October 2024

(1)
IT Passport Examination

Questions must be answered in accordance with the following:

Question Nos. Q1 – Q100

Question Selection All questions are compulsory.
Examination Time 9:30 – 11:30 (120 minutes)

Instructions:
1. Use a pencil. If you need to change an answer, erase your previous answer completely and
neatly. Wipe away any eraser debris.

2. Mark your examinee information and your answers in accordance with the instructions
below. Your answer will not be graded if you do not mark properly. Do not mark nor
write on the answer sheet outside of the prescribed places.
(1) Examinee Number
Write your examinee number in the space provided, and mark the appropriate space
below each digit.
(2) Date of Birth
Write your date of birth (in numbers) exactly as it is printed on your examination
admission card, and mark the appropriate space below each digit.
(3) Answers
Select one answer (a through d) for each question.
Mark your answers as shown in the sample question below.

[Sample Question]
Q1. Which of the following should be used for marking your answer on the answer
sheet?

a) Ballpoint pen b) Crayon c) Fountain pen d) Pencil

Since the correct answer is “d)” (Pencil), mark the answer as below:

[Sample Answer]
Q1

Do not open the exam booklet until instructed to do so.

Inquiries about the exam questions will not be answered.

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Company names and product names appearing in the examination questions are trademarks or registered
trademarks of their respective companies. Note that the symbols ® and ™ are not used within.

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Q1. Which of the following is the combination of terms or phrases to be inserted into blanks
A through C in the description below concerning a method for representing information?

Data that represents information by using a continuous, variable physical volume

(length, angle, voltage, etc.) is called A data, and data that represents
information by using discrete numerical values is called B data. A CD that is
used for the distribution of music and songs is an optical disc medium that stores
information as C data.

A B C
a) analog digital analog
b) analog digital digital
c) digital analog analog
d) digital analog digital

Q2. Japanese restaurants in Sapporo and Japanese restaurants in Hakodate are to be searched
for together. Which of the following is the logical expression that represents the search
condition?

a) (“Sapporo” AND “Hakodate”) AND “Japanese restaurant”

b) (“Sapporo” AND “Hakodate”) OR “Japanese restaurant”
c) (“Sapporo” OR “Hakodate”) AND “Japanese restaurant”
d) (“Sapporo” OR “Hakodate”) OR “Japanese restaurant”

Q3. As shown in the figure below, decimal numbers 2, 5, 10, and 21 are represented using five
(5) squares that are black or white.

2 □□□■□
5 □□■□■
10 □■□■□
21 ■□■□■

A white square indicates 0, and a black square indicates a different positive value that is
determined depending on the position of the square. The sum total of the values of the
five (5) squares represents a decimal number. Which of the following is the decimal
number that is represented by ■■□□□?

a) 12 b) 20 c) 24 d) 30

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Q4. When a path goes from node A1 to node C2 in Fig. 1 and the passing nodes are counted as
shown in Fig. 2, there are three shortest paths with the minimum number of passing nodes.
How many shortest paths are there available to go from node A1 to node D4 via node C2?

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 20

Q5. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning machine language?

a) A program that is written in Fortran or C is converted into machine language and then
executed.
b) Machine language is a high-level language.
c) Machine language expresses a program with sequences of decimal numbers.
d) Most of application software is still programmed in machine language.

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Q6. A power company charges electricity bill shown in the table below.

Units used per month Per unit cost

(in 1/100 US$)
First 100 units 5
Next 200 units 10
Over 300 units 15

Function computeBill receives the number of units used per month as an argument and
returns the electricity bill in 1/100 dollars. Which of the following is an appropriate
combination of pieces of code to be inserted in ___A__ and ___B___ in the program?

[Program]
○ integer: computeBill(integer: units)
integer: bill
if (units ≤ 100)
bill ← ___A___
elseif (units ≤ 300)
bill ← 100 × 5 + (units - 100) × 10
else
bill ← ___B___
endif
return bill

A B
a) (units - 100) × 5 100 × 5 + (units - 100) × 10 + (units - 200) × 15
b) (units - 100) × 5 100 × 5 + 200 × 10 + (units - 300) × 15
c) units × 5 100 × 5 + (units - 100) × 10 + (units - 200) × 15
d) units × 5 100 × 5 + 200 × 10 + (units - 300) × 15

Q7. In a markup language, with the purpose of displaying on a screen and printing, it is
possible to directly embed not only the document content, but also the document structure
and layout information, and the character font and size information. Which of the
following is classified into such a markup language?

a) C b) HTML c) SQL d) URL

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Q8. The procedure draw receives a non-negative integer number n for input. When the value
of n is 6, the procedure outputs the six lines shown below. Which of the following is an
appropriate combination of pieces of code to be inserted in ___A___ and ___B___ in
the program?

[Output]
1
1 2
1 2 3
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 5
1 2 3 4 5 6

[Program]
○ draw(integer: n)
integer: i, k
i ← 1
while (i ≤ n) /* The while loop is skipped if n is zero. */
___A___
while (k ≤ i)
output the value of k and a space
___B___
endwhile
output the line break
i ← i + 1
endwhile

A B
a) i ← 1 i ← i + 1
b) k ← 1 k ← k + 1
c) i ← i + 1 i ← k
d) k ← k + 1 k ← i + 1

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Q9. On a desk that is only large enough to place four (4) files at the same time, six (6) files, A
through F, are used to perform a task. When four (4) files are already placed on the desk,
the least recently used file must be placed back into the drawer before the fifth file is
placed on the desk. When the files are used in the sequence A, B, C, D, B, A, E, A, B, F,
which of the following is the last file placed back into the drawer?

a) A b) B c) D d) E

Q10. When USB memory or other such external recordable media is connected to a PC, which
of the following is an OS function that automatically executes programs or plays movies
on the media and can also cause malware infection?

a) Autocorrect b) Autocomplete
c) Auto filter d) Autorun

Q11. Which of the following is the most appropriate description concerning deep learning?

a) It is a method for studying according to proficiency level that uses textbooks published
on the Internet and is not restricted by geographical location nor time.
b) A computer analyzes a large volume of data, finds patterns, and makes inferences or
decisions by itself by using a neural network.
c) An appropriate response is provided based on specialist knowledge in specific fields that
are systematically categorized.
d) The level of difficulty and the knowledge and skills required of each individual to solve
problems are estimated according to his/her proficiency level and understanding.

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Q12. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning a device driver that
enables the use of peripheral devices with a PC?

a) When a hard disk drive is initialized and the operating system is reinstalled, it is
necessary to reinstall device drivers that were installed separately to the operating
system.
b) When new application software is installed, it is necessary to reinstall all device drivers
that this software uses.
c) Even if a device driver is no longer required, a user cannot delete the device driver once
it is installed.
d) It is only necessary to install one (1) device driver for a printer to use all printers
regardless of manufacturer or model.

