ASSERTION & REASONING

And
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS
STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL

CLASS XII, PHYSICS

SESSION 2024-25

KVS REGIONAL OFFICE JAIPUR

INSPIRATION

Dr. Anurag Yadav, Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Jaipur

Smt. Indira Mudgal, Sh. Madho Singh, Sh. Vikas Gupta, Sh. A A Israel,
Assistant Assistant Assistant Assistant
Commissioner, Commissioner, Commissioner, Commissioner,
KVS RO Jaipur KVS RO Jaipur KVS RO Jaipur KVS RO Jaipur

MENTOR

Sh. Laxman Singh, Sh. Bal Mukund Sharma,

Principal, PM Shri Principal, PM Shri
Kendriya Vidyalaya, Kendriya Vidyalaya,
Dungarpur No. 2 Army, Jodhpur

REVIEW AND  Sh. Mukesh Rawat, PGT Physics, PM SHRI Kendriya Vidyalaya
EDITING Chittorgarh
 CONTENT
DEVELOPMENT
TEAM
ASSERTION AND REASONING BASED QUESTIONS
 Sh. Dilip Kumar Jain , PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V NO 1 Pratapnagar, Udaipur
 Sh. Kapil Sharma, PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V Beawar
 Sh. Girish Kumar Joshi , PGT Physics, K V NO 2 Eklinggarh, Udaipur
 Sh. Harshay Yadav, PGT Physics, PM SHRI Kendriya Vidyalaya Sikar
 Sh. Amar Singh Rathore , PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V Deogarh
 Sh. Praveen Nogia, PGT Physics, PM SHRI Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2 Army,
Jodhpur
 Sh. Sanjay Kumar, PGT Physics, PM SHRI Kendriya Vidyalaya I.S.A., Mount Abu
 Smt. Sita Devi, PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V Banswara

MCQ BASED QUESTIONS

 Ms. Samiksha Sharma, PGT Physics, KV Chhabra Ctpp
 Mr. S.K Gupta, PGT Physics, KV Ntpc Anta
 Mr. Surendra Singh Meena, PGT Physics, KV Bharatpur
 Mr. Rajesh Paliwal, PGT Physics, KV Ajmer No.1 Crpf
 Mr. Mohit Kumar Pareek, PGT Physics, KV Anupgarh Bsf
 Mr. Manik Chand Solanki, PGT Physics, KV Nagaur
 Ms. Durgesh Bairwa, PGT Physics, KV No.2 Alwar Itarana
 Mr. Ravi Arora, PGT Physics, KV Lalgarh Jattan
 Mr. Om Prakash Jajewal, PGT Physics, KV Ganganagar Cantt
 Mr.Pradeep Kumar Tetarwal, PGT Physics, KV Khajuwala Bsf
 Mr. Prakash Singh, PGT Physics, KV No.1 Suratgarh Afs
 Mr. Sumit, PGT Physics, KV No.1 Afs Jodhpur
 Mr. Bhupesh Nakoda, PGT Physics, KV No.1 Afs Jodhpur
 Mr. Ajay Jain, PGT Physics, KV No.2 Afs Jodhpur
 Mr. Veer Mohammad, PGT Physics, KV No.2 Afs Jodhpur
 Mr. Santosh Singh Rathore, PGT Physics, KV Jaisindhar
 Mr. Ram Lal Yadav, PGT Physics, KV Banar Army Jodhpur
 Mr. Vikram Ram, PGT Physics, KV Pokhran
 Mr. Praveen Nogia, PGT Physics, KV No.2 Army Jodhpur
 Mr. Sahil Aneja, PGT Physics, KV No.1 Army Johdpur
__________________________________________________________________________________________
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25) KVS RO JAIPUR

CLASS XII (2024-25)

PHYSICS (THEORY)
TIME: 3 HOURS MAX MARKS: 70
NO OF MARKS
PERIODS
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields 26
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 16
Unit-II Current Electricity
Chapter–3: Current Electricity 18
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism 25
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter
Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
24
17
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction
Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Unit-V Electromagnetic Waves
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 04
Unit-VI Optics 18
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 30
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Unit-VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 08
Unit-VIII Atoms and Nuclei 12
Chapter–12: Atoms 15
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Unit-IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, 10 7
Devices and Simple Circuits
Total 160 70
__________________________________________________________________________________________
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25) KVS RO JAIPUR

PART A: ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS

INDEX
UNIT DETAILS PAGE NO.
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields 1
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 4
Unit-II Current Electricity
Chapter–3: Current Electricity 7
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism 12
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 17
Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction 20
Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Unit-V Electromagnetic Waves
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 29
Unit-VI Optics
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 33
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Unit-VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 38
Unit-VIII Atoms and Nuclei
Chapter–12: Atoms 41
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Unit-IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, 47
Devices and Simple Circuits
FOR PRACTICE SET-1 52
PRACTICE PRACTICE SET-2 57
__________________________________________________________________________________________
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25) KVS RO JAIPUR

PART B: MCQ BASED QUESTIONS

INDEX
UNIT DETAILS PAGE NO.
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields 62
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 70
Unit-II Current Electricity
Chapter–3: Current Electricity 76
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism 83
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 92
Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction 103
Chapter–7: Alternating Current 111
Unit-V Electromagnetic Waves
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 116
Unit-VI Optics
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 121
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Unit-VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 128
Unit-VIII Atoms and Nuclei
Chapter–12: Atoms 133
Chapter–13: Nuclei 136
Unit-IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, 139
Devices and Simple Circuits
__________________________________________________________________________________________
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25) KVS RO JAIPUR

PART A:

ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS

PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER - 1
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
Prepared By: Sh. Dilip Kumar Jain , PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V NO 1 Pratapnagar, Udaipur

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : When bodies are charged through friction, there is a transfer of electric charge
from one body to another, but no creation or destruction of charge.
Reason (R) : This follows from conservation of electric charges.
Q2. Assertion (A) : The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.
Reason (R) : If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on conductor
will flow to ground.
Q3. Assertion (A) : If there exists coulomb attraction between two bodies, both of them may not be
charged.
Reason (R) : In coulomb attraction two bodies are oppositely charged.
Q4. Assertion (A) : The property that the force with which two charges attract or repel each other
are not affected by the presence of a third charge.
Reason (R) : Force on any charge due to a number of other charge is the vector sum of all
the forces on that charge due to other charges, taken one at a time.
Q5. Assertion (A) : A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric
field.
Reason (R) : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point
Q6. Assertion (A) : A point charge is brought in an electric field, the field at a nearby point will
increase or decrease, depending on the nature of charge.
Reason (R) : The electric field is independent of the nature of charge.
Q7. Assertion (A) : When a conductor is placed in an external electrostatic field, the net electric
field inside the conductor becomes zero after a small instant of time.
Reason (R) : It is not possible to set up an electric field inside a conductor.
Q8. Assertion (A) : A uniformly charged disc has a pin hole at its centre. The electric field at the
centre of the disc is zero.
Reason (R) : Disc can be supposed to be made up of many rings. Also electric field at the
centre of uniformly charged ring is zero.
Q9. Assertion (A) : Electric lines of field cross each other.
Reason (R) : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field.

Page | 1
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Q10. Assertion (A) : Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4 are as
shown in figure. The flux from the shown
Gaussian surface depends only on charges q1
and q2.

Reason (R) : Electric field at all points on Gaussian surface depends only on charges q 1 and q2.
Q11. Assertion (A) : On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an electric field, it
returns back to its stable equilibrium orientation. A restoring torque acts on the
dipole on being disturbed from its stable equilibrium.
Reason (R) : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable
equilibrium.
Q12. Assertion (A) : On moving a distance two times the initial distance away from an infinitely long
straight uniformly charged wire the electric field reduces to one third of the
initial value.
Reason (R) : The electric field is inversely proportional to the distance from an infinitely long
straight uniformly charged wire.
Q13. Assertion (A) : Electric force acting on a proton and an electron, moving in a uniform electric
field is same, whereas acceleration of electron is 1836 times that of a proton.
Reason (R) : Electron is lighter than proton.
Q14. Assertion (A) : Electric field lines due to positive charge are along radially outward direction
from the charge.
Reason (R) : Positive charge repels another positive charge.
Q15. Assertion (A) : All the charge in a conductor gets distributed on whole of its outer surface.
Reason (R) : In a dynamic system, charges try to keep their potential energy minimum.
Q16. Assertion (A) : When a body acquires negative charge, its mass decreases.
Reason (R) : A body acquired positive charge when it gains electrons.
Q17. Assertion (A) : If more electric field lines leave a Gaussian surface than those which enter into
it, then the net charge enclosed by that surface will be positive.
Reason (R) : If the net flux passing through Gaussian surface is zero, then the net charge
enclosed by that surface will be zero.
Q18. Assertion (A) : When a charge is placed at a corner of a square, the flux passing through the
square will be zero.
Reason (R) : When electric field and area vector are perpendicular each other at every point,
then the flux passing through that surface will be zero.
Q19. Assertion (A) : Range of coulomb force is infinite.
Reason (R) : Coulomb force acts between two charged particles.
Q20. Assertion (A) : Ongoing away from a point charge or a small electric dipole, electric field
decreases at the same rate in both the cases
Reason (R) : Electric field is inversely proportional to square of distance from the charge or
on electric dipole.

Page | 2
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 1
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. A Conservation of electric charge states that the total charge of an isolated
system remains unchanged with time
2. B Both the statements are independently correct.
3. B Coulomb attraction exists even when one body is charged, and the other is
uncharged.
4. B Force on any charge due to a number of other charges is the vector sum of
all the forces on that charge due to the other charges, taken one at a time.
The individual force are unaffected due to the presence of other charges.
This is the principle of superposition of charges.
5. A The electrostatic shielding is possible by metallic conductor.
6. C The electric field will increase if positive charge is brought in an electric
field.
7. C When a current is set up in a conductor, there exists an electric field inside
it.
8. A The electric field due to disc is superposition of electric field due to its
constituent ring as given in Reason.
9. D Two field lines never intersect.
10. C Electric field at any point depends on presence of all charges.
11. A The restoring torque brings it back to its stable equilibrium.
12. A E=K2λ/r as E inversely proportional to distance r.
13. A Acceleration depends on mass not on the charge.
14. A If we place a positive charge near another positive charge it will feel
repulsion as similar charges repel each other. So electric field lines for
positive charges are radially outwards
15. A Reason explain correct assertion that why charges remains on outer
surface.
16. D When a body acquires negative charge, its mass increases. A body
acquired positive charge when it loose electrons.
17. B Both the statements are independently correct.
18. A Reason correct explain that When a charge is placed at a corner of a square,
the flux passing through the square will be zero.
19. A Both the statements are independently correct.
20. D For electric dipole, the field falls as cube of distance from the dipole center.
But for point charge, it falls as square of distance. So, assertion and reason
are both incorrect.

