27-10-2024

9610WMD801016240014 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A ray of light comes horizontal and after reflection from a surface it becomes vertical, then angle
of reflection will be :-

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 0°
(4) 180°

2) A man runs towards stationary plane mirror at a speed of 15 m/s. What is speed of his image with
respect to mirror ?

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 45 m/s

3) A ray gets succesively reflected from two mirrors Inclined at an angle 40°. If the angle of
Incidence on the first mirror is 30° then the net deviation of this ray is :-

(1) 40°
(2) 280°
(3) 80°
(4) 240°

4) Light reflected by a plane mirror may form a real image when incident rays are :-

(1) Parallel
(2) Converging
(3) Diverging
(4) Under no circumstance

5) A ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) will not be reflected
(4) none of these
6) A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40°, The deviation produced in the ray is
:-

(1) 100°
(2) 120°
(3) 80°
(4) 140°

7) Find the angle of deviation suffered by a ray incident on a plane mirror (as shown in figure) at an

angle of incidence 30°.

(1) 120 ACW

(2) 120 ACW, 120 CW
(3) 240 ACW, 120 CW
(4) 240 ACW, 240 CW

8)

Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength ?

(1) red
(2) blue
(3) green
(4) violet

9) Two mirrors are kept at 60° to each other and a body is placed in the middle. The total number of
images formed is : -

(1) three
(2) four
(3) five
(4) six

10) A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of incidence of 30°. The deviation
produced by the mirror is : -

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

11) A clock hung on a wall has marks instead of numerals on its dial. On the adjoining wall, there is
a plane mirror and the image of the clock in the mirror indicates the time 7.10. Then, the time on the
clock is : -

(1) 7.10
(2) 4.50
(3) 5.40
(4) 10.7

12) Two plane mirrors are parallel to each other and spaced 20 cm apart. An object is kept between
them at 15 cm from A. Out of the following at which point an image is not formed in mirror A :
(distance measured from mirror A)

(1) 15 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 45 cm
(4) 55 cm

13) How many images will be formed of an object if two mirrors are fitted on adjacent walls and one
mirror on roof?

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 10

14) Two mirrors are perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. A light ray AB is incident on
the mirror M1. Then the reflected ray will also suffer a reflection from the mirror M2. Then the final

ray after reflection from M2 will be parallel to the incident ray if : -

(1) i = 45°
(2) i = 60°
(3) i < 30°
(4) for any i between 0° and 90°

15) An alternating current in a circuit is given by I = 20sin(100πt + 0.05π)A. The r.m.s. value and the
frequency of current respectively are

(1) 10 A & 100 Hz

(2) 10 A & 50 Hz
(3) A & 50 Hz
(4) A & 100 Hz
16) The instantaneous value of current in an A.C. circuit is I = 2 sin(100πt + π/3)A. The current will
be maximum for the first time at

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) At resonance frequency in an a.c. circuit containing L, C and R, in series

(1) The voltage and current will be in the same phase

(2) The voltage will lead the current
(3) The voltage will lag behind the current
(4) none of these

18) The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be

(1) 100 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 220 V
(4) 140 V

19) In a pure inductive circuit or In an ac circuit containing inductance only, the current

(1) Leads the e.m.f. by 90°

(2) Lags behind the e.m.f. by 90°
(3) Sometimes leads and sometime lags behind the e.m.f.
(4) Is in phase with the e.m.f.

20) Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c. source of emf E is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) Power factor is maximum in an LCR circuit when

(1) XL = XC
(2) R = 0
(3) XL = 0
(4) XC = 0

22) What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the
frequency is halved

(1) Both, inductive reactance and current will be halved

(2) Inductive reactance will be halved and current will be doubled
(3) Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved
(4) Both, inducting reactance and current will be doubled

23) Assertion: The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f. by a phase angle of π/2, when ac flows
through an inductor.
Reason: The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of ac source decreases.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

24) An AC current is given by I = I1 sinωt + I2 cos ωt. A hot wire ammeter will give a reading

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) If a current I given by flows in an ac circuit across which an ac potential of E =

E0 sinωt has been applied, then the power consumption P in the circuit will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P = 0

26) In given circuit applied voltage V = 50 sin (100πt) volt and ammeter reading is 2A then

calculate value of L?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2πH

27) Alternating current can not be measure by dc ammeter because

(1) ac cannot pass through dc ammeter

(2) Average value of complete cycle is zero
(3) ac is virtual
(4) ac changes its direction

28) In an ac circuit, R = 4Ω, Z = 5Ω, εrms = 200 V and Irms = 1.5A. Calculate the average power over a
full cycle.

(1) 240 W
(2) 50 W
(3) 40 W
(4) 100 W

29) The power factor of an ac circuit is 0.5. What will be the phase difference between the voltage
and current in this circuit?

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 37°
(4) 60°

30) If an iron rod is inserted in the solenoid(coil) then effect on the brightness of bulb
(1) brightness will increase permanently
(2) brightness will decrease permanently
(3) No Effect
(4) Bulb get fused

31) ∈0 and µ0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of free space respectively. If the
corresponding quantities of a medium are 2∈0 and 2.5µ0 respectively, the refractive index of the
medium will nearly be :

(1)
(2)
(3) 3
(4) 2

32) Consider the following two statements regarding a linearly polarized, plane electromagnetic
wave:
(A) The electric field and the magnetic field have equal average values.
(B) The electric energy and the magnetic energy have equal average values.

(1) Both A and B are true.

(2) A is false but B is true.
(3) B is false but A is true.
(4) Both A and B are false

33) A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. The wave delivers momentum p
and energy E.

(1) p = 0, E ≠ 0.
(2) p ≠ 0, E = 0.
(3) p ≠ 0, E ≠ 0.
(4) p = 0, E = 0.

34) An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E = E0 sin(kx – ωt). Which of the
following is/are independent of the wavelength?

(1) k
(2) ω
(3) k/ω
(4) kω

35) Which of the following have zero average value in a plane electromagnetic wave?
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) electric energy
(d) magnetic energy

(1) a, d
(2) c, d
(3) a, b
(4) a, c

SECTION-B

1) Find out the velocity of image with respect to mirror

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) Find the speed of image w.r.t. ground in the following figure.