Q13. Which of the following is a description about a technology that improves the processing
performance of a computer and is also called turbo boost?

a) It is placed between the CPU and the main memory, and it remedies the slow
performance of the main memory in reading and writing.
b) It increases the operation frequency of the cores when the heat that the CPU generates
and the power that the CPU consumes have certain margins against their limits.
c) It provides multiple sections that serve as cores for performing calculations within the
CPU, and it executes several processes simultaneously.
d) It shares the CPUs of multiple computers, and executes a large amount of processes in a
distributed manner.

Q14. Two (2) HDDs are connected to a server for storing data. When at least one (1) of the
HDDs is working, stored data needs to be available. Which of the following is an
appropriate configuration that should be used for the HDDs?

a) Striping b) Data mining c) Tethering d) Mirroring

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Q15. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of parallel processing?

a) It is the division of a series of processing into processing units that can be executed
simultaneously, and the execution of these on multiple CPUs.
b) It is the execution of multiple related processes that are grouped together as a single
process.
c) It is the performing of business logic and database processes on the server side, and the
performing of user interface processes on the client side.
d) It is the division of processing time for a single CPU into short units, and the sequential
allocation of these to multiple applications for execution.

Q16. Which of the following includes all the appropriate measures to enable the execution of
processing even in the event of a failure in part of a system?

(1) Configuring HDDs with mirroring

(2) Minimizing the frequency of maintenance and inspections after stable operation of
the system starts
(3) Grouping multiple redundant network lines into a single high-speed line
(4) Making power supply redundant with the use of an uninterruptible power supply
(UPS) etc.

a) (1), (3) b) (1), (4) c) (2), (3) d) (2), (4)

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Q17. It is determined whether an examinee passed or failed by evaluating the score for two (2)
subjects X and Y with a spreadsheet software program. The score of each subject is
entered in cells A2 and B2 of the worksheet. When passing criteria (1) or (2) is met,
“Pass” is displayed in cell C2, and otherwise, “Fail” is displayed. Which of the following
is the expression that is entered in cell C2?

[Passing criteria]
(1) The total for Subject X and Subject Y is 120 or more.
(2) The score for either Subject X or Subject Y is 100.

A B C
1 Subject X Subject Y Pass/Fail
2 50 80 Pass

a) IF(AND((A2+B2) ≥ 120, A2 = 100, B2 = 100), 'Pass', 'Fail')

b) IF(AND((A2+B2) ≥ 120, A2 = 100, B2 = 100), 'Fail', 'Pass')
c) IF(OR((A2+B2) ≥ 120, A2 = 100, B2 = 100), 'Pass', 'Fail')
d) IF(OR((A2+B2) ≥ 120, A2 = 100, B2 = 100), 'Fail', 'Pass')

Q18. Among the descriptions A through C below concerning Open Source Software (OSS),
which of the following is the list that contains all and only the appropriate descriptions?

A: Source code can be modified and redistributed.

B: It is free to obtain source code, but maintenance support for a fee must be used.
C: The copyright is waived, and it can be used without permission.

a) A b) A, C c) B d) C

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Q19. When directories d1 and d2 are placed on a web server as shown in the figure, which of
the following descriptions specifies the reference of the web page file f2.html on
directory d2 from the web page file f1.html on directory d1 (current directory)? Here, the
reference method of files is as follows.

[Reference method]
(1) A file is referenced as “directory name /.../ directory name / file name”, where the
directory names on the path are listed and separated with “ / ” in sequence, followed
by a “ / ” and the file name.
(2) The current directory is represented by “.”.
(3) The directory one (1) level above is represented by “..”.
(4) When a reference begins with a “ / ”, it is assumed that the root directory is omitted
from the beginning of the reference.

root

d1 d2
f1.html f2.html

a) ./d2/f2.html b) ./f2.html
c) ../d2/f2.html d) d2/../f2.html

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Q20. The tax-inclusive prices of products A and B are calculated by using two (2) tax rates that
are set in cells D2 and E2 below. The correct expression that should be entered in cell D4
is $B4*(1.0+D$2), but a wrong expression $B4*(1.0+$D$2) was entered. When the
expression that was entered in cell D4 is copied to cells D5, E4, and E5, which of the
following is the numeric value that is displayed in cell E5?

A B C D E
1 Tax rate 1 Tax rate 2
2 Tax rate 0.05 0.1
Tax-exclusive Tax-inclusive Tax-inclusive
3 Product name
price price 1 price 2
4 Product A 500
5 Product B 600

a) 525 b) 550 c) 630 d) 660

Q21. Which of the following is a web browser that is Open Source Software (OSS)?

a) Apache b) Firefox c) Linux d) Thunderbird

Q22. Which of the following is an OS function that executes multiple application programs
concurrently on a single PC, such as when a file is downloaded from a website while data
is processed with spreadsheet software?

a) Virtual reality b) Dual core c) Dual system d) Multitasking

Q23. Which of the following is an explanation of the printing method of an inkjet printer?

a) Printing is performed by directly spraying fine ink particles onto the paper.
b) Printing is performed by using printing pins or other such component to hit an ink ribbon
against the paper.
c) Printing is performed by using the print head to heat ink that melts when it is heated.
d) Printing is performed by using laser light to make toner adhere to a photosensitive body.

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Q24. Which of the following is the copyright protection technology that is used for a DVD-R
and an SD card, and allows digital content to be duplicated to recording media only once?

a) AR b) CPRM c) HDMI d) MIDI

Q25. Which of the following is the unit that represents the resolution when a photograph or a
picture is read by a scanner?

a) dpi b) fps c) pixel d) ppm

Q26. From a “Product” table and “Sales” table that are managed with a relational database,
which of the following contains all and only the products where the total sales for each
product in May is at least 20,000 yen?

Product
ProductCode ProductName Price (yen)
0001 Product A 2,000
0002 Product B 4,000
0003 Product C 7,000
0004 Product D 10,000

Sales
SalesNumber ProductCode Quantity SalesDate DeliveryDate
Z00001 0004 3 4/30 5/2
Z00002 0001 3 4/30 5/3
Z00005 0003 3 5/15 5/17
Z00006 0001 5 5/15 5/18
Z00003 0002 3 5/5 5/18
Z00004 0001 4 5/10 5/20
Z00007 0002 3 5/30 6/2
Z00008 0003 1 6/8 6/10

a) Product A, Product B, Product C

b) Product A, Product B, Product C, Product D
c) Product B, Product C
d) Product C

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Q27. Which of the following is a language used for the operation of a relational database?

a) FAQ b) SQL c) SSL d) UML

Q28. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning foreign keys in a relational
database?

a) A property held by the foreign key is called a unique constraint.

b) Duplicate values cannot be set in the fields that are set as foreign keys.
c) Multiple foreign keys can be defined in a single table.
d) Multiple fields cannot be collectively set as a single foreign key.