Page | 3
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER - 2
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
Prepared By: Sh. Dilip Kumar Jain , PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V NO 1 Pratapnagar, Udaipur

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : Polar molecules have permanent dipole moment.

Reason (R) : In polar molecules, the centres of positive and negative charges coincide
even when there is no external field.
Q2. Assertion (A) : Electric potential and electric potential energy are different quantities.
Reason (R) : For a system of positive test charge and point charge electric potential
energy = electric potential.
Q3. Assertion (A) : Electric field inside a conductor is zero.
Reason (R) : The potential at all the points inside a conductor is same.
Q4. Assertion (A) : The potential difference between any two points in an electric field
depends only on initial and final position.
Reason (R) : Electric field is a conservative field so the work done per unit positive
charge does not depend on path followed.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Two adjacent conductors of unequal dimensions, carrying the same positive
charge have a potential difference between them.
Reason (R) : The potential of a conductor depends upon the charge given to it.
Q6. Assertion (A) : The total charge stored in a capacitor is zero.
Reason (R) : The field just outside the capacitor is σ/ε0 . (σ is the charge density).
Q7. Assertion (A) : The potential inside a hollow spherical charged conductor is zero.
Reason (R) : Inside the hollow spherical conductor electric field is constant.
Q8. Assertion (A) : No work is done in moving a test charge from one point to another over an
equipotential surface.
Reason (R) : Electric field is always normal to the equipotential surface at every point
Q9. Assertion (A) : The net force on a dipole in a uniform electric dipole is zero.
Reason (R) : Electric dipole moment is a vector directed from –q to +q.
Q10. Assertion (A) : If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric
constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
Reason (R) : Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.
Q11. Assertion (A) : Earthing provides a safety measure for electrical circuits and appliances.

Page | 4
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : When we bring a charged body in contact with the earth, all the excess
charge on the body disappears by causing a momentary current to pass to
the ground through the connecting conductor.
Q12. Assertion (A) : Work done by the electrostatic force in bringing the unit positive Charge
form infinity to the point P is positive.
Reason (R) : The force on a unit positive test charge is attractive, so that the
electrostatic force and the displacement (from infinity to P) are in the same
direction.
Q13. Assertion (A) : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. A
dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduce between the plates. The
energy stored becomes k times
Reason (R) : The surface charge density of charge on the plate remains constant
Q14. Assertion (A) : The electron move away from a region of lower potential to a region of
higher potential.
Reason (R) : Since electron possess negative potential.
Q15. Assertion (A) : When distance between the plates of a charged capacitor is increased, its
capacity decreases.
𝜀 𝐴
Reason (R) : This is because 𝐶 = 0𝑑 , where symbols have standard meaning.
Q16. Assertion (A) : When a charged capacitor is filled completely with a metallic slab, Its
capacitance is increased by a large amount
Reason (R) : The dielectric constant for metal is infinite.
Q17. Assertion (A) : As battery remains connected, potential of capacitor will not change.
Reason (R) : If the capacitor is kept connected with the battery and then the dielectric
slab is inserted between the plates, both the charge on capacitor and the
energy stored in the capacitor gets decreased.
Q18. Assertion (A) : At a point in space, the electric field points towards north. In the region,
surrounding this point the rate of change of potential will be zero along the
east and west.
Reason (R) : Electric field due to a charge in the space around the charge.
Q19. Assertion (A) : The lightning conductor at the top of high building has sharp pointed ends.
Reason (R) : The surface of charge at sharp points is very high resulting in setting up of
electric wind.
Q20. Assertion (A) : Electric potential is scalar and electric intensity is vector quantity.
Reason (R) : The value of electric potential and electric intensity at the middle point of
the line joining an electron and a proton is zero.

Page | 5
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 2
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. C In polar molecules, the centres of positive and negative charges located at two
different points even when there is no external field.
2. C Potential and potential energy are different quantities and cannot be equated.
3. B Both the statements are independently correct.
4. A Work done by conservative force( electrostatic force) does not depends on path
5. B Both the statements are independently correct.
6. C The field just outside the capacitor is zero.
7. D The potential inside a hollow spherical charged conductor is constant and Inside
the hollow spherical conductor electric field is zero.
8. A Both statement are correct and reason correctly explain assertion
9. B Both the statements are independently correct.
10. C Capacity of the capacitor depends upon the nature of the material between two
plates.
11. A Earthing provides a safety measure for electrical circuits and Appliances because
when we bring a charged body in contact with the earth, all the excess charge on
the body disappears by causing a momentary current to pass to the ground
through the connecting conductor.
12. A Both statement are correct and reason correctly explain assertion
13. C The surface charge density will decrease by factor 1/K
14. A Negative charge always flow from low to higher potential.
15. A Capacitance of a capacitor is inversely proportional to distance between two plates
16. A Both statement are correct and reason correctly explain assertion.
17. C On inserting a dielectric slab the capacitance of capacitor C=KC0 and electrostatic
stored energy U=KU0
18. B Since the electric field is directed from south to north hence rate of change of
potential will be along this direction, but it is zero along east and west.
19. A A charged cloud induces opposite charge on point conductors. At sharp points of
the conductor surface density of charge is very high and charge begins to leak from
the pointed end setting up of oppositely charged electric wind. This wind, when it
comes in contact with the charged cloud, neutralizes some of the charge lowering
the potential difference between the cloud and the building. This reduces the
chances of lightning strikes the building [if the lightning strikes the building, the
charge is conducted to the earth and the building remains safe].
20. C The value of electric potential at the middle point of the line joining an electron
and a proton is zero but electric field is not zero as electric field is a vector quantity

Page | 6
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER - 3
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Prepared By: Sh. Kapil Sharma, PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V Beawar

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : Current can be represented with an arrow

Reason (R) : Current is a vector quantity.
Q2. Assertion (A) : Current flows in a conductor only when there is an external electric field
within the conductor.
Reason (R) : The drift velocity of the electrons is directly proportional to the electric
field.
Q3. Assertion (A) : Drift velocity of electrons is independent of time.
Reason (R) : Electrons are accelerated in the presence of electric field.
Q4. Assertion (A) : The resistance of a conductor decreases with increase in cross sectional
area.
Reason (R) : On increasing the cross sectional area of a conductor, more current will flow
through the conductor.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Insulators do not allow flow of current through them.
Reason (R) : Insulators have no free charge carrier
Q6. Assertion (A) : Electromotive force is a force which helps the electrons to flow and produce
current.
Reason (R) : Electromotive force is independent of the voltage across the cell.
Q7. Assertion (A) : Current is passed through a metallic wire, heating it red. Half of its portion
is cooled by cold water jacket, then rest of the half portion become hotter.
Reason (R) : Resistances decreases due to decrease in temperature and so current
through wire increases.
Q8. Assertion (A) : Kirchhoff's junction rule can be applied to a junction of several lines or a
point in a line.
Reason (R) : When steady current is flowing, there is no accumulation of charges at any
junction in series with a galvanometer.
Q9. Assertion (A) : Electrons which constitute the current are negatively charged.
Reason (R) : Current carrying wire is negatively charged.
Q10. Assertion (A) : The bending of an insulated wire increase the resistance of wire
Reason (R) : The drift velocity of electron in this wire decreases

Page | 7
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Q11. Assertion (A) : For good conductors, the I-V graph is a perfect straight line inclined to
current axis.
Reason (R) : By Ohm's law, voltage across the ends of a conductor is directly
proportional to the resistance of the conductor.
Q12. Assertion (A) : A larger dry cell has higher emf.
Reason (R) : The emf of a dry cell is proportional to its size.
Q13. Assertion (A) : Potential measured by a voltmeter across a wire is always less than actual
potential difference across it.
Reason (R) : Finite resistance of voltmeter changes current flowing through the
resistance across which potential difference is to be measured.
Q14. Assertion (A) : The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will decrease, if the
temperature of the wire is increased.
Reason (R) : On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
Q15. Assertion (A) : In meter bridge experiment, a high resistance is always connected in series
with a galvanometer.
Reason (R) : As resistance increases, current through the circuit increases,
Q16. Assertion (A) : A person touching a high power line gas stuck with the line.
Reason (R) : The current carrying wires attract the man toward it.
Q17. Assertion (A) : When identical cells are connected in parallel to the external load, the
effective e.m.f increases.
Reason (R) : All the cells will be sending unequal current to the external load in the same
direction.
Q18. Assertion (A) : The meter bridge wire is made of manganin.
Reason (R) : For manganin, the temperature coefficient of resistance is almost zero and
its resistivity very less.
Q19. Assertion (A) : Kirchhoff’s voltage law indicates that electro static field is conservative.
Reason (R) : Potential difference between two points in a circuit does not depends on
path.
Q20. Assertion (A) : When Wheatstone bridge is balanced then current through cell depends on
resistance of galvanometer.
Reason (R) : At balanced condition current through galvanometer is non zero.
Q21. Assertion (A) : In parallel combination of electrical appliance, total power consumption is
equal to the sum of the powers of the individual appliances.
Reason (R) : In parallel combination, the voltage across each appliance is the same, as
required for the proper working of electrical appliance.
Q22. Assertion (A) : In series combination of electrical bulbs of lower power emits more light
than that of higher power bulb.
Reason (R) : The lower power bulb in series gets more current than the higher power
bulb.
Q23. Assertion (A) : The total resistance in series combination of resistors increases and in
parallel combination of resistors decreases.

Page | 8
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : In series combination of resistors, the effective length of resistors increases
and in parallel combination of resistors, the area of cross-section of the
resistors increases.
Q24. Assertion (A) : The connecting wires are made of copper.
Reason (R) : The electrical conductivity of copper is high
Q25. Assertion (A) : The 200W bulbs glows with more brightness then 100W bulbs.
Reason (R) : A 100W bulb has more resistance than a 200W bulb.
Q26. Assertion (A) : Fuse wire must have high resistance and low melting point.
Reason (R) : Fuse is used for small current flow only.
Q27. Assertion (A) : Superconductors have zero resistivity at very low temperatures.
Reason (R) : Superconductors are materials that exhibit perfect conductivity and zero
electrical resistance below a critical temperature.
Q28. Assertion (A) : Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on the principle of conservation of charge.
Reason (R) : Kirchhoff’s junction rule states that the total current entering a junction is
equal to the total current leaving the junction.
Q29. Assertion (A) : An ideal ammeter has zero resistance and is connected in series in a circuit.
Reason (R) : An ideal ammeter should not change the current in the circuit when
connected.
Q30. Assertion (A) : An ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance and connected in parallel between
two points where p.d.is to be measured in a circuit.
Reason (R) : An ideal voltmeter should not consume current in the circuit when
connected.

