JEE Main 2024 – 2019

Chapter-wise PYQs
(Physics)

Priority C Chapters

Anup Gupta Sir

Founder of MathonGo, Quizrr & MARKS
An IIM A & NSIT alumnus
 Success in JEE isn’t just about how hard you study,
but how consistently you strive. Every concept learned,
every problem solved, brings you one step closer to
your dream. Stay focused, stay determined, and let
nothing hold you back!

Anup Gupta
 Important Instructions

This booklet contains JEE Main 2024 – 2019 PYQs of Priority C chapters of Physics.
To find the complete priority list, watch this video.

Answer key is present at the end of every chapter. Use the index page for easy
navigation.

Question numbers marked with * denotes that they’re out of syllabus. The ones which
are marked with ^ denotes that they’re out of syllabus but good to solve.

How to solve these questions effectively?

Take a printout of this booklet and start solving the PYQs in a separate notebook in
learning mode for the best results.

You can find solution of each question provided in this booklet on MARKS app.
Download the MARKS app using the following options:

For Android Users:

Click here to download the app from Google Play or Scan the QR code below:

For iOS, Desktop, Laptop Users:

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 Index

If you’re using this as a digital PDF, you can click on the chapter names to directly go
to the respective chapter.

# Chapter Page

1 Work Power Energy 5 - 19

2 Capacitance 20 - 37

3 Nuclear Physics 38 - 51

4 Kinetic Theory of Gases 52 - 68

5 Electromagnetic Waves 69 - 86

6 Waves and Sound 87 - 100

7 Rotational Motion 101 - 126

Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q1. A particle of mass m moves on a straight line with its velocity increasing with distance according to the
equation v = α√x, where α is a constant. The total work done by all the forces applied on the particle during
its displacement from x = 0 to x = d, will be : 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 2α
m
2
d
(2) md

2α
2

(3) 2 mα 2
d (4) mα

2
d

Q2. A force (3x 2

+ 2x − 5)N displaces a body from x = 2 m to x = 4 m. Work done by this force is ________ J .
09 Apr 2024 (E)

Q3. A stationary particle breaks into two parts of masses m and m which move with velocities v and v
A B A B

respectively. The ratio of their kinetic energies (K B : KA ) is : 08 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) v B : vA (2) m B : mA

(3) m B vB : mA vA (4) 1 : 1

Q4. A circular table is rotating with an angular velocity of ωrad/s about its axis (see figure). There
is a smooth groove along a radial direction on the table. A steel ball is gently placed at a
distance of 1 m on the groove. All the surfaces are smooth. If the radius of the table is 3 m , the
radial velocity of the ball w.r.t. the table at the time ball leaves the table is x√2ωm/s, where the
value of x is _____.
08 Apr 2024 (E)

Q5. A block is simply released from the top of an inclined plane as

shown in the figure above. The maximum compression in the
spring when the block hits the spring is:

08 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) √6 m (2) √5 m
(3) 1 m (4) 2 m

Q6. A bullet of mass 50 g is fired with a speed 100 m/s on a plywood and emerges with 40 m/s. The percentage
loss of kinetic energy is : 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 84% (2) 16%
(3) 32% (4) 44%

Q7. A body of mass 50 kg is lifted to a height of 20 m

from the ground in the two different ways as

shown in the figures. The ratio of work done
against the gravity in both the respective cases,
will be :
05 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 1 : 2 (2) √3 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q8. A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a constant power source. Its displacement in time t is
proportional to : 05 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) t (2) t 3/2

(3) t 2
(4) t 2/3

Q9. If a rubber ball falls from a height h and rebounds upto the height of h/2. The percentage loss of total energy of
the initial system as well as velocity ball before it strikes the ground, respectively, are : 04 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 50%, √2gh (2) 50%, √gh
(3) 40%, √2gh (4) 50%, √ gh

Q10. A body of m kg slides from rest along the curve of vertical circle from point A to B in
friction less path. The velocity of the body at B is _____
2
(given, R = 14 m, g = 10 m/s and √ 2 = 1.4)

04 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) 16.7 m/s (2) 19.8 m/s
(3) 10.6 m/s (4) 21.9 m/s

Q11. An artillery piece of mass M fires a shell of mass M horizontally. Instantaneously after the firing, the ratio of
1 2

kinetic energy of the artillery and that of the shell is : 31 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) M1

(M 1 +M 2 )
(2) M2

M1

(3) M2

(M 1 +M 2 )
(4) M1

M2

Q12. A solid circular disc of mass 50 kg rolls along a horizontal floor so that its center of mass has a speed of
0. 4 m s
−1
. The absolute value of work done on the disc to stop it is ______ J. 31 Jan 2024 (M)

Q13. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force given by
→
ˆ 2 ˆ
F = (6t i + 6t j) N . The power developed by the force at the time t is given by: 31 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) (6t 4
+ 9t ) W
5
(2) (3t 3 5
+ 6t ) W

(3) (9t 5
+ 6t ) W
3
(4) (9t 3 5
+ 6t ) W

Q14. A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface inclined to horizontal at an angle of 60° by a

force of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface as shown in figure. When the block is pushed
up by 10 m along inclined surface, the work done against frictional force is : [g = 10 m s −2
]

30 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) 5√3 J (2) 5 J
(3) 5 × 10 3
J (4) 10 J

Q15. A particle is placed at the point A of a frictionless track ABC as shown in

figure. It is gently pushed towards right. The speed of the particle when it
reaches the point B is: (Take g = 10 m s −2
.
)

30 Jan 2024 (M)

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 20 m s −1
(2) √10 m s −1

(3) 2√10 m s
−1
(4) 10 m s
−1

Q16. A block of mass 100 kg slides over a distance of 10 m on a horizontal surface. If the co-efficient of friction
between the surfaces is 0. 4 , then the work done against friction (in J) is: 29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 4200 (2) 3900
(3) 4000 (4) 4500

Q17. The potential energy function (in J ) of a particle in a region of space is given as U = (2x
2
+ 3y
3
. Here
+ 2z)

x, y and z are in meter. The magnitude of x - component of force (in N ) acting on the particle at point
P (1, 2, 3) m is: 29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 8

Q18. The bob of a pendulum was released from a horizontal position. The length of the pendulum is 10 m. If it
dissipates 10% of its initial energy against air resistance, the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowest
point is: [Use, g = 10 m s −2
] 29 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 6√5 m s −1
(2) 5√6 m s −1

(3) 5√5 m s −1
(4) 2√5 m s −1

Q19. A bob of mass m is suspended by a light string of length L . It is imparted a

minimum horizontal velocity at the lowest point A such that it just completes half
circle reaching the top most position B. The ratio of kinetic energies is :
( K.E. ) A

( K.E. ) B

29 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 1 : 5

Q20. Two bodies of mass 4 g and 25 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of magnitude of their linear
momentum is : 27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 4
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 4 : 5

Q21. A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its magnitude of acceleration in the extreme
position and lowest position are equal. The angle (θ) of thread deflection in the extreme position will be :
27 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) tan −1
(√ 2) (2) 2 tan −1
(
1

2
)

(3) tan −1
(
1

2
) (4) 2 tan −1
(
1
)
√5

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q22. A block of mass 10 kg is moving along x-axis under the action of force F = 5x N . The work done by the
force in moving the block from x = 2 m to 4 m will be _______ J. 15 Apr 2023 (M)

Q23. A body is released from a height equal to the radius (R) of the earth. The velocity of the body when it strikes
the surface of the earth will be: (Given g = acceleration due to gravity on the earth.) 15 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) √2gR (2) √gR
(3) √4gR (4) √ gR

Q24. A car accelerates from rest of u m s . The energy spent in this process is E J. The energy required to
−1

accelerate the car from u m s −1

to 2u m s −1
is nE J. The value of n is _____. 13 Apr 2023 (E)

Q25. The ratio of powers of two motors is 3√x

, that are capable of raising 300 kg water in 5 minutes and 50 kg
√ x+1

water in 2 minutes respectively from a well of 100 m deep. The value of x will be 13 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 16 (2) 2
(3) 2. 4 (4) 4

Q26. To maintain a speed of 80 km h

−1
by a bus of mass 500 kg on a plane rough road for 4 km distance, the
work done by the engine of the bus will be _____ kJ. [The coefficient of friction between tyre of bus and road
is 0. 04]
12 Apr 2023 (M)

Q27. A force →
F = (2 + 3x)i acts on a particle in the x direction where F is in Newton and x is in meter. The work
ˆ

done by this force during a displacement from x = 0 to x = 4 m is _____ J. 11 Apr 2023 (M)

Q28. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400 kg (600 kg -Passengers + 800 kg -elevator) , which is
moving up with a uniform speed of 3 m s
−1
and the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N , then the maximum
power used by the motor is ______kW. (g = 10 m s
−2
)

10 Apr 2023 (E)

Q29. A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm, whose inner walls are rough, is kept in
vertical plane. A block of mass 1 kg just fit inside the tube. The speed of block is
22 m s
−1
, when it is introduced at the top of tube. After completing five oscillations,
the block stops at the bottom region of tube. The work done by the tube on the block is
_____ J. (Given g = 10 m s ). −2

10 Apr 2023 (M)

Q30. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum of 10 kg m s

−1
. Now a force of 2 N acts on the body in the
direction of its motion for 5 s. The increase in the Kinetic energy of the body is _____ J. 08 Apr 2023 (E)

Q31. A body is dropped on ground from a height h1 and after hitting the ground, it rebounds to a height h2 . If the
ratio of velocities of the body just before and after hitting ground is 4, then percentage loss in kinetic energy of
the body is x

4
. The value of x is _____.
06 Apr 2023 (E)

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q32. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that its potential energy U =
1

2
mω r
2 2
where ω is constant
and r is the distance of the particle from origin. Assuming Bohr’s quantization of momentum and circular
orbit, the radius of n th
orbit will be proportional to
06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) √n (2) 1

(3) n 2
(4) n

Q33. A small particle moves to position 5î − 2ĵ + k̂ from its initial position 2î + 3ĵ − 4k̂ under the action of force
5î + 2ĵ + 7k̂ N . The value of work done will be ______ J. 01 Feb 2023 (M)

Q34. A force F = (5 + 3y )
2
acts on a particle in the y-direction, where F is newton and y is in meter. The work
done by the force during a displacement from y = 2 m to y = 5 m is ______ J. 01 Feb 2023 (E)

Q35. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its equilibrium
position (at x = 0) on a frictionless surface from rest. The energy of the block at x = 5 cm is 0. 25 J. The
spring constant of the spring is ______ N m . −1
01 Feb 2023 (E)

Q36. A lift of mass M = 500 kg is descending with speed of 2 m s . Its supporting cable begins to slip thus
−1

allowing it to fall with a constant acceleration of 2 m s . The kinetic energy of the lift at the end of fall
−2

through to a distance of 6 m will be ______ kJ. 31 Jan 2023 (M)

Q37. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of
constant power P . Its displacement in 4 s is 1

3
2
α √P m . The value of α will be ______. 30 Jan 2023 (E)

Q38. Identify the correct statements from the following:

(A) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket is negative
(B) Work done by gravitational force in lifting a bucket out of a well by a rope tied to the bucket is negative
(C) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane is positive
(D) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity
is zero
(E) Work done by the air resistance on an oscillating pendulum is negative
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
29 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) B and E only (2) A and C only
(3) B, D and E only (4) B and D only

Q39. A 0. 4 kg mass takes 8 s to reach ground when dropped from a certain height P above surface of earth. The
loss of potential energy in the last second of fall is ______ J. [Take g = 10 m s ] −2
29 Jan 2023 (M)

Q40. An object of mass m initially at rest on a smooth horizontal plane starts

moving under the action of force F = 2 N . In the process of its linear motion,
the angle θ (as shown in figure) between the direction of force and horizontal
varies as θ = kx , where k is a constant and x is the distance covered by the
object from its initial position. The expression of kinetic energy of the object
will be E = n

k
. The value of n is ______.
sin θ

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

25 Jan 2023 (M)

Q41. A spherical body of mass 2 kg starting from rest acquires a kinetic energy of 10000 J at the end of 5 th
second.
The force acted on the body is _____ N.
24 Jan 2023 (M)

Q42. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F
→
ˆ 2ˆ
= (ti + 3t j) N , where ˆi
and ˆj are the unit vectors along x and y axis. The power developed by above force, at the time t = 2 s, will be
_______W. 24 Jan 2023 (E)

Q43. A block of mass 'm' (as shown in figure) moving with kinetic energy E compresses a spring
through a distance 25 cm when, its speed is halved. The value of spring constant of used spring
will be nE N m −1
for n =_____.
28 Jul 2022 (M)

Q44. A bullet of mass 200 g having initial kinetic energy 90 J is shot inside a long swimming pool
as shown in the figure. If it's kinetic energy reduces to 40 J within 1 s, the minimum length of
the pool, the bullet has to travel so that it completely comes to rest is
28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 45m (2) 90m
(3) 125m (4) 25m

Q45. Sand is being dropped from a stationary dropper at a rate of 0. 5 kg s

−1
on a conveyor belt moving with a
velocity of 5 m s . The power needed to keep belt moving with the same velocity will be
−1
27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 1. 25 W (2) 2. 5 W
(3) 6. 25 W (4) 12. 5 W

Q46. Two inclined planes are placed as shown in figure.

A block is projected from the Point A of inclined plane AB along its surface with a
velocity just sufficient to carry it to the top Point B at a height 10 m . After reaching
the Point B the block slides down on inclined plane BC . Time it takes to reach to the
point C from point A is t(√2 + 1)s. The value of t is _____ (use g = 10 m s ) −2

27 Jul 2022 (E)

Q47. As per the given figure, two blocks each of mass 250 g are connected to a spring of
spring constant 2 N m
−1
. If both are given velocity v in opposite directions, then
maximum elongation of the spring is
26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) v
(2) v

2
2√ 2

(3) v

4
(4) v

√2

Q48. A body of mass 0. 5 kg travels on straight line path with velocity v = (3x 2
+ 4) m s
−1
. The net work done by
the force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m is 25 Jul 2022 (M)

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 64 J (2) 60 J
(3) 120 J (4) 128 J

Q49. A bag of sand of mass 9. 8 kg is suspended by a rope. A bullet of 200 g travelling with speed 10 ms
−1
gets
embedded in it, then loss of kinetic energy will be 25 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 4. 9 J (2) 9. 8 J
(3) 14. 7 (4) 19. 6 J

Q50. In the given figure, the block of mass m is dropped from the point ′A′ . The expression for kinetic
energy of block when it reaches point ′B′ is

29 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) mgy 0 (2) 1

2
mgy
2
0

(3) 1

2
mgy
2
(4) mg(y − y 0)

Q51. A particle of mass 500 g is moving in a straight line with velocity v = bx . The work done by the net force 2

−3

during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 4 m is (Take b = 0. 25 m 2

s
−1
). 29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2 J (2) 4 J
(3) 8 J (4) 16 J

Q52. A pendulum is suspended by a string of length 250 cm . The mass of the bob of the
pendulum is 200 g . The bob is pulled aside until the string is at 60° with vertical as
shown in the figure. After releasing the bob, the maximum velocity attained by the bob
will be _____ m s . (if g = 10 m s )
−1 −2

28 Jun 2022 (M)

Q53. Water falls from a 40 m high dam at the rate of 9 × 10 4

kg per hour. Fifty percentage of gravitational potential
energy can be converted into electrical energy. Using this hydro electric energy number of 100 W lamps, that
can be lit, is _____ (Take g = 10 ms
−2
) 28 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 25 (2) 50
(3) 100 (4) 18

Q54. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal acceleration a is c

varying with time t as a c

2
= k rt
2
, where k is a constant. The power delivered to the particle by the force
acting on it is - 28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Zero (2) 2mk 2 2
r t

(3) mk 2
r t
2
(4) 2mk 2
rt

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q55. A rolling wheel of 12 kg is on an inclined plane at position P and

connected to a mass of 3 kg through a string of fixed length and pulley as
shown in figure. Consider PR as friction free surface. The velocity of
centre of mass of the wheel when it reaches at the bottom Q of the inclined
plane P Q will be 1

2
√ xgh m s
−1
. The value of x (rounded off to the nearest
integer) is _____.
27 Jun 2022 (E)

Q56. A stone tide to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string at the centre.
At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u. The magnitude of change in its
velocity, as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal, is √x(u 2
− gL) . The value of x is
27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1

Q57. Arrange the four graphs in descending order of total work done; where W 1, W2 , W3 and W are the work done
4

corresponding to figure a, b, c and d respectively.

26 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) W 3 > W2 > W1 > W4 (2) W 3 > W2 > W4 > W1

(3) W 2 > W3 > W4 > W1 (4) W 2 > W3 > W1 > W4

Q58. A 0. 5 kg block moving at a speed of 12 ms

−1
compresses a spring through a distance 30 cm when its speed
is halved. The spring constant of the spring will be _____ Nm −1
25 Jun 2022 (M)

Q59. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the acceleration →

a at any point P (R, θ) on the circular path of radius

R is (when θ is measured from the positive x-axis and v is uniform speed): 25 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) − (2) −
2 2 2 2
v ˆ v ˆ v ˆ v ˆ
sin θi + cos θj cos θi + sin θj
R R R R
2 2 2 2

(3) − v

R
cos θî −
v

R
sin θĵ (4) − v

R
î +
v

R
ĵ

Q60. A stone of mass m, tied to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. The tension in the
string is 24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) the same throughout the motion.
(2) minimum when the rope is in the horizontal position.
(3) minimum at the highest position of the circular path.
(4) minimum at the lowest position of the circular path.

Q61. A particle experiences a variable force →

F = (4xî + 3y
2
ĵ) in a horizontal x − y plane. Assume distance in
meters and force is newton. If the particle moves from point (1, 2) to point (2, 3) in the x − y plane, then
Kinetic Energy changes by : 24 Jun 2022 (M)

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 25 J (2) 50 J
(3) 12. 5 J (4) 0 J

Q62. A ball of mass 100 g is dropped from a height h = 10 cm on a platform fixed at the top of a
vertical spring (as shown in figure). The ball stays on the platform and the platform is
depressed by a distance h

2
. The spring constant is _____ N m −1
(Use g = 10 m s ) −2

24 Jun 2022 (M)

Q63. Potential energy as a function of r is given by U =

r
A
10
−
B

r
5
, where r is the interatomic distance, A and B are
positive constants. The equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be : 24 Jun 2022 (E)
1 1

(1) ( A
)
5
(2) ( B
)
5

B A

(3) ( (4) (
1 1
2A 5 B 5
) )
B 2A

Q64. A body of mass m dropped from a height h reaches the ground with a speed of 0. 8√gh. The value of work
done by the air-friction is: 01 Sep 2021 (E)
(1) −0. 68mgh (2) mgh
(3) 0. 64mgh (4) 1. 64mgh

Q65. An engine is attached to a wagon through a shock absorber of length 1. 5 m. The system with a total mass of
40, 000 kg is moving with a speed of 72 km h
−1
when the brakes are applied to bring it to rest. In the process
of the system being brought to rest, the spring of the shock absorber gets compressed by 1. 0 m. If 90% of
energy of the wagon is lost due to friction, the spring constant is _________ × 10 5
N m
−1
. 01 Sep 2021 (E)

Q66. A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface with a speed of 40 m s −1

splits into two equal parts. If one
of the parts moves at 60 m s −1
in the same direction, then the fractional change in the kinetic energy will be
x : 4 where x = ________. 31 Aug 2021 (M)

Q67. A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface with a speed of 40 m s −1

splits into two parts with masses in
the ratio of 1 : 2. If the smaller part moves at 60 m s −1
in the same direction, then the fractional change in
kinetic energy is : 31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 1

3
(2) 2

(3) 1

4
(4) 1

Q68. Two persons A and B perform same amount of work in moving a body through a certain distance d with
application of forces acting at angles 45° and 60° with the direction of displacement respectively. The ratio of
force applied by person A to the force applied by person B is √x
1
. The value of x is _________.
27 Aug 2021 (M)

Q69. The height of victoria's falls is 63 m. What is the difference in the temperature of water at the top and at the
bottom of the fall? [Given 1 cal = 4. 2 J and specific heat of water = 1 cal g
−1 ∘
C
−1
] 27 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 14. 76 °C (2) 1. 476 °C
(3) 0. 147 °C (4) 0. 014 °C

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q70. A uniform chain of length 3 m and mass 3 kg overhangs a smooth table with 2 m laying on the table. If K is
the kinetic energy of the chain in J as it completely slips off the table, then the value of K is _____
(Take g = 10 m s
−2
) 26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q71. A small block slides down from the top of hemisphere of radius R = 3 m as shown
in the figure. The height h at which the block will lose contact with the surface of
the sphere is m. (Assume there is no friction between the block and the hemisphere)

27 Jul 2021 (E)

Q72. Given below is the plot of a potential energy function U(x) for a system, in
which a particle is in one dimensional motion, while a conservative force F(x)

acts on it. Suppose that E mech = 8 J, the incorrect statement for this system is :

27 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) at x > x 4
, K. E. is constant throughout the region.
(2) at x < x 1
, K. E. is smallest and the particle is moving at the slowest speed.
(3) at x = x 2
, K. E. is greatest and the particle is moving at the fastest speed.
(4) at x = x 3
, K. E. = 4 J

Q73. An automobile of mass m accelerates starting from the origin and initially at rest, while the engine supplies
constant power P . The position is given as a function of time by: 27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) ( (2) (
1 1
3 2
9P 2 8P 2
) t 2
) t 3
8 m 9 m

(3) ( (4) (
1 1
3 3
9m 2 8P 2
) t 2
) t 2
8P 9 m

Q74. A force of F = (5y + 20)ĵ N acts on a particle. The work done by this force when the particle is moved from
y = 0 m to y = 10 m is ________J. 25 Jul 2021 (E)

Q75. A porter lifts a heavy suitcase of mass 80 kg and at the destination lowers it down by a distance of 80 cm with
a constant velocity. Calculate the work done by the porter in lowering the suitcase. (take g = 9. 8 ms
−2
)
22 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) −62720. 0 J (2) −627. 2 J
(3) +627. 2 J (4) 784. 0 J

Q76. If the kinetic energy of a moving body becomes four times its initial kinetic energy, then the percentage change
in its momentum will be: 20 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 100% (2) 200%
(3) 300% (4) 400%

Q77. A ball of mass 4 kg , moving with a velocity of 10 m s , collides with a spring of length 8 m and force
−1

constant 100 N m . The length of the compressed spring is x m. The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___
−1

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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. 18 Mar 2021 (E)

Q78. A constant power delivering machine has towed a box, which was initially at rest, along a horizontal straight
line. The distance moved by the box in time t is proportional to :- 18 Mar 2021 (M)
2 3

(1) t 3
(2) t 2

(3) t (4) t
1

Q79. As shown in the figure, a particle of mass 10 kg is placed at a point A. When the
particle is slightly displaced to its right, it starts moving and reaches the point B.

The speed of the particle at B is x m s . (Take g = 10 m s −1 −2

) The value of x to the
nearest integer is
18 Mar 2021 (M)

Q80. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit under the central potential field, U (r) = −C

r
, where C is a
positive constant. The correct radius - velocity graph of the particle's motion is : 18 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q81. A boy is rolling a 0. 5 kg ball on the frictionless floor with the speed of 20 m s −1
. The ball gets deflected by
an obstacle on the way. After deflection it moves with 5% of its initial kinetic energy. What is the speed of the
ball now? 17 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 19. 0 m s −1
(2) 4. 4 m s −1

(3) 14. 41 m s −1
(4) 1. 00 m s −1

Q82. Two particles having masses 4 g and 16 g respectively are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the
magnitudes of their linear momentum is n : 2. The value of n will be ___. 25 Feb 2021 (E)

Q83. The potential energy (U ) of a diatomic molecule is a function dependent on r (interatomic distance) as
U =
α

r
10
−
β

r
5
− 3 where, α and β are positive constants. The equilibrium distance between two atoms will be
a

(
2α
)
b

, where a =______ . 25 Feb 2021 (M)

β

Q84. A small bob tied at one end of a thin string of length 1 m is describing a vertical circle so that the maximum
and minimum tension in the string is in the ratio 5 : 1. The velocity of the bob at the highest position
is ______ m s . (Take g = 10 m s ) −1 −2
25 Feb 2021 (M)

Q85. Two solids A and B of mass 1 kg and 2 kg respectively are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of
their kinetic energies (K. E. ) A
: (K. E. )
B
will be A

1
, so the value of A will be _________. 24 Feb 2021 (E)

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q86. If the potential energy between two molecules is given by U =

A

r
6
+
B

r
12
, then at equilibrium, separation
between molecules, and the potential energy are: 06 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) ( 1/6
(2) ( 1/6
2
B A B
) ,− ) ,0
2A 2B A
1

(3) ( 1/6
(4) (
2
2
2B A B 6 A
) , ) ,
A 4B 2A 2B

Q87. A body of mass 2 kg is driven by an engine delivering a constant power of 1 J s . the body starts from rest −1

and moves in a straight line. After 9 s, the body has moved a distance (in m)…. 05 Sep 2020 (E)

Q88. A person pushes a box on a rough horizontal plateform surface. He applies a force of 200 N over a distance of
15 m . Thereafter, he gets progressively tired and his applied force reduces linearly with distance to 100 N . The
total distance through which the box has been moved is 30 m. What is the work done by the person during the
total movement of the box? 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 3280 J (2) 2780 J
(3) 5690 J (4) 5250 J

Q89. A particle of charge q and mass m is subjected to an electric field E = E 0 (1–ax )

2
in the x−direction, where a
and E are constants. Initially the particle was at rest at x = 0. Other than the initial position the kinetic energy
0

of the particle becomes zero when the distance of the particle from the origin is : 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) a (2) √ 2

(3) √ 3 (4) √ 1

a a

Q90. A cricket ball of mass 0. 15 kg is thrown vertically up by a bowling machine so that it rises to a maximum
height of 20 m after leaving the machine. If the part pushing the ball applies a constant force F on the ball
applies a constant force F on the ball and moves horizontally a distance of 0. 2 m while launching the ball, the
value of F (in N) is (g = 10 m s −2
) 03 Sep 2020 (M)

Q91. Hydrogen ion and singly ionized helium atom are accelerated, from rest, through the same potential difference.
The ratio of final speeds of hydrogen and helium ions is close to: 03 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 10 : 7
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 5 : 7

Q92. In a reactor, 2 kg of U
92
235
fuel is fully used up in 30 days. The energy released fission is 200 MeV . Given
that the Avogadro number, N = 6. 023 × 10 26
per kilo mole and 1 eV = 1. 6 × 10 −19
. The power output of
J

the reactor is close to: 02 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) 35 MW (2) 60 MW

(3) 125 MW (4) 54 MW

Q93. A small block starts slipping down from a point B on an inclined plane AB , which is
making an angle θ with the horizontal section BC is smooth and the remaining section
CA is rough with a coefficient of friction μ. It is found that the block comes to rest as it
reaches the bottom (point A) of the inclined plane. If BC = 2AC , the coefficient of
friction is given by μ = k tanθ. The value of k is .......
02 Sep 2020 (M)

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q94. Consider a force →

ˆ ˆ
F = −xi + yj . The work done by this force in moving a particle
from point A(1,0) to B(0,1) along the line segment is: (all quantities are in SI units)

09 Jan 2020 (M)

(1) 2 (2) 1

(3) 1 (4) 3

Q95. A particle (m = 1kg) slides down a frictionless track (AOC) starting from rest at a point A
(height 2m ). After reaching C, the particle continues to move freely in air as a projectile.
When it reaching its highest point P (height 1m ), the kinetic energy of the particle (in J ) is:
(Figure drawn is schematic and not to scale; take g = 10ms ) _______. −2

07 Jan 2020 (M)

Q96. A 60HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If the frictional
force on the elevator is 4000 N, the speed of the elevator at full load is close to :
(1 HP = 746 W, g = 10 m s
−2
) 07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 1.7 m s −1
(2) 1.9 m s −1

(3) 1.5 m s −1
(4) 2.0 m s −1

Q97. A uniform cable of mass M and length L is placed on a horizontal surface such that its (
th
1

n
) part is hanging
below the edge of the surface. To lift the hanging part of the cable upto the surface, the work done should be:
09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) M gL

2n
2
(2) M gL

n
2

(3) nM gL (4) 2M gL

n
2

Q98. A wedge of mass M = 4m lies on a frictionless plane. A particle of mass m approaches the wedge with speed
v. There is no friction between the particle and the plane or between the particle and the wedge. The maximum
height climbed by the particle on the wedge is given by: 09 Apr 2019 (E)
2 2

(1) v

g
(2) v

2g

(3) (4)
2 2
2v 2v

5g 7g

Q99. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that
varies with the distance traveled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic
energy of the particle after it has traveled 3 m is:

08 Apr 2019 (M)

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 4 J (2) 2.5 J (3) 6.5 J (4) 5 J

Q100. A particle of mass 20 g is released with an initial velocity 5 m s
−1
along the
curve from the point A, as shown in the figure. The point A is at height h from
point B. The particle slides along the frictionless surface. When the particle
reaches point B, its angular momentum about O will be: (Take g = 10 m s ) −2

12 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 3 kg m
2
s
−1
(2) 2 kg m
2
s
−1

(3) 6 kg m
2
s
−1
(4) 8 kg m
2
s
−1

Q101. A particle which is experiencing a force, given by → ˆ ˆ

→
F = 3i − 12j, undergoes a displacement of d = 4i. If the
ˆ

particle had a kinetic energy of 3 J at the beginning of the displacement, what is its kinetic energy at the end
of the displacement?
10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 9 J. (2) 15 J.
(3) 12 J. (4) 10 J.

