic’ referring to the existence of too many people fighting for
refers to using only the seven tones of a standard scale limited land and other resources. Hence, option (1) is the
without chromatic alterations. ‘Diastolic’ refers to the most appropriate answer.
rhythmically occurring relaxation and the dilation of the
heart chambers. 82. 4 ‘Anthropogenic’ refers to being caused or produced by
human beings. So ‘anthropogenic drought’ refers to the
76. 5 According to popular wisdom, language is a cultural drought caused by actions of human beings. Further hint is
artifact or cultural invention or it is part of the leaning given in the 8th line of the 2nd paragraph of the passage.
process or it is unique to Homo sapiens. But option(5) has
been stated as the viewpoint of the cognitive scientists as 83. 3 In the 3rd paragraph, refer to the lines ‘At the time of
can be seen in the lines ‘Language is a complex previous droughts.......to have reliable water supplies’.
specialized......module’. The author also agrees with the Hence, it is evident that the final drought which caused the
cognitive scientists’ view as he confirms to the view that collapse of the Maya civilization was different from the
language comes by instinct. He further corroborates this by previous droughts because man had left no unoccupied
saying that people know how to talk in the same manner land away from agriculture to start life in a new way.
as spiders know how to spin the web. 84. 4 The first paragraph of the passage states that ‘To
summarize the Classic Maya collapse, we can tentatively
identify five strands. I acknowledge, however, that Maya
 archaeologists still disagree vigorously among develop them so that they conform more exactly to his and
themselves-in part, because the different strands our present needs’. Hence, new and original thinking is
evidently varied in importance among different parts of the always developed on the basis of the past thoughts in order
Maya realm; because detailed archaeological studies are to cater to the modern needs. Therefore, option(5) is the
available for only some Maya sites, and because it most appropriate answer.
remains puzzling why most of the Maya heartland
remained nearly empty of population and failed to recover
after the collapse and after re-growth of forests’. Hence,
there is not one specific factor that can individually explain
the collapse of the Maya civilization. Therefore, the
correct answer would be option 4.

85. 5 The answer is clearly indicated in the 4th paragraph of

the passage where it is mentioned that the Maya kings
and leaders were more focussed on their shortterm
concerns of enriching themselves. The entire Maya
population was not obsessed with its shortterm interests.
Hence, it cannot be cited as one of the factors causing the
collapse of the Maya society.

86. 3 In the first paragraph of the passage, refer to the lines

‘Many of the concepts of modern art, by contrast, have
resulted from the almost accidental meetings of groups of
talented individuals at certain times and
88. 1 Refer to the first sentence of the first paragraph of the
passage where science and art have been stated as
similar in including a whole range of separate, though
interconnecting activities. Hence, option(1) is the correct
answer.

89. 4 In the first paragraph of the passage, refer to the lines

‘Briefly, then, the concepts of modern art are of
legitimately......visual and spiritual experience’. Hence,
the ideologies of the art of the twentieth century can be
better realised by the fast changing world of visual and
metaphysical understanding. The rest of the options have
no link with the concepts and ideologies of the art of the
twentieth century.

90. 5 In the last paragraph of the passage, refer to the lines

‘As T.S Eliot observed, no one starts anything from the
scratch however consciously you may try to live in the
present, you are still involved with a nexus of behaviour
patterns bequeathed from the past. The original and
creative person is not someone who ignores these
patterns but someone who is able to translate and
certain places’. Hence, option 3 is the reason for the
emergence of the concepts of modern art.

87. 5 According to the author, with the passage of time an art

movement ceases to be a living organism and it
becomes a fossil. The author then takes the example
of a scientist who reconstructs the life of the past era
which are codified in the form of messages in the
structure of a fossil. He goes on to say similarly an
artist also analyses the intellectual and creative
possibilities from the art movements of the past.
‘Fossil’ here signifies the temporal phasing of an era
associated with the art movement. This makes option
5 the correct option. Option 1 is contradictory to the
facts mentioned in the passage. In option 2, the word
‘historic’ means significant which is not being indicated
by the author. Option 3 is contradictory to the author’s
point of view. Option 4 is out of the scope of the
argument.