Page | 9
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 3
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. C Current is scalar quantity because it does not obey laws of vector algebra.
2. A Because current is due to drift of electrons and drift velocity is directly
𝑣𝑑 = -e𝐸⃑ τ/m
proportional to applied electric field i.e. ⃑⃑⃑⃑
3. B Drift velocity is average velocity of electrons in presence of electric field and
independent of time.
4. A Increase in cross section area of conductor gives more free space availability for
electron flow which results decrease in resistance of conductor.
5. A Current arises due to continuous flow of charged particles. There is no free
charge carriers in insulator hence no flow of charges are possible. Therefore
current do not flow through insulators.
6. C Electromotive force is the voltage difference between the two terminals of a
source in open circuit.
7. A When half the portion of the wire is cooled, its resistance decreases due to
decrease in temperature. As a result of this total resistance of circuit decrease, so
current through each portion of wire increases. That is, rest of the half portion
becomes hotter.
8. A Kirchhoff's junction rule can be applied to any junction where currents are
converging or diverging. The reason correctly explains why this is the case, as
steady current implies no charge accumulation.
9. C Electrons that constitute current are negatively charged. A wire carrying current
is not charged. Inside the wire the number of electrons equals to the number of
protons, at any instant. Therefore the conductor is neutral. The current in the
conductor is due to the flow of electrons from the negative terminal to the
positive terminal.
10. D Bending will not increase the resistance of the conducting wire. Also drift velocity
of electron is independent of bending of conductor.
11. C Ohm's law states that, current j flowing through a conductor v is directly
proportional to the voltage between the ends of a given conductor. i.e. V ∝ I
12. D EMF of dry cell is independent of its size.
13. A Due to finite resistance some current drawn by voltmeter.
14. B On increasing temperature of wire the KE of electron increase and no they collide
more rapidly with each other and hence their drift velocity decreases. Resistivity
also and resistivity is inversely proportional to conductivity of material.
15. C The resistance of galvanometer is fixed. In metre bridge experiment, to protect is
fixed. In metre bridge experiments, to protect the galvanometer from a high
current, high resistance is connected to the galvanometer in order to protect if

Page | 10
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
from damage.
16. D Because there is no special attractive force that keeps a person stuck with a high
power line. The actual reason is that a current of the order of 0.05A or even less
is enough to bring disorder in our nervous system. As a result of it, the affected
person may lose temporarily his ability to exercise his nervous control to get
himself free from the high power line.
17. D Effective emf remains same equal to anyone cell and current increases as
effective resistance decreases
18. A Properties of alloy is used. This material is also used for making standard
resistances.
19. A Electrostatic field is conservative that’s why voltage changes in a closed of an
electric circuit is zero.
20. D Since no current flows through galvanometer arm at balanced condition
therefore current from cell not depend on galvanometer resistance.
21. A In parallel combination P=𝑃1 + 𝑃2 + 𝑃3 + …
22. A Due to same current in series bulb with higher resistance will glow brighter.
23. A Resistance is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to cross
section area of conductor.
24. A Copper have low resistivity hence high conductivity. As conductivity is inversely
proportional to resistivity.
25. A The brightness of a light bulb is a function of both current and resistance. Electric
power is inversely proportional to resistance, meaning that the more resistance a
bulb has, the less power it will have. Therefore, a 200 W bulb will have less
resistance than a 100 W bulb and will glow more brightly.
26. C Fuse wire has high resistance to limit the current flow under normal operating
conditions. The low melting point is crucial because it allows the fuse to melt and
break the circuit when the current exceeds a safe level, preventing damage to the
device.
Reason is misleading. While a fuse is used to protect devices from excessive
current, it does not mean that it is only used for small current flows. Instead, it is
designed to handle a specific maximum current.
27. A Below critical temperature superconducting material have zero resistance and
resistivity and current persist for infinite time.
28. A Kirchhoff’s junction rule obeys law of conservation of charge.
29. A Due to zero resistance, an ideal ammeter do not consume any current and show
accurate reading.
30. A Due to infinite resistance, current is not flowing through ideal voltmeter and it
doesn’t affect current through load.

Page | 11
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER - 4
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
Prepared By: Sh. Girish Kumar Joshi , PGT Physics, K V NO 2 Eklinggarh, Udaipur

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : When current is represented by a straight line, magnetic field will be
circular.
Reason (R) : According to Fleming’s left hand rule, direction of force is parallel to the
magnetic field.
Q2. Assertion (A) : The direction of the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying
conductor can be determined using the right-hand rule.
Reason (R) : The right-hand rule states that if the thumb points in the direction of the
current, the curled fingers show the direction of the magnetic field.
Q3. Assertion (A) : When the radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled, magnetic
field at its center becomes half.
Reason (R) : The magnetic field at the centre depends upon the radius.
Q4. Assertion (A) : The magnetic field at the centre of the current carrying
circular coil shown in the fig. is zero.

Reason (R) : The magnitudes of magnetic fields are equal and the directions of
magnetic fields due to both the semicircles are opposite.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Ampere’s circuital law is used to determine the magnetic field due to a given
current distribution.
Reason (R) : Ampere’s circuital law states that the line integral of the magnetic field
around a closed path is proportional to the total current enclosed by the
path.
Q6. Assertion (A) : The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is
independent of its length and cross sectional area.
Reason (R) : The magnetic field inside solenoid is uniform.
Q7. Assertion (A) : The Magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying solenoid is
half of that at the centre.
Reason (R) : If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.
Q8. Assertion (A) : The coil of spring come close to each other, when current passes through
it.

Page | 12
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : The coils of a spring carry current in the same direction and produces
opposite poles in adjacent coils.
Q9. Assertion (A) : A charge particle is released from rest in magnetic field, then it will move
in a circular path.
Reason (R) : Work done by magnetic field is not zero.
Q10. Assertion (A) : Magnetic field interacts with a moving charge only.
Reason (R) : Moving charge produces a magnetic field.
Q11. Assertion (A) : No force is exerted on stationary charge in magnetic field.
Reason (R) : A stationary source does not produce any magnetic field to interact with
an external magnetic field.
Q12. Assertion (A) : The energy of a charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field
remains constant.
Reason (R) : Magnetic field does work on the moving charge.
Q13. Assertion (A) : If an electron and proton move in a uniform magnetic field with same
speed in perpendicular direction, then they will experience same force.
Reason (R) : These particles have same charges.
Q14. Assertion (A) : If a proton and an α-particle enter a uniform magnetic field
perpendicularly with the same speed, the time period of revolution of α-
particle is double than that of proton.
Reason (R) : In a magnetic field, the period of revolution of a charged particle is
directly proportional to the mass of the particle and inversely
proportional to the charge of the particle.
Q15. Assertion (A) : Work done by magnetic field is not equal to zero.
Reason (R) : The kinetic energy of charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field
changes.
Q16. Assertion (A) : A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are
moving in circular paths in a uniform magnetic field. The radii of their
circular paths will be equal.
Reason (R) : Any two charged particles having equal kinetic energies and entering a
region of uniform magnetic field B in a direction perpendicular to B, will
describe circular trajectories of equal radii.
Q17. Assertion (A) : Torque on the coil is the maximum, when coil is suspended in a radial
magnetic field.
Reason (R) : The torque tends to rotate the coil on its own axis.
Q18. Assertion (A) : The torque acting on square and circular current carrying coils having
equal areas, placed in uniform magnetic field, will be same.
Reason (R) : Torque acting on a current carrying coil placed in uniform magnetic field
depends on the shape of the coil.
Q19. Assertion (A) : A galvanometer is said to be more sensitive if it shows large
deflection for small amount of current.
Reason (R) : The radial magnetic field is created by using cylindrical magnetic poles.

Page | 13
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Q20. Assertion (A) : Resistance of an ideal voltmeter should be infinite.
Reason (R) : The lower resistance of the voltmeter gives a reading lower than the actual
potential difference across the terminals.
Q21. Assertion (A) : An ideal ammeter should have zero resistance.
Reason (R) : In ammeter shunt resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer.
Q22. Assertion (A) : An ammeter is always connected in series whereas a voltmeter is
connected in parallel.
Reason (R) : An ammeter is a low resistance galvanometer while a voltmeter is high
resistance galvanometer.
Q23. Assertion (A) : The range of ‘galvanometer converted into an ammeter can be
increased by reducing the value of shunt.
Reason (R) : Shunt is connected in parallel to galvanometer.
Q24. Assertion (A) : On increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by increasing the
number of turns may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.
Reason (R) : The resistance of the coil of the galvanometer increases on increasing the
number of turns.
Q25. Assertion (A) : A phosphor bronze strip is used in a moving coil galvanometer.
Reason (R) : Phosphor bronze strip has the maximum value of torsional constant k.

Page | 14
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 4
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. C Direction of magnetic field due to straight current carrying conductor is find out with
the help of Right hand thumb rule.
2. A Statement of Right hand rule.
3. B The magnetic field at centre of the circular coil is inversely proportional to the radius.
4. A From right hand rule the direction of current will be opposite in two semicircle so the
direction of magnetic field will be also opposite.
5. A Statement of Ampere’s circuital
6. B The magnetic field inside the current carrying solenoid is given by µOnI
7. A For sufficiently long solenoid, the field within the solenoid is uniform and at ends it
will be half.
8. A The current carrying coil act as magnetic dipole so opposite poles are created on its
adjacent sides.
9. D A charge particle moving in magnetic field perpendicular to it then it will move in
circular path and work done by the magnetic field is zero.
10. A The external magnetic field interact with the magnetic field of the moving charge
because moving charge also produces its own magnetic field.
11. A Stationary charge does not produces magnetic field so it will not interact with the
external magnetic field.
12. C The energy remains constant and work done by the magnetic field on the moving
charge is zero.
13. B Because magnetic force is depends upon the charge, its speed, magnetic field and
angle between magnetic field and velocity.
14. A Time period is given by T = 2Πr/v = 2πmv/qb
15. D Work done by magnetic force is equal to zero, according to work-energy theorem
work done is equal to the change in kinetic energy.
16. C Because radius is given by r = mv / qB = √2Mk / qB
17. B It will be correct if stated as due to radial magnetic field the torque is maximum for all
orientation of the coil.
18. C The torque acting on a current carrying coil depends upon the magnetic field, current,
number of turns in it, area of the coil and its orientation with the magnetic field.
19. A Radial magnetic field increases the strength of magnetic field by strong horse – shoe
magnet and placing a soft iron core within the coil.
20. A By increasing the resistance of voltmeter its potential difference measuring capacity
increases.
21. C In ammeter shunt is connected in parallel to its coil so its resistance is reduced and
current measuring range increases.