Q102. A force acts on a 2 kg object so that its position is given as a function of time as x = 3t 2
+ 5. What is the
work done by this force in first 5 seconds? 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 875 J (2) 850 J
(3) 950 J (4) 900 J

Q103. A block of mass m, lying on a smooth horizontal surface, is attached to a spring (of
negligible mass) of spring constant k. The other end of the spring is fixed, as shown in the
figure. The block is initially at rest in its equilibrium position. If now the block is pulled
with a constant force F , the maximum speed of the block is:
09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) F

√ mk
(2) 2F

√ mk

(3) πF

√ mk
(4) F

π√ mk

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Work Power Energy JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

ANSWER KEYS
1. (4) 2. (58) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (2)
9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (6) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (3)
17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (2) 22. (30) 23. (2) 24. (3)
25. (1) 26. (784) 27. (32) 28. (48) 29. (245) 30. (30) 31. (375) 32. (1)
33. (40) 34. (132) 35. (67) 36. (7) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (300) 40. (2)
41. (40) 42. (100) 43. (24) 44. (1) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (2)
49. (2) 50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (5) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (1) 58. (600) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (120) 63. (3) 64. (1)
65. (16) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (40) 71. (2) 72. (2)
73. (4) 74. (450) 75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (6) 78. (2) 79. (10) 80. (1)
81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (5) 85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (18) 88. (4)
89. (3) 90. (150) 91. (3) 92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (10) 96. (2)
97. (1) 98. (3) 99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (4) 103. (1)

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q1. A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as
shown in figure. If the area of each stair is A

3
and the height is d, the capacitance of the
arrangement is :
09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 13ϵ o A

17d
(2) 11ϵ o A

18 d

(3) 18ϵ o A

11 d
(4) 11ϵ o A

20 d

Q2. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series across an ac supply. A dielectric is then placed between the plates
of the capacitor. The glow of the bulb: 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remains same (4) becomes zero

Q3. A capacitor has air as dielectric medium and two conducting plates of area 12 cm and they are 0.6 cm apart.2

When a slab of dielectric having area 12 cm and 0.6 cm thickness is inserted between the plates, one of the
2

conducting plates has to be moved by 0.2 cm to keep the capacitance same as in previous case. The dielectric
constant of the slab is : (Given ϵ 0 = 8.834 × 10
−12
F/m ) 08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 1 (2) 1.33
(3) 0.66 (4) 1.50

Q4. A capacitor of 10μF capacitance whose plates are separated by 10 mm through air and
each plate has area 4 cm
2
is now filled equally with two dielectric media of
K 1 = 2, K 2 = 3 respectively as shown in figure. If new force between the plates is 8 N .
The supply voltage is _________ ×10
−4
V . (we modified language of question to make
it correct)
06 Apr 2024 (E)

Q5. Three capacitors of capacitances 25μF, 30μF and 45μF are connected in parallel to a supply of 100 V. Energy
stored in the above combination is E. When these capacitors are connected in series to the same supply, the
stored energy is 9

x
. The value of x is _____.
E 05 Apr 2024 (M)

Q6. The electric field between the two parallel plates of a capacitor of 1.5μF capacitance drops to one third of its
initial value in 6.6μs when the plates are connected by a thin wire.
The resistance of this wire is _____Ω. (Given, log 3 = 1.1 ) 05 Apr 2024 (M)

Q7. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 12.5pF is charged by a battery connected between its plates to potential
difference of 12.0 V. The battery is now disconnected and a dielectric slab (ϵ r = 6) is inserted between the
plates. The change in its potential energy after inserting the dielectric slab is _____ 10 −12
.
J 04 Apr 2024 (E)

Q8. A galvanometer (G) of 2Ω resistance is connected in the given circuit. The ratio of charge stored in
C1 and C is: 2

01 Feb 2024 (E)

(1) 2

3
(2) 3

(3) 1 (4) 1

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q9. Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C . One of them is charged to the potential V and other to the
potential 2V . The negative ends of both are connected together. When the positive ends are also joined together,
the decrease in energy of the combined system is : 01 Feb 2024 (M)
(1) 1

4
CV
2
(2) 2CV 2

(3) 1

2
CV
2
(4) 3

4
CV
2

Q10. In an electrical circuit drawn below the amount of charge stored in the capacitor is _______
μC.

01 Feb 2024 (E)

Q11. A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5 mm is charged up by a battery. It is found that on introducing
a dielectric sheet of thickness 2 mm , while keeping the battery connections intact, the capacitor draws 25%
more charge from the battery than before. The dielectric constant of the sheet is ____. 31 Jan 2024 (M)

Q12. A capacitor of capacitance C and potential V has energy E. It is connected to another capacitor of capacitance
2C and potential 2V . Then the loss of energy is x

3
E , where x is _______. 30 Jan 2024 (M)

Q13. A capacitor of capacitance 100 μF is charged to a potential of 12 V and connected to a 6. 4 mH inductor to

produce oscillations. The maximum current in the circuit would be : 29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 3. 2 A (2) 1. 5 A
(3) 2. 0 A (4) 1. 2 A

Q14. A 16 Ω wire is bend to form a square loop. A 9 V battery with internal resistance 1 Ω is connected across one
of its sides. If a 4 μF capacitor is connected across one of its diagonals, the energy stored by the capacitor will
be x

2
μJ, where x =______. 29 Jan 2024 (M)

Q15. The charge accumulated on the capacitor connected in the

following circuit is ______μC.
(Given C = 150 μF)

27 Jan 2024 (M)

Q16. In the given figure the total charge stored in the combination of capacitors is 100 µC. The
value of ‘x’ is ______________.

15 Apr 2023 (M)

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q17. In the network shown below, the charge accumulated in the capacitor in steady state will
be:

13 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) 10. 3 μC (2) 4. 8 μC
(3) 12 μC (4) 7. 2μC

Q18. In the circuit shown, the energy stored in the capacitor is n μJ. The value
of n is _____.

13 Apr 2023 (E)

Q19. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V . The flux of the electric field through a closed surface
enclosing the positive plate of the capacitor is: 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) CV

ε0
(2) Zero
(3) 2 CV

ε0
(4) CV

2ε 0

Q20. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a potential V . The energy stored in the capacitor is
E1 . The capacitor is now connected to another uncharged identical capacitor in parallel combination. The
energy stored in the combination is E . The ratio 2
E2

E1
is 11 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4

Q21. In the given circuit.C 1 = 2μF, C 2 = 0. 2μF, C 3 = 2μF, C 4 = 4μF, C 5 =

2μF, C 6 = 2μF . The charge stored on capacitor C is ______ 4 μC .

11 Apr 2023 (E)

Q22. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given as

→ →
E = 20 sin ω(t −
x

c
)jN C
−1
, where ω and c are angular frequency and velocity of electromagnetic wave
respectively. The energy contained in a volume of 5 × 10 −4
m
3
will be
(Given ε 0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
) 11 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 88. 5 × 10 −13
J (2) 17. 7 × 10 −13
J

(3) 28. 5 × 10 −13

J (4) 8. 85 × 10 −13
J

Q23. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown is

10 Apr 2023 (M)

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 2 C (2) 5

3
C

(3) C

2
(4) 4 C

Q24. The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d and its capacitance is C , when air is the medium between
1

the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness 2d

3
and of the same area as plate is introduced between the plates, the
capacitance of the capacitor becomes C . The ratio 2
C2

C1
is 10 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

Q25. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to
another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. Electrostatic energy lost in the process is _____ μJ. 08 Apr 2023 (E)

Q26. As shown in the figure, two parallel plate capacitors having

equal plate area of 200 cm
2
are joined in such a way that a ≠ b.
The equivalent capacitance of the combination is xε 0 F . The
value of x is _____.

06 Apr 2023 (E)

Q27. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation
d is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = 4.

The thickness of the dielectric material is x, where x < d.

Let C and C be the capacitance of the system for x =
1 2
1

3
d and
x =
2d

3
, respectively. If C1 = 2 μF, the value of C2 is _____
μF.
06 Apr 2023 (M)

Q28. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Two metallic spheres are charged to the same potential. One of them is hollow and another is
solid, and both have the same radii. Solid sphere will have lower charge than the hollow one.
Reason R : Capacitance of metallic spheres depend on the radii of spheres.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
01 Feb 2023 (E)
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Q29. Two parallel plate capacitors C and C each having capacitance of 10 μF are individually charged by a 100 V
1 2

D.C. source. Capacitor C1 is kept connected to the source and a dielectric slab is inserted between it plates.
Capacitor C2 is disconnected from the source and then a dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards the

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

capacitor C1 is also disconnected from the source and the two capacitors are finally connected in parallel
combination. The common potential of the combination will be _____ V.
(Assuming Dielectric constant = 10)
31 Jan 2023 (E)

Q30. A capacitor of capacitance 900 µF is charged by a 100 V battery. The capacitor is disconnected from the
battery and connected to another uncharged identical capacitor such that one plate of uncharged capacitor
connected to positive plate and another plate of uncharged capacitor connected to negative plate of the charged
capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is measured as x × 10 −2
. The value of x is ______.
J

30 Jan 2023 (M)

Q31. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40 cm

2
and plates separation 2 . The space between the plates is
mm

filled with a dielectric medium of a thickness 1 mm and dielectric constant 5. The capacitance of the system
is: 25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 24ε 0 F (2) 3

10
ε0 F

(3) 10

3
ε0 F (4) 10ε 0 F

Q32. A capacitor has capacitance 5 µF when its parallel plates are separated by air medium of thickness d. A slab of
material of dielectric constant 1. 5 having area equal to that of plates but thickness d

2
is inserted between the
plates. Capacitance of the capacitor in the presence of slab will be ______ µF. 25 Jan 2023 (E)

Q33. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plate has a capacitance of 15 pF . The separation between the
plate becomes twice and the space between them is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 3. 5. Then the
capacitance becomes x

4
pF . The value of x is____. 24 Jan 2023 (E)

Q34. Two identical thin metal plates has charge q and q respectively such that q
1 2 1
> q2 . The plates were brought
close to each other to form a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C . The potential difference between them
is : 29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) (q 1 +q 2 )

C
(2) (q 1 −q 2 )

(3) (q 1 −q 2 )

2C
(4) 2(q 1 −q 2 )

Q35. Two capacitors, each having capacitance 40μF are connected in series. The space between one of the
capacitors is filled with dielectric material of dielectric constant K such that the equivalence capacitance of the
system became 24μF. The value of K will be : 28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 1. 5 (2) 2. 5
(3) 1. 2 (4) 3

Q36. A slab of dielectric constant K has the same crosssectional area as the plates of a parallel plate capacitor and
thickness 3

4
d, where d is the separation of the plates. The capacitance of the capacitor when the slab is inserted
between the plates will be :
(Given C 0 = capacitance of capacitor with air as medium between plates.) 28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 4KC 0

3+K
(2) 3KC 0

3+K

(3) 3+K

4KC 0
(4) K

4+K

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q37. A parallel plate capacitor with width 4 cm , length 8 cm and separation between the plates of 4 mm is
connected to a battery of 20 V. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5 having length 1 cm , width 4 cm and
thickness 4 mm is inserted between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. The electrostatic energy of this
system will be _____ ϵ 0 . (Where ϵ is the permittivity of free space)
J 0 27 Jul 2022 (E)

Q38. As show in the figure, in steady state, the charge stored in the capacitor is _____×10 −6
C.

27 Jul 2022 (E)

Q39. The total charge on the system of capacitance C 1 = 1 μF, C 2 = 2 μF, C 3 = 4 μF and C 4 = 3 μF connected in
parallel is
(Assume a battery of 20 V is connected to the combination) 26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 200μC (2) 200C
(3) 10μC (4) 10C

Q40. A composite parallel plate capacitor is made up of two different dielectric

materials with different thickness (t and 1 t2 ) as shown in figure. The two
different dielectric material are separated by a conducting foil F . The voltage
of the conducting foil is _____ V.
26 Jul 2022 (M)

Q41. A source of potential difference V is connected to the combination of two identical

capacitors as shown in the figure. When key K is closed, the total energy stored across the
combination is E . Now key K is opened and dielectric of dielectric constant 5 is introduced
1

between the plates of the capacitors. The total energy stored across the combination is now
E2 . The ratio E1

E2
will be
26 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 1

10
(2) 2

(3) 5

13
(4) 5

26

Q42. Capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of radius R becomes n times when it is enclosed by a
1

concentric conducting sphere of radius R connected to earth. The ratio of their radii (
2
R2

R1
) is: 25 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) n

n−1
(2) 2n+1
2n

(3) n+1

n
(4) 2n+1

Q43. A condenser of 2 μF capacitance is charged steadily from 0 to 5 C. Which of the following graph represents
correctly the variation of potential difference(V ) across its plates with respect to the charge (Q) on the
condenser? 25 Jul 2022 (M)

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q44. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity C and 3C are connected in parallel combination and charged to a
potential difference 18 V. The battery is then disconnected and the space between the plates of the capacitor of
capacity C is completely filled with a material of dielectric constant 9. The final potential difference across the
combination of capacitors will be _____ V. 25 Jul 2022 (E)

Q45. The displacement current of 4. 425 μA is developed in the space between the plates of parallel plate capacitor
when voltage is changing at a rate of 10 6
V s
−1
. The area of each plate of the capacitor is 40 cm
2
. The
distance between each plate of the capacitor is x × 10 −3
m . The value of x is, (Permittivity of free space,
ε 0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
) _______ 29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q46. A parallel plate capacitor filled with a medium of dielectric constant 10, is connected across a battery and is
charged. The dielectric slab is replaced by another slab of dielectric constant 15. Then the energy of capacitor
will 29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) increase by 50% (2) decrease by 15%
(3) increase by 25% (4) increase by 33%

Q47. A capacitor is discharging through a resistor R. Consider in time t , the energy stored in the capacitor reduces
1

to half of its initial value and in time t , the charge stored reduces to one eighth of its initial value. The ratio
2
t1

t2

will be 29 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) 1

2
(2) 1

(3) 1

4
(4) 1

Q48. A capacitor C1 of capacitance 5 μF is charged to a potential of 30 V using a battery. The

battery is then removed and the charged capacitor is connected to an uncharged capacitor
C2 of capacitance 10 μF as shown in figure. When the switch is closed charge flows
between the capacitors. At equilibrium, the charge on the capacitor C is _____ μC. 2

28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q49. A capacitor of capacitance 50 pF is charged by 100 V source. It is then connected to another uncharged
identical capacitor. Electrostatic energy loss in the process is____ nJ. 27 Jun 2022 (M)

Q50. A parallel plate capacitor is made up of stair like structure with a plate area A of each stair and
that is connected with a wire of length b, as shown in the figure. The capacitance of the
arrangement is x

15
ε0 A

b
, The value of x is _____ .

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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27 Jun 2022 (E)

Q51. A force of 10 N acts on a charged particle placed between two plates of a charged capacitor. If one plate of
capacitor is removed, then the force acting on that particle will be. 27 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 5 N (2) 10 N
(3) 20 N (4) Zero

Q52. The charge on capacitor of capacitance 15μF in the figure given below is

26 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) 60 μC (2) 130 μC
(3) 260 μC (4) 585 μC

Q53. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d = 2 m has a capacitance
of 4 μF. The new capacitance of the system if half of the space between them is filled with
a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = 3 (as shown in figure) will be

26 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) 2 μF (2) 32 μF
(3) 6 μF (4) 8 μF

Q54. Two capacitors having capacitance C1 and C2 respectively are connected as shown in
figure. Initially, capacitor C1 is charged to a potential difference V volt by a battery. The
battery is then removed and the charged capacitor C1 is now connected to uncharged
capacitor C2 by closing the switch S . The amount of charge on the capacitor C2 , after
equilibrium, is
26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) C1 C2

(C 1 +C 2 )
V (2) (C 1 +C 2 )

C1 C2
V

(3) (C 1
+ C 2 )V (4) (C 1
− C 2 )V

Q55. The equivalent capacitance between points A and B in below shown figure
will be _____ μF.
25 Jun 2022 (M)

Q56. Two metallic plates form a parallel plate capacitor. The distance between the plate is 'd'. A
metal sheet of thickness d

2
and of area equal to area of each plate is introduced between the
plates. What will be the ratio of the new capacitance to the original capacitance of the
capacitor?

25 Jun 2022 (E)

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

Q57. A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates each of area 30π cm
2
separated by 1 mm. A material of
dielectric strength 3. 6 × 10
7
V m
−1
is filled between the plates. If the maximum charge that can be stored on
the capacitor without causing any dielectric breakdown is 7 × 10
−6
, the value of dielectric constant of the
C

material is: [Use 1

4πε o
= 9 × 10
9
N m
2
C
−2
]
24 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 1. 66 (2) 1. 75
(3) 2. 25 (4) 2. 33

Q58. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2C , the energy stored in it increases by 44%. The original charge
on the capacitor is (in C ) 24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 30 (4) 40

Q59. A capacitor is connected to a 20 V battery through a resistance of 10Ω. It is found that the potential difference
across the capacitor rises to 2 V in 1 μs. The capacitance of the capacitor is ________ μF. Given In
(
10

9
) = 0. 105 01 Sep 2021 (E)
(1) 0. 95 (2) 9. 52
(3) 1. 85 (4) 0. 105

Q60. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 200μF is connected to a battery of 200 V. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant 2 is now inserted into the space between plates of capacitor while the battery remain
connected. The change in the electrostatic energy in the capacitor will be __________ J. 31 Aug 2021 (E)

Q61. A capacitor of 50μF is connected in a circuit as shown in figure. The charge on

the upper plate of the capacitor is _________ μC.

31 Aug 2021 (M)

Q62. Calculate the amount of charge on capacitor of 4 μF. The internal resistance of battery is
1Ω :

27 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) 4 μC (2) 8 μC
(3) 16 μC (4) zero

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q63. Three capacitors C 1 = 2 μF, C 2 = 6 μF and C 3 = 12 μF are connected as shown in

the figure. Find the ratio of the charges on capacitors C 1, C2 and C respectively.
3

27 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) 3 : 4 : 4 (2) 2 : 3 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 2

Q64. The material filled between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor has resistivity 200 Ω m. The value of
capacitance of the capacitor is 2 pF . If a potential difference of 40 V is applied across the plates of the
capacitor, then the value of leakage current flowing out of the capacitor is: (given the value of relative
permittivity of material is 50)
26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 0.9 mA (2) 9.0 mA

(3) 9.0 μA (4) 0.9 μA

Q65. A parallel-plate capacitor with plate area A has separation d between the plates. Two
dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K1 and K2 of same area A

2
and thickness d

2
are
inserted in the space between the plates. The capacitance of the capacitor will be given
by :

26 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) ε0 A

d
(
1

2
+
K1 K 2

K 1 +K 2
) (2) ε0 A

d
(
1

2
+
2( K 1 +K 2 )

K1 K 2
)

(3) ε0 A

d
(
1

2
+
K 1 +K 2

K1 K2
) (4) ε0 A

d
(
1

2
+
K1 K 2

2( K 1 +K 2 )
)

Q66. Two capacitors of capacities 2C and C are joined in parallel and charged up to potential V . The battery is
removed and the capacitor of capacity C is filled completely with a medium of dielectric constant K. The
potential difference across the capacitors will now be: 27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) V

K+2
(2) V

(3) 3V

K+2
(4) 3V

Q67. A capacitor of capacitance C = 1 μF is suddenly connected to a battery of 100 V

through a resistance R = 100 Ω. The time taken for the capacitor to be charged to
get 50 V is:
(Take ln 2 = 0. 69)
27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 1. 44 × 10 −4
s (2) 3. 33 × 10 −4
s

(3) 0. 69 × 10 −4
s (4) 0. 30 × 10 −4
s

Q68. In the reported figure, a capacitor is formed by placing a compound dielectric between the plates
of parallel plate capacitor. The expression for the capacity of the said capacitor will be: (Given
the area of the plate = A )

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27 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) 15

34
Kε 0 A

d
(2) 15

6
Kε 0 A

(3) 25

6
Kε 0 A

d
(4) 9

6
Kε 0 A

Q69. If qf is the free charge on the capacitor plates and qb is the bound charge on the dielectric slab of dielectric
constant k placed between the capacitor plates, then bound charge q can be expressed as : b

25 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) q b
= q f (1 −
1
) (2) q b
= q i (1 −
1

k
)
√k

(3) q b = q f (1 +
1
) (4) q b = q f (1 +
1

k
)
√k

Q70. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area 'A' and distance of separation 'd' is filled with a dielectric. What is the
capacity of the capacitor when permittivity of the dielectric varies as:
(i) ε(x) = ε 0 + kx , for (0 < x ≤ d

2
)

(ii) ε(x) = ε 0 + k(d − x) , for ( d

2
≤ x ≤ d)

25 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) (ε 0 +
kd

2
)
2/kA
(2) kA
2ε
0
+kd
2ln( )
2ε
0

(3) 0 (4) kA

2
ln(
2ε 0

2ε 0 −kd
)

Q71. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 100 m and plate separation of 10 m. The space between the plates is
2

filled up to a thickness 5 m with a material of dielectric constant of 10 . The resultant capacitance of the
system is x pF. The value of ε 0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12
F m
−1
. The value of x to the nearest integer is ______.
18 Mar 2021 (M)

Q72. A 2μF capacitor C1 is first charged to a potential difference of 10 V using a battery.

Then the battery is removed and the capacitor is connected to an uncharged capacitor
C2 of 8μF . The charge in C2 on equilibrium condition is μC . (Round off to the
Nearest Integer)
17 Mar 2021 (E)

Q73. Four identical rectangular plates with length, l = 2 cm and breadth, b =

3

2
cm are
arranged as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance between A and C is xε 0

d
. The
value of x is _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

17 Mar 2021 (M)

Q74. A parallel plate capacitor whose capacitance C is 14 pF is charged by a battery to a potential difference
V = 12 V between its plates. The charging battery is now disconnected and a porcelain plate with k = 7 is
inserted between the plates, then the plate would oscillate back and forth between the plates with a constant
mechanical energy of _______ pJ.
(Assume no friction)
17 Mar 2021 (M)

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Q75. For changing the capacitance of a given paralle plate capacitor, a dielectric material of dielectric constant K is
used, which has the same area as the plates of the capacitor. The thickness of the dielectric slab is 3

4
, where d
d

is the separation between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. The new capacitance C in terms of original ′

capacitance C is given by the following relation :

0 16 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) C ′
=
3+K

4K
C0 (2) C ′
=
4+K

3
C0

(3) C ′
=
4K

K+3
C0 (4) C ′
=
3+K
4
C0

Q76. In a parallel plate capacitor set up, the plate area of capacitor is 2 m and the plates are separated by
2

1 m . If the space between the plates are filled with a dielectric material of thickness 0. 5 m and are
2 m
2
(see figure) the capacitance of the set-up will be ε0 ________. (Dielectric constant of the
material = 3. 2) (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

16 Mar 2021 (E)

Q77. Consider the combination of two capacitors C and C , with C 1 2 2 > C1 , when connected in parallel, the
equivalent capacitance is 10 times the equivalent capacitance of the same connected in series. Calculate the
ratio of capacitors, C2

C1
. 26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 4 + √15 (2) 2 + √15
(3) 9 (4) 15

Q78. Two equal capacitors are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of the equivalent capacities in
the two cases will be: 24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

Q79. Suppose that intensity of a laser is ( 315

π
) W m
−2
. The rms electric field, in units of V m −1
associated with this
source is close to the nearest integer is −(ε 0
= 8. 86 × 10
−12
C
2
N m
−2
; c = 3 × 10
8
m s
−1
)

06 Sep 2020 (M)

Q80. For the given input voltage waveform V in (t), the output voltage
waveform V 0 (t), across the capacitor is correctly depicted by :

06 Sep 2020 (M)

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q81. Two capacitors of capacitances C and 2C are charged to potential differences V and 2V , respectively. These
are then connected in parallel in such a manner that the positive terminal of one is connected to the negative
terminal of the other. The final energy of this configuration is : 05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 25

6
CV
2
(2) 3

2
CV
2

(3) zero (4) 9

2
CV
2

Q82. In the circuit shown, charge on the 5μF capacitor is :

05 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 18. 00μC (2) 10. 90μC
(3) 16. 36μC (4) 5. 45μC

Q83. A parallel plate capacitor has plate of length l, width w and separation of plates is d. It is connected to a battery
of emf V . A dielectric slab of the same thickness d and of dielectric constant K = 4 is being inserted between
the plates of the capacitor. At what length of the slab inside plates, will the energy stored in the capacitor be
two times the initial energy stored? 05 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 2l

3
(2) l

(3) l

4
(4) l

Q84. A capacitor C is fully charged with voltage V . After disconnecting the voltage source, it is connected in
0

parallel with another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C

2
. The energy loss in the process after the charge is
distributed between the two capacitors is : 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 1

2
CV
2
0
(2) 1

3
CV
2
0

(3) 1

4
CV
2
0
(4) 1

6
CV
2
0

Q85. In the circuit shown in the figure, the total charge is 750 μC and the voltage across capacitor C 2

is 20 V. Then the charge on capacitor C is :2

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03 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) 450 μC (2) 590 μC
(3) 160 μC (4) 650 μC

Q86. A 10 μF capacitor is fully charged to a potential difference of 50 V After removing the source voltage it is
connected to an uncharged capacitor in parallel. Now the potential difference across them becomes 20 V. The
capacitance of the second capacitor is : 02 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 15 μF (2) 30 μF
(3) 20 μF (4) 10 μF

Q87. A 5 μF capacitor is charged fully by a 220 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected
in series to another uncharged 2. 5 μF capacitor. If the energy change during the charge redistribution is X

100
J

then value of X to the nearest integer is : 02 Sep 2020 (M)

Q88. Effective capacitance of parallel combination of two capacitors C and C is 10μF. When these capacitors are
1 2

individually connected to a voltage source of 1V, the energy stored in the capacitor C is 4 times that of C . If
2 1

these capacitors are connected in series, their effective capacitance will be: 08 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 4.2μF (2) 3.2μF
(3) 1.6μF (4) 8.4μF

Q89. A capacitor is made of two square plates each of side ‘ a ’ making a very
small angle α between them, as shown in figure. The capacitance will be
close to:

08 Jan 2020 (E)

2 2

(1) ∈0 a

d
(1 −
αa

2d
) (2) ∈0 a

d
(1 −
αa

4d
)

(3) (4)
2 2
∈0 a αa ∈0 a 3αa
(1 + ) (1 − )
d d d 2d

Q90. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area A separated by distance d between them. It is filled with a
dielectric which has a dielectric constant that varies as K(x) = K 0 (1 + αx) where x is the distance
measured from one of the plates. If (αd) << 1, the total capacitance of the system is best given by the
expression:
07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) AK 0 ε 0

d
(1 +
αd

2
) (2) AK 0 ε 0

d
[1 + (
αd

2
2
) ]

(3) AK 0 ε 0

d
(1 +
α d
2

2
2

) (4) AK 0 ε 0

d
(1 + αd)

Q91. A 60pF capacitor is fully charged by a 20V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to
another uncharged 60pF capacitor in parallel. The electrostatic energy that is lost in this process by the time
the charge is redistributed between them is (in nJ ) ____ 07 Jan 2020 (E)

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Q92. In the given circuit, the charge on 4 μF capacitor will be:

12 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 9.6 μC (2) 5.4 μC
(3) 24 μC (4) 13.4 μC

Q93. Two identical parallel plate capacitors, of capacitance C each, have plates of area A, separated by a distance d
. The space between the plates of the two capacitors, is filled with three dielectrics, of equal thickness and
dielectric constants K1 , K2 and K3 . The first capaciitor is filled as shown in figure I, and the second one is
filled as shown in figure II.
If these two modified capacitors are charged by the same potential V, the ratio of the energy stored in the two,
would be (E refers to capacitor (I) and E to capacitor (II) ):
1 2

12 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) E1

E2
=
9K 1 K 2 K 3

(K 1 K 2 K 3 )(K 2 K 3 + K 3 K 1 K 1 +K 1 K 2 )
(2) E1

E2
=
(K 1 K 2 K 3 )(K 2 K 3 + K 3 K 1 K 1 +K 1 K 2 )

K1 K2 K3

(3) E1

E2
=
(K 1 K 2 K 3 )(K 2 K 3 + K 3 K 1 K 1 +K 1 K 2 )

9K 1 K 2 K 3
(4) E1

E2
=
K1 K2 K3

(K 1 K 2 K 3 )(K 2 K 3 + K 3 K 1 K 1 +K 1 K 2 )

Q94. Figure shows charge (q) versus voltage (V) graph for series and parallel combination of two
given capacitors. The capacitances are:

10 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) 60 μF and 40 μF (2) 50 μF and 30 μF
(3) 20 μF and 30 μF (4) 40 μF and 10 μF

Q95. A capacitor with capacitance 5 μF is charged to 5 μC . If the plates are pulled apart to reduce the capacitance
to 2 μF, how much work is done? 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 6.25 × 10 –6
J (2) 2.55 × 10 –6
J

(3) 2.16 × 10 –6
J (4) 3.75 × 10 –6
J

Q96. The parallel combination of two air filled parallel plate capacitors of capacitance C and nC is connected to a
battery of voltage, V . When the capacitors are fully charged, the battery is removed and after that a dielectric
material of dielectric constant K is placed the two plates of the first capacitor. The new potential difference of
the combined system is: 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) (n+1)V

(K+n)
(2) nV

K+n

(3) V

K+n
(4) V

Q97. A parallel plate capacitor has 1μF capacitance. One of its two plates is given +2μC charge and the other plate,
+4 μC charge. The potential difference developed across the capacitor is: 08 Apr 2019 (E)

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 1 V (2) 2 V
(3) 3 V (4) 5 V

Q98. Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its dielectric can withstand a maximum electric field of
6
10 V/m. The plate area is 10 −4
m
2
. What is the dielectric constant if the capacitance is 15 pF?
(given ϵ 0 = 8.86 × 10
−12 2
C /Nm )
2
08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 3.8 (2) 8.5
(3) 4.5 (4) 6.2

Q99. The charge on a capacitor plate in a circuit, as a function of time, is shown in the
figure:
What is the value of current at t = 4 s?

12 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 1.5 μA (2) 2μA
(3) Zero (4) 3μA

Q100. In the circuit shown, find C if the effective capacitance of the whole circuit is to be
0.5 μF . All values in the circuit are in μF .

12 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 7

10
μF (2) 4μF
(3) 7

11
μF (4) 6

5
μF

Q101. The figure shows a capacitor of capacitance C connected to a battery via a switch, having a
total charge Q on it, in steady-state. When the switch S is turned from position A to position
B , the energy dissipated in the circuit is

12 Jan 2019 (M)

2 2

(1) 1

8
Q

C
(2) 3

8
Q

(3) (4)
2 2
3 Q 5 Q

4 C 8 C

Q102. In the figure shown below, the charge on the left plate of the
10F capacitor is -30C. The charge on the right plate of the 6F
capacitor is:
11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) −12μC (2) +12μC
(3) −18μC (4) +18μC

Q103. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2μF, are to be connected in a configuration to obtain an effective
capacitance of ( 6

13
)μF. Which of the combinations, shown in figures below, will achieve the desired value?
11 Jan 2019 (E)

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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q104. A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance 12 pF is charged by a battery to a potential difference of 10 V
between its plates. The charging battery is now disconnected and a porcelain slab of dielectric constant 6.5 is
slipped between the plates. The work done by the capacitor on the slab is 10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 560 pJ (2) 600 pJ

(3) 508 pJ (4) 692 pJ

Q105. A parallel plate capacitor is of area 6 cm

2
and a separation 3 mm. The gap is
filled with three dielectric materials of equal thickness (see figure) with dielectric
constant K 1 = 10, K 2 = 12 and K 3 = 14. The dielectric constant of a material
which when fully inserted in above capacitor, gives same capacitance would be:
10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 4 (2) 36
(3) 14 (4) 12

Q106. A parallel plate capacitor with square plates is filled with four dielectrics of
dielectric constants K1 , K2 , K3 , K4 arranged as shown in the figure. The effective
dielectric constant K will be:

09 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) K = (
K1 K2

K 1 +K 2
+
K 3 .K 4

K 3 +K 4
) (2) K =
(K 1 +K 2 )(K 3 +K 4 )

2(K 1 +K 2 +K 3 +K 4 )

(3) K =
(K 1 +K 4 )(K 2 +K 3 )

2(K 1 +K 2 +K 3 +K 4 )
(4) K =
(K 1 +K 2 )(K 3 +K 4 )

K 1 +K 2 +K 3 +K 4

Q107. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two square plates of side a, separated by a distance
d (d ≪ a). The lower triangular portion filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K, as
shown in the figure. Capacitance of this capacitor is:
09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) (2)
2 2
Kε 0 a Kε 0 a
ln K
2d(K+1) d(K−1)

(3) (4)
2 2
Kε 0 a 1 Kε 0 a
ln K
d 2 d

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Capacitance JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

ANSWER KEYS
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (93) 5. (86) 6. (4) 7. (750) 8. (4)
9. (1) 10. (60) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (81) 15. (400) 16. (5)
17. (4) 18. (75) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (1)
25. (6) 26. (5) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (55) 30. (225) 31. (3) 32. (6)
33. (105) 34. (3) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37. (240) 38. (10) 39. (1) 40. (60)
41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (1) 44. (6) 45. (8) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (100)
49. (125) 50. (23) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (6) 56. (2)
57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (4) 61. (100) 62. (2) 63. (4) 64. (1)
65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (2) 71. (161) 72. (16)
73. (2) 74. (864) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (275) 80. (1)
81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (4) 85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (3)
89. (1) 90. (1) 91. (6) 92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (4) 95. (4) 96. (1)
97. (1) 98. (2) 99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (4) 103. (2) 104. (3)
105. (4) 106. (1) 107. (2)

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q1. The energy equivalent of 1 g of substance is : 09 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) 5.6 × 10 12
MeV (2) 5.6 × 10 26
MeV

(3) 11.2 × 10 24
MeV (4) 5.6eV

Q2. A nucleus at rest disintegrates into two smaller nuclei with their masses in the ratio of 2 : 1. After disintegration
they will move : 09 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) in the same direction with same speed.
(2) in opposite directions with the same speed.
(3) in opposite directions with speed in the ratio of 2 : 1 respectively.
(4) in opposite directions with speed in the ratio of 1 : 2 respectively.