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s

(4)

3)
Position of 5th image of given object in mirror M2 is :-
(1) 65 cm from mirror M2
(2) 145 cm from mirror M2
(3) 170 cm from mirror M2
(4) 135 cm from mirror M2

4) A plane mirror is approaching you at a speed of 10 cm/s. You can see your image in it. At what
speed will your image approach you :-

(1) 10 cm/s
(2) 5 cm/s
(3) 20 cm/s
(4) 15 cm/s

5)
If incident ray moves vertical after reflection then θ = ?

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 35°
(4) 50°

6) For spherical mirrors, focal length of paraxial and marginal rays are fp and fm respectively. Then

(1) fp = fm
(2) fp < fm
(3) fp > fm
(4)

7) An ideal resistance R, ideal inductance L, ideal capacitance C and AC voltmeters V1, V2, V3 and V4

are connected to an AC source as shown. At resonance

(1) Reading in V3 = reading in V1

(2) Reading in V1 = reading in V2
(3) Reading in V3 = reading in V4
(4) Reading in V2 = reading in V3

8) When an AC source of e.m.f. E = E0 sin(100t) is connected across as circuit, the phase difference

between the e.m.f. E and the current I is observed to be , as shown in the figure. If the circuit
consists possible only of R-C or R-L in series, which of the following combinations is possible

(1) R = 1kΩ, C = 10µF

(2) R = 1kΩ, C = 1µF
(3) R = 1kΩ, L = 10H
(4) R = 1kΩ, L = 1H

9) In the circuit shown below, the ac source has voltage V = 20 cos(ωt) volts with ω = 2000 rad/sec.

The amplitude of the current will be to

(1) 2A
(2) 3.3A
(3)
(4)

10) Assertion: If the frequency of alternating current in an ac circuit consisting of an inductance

coil is increased then current gets decreased.
Reason: The current is inversely proportional to frequency of alternating current.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

11) An inductor 20 mH. a capacitor 100 µF and a resistor 50Ω are connected in series across a
source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

(1) 0.79 W
(2) 0.43 W
(3) 2.74 W
(4) 1.13 W

12) In a pure capacitive circuit if a frequency of current is ω then frequency of instantaneous power
will be

(1) ω

(2)

(3) 2ω
(4)

13) V = 200sin and calculate power

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Find the amplitude of the electric field in a parallel beam of light of intensity 2.0 W m–2.

(1) 38.8 NC–1

(2) 100 NC–1
(3) 300 NC–1
(4) 3000 NC–1

15) A free electron is placed in the path of a plane electromagnetic wave. The electron will start
moving

(1) along the electric field

(2) along the magnetic field
(3) along the direction of propagation of the wave
(4) in a plane containing the magnetic field and the direction of propagation

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Assertion (A) :- The rate of reaction sometimes does not depend on concentration.
Reason (R) :- The order of reaction can be negative.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
2) Assertion (A) :- If the activation energy of a reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on
the rate constant.
Reason (R) :- Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

3) The number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step of the reaction tells about:

(1) Molecularity of the reaction

(2) Mechanism of the reaction
(3) Order of reaction
(4) All of the above

4) Catalyst increases rate of reaction by ;

(1) Decreasing equilibrium constant

(2) Decreasing threshold energy
(3) Decreasing activation energy
(4) None of the above

5) The rate of reaction was found to be equal to its rate constant at any concentration of the
reactant. The order of the reaction is:

(1) zero order

(2) first order
(3) second order
(4) third order

6) The rate of reaction depends upon :

(1) molar concentration

(2) atomic mass
(3) equivalent mass
(4) none of these

7) The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A → B is Ea, in forward direction. The
activation energy for reverse reaction:

(1) can be less than or more than Ea

(2) is always double of Ea
(3) is negative of Ea
(4) is always less than Ea
8) In a chemical reaction two reactants take part. The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the
concentration of one of them and inversely proportional to the concentration of the other. The order
of reaction is :

(1) zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

9) For a zero order reaction,

A→P
T1/2 is : (k is rate constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following
graphs?

(1) ln k vs. T

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It is
because the :

(1) rate is proportional to the surface coverage

(2) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
(3) rate is independent of the surface coverage
(4) rate of decomposition is very slow

12) The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between:

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
13) Consider the endothermic reaction X → Y with the activation energies Eb and Ef for backward and
forward reactions, respectively. In general:

(1) Eb < Ef
(2) Eb > Ef
(3) Eb = Ef
(4) there is no definite relation between Ef and Eb

14) In order to react, a molecule, at the time of collision, must possess a certain amount of energy
known as:

(1) free energy

(2) kinetic energy
(3) threshold energy
(4) internal energy

15) Which one of the following formula represents a first order reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Radioactive disintegration is an example of:

(1) zero order reaction

(2) first order reaction
(3) second order reaction
(4) third order reaction

17) If the concentration is expressed in mole per litre and time in second, the units of rate constant
for a first order reaction is:

(1) mol L–1 sec–1

(2) sec–1
(3) mol L–1
(4) mol–1

18) In a certain gaseous reaction between X and Y, X + 3Y → XY3 The initial rates are reported as
follows –

[X] [Y] Rate

 0.1 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1
0.2 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1
0.3 M 0.2 M 0.008 Ms–1
0.4 M 0.3 M 0.018 Ms–1
The rate law is –
(1) r = k[X][Y]3
(2) r = k[X]°[Y]2
(3) r = k[X][Y]
(4) r = [X]°[Y]3

19) t1/2 V/S is straight line graph for which of the order or reaction :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which relationship is correct for the reaction .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Temperature dependence of the rate of chemical reaction can be accurately explained by
Arrhenius equation, which is :

(1)
lnk = lnA –
(2) k =

(3)

(4)

22) A first order reaction R → P is 50% completed in 20 minutes, then time taken for 87.5 %
completion is -

(1) 60 minutes
(2) 80 minutes
(3) 40 minutes
(4) 50 minutes

23) Slope of graph between log k v/s is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) log A
(4) ln A

24) The rate of certain hypothetical reaction

A + B + C → products is given by
The order of the reaction –

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

25) The rate of a reaction depends upon the

(1) Volume
(2) Force
(3) Pressure
(4) Concentration of reactant

26) Consider the data given below for hypothetical reaction A → X :-

Time
Rate (mol L–1 sec.–1)
(sec)

0 1.60 × 10–2

10 1.60 × 10–2

20 1.60 × 10–2

30 1.60 × 10–2
From the above data, the order of reaction is -
(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) Unpredictable

27) Calculate the overall order of a reaction which has the rate expression :-
Rate = K[A]1/2 [B]3/2

(1) First order

(2) Second order
(3) Third order
(4) None

28)

The rate constant of which of the following reactions is independent of concentration of the
reactants?