Page | 15
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
22. A Ammeter measure the current and have low resistance and connected in series while
voltmeter measure potential difference and have high resistance and connected in
parallel.
23. A Because by connecting a shunt in parallel to the coil, galvanometer is converted into
ammeter.
24. A By increasing the no of turns resistance also increases so it is not necessary that
voltage sensitivity increases or decreases.
25. C Phosphor bronze strip has the very ess value of torsional constant k.

Page | 16
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER - 5
MAGNETISM AND MATTER
Prepared By: Sh. Girish Kumar Joshi , PGT Physics, K V NO 2 Eklinggarh, Udaipur

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : The poles of a magnet can never be separated.

Reason (R) : Each molecule of a substance is itself a magnet
Q2. Assertion (A) : Magnetic field lines never intersect to each other.
Reason (R) : If they intersect there would be two directions of magnetic field..
Q3. Assertion (A) : The magnetic field of bar magnet is strongest at its pole.
Reason (R) : The field lines are closest together at the poles showing strong magnetic
field
Q4. Assertion (A) : The magnetization of material can be increased by increasing applied
magnetic field.
Reason (R) : Magnetization is proportional to the applied magnetic field.
Q5. Assertion (A) : The flux of magnetic field through any closed surface is always zero.
Reason (R) : Magnetic monopoles do exist.
Q6. Assertion (A) : Both Am2 and J T-1 are the units of magnetic dipole moment.
Reason (R) : Both the units are equivalent to each other
Q7. Assertion (A) : When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, only a
torque acts on the dipole.
Reason (R) : The net force will act on dipole if magnetic field were uniform.
Q8. Assertion (A) : Magnetic field lines form closed loops.
Reason (R) : Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
Q9. Assertion (A) : Magnetic materials can be classified as diamagnetic, paramagnetic or
ferromagnetic.
Reason (R) : The classification depends upon the materials response to an applied
magnetic field.
Q10. Assertion (A) : The ferromagnetic substance obeys do not Curie’s law.
Reason (R) : At curie point a ferromagnetic substance start behaving as a paramagnetic
substance.
Q11. Assertion (A) : The susceptibility of diamagnetic materials does not depend upon
temperature.

Page | 17
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : Every atom of a diamagnetic material is not a complete magnet in itself.
Q12. Assertion (A) : Paramagnetic materials have a positive magnetic susceptibility.
Reason (R) : Paramagnetic materials have weak atomic magnetic dipoles that align with
the applied magnetic field, leading to a positive magnetic susceptibility.
Q13. Assertion (A) : Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie temp.
Reason (R) : Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
Q14. Assertion (A) : Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
Reason (R) : Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.
Q15. Assertion (A) : Magnetic moment of an atom is due to both, the orbital motion and spin
motion of every electron.
Reason (R) : A charged particle at rest produces a magnetic field.

Page | 18
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 5
MAGNETISM AND MATTER
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. A Since each atom of a magnetic material is a tiny magnet in itself.
2. A If magnetic field lines intersect there would be two direction of magnetic field at
that point which is impossible.
3. A The density of magnetic field lines correlates with field strength, making poles
strongest areas
4. A Increasing the applied magnetic field increases the magnetization.
5. C Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
6. A Both units are same.
7. D Magnetic dipole place in uniform magnetic field does not experience any net force
but torque will act on it. In Non-uniform magnetic field magnetic dipole
experience net force as well as net torque.
8. A Because of magnetic monopole do not exist, magnetic field lines form closed loops.
9. A The behavior of materials in response to magnetic fields categorized them into
specified groups based on their magnetic properties.
10. B Ferromagnetic substance behave differently at temperature below a certain point
known as Curie point (Tc). Below this temperature, they exhibits strong magnetism,
while above it, they behave like paramagnetic substance.
11. C Because the thermal agitation of the atoms does not significantly affect the induced
magnetic moment.
12. A Because Paramagnetic materials have weak atomic magnetic dipoles that
align with the applied magnetic field, leading to a positive magnetic
susceptibility.
13. A At the Curie temperature, the thermal agitation disrupts the alignment of atomic
magnetic dipoles in ferromagnetic materials, causing them to become
paramagnetic.
14. C Diamagnetic substance does not have permanent magnetic dipole moment but the
show magnetism.
15. C Magnetic moment of an atom is both due to its orbital as well as spin motion of
electron and charged particle at rest does not produces magnetic field.

Page | 19
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER – 6 & 7
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
Prepared By: Sh. Harshay Yadav, PGT Physics, PM SHRI Kendriya Vidyalaya Sikar

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : Eddy currents is produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic flux is
changed around it.
Reason (R) : Electric potential determines the flow of charge.
Q2. Assertion (A) : The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of time.
Reason (R) : To reduce the rate of increases of current through a solenoid should
increase the time constant (L/R).
Q3. Assertion (A) : Faraday’s laws are consequences of conservation of energy.
Reason (R) : In a purely resistive ac circuit, the current lags behind the e.m.f. in phase.
Q4. Assertion (A) : Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current the coil.
Reason (R) : The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in
the coil if the circuit is continuous.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Magnetic flux can produce induced e.m.f.
Reason (R) : Faraday cannot established induced e.m.f. experimentally.
Q6. Assertion (A) : The induced e.m.f. and current will be same in two identical loops of copper
and aluminium, when rotated with same speed in the same magnetic field.
Reason (R) : Induced e.m.f. is proportional to rate of change of magnetic field while
induced current does not depend on resistance of wire.
Q7. Assertion (A) : Inductance coil are made of copper.
Reason (R) : Induced current is more in wire having less resistance.
Q8. Assertion (A) : Self-inductance is called the inertia of electricity.
Reason (R) : Self-inductance is the phenomenon, according to which an opposing induced
e.m.f. is produced in a coil as a result of change in current or magnetic flux
linked in the coil.
Q9. Assertion (A) : When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between
the coils is maximum.
Reason (R) : Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils.
Q10. Assertion (A) : A spark occur between the poles of a switch when the switch is opened.
Reason (R) : Current flowing in the conductor produces magnetic field.
Q11. Assertion (A) : In the phenomenon of mutual induction, self-induction of each of the coils

Page | 20
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
persists.
Reason (R) : Self-induction arises when strength of current in same coil changes. In mutual
induction, current is changing in both the individual coils.
Q12. Assertion (A) : Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.
Reason (R) : Induced e.m.f., supports always the change in magnetic flux responsible for
its production.
Q13. Assertion (A) : The induced emf in a conducting loop of wire will be non-zero when it
rotates in a uniform magnetic field.
Reason (R) : The emf is induced due to change in magnetic flux.
Q14. Assertion (A) : An induced emf is generated when magnet is withdrawn from the solenoid.
Reason (R) : The relative motion between magnet and solenoid induces emf.
Q15. Assertion (A) : An artificial satellite with a metal surface is moving above the earth in a
circular orbit. A current will be induced in satellite if the plane of the orbit is
inclined to the plane of the equator.
Reason (R) : The current will be induced only when the speed of satellite is more than 8
km/sec.
Q16. Assertion (A) : A transformer cannot work on dc supply.
Reason (R) : A dc changes neither in magnitude nor in direction.
Q17. Assertion (A) : Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.
Reason (R) : Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small.
Q18. Assertion (A) : An ac generator is based on the phenomenon of self-induction.
Reason (R) : In single coil, we consider self-induction and mutual induction both.
Q19. Assertion (A) : It is more difficult to push a magnet into a coil with more loops.
Reason (R) : Emf induced in the current loop resists the motion of the magnet.
Q20. Assertion (A) : In the phenomenon of mutual induction, self-induction of each of the coils
persists.
Reason (R) : Self-induction arises when strength of current in same coil changes. In
mutual induction, current is changing in both the individual coils.
Q21. Assertion (A) : In series LCR circuit resonance can take place.
Reason (R) : Resonance takes place if inductance and capacitive reactance are equal and
opposite.
Q22. Assertion (A) : The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f. by a phase angle of  / 2 , when
ac flows through an inductor.
Reason (R) : The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of ac source decreases.
Q23. Assertion (A) : Capacitor serves as a block for dc and offers an easy path to ac.
Reason (R) : Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.
Q24. Assertion (A) : When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive reactance in LCR
current, e.m.f. leads the current.

Page | 21
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : The phase angle is the angle between the alternating e.m.f. and alternating
current of the circuit.
Q25. Assertion (A) : Chock coil is preferred over a resistor to adjust current in an ac circuit.
Reason (R) : Power factor for inductance is zero.
Q26. Assertion (A) : If the frequency of alternating current in an ac circuit consisting of an
inductance coil is increased then current gets decreased.
Reason (R) : The current is inversely proportional to frequency of alternating current.
Q27. Assertion (A) : A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to ac source. If a
soft iron core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb will glow brighter.
Reason (R) : On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance increases.
Q28. Assertion (A) : An alternating current does not show any magnetic effect.
Reason (R) : Alternating current varies with time.
Q29. Assertion (A) : The dc and ac both can be measured by a hot wire instrument.
Reason (R) : The hot wire instrument is based on the principle of magnetic effect of
current.
Q30. Assertion (A) : ac is more dangerous than dc
Reason (R) : Frequency of ac is dangerous for human body.
Q31. Assertion (A) : Average value of ac over a complete cycle is always zero.
Reason (R) : Average value of ac is always defined over half cycle.
Q32. Assertion (A) : The division are equally marked on the scale of ac ammeter.
Reason (R) : Heat produced is directly proportional to the current.
Q33. Assertion (A) : When ac circuit contain resistor only, its power is minimum.
Reason (R) : Power of a circuit is independent of phase angle.
Q34. Assertion (A) : An electric lamp connected in series with a variable capacitor and ac source,
its brightness increases with increase in capacitance.
Reason (R) : Capacitive reactance decrease with increase in capacitance of capacitor.
Q35. Assertion (A) : An inductance and a resistance are connected in series with an ac circuit. In
this circuit the current and the potential difference across the resistance lag
behind potential difference across the inductance by an angle /2.
Reason (R) : In LR circuit voltage leads the current by phase angle which depends on the
value of inductance and resistance both.
Q36. Assertion (A) : A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an ac circuit in place of the
choke coil.
Reason (R) : A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only.
Q37. Assertion (A) : The capacitive reactance limits the amplitude of the current in a purely
capacitive circuit.
Reason (R) : Capacitive reactance is proportional to the frequency and the capacitance.
Q38. Assertion (A) : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the current is referred to as

Page | 22
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
wattless currents.
Reason (R) : No power is dissipated in a purely inductive or capacitive circuit even
though a current is flowing in the circuit.
Q39. Assertion (A) : When a current flows in the coil of a transformer then its core becomes hot.
Reason (R) : The core of transformer is made of soft iron.
Q40. Assertion (A) : A given transformer can be used to step-up to step-down the voltage.
Reason (R) : The output voltage depends upon the ratio of the number of turns of the
two coils of the transformer.