Q3. The energy released in the fusion of 2 kg of hydrogen deep in the sun is E and the energy released in the H

fission of 2 kg of 235
U is E . The ratio
U
EH

EU
is approximately:
(Consider the fusion reaction as 4 ∣ H + 2e −
→
4
2
He + 2v + 6γ + 26.7MeV , energy released in the fission
reaction of 235
U is 200MeV per fission nucleus and N A = 6.023 × 10
23
) 09 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 7.62 (2) 25.6
(3) 15.04 (4) 9.13

Q4. A star has 100% helium composition. It starts to convert three 4

He into one 12
C via triple alpha process as
4
He +
4
He +
4
He →
12
C + Q . The mass of the star is 2.0 × 10 32
kg and it generates energy at the rate of
5.808 × 10
30
W . The rate of converting these 4
He to 12
C is n × 10 42
s
−1
, where n is ______. [Take, mass of
4
He = 4.0026u , mass of 12
C = 12u ] 09 Apr 2024 (M)

Q5. Binding energy of a certain nucleus is 18 × 10 8

J. How much is the difference between total mass of all the
nucleons and nuclear mass of the given nucleus: 08 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 10μg (2) 20μg
(3) 0.2μg (4) 2μg

Q6. If M is the mass of isotope

o
12
5
B, M P and M are the masses of proton and neutron, then nuclear binding
n

energy of isotope is : 08 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) (M o − 5M p )C
2
(2) (5M p + 7M n − M o )C
2

(3) (M 0 − 12M n )C
2
(4) (M o − 5M p − 7M n )C
2

Q7. In a hypothetical fission reaction 92 X

236
→ 56 Y
141
+ 36 Z
92
+ 3R . The identity of emitted particles ( R) is :
08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) Electron (2) Neutron
(3) γ-radiations (4) Proton

Q8. If three helium nuclei combine to form a carbon nucleus then the energy released in this reaction is __
×10
−2
MeV . (Given 1u = 931MeV/c , atomic mass of helium = 4.002603u)
2
05 Apr 2024 (M)

Q9. Which of the following nuclear fragments corresponding to nuclear fission between neutron ( 1
0
n) and uranium
isotope ( 235
92
U) is correct : 04 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 144
56
Ba +
89
36
Kr + 4 n
1
0
(2) 144
56
Ba +
89
36
Kr + 3 n
1
0

(3) 140
56
Xe +
94
38
Sr + 3 n
1
0
(4) 153
51
Sb +
99
41
Nb + 3 n
1
0

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q10. The disintegration energy Q for the nuclear fission of 235

U →
140
Ce +
94
Zr + n is ______ MeV.
Given atomic masses of 235
U : 235.0439u;
140
Ce : 139.9054u ,
94
Zr : 93.9063u; n : 1.0086u,

Value of c 2
= 931MeV/u 04 Apr 2024 (E)

Q11. The radius of a nucleus of mass number 64 is 4. 8 fermi. Then the mass number of another nucleus having
radius of 4 fermi is 1000

x
, where x is _________. 01 Feb 2024 (M)

Q12. From the statements given below :

(A) The angular momentum of an electron in n th
orbit is an integral multiple of h.
(B) Nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law.
(C) Nuclear forces are spin dependent.
(D) Nuclear forces are central and charge independent.
(E) Stability of nucleus is inversely proportional to the value of packing fraction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only (2) (A), (C), (D), (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only (4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

Q13. The mass number of nucleus having radius equal to half of the radius of nucleus with mass number 192 is:
31 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 24 (2) 32
(3) 40 (4) 20

Q14. A nucleus has mass number A and volume V . Another nucleus has mass number A and volume V . If
1 1 2 2

relation between mass number is A 2 = 4A 1 , then V2

V1
= _______. 31 Jan 2024 (E)

Q15. In a nuclear fission reaction of an isotope of mass M , three similar daughter nuclei of same mass are formed.
The speed of a daughter nuclei in terms of mass defect ΔM will be : 30 Jan 2024 (E)
2

(1) √ 2cΔM (2) ΔM c

3
M

(3) c√ 2ΔM (4) c√ 3ΔM

M M

Q16. The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of 1

H ,
2
H
1
3
and 3
Li
6
in some condensed form. The chain
reaction is given by 3
Li
6
+ n
0
1
→ He
2
4
+ H
1
3
; 1
H
2
+
1
H
3
→
2
He
4
+
0
n
1

During the explosion the energy released is approximately [Given :

2
M (Li) = 6. 01690 amu, M ( H ) = 2. 01471 amu, M ( He ) = 4. 00388 amu
1 2
4
and 1 amu = 931. 5 MeV ]
29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 28. 12 MeV (2) 12. 64 MeV
(3) 16. 48 MeV (4) 22. 22 MeV

Q17. In a nuclear fission process, a high mass nuclide (A ≈ 236) with binding energy 7. 6 MeV / Nucleon
dissociated into two middle mass nuclides (A ≈ 118), having binding energy of 8. 6 MeV / Nucleon. The
energy released in the process would be _______ MeV. 27 Jan 2024 (M)

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q18. The atomic mass of 6

C
12
is 12. 000000 u and that of 6
C
13
is 13. 003354 u. The required energy to remove a
neutron from 6
C
13
, if mass of neutron is 1. 008665 u, will be: 27 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 62. 5 MeV (2) 6. 25 MeV
(3) 4. 95 MeV (4) 49. 5 MeV

Q19*. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 5 years. The fraction of the original sample that would decay in 15
years is : 15 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 1

8
(2) 1

(3) 7

8
(4) 3

Q20. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of
mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below 13 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) A is false but R is true

(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false.
Q21. 238
92
A →
234
90
B +
4
2
D + Q

In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate amount of energy released will be:
[Given, mass of 238
92
A = 238. 05079 × 931. 5 MeV c
−2
, mass of 234
90
B = 234. 04363 × 931. 5 MeV c
−2
, mass
of 4
D = 4. 00260 × 931. 5 Me V c
2
−2
S] 13 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 3. 82 MeV (2) 5. 9 MeV
(3) 2. 12 MeV (4) 4. 25 MeV

Q22. A common example of alpha decay is 238

92
U →
234
90
Th + 2 He
4
+ Q

Given: 238
92
U = 238. 05060 u ; 234
90
Th = 234. 04360 u ; 4
2
He = 4. 00260 u and 1u = 931. 5 MeV

c
2

The energy released (Q) during the alpha decay of 238

92 U is _____ MeV. 12 Apr 2023 (M)

Q23*. Two radioactive elements A and B initially have same number of atoms. The half life of A is same as the
average life of B. If λ and λ are decay constants of A and B respectively, then choose the correct relation
A B

from the given options. 11 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) λ A
ln 2 = λ B (2) λ A
= λB

(3) λ A
= λ B ln 2 (4) λ A
= 2λ B

Q24*. The half life of a radioactive substance is T . The time taken, for disintegrating ( 7

8
)
th
part of its original mass
will be: 10 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 2T (2) 3T
(3) T (4) 8T

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q25*. The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is 1. 5 × 10 −5

s
−1
. Atomic weight of the substance is
60 g mole
−1
,N A = 6 × 10
23
. The activity of 1. 0 µg of the substance is ________ ×10 10
Bq .
10 Apr 2023 (M)

Q26*. A radio active material is reduced to 1

8
of its original amount in 3 days. If 8 × 10 −3
kg of the material is left
after 5 days the initial amount of the material is 08 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 40 g (2) 32 g
(3) 64 g (4) 256 g

Q27. A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding energy per nucleon as 7. 6 MeV breaks into two fragment each
with mass number 121. If each fragment nucleus has binding energy per nucleon as 8. 1 MeV, the total gain in
binding energy is _______ MeV . 08 Apr 2023 (M)

Q28. For a nucleus A

Z
X having mass number A and atomic number Z
2

A. The surface energy per nucleon (b s) = –a 1 A 3

.

B. The Coulomb contribution to the binding energy b .

Z(Z−1)
c = −a 2 4

A 3

C. The volume energy b v

= a3 A

D. Decrease in the binding energy is proportional to surface area.

E. While estimating the surface energy, it is assumed that each nucleon interacts with 12 nucleons. (a 1
, a2 and
a3 are constants)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 08 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) B, C, E only (2) C, D only
(3) A, B, C, D only (4) B, C only

Q29. A free neutron decays into a proton but a free proton does not decay into neutron. This is because
31 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) neutron is an uncharged particle (2) proton is a charged particle
(3) neutron is a composite particle made of a proton (4) neutron has larger rest mass than proton
and an electron

Q30. If the binding energy of ground state electron in a hydrogen atom is 13. 6 eV , then, the energy required to
remove the electron from the second excited state of Li 2+
will be: x × 10 −1
eV . The value of x is _____.
31 Jan 2023 (E)

Q31*. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different process. The half life of the first process is 5 minutes and that
of the second process is 30 s. The effective half-life of the nucleus is calculated to be 11
α
s . The value of α is
______. 30 Jan 2023 (E)

Q32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The nuclear density of nuclides 10
5
B,
6
Li,
3
56
26
F e,
20
N e and
10
209
83
Bi can be arranged as
N N N N N
ρ > ρ > ρ > ρ > ρ
Bi Fe Ne B Li
1

Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to its mass number A as R = R 0 A 3 , where R is a constant.
0

In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 30 Jan 2023 (E)

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Q33*. If a radioactive element having half-life of 30 min is undergoing beta decay, the fraction of radioactive
element remains undecayed after 90 min will be : 29 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 1

8
(2) 1

16

(3) 1

4
(4) 1

Q34*. A radioactive element 242

X
92
emits two α-particles, one electron and two positrons. The product nucleus is
represented by 234
P
Y . The value of P is ______. 29 Jan 2023 (M)

Q35*. Substance A has atomic mass number 16 and half life of 1 day. Another substance B has atomic mass number
32 and half life of 1

2
day. If both A and B simultaneously start undergo radio activity at the same time with
initial mass 320 g each, how many total atoms of A and B combined would be left after 2 days
29 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 3. 38 × 10
24
(2) 6. 76 × 10
24

(3) 6. 76 × 10
23
(4) 1. 69 × 10
24

Q36. The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus ( 16

8
O) and helium nucleus ( 4
2
He) is 25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

Q37. Assume that protons and neutrons have equal masses. Mass of a nucleon is 1. 6 × 10 −27
kg and radius of
1

nucleus is 1. 5 × 10 −15
A 3
. The approximate ratio of the nuclear density and water density is n × 10 . The
m
13

value of n is _____. 24 Jan 2023 (M)

Q38*. Consider the following radioactive decay process:

− +
α β γ α β γ
218
A → A1 → A2 → A3 → A4 → A5 → A6
84

The mass number and the atomic number of A are given by: 6 24 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 210 and 82 (2) 210 and 84
(3) 210 and 80 (4) 211 and 80

Q39. The energy released per fission of nucleus of 240

X is 200 MeV . The energy released if all the atoms in 120 g of
pure 240
X undergo fission is _____×10 25
MeV .
(Given N A = 6 × 10
23
) 24 Jan 2023 (E)

Q40*. Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 25λ and 16λ respectively. If initially they have the
same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of B to that of A will be "e" after a time 1

aλ
.
The value of a is _____ . 29 Jul 2022 (E)

Q41*. The half life period of a radioactive substance is 60 days. The time taken for 7

8
th of its original mass to
disintegrate will be : 28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 120 days (2) 130 days
(3) 180 days (4) 20 days

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q42*. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hours 30 minutes emits radiation which is 64 times the
permissible safe level. The minimum time, after which it would be possible to work safely with source, will
be _____ hours. 28 Jul 2022 (M)

Q43*. A radioactive sample decays 7

8
times its original quantity in 15 minutes. The half-life of the sample is
28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 5 min (2) 7. 5 min

(3) 15 min (4) 30 min

Q44*. What is the half-life period of a radioactive material if its activity drops to 1

16
th
of its initial value of 30 years
? 27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 9. 5 years (2) 8. 5 years
(3) 7. 5 years (4) 10. 5 years

Q45*. The activity of a radioactive material is 6. 4 × 10 −4

curie. Its half life is 5 days. The activity will become
5 × 10
−6
curie after 27 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 7 days (2) 15 days
(3) 25 days (4) 35 days

Q46. Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their nuclear densities will be in the ratio of
26 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 4 : 3 (2) (
1
3 3
)
4
1

(3) 1 : 1 (4) ( 4
)
3

Q47. Two lighter nuclei combine to form a comparatively heavier nucleus by the relation given below:
2
1
X +
2
1
X =
4
2
Y . The binding energies per nucleon 2
1
X and 4
Y
2
are 1. 1 MeV and 7. 6 MeV respectively. The
energy released in this process is_____ MeV. 26 Jul 2022 (E)

Q48*. The disintegration rate of a certain radioactive sample at any instant is 4250 disintegrations per minute. 10
minutes later, the rate becomes 2250 disintegrations per minute. The approximate decay constant is (Take
log
e
1. 88 = 0. 63 ) 26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 0. 02 min
−1
(2) 2. 7 min −1

(3) 0. 063 min

−1
(4) 6. 3 min
−1

Q49*. In the following nuclear reaction, D → D

−
α β α γ

1 → D2 → D3 → D4

Mass number of D is 182 and atomic number is 74 . Mass number and atomic number of D respectively will 4

be 29 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) 174 and 71 (2) 174 and 69
(3) 172 and 69 (4) 172 and 71

Q50*. The activity of a radioactive material is 2. 56 × 10 −3

Ci . If the half life of the material is 5 days, after how
many days the activity will become 2 × 10 −5
Ci ? 29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 30 days (2) 35 days
(3) 40 days (4) 25 days

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q51*. The half life of a radioactive substance is 5 years. After x years a given sample of the radioactive substance
gets reduced to 6. 25% of its initial value. The value of x is ____ 29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q52. The Q-value of a nuclear reaction and kinetic energy of the projectile particle, K are related as p

28 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) Q = K p (2) (K p + Q) < 0

(3) Q < K p (4) (K p + Q) > 0

Q53*. Following statements related to radioactivity are given below :

(A) Radioactivity is a random and spontaneous process and is dependent on physical and chemical
conditions.
(B) The number of undecayed nuclei in the radioactive sample decays exponentially with time.
(C) Slope of the graph of log (no. of undecayed nuclei) vs. time represents the reciprocal of mean life time
e

(τ ).
(D) Product of decay constant (λ) and half-life time (T 1 ) is not constant.
2

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 28 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (C) and (D) only

Q54*. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when Uranium 92U
238
decays to lead 82 Pb
206
?
26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 3 alpha particles and 5 beta particles (2) 6 alpha particles and 4 beta particles
(3) 4 alpha particles and 5 beta particles (4) 8 alpha particles and 6 beta particles

Q55*. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different processes. Half-life for the first process is 3. 0 hours while it
is 4. 5 hours for the second process. The effective halflife of the nucleus will be 26 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 3. 75 hours (2) 0. 56 hours
(3) 0. 26 hours (4) 1. 80 hours

Q56. Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5. 6 MeV . It splits in two
fragments B and C of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of nucleons in B and C is 6. 4 MeV per
nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be: 24 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 0. 8 MeV (2) 275 MeV
(3) 220 MeV (4) 176 MeV

Q57*. A sample contains 10 −2

kg each of two substances A and B with half lives 4 s and 8 s respectively. The ratio
of their atomic weights is 1 : 2. The ratio of the amounts of A and B after 16 s is x

100
. The value of x is _____
. 24 Jun 2022 (E)

Q58*. The half life period of a radioactive element x is same as the mean life time of another radioactive element y.
Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then: 01 Sep 2021 (E)

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) x and y decay at the same rate always.

(2) x-will decay faster than y.
(3) y-will decay faster than x.
(4) x and y have same decay rate initially and later on different decay rate.

Q59*. A sample of a radioactive nucleus A disintegrates to another radioactive nucleus B, which in turn
disintegrates to some other stable nucleus C. Plot of a graph showing the variation of number of atoms of
nucleus B vesus time is : (Assume that at t = 0, there are no B atoms in the sample) 31 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q60*. There are 10 10

radioactive nuclei in a given radioactive element. Its half-life time is 1 min . How many nuclei
will remain after 30 s?(√2 = 1. 414) 27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 7 × 10 9
(2) 10 5

(3) 2 × 10 10
(4) 4 × 10 10

Q61*. At time t = 0, a material is composed of two radioactive atoms A and B, where N A

(0) = 2N B (0) The decay
constant of both kind of radioactive atoms is λ. However, A disintegrates to B and B disintegrates to C .
Which of the following figures represents the evolution of
N B (t)

N B (0)
with respect to time t? 26 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q62. Consider the following statements:

A . Atoms of each element emit characteristics spectrum.
B. According to Bohr's Postulate, an electron in a hydrogen atom revolves in a certain stationary orbit.
C. The density of nuclear matter depends on the size of the nucleus.
D. A free neutron is stable but a free proton decay is possible.
E. Radioactivity is an indication of the instability of nuclei. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. 27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) A, B, C, D and E (2) A, B and E only.
(3) B and D only (4) A, C and E only

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q63*. If f denotes the ratio of the number of nuclei decayed (N d) to the number of nuclei at t = 0, (N 0 ) then for a
collection of radioactive nuclei, the rate of change of f with respect to time is given as: [λ is the radioactive
decay constant] 27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) −λ(1 − e −λt
) (2) λ(1 − e −λt
)

(3) λe −λt
(4) −λe −λt

Q64*. A radioactive sample has an average life of 30 ms and is decaying. A capacitor of capacitance 200 μF is first
charged and later connected with resistor R. If the ratio of the charge on the capacitor to the activity of the
radioactive sample is fixed with respect to time then the value of R should be_______Ω. 27 Jul 2021 (M)

Q65. From the given data, the amount of energy required to break the nucleus of aluminium 27
13
Al is __________
−3
x × 10 J

Mass of neutron = 1. 00866 u ; Mass of proton = 1. 00726 u ; Mass of Aluminium nucleus = 27. 18846 u

(Assume 1 u corresponds to x J of energy) (Round off to the nearest integer) 25 Jul 2021 (E)

Q66*. The nuclear activity of a radioactive element becomes (

th
1

8
) of its initial value in 30 years. The half-life of
radioactive element is ________ years. 25 Jul 2021 (E)

Q67*. Some nuclei of a radioactive material are undergoing radioactive decay. The time gap between the instances
when a quarter of the nuclei have decayed and when half of the nuclei have decayed is given as: (where λ is
the decay constant) 25 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 1

2
ln2

λ
(2) ln2

(3) (4)
3
2ln2 ln
2
λ
λ

Q68*. The half-life of 198

Au is 3 days. If atomic weight of 198
Au is 198 g mol
−1
, then the activity of 2 mg of 198
Au

is [in disintegration second

−1
]: 25 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 2. 67 × 10 12
(2) 6. 06 × 10 18

(3) 32. 36 × 10 12
(4) 16. 18 × 10 12

Q69. A nucleus with mass number 184 initially at rest emits an α−particle. If the Q value of the reaction is
5. 5 MeV, calculate the kinetic energy of the α− particle. 22 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 5. 0 MeV (2) 5. 5 MeV

(3) 0. 12 MeV (4) 5. 38 MeV

Q70*. For a certain radioactive process, the graph between ln R and t(sec) is obtained as
shown in the figure. Then the value of half life for the unknown radioactive
material is approximately:

20 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) 9. 15 sec (2) 6. 93 sec

(3) 2. 62 sec (4) 4. 62 sec

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q71*. A radioactive substance decays to (

th
1

16
) of its initial activity in 80 days. The half life of the radioactive
substance expressed in days is ________. 20 Jul 2021 (E)

Q72*. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emissions of two particles with half lives of 1400 years and
700 years, respectively. What will be the time after the which one third of the material remains ? (Take
ln 3 = 1. 1 ) 20 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 1110 years (2) 700 years
(3) 340 years (4) 740 years

Q73*. A nucleus of mass M emits γ-ray photon of frequency v. The loss of internal energy by the nucleus is: [Take
c as the speed of electromagnetic wave] 20 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) hv (2) 0
(3) hv[1 − 2M c
hv
2
] (4) hv[1 + hv

2M c
2
]

Q74. The decay of a proton to neutron is : 18 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) not possible as proton mass is less than the neutron mass
(2) possible only inside the nucleus
(3) not possible but neutron to proton conversion is possible
(4) always possible as it is associated only with β decay +

Q75*. A radioactive sample disintegrates via two independent decay processes having half lives T (1)

1/2
and T
(2)

1/2

respectively. The effective half- life T 1/2 of the nuclei is : 18 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) (2) T
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
T +T
1/2 1/2
1/2 = T + T
T 1/2 = (1) (2)
1/2 1/2

T −T
1/2 1/2

(3) (4) None of the above

(1) (2)
T T
1/2 1/2
T 1/2 =
(1) (2)
T +T
1/2 1/2

Q76*. The half-life of Au 198

is 2. 7 days. The activity of 1. 50 mg of Au 198
, if its atomic weight is 198 g mol
−1
is,
(N A = 6 × 10
23
mol
−1
) 16 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) 240 Ci (2) 357 Ci

(3) 535 Ci (4) 252 Ci

Q77*. Calculate the time interval between 33% decay and 67% decay if half-life of a substance is 20 min .
16 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) 60 min (2) 20 min

(3) 40 min (4) 13 min

Q78*. A radioactive sample is undergoing α decay, At any time t , its activity is A and another time t , the activity
1 2

is A

5
. What is the average life time for the sample ? 26 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) ln 5

t 2 −t 1
(2) ln(t 2 +t 1 )

(3) t 2 −t 1

ln 5
(4) t 1 −t 2

ln 5

Q79*. Two radioactive substances X and Y originally have N and N nuclei respectively. Half life of X is half of
1 2

the half life of Y . After three half lives of Y , number of nuclei of both are equal. The ratio N1

N2
will be equal
to : 25 Feb 2021 (M)

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 Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 1

3
(2) 8

(3) 3

1
(4) 1

Q80. You are given that 7

3
Li = 7. 0160u, Mass of Mass of 4
2
He = 4. 0026u and Mass of 1
1
He = 1. 0079H When 20g
of 7
3
Li is converted into He by proton capture, the energy liberated, (in kWh ), is : [Mass of nucleon
4
2

= 1 GeV /c
2
] 06 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 4. 5 × 10 5
(2) 8 × 10 6

(3) 6. 82 × 10 5
(4) 1. 33 × 10 6

Q81. Given the masses of various atomic particles

m P = 1, 0072 u m n = 1, 0087 u m e = 0 .000548 u m v = 0
¯ , , , ,
¯
m d = 2 .0141 u
¯ p = n ≡ e ≡ v ≡ d ≡ , where proton, neutron, electron, antineutrino and deuteron. Which of the
following process is allowed by momentum and energy conservation : 06 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) n + n → deuterium atom (electron bound to the (2) p → n + e +
+ v̄

nucleus)
(3) n + p → d + γ (4) e +
+ e
−
→ γ

Q82*. Activities of three radioactive substances A, B and C are represented by the curves
A, B and C, in the figure. Then their half-lives T 1 (A) : T 1 (B) : T 1 (C) are in the
2 2 2

ratio:

05 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) 2 : 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 : 1

(3) 2 : 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 : 1

Q83*. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different processes. The half-life for the first process is 10 s and that for
the second is 100 s. The effective half-life of the nucleus is close to: 05 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 9 s (2) 6 s
(3) 55 s (4) 12 s

Q84. Find the Binding energy per nucleon for 120

50
Sn . Mass of proton m p = 1. 00783 U , mass of neutron
m n = 1. 00867 U and mass of tin nucleus m sn = 119. 902199 U . (take 1U = 931 M eV ) 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 7 .5 M eV (2) 9. 0M eV
(3) 8.0M eV (4) 8 .5 M eV

Q85. The radius R of a nucleus of mass number A can be estimated by the formula R = (1. 3 × 10 −15
)A
1/3
m. It
follows that the mass density of n nucleus is of the order of: (M prot ≅ M neut ≃ 1. 67 × 10
−27
kg)

03 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 10 3
kg m
−3
(2) 10 10
kg m
−3

(3) 10 24
kg m
−3
(4) 10 17
kg m
−3

Q86*. In a radioactive material, a fraction of active material remaining after the time t is 9

16
. The fraction that
was remaining after the time 2
t
is : 03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 4

5
(2) 3

(3) 3

4
(4) 7

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q87*. The activity of a radioactive sample falls from 700s −1

to 500s −1
in 30 minutes. Its half life is close to:
07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 72min (2) 62min
(3) 66min (4) 52min

Q88*. Half lives of two radioactive nuclei A and B are 10 minutes and 20 minutes, respectively. If, initially a
sample has equal number of nuclei, then after 60 minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of nuclei A and B
will be: 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 3 : 8 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 9 : 8

Q89*. Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 10λ and λ , respectively. If initially they have the
same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of A to that of B will be 1/e after a time:
10 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 10
1

λ (2) 1

λ
9

(3) 11
1

λ
(4) 11

10 λ

Q90*. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0, a sample has the
2
same number of the two nuclei. The time taken for the ratio of the number of nuclei to become ( 1

e
) will be
10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 1

λ (2) 1

λ
2

(3) 2

λ (4) 1

λ
4

Q91. The ratio of mass densities of nuclei of 40

Ca and 16
O is close to: 08 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 1 (2) 0.1
(3) 2 (4) 5

Q92*. In a radioactive decay chain, the initial nucleus is 232

90
Th . At the end, there are 6 α-particles and 4β-particles
which are emitted. If the end nucleus is A
Z
X, A and Z are given by: 12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) A = 208; Z = 82 (2) A = 208; Z = 80

(3) A = 200; Z = 81 (4) A = 202; Z = 80

Q93. Consider the nuclear fission, Ne 20

→ 2 He
4
+ C
12
. Given that the binding energy/nucleon of Ne 20
, He
4
and
C
12
are 8.03 MeV, 7.86 MeV , respectively. Identify the correct statement: 10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) Energy of 12. 4 MeV will be supplied. (2) Energy of 9. 72 MeV has to be supplied.
(3) Energy of 3. 6 MeV will be released. (4) 8. 3 MeV energy will be released.

Q94*. Using a nuclear counter the count rate of emitted particles from a radioactive source is measured. At t = 0 it
was 1600 counts per second and t = 8 seconds it was 100 counts per second. The count rate observed, as
counts per second, at t = 6 seconds is close to: 10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 400 (2) 200
(3) 150 (4) 360

Q95*. A Sample of radioactive material A, that has an activity of 10 m Ci (1 Ci = 3.7 × 10

10
decays s
−1
), has
twice the number of nuclei as another sample of a different radioactive material B which has an activity of

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Nuclear Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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20 m Ci . The correct choices for half-lives of A and B would then be, respectively: 09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 5 days and 10 days (2) 10 days and 40 days
(3) 20 days and 10 days (4) 20 days and 5 days

Q96*. At a given instant, say t = 0, two radioactive substance A and B have equal activities. The ratio RB

RA
of their
activities after time t itself decays with time t as e −3t
. If the half-life of A is ln2, the half-life of B is:
09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 2ln2 (2) 4ln2
(3) ln2

4
(4) ln2

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (15) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (727)
9. (2) 10. (208) 11. (27) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (4)
17. (236) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (2)
25. (15) 26. (4) 27. (121) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (136) 31. (300) 32. (2)
33. (1) 34. (87) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (11) 38. (3) 39. (6) 40. (9)
41. (3) 42. (15) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (26) 48. (3)
49. (1) 50. (2) 51. (20) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (4) 56. (4)
57. (25) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (3) 64. (150)
65. (27) 66. (10) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (4) 70. (4) 71. (20) 72. (4)
73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (2) 80. (4)
81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (4) 85. (4) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (4)
89. (2) 90. (2) 91. (1) 92. (1) 93. (2) 94. (2) 95. (4) 96. (3)

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q1. The temperature of a gas is −78 ∘

C and the average translational kinetic energy of its molecules is K. The
temperature at which the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules of the same gas becomes 2 K is :
09 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 127 ∘
C (2) 117 ∘
C

(3) −39 ∘
C (4) −78 ∘
C

Q2. A mixture of one mole of monoatomic gas and one mole of a diatomic gas (rigid) are kept at room temperature
(27 C)
∘
. The ratio of specific heat of gases at constant volume respectively is: 08 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 7

5
(2) 3

(3) 5

3
(4) 3

Q3. Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : The mean free path of gas molecules is inversely proportional to square of molecular diameter.
Statement (II) : Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to absolute temperature of gas.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q4. A sample contains mixture of helium and oxygen gas. The ratio of root mean square speed of helium and
oxygen in the sample, is: 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 32
1
(2) 2√ 2

(3) 1
(4) 1

4
2√ 2

Q5. The specific heat at constant pressure of a real gas obeying P V 2

= RT equation is: 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) R

3
+ CV (2) C V + R

(3) C V +
R

2V
(4) R

Q6. Energy of 10 non rigid diatomic molecules at temperature T is : 06 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 70 K BT (2) 35 K BT

(3) 7

2
RT (4) 35RT

Q7. If the collision frequency of hydrogen molecules in a closed chamber at 27 ∘

C is Z, then the collision frequency
of the same system at 127 ∘
C is : 05 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) √3

2
z (2) 2

√3
Z

(3) 3

4
Z (4) 4

3
Z

Q8. If n is the number density and d is the diameter of the molecule, then the average distance covered by a
molecule between two successive collisions (i.e. mean free path) is represented by : 05 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) √2nπd 2
(2) √ 2nπd 2
1

(3) √ 2nπd 2
1
(4) 1

√ 2n 2 π 2 d 2

Q9. During an adiabatic process, if the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
temperature, then the ratio of CP

CV
for the gas is : 05 Apr 2024 (E)

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 5

3
(2) 9

(3) 3

2
(4) 7

Q10. The translational degrees of freedom (f ) and rotational degrees of freedom (f

t r
) of CH molecule are:
4

04 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) f t
= 2 and f r
= 2 (2) f t
= 3 and f r
= 3

(3) f t
= 3 and f r
= 2 (4) f t
= 2 and f r
= 3

Q11. Two moles of a monoatomic gas is mixed with six moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific heat of the
mixture at constant volume is : 01 Feb 2024 (M)
(1) 9

4
R (2) 7

4
R

(3) 3

2
R (4) 5

2
R

Q12. If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecule at a given temperature and pressure is 2 km s
−1
, the
root mean square velocity of oxygen at the same condition in km s
−1
is: 01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) 2. 0 (2) 0. 5
(3) 1. 5 (4) 1. 0

Q13. The parameter that remains the same for molecules of all gases at a given temperature is : 31 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) kinetic energy (2) momentum
(3) mass (4) speed

Q14. A gas mixture consists of 8 moles of argon and 6 moles of oxygen at temperature T . Neglecting all vibrational
modes, the total internal energy of the system is 31 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 29 RT (2) 20 RT
(3) 27 RT (4) 21 RT

Q15. At which temperature the r.m.s. velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen molecule at 47°C ?
30 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 80 K (2) −73 K
(3) 4 K (4) 20 K

Q16. If three moles of monoatomic gas (γ =

5

3
) is mixed with two moles of a diatomic gas (γ =
7

5
), the value of
adiabatic exponent γ for the mixture is: 30 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 1. 75 (2) 1. 40
(3) 1. 52 (4) 1. 35

Q17. Two thermodynamical process are shown in the figure. The molar heat capacity for
process A and B are CA and CB . The molar heat capacity at constant pressure and
constant volume are represented by CP and CV , respectively. Choose the correct
statement.