(1) First order reactions

(2) Zero order reactions
(3) Second order reactions
(4) All of these

29) Violet vapours are given out when.........is treated with conc. H2SO4 :-

(1) Bromide
(2) Iodide
(3) Chloride
(4) Nitrate

30) Salt of which of the following radicals will give brown fumes when treated with conc. HNO3 :-

(1)
(2)
(3) I–
(4) Cl–

31) Ammonium salt gives brown colour with alkaline solution of Nessler's reagent to form iodide of
Millon's base. The formula of this compound is :-

(1) NH2–Hg–OHg–I
(2) NH2–O–Hg–HgI
(3) K2HgI4
(4) NH2–Hg–I

32) Potassium thiocyanate solution reacts with ferric chloride to give :-

(1) Pink colour

(2) Deep blue colour
(3) Green colour
(4) Blood-red colour
33) Pb(CH3COO)2 gives...........colour with H2S :-

(1) Black
(2) White
(3) Red
(4) Orange

34) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ is unstable because -

(1) It liberates NO gas on warming

(2) It liberates NO gas on shaking
(3) The charge of central atom is +1 (relatively low enough)
(4) None of these

35) Which of the following cation gives ppt in two groups during group analysis.

(1) Al3+
(2) Ba2+
(3) Pb2+
(4) Cu2+

SECTION-B

1) Assertion (A) :- Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in presence of acid is a reaction of first order
whereas in presence of alkali, it is a reaction of second order.
Reason (R) :- Acid acts as catalyst only whereas alkali acts as one of the reactant.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

2) The inversion of cane sugar is represented by,

C2H22O11 + H2O → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
It is a reaction of:

(1) Second order

(2) Unimolecular
(3) Pseudo-unimolecular
(4) Zero order

3) The correct expression for Arrhenius equation showing the effect of temperature on the rate
constant is (72 > T1):

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The half life of a substance in certain enzyme catalysed first order reaction is 20 sec. The time
required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L–1 to 0.04 mg L–1.

(1) 690 sec

(2) 414 sec
(3) 100 sec
(4) 200 sec

5) The hypothetical reaction P2 + Q2 → 2PQ follows the mechanism as given below :

P2 2P (fast)
P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
P + Q →PQ (fast)
The order of the over all reaction is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 0

6) In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction (Ro) was measured for different initial
concentration of A and B as given below.

A[M] B[M] Ro[Ms–1]

0.2 0.3 5.07 × 10–5

0.2 0.1 5.07 × 10–5

0.4 0.05 1.014 × 10–4

The overall order of the reaction is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 0.5
(3) 1
(4) 1.5

7) Read the following statements carefully.

Assertion : Half life time (t1/2) for first order reaction is independent of temperature.
Reason : On increasing temperature, rate of reaction and rate constant (k) increases hence half life
time of any reaction decreases.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

8) The rate of disappearance of SO2 in the reaction 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 is 1.28 × 10–3 g/sec then the
rate of formation of SO3 is

(1) 0.64 × 10–3 g/sec

(2) 0.80× 10–3 g/sec
(3) 1.285 × 10–3 g/sec
(4) 1.60 × 10–3 g/sec

9) The rate of a reaction is expressed as

Then reaction is

(1) 4A + B → 2C + 3D
(2) B + 3D → 4A + 2C
(3) A + B → C + D
(4) B + D → A + C

10) A gas phase reaction R → A + B + C + D is of first order. The initial pressure was X0 where total
pressure after 10 minute was Y. The correct expression for rate constant k is (in min–1) ?

(1)
k=

(2)
k=

(3)
k=

(4)
k=

11) For the elementary reaction system :-

2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)
Volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing the pressure on it. The rate of reaction
will :-

(1) Increase to eight times of its initial value

(2) Increase to four times of its initial value
(3) Decrease to one-forth of its initial value
(4) Decrease to one-eight of its initial value
12) For gaseous reaction, rate = k [A] [B]. If volume of container is reduced to of initial, then
the rate of the reaction will be times of initial:-

(1)

(2) 8

(3)

(4) 16

13) Disodium hydrogen phosphate is used to test :-

(1) Mg2+
(2) Na+
(3) Ca2+
(4) All of these

14) Reddish-brown (chocolate) ppt. are formed with:-

2+ 4–
(1) Cu and [Fe(CN)6]
(2) Ba2+ and
(3) Pb2+ and I–
(4) None of these

15) NO2– and NO3– can be distinguished by which of the following reagent.

(1) dil. H2SO4

(2) conc. H2SO4
(3) dil. HCl
(4) None of these

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which ecosystem has maximum number of producer per unit area ?

(1) Pond
(2) Forest
(3) Grassland
(4) Desert

2) In an ecosystem, the biotic components herbivores are :-

(1) Photosynthetic
(2) Chemosynthetic
(3) Micro consumers
(4) Macro consumers

3)

(1) A–Grass, B–Wolf, C–Lion

(2) A–Trees, B–Goat, C–Birds
(3) A–Phytoplankton, B–Small fish, C–Birds
(4) A–Wolf, B–Lion, C–Trees

4) Drosera, Utricularia, Nepenthes are the example of :-

(1) Secondary consumer

(2) Producers
(3) Predators
(4) All of the above

5) Assertion :- Herbivores are also called as second order consumers.