Q29. When designing a database, which of the following is used for the purpose of organizing
and representing the relation of data?

a) E-R diagram b) Arrow diagram

c) Gantt chart d) Flowchart

Q30. Which of the following is the appropriate combination of terms or phrases to be inserted
into blanks A and B in the description below concerning NAT?

NAT is often used when an office or a household LAN is connected to the Internet, and
it converts between A and B .

A B
a) private IP addresses a MAC address
b) private IP addresses a global IP address
c) host names a MAC address
d) host names a global IP address

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Q31. When another network such as the Internet is accessed from a network in an office or a
household, which of the following fulfills the role of an entrance or an exit to the other
network?

a) Splitter b) Default gateway

c) Hub d) Repeater

Q32. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning encryption of

communication when a website with the URL beginning with “https://” is browsed
through a PC browser?

a) Only the communication from the PC to the web server is encrypted.

b) Only the communication from the web server to the PC is encrypted.
c) The bi-directional communication between the web server and PC is encrypted.
d) The direction in which communication will be encrypted depends on the settings of the
web server.

Q33. When transmitted over the Internet, data is divided into blocks, each of which is
transmitted with a header that specifies the destination, the block number, and an error
detecting code. Which of the following is the term for such blocks of data?

a) Domain b) Packet c) Port d) Router

Q34. A DHCP server has been installed in a LAN. When a PC that automatically acquires
information from the DHCP server is to be connected to the LAN, which of the following
will be set in the PC?

a) IP address
b) Latest virus definition file
c) Address list of spam mail
d) Mail addresses assigned by the Internet service provider

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Q35. Which of the following is the appropriate example of biometric authentication?

a) Displaying an image of characters that are difficult for a machine to read on a monitor,
and having a person read the characters and enter them
b) Having a person enter a password via a software keyboard that is displayed on a touch
panel
c) Reading the trail, pressure, and other characteristics of the action when a touch pen is
used for a signature
d) Having a person answer a question that only the person knows the answer to

Q36. When a document file attached to a received e-mail is opened on a PC, the PC begins to
behave abnormally. Which of the following is an appropriate suspected attack?

a) SQL injection b) Cross-site scripting

c) Shoulder hacking d) Macro virus

Q37. Which of the following is the activity in A (Act) phase in the PDCA model adopted in an
organization that operates an ISMS?

a) Deciding to make improvements concerning matters such as flaws that are revealed
through the monitoring of operational status and the measurement and evaluation of
operational results
b) Monitoring operational status, and measuring and evaluating operational results
c) Creating a security policy, establishing an organizational structure, and creating a
procedure for achieving the targets that are defined in the security policy
d) Communicating the security policy to employees, installing security equipment and
other security measures, and operating them

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Q38. Which of the following is an example of an aim of an attacker who infects someone
else’s PC with ransomware?

a) To obtain personal information on the PC via a network

b) To make files on the PC unusable, and to obtain money in exchange from unlocking
them
c) To obtain characters typed with the PC keyboard via a network
d) To operate the PC without the user’s permission by sending instructions for operations
via a network

Q39. A private key and a public key were generated as a key pair and a digital certificate for
the public key was issued. Which of the following is an appropriate action that should be
taken when the private key is leaked?

a) Reissuing the digital certificate with the same key pair

b) Requesting to the certification authority for revocation of the digital certificate
c) Creating a new key pair for reissuing a certificate due to the expiration of the validity
period
d) Continuing using the same digital certificate, because only the private key was leaked

Q40. Which of the following sets conditions for character type, length, etc. used for passwords
that are set for accounts on a computer, etc.?

a) Single sign-on b) Password crack

c) Password policy d) One-time password

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Q41. Among confidentiality, integrity, and availability, which of the following is the list that
contains all and only the properties that are lost in the information security incident
below?

All files on a server in the workplace were encrypted. However, the server was infected
by a virus, and a number of the files were deleted. Removal of the virus and recovery of
the files required several hours. During the hours, work could not be performed, and
users were inconvenienced. Some files were unable to be recovered.

a) Confidentiality b) Confidentiality, integrity

c) Integrity, availability d) Availability

Q42. A problem has been pointed out that the WEP encryption for wireless LANs can be
broken easily. Which of the following is an encryption method that does not have the
same weakness and is cryptographically stronger?

a) ESSID b) S/MIME
c) SSL d) WPA2

Q43. Company A implements risk analysis for its own information assets. The results show
that if a nearby river overflows, the server room on the first floor of the company might
be flooded. The company considers the possibility of moving the server room, but
decides there is almost no risk of a flood because the last time the river overflowed was
100 years ago, and the management decides that no particular countermeasures are taken.
Which of the following is the risk treatment for information security that Company A
selects?

a) Risk transfer b) Risk avoidance

c) Risk acceptance d) Risk mitigation

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Q44. The decision is made to digitize a paper-based contact list that only some people are
permitted to view, and to manage it as a contact file. Among the measures A through D
below, which of the following is the list that contains all and only the appropriate
measures against personal information leakage?

A A password for reading is set for the contact file.

B The contact file is encrypted.
C The servers that stores the contact file are configured in a redundant configuration.
D After the contact list is digitized, the paper-based contact list is disposed of with a
shredder.

a) A, B b) A, B, C c) A, B, D d) C, D

Q45. Among the Web browsing practices (1) through (3) below, which of the following is the
list that contains all and only the practices that reduce security risks?

(1) Storing the user ID and the password on the web browser
(2) Disabling JavaScript
(3) Logging on to the PC with administrator privileges when using the web browser

a) (1), (2) b) (1), (3) c) (2) d) (2), (3)

Q46. In software development, which of the following is the appropriate combination of the
descriptions A through C concerning testing and testing processes?

A: Check that processing ends within the planned operating time.

B: Check the interface between software.
C: Comprehensively check the internal paths of a program.

Unit test Integration test System test

a) A B C
b) A C B
c) B A C
d) C B A

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Q47. Which of the following corresponds to software maintenance?

a) A response time that was measured in a system test did not satisfy the requirement, so
tuning was performed on the software.
b) As a result of a software acceptance test, a defect was found, so the orderer requested the
developer to fix the software.
c) A function was found missing in a unit test of a program, so the function was added to
the program.
d) A defect was reported on software that is running on a production system, so the
software was modified.

Q48. Which of the following is an appropriate test for a user to confirm by himself/herself
whether the delivered software satisfies the requirements?

a) Acceptance test b) Integration test

c) System test d) Unit test

Q49. A system migration plan was created for the migration from an existing system to a new
system. Which of the following is an appropriate item to be described in the system
migration plan?

a) System selection policy

b) Schedule for parallel operation of the existing and new systems
c) Evaluation criteria for the quality of the deliverables
d) The work history of project members

Q50. Which of the following is the appropriate explanation of refactoring?

a) Improving internal architecture without changing the functions that software provides
b) Discovering the specifications of software by analysis of its operations, etc.
c) Correcting a defect in software so that it performs according to the specifications
d) Modifying software to add a new function on the basis of user requests, etc.