30 Jan 2024 (M)

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) C P > CB > CV (2) C A = 0 and C B = ∞

(3) C P > CV > CA = CB (4) C A > CP > CV

Q18. Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are at same temperature. A contains 1 g of hydrogen and B
contains 1 g of oxygen. P and P are the pressures of the gases in A and B respectively, then
A B
PA

PB
is :
29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 32

Q19. The temperature of a gas having 2. 0 × 10 25

molecules per cubic meter at 1. 38 atm (Given,
k = 1. 38 × 10
−23
J K
−1
) is : 29 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 500 K (2) 200 K
(3) 100 K (4) 300 K

Q20. N moles of a polyatomic gas(f = 6) must be mixed with two moles of a monoatomic gas so that the mixture
behaves as a diatomic gas. The value of N is: 29 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 2

Q21. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is :

[Use universal gas constant (R) = 8. 31 J mol
−1
K
−1
] 27 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 6845. 5 J (2) 5942. 0 J
(3) 6232. 5 J (4) 5670. 5 J

Q22. The average kinetic energy of a monatomic molecule is 0. 414 eV at temperature:

(Use K B = 1. 38 × 10
−23
J mol
−1
K
−1
)
27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 3000 K (2) 3200 K
(3) 1600 K (4) 1500 K

Q23. A flask contains Hydrogen and Argon in the ratio 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 30°C. The
ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases ( is: (Given : Atomic Weight of
K argon
)
K hydrogen

Ar = 39. 9 ) 15 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 39. 9 (4) 39.9

Q24. The rms speed of oxygen molecule in a vessel at particular temperature is (1 +

5
)
2
v, when v is the average
x

speed of the molecule. The value of x will be:

(take π = 22

7
)
13 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 27 (2) 8
(3) 28 (4) 4

Q25. The mean free path of molecules of a certain gas at STP is 1500d, where d is the diameter of the gas
molecules. While maintaining the standard pressure, the mean free path of the molecules at 373 K is

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approximately: 13 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) 750d (2) 1098d
(3) 2049d (4) 1500d

Q26. If the r.m.s speed of chlorine molecule is 490 m s

−1
at o
27 C , the r.m.s speed of argon molecules at the same
temperature will be (Atomic mass of argon = 39. 9 u, molecular mass of chlorine = 70. 9 u)
12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 551. 7 m s −1
(2) 651. 7 m s −1

(3) 451. 7 m s −1
(4) 751. 7 m s −1

Q27. The root mean square speed of molecules of nitrogen gas at 27°C is approximately: (Given mass of a nitrogen
molecule = 4. 6 × 10 −26
kg and take Boltzmann constant k B = 1. 4 × 10
−23
J K
−1
) 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 27. 4 m s −1
(2) 91 m s −1

(3) 1260 m s −1
(4) 523 m s −1

Q28. Three vessels of equal volume contain gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel contains
neon (monoatomic), the second contains chlorine (diatomic) and third contains uranium hexafluoride
(polyatomic). Arrange these on the basis of their root mean square speed (v rms ) and choose the correct answer
from the options given below: 11 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) v rms (mono) > v rms (dia) > v rms (poly) (2) V rms (mono) = V rms (dia) = V rms (poly)

(3) v rms (mono) < v rms (dia) < v rms (poly) (4) v rms (dia) < v rms (poly) < v rms (mono)

Q29. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
(A) 3 Translational degrees of freedom (I) Monoatomic gases
(B) 3 Translational, 2 rotational degrees of freedoms (II) Polyatomic gases
3 Translational, 2 rotational and 1 vibrational degrees Rigid diatomic
(C) (III)
of freedom gases
3 Translational, 3 rotational and more than one Nonrigid diatomic
(D) (IV)
vibrational degrees of freedom gases
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
10 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) (A) − (I), (B) − (III), (C) − (IV), (D) − (II)

(2) (A) − (IV), (B) − (III), (C) − (II), (D) − (I)

(3) (A) − (IV), (B) − (II), (C) − (I), (D) − (III)

(4) (A) − (I), (B) − (IV), (C) − (III), (D) − (II)

Q30. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T . Neglecting all vibrational
modes, the total internal energy of the system will be: 10 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 11RT (2) 8RT

(3) 4RT (4) 16RT

Q31. The temperature at which the kinetic energy of oxygen molecules becomes double than its value at 27°C is
08 Apr 2023 (E)

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 927°C (2) 327°C

(3) 1227°C (4) 627°C

Q32. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K . If r.m.s. speed of gas at 200 K is v0 . Then,
r.m.s. speed of the gas at 800 K will be:
06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) v0

4
(2) v 0

(3) 4v 0 (4) 2v 0

Q33. The number of air molecules per cm is increased from 3 × 10

3 19
to 12 × 10 19
. The ratio of collision frequency
of air molecules before and after the increase in number respectively is :
06 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 0. 75 (2) 1. 25
(3) 0. 50 (4) 0. 25

Q34. The average kinetic energy of a molecule of the gas is 01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) proportional to absolute temperature (2) proportional to volume
(3) proportional to pressure (4) dependent on the nature of the gas

Q35. A flask contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass at temperature 27 °C. The ratio of average
kinetic energy per molecule of hydrogen and oxygen respectively is : 30 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

Q36. The pressure (P ) and temperature (T ) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation P T 2
= constant. The
volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be : 30 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 3T 2
(2) T
3
2

(3) 3

T
3
(4) T
3

Q37. At 300 K , the rms speed of oxygen molecules is √ α+5

times to that of its average speed in the gas. Then, the
α

value of α will be (use π = 22

7
) 29 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 24 (4) 27

Q38. The root mean square velocity of molecules of gas is 25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) Proportional to square of temperature (T ). 2

(2) Inversely proportional to square root of temperature (√ ). 1

(3) Proportional to square root of temperature √T .

(4) Proportional to temperature (T ).

Q39. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The temperature of a gas is −73 °C. When the gas is heated to 527 °C, the root mean square
speed of the molecules is doubled.
Statement II : The product of pressure and volume of an ideal gas will be equal to translational kinetic energy

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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of the molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 24 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q40. Let γ be the ratio of molar specific heat at constant pressure and molar specific heat at constant volume of a
1

monoatomic gas and γ be the similar ratio of diatomic gas. Considering the diatomic gas molecule as a rigid
2

rotator, the ratio is: 24 Jan 2023 (E)

γ1

γ2

(1) 27

35
(2) 35

27

(3) 25

21
(4) 21

25

Q41. The root mean square speed of smoke particles of mass 5 × 10

−17
kg in their Brownian motion in air at NTP
is approximately.
[Given k = 1. 38 × 10 −23
J K
−1
]
29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 60 mm s
−1
(2) 12 mm s
−1

(3) 15 mm s
−1
(4) 36 mm s
−1

Q42. One mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with three moles of a diatomic gas. The molecular specific heat of
2

mixture at constant volume is α

4
R J mol K
−1
; then the value of α will be _____ . (Assume that the given
diatomic gas has no vibrational mode.) 29 Jul 2022 (M)

Q43. A vessel contains 14 g of nitrogen gas at a temperature of 27°C. The amount of heat to be transferred to the
gas to double the r.m.s. speed of its molecules will be : (Take R = 8. 32 J mol
−1
k
−1
) 28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 2229 J (2) 5616 J
(3) 9360 J (4) 13, 104 J

Q44. Given below are two statements:

Statement I :The average momentum of a molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on temperature.
Statement II : The rms speed of oxygen molecules in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen
molecules dissociate into oxygen atoms, the rms speed will become 2v.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q45. Same gas is filled in two vessels of the same volume at the same temperature. If the ratio of the number of
molecules is 1 : 4, then
A . The r.m.s. velocity of gas molecules in two vessels will be the same.
B . The ratio of pressure in these vessels will be 1 : 4.
C . The ratio of pressure will be 1 : 1.
D . The r.m.s. velocity of gas molecules in two vessels will be in the ratio of 1 : 4.
27 Jul 2022 (M)

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) A and C only (2) B and D only

(3) A and B only (4) C and D only

Q46. Which statements are correct about degrees of freedom?

A. A molecule with n degrees of freedom has n different ways of storing energy.
2

B. Each degree of freedom is associated with 1

2
RT average energy per mole.
C. A monoatomic gas molecule has 1 rotational degree of freedom where as diatomic molecule has 2 rotational
degrees of freedom
D. CH has a total to 6 degrees of freedom.
4

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

27 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) B and C only (2) B and D only
(3) A and B only (4) C and D only

Q47. A gas has n degrees of freedom. The ratio of specific heat of gas at constant volume to the specific heat of gas
at constant pressure will be 26 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) n

n+2
(2) n+2

(3) n

2n+2
(4) n

n−2

Q48. Following statements are given

(1) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule decreases when the temperature is reduced.
(2) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule increases with increase in pressure at constant temperature.
(3) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule decreases with increases in volume.
(4) Pressure of a gas increases with increase in temperature at constant volume.
(5) The volume of gas decreases with increase in temperature.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
25 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) (1) and (4) only (2) (1), (2) and (4) only
(3) (2) and (4) only (4) (1), (2) and (5) only

Q49. A vessel contains 16 g of hydrogen and 128 g of oxygen at standard temperature and pressure. The volume of
the vessel in cm is :
3
29 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 72 × 10 5
(2) 32 × 10 5

(3) 27 × 10 4
(4) 54 × 10 4

Q50. What will be the effect on the root mean square velocity of oxygen molecules if the temperature is doubled and
oxygen molecule dissociates into atomic oxygen? 28 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) The velocity of atomic oxygen remains same
(2) The velocity of atomic oxygen doubles
(3) The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes half
(4) The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes four times

Q51. A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen has volume 2000 cm

3
, temperature , pressure
300 K 100 kPa and mass
0. 76 g . The ratio of number of moles of hydrogen to number of moles of oxygen in the mixture will be [Take

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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gas constant R = 8. 3 J K −1
mol
−1
]
27 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 1

3
(2) 3

(3) 1

16
(4) 16

Q52. According to kinetic theory of gases,

A. The motion of the gas molecules freezes at 0°C.
B. The mean free path of gas molecules decreases if the density of molecules is increased.
C. The mean free path of gas molecules increases if temperature is increased keeping pressure constant.
D. Average kinetic energy per molecule per degree of freedom is 3

2
kB T (for monoatomic gases).
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) A and C only (2) B and C only
(3) A and B only (4) C and D only

Q53. A flask contains argon and oxygen in the ratio of 3 : 2 in mass and the mixture is kept at 27°C. The ratio of
their average kinetic energy per molecule respectively 26 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1

Q54. The ratio of specific heats ( CP

CV
) in terms of degree of freedom (f ) is given by : 25 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) (1 + f

3
) (2) (1 + 2

f
)

(3) (1 + f

2
) (4) (1 + 1

f
)

Q55. When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated by raising the temperature by 1°C, its pressure increases by
0. 4% The initial temperature of the gas is _____ K . 25 Jun 2022 (E)

Q56. The relation between root mean square speed (v rms ) and most probable speed (v p) for the molar mass M of
oxygen gas molecule at the temperature of 300 K will be 25 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) v rms = √
2
vp
(2) v rms = √
1
vp
3 3

(3) v rms
= √
3
vp
(4) v rms = vp
2

Q57. 0. 056 kg of Nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature of 127°C. The amount of heat required to double
the speed of its molecules is_____ kcal.
(Take R = 2 ) 24 Jun 2022 (M)
−1
−1
cal mole K

Q58. A monoatomic gas performs a work of Q

4
where Q is the heat supplied to it. The molar heat capacity of the gas
will be _____ R during this transformation.
Where R is the gas constant.
24 Jun 2022 (E)

Q59. The average translational kinetic energy of N2 gas molecules at _________ C

∘
becomes equal to the K. E. of
an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 0. 1 volt.

(Given k B = 1. 38 × 10
−23
J K
−1
) (Fill the nearest integer).

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01 Sep 2021 (E)

Q60. For an ideal gas the instantaneous change in pressure P with volume V is given by the equation dP

dV
= −aP . If
P = P0 at V = 0 is the given boundary condition, then the maximum temperature one mole of gas can attain
is: (Here R is the gas constant) 31 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) aP 0

eR
(2) infinity
(3) 0°C (4) P0

aeR

Q61. A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen has volume 500 3

cm , temperature 300 K, pressure 400 k Pa and mass
0. 76 g. The ratio of masses of oxygen to hydrogen will be: 31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 16 : 3 (2) 3 : 8

(3) 8 : 3 (4) 3 : 16

Q62. If the R.M.S. speed of oxygen molecules at 0°C is 160 m s . Find the R.M.S. speed of hydrogen molecules at
−1

0°C . 27 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) 40 m s −1
(2) 80 m s −1

(3) 640 m s −1
(4) 332 m s −1

Q63. A balloon carries a total load of 185 kg at normal pressure and temperature of 27°C. What load will the
balloon carry on rising to a height at which the barometric pressure is 45 cm of Hg and the temperature is
−7°C. Assuming the volume constant? 27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 214. 15 kg (2) 123. 54 kg

(3) 219. 07 kg (4) 181. 46 kg

Q64. The R.M.S. speeds of the molecules of Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Carbon dioxide at the same temperature are
vH , vO and v respectively, then:
C 26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) v C > vO > vH (2) v H = vO > vC

(3) v H > vO > vC (4) v H = vO = vC

Q65. A cylindrical container of volume 4. 0 × 10 −3

m
3
contains one mole of hydrogen and two moles of carbon
dioxide. Assume the temperature of the mixture is 400 K. The pressure of the mixture of gases is :
[Take gas constant as 8. 3 J mol
−1
K
−1
] 26 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 24. 9 × 10 3
Pa (2) 249 × 10 1
Pa

(3) 24. 9 × 10 5
Pa (4) 24. 9 Pa

Q66. The number of molecules in one litre of an ideal gas at 300 K and 2 atmospheric pressure with mean kinetic
energy 2 × 10 −9
J per molecule is: 27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 0. 75 × 10 11
(2) 3 × 10 11

(3) 1. 5 × 10 11
(4) 6 × 10 11

Q67. For a gas C P − CV = R in a state P and C P − C V = 1. 10R in a state Q, T and T are the temperatures in
P Q

two different states P and Q, respectively. Then 25 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) T P = TQ (2) T P < TQ

(3) T P = 0. 9T Q (4) T P > TQ

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Q68. A system consists of two types of gas molecules A and B having the same number density 2 × 10 25
m
−3
. The
diameter of A and B are 10A and 5A respectively. They suffer collisions at room temperature. The ratio of
average distance covered by the molecule A to that of B between two successive collisions is ___________
×10
−2
25 Jul 2021 (E)

Q69. What will be the average value of energy for a monoatomic gas in thermal equilibrium at temperature T ?
22 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 2

3
kB T (2) k BT

(3) 3

2
kB T (4) 1

2
kB T

Q70. Consider a mixture of gas molecule of types A, B and C having masses m A < mB < mC . The ratio of their
root mean square speeds at normal temperature and pressure is: 20 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) v A = vB = vC = 0 (2) 1

vA
>
vB
1
>
1

vC

(3) v A = vB ≠ vC (4) 1

vA
<
vB
1
<
1

vC

Q71. The correct relation between the degrees of freedom f and the ratio of specific heat γ is: 20 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) f =
γ−1
2
(2) f =
γ+1
2

(3) f =
γ+1

2
(4) f =
γ+1
1

Q72. Consider a sample of oxygen behaving like an ideal gas. At 300 K , the ratio of root-mean-square (RMS)
velocity to the average velocity of the gas molecule would be :
(Molecular weight of oxygen is 32 g mol
−1
; R = 8. 3 J K
−1
mol
−1
)
18 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) √ 3 (2) √ 8

3 3

(3) √ 3π (4) √ 8π

8 3

Q73. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the fractional change in its pressure is equal to (where γ is the ratio
of specific heats): 18 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) −γ dV

V
(2) −γ dV
V

(3) − 1

γ
dV

V
(4) dV

Q74. What will be the average value of energy along one degree of freedom for an ideal gas in thermal equilibrium
at a temperature T ? (k is Boltzmann constant)
B
18 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 1

2
kB T (2) 2

3
kB T

(3) 3

2
kB T (4) k BT

Q75. A polyatomic ideal gas has 24 vibrational modes. What is the value of γ? 17 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 1. 03 (2) 1. 30
(3) 1. 37 (4) 10. 3

Q76. If one mole of the polyatomic gas is having two vibrational modes and β is the ratio of molar specific heats for
polyatomic gas (β = CP

Cv
) then the value of β is : 17 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) 1. 02 (2) 1. 2
(3) 1. 25 (4) 1. 35

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Q77. Two ideal polyatomic gases at temperatures T and T are mixed so that there is no loss of energy. If F and
1 2 1

F2 , m1 and m 2 , n1 and n be the degrees of freedom, masses, number of molecules of the first and second
2

gas respectively, the temperature of mixture of these two gases is: 17 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) n1 T 1

n 1 +n 2
+n 2 T 2
(2) n 1 F 1 T 1 +n 2 F 2 T 2

n 1 F 1 +n 2 F 2

(3) n1 F 1 T 1 +n 2

F 1 +F 2
F2 T 2
(4) n1 F 1 T 1 +n 2

n 1 +n 2
F2 T 2

Q78. Calculate the value of the mean free path (λ) for oxygen molecules at temperature 27°C and pressure
1. 01 × 10
5
Pa . Assume the molecular diameter 0. 3 nm and the gas is ideal. (k = 1. 38 × 10 −23
J K
−1
)

16 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) 58 nm (2) 32 nm

(3) 86 nm (4) 102 nm

Q79. The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three gases, 16 g of oxygen, 28 g of nitrogen and 44 g of
carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T . Consider R as universal gas constant. The pressure of the mixture of
gases is : 16 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 88RT

V
(2) 3RT

(3) 5

2
RT

V
(4) 4RT

Q80. The internal energy (U ), pressure (P ) and volume (V ) of an ideal gas are related as U = 3P V + 4. The gas is
26 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) either monoatomic or diatomic (2) polyatomic only
(3) monoatomic only (4) diatomic only

Q81. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a given temperature obeys Maxwell's distribution.
Statement II : In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a given temperature equals the translational
kinetic energy for each molecule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
25 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Q82. A monoatomic gas of mass 4. 0 u is kept in an insulated container. The container is moving with velocity
30 m s
−1
. If the container is suddenly stopped then a change in temperature of the gas (R =gas constant) is x

3R

. Value of x is, 25 Feb 2021 (M)

Q83. A diatomic gas, having C P =

7

2
R and C V =
5

2
R, is heated at constant pressure. The ratio dU : dQ : dW

25 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) 3 : 5 : 2 (2) 5 : 7 : 3
(3) 5 : 7 : 2 (4) 3 : 7 : 2

Q84. The root-mean-square speed of molecules of a given mass of a gas at 27 °C and 1 atmosphere pressure is
200 m s
−1
. The root-mean-square speed of molecules of the gas at 127 °C and 2 atmosphere pressure is
x

√3
m s
−1
. The value of x will be __________. 24 Feb 2021 (E)

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Q85. On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, the gas exerts pressure because its molecules: 24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) continuously stick to the walls of container.
(2) suffer change in momentum when impinge on the walls of container.
(3) continuously lose their energy till it reaches wall.
(4) are attracted by the walls of container.

Q86. Molecules of an ideal gas are known to have three translational degrees of freedom. The gas is maintained at a
temperature of T. The total internal energy, U of a mole of this gas, and the value of γ are given,
Cp
= ( )
Cv

respectively, by 06 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) U = 5

2
RT and γ =
6

5
(2) U = 5 R T and γ =
7

(3) U = 5

2
RT and γ =
7

5
(4) U = 5RT and γ =
6

Q87. In a dilute gas at pressure P and temperature 't', the time between successive collision of a molecule varies
with T as : 06 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) T (2) 1

√T

(3) 1

T
(4) √T

Q88. Assuming the nitrogen molecule is moving with r. m. s. velocity at 400 K, the de-Broglie wave length of
nitrogen molecule is close to : (Given : nitrogen molecule weight : 4 .64 ×10 −26
kg, Boltzman constant :
1 .38 ×10
−23
J K
−1
, Planck constant : 6 .63 ×10 −34
)
J s 06 Sep 2020 (E)
∘ ∘
(1) 0. 24 A (2) 0. 20 A
∘ ∘
(3) 0. 34 A (4) 0. 44 A

Q89. Nitrogen gas is at 300 °C temperature. The temperature (in K ) at which the rms speed of a H molecule 2

would be equal to the rms speed of a nitrogen molecule, is … … … . (Molar mass of N gas 28 g ). 2

05 Sep 2020 (E)

Q90. A bullet of mass 5 gram , travelling with a speed of 210 m s −1

strikes a fixed wooden target. One half of its
kinetic energy is converted into heat in the wood. The rise of temperature of the bullet if the specific heat of its
material is 0. 030 (gram °C)
−1
(1 calorie = 4 .2 ×10
7
ergs) close to : 05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 87. 5°C (2) 83. 3°C
(3) 119. 2°C (4) 38. 4°C

Q91. Number of molecules in a volume of 4 cm

3
of a perfect monoatomic gas at some temperature T and at a
pressure of 2 cm of mercury is close to? (Given, mean kinetic energy of a molecule (at T) is
4 × 10
−14
erg, g = 980 cm s
−2
density of mercury = 13. 6 g cm
−3
) 05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 4 .8 ×10 18
(2) 4. 0 × 10 16

(3) 5. 8 × 10 16
(4) 5. 8 × 10 18

Q92. Match the

Cp

Cv
ratio for ideal gases with different type of molecules:
Molecule Type C p /C v

(A) Monoatomic (I) 7/5

(B) Diatomic rigid molecules (II) 9/7

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(C) Diatomic non-rigid molecules (III) 4/3

(D) Triatomic rigid molecules (IV) 5/3
04 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) (2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) (4) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

Q93. A closed vessel contains 0.1 mole of a monoatomic ideal gas at 200 K. If 0.05 mole of the same gas at 400 K
is added to it, the final equilibrium temperature (in K) of the gas in the vessel will be close to ______
04 Sep 2020 (M)

Q94. Consider a gas of triatomic molecules. The molecules are assumed to be triangular and made of
massless rigid rods whose vertices are occupied by atoms. The internal energy of a mole of the gas at
temperature T is:
03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 5

2
RT (2) 3

2
RT

(3) 9

2
RT (4) 3RT

Q95. To raise the temperature of a certain mass of gas by 50 °C at a constant pressure,160 calories of heat is
required. When the same mass of gas is cooled by 100°C at constant volume,240 calories of heat is released.
How many degrees of freedom does each molecule of this gas have (assume gas to be ideal)? 03 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 7

Q96. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 5 moles of argon at temperature T . Assuming the gases to be
ideal and the oxygen bond to be rigid, the total internal energy (in units of RT ) of the mixutre is :
02 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 15 (2) 13
(3) 20 (4) 11

Q97. An ideal gas in a closed container is slowly heated. As its temperature increases, which of the following
statements are true ?
(A) the mean free path of the molecules decreases
(B) the mean collision time between the molecules decreases.
(C) the mean free path remains unchanged.
(D) the mean collision time relations unchanged.
02 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) (B) and (C) (2) (A)and (B)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)

Q98. Two gases - argon (atomic radius 0.07nm, atomic weight 40 ) and xenon (atomic radius 0.1nm, atomic weight
140 ) have the same number density and are at the same temperature. The ratio of their respective mean free
times is closest to: 09 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 3.67 (2) 1.83
(3) 2.3 (4) 4.67

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Q99. Consider two ideal diatomic gases A and B at some temperature T . Molecules of the gas A are rigid, and have
a mass m . Molecules of the gas B have an additional vibrational mode and have a mass m

4
. The ratio of the
specific heats (C V
)
A
and ( C
V
)
B
of gas A and B, respectively is: 09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 7 : 9 (2) 5 : 9
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 7

Q100. The plot that depicts the behavior of the mean free time τ (time between two successive collisions) for the
molecules of an ideal gas, as a function of temperature (T ), qualitatively, is: (Graphs are schematic and not
drawn to scale) 08 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q101. Consider a mixture of n moles of helium gas and 2n moles of oxygen gas (molecules taken to be rigid) as an
ideal gas. Its CP

CV
value will be: 08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 19

13
(2) 67

45

(3) 40

27
(4) 23

15

Q102. Two moles of an ideal gas, with CP

CV
=
5

3
, are mixed with three moles of another ideal gas CP

CV
=
4

3
. The
value of CP

CV
for the mixture is 07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 1.45 (2) 1.50
(3) 1.47 (4) 1.42

Q103. Two moles of helium gas is mixed with three moles of hydrogen molecules (taken to be rigid). What is the
molar specific heat of mixture at constant volume? (R = 8.3 J/mol K) 12 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 17.4 J/mol K (2) 19.7 J/mol K
(3) 15.7 J/mol K (4) 21.6 J/mol K

Q104. A diatomic gas with rigid molecules does 10 J of work when expanded at constant pressure. What would be
the heat energy absorbed by the gas, in this process? 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 40 J (2) 35 J
(3) 25 J (4) 30 J

Q105. The number density of molecules of a gas depends on their distance r from the origin as, n(r) = n
4
−αr
0e .

Then the numer of molecules is proportional to: 12 Apr 2019 (E)

1

(1) n 0α
−3
(2) √n 0
α 2

(3) n (4) n
−3 1

0α 0α
4 4

Q106. A 25 × 10 −3
m
3
volume cylinder is filled with 1 mol of O gas at room temperature (300 K) . The molecular
2

diameter of O , and its root mean square speed, are found to be 0.3 nm and 200 m/s , respectively. What is
2

the average collision rate (per second) for an O molecule? 2 10 Apr 2019 (M)

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Kinetic Theory of Gases JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) ~10 11
(2) ~10 12

(3) ~10 10
(4) ~10 13

Q107. When heat Q is supplied to a diatomic gas of rigid molecules, at constant volume its temperature increases by
Δ T . The heat required to produce the same change in temperature, at a constant pressure is:
10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 3

2
Q (2) 7

5
Q

(3) 5

3
Q (4) 2

3
Q

Q108. For given gas at 1 atm pressure, rms speed of the molecules is 200 m/s at 127°C. At 2 atm pressure and at
227° C, the rms speed of the molecules will be: 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 100 m/s (2) 80 m/s
(3) 80√5 m/s (4) 100√5 m/s

Q109. The specific heats, C and C of a gas of diatomic molecules, A, are given (in units of J mol
p v
−1
K
−1
) by 29
and 22, respectively. Another gas of diatomic molecules, B, has the corresponding values 30 and 21. If they
are treated as ideal gases, then: 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) A has one vibrational mode and B has two (2) A has a vibrational mode but B has none.
(3) Both A and B have a vibrational mode each. (4) A is rigid but B has a vibrational mode.