Reason :- Herbivores obtain their food directly from plants.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

6) Assertion (A) : Decomposers degrade the dead organic matter.

Reason (R) : They secrete digestive enzyme to break down detritus into inorganic materials.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

7) Properties of populations are not present in the ___ "A" ___ but arise as a result of interactions
among the ___ "B" ___ comprising the population. "A" and "B" are :-

(1) Organisms and ecosystems

(2) Biomes and organisms
(3) Organism and organisms
(4) Ecosystems and communities.

8) Detritus food chain starts with ___.

(1) Detritus
(2) Plants
(3) Decomposers
(4) Macroconsumers

9) Which statement most appropriately defines a species ?

(1) Group of organisms having fundamental similarities (structure, function, Behaviour) only.
(2) Group of organisms having common habitat.
(3) Group of organisms having potential to produce offspring by asexual reproduction.
Group of organisms having fundamental similarities, interbreed in common gene pool and
(4)
produce fertile offsprings.

10) What is a keystone species ?

A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community is
(1)
organization
(2) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many
(3)
other species
A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a
(4)
huge impact on the community's organization and survival

11)

There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends
on

(1) The habitat and morphology of the organism.

(2) Morphology of the organism.
(3) Morphology and physiology of the organism.
(4) The organism’s habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.

12) Find out the incorrect statement.

(1) Biosphere is a global ecosystem.

(2) Transfer of energy in ecosystem explains in terms of food web and nutrient cycle.
(3) Pond, lake and wetland are aquatic ecosystems.
(4) Ecosystem is structural but not functional unit of ecosystem.

13) Lion in a forest is an example of ?

(1) Endemic Species

(2) Critical Link Species
(3) Key-Stone Species
(4) Dominant Species

14) Endemic plants -

(1) Cosmopolitan
(2) Occur in a particular area
(3) Occur at high altitudes
(4) Occur on north pole

15) Community is :-
(a) group of organism of different species that live in common area.
(b) group of different populations that live in common area.

(1) a wrong b right

(2) a right b wrong
(3) a and b are wrong
(4) a and b are right

16) Dominance, species composition, stratification are the :-

(1) Characters of biodiversity

(2) Characters of Biotic community
(3) Characters of population
(4) Characters of species

17) What benefits does fig tree offer to wasp in return for its pollination ?

(1) Delicious fruits

(2) Nectar
(3) Pollens
(4) Safe site for egg laying

18) The given diagram is related to which of the species association?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Proto co-operation
(4) Ammensalism
19) Which of the following represents mutualism?

(1) interaction between algae and fungi in lichen

(2) tiger chasing deer
(3) interaction between Cuscuta plant with host plant
(4) interaction between sea anemone and clown fish

20) Which type of association is found between sea anemone and clown fish ?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Predation
(4) Competition

21) Lichen, Fig-wasp, Mycorrhiza, Pronuba moth-Yucca plant, Epiphyte-Mango, Barnacle-Whale, Sea
anemone-Clown fish.
How many of the above show commensalism ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

22) Which of the following is correct define about ecological niche ?

(1) Niche is a biotic potential of a organism

(2) Niche is a vital activities of a organism
(3) Niche is a functional position of an organism in ecosystem
(4) Niche is a ecotone area in which species diversity maximum.

23) Which of the following plant produce highly poisonous cardiac glycosides ?

(1) Partherium
(2) Calotropis
(3) Cuscuta
(4) Arceuthobium

24) Choose the correct option given below :-

(1) Cuscuta is a total root parasite.

(2) Viscum is a Holoparasite
(3) Female Anopheles mosquito is not considered as parasite
(4) Leech is a ectophyto parasite

25) If a pond through reproduction 8 new plants are added, taking the current population to 48,
what will be the birth rate?
(1) 0.6 offspring per lotus per year
(2) 0.5 offspring per lotus per year
(3) 0.2 offspring per lotus per year
(4) 0.1 offspring per lotus per year

26) _____is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and have gone else where
during the time period under consideration.

(1) Natality
(2) Natality
(3) Immigration
(4) Emigration

27) When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal to zero.

(1) When N nears the carrying capacity .

(2) When r is equal to one.
(3) When birth rate is close to death rate.
(4) When N/K is exactly one.

28) Carrying capacity is :-

(1) Measurement of stress tolerated by population during lag phase

(2) Maximum growth rate of a population
(3) Maximum population size which can be supported by a particular habitat
(4) Population growth rate during lag phase

29) In Logistic growth curve lag phase shows___ .

(1) fast growth

(2) initial stage of growth
(3) stationary phase of growth
(4) diminishing phase of growth

30) Over a period of time , the organism had through natural selection , evolved adaptation to
optimise its :-

(1) Survival in its habitat

(2) Reproduction in its habitat
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Succession

31) Life history traits of organisms have evolved in relation to contraints by :-

(1) Abiotic components only
(2) Biotic components only
(3) Total sum of biotic and abiotic components
(4) Either of the biotic or abiotic components

32) The boundary or transition between two or more communities which are sharply defined is
called :-

(1) Biome
(2) Ecotype
(3) Ecotone
(4) Thermocline

33) Which of the following are structural features of ecosystem?

(1) Productivity, Decomposition

(2) Energy flow, Nutrient recycling
(3) Productivity, Energy flow
(4) Species composition, Stratification

34) The term 'ecosystem' first of all coined by :-

(1) A.G. Tansley

(2) E.P. Odum
(3) Karl Mobius
(4) Charls Elton

35) Trophic level is a functional level, so herbivores are given second trophic level as :-

(1) They are photosynthetic.

(2) They pocdate on photosynthetic organisms.
(3) They produces animal's biomass.
(4) They are living beings.

SECTION-B

1) How many organism in the list given below are primary producers?
Phytoplankton, Grass, Tree, Zooplankton, Grasshopper, Cow, Bird, Fish, Wolf, Diatoms,
Cyanobacteria, Fungi.

(1) Two
(2) Ten
(3) Four
(4) Five

2) Which is essential for self sustaining ecosystem ?

(a) Producers
(b) Micro consumers
(c) Macro consumers
(d) Decomposers

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

3)

Which of the following are correct matching pairs ?