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Q51. Among the descriptions A through D below concerning project management in system
development, which of the following lists all and only the failures in scope management?

A: The labor costs incurred in development were underestimated, so the budget was
exceeded.
B: The time required for development work was set short, so development could not be
completed within the planned period.
C: A project was started without first deciding the function to be created, so the
development period is exceeded.
D: Several activities that should be implemented in a project were omitted from the plan,
so the system could not be completed.

a) A, B b) B, C c) B, D d) C, D

Q52. For software development work, a plan is created to complete it with 10 people in a period
of 15 days. However, it became known that only eight (8) members of staff could be
obtained for the first five (5) days. In order to complete the work in 15 days as planned,
how many staff members are required from the 6-th day? Here, the productivity of each
member of staff is the same.

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 14

Q53. Which of the following is the most appropriate description concerning risk management
in a project?

a) Since a project has a predetermined deadline, all risks must be identified at the start of
the project.
b) Since the realization of a risk has a negative impact to a project, risk measures are
planned to avoid all risks.
c) In order to plan risk measures, risks are prioritized on the basis of the likelihood of
occurrence of an event and its consequences.
d) In order to cut down the cost involved in taking action against a risk, risk measures are
planned whenever a risk is realized.

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Q54. A company orders information system development to an overseas software developer
under a contract for software development. Which of the following is an appropriate
activity to be performed by the company in project procurement management?

a) When a defect is found after the acceptance of delivery, even if not indicated in the
contract, the company asks the developer to examine not only the defect but similar
defects and fix them.
b) In order to make good use of the capabilities of the developer, the company does not
include the provisions of intellectual property rights in the contract.
c) After the start of development, the company has the procurement detail such as the
development scope, specifications, and work contents, etc. agreed upon by the developer
in writing.
d) At the time of signing the contract, the company agrees upon in writing with the
developer the documents to be delivered and the rules for changing specifications during
development.

Q55. Which of the following is a method to break down the required activities into a
hierarchical structure in software development?

a) CMM b) ITIL c) PERT d) WBS

Q56. Quality management in system development projects has a quality planning process to
define quality requirements and quality standards for deliverables and to specify the
methods for achieving them. Which of the following is an appropriate description
concerning the quality planning process?

a) If deliverables are not exactly the same as those of past system development projects,
past quality standards cannot be used as reference.
b) Since schedules have the highest priority in all projects, it is acceptable to shorten the
period for reviewing and testing for achieving target quality.
c) Quality should have the highest priory in all projects, and, to enhance the quality of
deliverables, constraints should not be placed on the budget.
d) The effects such as reductions in reworking, improvement in productivity, improvement
of stakeholder satisfaction brought about by achieving targeted quality, and the required
costs are to be compared.

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Q57. In a project, a contingency reserve is the cost that is included in the initial project scope
and is prepared for events that are predictable but uncertain. Among the costs that are
allocated by the project manager of a company that receives an order for a system
development, which of the following is an appropriate cost that can be classified as a
contingency reserve?

a) The cost that is necessary for the replacement of a device when the device happens to
fail under the development environment
b) The cost that is necessary for the activities of the project leader who manages the
development progress
c) The cost that is necessary for fulfilling the new requirements of users that are outside the
scope of the project
d) The cost that is necessary for purchasing the quality management tools of a system that
are planned to be adopted in the project

Q58. In a service desk that acts as the point of contact for users, a tool that uses automated
response technology is used in addition to telephone and e-mail. Which of the following
is the most appropriate example of such a tool?

a) FAQ b) RPA
c) Escalation d) Chatbot

Q59. Which of the following is an appropriate requirement for the availability of an e-mail
service in IT service management?

a) Allowing the e-mail service to be used with only a web browser

b) Allowing the e-mail service to be used anytime except for defined maintenance hours
c) Preventing e-mails addressed to a user from being read by another user without
permission
d) Preventing sent e-mails from being falsified

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Q60. Which of the following is an appropriate purpose of providing FAQ to users in IT service
management?

a) Providing a framework of IT service management

b) Defining a target value for the service level on the sides of both service provider and
users
c) Establishing a single point of contact for users to make all kinds of queries concerning
the service
d) Supporting users so that they can solve problems by themselves

Q61. Among the descriptions A through D below, which of the following lists all and only the
activities of facility management?

A: Management of entry and exit to and from the building in which computers are
installed
B: Installation and update management of anti-malware software on the company’s PCs
C: License management of the software constituting the information system
D: Installation of an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to prevent loss of data during a
power cut

a) A, C b) A, D c) B, D d) C, D

Q62. Which of the following is an appropriate example of criteria for evaluating the service
level of a service desk that receives queries from system users over the telephone?

a) Cost of the service b) Number of system failures

c) Availability of the system d) Response time for queries

Q63. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of monitoring in internal control?

a) It is a process of continuously evaluating if internal control is working effectively.

b) It is a process of promoting compliance to the laws and other regulations concerning
internal control.
c) It is a process of establishing an organization for internal control.
d) It is a process of analyzing the risks that hinder internal control.

– 24 –
Q64. Which of the following is an appropriate measure to enable internal controls?

a) Preventing creation of a job description indicating the scope of work and roles
b) Preventing creation of a work handover document for a successor
c) Preventing processing of purchasing and payment by the same person
d) Preventing separation of team members for system development and system operation

Q65. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the roles of a system auditor?

a) Preparing a workflow, work description, and risk control matrix that reflect the flow and
business operations, evaluating the risks, and installing an appropriate system
b) Installing a mechanism for appropriate monitoring and self-inspection in each process of
planning, development, operation, and maintenance of the information system, and
taking actions to operate the information system smoothly
c) Verifying whether or not the risks of the information system are controlled appropriately
and effectively from a standpoint that is independent of the department being audited,
and reporting the result to the client
d) Specifying the policies and objectives, and establishing a management system so that the
risks of the information system are controlled appropriately

Q66. Company A is a large company with multiple offices nationwide, and it created BCP that
envisaged the total destruction of the head office building in a large natural disaster. In
consideration of the purpose of the BCP, which of the following is Company A’s most
appropriate BCP?

a) In order to prevent damage by a fire that occurs after a disaster, replacing curtains and
other such things with flame-resistant products and planning regular checks of fire
prevention equipment
b) In order to swiftly respond to instructions from the head office when a disaster occurs,
establishing a procedure to completely halting work at all offices and have all employees
standby until an instruction is received from the head office
c) In order to continue business after a natural disaster, specifying an office to take over the
functions of the head office, narrowing down the important work that needs to be dealt
with, and establishing an implementation procedure for this work
d) Incorporating insurance premiums for the head office building into the annual budget,
and preparing for a relocation to a building with the same scale as the current head office

– 25 –
Q67. Which of the following is an explanation of a balance sheet?

a) It displays the status of cash flow in a fixed period of time by activity category.
b) It displays the management performance of a company by the income and cost generated
in a fixed period of time.
c) It displays the previous term-end balance, changes during the year, and the current term-
end balance for each item of net assets of a company.
d) It displays the financial condition of a company on the date of settlement on the basis of
the categories of assets, liabilities, and net assets.