Page | 23
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 6 & 7
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. B When a metallic conductor is moved in a magnetic field; magnetic flux is varied. It
disturbs the free electrons of the metal and set up an induced emf in it. As there
are no free ends of the metal i.e. it will be closed in itself so there will be induced
current.
2. B The relation of induced emf e and current i is given by e
Ldi
.
dt
In order to decreases the rate of increase of current through solenoid. We have
to increase the time constant.
3. C According to Faraday's laws, the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical
energy. This is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy. It is also
clearly known that in pure resistance, the emf is in phase with the current.
4. C Presence of magnetic flux cannot produce current.
5. D E.M.F. induces, when there is change in magnetic flux. Faraday did experiment in
which, there is relative motion between the coil and magnet, the flux linked with
the coil changes and e.m.f. induces.
6. D Since both the loops are identical (same area and number of turns) and moving
with a same speed in same magnetic field. Therefore same emf is induced in both
the coils. But the induced current will be more in the copper loop as its resistance
will be lesser as compared to that of the aluminium loop.
7. A The inductance coils made of copper will have very small ohmic resistance. Due
to change in magnetic flux a large induced current will be produced in such an
inductance, which will offer appreciable opposition to the flow of current.
8. B Self-inductance of a coil is its property virtue of which the coil opposes any
change in the current flowing through it.
9. C The manner in which the two coils are oriented, determines the coefficient of
coupling between them. When the two coils are wound on each other, the
coefficient of coupling is maximum and hence mutual inductance between the
coils is maximum.
10. B According to Lenz’s law, induced emf are in a direction such as to attempt to
maintain the original magnetic flux when a change occurs. When the switch is
opened, the sudden drop in the magnetic field in the circuit induces an emf in a
direction that attempts to keep the original current flowing. This can cause a
spark as the current bridges the air gap between the poles of the switch. (The
spark is more likely in circuits with large inductance).
11. B Mutual inductance is the phenomenon according to which an opposing e.m.f.
produce flux in a coil as a result of change in current or magnetic flux linked with
a neighboring coil. But when two coils are inductively coupled, in addition to
induced e.m.f. produced due to mutual induction, also induced e.m.f. is produced

Page | 24
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
in each of the two coils due to self-induction.
12. D Lenz’s Law is based on conservation of energy and induced emf always opposes
the cause of it i.e., change in magnetic flux.
13. A As the coil rotates, the magnetic flux linked with the coil (being) will change and
emf will be induced in the loop.
14. A Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
15. C When the satellite moves in inclined plane with equatorial plane (including orbit
around the poles), the value of magnetic field will change both in magnitude and
direction. Due to this, the magnetic flux through the satellite will change and
hence induced currents will be produced in the metal of the satellite. But no
current will induced if satellite orbits in the equatorial plane because the
magnetic flux does not change through the metal of the satellite in this plane.
16. A Transformer works on ac only, ac changes in magnitude as well as in direction.
17. A Hysteresis loss in the core of transformer directly proportional to the hysteresis
loop area of the core material. Since soft iron has narrow hysteresis loop area,
that is why soft iron core is used in the transformer.
18. D An ac generator is based on the principle of the electromagnetic induction. When
a coil is rotated about an axis perpendicular to the direction of uniform magnetic
field, an induced emf is produced across it.
19. A According to Lenz's law, the emf induced in a current loop is such that it resists
the motion of the magnet. As emf in each turn opposes the motion of the
magnet, when the number of turns is increases the force opposing the motion
also increases. Thus pushing a magnet into a coil with more number of loops is
more difficult.
20. B The assertion states that self-induction persists in both coils during mutual
induction. This is true because even though the coils are influencing each other,
each coil still experiences self-induction due to its own changing current.
The reason explains that self-induction arises from a change in current in the
same coil and states that in mutual induction, currents in both coils are changing.
This is also true.
However, the reason does not directly explain why self-induction persists in both
coils during mutual induction. It merely states facts about self-induction and
mutual induction without linking them.
21. A At resonant frequency, X L  X C  Z  R (minimum) there for current in the circuit
is maximum.
22. C When ac flows through an inductor current lags behind the emf., by phase of /2,
inductive reactance, X L  L   .2 f .L, so when frequency increases
correspondingly inductive reactance also increases.
23. A The capacitive reactance of capacitor is given by
1 1
XC  
C 2fC

So this is infinite for dc (f = 0) and has a very small value for ac. Therefore a

Page | 25
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
capacitor blocks dc.
24. B The phase angle for the LCR circuit is given by
X L  X C L  1 / C
tan   
R R

Where XL, XC are inductive reactance and capacitive reactance respectively when
XL > XC then tan is positive i.e.  is positive (between 0 and /2). Hence emf
leads the current.
25. A If resistor is used in controlling ac supply, electrical energy will be wasted in the
form of heat energy across the resistance wire. However, ac supply can be
controlled with choke without any wastage of energy. This is because, power
factor (cos) for resistance is unity and is zero for an inductance. [P = EI cos].
26. A When frequency of alternating current is increased, the effective resistance of
the inductive coil increases. Current (X L  L  2fL) in the circuit containing
V V
inductor is given by I  . As inductive resistance of the inductor
X L 2fL
increases, current in the circuit decreases
27. D On introducing soft iron core, the bulb will glow dimmer. This is because on
introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, its inductance L increases, the inductive
reactance, X L   L increases and hence the current through the bulb decreases.
28. B Like direct current, an alternating current also produces magnetic field. But the
magnitude and direction of the field goes on changing continuously with time.
29. C Both ac and dc produce heat, which is proportional to square of the current. The
reversal of direction of current in ac is immaterial so far as production of heat is
concerned.
30. A The effect of ac on the body depends largely on the frequency. Low frequency
currents of 50 to 60 Hz (cycles/sec), which are commonly used, are usually more
dangerous than high frequency currents and are 3 to 5 times more dangerous
than dc of same voltage and amperage (current). The usual frequency of 50 cps
(or 60 cps) is extremely dangerous as it corresponds to the fibrillation frequency
of the myocardium. This results in ventricular fibrillation and instant death.
31. B The mean average value of alternating current (or emf) during a half, cycle is
given by Im  0.636 I0 (or Em  0.636 E0 ) During the next half cycle, the mean value of
ac will be equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. For this reason the
average value of ac over a complete cycle is always zero. So the average value is
always defined over a half cycle of ac.

Page | 26
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
32. D An ac ammeter is constructed on the basics of heating effect of the electric current.
Since heat produced varies as square of current (H  I 2 R) . Therefore the division
marked on the scale of ac ammeter are not equally spaced.
33. D The power of a ac circuit is given by P  EI cos  where cos is power factor and  is
phase angle. In case of circuit containing resistance only, phase angle is zero and
power factor is equal to one. Therefore power is maximum in case of circuit
containing resistor only.
34. A 1
Capacitive reactance XC  . When capacitance (C) increases, the capacitive
C
reactance decreases. Due to decrease in its values, the current in the circuit will
 
 E 
increases  I  2 
and hence brightness of source (or electric lamp) will also
 R  X C 
2

increases.
35. B As both the inductance and resistance are joined in series, hence current through
both will be same. But in case of resistance, both the current and potential vary
simultaneously, hence they are in same phase.
In case of an inductance when current is zero, potential difference across it is
maximum and when current reaches maximum (at  t = /2), potential
difference across it becomes zero i.e. potential difference leads the current by
/2 or current lags behind the potential difference by /2, Phase angle in case of
 L 
LR circuit is given as   tan 1  .
 R 

VL


I
VR

36. B We can use a capacitor of suitable capacitance as a chock coil, because average
power consumed per cycle in an ideal capacitor is zero. Therefore, like a choke
coil, a condenser can reduce ac without power dissipation.
37. C The assertion states that "the capacitive reactance limits the amplitude of the
current in a purely capacitive circuit."
In a purely capacitive circuit, the current (I) is related to the voltage (V) and the
capacitive reactance (Xc) by the formula: I=V/Xc Since Xc is a measure of how
much the capacitor resists the flow of current, a higher capacitive reactance will

Page | 27
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
result in a lower current amplitude.
Therefore, this assertion is true.
The reason states that "capacitive reactance is proportional to the frequency and
the capacitance."
Capacitive reactance (Xc) is given by the formula: Xc=1/ωC=1/2πfC
38. A Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
39. B The assertion states that when a current flows in the coil of a transformer, its
core becomes hot. This is true because when alternating current (AC) flows
through the coil, it creates a changing magnetic field.
The reason provided is that the core of the transformer is made of soft iron. Soft
iron is a ferromagnetic material, which means it can be easily magnetized and
demagnetized.
40. A Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Page | 28
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER - 8
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Prepared By: Sh. Amar Singh Rathore , PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V Deogarh

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for propagation.
Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves consist of electric and magnetic fields that are self-
propagating.
Q2. Assertion (A) : The speed of light in vacuum is constant.
Reason (R) : The speed of light depends on the wavelength and frequency of the light.
Q3. Assertion (A) : In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field and magnetic field are
perpendicular to each other.
Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves.
Q4. Assertion (A) : Radio waves are a form of electromagnetic radiation.
Reason (R) : Radio waves have shorter wavelengths than infrared waves.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum.
Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves require a medium like air or water for propagation.
Q6. Assertion (A) : Microwaves are used in radar systems.
Reason (R) : Microwaves have wavelengths shorter than visible light, allowing them to
pass through the atmosphere.
Q7. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
Reason (R) : The oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave
transport energy as they propagate.
Q8. Assertion (A) : The energy of an electromagnetic wave is directly proportional to its
frequency.
Reason (R) : The energy of an electromagnetic wave is inversely proportional to its
wavelength.
Q9. Assertion (A) : X-rays are used in medical imaging.
Reason (R) : X-rays have high energy and short wavelengths, allowing them to penetrate
the human body.
Q10. Assertion (A) : The frequency of an electromagnetic wave is independent of its speed.
Reason (R) : The speed of light in a vacuum is constant for all frequencies.
Q11. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerating charges.
Reason (R) : A charged particle when accelerated produces varying electric and magnetic

Page | 29
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
fields, leading to the formation of electromagnetic waves.
Q12. Assertion (A) : The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is inversely proportional to its
frequency.
Reason (R) : The speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum is constant, so their
wavelength is inversely proportional to their frequency.
Q13. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves require a material medium for propagation.
Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves consist of oscillating electric and magnetic fields
that sustain each other.
Q14. Assertion (A) : The speed of electromagnetic waves is the same in all media.
Reason (R) : The speed of electromagnetic waves in a medium depends on the medium's
permittivity and permeability.
Q15. Assertion (A) : X-rays are used in medical imaging to view internal body structures.
Reason (R) : X-rays have very short wavelengths and can penetrate through most
materials.
Q16. Assertion (A) : Gamma rays have higher energy than visible light.
Reason (R) : The frequency of gamma rays is lower than that of visible light.
Q17. Assertion (A) : In electromagnetic waves, electric and magnetic fields are always in phase.
Reason (R) : Both electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves vary sinusoidally
and with the same frequency.
Q18. Assertion (A) : The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are perpendicular
to each other.
Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves.
Q19. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves are capable of carrying information.
Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves can modulate signals, making them suitable for
communication systems.
Q20. Assertion (A) : A radio wave and light wave are both electromagnetic waves.
Reason (R) : Both radio waves and light waves travel at the same speed in a vacuum.