(a) Kangaroo in Australia (i) Key stone species

(b) Fig tree in tropical forest (ii) Dominant species

(c) Plant pollinators (iii) Endemic species

(d) Prosopis in Aravalli hills (iv) Critical link species

(1) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(2) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(3) a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii

4) Examples of chemicals produced by plants as a defense against grazers and browsers.

(I) Nicotin
(II) Caffeine
(III) Quinine
(IV) Strychnine
(V) Opium
Choose the correct combination.

(1) I and II
(2) I, II, III and IV
(3) I, II and III
(4) All of these

5) Which of the following characters are changed with altitude & Latitude ?
(a) Temperature (b) Vegetation
(c) Species Diversity (d) Species composition
Options :

(1) Only a
(2) Only a & b
(3) a, b & c
(4) a, b, c & d
6) Vertical stratification in forest community leads to :-
(a) increase in number of species
(b) decrease in number of species
(c) efficient use of resources of a habitat by different type of plants
(d) multistory forest formation

(1) Only (c)

(2) Only (b)
(3) Only (a), (c), (d)
(4) Only (b), (c)

7) Which one of the following is most appropriately defined ?

(1) Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
(2) Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food.
(3) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it.
(4) Host is an organism which provides light to another organism.

8) Which of the following is a correct matching pair of certain organism and the kind of association?

(1) Shark and sucker fish – commensalism

(2) Red algae and fungi – mutualism
(3) Orchids growing on trees – Parasitism
(4) Cuscuta (dodder) growing on other flowering plants – Proto-co-operation

9)

How many examples of interaction belongs to competition ?

(a) Cattle egret and grazing cattle.
(b) Cuckoo bird and Crow.
(c) Sparrow eating any seed.
(d) Abingdon tortoise and goat in Galapagous Island.
(e) Sea anemone and clown fish.
(f) Hermit crab and sea anemone.

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

10) Assertion : Plants species cannot survive in complete isolation without any interaction with
other species.
Reason : Plants require soil microbes to break down organic matter and return inorganic nutrients,
and they also need animal agents for pollination.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

11) Assertion : The size of population for any species is not a static parameter and it keeps
changing in time.
Reason: Size of a population depend on various factors including food availability, predation
pressure and adverse weather.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

12) The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field

A possible reason for these changes is that:

(1) Population B competed more successfully for food than population A

(2) Population A produced more offspring than population B
(3) Population A consumed the members of population B
(4) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased

13) What is incorrect about parasite?

(a) Parasite can be host specific
(b) Biotic potential of parasite is low
(c) Parasites do not directly kill their host
(d) Parasite and host tend to co-evolve

(1) (a) only

(2) (b), (c) only
(3) (b) only
(4) All (a), (b), (c), (d)

14) Which is/are incorrect from followings :-

(A) Population ecology links ecology to population genetics and evolution.
(B) The size of the population tell us a lot about its status in the habitat
(C) If a new habitat is just being colonised, Birth rate may contribute more significantly to
population growth than immigration
(D) Since resources for growth for most animal population are finite and become limiting sooner or
later, the exponential growth model is considered a more realistic one.

(1) A & B are incorrect

(2) B & C are incorrect
(3) C & D are incorrect
(4) D and A are incorrect

15) I. Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive fittness, also called Darwinian fitness
(higher r value), in the habitat in which they live.
II. The housefly, which has a short life-span and produces a large number of eggs, could be
considered as a low r max species.
III. Under a particular set of selection pressures, organisms evolve towards the most efficient
reproductive strategies.
IV. Life history traits of organisms have evolved in relation to the constraints imposed by biotic and
abiotic factors in their habitat.
Select the false statement :-

(1) All
(2) Only II
(3) Only V
(4) Only I

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Decomposers are :-

(1) Prokaryotic, multicellular organisms

(2) Prokaryotic or eukaryotic organisms
(3) Always unicellular
(4) Prokaryotic organisms

2) Movement of energy in an ecosystem is :-

(1) Cyclic
(2) Unidirectional
(3) Bidirectional
(4) Can not be assessed

3) Which of the following organism is ecologically weak among followings?

(1) Mango
(2) Goat
(3) Cow
(4) Tiger

4) Nutrient movement in an ecosystem is :-

(1) Cyclic
(2) Unidirectional
(3) Bidirectional
(4) Can not be assessed

5)
Which of the following best describes the result of this process, labeled X ?

(1) Mutant restriction enzyme

(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Vaccination
(4) Recombinant DNA

6) First made recombinant DNA by linking an ....(A).... gene with a native plasmid of .....(B). Here 'A'
and 'B' is :

A B

(1) Insulin E.coli

(2) Cry Bacillus thuringiensis

(3) Antibiotic resistance E. coli

(4) Antibiotic resistance Salmonella typhimurium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Approximately how many restriction enzymes have been isolated from different (over
230) bacteria ?

(1) 300
(2) 600
(3) 750
(4) 900

8) Which of the following is not considered as palindromic DNA ?

5'CCCGGG3'
(1)
3'GGGCCC5'
(2) 5'GGATCC3' 3'CCTAGG5'
(3) 5'AAGGTC3' 3'TTCCAG5'
(4) 5'AAGCTT3' 3'TTCGAA5'

9) Which option is incorrect for naming of restriction endonuclease enzymes?

(1) First letter of the name comes from the genus

(2) Second single letter come from the species of the prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated
roman numbers following the names indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated from
(3)
that strain of bacteria.
(4) 2 and 3 both

10) The aim behind addition of chilled ethanol to the homogenised medium in which naked DNA is
present is to :

(1) remove proteins associated with DNA strands

(2) bring about precipitation of DNA threads
(3) fragment DNA threads into shorter segments
(4) make DNA threads visible as orange coloured bands

11) Which of the following is not correctly described.