Q110. An HCl molecule has rotational, translational and vibrational motions. If the rms velocity of HCl molecules
−
in its gaseous phase is ν , m is its mass and k is Boltzmann's constant, then its temperature will be:
B

09 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) (2)
2 2
− −
m ν m ν
5k B 6k B
2 2

(3) m
−
ν (4) m
−
ν
3k B 7k B

Q111. The temperature, at which the root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules equals their escape their
escape velocity from the earth, is closest to:
[ Boltzmann Constant k B = 1.38 × 10
−23
J/K , Avogadro number N A = 6.02 × 10
26
/kg

Radius of Earth: 6.4 × 10 6

, Gravitational acceleration on Earth = 10 ms
m
−2
] 08 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 3 × 10 5
K (2) 650 K
(3) 800 K (4) 10 4
K

Q112. An ideal gas occupies a volume of 2 m at a pressure of 3 × 103 6

P a. The energy of the gas is:
12 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 10 8
J (2) 9 × 10 6
J

(3) 3 × 10 2
J (4) 6 × 10 4
J

Q113. An ideal gas is enclosed in a cylinder at pressure of 2 atm and temperature, 300 K. The mean time between
two successive collisions is 6 × 10 −8
s. If the pressure is doubled and temperature is increased to 500 K, the
mean time between two successive collisions will be close to: 12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 2 x 10 −7
s (2) 3 x 10 −6
s

(3) 0. 5 x 10 −8
s (4) 4 x 10 −8
s

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Q114. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 5 moles of argon at temperature T. Considering only
translational and rotational modes, the total internal energy of the system is 11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 15RT (2) 12RT
(3) 4RT (4) 20RT

Q115. When 100 g of a liquid A at 100 ∘

C is added to 50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75 ∘
C , the temperature of the
mixture becomes 90 ∘
C. The temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid A at 100 ∘
C is added to 50 g of
liquid B at 50 ∘
, will be:
C 11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 85 ∘
C (2) 60 ∘
C

(3) 80 ∘
C (4) 70 ∘
C

Q116. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto 500 ∘

C and dropped into a vessel of heat capacity 800JK −1
and
containing 0.5 kg water. The initial temperature of water and vessel is 30 ∘
C. What is the approximate
percentage increment in the temperature of the water? [Specific Heat Capacities of water and metal are,
respectively, 4200Jkg − 1
K
−1
and 400Jkg −1
K
−1
] 11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 15% (2) 30%
(3) 25% (4) 20%

Q117. 2 kg of a monoatomic gas is at a pressure of 4 × 10 4

N m
−2
. The density of the gas is 8 kg m
−3
. What is the
order of energy of the gas due to its thermal motion? 10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 10 5
J (2) 10 6
J

(3) 10 4
J (4) 10 3
J

Q118. An unknown metal of mass 192 g heated to a temperature of 100°C was immersed into a brass calorimeter of
mass 128 g containing 240 g of water at a temperature of 8.4 o
C. Calculate the specific heat of the unknown
metal if water temperature stabilizes at 21.5 o
C. ( Specific heat of brass is 394J kg −1
K
−1
) 10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 916 J kg −1
K
−1
(2) 458 J kg −1
K
−1

(3) 654 J kg −1
K
−1
(4) 1232 J kg −1
K
−1

Q119. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass = 4u) , and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic mass = 40 u) is
kept at 300 K in a container. The ratio of their rms speeds [
V rms (helium)
], is close to: 09 Jan 2019 (M)
V rms (argon)

(1) 0.45 (2) 2.24

(3) 0.32 (4) 3.16

Q120. A 15 g mass of nitrogen gas is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature, 27 o

C . The amount of heat transferred to
the gas, so that R. M . S. velocity of molecules is doubled, is about.
[R = 8 .3 J (K mole)
−1
] 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 14 kJ (2) 10 kJ

(3) 6 kJ (4) 0 .9 kJ

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3)
9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (3)
17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (3)
25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (4)
33. (4) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (3)
41. (3) 42. (3) 43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1)
49. (3) 50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (250) 56. (3)
57. (12) 58. (2) 59. (500) 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (3)
65. (3) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (25) 69. (3) 70. (4) 71. (1) 72. (3)
73. (1) 74. (1) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (2)
81. (2) 82. (3600) 83. (3) 84. (400) 85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (1)
89. (41) 90. (1) 91. (1) 92. (3) 93. (267) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (1)
97. (1) 98. (2) 99. (4) 100. (3) 101. (1) 102. (4) 103. (1) 104. (2)
105. (3) 106. (2) 107. (2) 108. (4) 109. (2) 110. (3) 111. (4) 112. (2)
113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (3) 116. (4) 117. (3) 118. (1) 119. (4) 120. (2)

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Q1. A plane EM wave is propagating along x direction. It has a wavelength of 4 mm. If electric field is in y
direction with the maximum magnitude of 60Vm , the equation for magnetic field is : −1
09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) B z = 2 × 10
−7
sin [
π

2
× 10
3 ^
(x − 3 × 10 t)]kT
8

(2) B z = 60 sin [
π

2
8 ^
(x − 3 × 10 t)]kT

(3) B x = 60 sin [
π

2
8 ^
(x − 3 × 10 t)]i T

(4) B z = 2 × 10
−7
sin [
π

2
8 ^
(x − 3 × 10 t)]kT

Q2. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is B y = (3.5 × 10

−7 3
) sin (1.5 × 10 x + 0.5 × 10
11
t)T . The
corresponding electric field will be : 09 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) E y
3
= 10.5 sin (1.5 × 10 x + 0.5 × 10
11
t)Vm
−1
(2) E z
3
= 1.17 sin (1.5 × 10 x + 0.5 × 10
11
t)Vm
−1

(3) E y
3
= 1.17 sin (1.5 × 10 x + 0.5 × 10
11
t)Vm
−1
(4) E z
3
= 105 sin (1.5 × 10 x + 0.5 × 10
11
t)Vm
−1

Q3. In the given electromagnetic wave E y = 600 sin(ωt − kx)Vm

−1
, intensity of the associated light beam is (in
W/m
2
: (Given ϵ 0 = 9 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
) 06 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 243 (2) 729
(3) 972 (4) 486

Q4. Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium with speed of 1.5 × 10 8 −1

m s . The relative permeability of the
medium is 2.0 . The relative permittivity will be: 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 1

Q5. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II 05 Apr 2024 (E)
EM-Wave Wavelength Range

−3
(A) Inf ra-red (I) < 10 nm

(B) Ultraviolet (II) 400 nm to 1 nm

(C) X-rays S (III) 1 mm to 700 nm

−3
(D) Gamma rays (IV) 1 nm to 10 nm

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Q6. An alternating voltage of amplitude 40 V and frequency 4kHz is applied directly across the capacitor of 12μF.
The maximum displacement current between the plates of the capacitor is nearly : 05 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 10 A (2) 12 A
(3) 8 A (4) 13 A

Q7. Arrange the following in the ascending order of wavelength:

A. Gamma rays (λ 1) B. x - rays (λ 2) C. Infrared waves (λ 3) D. Microwaves (λ 4)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below 04 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) λ 4 < λ3 < λ1 < λ2 (2) λ 2 < λ1 < λ4 < λ3

(3) λ 1 < λ2 < λ3 < λ4 (4) λ 4 < λ3 < λ2 < λ1

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Q8. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by → ^

E = i40 cos ω(t − z/c)NC . The magnetic field−1

induction of this wave is (in SI unit) : 04 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) B = k
→
^ 40
→ = ^j40 cos ω(t − z/c)
(2) B
cos ω(t − z/c)
C

(3) B = ^i
→
40
cos ω(t − z/c)
(4) → ^
B = j
40
cos ω(t − z/c)
C C

Q9. If frequency of electromagnetic wave is 60 MHz and it travels in air along z direction then the corresponding
electric and magnetic field vectors will be mutually perpendicular to each other and the wavelength of the wave
(in m) is : 01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) 2. 5 (2) 10
(3) 5 (4) 2

Q10. In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 5 × 10 10

Hz and an amplitude
of 50 V m . The total average energy density of the electromagnetic field of the wave is : [Use
–1

ε0 = 8. 85 × 10
–12
C
2
N
−1 −2
m ] 31 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 1. 106 × 10 –8
J m
–3
(2) 4. 425 × 10 –8
J m
–3

(3) 2. 212 × 10 –8
J m
–3
(4) 2. 212 × 10 –10
J m
–3

Q11. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Electromagnetic waves carry energy as they travel through space and this energy is equally shared
by the electric and magnetic fields.
Statement II: When electromagnetic waves strike a surface, a pressure is exerted on the surface.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
31 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Q12. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is represented as →

E = E cos(ωt − kz)î . The
0

corresponding magnetic induction vector will be : 30 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) B = E
→
ˆ (2) B =→
E0
ˆ
0C cos(ωt − kz)j cos(ωt − kz)j
C

(3) →
B = E C cos(ωt + kz)ĵ
(4) →
B =
E0
cos(ωt + kz)ĵ
0 C

Q13. Match List I with List II

List I List II
→
A. Gauss’s law of magnetostatics i. →
∮ E ⋅ da =
1

ε0
∫ ρdV

→
B. Faraday’s law of electro magnetic induction ii. →
∮ B ⋅ da = 0

→ → →
C. Ampere’s law iii. ∮ E ⋅ dl =
−d →
∫ B ⋅ da
dt

→ →
D. Gauss’s law of electrostatics iv. ∮ B ⋅ dl = μ0I

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

30 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q14. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 35 MHz travels in free space along the X-direction. At a
→
particular point (in space and time) E ˆ
= 9. 6j V m
−1
. The value of magnetic field at this point is:
29 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 3. 2 × 10 −8ˆ
k T (2) 3. 2 × 10 −8
î

(3) 9. 6ĵ T (4) 9. 6 × 10 −8ˆ

k T

Q15. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction is described by

Ey = (200 V m
−1 7
) sin[1. 5 × 10 t − 0. 05x]; The intensity of the wave is :
(Use ϵ 0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12 2
C N
−1
m
−2
)
27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 35. 4 W m −2
(2) 53. 1 W m −2

(3) 26. 6 W m −2
(4) 106. 2 W m −2

Q16. An object is placed in a medium of refractive index 3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 6 × 10 8

W m
−2

falls normally on the object and it is absorbed completely. The radiation pressure on the object would be
(speed of light in free space = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
): 27 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 36 N m −2
(2) 18 N m −2

(3) 6 N m −2
(4) 2 N m −2

Q17. Match List-I with List II of Electromagnetic waves with corresponding wavelength range:
List I List II
(A) Microwave (I) 400 nm to 1 nm

(B) Ultraviolet (II) 1 nm to 10 –3

nm

(C) X -Ray (III) 1 mm to 700 nm

(D) Infra-red (IV) 0. 1 m to 1 mm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

15 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) (A) − (IV), (B) − (I), (C) − (II), (D) − (III) (2) (A) − (IV), (B) − (I), (C) − (III), (D) − (II)

(3) (A) − (IV), (B) − (II), (C) − (I), (D) − (III) (4) (A) − (I), (B) − (IV), (C) − (II), (D) − (III)

Q18. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at a particular position, the electric field is along the negative z-
axis and magnetic field is along the positive x-axis. Then the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave
is: 13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) positive z-axis (2) positive y-axis
(3) at 45° angle from positive y -axis (4) negative y-axis

Q19. Which of the following Maxwell’s equation is valid for time varying conditions but not valid for static
conditions:

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13 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) ∮ → →
B ⋅ dl = μ0I
(2) ∮ → →
E ⋅ dl = 0

− → → → →
(3)
∮ E ⋅ dl = −
∂ϕB (4)
∮ D ⋅ dA = Q ∂t

Q20. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Out of microwaves, infrared rays and ultraviolet rays, ultraviolet rays are the most effective for
the emission of electrons from a metallic surface
Statement II : Above the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is inversely
proportional to the frequency of the incident light
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q21. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : EM waves used for optical communication have longer wavelengths than that of microwave,
employed in Radar technology.
Reason R : Infrared EM waves are more energetic than microwaves, (used in Radar)
In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q22. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. At a particular
space and time
→
ˆ V m−1
E = 6. 6j
→
. What is B at this point? 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 2. 2 × 10 −8
k̂T (2) −2. 2 × 10 −8
îT

(3) −2. 2 × 10 −8ˆ

kT (4) 2. 2 × 10 −8
ˆT
i

Q23. The amplitude of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is 6. 0 × 10
–7
. The
T

maximum value of electric field in the electromagnetic wave is 10 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 2 × 10 15
V m
–1
(2) 180 V m –1

(3) 6. 0 × 10
–7
V m
–1
(4) 5 × 10 14
V m
–1

Q24. The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded with high energy electrons are 08 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Microwaves (2) Infrared rays
(3) X-rays (4) Radio Waves

Q25. The energy density associated with electric field → →

E and magnetic field B of an electromagnetic wave in free

space is given by (ε − permittivity of free space, μ − permeability of free space)

0 0

06 Apr 2023 (E)

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2 2 2

(1) U (2) U
2
E B ε0E B
E = , UB = E = , UB =
2ε0 2μ0 2 2μ0

(3) U (4) U
2 2 2 2
ε0E μ0B E μ0B
E = , UB = E = , UB =
2 2 2ε0 2

Q26. Match the List-I with List-II:

List I List II
A Microwaves I Radioactive decay of the nucleus
B Gamma rays II Rapid acceleration and deceleration of electron in aerials
C Radio waves III Inner shell electrons
D X-rays IV Klystron valve
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q27. The ratio of average electric energy density and total average energy density of electromagnetic wave is:
01 Feb 2023 (E)
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 1

Q28. Match List I and List II

List I List II
A Microwaves I Physiotherapy
B UV rays II Treatment of cancer
C Infra-red rays III Lasik eye surgery
D X-rays IV Aircraft navigation
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
31 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Q29. Which of the following are true?

A. Speed of light in vacuum is dependent on the direction of propagation.
B. Speed of light in a medium is independent of the wavelength of light.
C. The speed of light is independent of the motion of the source.
D. The speed of light in a medium is independent of intensity.
Choose the correct answer from the question given below :
29 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) A and C only (2) B and D only
(3) B and C only (4) C and D only

Q30. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic field.

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Statement II : The amplitude of electric field and the magnetic field in electromagnetic waves are related to
each other as E 0 = √
μ0

ε0
B0.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
29 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q31. All electromagnetic wave is transporting energy in the negative z direction. At a certain point and certain time
the direction of electric field of the wave is along positive y direction. What will be the direction of the
magnetic field of the wave at that point and instant? 25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) Positive direction of x (2) Positive direction of z
(3) Negative direction of x (4) Negative direction of y

Q32. Match List I and List II

→ →
A Gauss’s Law in Electrostatics I ∮ E ⋅ dl = −
dϕB

dt

→ →
B Faraday's Law II ∮ B ⋅ dA = 0

→ →
C Gauss’s Law in Magnetism III ∮ B ⋅ dl = μ0ic + μ0 ∈0
dϕE

dt

→
D Ampere-Maxwell Law IV →
∮ E ⋅ ds =
q

∈0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

25 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q33. If →
E and
→
K represent electric field and propagation vectors of the EM waves in vacuum, then magnetic field
vector is given by: (ω− angular frequency)
24 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 1
→
(K × E)
→
(2) ω(E × K)→ →

(3) ω(K
→ →
× E)
(4) K
→ →
× E

Q34. The electric field and magnetic field components of an electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is
described by E x = E0 sin(kz − ωt) ; By = B0 sin(kz − ωt)

Then the correct relation between E and B is given by

0 0

24 Jan 2023 (E)

(1) E 0B0 = ωk (2) E 0 = kB0

(3) kE 0 = ωB0 (4) ωE 0 = kB0

Q35. Match List - I with List - II

List-I List-II
(a) UV rays (i) Diagnostic tool in medicine
(b) X -rays (ii) Water purification

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Electromagnetic Waves JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(c) Microwave (iii) Communication, Radar

(d) Infrared wave (iv) Improving visibility in foggy days
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
29 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) (a) − (iii), (b) − (ii), (c) − (i), (d) − (iv) (2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv)
(3) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (iii), (d) − (i) (4) (a) − (iii), (b) − (i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iv)

Q36. Sun light falls normally on a surface of area 36 cm

2
and exerts an average force of 7. 2 × 10 −9
N within a time
period of 20 minutes. Considering a case of complete absorption, the energy flux of incident light is
28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 25. 92 × 10 2
W cm
−2
(2) 8. 64 × 10 −6
W cm
−2

(3) 6. 0 W cm
−2
(4) 0. 06 W cm
−2

Q37. A beam of light travelling along X -axis is described by the electric field Ey = 900 sin ω(t −
x

c
). The ratio of
electric force to magnetic force on a charge q moving along Y -axis with a speed of 3 × 10
7
m s
−1
will be:
[Given speed of light = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
]
27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 10
(3) 10 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

Q38. Identify the correct statements from the following descriptions of various properties of electromagnetic waves.
A. In a plane electromagnetic wave electric field and magnetic field must be perpendicular to each other and
direction of propagation of wave should be along electric field or magnetic field.
B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic fields.
C. Both electric field and magnetic field are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of
propagation of wave.
D. The electric field, magnetic field and direction of propagation of wave must be perpendicular to each other.
E. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field is equal to speed of light.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
27 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) D only (2) B and D only
(3) B, C and E only (4) A, B and E only

Q39. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

By = 5 × 10
−6
sin 1000π(5x − 4 × 10 t) T
8
. The amplitude of electric field will be 26 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 15 × 10 2
Vm
−1
(2) 5 × 10 −6
Vm
−1

(3) 16 × 10 12
Vm
−1
(4) 4 × 10 2
Vm
−1

Q40. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

→
B = 2 × 10
−8 3
sin(0. 5 × 10 x + 1. 5 × 10
11
t)ĵ T . The amplitude of the electric field would be
26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 6 Vm −1
along x-axis (2) 3 Vm −1
along z-axis
(3) 6 Vm −1
along z-axis (4) 2 × 10 −8
Vm
−1
along z-axis

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Q41. Light wave travelling in air along x-direction is given by E y

4
= 540 sin π × 10 (x − ct) V m
−1
. Then, the peak
value of magnetic field of wave will be (Given c = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
) 25 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 18 × 10 −7
T (2) 54 × 10 −7
T

(3) 54 × 10 −8
T (4) 18 × 10 −8
T

Q42. The intensity of the light from a bulb incident on a surface is 0. 22 W m

−2
. The amplitude of the magnetic
field in this light-wave is _____ ×10
−9
T (Given: Permittivity of vacuum ϵ0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12 2
C N
−1
m
−2
,
speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 10 8 −1
m s )
29 Jun 2022 (M)

Q43. If Electric field intensity of a uniform plane electromagnetic wave is given as

E = −301.6 sin(kz − ωt)âx + 452.4 sin(kz − ωt)ây V m
−1
. Then, magnetic intensity H of this wave in Am −1

will be [Given : Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 10 8 −1

m s , Permeability of vacuum μ 0 = 4π × 10
−7
N A
−2
]

28 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) +0.8 sin(kz − ωt)â y + 0.8 sin(kz − ωt)âx

(2) +1.0 × 10 −6
sin(kz − ωt)ây + 1.5 × 10
−6
sin(kz − ωt)âx

(3) −0.8 sin(kz − ωt)â y − 1.2 sin(kz − ωt)âx

(4) −1.0 × 10 −6
sin(kz − ωt)ây − 1.5 × 10
−6
sin(kz − ωt)âx

Q44. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: A time varying electric field is a source of changing magnetic field and vice-versa. Thus a
disturbance in electric or magnetic field creates EM waves.
Statement II: In a material medium, the EM wave travels with speed v = 1

√ μ0ϵ0
.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Q45. Match List - I with List - II

List-I List-II
(a) Ultravoilet rays (i) Study crystal structure
(b) Microwaves (ii) Greenhouse effect
(c) Infrared waves (iii) Sterilizing surgical instrument
(d) X -rays (iv) Radar system
27 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) (a) − (iii), (b)(iv), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i) (2) (a) − (iii), (b)(i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iv)

(3) (a) − (iv), (b)(iii), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i) (4) (a) − (iii), (b)(iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (ii)

Q46. Which is the correct ascending order of wavelengths? 26 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) λ visible < λX−ray < λgamma−ray < λmicrowave (2) λ gamma−ray < λX−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave

(3) λ X−ray < λgamma−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave (4) λ microwave < λvisible < λgamma−ray < λX−ray

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Q47. If Electric field intensity of a uniform plane electro magnetic wave is given as
E = −301. 6 sin(kz − ωt)âx + 452. 4 sin(kz − ωt)ây V m
−1
. Then, magnetic intensity H of this wave in
A m
−1
will be [Given : Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
, Permeability of vacuum
μ0 = 4π × 10
−7
N A
−2
] 26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) +0. 8 sin(kz − ωt)â y + 0. 8 sin(kz − ωt)âx

(2) +1. 0 × 10 −6
sin(kz − ωt)ây + 1. 5 × 10
−6
(kz − ωt)âx

(3) −0. 8 sin(kz − ωt)â y − 1. 2 sin(kz − ωt)âx

(4) −1. 0 × 10 −6
sin(kz − ωt)ây − 1. 5 × 10
−6
sin(kz − ωt)âx

Q48. The electromagnetic waves travel in a medium at a speed of 2. 0 × 10 8

m s
−1
. The relative permeability of the
medium is 1. 0. The relative permittivity of the medium will be 25 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 2. 25 (2) 4. 25
(3) 6. 25 (4) 8. 25

Q49. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by E = 56. 5 sin ω(

t−x

c
) NC
−1
. Find the intensity of the
wave if it is propagating along x-axis in the free space. (Given ϵ 0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
)
25 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 5. 65 Wm −2
(2) 1. 9 × 10 −7
Wm
−2

(3) 4. 24 Wm
−2
(4) 56. 5 Wm −2

Q50. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a medium of relative permeability 1. 61 and relative permittivity 6. 44.
If magnitude of magnetic intensity is 4. 5 × 10 −2
A m
−1
at a point, what will be the approximate magnitude of
electric field intensity at that point? (Given: Permeability of free space μ0 = 4π × 10
−7
N A
−2
, speed of light
in vacuum c = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
)
24 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 16. 96 V m −1
(2) 2. 25 × 10 −2
V m
−1

(3) 8. 48 V m −1
(4) 6. 75 × 10 6
V m
−1

Q51. An electric bulb is rated as 200 W. What will be the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance produced by the
radiations coming from this bulb? Consider this bulb as a point source with 3. 5% efficiency. 24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 1. 19 × 10 −8
T (2) 1. 71 × 10 −8
T

(3) 0. 84 × 10 −8
T (4) 3. 36 × 10 −8
T

Q52. There are two infinitely long straight current-carrying conductors and they are held at right
angles to each other so that their common ends meet at the origin as shown in the figure given
below. The ratio of current in both conductors is 1 : 1 . The magnetic field at point P is
_________.

01 Sep 2021 (E)

(1) μ0I

π
4 xy
[√ x + y − (x + y)]
2 2 (2) μ0Ixy

4π [√ x + y − (x + y)]
2 2

(3) μ0I
2 2
[√ x + y + (x + y)] (4) μ0Ixy
2 2
[√ x + y + (x + y)]
π
4 xy 4π

Q53. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by E = (50 N C

−1
) sin ω(t −
x

c
)

The energy contained in a cylinder of volume V is 5. 5 × 10 −12

J. The value of V is _______ cm 3
.

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(given ϵ 0 = 8. 8 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
) 31 Aug 2021 (M)

Q54. The magnetic field vector of an electromagnetic wave is given by B = B 0

ˆ ˆ
i+j
cos(kz − ωt) where î, ĵ
√2

represents unit vector along x and y-axis respectively. At t = 0 s, two electric charges q of 4π coulomb and q 1 2

of 2π coulomb located at (0, 0,

π

k
) and (0, 0,
3π

k
), respectively, have the same velocity of 0. 5cî, (where c is
the velocity of light ). The ratio of the force acting on charge q to q is : 1 2
31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 1 : √2 (2) 2√2 : 1

(3) √2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

Q55. The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by, E = 50 sin(500x − 10 × 10
10
t) V m
−1
. The
velocity of an electromagnetic wave in this medium is: (Given c = the speed of light in vacuum).
27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 3

2
c (2) c
(3) c

2
(4) 2

3
c

Q56. A plane electromagnetic wave with a frequency of 30 MHz travels in free space. At a particular point in space
and time, the electric field is 6 V m . The magnetic field at this point will be x × 10
−1 −8
. The value of x is,
T

27 Aug 2021 (E)

Q57. The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

→
E = 200 cos[(0. 5 × 10
3
m
−1
)x − (1. 5 × 10
11
rad s
−1
)t] V m
−1
.
ˆ
j

If this wave falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface having an area of 100 2
cm . If the radiation pressure
exerted by the E.M. wave on the surface during a 10 min exposure is k

10
9
N m
−2
. Find the value of k
26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q58. A light beam is described by E = 800 sin ω(t −

x

c
). An electron is allowed to move normal to the propagation
of light beam with a speed of 3 × 10 7 −1
m s . What is the maximum magnetic force exerted on the electron?
26 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 1. 28 × 10 −21
N (2) 12. 8 × 10 −18
N

(3) 1. 28 × 10 −18
N (4) 12. 8 × 10 −17
N

Q59. A linearly polarised electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E 6 ˆ

= 3. 1 cos[(1. 8)z − (5. 4 × 10 )t]i N C
−1
is
incident normally on a perfectly reflecting wall at z = a. Choose the correct option. 25 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) The wavelength is 5. 4 m.
(2) The frequency of electromagnetic wave is 54 × 10 4
Hz .
(3) The transmitted wave will be 3. 1 cos[(1. 8)z − (5. 4 × 10 6 ˆ
)t]i N/C .
(4) The reflected wave will be 3. 1 cos[(1. 8)z + (5. 4 × 10 6 ˆ
)t]i N C
−1
.

Q60. Intensity of sunlight is observed as 0. 092 Wm

−2
at a point in free space. What will be the peak value of
magnetic field at that point ? (ε 0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1
m
−2
) 22 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 2. 77 × 10 −8
T (2) 1. 96 × 10 −8
T

(3) 8. 31 T (4) 5. 88 T

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Q61. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field vector and magnetic field vector are given as →
E = E i and
ˆ
0

→
ˆ
B = B0k , respectively. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along: 20 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) (ˆ
k) (2) ˆ
J

(3) (−k̂) (4) (−ĵ)

Q62. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating along y-direction can have the following pair of electric field (→
E)

and magnetic field (B) components.

→
18 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) E y, By or E z, Bz (2) E y, Bx or E x, By

(3) E x, Bz or E z, Bx (4) E x, By or E y, Bx

Q63. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 100 MHz is traveling in a vacuum along the x−direction. At a
→ →
particular point in space and time, B = 2. 0 × 10 −8 ˆ
kT⋅ (where, ˆ
k is unit vector along z−direction) What is E

at this point? 18 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) 0. 6ĵ V m −1
(2) ˆ
6. 0k V m
−1

(3) 6. 0ĵ V m −1
(4) 0. 6ˆ
k V m
−1

Q64. If 2. 5 × 10
−6
N average force is exerted by a light wave on a non-reflecting surface of 30 cm
2
area during
40 min of time span, the energy flux of light just before it falls on the surface is _______ W cm
−2
(Round off
.

to the Nearest Integer), (Assume complete absorption and normal incidence conditions are there)
17 Mar 2021 (M)

Q65. For an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the relation between average energy densities due to
electric (U ) and magnetic (U
e m) fields is : 16 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) U e = Um (2) U e > Um

(3) U e < Um (4) U e ≠ Um

Q66. Red light differs from blue light as they have : 16 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) Different frequencies and different wavelengths (2) Different frequencies and same wavelengths
(3) Same frequencies and same wavelengths (4) Same frequencies and different wavelengths

Q67. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 500 MHz is traveling in a vacuum along the y− direction. At a
→
particular point in space and time, B = 8. 0 × 10 −8
ẑ T . The value of the electric field at this point is:(speed of
light = 3 × 10 8
ms
−1
) x̂, ŷ, ẑ are unit vectors along x, y and z direction.
16 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) −24x̂ V m −1
(2) 2. 6x̂ V m
−1

(3) 24x̂ V m
−1
(4) −2. 6x̂ V m
−1

Q68. A radiation is emitted by 1000 W bulb and it generates an electric field and magnetic field at P , placed at a
distance of 2 m. The efficiency of the bulb is 1. 25%. The value of peak electric field at P is x × 10 −1
V m
−1
.
Value of x is (Rounded-off to the nearest integer) [Take
ε0 = 8. 85 × 10
−12
C
2
N
−1 −2
m , c = 3 × 10
6 −1
m s ] 26 Feb 2021 (M)

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Q69. The wavelength of an X-ray beam is 10 Å. The mass of a fictitious particle having the same energy as that of
the X-ray photons is x

3
h kg. The value of x is ___ . (h =Planck's constant) 25 Feb 2021 (E)

Q70. Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
(a) Source of microwave frequency (i) Radioactive decay of nucleus
(b) Source of infrared frequency (ii) Magnetron
(c) Source of Gamma Rays (iii) Inner shell electrons
(d) Source of X-rays (iv) Vibration of atoms and molecules
(v) LASER
(vi) RC circuit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(vi), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(vi), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)
(3) (a)-(vi), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Q71. An X-ray tube is operated at 1. 24 million volt. The shortest wavelength of the produced photon will be:
24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) 10 −3
nm (2) 10 −2
nm

(3) 10 −4
nm (4) 10 −1
nm

Q72. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 GHz enters a dielectric medium of relative electric permittivity 2. 25
from vacuum. The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be _________ ×10 −2
cm. 24 Feb 2021 (E)

Q73. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 5 GHz, is travelling in a medium whose relative electric permittivity
and relative magnetic permeability both are 2. Its velocity in this medium is _______×10 7 −1
m s .
24 Feb 2021 (M)

Q74. For a plane electromagnetic wave, the magnetic field at a point x and time t is :
→
B(x, t) = [1 .2 ×10
−7 3
sin(0 .5 ×10 x + 1 .5 ×10
11 ˆ
t)k] T .
→ →
The instantaneous electric field E corresponding to B is :
06 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) →
E(x, t) = [−36
3
sin(0. 5 × 10 x + 1. 5 × 10
11
t)ĵ]
V

(2) →
E(x, t) = [36
3
sin(1 × 10 x + 0. 5 × 10
11 ˆ
t)j]
V

(3) →
E(x, t) = [36
3
sin(0. 5 × 10 x + 1. 5 × 10
11 ˆ
t)k]
V

(4) →
E(x, t) = [36 sin(1 × 10
3
x + 15 × 10
11
t)î]
V

Q75. The correct match between the entries in column I and column II are :
I II
Radiation Wavelength
a Microwave i 100 m

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b Gamma rays ii 10
−15
m

c A.M. radio iii 10

−10
m

d X–rays iv 10
−3
m

05 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) (a)–(ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) (2) (a)–(i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv) (4) (a)–(iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Q76. Choose the correct option relating wavelengths of different parts of electromagnetic wave spectrum:
04 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) λ visible < λmicro waves < λradio waves < λx-rays (2) λ radio waves > λmicro waves > λvisible > λx-rays

(3) λ x-rays < λmicro waves < λradio waves < λvisible (4) λ visible > λx-rays > λradio waves > λmicro waves

Q77. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by →

E = E . Its magnetic field
0(x̂ + ŷ) sin(kz − ωt)

will be given by
04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) E0

c
(−x̂ + ŷ) sin(kz − ωt) (2) E0

c
(x̂ + ŷ) sin(kz − ωt)

(3) E0

c
(x̂ − ŷ) sin(kz − ωt) (4) E0

c
(x̂ − ŷ) cos(kz − ωt)

Q78. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is →

B = 3 × 10
−8
sin[200π(y + ct)]î T . Where,
c = 3 × 10
8 −1
m s is the speed of light the corresponding electric filed is : 03 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) → ˆ
E = 9 sin[200π(y + ct)] kV/m
(2) →
E = −10
−6 ^
sin[200π(y + ct)] kV/m

(3) →
E = 3 × 10
−8 ˆ
sin[200π(y + ct)] kV/m
(4) → ˆ
E = −9 sin[200π(y + ct)] kV/m

Q79. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating along the x direction in vacuum is
→ →
E = E0 jcos(ωt − kx). The magnetic field B, at the moment t = 0 is:

03 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) B =
→
E0
ˆ
cos(kx)k
(2) B = E
→
ˆ
0√ μ0ϵ0 cos(kx)j
√ μ0ϵ0

(3) →
B = E
(4) → E0
0√ μ0ε0 cos(kx)k̂ B = cos(kx)ĵ
√ μ0ϵ0

Q80. Two sources of light emit X-rays of wavelength 1 nm and visible light of wavelength 500 nm, respectively.
Both the sources emit light of the same power 200 W. The ratio of the number density of photons of X-rays to
the number density of photons of the visible light of the given wavelengths is: 03 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 1

500
(2) 250
(3) 1

250
(4) 500

Q81. A plane electromagnetic wave, has frequency of 2. 0 × 10 10

Hz and its energy density is 1. 02 × 10 −8 −3
J m in
2

vacuum. The amplitude of the magnetic field of the wave is close to ( 4πε
1

0
= 9 × 10
9 Nm

C
2
) and speed of light
= 3 × 10
8
m s
−1
. 02 Sep 2020 (M)

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 Electromagnetic Waves JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 150 nT (2) 160 nT

(3) 180 nT (4) 190 nT

Q82. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the directions of electric field and magnetic field are represented by ˆ
k and

2î − 2ĵ , respectively. What is the unit vector along direction of propagation of the wave. 02 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 1
ˆ ˆ
(i + j) (2) 1
ˆ
(j + k)
√2 √2

(3) 1
(î + 2ĵ) (4) 1
(2î + ĵ)
√5 √5

Q83. A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the direction ˆ ˆ

i+j
, with its polarization along the direction
√2

ˆ
k. The correct form of the magnetic field of the wave would be (here B is an appropriate constant): 0

09 Jan 2020 (E)

(1) B 0
ˆ ˆ
i−j
cos(ωt − k
ˆ ˆ
i+j
) (2) B 0
ˆ ˆ
j−i
cos(ωt + k
ˆ ˆ
i+j
)
√2 √2 √2 √2