Page | 30
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 8
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. A Electromagnetic waves do not need a medium because they are self-propagating.
The oscillating electric and magnetic fields support each other, enabling the wave
to propagate through a vacuum.
2. C The speed of light in a vacuum is always constant (approximately 3×10 8m/s),
independent of the wavelength and frequency of the light. This is a fundamental
property of the electromagnetic waves in vacuum.
3. A Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves, which means that the oscillations
of electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
Therefore, the electric field and magnetic field are mutually perpendicular.
4. C Radio waves are indeed a type of electromagnetic wave, but they have longer
wavelengths than infrared waves, not shorter. Infrared waves have wavelengths
shorter than microwaves and longer than visible light.
5. C Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for propagation; they can
travel through the vacuum of space. The electric and magnetic fields in the wave
interact with each other to propagate.
6. A Microwaves are used in radar because they have the right balance of wavelength
and frequency, allowing them to penetrate the atmosphere and be reflected off
objects for detection. Their wavelength is shorter than that of radio waves, but
longer than infrared light.
7. A As electromagnetic waves propagate, the electric and magnetic fields oscillate,
and these oscillations carry energy. This is how energy is transferred through
space in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
8. A The energy of an electromagnetic wave is directly proportional to its frequency
and inversely proportional to its wavelength. This is given by the formula E=hν,
where E is energy, h is Planck's constant, and ν is frequency.
9. A X-rays have high energy and short wavelengths, which allows them to penetrate
through soft tissues of the human body while being absorbed by denser tissues
(like bones), enabling their use in medical imaging.
10. A The speed of light in vacuum is constant, and this is true for all frequencies. The
frequency of an electromagnetic wave does not affect its speed in a vacuum.
11. A Accelerating charges produce time-varying electric and magnetic fields, which
generate electromagnetic waves. This is the basic principle behind the generation
of these waves.
12. A Since the speed of light is constant, wavelength and frequency are inversely
related by the equation c =λν, where c is the speed of light, λ is the wavelength,
and ν is the frequency.

Page | 31
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
13. D The assertion is false because electromagnetic waves do not require a medium;
they can propagate through a vacuum. The reason is true because the oscillating
electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are self-sustaining, allowing
them to propagate without a medium.
14. D The assertion is false because the speed of electromagnetic waves varies in
different media based on their properties. The reason is true as the speed in a
medium is given by v=1/√με , where μ is the permeability and ε is the permittivity
of the medium.
15. B Both the assertion and reason are correct. X-rays are used for medical imaging
due to their ability to penetrate materials, but the reason does not explain the
specific use of X-rays for imaging; it only highlights their general properties.
16. B Gamma rays indeed have higher energy than visible light because energy is
directly proportional to frequency (E=hν). However, the reason is incorrect
because the frequency of gamma rays is much higher, not lower, than that of
visible light. The assertion and reason are true but unrelated.
17. A In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields oscillate in sync with
each other, meaning they are always in phase.
18. B Both the assertion and reason are true. The electric and magnetic fields are
indeed perpendicular to each other, and electromagnetic waves are transverse.
However, being transverse does not necessarily explain why the fields are
perpendicular.
19. A Electromagnetic waves are widely used in communication systems, where signals
are modulated on waves for transmitting information.
20. B Both radio waves and light waves are electromagnetic waves that travel at the
speed of light in a vacuum. However, their differences lie in their frequencies and
wavelengths, not in their propagation speed.

Page | 32
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER – 9 & 10
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS & WAVE OPTICS
Prepared By: Sh. Praveen Nogia, PGT Physics, PM SHRI Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2 Army, Jodhpur

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : As per Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is possible.

Reason (R) : Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ is the
angle between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of
secondary wavelet.
Q2. Assertion (A) : Thin film such as soap bubble or a thin layer of oil on water show beautiful
colors when illuminated by white light.
Reason (R) : It happens due to the interference of light reflected from upper and lower
face of the thin film.
Q3. Assertion (A) : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are
infinitely close to each other.
Reason (R) : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two
sources.
Q4. Assertion (A) : It is necessary to have two waves of equal intensity to study interference
pattern.
Reason (R) : There will be an effect on clarity if the waves are of unequal intensity.
Q5. Assertion (A) : White light falls on a double slit with one slit is covered by a green filter.
The bright fringes observed are of green color.
Reason (R) : The fringes observed are colored and white.
Q6. Assertion (A) : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced in front of the upper slit, then the fringe
pattern shifts in the downward direction.
Reason (R) : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal, the minima will be completely black.
Q7. Assertion (A) : In Young’s double slit experiment if wavelength of incident monochromatic
light is just doubled, number of bright fringe on the screen will increase.
Reason (R) : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is inversely proportional to
the wavelength of light.
Q8. Assertion (A) : In YDSE number of bright fringe or dark fringe cannot be unlimited.
Reason (R) : In YDSE path difference between the superposing waves cannot be more
than the distance between the slits.
Q9. Assertion (A) : Interference pattern is made by using yellow light instead of red light, the

Page | 33
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
fringes becomes narrower.
Reason (R) : In YDSE, fringe width is given by β=λD/d
Q10. Assertion (A) : Colored spectrum is seen when we look through a muslin cloth.
Reason (R) : It is due the diffraction of white light on passing through fine slits.
Q11. Assertion (A) : Diffraction takes place for all types of waves mechanical or non-mechanical,
transverse or longitudinal.
Reason (R) : Diffraction’s effect are perceptible only if wavelength of wave is comparable
to dimensions of diffracting device.
Q12. Assertion (A) : Plane mirror may form real and virtual image.
Reason (R) : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
Q13. Assertion (A) : The power of the convex mirror will decrease, if the mirror is placed in
water.
Reason (R) : The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to, f = R/2.
Q14. Assertion (A) : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real if the object is
virtual.
Reason (R) : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly virtual if the object is
real.
Q15. Assertion (A) : The image of an extended object placed perpendicular to the principal axis
of a mirror, will be erect if the object is real but the image is virtual.
Reason (R) : The image of an extended object, placed perpendicular to the principal axis
of a mirror, will be erect if the object is virtual but the image is real.
Q16. Assertion (A) : An object is placed at a distance of from a convex mirror of focal length f its
image will form at infinity.
Reason (R) : The distance of image in convex mirror can never be infinity.
Q17. Assertion (A) : The image of a point object situated at the centre of hemispherical lens is
also at the center.
Reason (R) : For hemisphere Snell’s law is not applicable.
Q18. Assertion (A) : The focal length of an equi-convex lens of radius of curvature R made of
material of refractive index μ = 1.5, is R.
Reason (R) : The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
Q19. Assertion (A) : If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens; the lens must be
concave.
Reason (R) : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
Q20. Assertion (A) : The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective
lens is more.
Reason (R) : Objective lens of large diameter collects more light.
Q21. Assertion (A) : The optical instruments are used to increase the size of the image of the
object.
Reason (R) : The optical instruments are used to increase the visual angle.

Page | 34
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Q22. Assertion (A) : Light can show interference.
Reason (R) : Light can show diffraction.
Q23. Assertion (A) : For observing traffic at our back, we prefer to use a convex mirror.
Reason (R) : A convex mirror has a larger field of view than a plane mirror or concave
mirror.
Q24. Assertion (A) : In passing through a lens or prism, the phase difference between two waves
does not change.
Reason (R) : The optical path lengths of all rays are same.
Q25. Assertion (A) : A convex lens may be diverging.
Reason (R) : The nature of a lens depends upon the refractive indices of the material of
lens and surrounding medium besides its Geometry.
Q26. Assertion (A) : The power of a thin lens depends upon the surrounding medium.
Reason (R) : Power of a thin lens P = n1R / 2(n2- n1)
Q27. Assertion (A) : If white light is used in YDSE, colored fringes are obtained.
Reason (R) : The fringe width is proportional to the wavelength (color) of light.
Q28. Assertion (A) : The two slits in YDSE are illuminated by two different sodium lamps
emitting light of same wavelength. No Interference pattern will be
observed.
Reason (R) : Two independent light sources (except LASER) cannot be coherent.
Q29. Assertion (A) : A virtual image can be photographed.
Reason (R) : Only a real image can be formed on a screen.
Q30. Assertion (A) : The focal length of a lens depends on the medium in which it is
submerged.
Reason (R) : Focal length of a thin lens f = 2(n2- n1) / n1R
Q31. Assertion (A) : In calculating the disturbance produced by a pair of superimposed
incoherent wave trains, you can add their intensities.
Reason (R) : I = I1 + I2 +2(I1I2)1/2cosƟ. The average value of cos Ɵ = 0, for incoherent
waves.
Q32. Assertion (A) : A single lens cannot be free from chromatic aberration.
Reason (R) : When light passes through single lens dispersion must occur.
Q33. Assertion (A) : Superposition takes place only between those waves emitted by coherent
sources.
Reason (R) : All coherent sources emit energy of different order.
Q34. Assertion (A) : A fish inside a pond will see a person standing outside taller than he is
actually.
Reason (R) : Light bend away from the normal as it enters water from air.
Q35. Assertion (A) : In Young’s double slit experiment if whole set up is immersed in a liquid
then fringe width is decreased.

Page | 35
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : Wavelength of light entering in a liquid increases.
Q36. Assertion (A) : A light ray is incident on a glass slab. Some portion of it is reflected and
some is refracted. In a particular situation Refracted and reflected rays are
perpendicular to each other.
Reason (R) : Angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
Q37. Assertion (A) : The critical angle in case of total internal reflection depends on the pair of
medium chosen.
Reason (R) : The critical angle in case of total internal reflection is independent of pair of
medium chosen.
Q38. Assertion (A) : A concave mirror has f = 40 cm in air. It has f = 160 cm in water.
Reason (R) : Focal length of a lens is independent of medium.
Q39. Assertion (A) : Air bubble in glass medium behaves as concave lens.
Reason (R) : It can be explained using Lens formula.
Q40. Assertion (A) : Power of a lens depends on nature of material of lens, medium in which it is
placed and radii of curvature of its surface.
Reason (R) : Image formed by a convex mirror is always smaller in size.

