Sample Exam Questions – Module 2- BIOA01 – Fall 2024

1. In contrast to linear DNA replication, circular DNA replication typically:

A. does not produce Okazaki fragments.
B. does not produce a replication bubble.
C. has a single origin of replication.
D. All of these choices are correct.

2. How many copies of each gene are present in human skin cells at G2 of interphase?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4

3. The lagging strand is the daughter strand that has its end pointed toward thereplication
fork and is therefore synthesized .
A. 3’; in a series of segments
B. 3’; continuously
C. 5’; in a series of segments
D. 5’; continuously

4. Which of these is necessary for only the FIRST step of PCR?

A. original template DNA
B. DNA polymerase
C. the four DNA nucleotides
D. DNA primers

5. Imagine two different pea plant strains: one has a trait that is produced by the
interaction of many genes, and the other has a trait that is produced by a single gene
with two alleles and incomplete dominance. If each of these pea plant strains self-
fertilizes, how would the progeny of each cross differ?
A. They would not differ, and progeny of both crosses would have an array of
phenotypes that vary continuously across a range.
B. The progeny from the cross of the plant with the single-gene trait would all be
identical, whereas the progeny from the cross of the plant with the multiple-gene
trait would vary continuously across a spectrum.
C. The progeny from the cross of the plant with the single gene trait would have three
phenotypes, whereas the progeny of the cross of the plant with the trait caused by
many genes would have a more complex array of phenotypes.
D. The progeny from both crosses would have four possible phenotypes.

6. Three genes (A, B, and C) are located on the same chromosome. The distance between A
andB is 1 map unit, between B and C is 4 map units and between A and C is 3 map
units. The CORRECT order of genes in the chromosome is:
A. A B C.
B. B C A.
C. C B A.
D. B A C.
7. What is the name of the enzyme that separates the two strands of DNA during
replication?
A. DNA ligase
B. primase
C. topoisomerase
D. helicase

8. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on:

A. nucleotide sequence
B. length
C. mutations
D. replication rate

9. How many water molecules would be produced in making a polypeptide that is 14

amino acids long?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 13
D. 28

10. Secondary structures are stabilized by which type of interaction?

A. hydrogen bonding
B. hydrophobic clustering
C. disulfide linkages
D. ionic bonding

11. Consider the following two statements about protein structure:1 -

All polypeptides have tertiary structure.
2 - All proteins have quaternary structure.

Which of the two statements above is CORRECT?

A. Statements 1 and 2 are both true.
B. Statements 1 and 2 are both false.
C. Statement 1 is false; statement 2 is true.
D. Statement 1 is true; statement 2 is false.
12. When a charged tRNA is about to bind to a vacant site of a ribosome, where is the
growing polypeptide?
A. in the A site
B. in the P site
C. in the E site
D. The polypeptide is equally likely to be in any of the three site
13. The muscle cells and nerve cells in a mouse look very different and serve very different
functions in the mouse's body. These differences are because the musclecells and
nerve cells in the mouse:
A. have different genes.
B. have different chromosomes.
C. use different genetic codes.
D. express different genes.

14. The second meiotic division resembles mitosis because:

A. sister chromatids are separated during anaphase II to become the chromosomes of
the daughter cells.
B. spindle microtubules attach from opposite directions to the centromere of each
sister chromatid pair.
C. chromosomes decondense during telophase II.
D. All of these choices are correct.

15. Which of the following represents the expected ratio of genotypes of an F2 generation
consisting of 8 individuals from an initial cross of a true-breeding black (BB) rabbit
and a true-breeding white (bb) rabbit?
A. 8 progeny: 2 BB, 2 bb, 4 Bb
B. 8 progeny: 8 BB, 0 bb, 0 Bb
C. 8 progeny: 4 BB, 4 bb, 0 Bb
D. 8 progeny: 0 BB, 0 bb, 8 Bb

16. While doing a pedigree analysis, you notice two parents with the same genetic disease
who have four children. All four of the biologically female offspring have the disease,
but when they mate with unaffected individuals, none of the16 grandchildren has the
disease. If this disease is controlled by a single gene, then the MOST likely explanation
would be that the disease is:
A. a spontaneous mutation.
B. recessive and is only seen in homozygous recessive individuals.
C. dominant and is only seen in homozygous dominant individuals.
D. dominant and is seen in heterozygous or homozygous dominant individuals.