(3) B ˆ
0kcos(ωt − k
î+ĵ
) (4) B 0
î+ĵ
cos(ωt − k
î+ĵ
)
√2 √2 √2

−
→
Q84.
The electric fields of two plane electromagnetic plane waves in vacuum are given by E 1 = E0ĵ cos(ωt − kx)

−
→
→
ˆ
E2 = E0k cos(ωt − ky) and
t = 0, q v = 08cĵ c At a particle of charge is at origin with a velocity ( is the
speed of light in vaccum). The instantaneous force experienced by the particle is: 09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) ˆ
E0q(0.8î − ĵ + 0.4k) (2) ˆ
E0q(0.4î − 3ĵ + 0.8k)

(3) E 0q(−0.8i
ˆ ˆ ˆ
+ j + k) (4) E 0q(0.8i
ˆ ˆ ˆ
+ j + 0.2k)

Q85. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25GHz is propagating in vacuum along the z-direction. At a
→
particular point in space and time, the magnetic filed is given by B = 5 × 10 −8
ĵ T . The corresponding electric
→
field E is (speed of light = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
) 08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 1.66 × 10 −16
î
V

m
(2) −1.66 × 10 −16
î
V

(3) −15ˆi m
V
(4) 15ˆi V

Q86. If the magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

→
B = 3 × 10
−8 3 10
sin(1.6 × 10 x + 48 × 10 t)ĵT , then what will be expression for electric field ?
07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) →
3 10
E = (60 sin(1.6 × 10 x + 48 × 10 t)k̂
V
)
m

(2) →
E = (9 sin(1.6 × 10
3
x + 48 × 10
10 ˆ
t)k
V
)
m

(3) E →
= (3 × 10
−8 3
sin(1.6 × 10 x + 48 × 10
10
t)ĵ
V
)
m

(4) →
E = (3 × 10
−8 3
sin(1.6 × 10 x + 48 × 10
10 ˆ
t)i
V
)
m

Q87. An electromagnetic wave is represented by the electric filed →

E = E ωt + (6y − 8z)]. Taking unit vectors
0n̂ sin[

in x, y and z directions to be î, ĵ, ˆ

k, the directions of propogations ŝ, is: 12 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) ŝ = ˆ ˆ
3i−4j
(2) ŝ = ( ˆ ˆ
−3i+4j
)
5 5

(3) ŝ = 4î−3k̂

5
(4) ŝ = −4î−3k̂

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Q88. A plane electromagnetic wave having a frequency f = 23.9 GHz propagates along the positive z− direction in
free space. The peak value of the Electric Field is 60 V/m. Which among the following is the acceptable
magnetic field component in the electromagnetic wave? 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) B = 2 × 10
→
−7 3
sin(0.5 × 10 z − 1.5 × 10
11 ˆ
t)i
(2) B = 2 × 10
→
−7 3
sin(1.5 × 10 x + 0.5 × 10
11 ˆ
t)j

(3) →
B = 2 × 10
7 3
sin(0.5 × 10 z + 1.5 × 10
11 ˆ
t)i
(4) →
B = 60 sin(0.5 × 10
3
x + 1.5 × 10
11 ˆ
t)i

Q89. Given below in the left column are different modes of communication using the kinds of waves given in the
right column.
(1) Optical Fibre Communication (P) Ultrasound
(2) Radar (Q) Infrared Light
(3) Sonar (R) Microwaves
(4) Mobile Phones (S) Radio Waves
From the options given below, find the most appropriate match between entries in the left and the right
column. 10 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 1 − Q, 2 − S, 3 − P, 4 − R (2) 1 − S, 2 − Q, 3 − R, 4 − P

(3) 1 − Q, 2 − S, 3 − R, 4 − P (4) 1 − R, 2 − P, 3 − S, 4 − Q

Q90. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by →

E = E î cos(kz)cos( ωt). The corresponding
0

→
magnetic field B is then given by: 10 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) →
B =
E0
ˆ
j cos(kz)sin( ωt) (2) →
B =
E0
ˆ
k sin(kz)cos( ωt)
C C

(3) →
B =
E0
ĵ sin(kz)sin( ωt) (4) →
B =
E0
ĵ sin(kz)cos( ωt)
C C

Q91. Sunlight of intensity 50 W m −2

is incident normally on the surface of a solar panel. Some part of incident
energy (25%) is reflected from the surface and the rest is absorbed. The force exerted on 1 m surface area will 2

be close to (c = 3 × 10 8 −1
m s ) 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 15 × 10 −8
N (2) 20 × 10 −8
N

(3) 10 × 10 −8
N (4) 35 × 10 −8
N

Q92. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by →

B = B î[cos(kz − ωt)] + B ĵcos(kz + ωt),
0 1

where B 0
= 3 × 10
–5
T and B 1
= 2 × 10
–6
T . The RMS value of the force experienced by a stationary charge
Q = 10
–4
C at z = 0 is closest to 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 0.1 N (2) 0.9 N
(3) 3 × 10 –2
N (4) 0.6 N

Q93. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along the x-direction. The electric field component of the
wave at a particular point of space and time is E = 6 V m −1
along y-direction. Its corresponding magnetic
field component, B would be: 08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 2 × 10
−8
T along z-direction (2) 2 × 10
−8
T along y-direction
(3) 6 × 10 −8
T along z-direction (4) 6 × 10
−8
T along x-direction

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Q94. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:

→
−6 7 15 ˆ ˆ Wb
B = 1.6 × 10 cos (2 × 10 z + 6 × 10 t) (2i + j) 2
m

The associated electric field will be: 08 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) E = 4.8 × 10
→
2 7
cos (2 × 10 z − 6 × 10
15
t) (−2 ĵ + î)
V

(2) →
E = 4.8 × 10
2 7
cos (2 × 10 z + 6 × 10
15 ˆ ˆ
t) (i − 2 j)
V

(3) →
E = 4.8 × 10
2 7
cos (2 × 10 z + 6 × 10
15
t) (−î + 2ĵ)
V

(4) →
E = 4.8 × 10
2 7
cos (2 × 10 z − 6 × 10
15
t) (2î + ĵ)
V

Q95. The mean intensity of radiation on the surface of the Sun is about 10 8
W /m .
2
The rms value of the
corresponding magnetic field is closest to: 12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 1T (2) 10 −2
T

(3) 10 2
T (4) 10 −4
T

Q96. A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area of 10 mm . The magnitude of the maximum electric field in
2

this electromagnetic wave is given by:

[Given permittivity of space ϵ 0 = 9 × 10
−12
SI units, Speed of light c = 3 × 10 8
m/s] 11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 2kV/m (2) 0.7kV/m
(3) 1kV/m (4) 1.4kV/m

Q97. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 50Wm −2

enters in a medium of refractive index 'n' without any loss. The
ratio of the magnitudes of electric fields, and the ratio of the magnitudes of magnetic fields of the wave before
and after entering into the medium are respectively, given by : 11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) ( 1
,
1
) (2) (√n, √n)
√n √n

(3) (√n, 1
) (4) ( 1
, √n)
√n √n

Q98. If the magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by (The speed of light = 3 × 10 8
m/s)
B = 100 × 10
−6
sin[2π × 2 × 10
15
(t −
x

c
)] then the maximum electric field associated with it is:
10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 3 × 10 4
N C
−1
(2) 4 × 10 4
N C
−1

(3) 4.5 × 10 4
N C
−1
(4) 6 × 10 4
N C
−1

Q99. The electric field of a plane polarized electromagnetic wave in free space at time t = 0 is given by the
→ →
expression E(x, ˆ
y) = 10jcos(6x + 8z) . The magnetic field B(x, z, t) is given by (c is the velocity of light.)
10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 1

c
ˆ ˆ
(6k − 8i) cos(6x + 8z + 10 ct) (2) 1

c
ˆ ˆ
(6k + 8i) cos(6x + 8z − 10 ct)

(3) 1

c
(6k̂ + 8î) cos(6x − 8z + 10 ct) (4) 1

c
(6k̂ − 8î)cos(6x + 8z − 10 ct)

Q100. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 50 M H z travels in free space along the positive x - direction. At
−
→ →
ˆ
a particular point in space and time,
E = 6.3 j V /m, B, The corresponding magnetic field at that point will
be: 09 Jan 2019 (M)

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Electromagnetic Waves JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 2.1 × 10 −8ˆ

k T (2) 18.9 × 10 8ˆ
k T

(3) 18.9 × 10 −8
k̂ T (4) 6.3 × 10 −8
k̂ T

Q101. The energy associated with electric field is (U E

) and with magnetic field is (U )
B
for an electromagnetic wave
in free space. Then: 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) U E
> UB (2) U E
= UB

(3) U E
=
UB

2
(4) U E
< UB

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (4)
9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (3)
17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3)
25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (1)
33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (3)
41. (1) 42. (43) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (1)
49. (3) 50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (500) 54. (4) 55. (4) 56. (2)
57. (354) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (3) 64. (25)
65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (137) 69. (10) 70. (4) 71. (1) 72. (667)
73. (15) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (1) 78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (1)
81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (4) 85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (2) 88. (1)
89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (2) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (4)
97. (3) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100. (1) 101. (2)

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q1. A plane progressive wave is given by y = 2 cos 2π(330t − x)m. The frequency of the wave is : 08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 330 Hz (2) 660 Hz
(3) 340 Hz (4) 165 Hz

Q2. A closed and an open organ pipe have same lengths. If the ratio of frequencies of their seventh overtones is
(
a−1

a
) then the value of a is ________ 08 Apr 2024 (M)

Q3. Two open organ pipes of lengths 60 cm and 90 cm resonate at 6 th

and 5 th
harmonics respectively. The
difference of frequencies for the given modes is _______ Hz. (Velocity of sound in air = 333 m/s )
06 Apr 2024 (E)

Q4. A sonometer wire of resonating length 90 cm has a fundamental frequency of 400 Hz when kept under some
tension. The resonating length of the wire with fundamental frequency of 600 Hz under same tension _____cm.
05 Apr 2024 (E)

Q5. A tuning fork resonates with a sonometer wire of length 1 m stretched with a tension of 6 N. When the tension
in the wire is changed to 54 N, the same tuning fork produces 12 beats per second with it. The frequency of the
tuning fork is _______ Hz. 01 Feb 2024 (M)

Q6. The speed of sound in oxygen at S.T.P. will be approximately:

(Given, R = 8. 3 J K −1
, γ = 1. 4)

31 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) 310 m s −1
(2) 333 m s −1

(3) 341 m s −1
(4) 325 m s −1

Q7. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is equal to the first overtone frequency of an open organ pipe.
If length of the open pipe is 60 cm , the length of the closed pipe will be : 31 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 60 cm (2) 45 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm

Q8. A point source is emitting sound waves of intensity 16 × 10 −8

W m
−2
at the origin. The difference in intensity
(magnitude only) at two points located at a distances of 2 m and 4 m from the origin respectively will be
________×10 −8 −2
W m . 30 Jan 2024 (E)

Q9. In a closed organ pipe, the frequency of fundamental note is 30 Hz . A certain amount of water is now poured in
the organ pipe so that the fundamental frequency is increased to 110 Hz . If the organ pipe has a cross-sectional
area of 2 cm , the amount of water poured in the organ tube is ________g. (Take speed of sound in air is
2

330 m s
−1
) 30 Jan 2024 (M)

Q10. A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm , both
vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity of sound is ______ m s . −1

27 Jan 2024 (E)

Q11. The fundamental frequency of vibration of a string between two rigid support is 50 Hz . The mass of the string
is 18 g and its linear mass density is 20 g m . The speed of the transverse waves so produced in the string is
−1

_______ m s . –1
15 Apr 2023 (M)

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q12. In an experiment with sonometer when a mass of 180 g is attached to the string, it vibrates with fundamental
frequency of 30 Hz . When a mass m is attached, the string vibrates with fundamental frequency of 50 Hz . The
value of m is ______ g. 13 Apr 2023 (E)

Q13. For a certain organ pipe, the first three resonance frequencies are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 respectively. If the
frequency of fifth harmonic is 405 Hz and the speed of sound in air is 324 m s the length of the organ pipe is
–1

_____ m.
12 Apr 2023 (M)

Q14. The equation of wave is given by Y = 10

−2
sin 2π(160t − 0. 5x +
π

4
, where x and Y are in m and t in s. The
)

speed of the wave is _______ km h

−1
. 11 Apr 2023 (M)

Q15. A wire of density 8 × 10 3

kg m
−3
is stretched between two clamps 0. 5 m apart. The extension developed in
the wire is 3. 2 × 10 −4
. If Y
m = 8 × 10
10
N m
−2
, the fundamental frequency of vibration in the wire will be
_____ Hz 11 Apr 2023 (E)

Q16*. A car P travelling at 20 m s −1

sounds its horn at a frequency of 400 Hz . Another car Q is travelling behind
the first car in the same direction with a velocity 40 m s . The frequency heard by the passenger of the car Q
−1

is approximately [Take, velocity of sound = 360 m s ] −1

11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 421 Hz (2) 471 Hz

(3) 485 Hz (4) 514 Hz

Q17. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by y(x, t) = 5 sin(6t + 0. 003x) where x and y are in cm
and t in sec. The wave velocity is _________ m s . −1
10 Apr 2023 (M)

Q18. A guitar string of length 90 cm vibrates with a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz . The length of the string
producing a fundamental of 180 Hz will be _____ cm 08 Apr 2023 (E)

Q19. An organ pipe 40 cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360 m s . The frequency of the−1

second harmonic is _________ Hz. 08 Apr 2023 (M)

Q20*. The engine of a train moving with speed 10 m s −1

towards a platform sounds a whistle at frequency 400 Hz.
The frequency heard by a passenger inside the train is: (Neglect air speed. Speed of sound in air = 330 m s −1

) 08 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) 400 Hz (2) 200 Hz

(3) 412 Hz (4) 388 Hz

Q21. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same temperature is:
06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1

Q22*. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m s

−1
is approaching a vertical wall. The person notices a
change of 40 Hz in the frequency of his car’s horn upon reflection from the wall. The frequency of horn is
_______Hz. (Given: Speed of sound: 30 m s ) −1

06 Apr 2023 (M)

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Q23. A steel wire with mass per unit length 7. 0 × 10

–3
kg m
–1
is under tension of 70 N. The speed of transverse
waves in the wire will be: 01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) 200π m s −1
(2) 100 m s −1

(3) 10 m s −1
(4) 50 m s −1

Q24. For a solid rod, the Young's modulus of elasticity is 3. 2 × 10 11

N m
−2
and density is 8 × 10 3
kg m
−3
. The
velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod will be 31 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 145. 75 × 10 3
ms
−1
(2) 3. 65 × 10 3
m s
−1

(3) 18. 96 × 10 3
m s
−1
(4) 6. 32 × 10 3
m s
−1

Q25. The displacement equations of two interfering waves are given by y1 = 10 sin (ωt +
π

3
) cm ,
y2 = 5[sin (ωt) + √ 3 cos ωt] cm respectively. The amplitude of the resultant wave is _____ cm.
31 Jan 2023 (E)

Q26*. A person observes two moving trains, A reaching the station and B leaving the station with equal speed of
30 m s
−1
. If both trains emit sounds with frequency 300 Hz , (Speed of sound : 330 m s ) approximate
−1

difference of frequencies heard by the person will be : 29 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) 33 Hz (2) 55 Hz

(3) 80 Hz (4) 10 Hz

Q27. Match List I with List II

List I List II
A Troposphere I Approximate 65 − 75 km over Earth’s surface
B E-Part of Stratosphere II Approximate 300 km over Earth’s surface
C F -Part of Thermosphere III Approximate 10
2 km over Earth’s surface
D D-Part of Stratosphere IV Approximate 100 km over Earth’s surface
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
25 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Q28. The distance between two consecutive points with phase difference of 60° in a wave of frequency 500 Hz is
6. 0 m . The velocity with which wave is travelling is ______ km s
−1
. 25 Jan 2023 (M)

Q29*. A train blowing a whistle of frequency 320 Hz approaches an observer standing on the platform at a speed of
66 m s
−1
. The frequency observed by the observer will be (given speed of sound = 330 m s ) ______ Hz. −1

25 Jan 2023 (E)

Q30. A travelling wave is described by the equation y(x, t) = [0. 05 sin(8x − 4t)] m . The velocity of the wave is:
[All the quantities are in SI unit]
24 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 4 m s −1
(2) 2 m s −1

(3) 0. 5 m s −1
(4) 8 m s −1

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Q31. Two light beams of intensities 4I and 9I interfere on a screen. The phase difference between these beams on
the screen at point A is zero and at point B is π. The difference of resultant intensities, at the point A and B,
will be _____ I . 29 Jul 2022 (M)

Q32. The speed of a transverse wave passing through a string of length 50 cm and mass 10 g is 60 m s . The area −1

of cross-section of the wire is 2. 0 mm

2
and its Young's modulus is 1. 2 × 10 11
N m
−2
. The extension of the
wire over its natural length due to its tension will be x × 10 −5
. The value of x is _____ .
m 29 Jul 2022 (E)

Q33. In the wave equation y = 0. 5 sin 2π

λ
(400t − x)m the velocity of the wave will be : 28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 200 m s −1
(2) 200√2 m s −1

(3) 400 m s −1
(4) 400√2 m s −1

Q34*. The frequency of echo will be _____ Hz if the train blowing a whistle of frequency 320 Hz is moving with a
velocity of 36 km h
−1
towards a hill from which an echo is heard by the train driver. Velocity of sound in air
is 330 m s .−1
28 Jul 2022 (M)

Q35. A wire of length 30 cm , stretched between rigid supports, has it's n th

and (n + 1) harmonics at 400
th
Hz and
450 Hz , respectively. If tension in the string is 2700 N, it's linear mass density is _____ kg m
−1
.
27 Jul 2022 (E)

Q36. A transverse wave is represented by y = 2 sin(ωt − kx) cm. The value of wavelength (in cm) for which the
wave velocity becomes equal to the maximum particle velocity, will be 26 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 4π (2) 2π
(3) π (4) 2

Q37*. When a car is approaching the observer, the frequency of horn is 100 Hz. After passing the observer, it is
50 Hz . If the observer moves with the car, the frequency will be x

3
Hz where x =_____ . 26 Jul 2022 (M)

Q38*. An observer is riding on a bicycle and moving towards a hill at 18 km h . He hears a sound from a source
−1

at some distance behind him directly as well as after its reflection from the hill. If the original frequency of
the sound as emitted by source is 640 Hz and velocity of the sound in air is 320 m s , the beat frequency
−1

between the two sounds heard by observer will be _____ Hz. 25 Jul 2022 (M)

Q39. Sound travels in a mixture of two moles of helium and n moles of hydrogen. If rms speed of gas molecules in
the mixture is √2 times the speed of sound, then the value of n will be 25 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

Q40. A longitudinal wave is represented by y = 10 sin 2π(nt − x

λ
) cm . The maximum particle velocity will be four
times the wave velocity if the determined value of wavelength is equal to 29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2π (2) 5π
(3) π (4) 5π

Q41. In an experiment to determine the velocity of sound in air at room temperature using a resonance tube, the first
resonance is observed when the air column has a length of 20. 0 cm for a tuning fork of frequency 400 Hz is

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used. The velocity of the sound at room temperature is 336 m s . The third resonance is observed when the
−1

air column has a length of _____ cm 29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q42. A radar sends an electromagnetic signal of electric field (E 0) = 2. 25 V m

−1
and magnetic field
(B0) = 1. 5 × 10
−8
T which strikes a target on line of sight at a distance of 3 km in a medium. After that, a
part of signal (echo) reflects back towards the radar with same velocity and by same path. If the signal was
transmitted at time t = 0 from radar, then after how much time echo will reach to the radar? 28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2. 0 × 10 −5
s (2) 4. 0 × 10 −5
s

(3) 1. 0 × 10 −5
s (4) 8. 0 × 10 −5
s

Q43. The velocity of sound in a gas, in which two wavelengths 4. 08 m and 4. 16 m produce 40 beats in 12 s, will be
28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 282. 8 m s −1
(2) 175. 5 m s −1

(3) 353. 6 m s −1
(4) 707. 2 m s −1

Q44. A tunning fork of frequency 340 Hz resonates in the fundamental mode with an air column of length 125 cm

in a cylindrical tube closed at one end. When water is slowly poured in it, the minimum height of water
required for observing resonance once again is _____ cm.
(Velocity of sound in air is 340 ms
−1
) 28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q45. If a wave gets refracted into a denser medium, then which of the following is true? 27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) Wavelength, speed and frequency decreases.
(2) Wavelength increases, speed decreases and frequency remains constant.
(3) Wavelength and speed decreases but frequency remains constant.
(4) Wavelength, speed and frequency increases.

Q46*. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound.
The percentage change in the apparent frequency is 27 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) zero (2) 5%
(3) 10% (4) 20%

Q47. A set of 20 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing frequencies. If each fork gives 4 beats with respect
to the preceding fork and the frequency of the last fork is twice the frequency of the first, then the frequency of
last fork is _____ Hz. 26 Jun 2022 (E)

Q48*. For a specific wavelength 670 nm of light coming from a galaxy moving with velocity v, the observed
wavelength is 670. 7 nm . The value of v is 26 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
(2) 3. 13 × 10 5
m s
−1

(3) 3 × 10 10
m s
−1
(4) 4. 48 × 10 5
m s
−1

Q49. The first overtone frequency of an open organ pipe is equal to the fundamental frequency of a closed organ
pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm . The length of the open organ pipe is _____ cm
25 Jun 2022 (M)

Q50. The equations of two waves are given by :

y1 = 5 sin 2π(x − vt) cm : :y
2 = 3 sin 2π(x − vt + 1. 5) cm

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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These waves are simultaneously passing through a string. The amplitude of the resulting wave is :
24 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm

(3) 5. 8 cm (4) 8 cm

Q51. Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9 : 4 are allowed to interfere. The ratio of the intensity of maxima
and minima will be : 24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 16 : 81
(3) 25 : 169 (4) 25 : 1

Q52. Two travelling waves of equal amplitudes and equal frequencies move in opposite directions along a string.
They interfere to produce a stationary wave whose equation is given by y = (10 cos πx sin 2πt

T
) cm . The
amplitude of the particle at x = 4

3
cm will be _____ cm. 24 Jun 2022 (E)

Q53. A wire having a linear mass density 9. 0 × 10 −4

kg m
−1
is stretched between two rigid supports with a tension
of 900 N. The wire resonates at a frequency of 500 Hz. The next higher frequency at which the same wire
resonates is 550 Hz. The length of the wire is ____ m. 31 Aug 2021 (M)

Q54*. Two cars X and Y are approaching each other with velocities 36 km h
−1
and 72 km h
−1
respectively. The
frequency of a whistle sound as emitted by a passenger in car X, heard by the passenger in car Y is 1320 Hz.

If the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms

−1
, the actual frequency of the whistle sound produced is ________
Hz. 27 Aug 2021 (M)

Q55. A tuning fork is vibrating at 250 Hz . The length of the shortest closed organ pipe that will resonate with the
tuning fork will be _____cm. (Take speed of sound in air as 340 m s −1
) 27 Aug 2021 (E)

Q56. Two travelling waves produces a standing wave represented by equation.

y = (1. 0 mm) cos[(1. 57 cm
−1
)x] sin[(78. 5 s
−1
) t] . The node closest to the origin in the region x > 0 will
be at x =. . . . . . (in cm). 26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q57*. A source and a detector move away from each other in absence of wind with a speed of 20 m s , with −1

respect to the ground. If the detector detects a frequency of 1800 Hz of the sound coming from the source,
then the original frequency of source considering the speed of sound in the air 340 m s −1
will be _____ Hz.
26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q58. Two waves are simultaneously passing through a string and their equations are :
y1 = A1 sin k(x − vt), y2 = A2 sin k(x − vt + x0). Given amplitudes A 1
= 12 mm and A 2
= 5 mm ,
x0 = 3. 5 cm and wave number k = 6. 28 cm
−1
. The amplitude of resulting wave will be _____ mm.
26 Aug 2021 (E)

Q59*. The frequency of a car horn encountered a change from 400 Hz to 500 Hz . When the car approaches a
vertical wall. If the speed of sound is 330 m s . Then the speed of car is ___ km
−1
h
−1
. 20 Jul 2021 (M)

Q60. The amplitude of wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given by y = 1

(1+x)
2
at time t = 0
and y = 1

1+(x−2)
2
at t = 1 s, where x and y are in metres. The shape of wave does not change during the
propagation. The velocity of the wave will be m s −1
. 20 Jul 2021 (M)

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q61*. With what speed should a galaxy move outward with respect to earth so that the sodium-D line at wavelength
∘ ∘

5890 A is observed at 5896 A? 20 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) 306 km sec
−1
(2) 322 km sec
−1

(3) 296 km sec

−1
(4) 336 km sec
−1

Q62*. A galaxy is moving away from the earth at a speed of 286 km s . The shift in the wavelength of a red line at
−1

630 nm is x × 10
−10
m. The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___. [Take the value of the speed of the
light c, as 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
]
18 Mar 2021 (E)

Q63. A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels with the speed of 300 m s −1
along the positive x-axis. Each point
of the wave moves to and fro through a total distance of 6 cm . What will be the mathematical expression of
this travelling wave? 17 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) Y (x, t) = 0. 03[sin 5. 1x − (0. 2 × 10 3
)t] (2) Y (x, t) = 0. 06[sin 5. 1x − (1. 5 × 10 3
)t]

(3) Y (x, t) = 0. 06[sin 0. 8x − (0. 5 × 10 3

)t] (4) Y (x, t) = 0. 03[sin 5. 1x − (1. 5 × 10 3
)t]

Q64. A 25 m long antenna is mounted on an antenna tower. The height of the antenna tower is 75 m. The
wavelength (in meter) of the signal transmitted by this antenna would be : 16 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 300 (2) 400
(3) 200 (4) 100

Q65. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ1 and ρ2 respectively. The
compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in their first overtone with
same frequency. The length of the open pipe is x

3
L√
ρ1

ρ2
, where x is _______. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer)
16 Mar 2021 (E)

Q66. The mass per unit length of a uniform wire is 0. 135 g cm

−1
. A transverse wave of the form
y = −0. 21 sin(x + 30t) is produced in it, where x is in meter and t is in second. Then, the expected value of
tension in the wire is x × 10 −2
N . Value of x is (Round-off to the nearest integer) 26 Feb 2021 (M)

Q67. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats s

−1
with a fork of known frequency 340 Hz . When
fork A is filed, the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats s
−1
. What is the frequency of fork A ?
26 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) 335 Hz (2) 338 Hz

(3) 345 Hz (4) 342 Hz

Q68. The percentage increase in the speed of transverse waves produced in a stretched string if the tension is
increased by 4%, will be ___ %. 25 Feb 2021 (E)

Q69. A student is performing the experiment of the resonance column. The diameter of the column tube is 6 cm .
The frequency of the tuning fork is 504 Hz . Speed of the sound at the given temperature is 336 m s . The −1

zero of the meter scale coincides with the top end of the resonance column tube. The reading of the water level
in the column when the first resonance occurs is: 25 Feb 2021 (M)

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 14. 8 cm (2) 18. 4 cm

(3) 16. 6 cm (4) 13 cm

Q70. Which of the following equations represents a travelling wave? 24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) y = A sin(15x − 2t) (2) y =Ae x
cos(ωt − θ)
2

(3) y = Ae −x
(vt + θ) (4) y = A sin x cos ωt

Q71*. Two cars are approaching each other at an equal speed of 7. 2 km hr

−1
. When they see each other, both blow
horns having a frequency of 676 Hz. The beat frequency heard by each driver will be _______Hz. [Velocity
of sound in air is 340 m s −1
. 24 Feb 2021 (E)

Q72*. A sound source S is moving along a straight track with speed v, and is emitting sound of frequency v .An 0

observer is standing at a finite distance, at the point O, from the track. The time variation of frequency heard
by observer is best represented by : (to represents the instant when the distance between the source and
observer is minimum) 06 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q73. In a resonance tube experiment when the tube is filled with water up to a height of 17. 0 cm , from bottom, it
resonates with a given tuning fork. When the water level is raised the next resonance with the same tuning fork
occurs at a height of 24. 5 cm . If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m s −1
, the tuning fork frequency is :
05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 2200 Hz (2) 550 Hz

(3) 1100 Hz (4) 3300 Hz

Q74. Assume that the displacement (s) of air is proportional to the pressure difference (Δp) created by a sound
wave. Displacement (s) further depends on the speed of sound (v), density of air(ρ) and the frequency (f). If
Δp~ 10 P a, n~ 3 0 0 m/s, p~ 1 kg/m
3
f ~1000H z, then s will be of the order of (take the multiplicative
constant to be 1 ) 05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 3

100
mm (2) 10 mm

(3) 1

10
mm (4) 1 mm

Q75*. A driver in a car, approaching a vertical wall notices that the frequency of his car horn has changed from
440 Hz to 480 Hz , when it gets reflected from the wall. If the speed of sound in air is 345 m s , then the −1

speed of the car is: 05 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 54 km/hr (2) 36 km/hr
(3) 18 km/hr (4) 24 km/hr

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q76. For a transvers wave travelling, along a straight line, the distance between two peaks (crests) is 5 m, while the
distance between one crest and one trough is 1. 5 m. The possible wavelengths (in m) of the waves are:
04 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 1, 3, 5 (2) 1

1
,
1

3
,
1

5
, . . . . .

(3) 1, 2, 3, . . . . (4) 1

2
,
1

4
,
1

6
, . . . . .