Page | 36
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 9 & 10
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS & WAVE OPTICS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A D C D A B A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B B D C B D C C D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B A C A A B A B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A A D C C B C C C B

Page | 37
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER - 11
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
Prepared By: Sh. Amar Singh Rathore , PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V Deogarh

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its
momentum.
Reason (R) : The de Broglie wavelength is given by λ=h/p .
Q2. Assertion (A) : The stopping potential in a photoelectric experiment depends on the
frequency of incident light.
Reason (R) : The intensity of light determines the number of photoelectrons emitted.
Q3. Assertion (A) : The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons depends on the frequency of
incident light.
Reason (R) : The intensity of light determines the energy of each photon.
Q4. Assertion (A) : X-rays are produced by the transition of electrons between atomic energy
levels.
Reason (R) : X-rays are generated when high-energy electrons strike a metal target.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Light behaves like particles in the photoelectric effect.
Reason (R) : The energy of light is quantized and carried by photons.
Q6. Assertion (A) : The wavelength of light determines the energy of photons.
Reason (R) : Wavelength is proportional to photon energy.
Q7. Assertion (A) : The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency.
Reason (R) : The speed of light is constant in a given medium.
Q8. Assertion (A) : Heavier particles have shorter de Broglie wavelengths at the same velocity.
Reason (R) : De Broglie wavelength is independent of a particle's mass.
Q9. Assertion (A) : Electrons have a wave nature.
Reason (R) : Electrons are charged particles.
Q10. Assertion (A) : Matter waves are electromagnetic in nature.
Reason (R) : Matter waves are associated with moving particles.
Q11. Assertion (A) : The stopping potential increases with light intensity.
Reason (R) : The stopping potential depends on the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons.
Q12. Assertion (A) : X-rays are produced when high-energy electrons strike a metal target.

Page | 38
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : X-rays are electromagnetic waves with very high energy.
Q13. Assertion (A) : Ultraviolet light can eject electrons from a metal surface.
Reason (R) : Ultraviolet light has higher energy than visible light.
Q14. Assertion (A) : Photoelectric current increases with the intensity of light.
Reason (R) : Higher intensity means higher energy photons.
Q15. Assertion (A) : Increasing the intensity of light increases the kinetic energy of
photoelectrons.
Reason (R) : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the frequency of light.
Q16. Assertion (A) : The work function of a metal depends on its temperature.
Reason (R) : The work function is the minimum energy required to eject electrons from
the metal surface.
Q17. Assertion (A) : The threshold frequency for the photoelectric effect depends on the work
function of the metal.
Reason (R) : The work function is the minimum energy required to emit electrons.
Q18. Assertion (A) : The photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of light.
Reason (R) : The photoelectric effect shows interference patterns.
Q19. Assertion (A) : Increasing the frequency of light increases the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons.
Reason (R) : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the energy of incident
photons.
Q20. Assertion (A) : The photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason (R) : Photoelectric emission is instantaneous and depends on the frequency of
light.

Page | 39
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 11
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. A Both statements are true, and λ=h/p directly explains the assertion.
2. B Stopping potential depends on frequency, not intensity. Both are true but
unrelated.
3. C The kinetic energy depends on frequency, but intensity affects the number of
photons, not their energy.
4. D X-rays are not produced by atomic transitions but by high-energy electron
interactions with matter.
5. A The photoelectric effect shows the particle nature of light, and photons are
quantized energy packets, explaining the effect.
6. C Wavelength is inversely proportional to energy so the reason is false.
7. B While both are true, the speed of light does not explain why energy is
proportional to frequency.
8. C Wavelength depends on mass and velocity. The reason is incorrect as λ=h/mv
9. B The wave nature of electrons is due to their momentum, not their charge.
10. D Matter waves are not electromagnetic, but they are associated with particles'
motion.
11. D Stopping potential is frequency-dependent, not intensity-dependent.
12. A The interaction of high-energy electrons with a target generates X-rays, which are
high-energy EM waves.
13. B Both are true, but the ability to eject electrons depends on work function, not
just energy.
14. C Current depends on the number of photons, not their energy. The reason is false.
15. D Intensity affects the number of photoelectrons, not their energy. The reason is
true.
16. D Work function is independent of temperature but describes energy
requirements.
17. B Both are true, but the threshold frequency is calculated using the work function,
not determined by it directly.
18. C The reason incorrectly describes wave nature, while the assertion correctly
describes particle nature.
19. A Both are true as Kmax=hν−ϕ .
20. D The photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of light, as photons provide
discrete energy packets.

Page | 40
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER -12 & 13
ATOM & NUCLEI
Prepared By: Sh. Sanjay Kumar, PGT Physics, PM SHRI Kendriya Vidyalaya I.S.A., Mount Abu

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : A hydrogen atom can absorb a photon whose energy is greater than 13.6
eV.
Reason (R) : The binding energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
Q2. Assertion (A) : In alpha particle scattering experiment, thin gold foil was used.
Reason (R) : Nucleus of gold is about 50 times heavier than an - alpha particle, it is
reasonable to assume that it remains stationary throughout the scattering
process.
Q3. Assertion (A) : In a hydrogen atom, there is only one electron, but its emission spectrum
shows many lines.
Reason (R) : In a given sample of hydrogen, there are many atoms, each containing one
electron; hence many electrons in different atoms may be in different
orbits, so many transitions from higher to lower orbits are possible.
Q4. Assertion (A) : In the alpha - particle scattering experiment, most of the alpha -particles
pass un-deviated.
Reason (R) : Atom is electrically neutral.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Large angle of scattering of alpha- particles led to the discovery of atomic
nucleus.
Reason (R) : Entire positive charge of atom is concentrated in the central core.
Q6. Assertion (A) : Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in stationary orbits around the
nucleus do not radiate.
Reason (R) : According to classical physics all moving electrons radiate.
Q7. Assertion (A) : Between any two given energy levels, the number of absorption transitions
is always less than the number of emission transitions.
Reason (R) : Absorption transitions start from the lowest energy level only and may end
at any higher energy level. But emission transitions may start from any
higher energy level and end at any energy level below it.
Q8. Assertion (A) : Paschen series lies in the infrared region.
Reason (R) : Paschen series corresponds to the wavelength given by
1 1 1
= R (32 − 𝑛2 ) , where n = 4, 5, 6, ..., ∞ .
𝜆
Q9. Assertion (A) : Balmer series lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum.

Page | 41
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : Balmer series constitute spectral lines corresponding to transition from
1 1 1
higher energy to ground state of hydrogen atom 𝜆 = 𝑅 (22 − 𝑛2 ) , where n
= 3, 4, 5, 6…..
Q10. Assertion (A) : The electron in the hydrogen atom passes from energy level n = 4 to the n =
1 level. The maximum and a minimum number of photons that can be
emitted is five and one respectively.
Reason (R) : The photons are emitted when an electron makes a transition from the
higher energy state to the lower energy state.
Q11. Assertion (A) : Bohr’s third postulate states that the stationary orbits are those for which
ℎ
the angular momentum is some integral multiple of 2𝜋 .
Reason (R) : Linear momentum of the electron in the atom is quantized.
Q12. Assertion (A) : In the Bohr model of the hydrogen, atom, v and E represent the speed of
the electron and the total energy of the electron respectively. Then v/E is
proportional to the quantum number n of the electron.
Reason (R) : v ∝ n and E ∝ n −2 .
3
Q13. Assertion (A) : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and maximum wavelength is 4 .
Reason (R) : Lyman series constitute spectral lines corresponding to transition from
higher energy to ground state of hydrogen atom corresponding formula for
1 1 1
Lyman series is 𝜆 = 𝑅 (12 − 𝑛2 ) ,where n = 2, 3, 4, 5, 6…..
Q14. Assertion (A) : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission spectrum has
many lines.
Reason (R) : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom
whereas in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.
Q15. Assertion (A) : According to classical electromagnetic theory, electrons would emit a
continuous spectrum, in contradiction to the line spectrum actually
observed.
Reason (R) : According electromagnetic theory, an accelerating charged particle emits
radiation in the form of electromagnetic waves. The energy of an
accelerating electron should therefore, continuously decrease.
Q16. Assertion (A) : If mass of electron were double the actual value, then the radius of the first
orbit would also be double.
Reason (R) : Radius of the nth orbit of H atom is given by Rn ∝ n2 / m
Q17. Assertion (A) : Radii of first four orbits of H atom are in the ratio 1: 4: 9: 16.
Reason (R) : Radius of the nth orbit of H atom is given by Rn ∝ n-2
Q18. Assertion (A) : The energy required to excite an electron in Hydrogen to its first and second
excited states are 10.2 eV and 12.09 eV respectively.
Reason (R) : Energy of the electron in nth orbit of Hydrogen atom is given by
En = − 13.6 / n2 eV.
Q19. Assertion (A) : The Bohr model is applicable to hydrogenic atoms. It cannot be extended
even to mere two electron atoms such as helium.

Page | 42
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : In multi electron atom, each electron interacts not only with the positively
charged nucleus but also with all other electrons.
Q20. Assertion (A) : Kilogram is not a very convenient unit to measure the mass of an atom.
Reason (R) : A different mass unit is used for expressing atomic masses. This unit is the
atomic mass unit (u).
Q21. Assertion (A) : Though, Hydrogen has three isotopes having masses 1.0078 u, 2.0141 u,
and 3.0160 u, it has atomic mass approximately equal to that of its lightest
isotope.
Reason (R) : The average mass of an atom is obtained by the average of the masses of
the isotopes.
Q22. Assertion (A) : An element having mass number A and atomic number Z has number of
protons equal to A and electrons A-Z in its nucleus.
Reason (R) : An atom is electrically neutral.
Q23. Assertion (A) : If we use alpha-particles of higher energies than 5.5 MeV, the distance of
closest approach to the gold nucleus will be smaller and the size of nucleus
will differ from Rutherford’s calculations.
Reason (R) : At short distances between alpha particles and gold nucleus, the scattering
will begin to be affected by the short-range nuclear forces.
Q24. Assertion (A) : The ratio of nuclear radii of He4 and S32 is 1:2
Reason (R) : It has been found that a nucleus of mass number A has a radius
R = R0 A 1/3
Q25. Assertion (A) : The density of nucleus is a constant, independent of A, for all nuclei.