Q68. The operating profit when the sales quantity of a product is 700 units is as shown in the
table below. When the unit sales price is reduced by 20% to expand sales, the sales
quantity increases by 20%. How much, in yen, is the operating profit at this time? Here,
the variable cost per one (1) unit of the product does not change.

Unit: Yen
Total sales 700,000
Cost
Variable cost 140,000
Fixed cost 300,000
Operating profit 260,000

a) 200,000 b) 204,000 c) 260,000 d) 320,000

Q69. Among the phases of the PDCA cycle in corporate business operations, which of the
following measures and evaluates the status of operations on the basis of KPI?

a) P b) D c) C d) A

– 26 –
Q70. Data of the defects and faults of products, complaints from customers, etc. are categorized
according to their cause and situation. Which of the following represents the number of
data in each category in descending order on a bar graph and the cumulative total on a line
graph?

a) Control chart b) Tree diagram

c) Pareto chart d) Matrix chart

Q71. When the purchase and sales of a product in April are as in the table below, what is the
inventory value in yen for the product at the end of April according to the moving
average method? The moving average method calculates the average unit price of
products in the inventory each time a purchase is made, and uses the average unit price
for products in the inventory immediately beforehand for the calculation of the inventory
value.

Replenishment Shipping Inventory

Average unit price (yen)

Unit price (yen)

Unit price (yen)

Quantity (unit)

Quantity (unit)

Quantity (unit)
Total (yen)

Total (yen)

Total (yen)
Date Note

April 1 Carry over 100 10 1,000 100 10 1,000

April 8 Purchase 100 14 1,400 200 12 2,400
April 18 Sales 150 50
April 29 Purchase 50 16 800 100
Note: The shaded parts are not shown.

a) 1,280 b) 1,300 c) 1,400 d) 1,500

– 27 –
Q72. A person wishes to start at point X, pass through all of points A, B, and C, and arrive at
point Y. When the routes and the required times between points are as shown in the figure
and the table, what is the shortest time in minutes from point X to point Y? Here, the points
A, B, and C may be passed through in any order.

Unit: minutes
Ending point
A B C Y
X 20 20 40 Not possible
Starting point

A - 40 30 Not possible
B 40 - 20 60
C 30 20 - 60

a) 110 b) 130 c) 140 d) 150

Q73. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of NDA?

a) It is a specialized organization that monitors and analyzes threats to the information

systems in a company, etc.
b) It is a contract that makes the contracting parties agree to hold and maintain in
confidence the confidential information of the other party.
c) It is an agreement of an objective quality standard that is concluded between a service
provider and the user concerning the service provided.
d) It is a hierarchical decomposition of the tasks to be implemented in a project.

– 28 –
Q74. Which of the following is a code that stores information in a vertical and horizontal two-
dimensional pattern?

a) ASCII code b) G-code

c) EAN code d) QR code

Q75. Concerning the EU’s General Data Protection Rules (GDPR), which of the following lists
all and only the appropriate descriptions?

A: If a business has an office within the EU region and provides data and services within
the EU region, it is subject to the rules.
B: If a business has an office within the EU region and provides data and services to
Asia, the US, or other such places outside of the EU region, it is not subject to the
rules.
C: If a business does not have an office within the EU region and provides data and
services only to Asia, the US, or other such places outside of the EU region, it is not
subject to the rules.
D: If a business does not have an office within the EU region and provides data and
services from Asia, the US, or other such places to the EU region, it is not subject to
the rules.

a) A b) A, B, C c) A, C d) A, C, D

– 29 –
Q76. Among company’s actions A through C below, which of the following lists all and only
the acts that may be problematic in terms of compliance?

A: In order to increase awareness of the name of a new product among consumers, a

campaign is implemented where anyone can apply for a prize by answering a simple
quiz that just asks a part of the product name is published widely in media such as
newspapers, the relevant company’s website, and magazines, and one of the
applicants is chosen at random to receive a prize of 100,000 yen.
B: When a company received an order for an advertisement from an advertiser, the
company posted an article on its popular website as a general article that favorably
reviews a certain product without indicating that the article is an advertisement.
C: A bag with a design inspired by France was manufactured domestically and was put
on sale with a tag featuring a photograph of Paris and the French flag, but without
noting the country of production.

a) A, B b) A, B, C c) A, C d) B, C

Q77. Which of the following is appropriate as an expected advantage of the adoption of ISO
9001 by companies?

a) The companies’ trade procedures will be standardized, leading to increased efficiency

and the avoidance of non-tariff barriers.
b) Technical specifications will be standardized in the industry, and increase in product
quality and expansion of markets will move forward.
c) Methods for handling information assets will be standardized and the quality of
information security will increase.
d) Business operations concerning quality management will be standardized, and the
quality and efficiency of management will increase.

Q78. Which of the following is an organization in the USA that promotes standardization
activities concerning Ethernet LAN and wireless LAN, etc.?

a) ICANN b) IEEE c) ISO d) W3C

– 30 –
Q79. Which of the following is the most appropriate marketing strategy for narrowing down
the customer base to focus on by classifying customers on the basis of age, gender, family
structure, and the like, and analyzing the purchasing behaviors of each group?

a) Service marketing b) Segment marketing

c) Social marketing d) Mass marketing

Q80. There are two (2) indicators for evaluating the achievement of strategic goals. These are
leading indicators that evaluate the means for achieving the goals, and result indicators
that evaluate the degree of goal achievement. If a strategic goal is “acquire new
customers,” which of the following is an appropriate leading indicator?

a) Sales increase amount

b) New contract acquisition ratio
c) Total customer increase ratio
d) Number of visits to prospective customers

Q81. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of user experience (UX)?

a) The design of a software product with consideration that it is easy to use for as many
people as possible, including mainly elderly people and disabled people
b) A method of identifying customers on the basis of analysis of customer data, and
deepening relationships with customers by using channels such as call centers and the
Internet
c) A software product’s capability that enables efficient use by a user under specified
conditions
d) People’s feelings and responses that are gained through the use of a product, system, or
service

Q82. Which of the following is a system that centrally manages the process from materials
procurement to product sales, and aims for the optimization of supply?

a) ASP b) CRM c) ERP d) SCM

– 31 –
Q83. Company A performs analysis of its positioning with competitors. In order for Company
A to obtain the best evaluation of all three (3) companies, what is the minimum number of
points required in the brand evaluation item?
The minimum value of evaluation item is one (1) point and the maximum value is ten
points, and each company is evaluated by using the total value of each weighted evaluation
item.

Evaluation item Weight Company A Company B Company C

Selling power 1 10 9 6
Price 4 10 7 9
Quality 3 6 10 7
Brand 2 6 10
Note: The shaded part is not shown.