Q77*. The driver of bus approaching a big wall notices that the frequency of his bus's horn changes from 420 Hz to
490 Hz when he hears it after it gets reflected from the wall. Find the speed of the bus if speed of the sound
is 330 ms
–1
: 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 91 kmh
−1
(2) 81 kmh
−1

(3) 61 kmh
−1
(4) 71 kmh
−1

Q78. A uniform thin rope of length 12 m and mass 6 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support and a block of mass
2 kg is attached to its free end. A transverse short wave train of wavelength 6 cm is produced at the lower and
the rope. What is the wavelength of the wave train (in cm ) when it reaches the top of the rope?
03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 12 (4) 9

Q79. Two identical strings X and Z made of same material have tension T and T in then if their fundamental X Z

frequencies are 450 Hz and 300 , respectively, then the ratio T

Hz X
/TZ is : 02 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 2. 25 (2) 0. 44
(3) 1. 25 (4) 1. 5

Q80. Three harmonic waves having equal frequency v and same intensity I , have phase angles 0, 0
π

4
and − π

respectively. When they are superimposed the intensity of the resultant wave is close to: 09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 5.8I 0
(2) 0.2I 0

(3) 3I 0
(4) I 0

Q81. A wire of length L and mass per unit length 6.0 × 10 −3

kg m
−1
is put under tension of 540 N. Two consecutive
frequencies that it resonates at are: 420 Hz and 490 Hz. Then L in meters is : 09 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 2.1m (2) 1.1m
(3) 8.1m (4) 5.1m

Q82. A transverse wave travels on a taut steel wire with a velocity of v when tension in it is 2.06 × 10 4
N. When the
tension is changed to T, the velocity changed to v

2
. The value of T is close to: 08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 2.50 × 10 4
N (2) 5.15 × 10 3
N

(3) 30.5 × 10 4
N (4) 10.2 × 10 2
N

Q83. A one metre long (both ends open) organ pipe is kept in a gas that has double the density of air at STP.
Assuming the speed of sound in air at STP is 300 m/s, the frequency difference between the fundamental and
second harmonic of this pipe is __________ Hz. 08 Jan 2020 (M)

Q84*. A stationary observer receives sound from two identical tuning forks, one of which approaches and the other
one recedes with the same speed (much less than the speed of sound). The observer hears 2 beats/sec . The

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

oscillation frequency of each tuning fork is v 0 = 1400 Hz and the velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s . The
speed of each tuning fork is close to: 07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 1

2
m/s (2) 1m/s
(3) 1

4
m/s (4) 1

8
m/s

Q85. A progressive wave travelling along the positive x− direction is represented by y(x, t) = A sin(kx − ω t + ϕ)
. Its snapshot at t = 0 is given in the figure. For this wave, the phase ϕ is:
12 Apr 2019 (M)
π
(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) π (4) − π 2

Q86*. Two sources of sound S and S produce sound waves of same frequency 660 Hz. A listener is moving from
1 2

source S towards S with a constant speed u

1 2 0 m/s and he hears 10 beats/s. The velocity of sound is
330 m/s. Then, u equals:
0 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 10.0 m/s (2) 2.5 m/s
(3) 5.5 m/s (4) 15.0 m/s

Q87. A small speaker delivers 2 W of audio output. At what distance from the speaker will one detect 120 dB

intensity sound? [Given reference intensity of sound as 10 −12

W/m
2
] 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 40 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 30 cm

Q88*. A submarine A travelling at 18 km hr

−1
is being chased along the line of its velocity by another submarine B
travelling at 27 km hr
−1
. B sends a sonar signal of 500 Hz to detect A and receives a reflected sound of
frequency v. The value of v is closed to (Speed of sound in water 1500 m s −1
) 12 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 504 Hz (2) 499 Hz
(3) 502 Hz (4) 507 Hz

Q89. The correct figure that shows, schematically, the wave pattern produced by the superposition of two waves of
frequencies 9 Hz and 11 Hz, is 10 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q90*. A stationary source emits sound waves of frequency 500 Hz . Two observers moving along a line passing
through the source detect sound to be of frequencies 480 Hz and 530 Hz . Their respective speeds are, in
m s
−1
, (Given speed of sound = 300 m/s ) 10 Apr 2019 (M)

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 16, 14 (2) 12, 16

(3) 12, 18 (4) 8, 18

Q91*. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of 50 m s −1

towards a stationary observer. The observer
measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it
is moving away from the observer after crossing him? (Take velocity of sound in air is −1
350 m s )
10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 750 Hz (2) 857 Hz
(3) 1143 Hz (4) 807 Hz

Q92. A string is clamped at both the ends and it is vibrating in its 4 harmonic. The equation of the stationary wave
th

is y = 0.3 sin(0.157x) cos(200πt). The length of the string is

(All quantities are in SI units.) 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 20 m (2) 60 m
(3) 40 m (4) 80 m

Q93*. Two cars A and B are moving away from each other in opposite directions. Both the cars are moving with
speed of 20 m s −1
with respect to the ground. If an observer in car A detects a frequency 2000 Hz of the
sound coming from car B, what is the natural frequency of the sound source in car B? (speed of sound in air
= 340 m s
−1
) 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 2150 Hz (2) 2300 Hz
(3) 2250 Hz (4) 2060 Hz

Q94. A string 2.0 m long and fixed at its ends is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator. The string vibrates in its third
harmonic mode. The speed of the wave and its fundamental frequency is 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 320 m s
−1
, 120 Hz (2) 320 m s
−1
, 80 Hz

(3) 180 m s
−1
, 80 Hz (4) 180 m s
−1
, 120 Hz

Q95. The pressure wave, P = 0.01 sin[1000t − 3x]N m , corresponds to the sound produced by a vibrating blade
–2

on a day when atmospheric temperature is 0°C . On some other day when temperature is T , the speed of
sound produced by the same blade and at the same frequency is found to be 336 m s . Approximate value of –1

T is: 09 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) 12° C (2) 15° C
(3) 4° C (4) 11° C

Q96. A wire of length 2L, is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but different
radii r and 2r and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that the
joint of the two wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire A is p and that
in B is q then ratio p : q is:
08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 4 : 9

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2

Q97. A travelling harmonic wave is represented by the equation y(x, −3

t) = 10 sin(50t + 2x), where x and y are in
meter and t is in seconds. Which of the following is a correct statement about the wave? 12 Jan 2019 (M)

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) The wave is propagating along the positive x -axis with speed 25 m s −1

(2) The wave is propagating along the positive x -axis with speed 100 m s −1

(3) The wave is propagating along the negative x -axis with speed 25 m s −1

(4) The wave is propagating along the negative x -axis with speed 100 m s −1

Q98. A person standing on an open ground hears the sound of a jet aeroplane, coming from north at an angle 60 o

with ground level, but he finds the aeroplane right vertically above his position. If v is the speed of sound,
speed of the plane is: 12 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 2v

√3
(2) v
(3) v

2
(4) √3

2
v

Q99. A resonance tube is old and has a jagged end. It is still used in the laboratory to determine the velocity of
sound in air. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz produces first resonance when the tube is filled with water to a
mark 11 cm below a reference mark, near the open end of the tube. The experiment is repeated with another
fork of frequency 256 Hz which produces first resonance when water reaches a mark 27 cm below the
reference mark. The velocity of sound in air, obtained in the experiment, is close to 12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 335 m s −1
(2) 341 m s −1

(3) 322 m s −1
(4) 328 m s −1

Q100. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5 g/m is y = 0.03 sin(450t − 9x) where
distance and time are measured in SI units. The tension in the string is: 11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 10 N (2) 7.5 N
(3) 12.5 N (4) 5 N

Q101. A closed organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 1.5 kHz . The number of overtones that can be distinctly
heard by a person with this organ pipe will be (Assume that the highest frequency a person can hear is
20,000 Hz ). 10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 7 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 5

Q102. A string of length 1 m and mass 5 g is fixed at both ends. The tension in the string is 8 .0 N . The string is set
into vibration using an external vibrator of frequency 100 Hz . The separation between successive nodes on
the string is close to 10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 20. 0 cm (2) 10. 0 cm

(3) 16 .6 cm (4) 33. 3 cm

Q103*. A train moves towards a stationary observer with speed 34 m/s. The train sounds a whistle and its
frequency registered by the observer is f . If the speed of the train is reduced to 17 m/s, the frequency
1

registered is f . If speed of sound is 340 m/s, then the ratio f

2 1/f2 is: 10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 21/20 (2) 20/19
(3) 19/18 (4) 18/17

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Q104. A heavy ball of mass M is suspended from the ceiling of a car by a light string of mass m (m ≪ M ). When
the car is at rest, the speed of transverse waves in the string is 60 −1
ms . When the car has acceleration a, the
wave-speed increases to 60.5 ms
−1
. The value of a, in terms of gravitational acceleration g, is closed to
09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) g

10
(2) g

20

(3) g

5
(4) g

30

Q105*. A musician using an open flute of length 50 cm produces second harmonic sound waves. A person runs
towards the musician from another end of a hall at a speed of 10 km h
−1
. If the wave speed is 330 m s ,
−1

the frequency heard by the running person shall be close to 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 333 Hz (2) 500 Hz

(3) 666 Hz (4) 753 Hz

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Waves and Sound JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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ANSWER KEYS
1. (1) 2. (16) 3. (740) 4. (60) 5. (6) 6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (3)
9. (400) 10. (294) 11. (90) 12. (500) 13. (1) 14. (1152) 15. (80) 16. (2)
17. (20) 18. (60) 19. (900) 20. (1) 21. (2) 22. (420) 23. (2) 24. (4)
25. (20) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (18) 29. (400) 30. (3) 31. (24) 32. (15)
33. (3) 34. (340) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37. (200) 38. (20) 39. (2) 40. (2)
41. (104) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (50) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (152) 48. (2)
49. (80) 50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (5) 53. (10) 54. (1210) 55. (34) 56. (1)
57. (2025) 58. (7) 59. (132) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (6) 63. (4) 64. (4)
65. (4) 66. (1215) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (1) 71. (8) 72. (2)
73. (1) 74. (1) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (1) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (1)
81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (106) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (3)
89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (1) 92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (4)
97. (3) 98. (3) 99. (4) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (1) 103. (3) 104. (3)
105. (3)

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

Q1. A heavy iron bar, of weight W is having its one end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of a person.
The bar makes an angle θ with the horizontal. The weight experienced by the person is : 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) W cos θ (2) W

(3) W (4) W sin θ

Q2. A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel of moment of inertia 0.40kgm and radius 10 cm. The wheel is 2

free to rotate about its axis. Initially the wheel is at rest. The string is now pulled by a force of 40 N. The
angular velocity of the wheel after 10 s is xrad/s, where x is _______ 09 Apr 2024 (M)

Q3. A circular disc reaches from top to bottom of an inclined plane of length l. When it slips down the plane, if takes
t s. When it rolls down the plane then it takes ( α

2
)
1/2
, where α is _________
t s 09 Apr 2024 (E)

Q4. A thin circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its plane with angular velocity ω. If another disc of same dimensions but of mass
M/2 is placed gently on the first disc co-axially, then the new angular velocity of the system is :
08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 3

2
ω (2) 5

4
ω

(3) 2

3
ω (4) 4

5
ω

Q5. Three balls of masses 2 kg, 4 kg and 6 kg respectively are arranged at centre of the edges of an equilateral
triangle of side 2 m. The moment of intertia of the system about an axis through the centroid and perpendicular
to the plane of triangle, will be _______ kgm . 2
06 Apr 2024 (E)

Q6. If the radius of earth is reduced to three-fourth of its present value without change in its mass then value of
duration of the day of earth will be ______ hours 30 minutes. 06 Apr 2024 (M)

Q7. Ratio of radius of gyration of a hollow sphere to that of a solid cylinder of equal
mass, for moment of Inertia about their diameter axis AB as shown in figure is √8/x
. The value of x is:

05 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) 51 (2) 34
(3) 17 (4) 67

Q8. A hollow sphere is rolling on a plane surface about its axis of symmetry. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy to
its total kinetic energy is x

5
. The value of x is _____ . 05 Apr 2024 (E)

Q9. A solid sphere and a hollow cylinder roll up without slipping on same inclined plane with same initial speed v.
The sphere and the cylinder reaches upto maximum heights h and h , respectively, above the initial level. The
1 2

ratio h 1 : h2 is n

10
. The value of n is______. 04 Apr 2024 (M)

Q10. A ball of mass 0. 5 kg is attached to a string of length 50 cm . The ball is rotated on a horizontal circular path
about its vertical axis. The maximum tension that the string can bear is 400 N. The maximum possible value of
angular velocity of the ball in rad s
−1
is,: 01 Feb 2024 (M)

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(1) 1600 (2) 40

(3) 1000 (4) 20

Q11. A disc of radius R and mass M is rolling horizontally without slipping with speed v. It
then moves up an inclined smooth surface as shown in figure. The maximum height that
the disc can go up the incline is:
01 Feb 2024 (E)
2 2

(1) v

g
(2) 3

4
v

(3) (4)
2 2
1 v 2 v

2 g 3 g

Q12. Two identical spheres each of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod so that the
separation between the centers is 150 cm . Then, moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular
to the rod and passing through its middle point is x

20
kg m
2
, where the value of x is 31 Jan 2024 (E)

Q13. A body of mass m is projected with a speed u making an angle of 45 with the ground. The angular o

momentum of the body about the point of projection, at the highest point is expressed as √ 2mu

Xg
. The value of
X is_______. 31 Jan 2024 (E)

Q14. Two discs of moment of inertia I 1

= 4 kg m
2
and I 2
= 2 kg m
2
about their central axes & normal to their
planes, rotating with angular speeds 10 rad s
−1
& 4 rad s
−1
respectively are brought into contact face to face
with their axe of rotation coincident. The loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process is _________J.
30 Jan 2024 (E)

Q15. Consider a disc of mass 5 kg , radius 2 m , rotating with angular velocity of

10 rad s
−1
about an axis perpendicular to the plane of rotation. An identical disc is
kept gently over the rotating disc along the same axis. The energy dissipated so that
both the discs continue to rotate together without slipping is _________J.

30 Jan 2024 (M)

Q16. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform speed 3√2 m s −1

in X − Y plane along the line y = x + 4. The
angular momentum of the particle about the origin will be _______kg m
2
s
−1
. 29 Jan 2024 (E)

Q17. A cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of inclination 60°. Its acceleration during rolling down will be
x

√3
m s
−2
, where x = _______(use g = 10 m s ). −2
29 Jan 2024 (M)

Q18. A ring and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane without slipping. They start from rest. The radii of
both bodies are identical and the ratio of their kinetic energies is 7

x
, where x is ______. 27 Jan 2024 (E)

Q19. Four particles, each of mass 1 kg are placed at four corners of a square of side . The moment of inertia of
2 m

the system about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its vertex is ______ kg m
2
.
27 Jan 2024 (M)

Q20. A heavy iron bar of weight 12 kg is having its one end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of a man.
The rod makes an angle 60° with the horizontal, the normal force applied by the man on bar is:
27 Jan 2024 (E)

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(1) 6 kg − wt (2) 12 kg − wt
(3) 3 kg − wt (4) 6√3 kg − wt

Q21. A solid sphere and a solid cylinder of same mass and radius are rolling on a horizontal surface without
slipping. The ratio of their radius of gyrations respectively (k sph : k cyl ) is 2 : √x. The value of x is _______.
15 Apr 2023 (M)

Q22. A light rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 70 cm . The rope is pulled with a
force of 52. 5 N. The angular acceleration of the cylinder will be _____ rad s
−2
. 13 Apr 2023 (E)

Q23. A solid sphere is rolling on a horizontal plane without slipping. If the ratio of angular momentum about axis of
rotation of the sphere to the total energy of moving sphere is π : 22 then, the value of its angular speed will be
−1
_________rad s .

13 Apr 2023 (M)

Q24. For rolling spherical shell, the ratio of rotational kinetic energy and total kinetic energy is x

5
. The value of x is
_____.
12 Apr 2023 (M)

Q25. A solid sphere of mass 500 g radius 5 cm is rotated about one of its diameter with angular speed of
10 rad s
−1
. If the moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent is x × 10 −2
times its angular momentum
about the diameter. Then the value of x will be 11 Apr 2023 (M)

Q26. A circular plate is rotating in horizontal plane, about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the
plate, with an angular velocity ω. A person sits at the centre having two dumbbells in his hands. When he
stretched out his hands, the moment of inertia of the system becomes triple. If E be the initial Kinetic energy
of the system, then final Kinetic energy will be E

x
. The value of x is 11 Apr 2023 (E)

Q27. A force of −P k̂ acts on the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (2, −3) is P (aî + bĵ),
The ratio of a

b
is x

2
. The value of x is 10 Apr 2023 (E)

Q28. The moment of inertia of a semicircular ring about an axis, passing through the center and perpendicular to the
plane of ring, is 1

x
MR
2
, where R is the radius and M is the mass of the semicircular ring. The value of x will
be _______ . 08 Apr 2023 (M)

Q29. A hollow spherical ball of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial
velocity 3 m s
−1
(as shown in figure). Maximum height with respect to the initial
position covered by it will be _____ cm (take, g = 10 m s ) −2

08 Apr 2023 (E)

Q30. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The
separation between the centres of the spheres is 40 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis
perpendicular to the rod passing through its middle point is______ × 10 –3
kg m .
2

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06 Apr 2023 (M)

Q31. A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis passing through their centres have same radii of gyration. The
axis of rotation is perpendicular to plane of ring. The ratio of radius of ring to that of sphere is √ . The value 2

of x is _____.
06 Apr 2023 (E)
2

Q32. Moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius 'R' about any of its diameter is MR

4
. The moment of inertia
of this disc about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge will be, x

2
MR
2
. The value
of x is ______. 01 Feb 2023 (E)

Q33. A solid cylinder is released from rest from the top of an inclined plane of inclination 30°

and length 60 cm . If the cylinder rolls without slipping, its speed upon reaching the
bottom of the inclined plane is ______ m s . (Given g = 10 m s )
−1 −2

01 Feb 2023 (M)

Q34. A solid sphere of mass 1 kg rolls without slipping on a plane surface. Its kinetic energy is 7 × 10 −3
J. The
speed of the centre of mass of the sphere is ______ cm s
−1
. 31 Jan 2023 (M)

Q35. Two discs of same mass and different radii are made of different materials such that their thicknesses are 1 cm

and 0. 5 cm respectively. The densities of materials are in the ratio 3 : 5. The moment of inertia of these discs
respectively about their diameters will be in the ratio of x

6
. The value of x is ______. 31 Jan 2023 (E)

Q36. A thin uniform rod of length 2 m, cross sectional area A and density d is rotated about an axis passing through
the centre and perpendicular to its length with angular velocity ω. If value of ω in terms of its rotational kinetic
energy E is √ αE
, then the value of α is ______. 30 Jan 2023 (M)
Ad

Q37. A uniform disc of mass 0. 5 kg and radius r is projected with velocity

18 m s
−1
at t = 0 s on a rough horizontal surface. It starts off with a purely
sliding motion at t = 0 s . After 2 s it acquires a purely rolling motion (see
figure). The total kinetic energy of the disc after 2 s will be ______ J.
(given, coefficient of friction is 0. 3 and g = 10 m s ). −2

30 Jan 2023 (E)

Q38. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is making pure rolling on a horizontal surface with kinetic energy 2240 J. The
velocity of centre of mass of the sphere will be ______ m s . −1
29 Jan 2023 (M)

Q39. I CM
is moment of inertia of a circular disc about an axis (CM) passing through its center and
perpendicular to the plane of disc. I AB
is its moment of inertia about an axis AB perpendicular to
plane and parallel to axis CM at a distance 2

3
R from center, where R is the radius of the disc. The
ratio of I AB and I CM is x : 9. The value of x is ______.

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25 Jan 2023 (M)

Q40. If a solid sphere of mass 5 kg and a disc of mass 4 kg have the same radius, then the ratio of moment of
inertia of the disc about a tangent in its plane to the moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent will be x

. The value of x is ______. 25 Jan 2023 (E)

Q41. An object of mass 8 kg is hanging from one end of a uniform rod CD of

mass 2 kg and length 1 m pivoted at its end C on a vertical wall as shown
in figure. It is supported by a cable AB such that the system is in
equilibrium. The tension in the cable is:
(Take g = 10 m s ) −2

25 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) 240 N (2) 90 N
(3) 300 N (4) 30 N

Q42. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis P Q. If the radius of the sphere is 5 , then
cm

its radius of gyration about P Q will be √x . The value of x is _____.

cm

24 Jan 2023 (M)

Q43. A uniform solid cylinder with radius R and length L has moment of inertia I1 , about the axis of cylinder. A
concentric solid cylinder of radius R
′
=
R

2
and length L
′
=
L

2
is carved out of the original cylinder. If I2 is
the moment of inertia of the carved out portion of the cylinder then I1

I2
= __________.
(Both I and I are about the axis of the cylinder)
1 2

24 Jan 2023 (E)

Q44. The torque of a force 5ˆi + 3ˆj − 7ˆ

k about the origin is τ . If the force acts on a particle whose position vector is

ˆ ˆ ˆ
2i + 2j + k , then the value of τ will be 29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 11ˆi + 19ˆj − 4ˆ
k (2) −11ˆi + 9ˆj − 16ˆ
k

(3) −17î + 19ĵ − 4ˆ

k (4) 17î + 9ĵ + 16ˆ
k

Q45. Four identical discs each of mass 'M ' and diameter 'a' are arranged in a small plane as shown in
figure. If the moment of inertia of the system about OO
′
is x

4
Ma
2
. Then, the value of x will be
_____ .

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28 Jul 2022 (M)

Q46. A pulley of radius 1. 5 m is rotated about its axis by a force F 2

= (12t − 3t ) N applied tangentially (while t is
measured in seconds). If moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 4. 5 kg m
2
, the number of
rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion is reversed, will be K

π
. The value of K is _____ .
27 Jul 2022 (M)

Q47. A solid cylinder length is suspended symmetrically through two massless strings, as shown in
the figure. The distance from the initial rest position, the cylinder should be unbinding the
strings to achieve a speed of 4 m s , is _____cm. (take g = 10 m s )
−1 −2

27 Jul 2022 (E)

Q48. The radius of gyration of a cylindrical rod about an axis of rotation perpendicular to its length and passing
through the center will be _____ m. Given, the length of the rod is 10√3 m. 26 Jul 2022 (E)

Q49. A disc of mass 1 kg and radius R is free of rotate about a horizontal axis passing through its centre and
perpendicular to the plane of disc. A body of same mass as that of disc is fixed at the highest point of the disc.
Now the system is released, when the body comes to the lowest position, its angular speed will be
4√
3R
x
rad s
−1
where x = _____ . 26 Jul 2022 (M)

Q50. A solid cylinder and a solid sphere, having same mass M and radius R, roll down the same inclined plane from
top without slipping. They start from rest. The ratio of velocity of the solid cylinder to that of the solid sphere,
with which they reach the ground, will be 25 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) √ 5 (2) √ 4

3 5

(3) √ 3 (4) √ 14

5 15

Q51. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod about a perpendicular axis passing through one end is I . The 1
2

same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia about a diameter is I . If 2
I1

I2
is xπ

3
, then the value of x
will be ______. 29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q52. A spherical shell of 1 kg mass and radius R is rolling with angular speed ω on horizontal plane
(as shown in figure). The magnitude of angular momentum of the shell about the origin O is
a

3
2
R ω . The value of a will be
29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 4

Q53. A uniform disc with mass M = 4 kg and radius R = 10 cm is mounted on a fixed horizontal axle as
shown in figure. A block with mass m = 2 kg hangs from a massless cord that is wrapped around
the rim of the disc. During the fall of the block, the cord does not slip and there is no friction at the
axle. The tension in the cord is _____ N. (Take g = 10 ms
−2
)
28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q54. The position vector of 1 kg

→ →
object is r = (3ˆi − ˆj) m and its velocity v = (3ˆj + ˆ
k) m s . The magnitude of
−1

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its angular momentum is √x N m s, where x is 28 Jun 2022 (M)

Q55. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Moment of inertia of solid sphere
(A) (I) 5
MR
2

of radius R about any tangent. 3

Moment of inertia of hollow sphere of radius

(B) (II) 7
MR
2

(R) about any tangent. 5

Moment of inertia of circular ring of radius

(C) (III) 1
MR
2

(R) about its diameter. 4

Moment of inertia of circular disc of radius

(D) (IV) 1
MR
2

(R) about any diameter. 2

28 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) A − II, B − I, C − IV, D − III (2) A − I, B − II, C − IV, D − III

(3) A − II, B − I, C − III, D − IV (4) A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV

Q56. A √ 34 m long ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a frictionless wall. Its feet rest on the floor
3 m away from the wall as shown in the figure. If Ff and Fw are the reaction forces of the
floor and the wall, then ratio of Fw

Ff
will be: (Use g = 10 m s .) −2

28 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) 6

√ 110
(2) √ 113
3

(3) 3

√ 109
(4) √ 109
2

Q57. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating with a constant angular velocity 2 rad s
−1
in a
horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane and passing through the center of the ring. If two objects
each of mass m be attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of ring, the ring will then rotate with an
angular velocity (in rad s
−1
). 26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) M

(M +m)
(2) (M +2m)

2M

(3) 2M

(M +2m)
(4) 2(M +2m)

Q58. A solid spherical ball is rolling on a frictionless horizontal plane surface about its axis of symmetry. The ratio
of rotational kinetic energy of the ball to its total kinetic energy is 26 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 1

5
(2) 2

(3) 2

7
(4) 7

10

Q59. If force →
F = 3i + 4j − 2k acts on a particle having position vector 2i + j + 2k then, the torque about the
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ

origin will be: 25 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ
−10i + 10j + 5k (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ
3 i + 4j − 2k

(3) 10ˆi + 5ˆj − 10ˆ

k (4) 10ˆi + ˆj − 5ˆ
k

Q60. Moment of Inertia (M.I.) of four bodies having same mass M and radius 2R are as follows
I1 = M.I. of solid sphere about its diameter I2 = M.I. of solid cylinder about its axis

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I3 = M.I. of solid circular disc about its diameter

I4 = M.I. of thin circular ring about its diameter
If 2(I 2 + I 3 ) + I 4 = xI 1 then the value of x will be _____ . 25 Jun 2022 (E)

Q61. A metre scale is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 10 g are put one on the
top of the other at the 10. 0 cm mark the scale is found to be balanced at 40. 0 cm mark. The mass of the metre
scale is found to be x × 10 −2
kg. The value of x is _____ . 24 Jun 2022 (M)

Q62. A fly wheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and rotates through 5 rad in the first second. The angle rotated
by the fly wheel in the next second, will be : 24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 7. 5 rad (2) 15 rad
(3) 20 rad (4) 30 rad

Q63. A 2 kg steel rod of length 0. 6 m is clamped on a table vertically at its lower end and is free to rotate in the
vertical plane. The upper end is pushed so that the rod falls under gravity. Ignoring the friction due to clamping
at its lower end, the speed of the free end of the rod when it passes through its lowest position is
_______m s
−1
. (Take g = 10 m s −2
) 01 Sep 2021 (E)

Q64. Electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating through a non-magnetic medium is given by
E = 20 cos(2 × 10
10
t − 200x) V m
−1
. The dielectric constant of the medium is equal to:
(Take μ r
= 1 ) 01 Sep 2021 (E)
(1) 2 (2) 1

(3) 9 (4) 3

Q65. Angular momentum of a single particle moving with constant speed along circular path : 31 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) remains same in magnitude but changes in the direction
(2) remains same in magnitude and direction
(3) is zero
(4) changes in magnitude but remains same in the direction

Q66. A system consists of two identical spheres each of mass 1. 5 kg and radius 50 cm at the ends of a light rod.
The distance between the centres of the two spheres is 5 m. What will be the moment of inertia of the system
about an axis perpendicular to the rod passing through its midpoint? 31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 1. 905 × 10 5
kg m
2
(2) 18. 75 kg m
2

(3) 19. 05 kg m
2
(4) 1. 875 × 10 5
kg m
2

Q67. Moment of inertia of a square plate of side l about the axis passing through one of the corner and perpendicular
to the plane of square plate is given by:
27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) (2)
2
Ml 2 2
Ml
6 3
2

(3) M l 2
(4) Ml

12

Q68. A huge circular arc of length 4. 4 ly subtends an angle 4s at the centre of the circle. How long it would take for
a body to complete 4 revolution if its speed is 8 AU per second?
Given : 1 ly = 9. 46 × 10 15
m 1 AU = 1. 5 × 10
11
m

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27 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) 3. 5 × 10 6
s (2) 4. 5 × 10 10
s

(3) 4. 1 × 10 8
s (4) 7. 2 × 10 8

Q69. Two discs have moments of intertia I and I about their respective axes perpendicular to the plane and
1 2

passing through the centre. They are rotating with angular speeds, ω and ω respectively and are brought into 1 2

contact face to face with their axes of rotation coaxial. The loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process
is given by: 27 Aug 2021 (E)
2

(1) I1 I2

(I 1 +I 2 )
(ω 1 − ω 2 )
2
(2) (ω 1 −ω 2 )

2(I 1 +I 2 )
2

(3) I1 I2

2(I 1 +I 2 )
(ω 1 − ω 2 )
2
(4) (I 1 −I 2 ) ω 1 ω 2

2(I 1 +I 2 )

Q70. Consider a badminton racket with length scales as shown in the figure. If the
mass of the linear and circular portions of the badminton racket are same (M )
and the mass of the threads are negligible, the moment of inertia of the racket
about an axis perpendicular to the handle and in the plane of the ring at, r

distance from the end A of the handle will be _____M r . 2

26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q71. The solid cylinder of length 80 cm and mass M has a radius of 20 cm. Calculate the
density of the material used if the moment of inertia of the cylinder about an axis CD

parallel to AB as shown in figure is 2. 7 kg m

2
.

26 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) 1. 49 × 10 2
kg m
−3
(2) 7. 5 × 10 1
kg m
−3

(3) 14. 9 kg m
−3
(4) 7. 5 × 10 2
kg m
−3

Q72. The figure shows two solid discs with radius R and r respectively. If mass per unit area is the
same for both, what is the ratio of MI of bigger disc around axis AB (Which is ⊥ to the
plane of the disc and passing through its centre) of MI of smaller disc around one of its
diameters lying on its plane? Given M is the mass of the larger disc. (M I stands for a
moment of inertia)
27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) R 2
: r
2
(2) 2r 4
: R
4

(3) 2R 2
: r
2
(4) 2R 4
: r
4

Q73. List-I List-II

(a) M I of the rod (length L, Mass M , about an axis ⊥ to the rod 8M L
2

(i)
passing through the midpoint) 3

(b) M I of the rod (length L, Mass 2M, about an axis ⊥ to the rod ML
2

(ii)
passing through one of its end) 3

(c) M I of the rod (length 2L, Mass M , about an axis ⊥ to the rod ML
2

(iii)
passing through its midpoint) 12

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(d) M I of the rod (Length 2L, Mass 2M, about an axis ⊥ to the rod (iv)
2

passing through one of its end) 2M L

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iii), (c) − (i), (d) − (iv) (2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv)

(3) (a) − (iii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i) (4) (a) − (iii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (ii)

Q74. In the given figure, two wheels P and Q are connected by a belt B. The radius of P
is three times that of Q. In the case of the same rotational kinetic energy, the ratio of
rotational inertias ( I1

I2
) will be x : 1 . The value of x will be ______.
27 Jul 2021 (E)

Q75. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass M and radius R about X, Y axes (passing through its
plane) and Z-axis which is perpendicular to its plane were found to be Ix , Iy and Iz , respectively. The
respective radii of gyration about all the three axes will be the same.
Reason R: A rigid body making rotational motion has fixed mass and shape. In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
25 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is not correct but R is correct.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q76. A solid disc of radius 20 cm and mass 10 kg is rotating with an angular velocity of 600 rpm , about an axis
normal to its circular plane and passing through its centre of mass. The retarding torque required to bring the
disc at rest in 10 s is _________π × 10 −1
N m 25 Jul 2021 (E)

Q77. The minimum and maximum distances of a planet revolving around the Sun are x and x . If the minimum 1 2

speed of the planet on its trajectory is v , then its maximum speed will be:
0 25 Jul 2021 (M)
2 2

(1) v0 x

2
1
(2) v0 x

2
2

x x
2 1

(3) v0 x1

x2
(4) v0 x2

x1

Q78. A particle of mass m is moving in time t on a trajectory given by, →

r = 10αt
2ˆ ˆ
i + 5β(t − 5)j where α and β are
dimensional constants. The angular momentum of the particle becomes the same as it was for t = 0 at time t =
_____ seconds.
25 Jul 2021 (M)

Q79. The centre of a wheel rolling on a plane surface moves with a speed v . A particle on the rim of the wheel at
0

the same level as the centre will be moving at a speed √xv . Then the value of x is 0 . 22 Jul 2021 (M)

Q80. Consider a situation in which a ring, a solid cylinder and a solid sphere roll down on the same inclined plane
without slipping. Assume that they start rolling from rest and having identical diameter. The correct statement
for this situation is 22 Jul 2021 (M)

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(1) The sphere has the greatest and the ring has the least velocity of the centre of mass at the bottom of the
inclined plane.
(2) The ring has the greatest and the cylinder has the least velocity of the centre of mass at the bottom of the
inclined plane.
(3) All of them will have same velocity.
(4) The cylinder has the greatest and the sphere has the least velocity of the centre of mass at the bottom of the
inclined plane.