17. If a group of four siblings consists of all biological females, what is the probability
that the next tbirth is a biological male?
A. 4/5
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 2/3
18. Among the progeny of a heterozygous round (Aa) X homozygous wrinkled (aa)
testcross, three seeds are chosen at random. What is the probability that all threeseeds
are round?
A. (1/2)3
B. 2(1/2)3
C. 3(1/2)3
D. 4(1/2)3

19. A biologically male child is born with an XYY constitution of sex chromosomes. The
parents areXX and XY individuals, so their child's genotype must be the result of
nondisjunction in the formation of one of their gametes. When and in whom couldthe
nondisjunction have taken place?
A. in the father in mitosis
B. in the father in meiosis II
C. in the father in meiosis I
D. in the mother in meiosis I

20. Analysis of mitochondrial DNA can answer interesting and important questions. For
which of the following questions would analyzing mitochondrial DNA be futile?
A. Are you my biological father?
B. I have poor muscle function, is there something wrong with my ability to make lots
ofATP?
C. Are you my long-lost biological brother?
D. From tissue collected at a crime scene, can we suggest that this person is our
primary suspect?

21. In the procedure of replica plating, the purpose of the sterile velvet is to:
A. protect the agar plates from bacteria in the air.
B. protect the researchers from coming into contact with the bacteria.
C. transfer bacterial cells from one agar plate to another.
D. induce new mutations that can grow on the selective plates.

22. Which of the traits depicted here has the LEAST heritability?

A. trait L
B. trait M
C. trait H
D. trait K
Using the drawing of mRNA below, choose the letter that BEST fits the descriptions for the following
questions (22-25).

23. A messenger RNA lacking region E is likely to be:

A. exported outside the cell.
B. exceptionally resistant to degradation.
C. normal in its stability.
D. exceptionally sensitive to degradation.

24. The small subunit of the ribosome recognizes this feature of the mRNA first.
A. Region labeled A
B. Region labeled B
C. Region labeled C
D. Region labeled E

25. Features in which of the regions listed below are typically involved in post-transcriptional control
of gene expression?
A. Region labeled A
B. Region labeled B
C. Region labeled C
D. Region labeled E

26. The stop codon is located in which of the regions listed below?
A. Region labeled B
B. Region labeled C
C. Region labeled D
D. Regions labeled C and D.

27. Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate during:

A. meiosis II only.
B. meiosis I and mitosis.
C. meiosis II and mitosis.
D. meiosis I only.
28. Sister chromatids are separated during:
A. meiosis II only.
B. meiosis II and mitosis.
C. meiosis I and mitosis.
D. mitosis only.
E. meiosis I only.

29. If all variation among individuals in a population is due to differing genotypes alone, heritability is
_____, and the slope of the line used to measure it is _____.
A. 100%; 1.0
B. 100%; 0.5
C. 50%; 0.5
D. 0%; 0

30. In the F2 generation of a homozygous round (AA) × homozygous wrinkled (aa) cross in peas, two
round seeds are chosen at random. What is the probability that one is AA and the other Aa?
A. (1/3)2
B. (2/3)(1/3)
C. 2(2/3)(1/3)
D. (2/3)2

31. An individual is homozygous for a gene if:

A. the mother is homozygous for the gene.
B. the father is homozygous for the gene.
C. they developed from a sperm and an egg that carried the same allele.
D. they developed from a sperm and an egg that carried different alleles.

32. What process can account for the phenomenon wherein a normal XY male produces a sperm
carrying two Y chromosomes?
A. disjunction
B. translocation
C. first-division nondisjunction
D. second-division nondisjunction
E. copy-number variation

33. The abnormal prion protein in the prion disease bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) cannot
be:
A. Transmitted from infected sheep to healthy cattle
B. Transmitted from infected cattle to healthy cattle
C. Transmitted from infected cattle to healthy humans
D. Transmitted in the same way that transmission occurs in kuru
34. Human papillomavirus proteins are known to inactivate the function of some cellular proteins,
which can then result in progression to cancer. What is the normal function of those cellular
proteins?
A. They function to prevent replication of DNA that requires repair
B. They function at the cell cycle checkpoint that checks for proper attachment of chromosomes
to the spindle
C. They function to repair damage to DNA
D. They function at the cell cycle checkpoint that checks for proper duplication of DNA in S-
phase

35. What would happen if an enhancer sequence were mutated so that its binding partner was always
bound and recruiting the RNA polymerase complex?
A. Transcription wouldn’t change.
B. No transcription would occur, as the site is now blocked to other proteins.
C. Transcription would occur continuously.
D. No transcription would occur because the mediator complex could not form.

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