(1) Transformation :- is a process through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium
Elution :- in this step, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and
(2)
extracted from the gel piece
(3) Micro-injection :- is a vector mediated gene transfer best for plant cell
(4) PCR :- In this multiple copies of the interest gene is synthesised in vitro

12) Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the discovery of :–

(1) Restriction endonuclease

(2) DNA ligase
(3) Transcriptase
(4) Primase

13) Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction endonuclease.
Identify the incorrect statement:

(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA

14) The vessels, where large volumes of culture can be processed are :

(1) Bioreactors
(2) Biovessels
(3) Biocontainers
(4) All of above

15) Read the following statements.

Statement I : Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption.
Statement II : Parathyroid hormone also stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and
increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested food.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

16) Oxytocin and vasopressin are synthesized by :-

(1) Posterior pituitary

(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Pancreas
(4) Pineal gland

17) Assertion :-The immune responses of old person become weak.

Reason : - Thymus is degenerated in old individuals resulting in a decreased production of
thymosin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

18) Graves’ disease is related to :-

(1) Thyroid gland

(2) Adrenal gland
(3) Kidney
(4) Pituitary gland

19) ___________is under direct neural regulation of hypothalamus.

(1) Anterior pituitary

(2) Posterior pituitary
(3) Portal circulation
(4) Pons intermedia.

20) The basal metabolic rate (BMR) in body cells is regulated by: -
(1) Parathyroid
(2) Thyroid
(3) Pituitary
(4) Thymus

21) Which of the following hormones increase alertness, pupillary dilation, piloerection?

(1) Thyrocalcitonin
(2) Catecholamines
(3) Cortisol
(4) ADH

22) Which hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones (glucocorticoids)
from the adrenal cortex.

(1) TSH
(2) ACTH
(3) PRL
(4) MSH

23) Which of the following hormone opposes parathormone ?

(1) ADH
(2) STH
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Thyrocalcitonin

24) Epinephrine is :

(1) Secreted from pancreas and decreases heart beat

(2) Secreted from adrenal medulla and increases heart beat
(3) Secreted from adrenal medulla and decreases heart beat
(4) Secreted from pancreas and increases heart beat

25) Which of the following adenohypophysis hormone have diabetogenic effect ?

(1) PRL
(2) TSH
(3) LH
(4) GH

26) If genes of plants, bacteria, fungi and animals have been altered by manipulation then they are
called:

(1) Genetically modified organism

(2) Explant
(3) Gene mutation
(4) Transgenic animals only

27)

α-1 antitrypsin synthesised by genetic engineering is used in treatment of :-

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Adenosine deamlnase deficiency

28)

Match the column.

Column-I Column-II
(Gene) (Provide resistance from)

(a) Cry-I Ac (i) Cotton bollworms

(b) Cry-I Ab (ii) Corn borer

(c) Cry-II Ab (iii) Meloidogyne

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii

29) Genetic engineering has been successfuly used for producing :

(1) transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(2) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
(3) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(4) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases

30)

About what percentage of all existing transgenic animals are mice?

(1) 75
(2) 20
(3) 95
(4) 100

31) Plant part used for culture is called :-

(1) Scion
(2) Stock
(3) Explant
(4) Callus

32) The treatment of SCID can be done

(1) Through RNA interference

Through introduction of engineered lymphocytes with functional ADA cDNA using retroviral
(2)
vector
(3) By introduction of ADA enzyme in early embryonic stage
(4) By preventing translation of ADA gene

33) Statement I : There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone.
Statement II : 07 documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

34) The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Insects
(3) Herbicides
(4) Fungi

35) Virus free plant can be obtained through :–

(1) Grafting
(2) Meristem culture
(3) Callus tip culture
(4) Suspension culture

SECTION-B

1) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Producer a-Herbivore i-Converter

Primary
(2) b-Phagotrophs ii-Osomotrophs
consumer

Secondary iii-Secondary
(3) c-Transducer
consumer produces

Micro
(4) d-Transformer iv-Carnivose
consumer
(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(2) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(3) 2-a-iii, 1-c-i, 3-b-iv, 4-d-ii
(4) 3-a-iii, 1-b-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-b-ii

2) The below diagram refer to PCR. Identify the steps A, B and C and select the correct option.

(1) A-Denaturation at 94ºC, B-Annealing at 54ºC, C-Extension through Taq polymerase at 72ºC
(2) A-Annealing at 94ºC, B-Denaturation at 54ºC, C-Extension through Taq polymerase at 72ºC
(3) A-Extension through Taq polymerase at 54ºC, B-Denaturation at 94ºC, C-Annealing at 94ºC
(4) A-Extension through Taq polymerase at 72ºC, B-Denaturation at 94ºC, C-Annealing at 54ºC

3) pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes. They are :-

(1) Streptomycin & Amphicillin resistant genes

(2) Chloromycetin & Tetracycline resistant genes
(3) Tetracycline & Tetracyclin resistant genes
(4) Amphicillin & Tetracyclin resistant genes

4) Which statement is true for Taq polymerase enzyme :-

(1) It is a type of RNA polymerase which is isolated from bacteria.

(2) It is a DNA polymerase, which remain active during the high temperature
(3) DNA polymerase, which is used in DNA finger printing
(4) DNA polymerase which is used in gel electrophoresis

5) Agrobacterium tumefaciens used in Genetic engineering for :-

(1) DNA-mapping
(2) DNA-modification
(3) Gene transfer
(4) DNA finger printing

6) In micro injection :

(1) DNA is bombarded on target cells

(2) DNA is placed through a vector
(3) DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell
(4) None of the above

7) Which one is incorrect for hypothalamus ?

(1) Basal part of diencephalon

(2) Regulate narrow spectrum of body functions
(3) Neural control of posterior pituitary
(4) Release somatostatin for GH Inhibition

8) Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the endocrine system ?

(1) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
(2) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any
(3)
hormones.
Non-nutrient chemicals produced by endocrine glands in trace amount that act as intercellular
(4)
messengers are known as hormones.