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

Q84. Which of the following is the most appropriate as the underlying concept of CRM?

a) The source of profit is an early entry into a market with little competition.
b) The source of profit is a good relationship with the customer.
c) The source of profit is a shorter product life cycle.
d) The source of profit is a large share in a specific market.

Q85. Which of the following is a technique that increases the potential for success in the
development of a new business model or product, by creating the minimum service or
product on the basis of a hypothesis, and performing repeated verification of customer
value in a short interval of times?

a) Cannibalization b) Business operations modeling

c) Digital transformation d) Lean startup

– 32 –
Q86. In call handling at a call center, which of the following is the most appropriate example
of the use of AI to implement a more effective FAQ system?

a) As part of the training for operators, examples of questions and answers that use the
existing FAQ are taught on a web screen.
b) According to the numbers that are entered according to the guidance, a call is assigned to
an operator with responsibility for the relevant FAQ item.
c) From the caller’s telephone number of a received call, customer information and a
record of the content and response of past inquiries are retrieved from a customer
information database and displayed on the operator’s screen.
d) In call handling, emotion and intent are determined from the audio of a question in order
to increase the certainty of selection of the optimum candidate response from the FAQ.

Q87. Which of the following is a business objective that becomes possible to achieve with “the
introduction of a POS system”?

a) Improvement in the work productivity of salespersons and organizational strength of the

sales department
b) Reduction in inventory volume of component parts and partly finished goods
c) Optimization of the series of processes from procurement to manufacturing, shipment,
and sales
d) Improvement in the selection of goods at each store and streamlining of ordering and
inventory control

Q88. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of CAD, as used in the manufacturing
industry?

a) It calculates the required quantity of materials for a product manufacturing plan and
orders materials.
b) It manages information about the components, semi-finished products, quantities, etc.
required for the manufacture of products.
c) It performs unified management of information such as product blueprints and
component tables, from design to manufacturing.
d) It uses computers in product design to improve the productivity and reliability of design
specifications.

– 33 –
Q89. Which of the following is an appropriate case example that corresponds to traceability?

a) Taking advantage of the Internet and web technology for the use of computers in
education
b) Outsourcing all software development to an external specialized company without
placing any development department within one’s own company
c) Sharing knowledge and information among employees across the entire organization,
and utilizing it effectively to improve business performance
d) Being able to check the history from production up to sales on the basis of the labels
pasted on meat and fish products

Q90. Which of the following is classified as a “ B to E ” transaction?

a) A company provides services, such as welfare and education for the company’s own
employees, through the Internet.
b) A travel company uses the Internet to give campaign information and sell tickets to
consumers in advance.
c) An automobile manufacturer uses the Internet to procure components and materials from
vendors across the world.
d) In an auction held on the Internet, a participant buys a product from another participant.

Q91. A single unit of Product A is composed of three (3) pieces of Part B and two (2) pieces of
Part C. In the production plan for a particular period, when the demand for Product A is 10,
which of the following is the net requirement of Part B? Here, the quantity in stock is five
(5) for Part B, and there are no other pieces in stock, in process, on back order, or already
allocated. The net requirement is calculated by subtracting the stock available for allocation
from the gross requirement.

a) 20 b) 25 c) 30 d) 45

– 34 –
Q92. When the spreadsheet shown below is converted into CSV format, which of the following
is an appropriate list of data that is generated by spreadsheet software? Here, records are
separated by the carriage return code “CR”. The expression in a cell is automatically
recalculated, and the resulting value is written back into that cell. Although the entered
expressions are shown in row 3 and column C below, the resulting values are actually
displayed on the screen.

A B C
1 2 7 A1+B2
2 6 4 A2+B1
3 A1+A2 B1+B2 C2+B3

C C C
a) 2 , 6 , 8 R 7 , 4 , 11 R 6 , 13 , 24 R
C C C
b) 2 , 6 , 8 R 7 , 4 , 11 R 9 , 10 , 19 R
C C C
c) 2 , 7 , 6 R 6 , 4 , 13 R 8 , 11 , 24 R
C C C
d) 2 , 7 , 9 R 6 , 4 , 10 R 8 , 11 , 19 R

Q93. Which of the following is the most appropriate utilization of RPA for a company?

a) The adoption of an important strategy by management, such as an M&A

b) The provision of a service that matches personal tastes
c) The identification of patterns in large volumes of behavioral data concerning potential
customers
d) The streamlining of routine administrative work

– 35 –
Q94. Which of the following is the most appropriate description concerning the analysis of big
data?

a) In order to forecast unknown circumstances, analysis that uses machine learning in

addition to statistical analysis is also effective.
b) Non-textual data in the form of video, images, and audio data cannot be in the scope of
analysis.
c) Only information that spreads by humans, such as comments on an electronic bulletin
board, social media messages, and website search history, is used in the analysis of
human actions.
d) Data that is not intended to be analyzed, such as a blog entry, is out of the scope
regardless of the purpose of analysis.

Q95. Which of the following analysis techniques used in Enterprise Architecture (EA) clarifies
the issues by comparing the ideal situation with the current situation?

a) Gap analysis b) Core competence analysis

c) Value chain analysis d) Pareto analysis

Q96. Which of the following is “cloud computing”?

a) One of the Internet communication protocols

b) One of the service models for providing computer resources
c) One of the software development methods for flexibly supporting changes in the
specification
d) One of the electronic data exchange standards for electronic commercial transactions

– 36 –
Q97. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the Fourth Industrial
Revolution?

a) The Internet and AI are utilized in a wide range of fields in daily life, such as medical
care, infrastructure, and traffic systems, and service automation and quality
improvement are achieved.
b) Production automation and labor cost reduction are achieved by the introduction to
factories of industrial robots that utilize electronics.
c) Mass production of industrial products is performed by the construction of production
lines that use conveyor belts in factories.
d) Productivity is increased compared to manual work by the use of steam energy as the
driving force for machinery in light industry, such as sewing machines.