Q81. A body rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The kinetic energy of rotation is 50% of its translational
kinetic energy. The body is: 20 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) solid sphere (2) solid cylinder
(3) hollow cylinder (4) ring

Q82. A body rotating with an angular speed of 600 rpm is uniformly accelerated to 1800 rpm in 10 sec. The
number of rotations made in the process is 20 Jul 2021 (E)

Q83. A circular disc reaches from top to bottom of an inclined plane of length L. When it slips down the plane, it
takes time t1 . When it rolls down the plane, it takes time t . The value of
2
t2

t1
is √ . The value of x will be
3

20 Jul 2021 (M)

Q84. Two bodies, a ring and a solid cylinder of same material are rolling down without slipping an inclined plane.
The radii of the bodies are same. The ratio of velocity of the centre of mass at the bottom of the inclined plane
of the ring to that of the cylinder is √x

2
. Then, the value of x is 20 Jul 2021 (E)

Q85. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with an angular speed ω. Two particles
having mass m each are now attached at diametrically opposite points. The angular speed of the ring will
become: 18 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) ω M +m
M
(2) ω M +2 m

M
(3) ω M

M +2 m
(4) ω M −2 m

M +2 m

Q86. Consider a uniform wire of mass M and length L. It is bent into a semicircle. Its moment of inertia about a line
perpendicular to the plane of the wire passing through the centre is : 18 Mar 2021 (E)
2 2

(1) 1

4
ML

π
2
(2) 2

5
ML

π
2

2 2

(3) ML

π
2
(4) 1

2
ML

π
2

Q87. A solid cylinder of mass m is wrapped with an inextensible light string and, is placed on a rough
inclined plane as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting between the cylinder and the
inclined plane is: [The coefficient of static friction, μ , is 0. 4] s

18 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) 7

2
mg (2) 5mg
(3) mg

5
(4) 0

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q88. A mass M hangs on a massless rod of length l which rotates at a constant angular frequency. The
mass M moves with steady speed in a circular path of constant radius. Assume that the system is
in steady circular motion with constant angular velocity ω. The angular momentum of M about
point A is LA which lies in the positive z direction and the angular momentum of M about B is
LB . The correct statement for this system is:

17 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) L and L are both constant in magnitude and direction
A B

(2) L is constant in direction with varying magnitude

B

(3) L is constant, both in magnitude and direction

B

(4) L is constant, both in magnitude and direction

A

Q89. A triangular plate is shown. A force →

ˆ ˆ
F = 4 i − 3j is applied at point P. The torque at
point P with respect to point O and Q are:

17 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) −15 − 20√3, 15 − 20√3 (2) 15 + 20√3, 15 − 20√3
(3) 15 − 20√3, 15 + 20√3 (4) −15 + 20√3, 15 + 20√3

Q90. The angular speed of truck wheel is increased from 900 rpm to 2460 rpm in 26 seconds. The number of
revolutions by the truck engine during this time is ______.
(Assuming the acceleration to be uniform).
17 Mar 2021 (M)

Q91. The following bodies, (1) a ring, (2) a disc, (3) a solid cylinder, (4) a solid sphere, of same
mass m and radius R are allowed to roll down without slipping simultaneously from the top
of the inclined plane. The body which will reach first at the bottom of the inclined plane is
[Mark the body as per their respective numbering given in the question]

17 Mar 2021 (M)

Q92. A sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 0. 5 m is rolling with an initial speed of 1 m s −1

goes up
an inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal plane, without slipping.
How low will the sphere take to return to the starting point A?
17 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) 0. 60 s (2) 0. 52 s
(3) 0. 56 s (4) 0. 80 s

Q93. The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the Sun are 1. 6 × 10 12
m and 8. 0 × 10 10
m

respectively. If the speed of the comet at the nearest point is 6 × 10 4

m s
−1
, the speed at the farthest point is
16 Mar 2021 (M)

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 1. 5 × 10 3
m s
−1
(2) 6. 6 × 10 3
m s
−1

(3) 3. 0 × 10 3
m s
−1
(4) 4. 5 × 10 3
m s
−1

Q94. Four equal masses, m each are placed at the corners of a square of length (l) as shown in the
figure. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through A and parallel to
DB would be :

16 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) ml 2
(2) 2 ml 2

(3) 3 ml 2
(4) √3 ml 2

Q95. A force →F = 4î + 3ĵ + 4k̂ is applied on an intersection point of x = 2 plane and x-axis. The magnitude of
torque of this force about a point (2, 3, 4) is ________.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
16 Mar 2021 (E)

Q96. A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity 10√3 m s −1

along X-axis, hits another ball of
mass 20 kg which is at rest. After the collision, the first ball comes to rest and the second
one disintegrates into two equal pieces. One of the pieces starts moving along Y -axis at a
speed of 10 m s
−1
. The second piece starts moving at a speed of 20 m s
−1
at an angle θ

(degree) with respect to the X-axis. The configuration of pieces after the collision is shown
in the figure. The value of θ to the nearest integer is _________.
16 Mar 2021 (M)

Q97. A solid disc of radius a and mass m rolls down without slipping on an inclined plane making
an angle θ with the horizontal. The acceleration of the disc will be 2

b
g sin θ , where b is
_______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) (g = acceleration due to gravity) (θ = angle as
shown in figure)
16 Mar 2021 (E)

Q98. Consider a 20 kg uniform circular disk of radius 0. 2 m. It is pin supported at its center and is at
rest initially. The disk is acted upon by a constant force F = 20 N through a massless string
wrapped around its periphery as shown in the figure. Suppose the disk makes n number of
revolutions to attain an angular speed of 50 rad s
−1
. The value of n, to the nearest integer, is
_______ . [Given : In one complete revolution, the disk rotates by 6. 28 rad ]
16 Mar 2021 (M)

Q99. Four identical solid spheres each of mass m and radius a are placed with their centres on the four corners of a
square of side b. The moment of inertia of the system about one side of square where the axis of rotation is
parallel to the plane of the square is : 26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 8

5
ma
2
+ mb
2
(2) 4

5
ma
2
+ 2mb
2

(3) 8

5
ma
2
+ 2mb
2
(4) 4

5
ma
2

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Q100. A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of radius r, The axis of the wheel is horizontal and the
moment of inertia about it is I . A weight mg is attached to the cord at the end. The weight falls from rest.
After falling through a distance h, the square of angular velocity of wheel will be 26 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) 2mgh

I +mr
2
(2) 2mgh

I +2mr
2

(3) 2gh (4)

2gh
2
I +mr

Q101. A sphere of radius a and mass m rolls along a horizontal plane with constant speed
v0 . It encounters an inclined plane at angle θ and climbs upward. Assuming that it
rolls without slipping, how far up the sphere will travel?

25 Feb 2021 (E)

2 2

(1) 2
v
0
(2) 7v
0

5 g sin θ 10 g sin θ
2 2

(3) v
0
(4) v
0

5g sin θ 2g sin θ

Q102. Moment of inertia (M. I. ) of four bodies, having same mass and radius, are reported as; I 1 = M. I. of thin
circular ring about its diameter, I 2 = M. I. of circular disc about an axis perpendicular to disc and going
through the centre, I 3 = M. I. of solid cylinder about its axis and I 4 = M. I. of solid sphere about its
diameter. Then:
24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) I 1 + I2 = I3 +
5

2
I4 . (2) I 1 + I3 < I2 + I4

(3) I 1 = I2 = I3 > I4 (4) I 1 = I2 = I3 < I4

Q103. A uniform thin bar of mass 6 kg and length 2. 4 meter is bent to make an equilateral hexagon. The moment of
inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane of hexagon is
___________ ×10 −1
kg m .
2
24 Feb 2021 (E)

Q104. The linear mass density of a thin rod AB of length L varies from A to B as λ(x) = λ 0 (1 +
x

L
), where x is the
distance from A. If M is the mass of the rod then its moment of inertia about an axis passing through A and
perpendicular to the rod : 06 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 5

12
ML
2
(2) 7

18
ML
2

(3) 2

5
ML
2
(4) 3

7
ML
2

Q105. A satellite is in an elliptical orbit around a planet P . It is observed that the velocity of the satellite when it is
farthest from the planet is 6 times less than that when it is closest to the planet. The ratio of distances between
the satellite and the planet at closest and farthest points is : 06 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4

Q106. Four point masses, each of mass m , are fixed at the corners of a square of side I. The square
is rotating with angular frequency ω, about an axis passing through one of the corners of the
square and parallel to tis diagonal, as shown in the figure. The angular momentum of the
square about the axis is
06 Sep 2020 (M)

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(1) mℓ 2
ω (2) 4mℓ 2
ω

(3) 3mℓ 2
ω (4) 2mℓ 2
ω

Q107. Shown in the figure is a hollow ice-cream cone (it is open at top). If its mass is M , radius of its
top is R and height, H, then its moment of inertia about its axis is

06 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) (2)
2 2 2
MR M(R +H )

2 4

(3) (4)
2 2
MH MR

3 3

Q108. A force →
F = (i + 2j + 3k) N acts at a point (4i + 3j − k) m. Then the magnitude of torque about the
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ

point (ˆi + 2ˆj + ˆ

k) m will be √x N − m.The value of x is.......... 05 Sep 2020 (M)

Q109. A wheel is rotating freely with an angular speed ω on a shaft. The moment of inertia of the wheel is I and the
moment of inertia of the shaft is negligible. Another wheel of moment of inertia 3I initially at rest is suddenly
coupled to the same shaft. The resultant fractional loss in the kinetic energy of the system is:
05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 5

6
(2) 1

(3) 0 (4) 3

Q110. Consider two uniform discs of the same thickness and different radii R1 = R and R 2
= αR made of the
same material. If the ratio of their moments of inertia I and I , respectively, about their axes is
1 2

I 1 : I 2 = 1 : 16 then the value of α is : 04 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 2√2 (2) √2
(3) 2 (4) 4

Q111. ABC is a plane lamina of the shape of an equilateral triangle. D, E are mid-points of AB, AC and
G is the centroid of the lamina. Moment of inertia of the lamina about an axis passing through G

and perpendicular to the plane ABC is I0 . If part ADE is removed, the moment of inertia of the
remaining part about the same axis is N I0

16
where N is an integer. Value of N is:
04 Sep 2020 (M)

Q112. For a uniform rectangular sheet shown in the figure, the ratio of moments of inertia about the
axes perpendicular to the sheet and passing through O (the centre of mass) and O ' (corner
point) is:

04 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 2/3 (2) 1/4
(3) 1/8 (4) 1/2

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Q113. A circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with angular speed ω . If another stationary 1

disc having radius R

2
and same mass M is dropped co-axially on to the rotating disc. Gradually both discs
attain constant angular speed ω . The energy lost in the process is p% of the initial energy. Value of p is
2

______ 04 Sep 2020 (M)

Q114. An massless equilateral triangle EFG of side 'a' (As shown in figure) has three particles of mass m

situated at its vertices. The moment of inertia of the system about the line EX perpendicular to EG in
the plane of EFG is N

20
ma
2
where N is an integer. The value of N is ______ .
03 Sep 2020 (E)

Q115. A uniform rod of length' ℓ is pivoted at one of its ends on a vertical shaft of negligible radius.
′

When the shaft rotates at angular speed ω the rod makes an angle θwith it (see figure). To find
2

θ equate the rate of change of angular momentum (direction going into the paper) ω sin θ
mℓ

12
2

about the centre of mass (CM) to the torque provided by the horizontal and vertical forces F H

and F about the CM. The value of θ is then such that:

v

03 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) cos θ = 3𝓁ω
2g
2
(2) cos θ = g

2ℓω
2

(3) cosθ = g

ℓω
2
(4) cos θ = 3g

2ℓω
2

Q116. A person of 80 kg mass is standing on the rim of a circular platform of mass 200 kg rotating about its axis at
5 revolutions per minute (rpm). The person now starts moving towards the centre of the platform. What will
be the rotational speed (in rpm ) of the platform when the person reaches its centre.... 03 Sep 2020 (M)

Q117. Moment of inertia of a cylinder of mass m, length L and radius R about an axis passing through its centre and
2 2

perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder is I = M(

R

4
+
L

12
). If such a cylinder is to be made for a given
mass of a material, the ratio L

R
for it to have minimum possible I is: 03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 2

3
(2) 3

(3) √ 3 (4) √ 2

2 3

Q118. A block of mass m = 1 kg slides with velocity v = 6 m s

−1
on a frictionless horizontal
surface and collides with a uniform vertical rod and sticks to it as shown. The rod is
pivoted about O and swings as a result of the collision making angle θ before momentarily
coming to rest. if the rod has mass M = 2 kg, and length ℓ = 1 m, the value of θ is
approximately(take g = 10 m s
−2
)

03 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) 63° (2) 55°
(3) 69° (4) 49°

Q119. A uniform cylinder of mass M and radius R is to be pulled over a step of

height a (a < R) by applying a force F at its centre ′O′ perpendicular to
the plane through the axes of the cylinder on the edge of the step (see
figure). The minimum value of F required is :

02 Sep 2020 (M)

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) Mg √1 − ( R−a
)
2
(2) Mg √( R
)
2
− 1
R R−a

(3) Mg a

R
(4) Mg √1 − a
2

2
R

Q120. Shown in the figure is rigid and uniform one meter long rod AB held in
horizontal position by two strings tied to its ends and attached to the ceiling. The
rod is off mass ′m′ and has another weight of mass 2 m hung at a distance of
75 cm from A. The tension in the string at A is:

02 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) 0. 5 mg (2) 2 mg
(3) 0. 75 mg (4) 1 mg

Q121. Two uniform circular discs are rotating independently in the same direction around their common axis
passing through their centres. The moment of inertia and angular velocity of the first disc are 0. 1 kg − m 2

and 10 rad s −1
respectively while those for the second one are 0. 2 kg − m
2
and 5 rad s
−1
respectively. At
some instant they get stuck together and start rotating as a single system about their common axis with some
angular speed. The kinetic energy of the combined system is : 02 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 10

3
J (2) 20

3
J

(3) 5

3
J (4) 2

3
J

Q122. A cylindrical vessel containing a liquid is rotated about its axis so that the liquid rises at its
sides as shown in the figure. The radius of vessel is 5 cm and the angular speed of rotation
is ω rad s
−1
. The difference in the height, h (in cm) of liquid at the Centre of vessel and
at the sides of the vessel will be :

02 Sep 2020 (M)

ω 2
ω 2

(1) 2

25g
(2) 5

2g

ω ω
(3) (4)
2 2
25 2

2g 5g

Q123. Three solid spheres each of mass m and diameter d are stuck together such that the lines
connecting the centres form an equilateral triangle of side of length d. The ratio I0

IA
of
moment of inertia I of the system about an axis passing the centroid and about center of any
0

of the spheres I and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle is:

A

09 Jan 2020 (M)

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 13

23
(2) 15

13

(3) 23

13
(4) 13

15

Q124. One end of a straight uniform 1m long bar is pivoted on horizontal table. It is released from rest
when it makes an angle 30 from the horizontal (see figure). Its angular speed when it hits the table
o

is given as √n rad s −1
, where n is an integer. The value of n is ____________
09 Jan 2020 (M)

Q125. A uniformly thick wheel with moment of inertia I and radius R is free to rotate about its
centre of mass (see fig). A massless string is wrapped over its rim and two blocks of masses
m1 and m 2 (m 1 > m 2 ) are attached to the ends of the string. The system Is released from
rest. The angular speed of the wheel when m descends by a distance h is:
1

09 Jan 2020 (E)

1 1

(1) 2(m 1 −m 2 )gh 2

(2) 2(m 1 +m 2 )gh 2

[ 2
] [ 2
]
(m 1 +m 2 )R +I (m 1 +m 2 )R +I

(3) (4)
1 1

(m 1 −m 2 ) 2
m 1 +m 2 2

[ 2
] gh [ 2
] gh
(m 1 +m 2 )R +1 (m 1 +m 2 )R +I

Q126. A body A of mass m is moving in a circular orbit of radius R about a planet. Another body B of mass m

2
→
→
collides with A with a velocity which is half ( v

2
) the instantaneous velocity v of A. The collision is
completely inelastic. Then, the combined body: 09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) continues to move in a circular orbit
(2) Escapes from the Planet's Gravitational field
(3) Falls vertically downwards towards the planet
(4) starts moving in an elliptical orbit around the planet

Q127. A uniform sphere of mass 500 g rolls without slipping on a plane horizontal surface with its centre moving at
a speed of 5.00 cm s
−1
. Its kinetic energy is: 08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 8.75 × 10 −4
J (2) 8.75 × 10 −3
J

(3) 6.25 × 10 −4
J (4) 1.13 × 10 −3
J

Q128. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length l, about an axis passing through a point l

4
away from the
centre of the rod, and perpendicular to it, is: 07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 1

4
l (2) 1

8
l

(3) √ 7
l
(4) √ 3
l
48 8

Q129. As shown in the figure, a bob of mass m is tied to a massless string whose other end portion is
wound on a fly wheel (disc) of radius r and mass m. When released from rest the bob starts
falling vertically. When it has covered a distance of h, the angular speed of the wheel will be:

07 Jan 2020 (M)

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 1
√
4 gh (2) r√ 3

r 3 2 gh

(3) 1
√
2 gh (4) r√ 3

r 3 4 gh

Q130. Mass per unit area of a circular disc of radius a depends on the distance r from its centre as σ(r) = A + Br .
The moment of inertia of the disc about the axis, perpendicular to the plane and passing through its centre is:
07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 2πa 4
(
A

4
+
aB

5
) (2) 2πa 4
(
aA

4
+
B

5
)

(3) πa 4
(
A

4
+
aB

5
) (4) 2πa 4
(
A

4
+
B

5
)

Q131. Consider a uniform cubical box of side a on a rough floor that is to be moved by applying
minimum possible force F at a point b above its centre of mass (see figure). If the coefficient
of friction is μ = 0.4, the maximum possible value of 100 × b

a
for a box not to topple before
moving is ______.
07 Jan 2020 (E)

Q132. A uniform rod of length l is being rotated in a horizontal plane with a constant angular speed about an axis
passing through one of its ends. If the tension generated in the rod due to rotation is T(x) at a distance x from
the axis, then which of the following graphs depicts it most closely? 12 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q133. A person of mass M is sitting on a swing of length L and swinging with and an angular amplitude θ . If the 0

person stands up when the swing passes through its lowest point, the work done by him, assuming that his
centre of mass moves by a distance l (l << L), is close to: 12 Apr 2019 (M)
θ 2

(1) M gl (1 − θ 2
0
) (2) M gl(1 + 0
)
2

(3) M gl (4) M gl(1 + θ 2

0
)

Q134. A circular disc of radius b has a hole of radius a at its centre(see figure). If the mass per unit area
of the disc varies as (
σ0

r
) then, the radius of gyration of the disc about its axis passing through
the center is

12 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) a+b

3
(2) √ 2
a +b +ab
2

(3) a+b

2
(4) √ 2
a +b +ab
2

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Q135. A smooth wire of length 2πr is bent into a circle and kept in a vertical plane. A bead can
slide smoothly on the wire. When the circle is rotating with angular speed ω about the
vertical diameter AB, as shown in figure, the bead is at rest with respect to the circular ring
at position P as shown. Then the value of ω is equal to: 2

12 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 2g/r (2) √ 3g

2r

(3) 2g/(r√3) (4) (g√3)/r

Q136. A thin disc of mass M and radius R has mass per unit area σ(r) = kr where r is the distance from its centre. 2

Its moment inertia about an axis going through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane is:
10 Apr 2019 (M)
2 2

(1) MR

3
(2) MR

(3) (4)
2 2
MR 2MR

6 3

Q137. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is divided into two unequal parts. The first part has a mass of 7M

8
and
is converted into uniform disc of radius 2R . The second part is converted into a uniform solid sphere. Let I 1

be the moment of inertia of the disc about its axis and I be the moment of inertia of the new sphere about its
2

axis. The ratio I 1 /I 2 is given by: 10 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 140 (2) 185
(3) 65 (4) 285

Q138. A metal coin of mass 5 g and radius 1 cm is fixed to a thin stick AB of negligible mass as shown
in the figure. The system is initially at rest. The constant torque, that will make the system rotate
about AB at 25 rotations per second in 5 s , is close to:

10 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 1.6 × 10 −5
N m (2) 2.0 × 10 −5
N m

(3) 7.9 × 10 −6
N m (4) 4.0 × 10 −6
N m

Q139. Two coaxial discs, having moments of inertia I and 1

I1

2
, are rotating with respective angular velocities ω 1

ω
and 2
1
, about their common axis. They are brought in contact with each other and thereafter they rotate
with a common angular velocity. If E and E are the final and initial total energies, then (E
f i f − Ei ) is:
10 Apr 2019 (M)
ω
(1) (2) ω
2
I1 3 2
1
I1
8 1
6

ω 2
ω 2

(3) − I1
1
(4) − I1
1

12 24

Q140. The time dependence of the position of a particle of mass m = 2 is given by → 2

r (t) = 2t î − 3t ĵ . Its angular
momentum, with respect to the origin, at time t = 2 is: 10 Apr 2019 (E)

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority C MathonGo

(1) 36 ˆ
k (2) 48 (ˆi + ˆj)
(3) −48 ˆ
k (4) −34 (ˆ ˆ
k − i)

Q141. A particle of mass m is moving along a trajectory given by

x = x 0 + a cos ω 1
t

y = y 0 + b sin ω 2
t

The torque, acting on the particle about the origin, at t = 0 is: 10 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) +my aω 0
2
1
k̂ (2) −m(x 0
b ω 2
2
− y0 a ω 2
1
)k̂

(3) Zero (4) m(−x 0b + y 0 a) ω 2ˆ

1
k

Q142. A stationary horizontal disc is free to rotate about its axis. When a torque is applied on it, its kinetic energy as
a function of θ, where θ is the angle by which it has rotated, is given as kθ . If its moment of inertia is I then 2

the angular acceleration of the disc is: 09 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) 2k

I
θ (2) k

2I
θ
(3) k

4I
θ (4) k

I
θ

Q143. Moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.5 kg m . Initially the body is at rest. In order to produce a
2

rotational kinetic energy of 1200 J, the angular acceleration of 20 rad/s must be applied about the axis for a 2

duration of: 09 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 3 s (2) 2 s
(3) 2.5 s (4) 5 s

Q144. A thin smooth rod of length L and mass M is rotating freely with angular speed ω about an axis 0

perpendicular to the rod and passing through center. Two beads of mass m and negligible size are at the
center of the rod initially. The beads of mass m and negligible size are at the center of the rod initially. The
beads are free to slide along the rod. The angular speed of the system, when the beads reach the opposite ends
of the rod, will be: 09 Apr 2019 (E)
ω ω
(1) M

M+3m
0
(2) M

M+2m
0

ω ω
(3) M

M+6m
0
(4) M

M+m
0

Q145. The following bodies are made to roll up (without slipping) the same inclined plane from a horizontal plane:
(i) a ring of radius R, (ii) a solid cylinder of radius R

2
and (iii) a solid sphere of radius R

4
. If, in each case, the
speed of the center of mass at the bottom of the incline is same, the ratio of the maximum heights they climb
is: 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 2 : 3 : 4 (2) 20 : 15 : 14
(3) 4 : 3 : 2 (4) 14 : 15 : 20

Q146. A solid sphere and solid cylinder of identical radii approach an incline with the same
linear velocity (see figure). Both roll without slipping all throughout. The two climb
h sph
maximum heights h sph and h cyl on the inline. The ratio h cyl
is given by:
08 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 2

√5
(2) 4

(3) 14

15
(4) 1

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Q147. A thin circular plate of mass M and radius R has its density varying as ρ (r)=ρ 0
r with ρ as constant and r is
0

the distance from its centre. The moment of Inertia of the circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the
plate and passing through its edge is I = aM R
2
. The value of the coefficient a is: 08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 3

5
(2) 1

(3) 8

5
(4) 3

Q148. A rectangular solid box of length 0.3 m is held horizontally, with one of its sides on the edge of
a platform of height 5 m . When released, it slips off the table in a very short time τ = 0.01 s ,
remaining essentially horizontal. The angle by which it would rotate when it hits the ground
will be (in radians) close to:

08 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.3
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.28

Q149. Let the moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of length 30 cm (inner radius 10 cm and outer radius 20 cm ),
about its axis be I . The radius of a thin cylinder of the same mass such that its moment of inertia about its
axis is also I, is: 12 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 16 cm (2) 14 cm
(3) 12 cm (4) 18 cm

Q150. The moment of inertial of a solid sphere, about an axis parallel to its diameter and at a distance of x from it,
is ′I (x) . Which one of the graphs represents the variation of I (x) with x correctly?
′
12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q151. A long cylindrical vessel is half filled with a liquid. When the vessel is rotated about its own vertical axis, the
liquid rises up near the wall. If the radius of vessel is 5 cm and its rotational speed is 2 rotations per second,
then the difference in the heights between the center and the sides, in cm, will be: 12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 0.4 (2) 2.0
(3) 1.2 (4) 0.1

Q152. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting on it is 1 N,
and the distance of the particle from the origin is 5 m, the angle between the force and the position vector is
(in radians): 11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) π

6
(2) π

(3) π

8
(4) π

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Q153. An equilateral triangle ABC is cut from a thin solid sheet of wood. (See figure) D, E and F

are the mid-points of its sides as shown and G is the centre of the triangle. The moment of
inertia of the triangle about an axis passing through G and perpendicular to the plane of the
triangle is I0 . If the smaller triangle DEF is removed from ABC , the moment of inertia of
the remaining figure about the same axis is I . Then
11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) I = 15

16
I0 (2) I = 3

4
I0

(3) I = 16
9
I0 (4) I = I0

Q154. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has two identical discs D 2

and D3 of the same mass M and radius R attached rigidly at its opposite
ends (see figure). The moment of inertia of the system about the axis
OO', passing through the centre of D , as shown in the figure, will be
1

11 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) MR 2
(2) 3MR 2

(3) 4

5
MR
2
(4) 2

3
MR
2

−
−
→
Q155.
→
A slab is subjected to two forces F1 and F2 of same magnitude F as
−
→
shown in the figure. Force F is in XY-plane while force F acts
2 1

along z -axis at the point (2→i + 3→j). The moment of these forces about
point O will be:

11 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) (3^i − 2^j + 3k)

^ F (2) (3^i − 2^j − 3k)F
^ (3) (3^i + 2^j − 3k)F
^ (4) (3^i + 2^j + 3k)F
^

Q156. A string is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius . If the string is now
0.5 m

pulled with a horizontal force of 40 N , and the cylinder is rolling without slipping on a
horizontal surface (see figure), then the angular acceleration of the cylinder will be (Neglect the
mass and thickness of the string)
11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 20rad/s 2
(2) 16rad/s 2

(3) 12rad/s 2
(4) 10rad/s 2

Q157. A rigid massless rod of length 3l has two masses attached at each end as shown in
the figure. The rod is pivoted at point P on the horizontal axis. When released from
the initial horizontal position, its instantaneous angular acceleration will be
10 Jan 2019 (E)

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Rotational Motion JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) g

2l
(2) 7g

3l

(3) g

3l
(4) g

13l

Q158. A homogeneous solid cylindrical roller of radius R and mass M is pulled on a cricket pitch by a horizontal
force. Assuming rolling without slipping, angular acceleration of the cylinder is: 10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 3 mR
F
(2) 3F

2 m R

(3) 2F

3 m R
(4) 2 m R
F

Q159. Two identical spherical balls of mass M and radius R each are stuck on two ends of a rod
of length 2R and mass M (see figure). The moment of inertia of the system about the axis
passing perpendicularly through the centre of the rod is
10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 209

15
MR
2
. (2) 152

15
MR
2
.
(3) 137

15
MR
2
. (4) 17

5
MR
2
.

Q160. To mop-clean a floor, a cleaning machine presses a circular mop of radius R vertically down with a total
force F and rotates it with a constant angular speed about its axis. If the force F is distributed uniformly over
the mop and if coefficient of friction between the mop and the floor is μ, the torque, applied by the machine
on the mop is: 10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 2 μF R/3 (2) μF R/3
(3) μF R/6 (4) μF R/2

Q161. Two masses m and m

2
are connected at the two ends of a massless rigid rod of length l. The rod
is suspended by a thin wire of torsional constant k at the centre of mass of the rod-mass system
(see figure). Because of torsional constant k, the restoring torque is τ = kθ for angular
displacement θ. If the rod is rotated by θ and released, the tension in it when it passes through its
0

mean position will be:

09 Jan 2019 (M)
2

(1) kθ 2
0
(2) 3kθ
0

l
2 2

(3) 2kθ
0
(4) kθ
0

l l

Q162. A rod of length 50 cm is pivoted at one end. It is raised such that it makes an angle of 30 o

from the horizontal as shown and released from rest. Its angular speed when it passes
through the horizontal (in rad s −1
) will be (g = 10 ms −2
)

09 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) √ 20

3
(2) √30
(3) √ 30 (4) √ 30

2
2

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Q163. An L -shaped object, made of thin rods of uniform mass density, is suspended with a
string as shown in figure. If AB = BC, and the angle made by AB with downward
vertical is θ, then:

09 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) tan θ = 2

√3
(2) tan θ = 1

(3) tan θ = 1

2
(4) tan θ = 1

2√ 3

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (2) 2. (100) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (13) 7. (4) 8. (2)
9. (7) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (53) 13. (8) 14. (24) 15. (250) 16. (60)
17. (10) 18. (7) 19. (16) 20. (3) 21. (5) 22. (15) 23. (4) 24. (2)
25. (35) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (75) 30. (176) 31. (5) 32. (3)
33. (2) 34. (10) 35. (5) 36. (3) 37. (54) 38. (40) 39. (17) 40. (5)
41. (3) 42. (110) 43. (32) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (18) 47. (120) 48. (5)
49. (5) 50. (4) 51. (8) 52. (3) 53. (10) 54. (91) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (5) 61. (6) 62. (2) 63. (6) 64. (3)
65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (52) 71. (1) 72. (4)
73. (3) 74. (9) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (4) 78. (10) 79. (2) 80. (1)
81. (2) 82. (200) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (4)
89. (1) 90. (728) 91. (4) 92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (20) 96. (30)
97. (3) 98. (20) 99. (3) 100. (1) 101. (2) 102. (3) 103. (8) 104. (2)
105. (1) 106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (195) 109. (4) 110. (3) 111. (11) 112. (2)
113. (20) 114. (25) 115. (4) 116. (9) 117. (3) 118. (1) 119. (1) 120. (4)
121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (15) 125. (1) 126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3)
129. (1) 130. (1) 131. (50) 132. (3) 133. (4) 134. (2) 135. (3) 136. (4)
137. (1) 138. (2) 139. (4) 140. (3) 141. (1) 142. (1) 143. (2) 144. (3)
145. (2) 146. (3) 147. (3) 148. (1) 149. (1) 150. (1) 151. (2) 152. (1)
153. (1) 154. (2) 155. (1) 156. (2) 157. (4) 158. (3) 159. (3) 160. (1)
161. (4) 162. (2) 163. (2)

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