9) Which of the following option in given table is correct

identification of the structures labelled as A,B,C and D and their corresponding function in the
above figure :-

(1) (A) Hypothalamus Produces Prolactin hormone

(2) (B) Posterior pituitary Release FSH and LH

Supply blood from hypothalamus

(3) (C) Portal circulation
to posterior pituitary

(4) (D) Posterior pituitary Release oxytocin and vasopressin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Hypophysial hormone that stimulates reabsorption of water and electrolyte by the distal tubules
of kidneys is:

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Cortisol
(4) Vasopressin

11) Read the statements and choose the option that fill the respective blanks correctly
Statement-A : A single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule is called (i) .
Statement-B : Over 95% transgenic animals are (ii) .

(i) (ii)

(1) Plasmid Mice

(2) Gene taxi Sheep

(3) Probe Mice

(4) Tracking dye Goats

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) ELISA is :-

(1) Technique of disease diagnosis based on PCR

(2) Technique of gene therapy based on antigen-antibody interaction.
(3) Technique of molecular diagnosis based antigen-antibody interaction
(4) Technique of conventional diagnosis

13) Recombinant therapeutic drugs are preferred over products isolated from non-human sources,
because :-

(1) Recombinant therapeutics are cheaper

(2) Recombinant therapeutics don't induce unwanted immunological responses.
(3) Recombinant therapeutics are easy to produce
(4) Recombinant therapeutics provide permanant cure.

14) Two stages of insulin (stage P and Q) are shown in the diagram select the correct statement :-
(1) Stage P is earlier and inactive stage of insulin
(2) Stage Q is inactive and earlier stage of insulin
(3) Stage Q is reffered as proinsulin
(4) Stage P is an active stage

15) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:-

(1) Clone
(2) Plasmid
(3) Vector
(4) Probe
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 2 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 1 1 4 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 1 1 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 1 4 3 1 3 1 4 4 4 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 1 2 1 4 1 3 3 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 1 4 4 4 3 2 2 3 1 2 4 3 2 4 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 1 4 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 3 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Angle between included and reflected ray

θ = 90°

So angle of reflection = = = 45°

2)
(given)

3)
δ1 = 180 – 2 × 30 = 120° ............ (1)
δ2 = 180 – 2 × 10 = 160° ............ (2)
∴ δnet = 120 + 160 = 280°

4)

5)

∠i=∠r
0=∠r

6)

δ = 180° – 2i
= 180 – 2 × 40
 = 100

7)

δ = 180 – 2i
= 180 – 2(30) = 120 ACW or 240 CW

8)

Longest wavelength is of red colour.

9)

10)

δ = 180 – 2i

11) The image in a plane mirror undergoes depth inversion ; hence the time on the image is as
much ahead of 12 hours zero minutes as the time on actual clock is behind 12 hours zero
minutes.
Time on the actual clock = 7 hours 10 minutes
Time on the image clock
= (12 hrs and zero minutes) – (7 hrs and 10 minutes)
= 4 hrs and 50 minutes.

12)

13) We know that, two mirrors on adjacent walls will give three images. And one mirror on
roof will give one image of objective and three images of the earlier formed images. Therefore,
total images will be 7.
14)

15) I = 20 sin(100πt + 0.05π)

∴ A
ω = 100π ⇒ f = 50 Hz.

16) Current will be max at first time when

100πt + π/3 = π/2 ⇒ 100πt = π/6 ⇒ t = 1/600 s.

17)

At resonance the voltage and current will be in the same phase

18) ∴

19)
Lags behind the e.m.f. by 90°

20) .

21) In LCR circuit; in the condition of resonance XL = XC, i.e., circuit behaves as resistive
circuit. In resistive circuit power factor is maximum.

22) XL = ωL
 .

23) When ac flows through an inductor, current lags behind the emf by phase of π/2. Inductive
reactance, XL = ωL = π.2f.L, so when frequency increase correspondingly inductive reactance
also increases.

24) I = I1 sinωt + I2 cosωt

25) Phase angle ϕ = 90°, so power P = Vi cosϕ = 0

26) Vrms = Irms XL Reading of ammeter = Irms

XL = = = = 25 Ω

L= = = H

27) In dc ammeter, a coil is free to rotate in the magnetic field of a fixed magnet.
If an alternating current is passed through such a coil, in which the torque will reverse its
direction each time the current changes direction and the average value of the torque will be
zero.

28) Pav = εrms Irms cosϕ = εrms Irms (R/Z)

= (200 V)(1.5 A)(4/5) = 240 W

29) As power factor, cosϕ = 0.5, ϕ = 60°.

30)

Because effective resistance xL (inductive reactance) will increase, that’s why current will
decrease permanently so brightness will decrease permanently

31) ∈r = 2
µr = 2.5

32)
Theoretical

33)

Theoretical

34)

35)

E = E0 sin(kx – ωt)

B = B0 sin(kx – ωt)

36)
VIm = Vo – Vm
= (10cos60) + (10sim60) –

=
VIm =
VIm = (opposite to object velocity) + (same as object vector)

37)
38)
145cm from mirror M2

39) VI = 2Vm – Vo
Vo = 0 VI = 2Vm = 2 × 10
= 20 cm/sec

40) θ = 30°

41)
fp > fm

42) At resonance,
Voltage across L = Voltage across C
∴ Reading in V2 = Reading in V3.

43) Figure given in the questions shows that current I leads the emf E by a phase angle .
Therefore, the circuit can be R-C circuit alone.
 ...(i)
Compare E = E0 sin(100t) with E = E0 sin ωt, we get
ω = 100 rad s–1

∴ [Using (i)]
In all option R = 1 KΩ so put R = 1 KΩ & find C
When R = 1kΩ = 103Ω

F = 10µF

44) R = 6 + 4 = 10Ω
XL = ωL = 2000 × 5 × 10–3 = 10Ω

Amplitude of current =

45) When frequency of alternating current is increased, the effective resistance of the
inductive coil increases. Current (XL = ωL = 2πfL) in the circuit containing inductor is given

by . As inductive resistance of the inductor increases, current in the circuit

decreases.

46) V0 = 10V, ω = 314 rad/s

P = Vrms irms cosϕ

XL = ωL = (314) (20 × 10–3) = 6.280

R = 50Ω

47)

V = V0 sinωt, I = I0 sin (ωt + ) = I0 cosωt

p=V×I
p = V0I0 sinωt cosωt
 48)
p = Vrms Irms cos30°

49) The intensity of a plane electromagnetic wave is

or,

=
= 38.8 NC–1.