Q98. At power companies, the amount of electricity consumed by each household is measured
remotely by communicating with electrical meters that are connected to the Internet,
instead of measured by meter readings by a person. Which of the following is a term that
represents the mechanism where a range of devices are connected to the Internet and utilize
information in cases such as this?

a) EDI b) IoT c) ISP d) RFID

Q99. Which of the following are international development targets that are composed of 17
objectives set by the United Nations in order to achieve a sustainable world?

a) COP28 b) SDGs c) UNESCO d) WHO

Q100.A company planning the development of a business information system decided to

present an RFP to SIers. Which of the following must be described in the RFP at a
minimum?

a) The development schedule

b) The functions that should be implemented in the business information system
c) The method for achieving the business information system
d) The project team

– 37 –
 Pseudo programming language notations

In algorithm and programming questions that use pseudo programming language, the following
notations are used unless otherwise stated:

[Pseudo programming language notations]

Notation Description
○ procedure(type: arg1, ...) Declares a procedure and its argument(s) arg1, ... .
○ ret-type: function(type: arg1, ...) Declares a function, its argument(s) arg1, ... , and
type of return value ret-type.
type: var1, ... Declares variables var1, ... and arrays array1, ... by
type []: array1, ... data type such as integer, real, and string.
/* comment */ Describes a comment between /* and */.
// comment Describes a comment after // till end of line.
variable ← expression Assigns the value of the expression to the variable.
procedure(arg1, ...) Calls a procedure by passing arguments arg1, ... .
function(arg1, ...) Calls a function by passing arguments arg1, ... ,
and receiving the return value.
output arg1, ... Outputs values of arg1, ... to a printing device.
return ret-val Finishes a function by passing back a return value
ret-val.
if (condition-i) Indicates the selection process.
process-i *1 *1 If condition-i is true, then execute process-i.
elseif (condition-ei) Otherwise, proceed to the next elseif or
process-ei *2 else.
else *2 If condition-ei is true, then execute process-ei.
process-e *3 Otherwise, proceed to the next elseif or
endif else.
*3 If all conditions are false, execute process-e.
Note: *2 and *3 can be omitted.
Note: *2 may exist twice or more.

for (sequence) Indicates the “for” iteration process.

process In the order specified in the sequence, execute the
endfor process repeatedly.
while (condition) Indicates the “while” iteration process.
process While the condition is true, execute the process
endwhile repeatedly.
do Indicates the “do - while” iteration process.
process Execute the process once, and then while the
while (condition) condition is true, execute the process repeatedly.

- i -
 Pseudo programming language notations
(continued)

[Operators and their precedence]

Type of Operators Precedence Note
operator
Expression ( ) (1) High (1) accessing member or
method
Unary operator +, −, not (2) (2) logical negation

Binary operator ×, ÷, mod (3) (3) remainder

+, −
>, <, ≥, ≤, =,
≠
and (4) (4) logical product
or (5) Low (5) logical sum

[Boolean-type constants]
true, false

[Array reference]
1-dimensional array 2-dimensional array
Array declaration type []: name ... type [,]: name ...
Example integer []: a1 integer [,]: a2
1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3
1 3 5 7 9 1 11 12 13
2 14 15 16
3 17 18 19

Data reference Data 7 is referred Data 16 is referred

to by a1[4] to by a2[2,3]
Notation of array {1, 3, 5, 7, 9} {{11, 12, 13},
contents {14, 15, 16},
{17, 18, 19}}
Notes: The indexes of arrays start at 1, unless otherwise noted.
Areas outside of the arrays must not be referenced in the program.

- ii -
 Spreadsheet Software Functions and Terminology

The following shows the basic functions and terminology of spreadsheet software.
If functions other than those shown here are used, such as worksheet saving, reading, printing,
border drawing, and chart creation, these are shown in the question.

1. Worksheets

(1) A work area in the form of grids comprising rows and columns is called a worksheet. The
size of a worksheet is 256 columns and 10,000 rows.
(2)Respective positions of columns and rows on a worksheet are represented by row and column
numbers. For the column numbers, the leftmost number is A, and they are represented as A,
B, ..., Z, AA, AB, ..., AZ, BA, BB, ..., BZ, ..., IU, ...IV. For the row numbers, the topmost
number is 1 , and they are represented as 1, 2, ..., 10000 .
(3) Multiple worksheets can be used. In this case, a unique name is to be given to each worksheet
so that they can be distinguished from the other worksheets.

2. Cells and cell ranges

(1) Each grid that makes up a worksheet is called a cell. Its position is represented by the column
and row numbers, and this is called a cell address.
[Example] The cell address of the cell at column A row 1 is represented as A1 .
(2) When a group of all cells in a rectangular area in a worksheet are to be handled together, the
group is represented by using the cell addresses of the cells at top left and bottom right in the
rectangle and “:” as “top left cell address:bottom right cell address”. This is called a cell range.
[Example] A cell range whose addresses at top left is A1 and bottom right is B3 is represented
as “A1:B3” .
(3) If a cell address or a cell range in another worksheet is to be specified, the address is
represented by using the worksheet name and “ ! ” as “worksheet name!cell address” and
the range is represented as “worksheet name!cell range”.
[Example] If cells B5 to G10 in worksheet “Sheet1” are to be specified from another
worksheet, it is represented as “Sheet1!B5:G10” .

3. Values and expressions

(1) A cell has a value, and the value can be referenced by the cell address. A cell value is a
numerical value, character string, logical value, or null value.
(2) A character string is enclosed in single quotation marks “ ’ ”.
[Example] The character strings “ A ” and “ BC ” are expressed as ’A’ and ’BC’, respectively.
(3) A logical value is represented as true or false.
(4) A null value is represented as null, and a cell with a null value is called a blank cell. The
initial state of a cell is blank.

- iii -
 (5) An expression can be entered into a cell. The cell has the value of evaluated result of the
expression.
(6) An expression is composed of constants, cell addresses, operators, parentheses, and
functions. A constant is represented as a numerical value, character string, logical value, or
null value. A cell address in an expression references a value of the cell at that address.
(7) An expression is an arithmetic expression, literal expression, or logical expression. An
expression that obtains a numerical value as its evaluation result is called an arithmetic
expression; the one that obtains a character string is called a character expression; and the
one that obtains a logical value is called a logical expression.
(8) When an expression is entered into a cell, it is evaluated immediately. When a cell value
which an expression references changes, the expression is immediately and appropriately
reevaluated.

4. Operators

(1) The unary operators are the plus sign “+” and the minus sign“-”.
(2) The arithmetic operators are add “+”, subtract “-”, multiply “*”, divide “/”, and
exponentiation “^”.
(3) The comparison operators are greater than “>”, less than “<”, equal to or greater than “≥”,
equal to or less than “≤”, equal to “=”, and not equal to “≠”.
(4) For parentheses, “ ( ” and “ ) ” are used.
(5) If an expression contains multiple operations and parentheses, the order of operations follow
the precedence in the table below.

Type of operation Operator Precedence

Parentheses ( ) High
Exponentiation ^
Unary operations +, -
Multiplication/division *, /
Addition/subtraction +, -
Comparison operations >, <, ≥, ≤, =, ≠ Low

5. Copying of cells

(1) A value or expression in a cell can be copied into the other cells.
(2) In case of copying a cell, when an expression including a cell address has been entered into
a source cell and the cell is copied to a destination cell so that the difference in addresses
between the source and destination cells can be maintained by making the cell address change
in the expression, this way of refefence is called relative reference. In this case, an expression,
in which the differences in column and row numbers between the source and destination cells
are added to the cell address in the expression in the source cell, is entered into the destination

- iv -
 cell.
[Example] When expression “A1+5” has been entered into cell A6 and this cell is copied to
cell B8 , expression “B3+5” is entered into cell B8.
(3) In case of copying a cell, when an expression including a cell address has been entered into
a source cell and the cell is copied to a destination cell so that either or both of the column
and row numbers of the cell address in the expression in the source cell can be maintained,
this way of reference is called absolute reference. A “$” is placed immediately before either
or both of the column and row numbers to which absolute reference is applied.
[Example] When expression “$A$1+$A2+A$5” has been entered into cell B1 and this cell is
copied to cell C4, expression “$A$1+$A5+B$5” is entered into cell C4 .
(4) In case of copying a cell, when an expression referencing to another worksheet has been
entered into a source cell and the cell is copied to a destination cell, the name of referencing
worksheet is not changed in the destination cell.
[Example] When expression “Sheet1!A1” has been entered into cell A6 in worksheet “Sheet2”
and the cell is copied to cell B8 in worksheet “Sheet3”, expression “Sheet1!B3”
is entered into cell B8 .