50)

v=0
Fm = 0
FE = qE

CHEMISTRY

53) If a reaction takes place in single step then total number of reactant molecules in balanced
stoichiometric equation gives its molecularity.

54) Positive catalysts increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy of the
reaction. Thus, some inactive molecules become active and rate increases.

55)

Rate = k[A]α
α = 0, for zero order reaction
∴ Rate = k

57)

Heat of reaction

when
where = activation energy of reverse reaction
= activation energy of forward reaction.

58)

A + B → Product
Given rate = k[A]1 [B]–1
Order = 1-1 = 0

59)

For zero order reaction

x = kt

0
when x = (initial conc. = [A] ), then t = t1/2

60)

Y = C + MX

Plot of ln k against give straight line with slope (–Ea).

68) r = k[Y]2

69)
n–1=3n=4

70)

71) Old NCERT, Pg no. 81

72)

t87.5% = 3t1/2
73)

74) Order =

75) The rate of a reaction depends upon concentration of reactant.

76) r = constant
∴ order = zero

77) Order =
Second order

78)

Rate constant depend on temperature and catalyst only.

79)

When mixture of iodide and nitrite is acted upon by dilute H2SO4, the iodide decomposed
giving violet vapours of iodide.
2NaNO2 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2HNO2
2KI + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2HI
2HNO2 + 2HI → 2H2 + I2 + 2NO
Violet
vapours

80)

Light brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide gas are evolved when white salt (Lead nitrate)
Pb(NO3)2 is treated with conc. HNO3
2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2

81) NH2·HgOHgI (Iodide of Millon's Base) is a reddish brown ppt formed in the Nesslar's test
for NH4+

82)

Fe+3 + SCN¯ → [Fe(SCN)]3+

Blood red colour
Potassium thiocyanate solution react with FeCl3 to give blood red colour.
83)

Pb(CH3COO)2 + H2S → PbS + 2CH3COOH

Black ppt

84)

[Fe(H2O)5NO]+2
x + 0 + 1 = +2
x = +1
This complex is unstable due to charge on central atom is +1.

85) Pb+2 is the cation which gives ppt with reagent of Group-I and Group-II analysis.

87)

For the reaction

C12H22O11 + H2O → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
Rate = k[C12H22O11] [H2O] Expected order = 2
Water is in excess hence its concentration may be taken constant.
∴ Rate = k’[C12H22O11]
Hence it is pseudo first order reaction.

89) 1.28 Mg/L to 0.04 Mg/L mean concentration drop to time

∴ n=5
5 t1/2 = 20 × 5 = 100

90) r = k [P][Q2] (rds)

From (i) step

K=
[P] =
r=

order =

92) On increasing temperature, rate constant increase

Hence t1/2 decreases.

93)
The rate of formation of SO3 is 1.28 × 10-4 g/sec

94)
4A + B → 2C + 3D

95) R → A + B + C + D
X0 – – – –
X0 – P1 P1 P1 P1 P1
X0 – P1 + P1 + P1 + P1 = Y
X0 + 2P1 = Y
2P1 = Y – X0

P1 =

k= ....(1)
put P1 in Eqn (1)

96) Concentration =
If volume is reduce to half, concentration is doubled.
So,

R2 = 8 R1

97)
 98)

Disodium Hydrogen phosphate is used to test Mg+2 ion

Mg+2 + Na2HPO4 → Mg(NH4)PO4 + NH4OH + 2Na+ + H2O
Magnesium ammonium
Phosphate (white ppt)

99)

2CuSO4 + K4[Fe(CN)6] → Cu[Fe(CN)6] + 2K2SO4

Potassium Copper (II)
Hexacyanoferrate (II) Hexacyanoferrate (II)
(Chocolate Brown PPT)

100) NO2¯ and NO3¯ can be distinguish by dil H2SO4 as dil H2SO4 can react with NO2¯ but
cannot react with NO3¯.

BIOLOGY-I

101)

In a unit area say 1m2, aquatic (pond) ecosystem will have many phytoplankton.

103)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 210, fig. 12.2

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 196

Habitat includes biotic and abiotic factors.

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 201 fig. 11.4

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 210, Fig. 12.2

137)

In a self sustaining ecosystem primary producers and decomposers will maintain the nutrient
cycling.
 139)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198

141)

Stratification in a forest provide enough resources for varieties of plants thus increasing their
diversity. This availability of plants further increases diversity of animals.

145) The assertion is true as no species can live in complete isolation; they require
interactions with other species for various life processes. The reason is also true and is the
correct explanation for the assertion because plants, as an example, need soil microbes for
nutrient cycling and animal agents for pollination, demonstrating the interdependence of
species within a biological community.

148) NCERT XII # 235-236

BIOLOGY-II

155)

NCERT XII, Page # 194

156)

NCERT XII, Page # 194,211,208

157)

NCERT XII, Page # 195

158)

NCERT XII, Page # 197

159)

NCERT XII, Page # 195

160) NCERT XII, Page # 201

161) NCERT XII Pg. # 198,200,201,202

162)

NCERT XII, Page # 196

164)

NCERT XII, Page # 204

165) NCERT XI page # 243

166) NCERT XI page # 241

167) NCERT XI Page # 243

168) NCERT XI Page # 243

169) NCERT XI Page # 240

171) NCERT XI Page # 244

172) NCERT XI Page # 241

173)

NCERT Pg. # 243

174)

NCERT Pg. # 244

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 184

178)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 209

182) NCERT Pg.#211

183)
NCERT XII, Page # 214

184) Crops engineered are tolerant to Herbicides.

187)

NCERT XII, Page # 202

188)

NCERT XII, Page # 199

189)

NCERT XII, Page # 203

190)

NCERT XII, Page # 200

192)

Hypothalamus regulates wide range of body functions.

194)

A - Hypothalamus, B - Anterior pituitary, C - Portal circulation, D - Posterior pituitary.

195)

NCERT Pg. # 212

197) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 183

199) NCERT XII Pg # 211(E), 229(H)