6. Functions

The functions defined in the table below are available for use in an expression.
Format Description
Returns the sum of the numerical values within the cell range.
1)
SUM(cell range ) [Example] SUM(A1:B5) returns the sum of the numerical values in range A1
to B5.
AVERAGE(cell
Returns the average of the numerical values within the cell range.
range1) )
STDEV.S (cell Returns the standard deviation calculated with the numerical values within the
range1) ) cell range as the sample.
STDEV.P (cell Returns the standard deviation calculated with the numerical values within the
range1) ) cell range as the population.
MAX(cell range1) ) Returns the maximum value of the numerical values within the cell range.
MIN(cell range1) ) Returns the minimum value of the numerical values within the cell range.
IF(logical Returns the value of expression 1 when the logical expression is true, and
expression, returns the value of expression 2 when the expression is false.
expression 1, [Example] IF(B3>A4, ’Tokyo’,C4 ) returns “Tokyo” when the value of cell
expression 2) B3 is greater than that of cell A4; otherwise, returns the value of C4.
COUNT(cell
Returns the number of cells within the cell range, which are not blank.
range)

- v -
 Returns the number of cells within the cell range,which satisfy the specified
search condition. The search condition is described as a pair of comparison
operator and expression, and the values of each cell within the range are
COUNTIF(cell compared against the value of the specified expression using the specified
range, search operator.
condition ) [Example 1] COUNTIF(H5:L9,>A1) returns the number of cells in range
H5 to L9, each of which has a value greater than the value of A1.
[Example 2] COUNTIF(H5:L9, ＝’A4’) returns the number of cells in
range H5 to L9, each of which has character string “A4”.
Returns the largest integer that is equal to or less than the value of the
INT(arithmetic arithmetic expression.
expression) [Example 1] INT(3.9) returns 3.
[Example 2] INT( - 3.9) returns - 4.
Takes the value of arithmetic expression 1 as the dividend and that of
MOD(arithmetic arithmetic expression 2 as the divisor, and returns the remainder of the
expression 1, division. Functions “MOD” and “INT” satisfies MOD(x,y)=x-y*INT(x/y).
arithmetic
[Example 1] MOD(10,3) returns 1.
expression 2)
[Example 2] MOD( - 10,3) returns 2.
SQRT(arithmetic Returns the non-negative square root of the value of the arithmetic expression.
expression) The value of the arithmetic expression must be a non-negative numerical value.
AND(Logical
expression 1, Returns true when the values of logical expression 1, logical expression 2, ...
Logical expression are all true. Otherwise, returns false.
2, … ) 2)
OR(Logical
expression 1, Returns true when at least one of the values of logical expression 1, logical
Logical expression expression 2, ... is true. Otherwise, returns false.
2 , … ) 2)
NOT(Logical Returns false when the value of the logical expression is true, and returns
expression ) true when the value is false.
ROUNDUP(arithm
etic expression,
digit position) By rounding at the specified digit position of the arithmetic expression, function
“ROUNDUP” returns the rounded up value, function “ROUND” returns the
ROUND(arithmetic rounded value, and function “ROUNDDOWN” returns the rounded down value.
expression, digit
position) [Example 1] ROUNDUP( - 314.059,2) returns -314.06.
[Example 2] ROUNDUP(314.059, - 2) returns 400.
ROUNDDOWN(ar [Example 3] ROUNDUP(314.059,0) returns 315.
ithmetic expression,
digit position)
Treats each of the values of expression 1, expression 2, … as a character string,
CONCATENATE(ex and returns one character string that is formed by concatenating them in the order
pression1, of the expressions.
expression2, … ) 2) [Example] CONCATENATE(’Tokyo’,’Osaka’,123,456) returns character
string “TokyoOsaka123456”.

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 Returns the rank by counting the rank of the value of the arithmetic expression
RANK(arithmetic
in the cell range in ascending order when 0 is specified as the order condition,
expression, cell
or in descending order when 1 is specified. Here, if there are same values in the
range 1 ) , order
cell range, they are treated as the same rank, and the next item’s rank is
condition)
determined by adding the number of items of the same rank.
Returns a uniform random number (real number) greater than or equal to 0 and
RAND ( )
less than 1.
Counts the rows and columns from the top left within the cell range respectively
INDEX(cell range, as 1, 2, …, and returns the value of the cell at the specified row and column
row position, positions within the range.
column position )
[Example] INDEX(A3:H11,2,5) returns the value of cell E4.
Scans the leftmost column within the cell range from the top downward, and
searches for the first row that satisfies the specified seach condition. For this
row, it counts the columns within the range from the left as 1, 2, …, and returns
the value of the cell at the specified column position.
• When the search condition is set to 0 : Searches for a value that matches the
VLOOKUP(express value of the expression.
ion, cell range, • When the search condition is set to 1 : Searches for the largest value that is
column position, equal to or less than the value of the expression. At this time, the cell values
search condition) in the leftmost column must be sorted in ascending order from the top.
[Example] VLOOKUP(15,A2:E10,5,0) searches in the leftmost column
within the cell range, A2, A3, …A10. In this case, if it first finds 15
at cell A6, it returns the value in cell E6 in the same row as cell A6
within column E, the fifth column from column A at the left end in the
range.
Scans the topmost row within the cell range from left to right, and searches for
the first column that satisfies the specified search condition. For this column,
counts the rows from the top within the range as 1, 2, … and returns the value
of the cell at the specified row position.
• When the search condition is set to 0 : Searches for a value that matches the
HLOOKUP(expres value of the expression.
sion, cell range, row • When the search condition is set to 1 : Searches for the largest value that is
position, search equal to or less than the value of the expression. At this time, the cell values
condition) in the topmost row must be sorted in ascending order from the left.
[Example] HLOOKUP(15,A2:G6,5,1) searches in the topmost row within the
cell range, A2, B2, …G2. In this case, if it first finds the largest value
equal to 15 or less at cell D2, it returns the value of cell D6 in the same
column as cell D2 within row 6, the fifth row from row 2 at the top in
the range.
Note1) Within the cell range that is passed as the argument, values other than numerical values are out of
scope for processing.
2)
The number of expressions that can be passed as arguments is 1 or more.

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