Reason (R) : The density of nuclear matter is approximately 2.3 × 1017 kg m–3.
Q26. Assertion (A) : To bind a nucleus together there must be a strong attractive force of a
totally different kind. It must be strong enough to overcome the repulsion
between the (positively charged) protons and to bind both protons and
neutrons into the tiny nuclear volume.
Reason (R) : Columbic attraction given by F = K q1q2 / r2 is responsible for the strong
attraction between the nucleons.
Q27. Assertion (A) : Nuclear force is same between neutron - neutron, proton - proton and
neutron proton.
Reason (R) : Nuclear force is charge independent.
Q28. Assertion (A) : An electron may be emitted by the nucleus in a nuclear reaction.
Reason (R) : Electrons are present inside the nucleus.
Q29. Assertion (A) : Binding energy per nucleon is nearly constant for element in the range A=30
to A=170.
Reason (R) : The nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their
distance is more than a few femtometres.
Q30. Assertion (A) : A very heavy nucleus, say A = 240, has lower binding energy per nucleon
compared to that of a nucleus with A = 120.

Page | 43
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : If a nucleus A = 240 breaks into two A = 120 nuclei, nucleons get more
tightly bound.
Q31. Assertion (A) : The nuclear potential energy is a minimum at a distance r0 = 0.8 fermi
between nucleons.
Reason (R) : The force is repulsive for distances larger than 0.8 fm and attractive if they
are separated by distances less than 0.8 fm.
Q32. Assertion (A) : The nuclear fusion occur at extremely high temperatures at which nucleons
would (averagely) have enough energy to overcome the coulomb barrier.
Reason (R) : For fusion to take place, the two nuclei must come close enough so that
attractive short-range nuclear force is able to affect them.
Q33. Assertion (A) : The enormous energy released in an atom bomb comes from uncontrolled
nuclear fission
Reason (R) : When two light nuclei fuse to form a larger nucleus, energy is released,
since the larger nucleus is more tightly bound.
Q34. Assertion (A) : Total mass of nucleons forming a nucleus is more than the mass of the
nucleus.
Reason (R) : Density of nuclear matter depends on the size of nucleus.
Q35. Assertion (A) : Isobars are elements having same mass number but different atomic
number.
Reason (R) : Protons and neutrons are present in a nucleus.

Page | 44
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 12 & 13
ATOM & NUCLEI
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. D Maximum energy absorbed by an electron in Hydrogen atom is E∞ - E0 = 0- ( -
13.6) = 13.6 eV
2. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
3. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
4. B Most of the alpha particles pass un-deviated because volume of nucleus is
negligibly small as compared to that of an atom.
5. A Then the incoming a-particle could get very close to the positive charge without
penetrating it, and such a close encounter would result in a large deflection. This
agreement supported the hypothesis of the nuclear atom. This is why Rutherford
is credited with the discovery of the nucleus.
6. B According to quantum theory rotating electron does not radiate.
7. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
8. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
9. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
10. D Emission occurs for transition from n=4 to n=3, 2, 1 and from n=3 to n=2, 1 also
from n=2 to n=1 whereas absorption occurs from n=1 to n=4
11. C Linear momentum changes in circular motion.
12. C Velocity of electron is inversely proportional to n.
13. A For minimum wavelength n = infinity
For maximum wavelength n = 2
14. B Emission occurs for transition from larger n to all lower n orbits emitting lines of
all series whereas absorption occurs from n=1 to larger n which corresponds to
Lyman series.
15. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
16. D Radius would be halved. Reason statement is correct.
17. C Rn n2 / m
18. A E1 = - 13.6 eV, E2 = - 3.4 eV, E3 = -1.51 eV
19. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
20. B Mass of nucleus is much smaller of the order of 10-25 kg.

Page | 45
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
21. C Average mass of nucleus is given by weighted average of mass of different
isotopes based on their relative abundance.
22. D Nucleus has Z protons and A-Z neutrons.
23. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
24. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
25. B Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to its mass number A. Density =
mass /volume
26. C Nucleus are bound due to strong nuclear force which is quite different from
columbic force.
27. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
28. C Electrons are emitted due to conversion of neutron into proton n ---> p + e + anti
neutrino
29. A The nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their distance is
more than a few femtometers. This leads to saturation of forces in a medium or a
large-sized nucleus, which is the reason for the constancy of the binding energy
per nucleon.
30. A A very heavy nucleus, say A = 240, has lower binding energy per nucleon
compared to that of a nucleus with A = 120. Thus if a nucleus A = 240 breaks into
two A = 120 nuclei, nucleons get more tightly bound. This implies energy would
be released in the process.
More tightly bound nucleons implies more binding energy per nucleon and more
stability.
31. C The force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8 fm and repulsive if they are
separated by distances less than 0.8 fm.
32. A At extremely high temperature, nucleons get sufficient kinetic energy that they
overcome the repulsive force between them and fuse.
33. B In a nuclear fission, some mass is lost which gets converted into energy according
to Einstein's mass energy equivalence relation.
34. C Density of nuclear matter is constant.
35. B Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion

Page | 46
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
CHAPTER -14
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
Prepared By: Smt. Sita Devi, PGT Physics, PM SHRI K V Banswara

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : In n type semiconductor, number density of electrons is greater than the
number density of holes but the crystal maintains an overall charge
neutrality.
Reason (R) : The charge of electrons donated by donor atoms is just equal and opposite
to that of the ionized donor.
Q2. Assertion (A) : Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.
Reason (R) : The energy gap for germanium is more than the energy gap for silicon.
Q3. Assertion (A) : The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with temperature.
Reason (R) : As temperature increases, the electrons gain sufficient energy and jump
from valence band to conduction band.
Q4. Assertion (A) : In semiconductors, thermal collisions are responsible for taking a valence
electron to the conduction band.
Reason (R) : The number of conduction electrons goes on increasing with time as
thermal collisions continuously take place
Q5. Assertion (A) : The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases on doping.
Reason (R) : Doping always increases the number of electrons in the semiconductor.
Q6. Assertion (A) : The electrons in the conduction band have higher energy than those in the
valance band of a semi-conductor.
Reason (R) : The conduction band lies above the energy gap and valance band lies below
the energy gap.
Q7. Assertion (A) : When a semiconductor is doped with a donor impurity, the hole
concentration decreases and the electron concentration increases.
Reason (R) : A donor impurity is an atom with valence of five always.
Q8. Assertion (A) : An n - type semiconductor has a large number of electrons but still it is
electrically neutral.
Reason (R) : An n - type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor
with a penta-valent impurity.
Q9. Assertion (A) : The temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals and negative
for p –type semiconductors
Reason (R) : The charge carriers in metals are negatively charged whereas the majority

Page | 47
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
charge carriers in p-type semiconductors are positively charged
Q10. Assertion (A) : The direction of diffusion current in a junction diode is from p - region to n -
region.
Reason (R) : The majority current carriers diffuse from a region of higher concentration
to a region of lower concentration.
Q11. Assertion (A) : The current through the p - n junction is not same in forward and reversed
bias.
Reason (R) : We can measure the potential barrier of a p - n junction by putting a
sensitive voltmeter across its terminals.
Q12. Assertion (A) : At a fixed temperature, silicon will have a minimum conductivity when it
has a smaller acceptor doping.
Reason (R) : The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is slightly higher than that of
a lightly doped p-type.
Q13. Assertion (A) : The depletion region in a p-n junction is free of mobile charge carriers.
Reason (R) : The depletion region is formed due to the diffusion of electrons and holes,
leaving behind fixed ions.
Q14. Assertion (A) : The current through a p-n junction diode in reverse bias is very small.
Reason (R) : In reverse bias, the potential barrier at the junction is increased, preventing
the flow of majority carriers.
Q15. Assertion (A) : The resistance of p -n junction is low when forward biased and is high when
reverse biased.
Reason (R) : In reversed biased, the depletion layer is reduced.
Q16. Assertion (A) : When a p - n junction diode is reverse biased, a feeble reverse current flows
known as reverse saturation current.
Reason (R) : In reverse bias condition, the minority carries can cross the junction.
Q17. Assertion (A) : A p-n junction diode conducts current only when it is forward biased.
Reason (R) : In forward bias, the potential barrier at the junction is reduced, allowing
charge carriers to flow across the junction.
Q18. Assertion (A) : V-I characteristic of p-n junction diode is same as that of any other
conductor.
Reason (R) : A p-n junction diode behaves as conductor at room temperature.
Q19. Assertion (A) : The p-n junction diode primarily allows the flow of current only in one
direction (forward bias)
Reason (R) : The forward bias resistance is low as compared to the reverse bias
resistance.
Q20. Assertion (A) : The reverse saturation current in a p-n junction diode is independent of the
applied reverse voltage.
Reason (R) : The reverse saturation current is due to minority carriers, which are
unaffected by the applied reverse bias.
Q21. Assertion (A) : In the forward bias region, a silicon diode has a knee voltage of
approximately 0.7 V.

Page | 48
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : The knee voltage represents the minimum voltage required to overcome
the potential barrier and allow current to flow through the diode.
Q22. Assertion (A) : For a half wave rectifier the output frequency is half of input.
Reason (R) : Half wave rectifier got its name from such phenomena.
Q23. Assertion (A) : When two semi-conductors of p and n type are brought in contact, they
form p-n junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason (R) : A rectifier is used to convert alternating current into direct current.
Q24. Assertion (A) : A full-wave rectifier converts both halves of the AC input into DC output.
Reason (R) : The output of a full-wave rectifier has more ac component than a half-wave
rectifier.
Q25. Assertion (A) : An ideal diode conducts current only in the forward bias.
Reason (R) : The potential barrier opposes the flow of majority charge carriers in reverse
bias.

Page | 49
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER NO. 14
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
Q. CORRECT EXPLANATION
NO. OPTION
1. A In semiconductors both free charge and immobile charge when a donor is
ionized, it creates a free electron but it also create a positively ionized donor
atom. The charge on the free electron and ionized donor are equal and opposite.
Thus, net charge remain zero.
2. C While silicon is indeed preferred for semiconductor devices, the given reason is
false because germanium's energy gap is smaller, not larger, than silicon's.
3. A The increase in charge carriers due to thermal excitation is the direct cause of the
decrease in resistivity.
4. C In semiconductors, thermal energy causes electrons in the valence band to
overcome the energy gap and transition to the conduction band, enabling
conduction.
5. A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
6. C The assertion is true (doping increases conductivity), but the reason is false
because doping does not always increase the number of electrons; it can also
increase the number of holes.
7. A When a donor impurity (with five valence electrons) is added, it increases
electron concentration and decreases hole concentration in the semiconductor.
8. B Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
9. A For metal, the temperature coefficient of resistance is positive because charge
carriers in metals are negatively charged but in semiconductor (p type), it is
negative because majority charge carriers in p type semiconductors are positively
charged.
10. A Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
11. C While the assertion is true, the reason is false because a voltmeter cannot
directly measure the potential barrier of a p-n junction.
12. C The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is less than that of a lightly doped
semiconductor
13. A Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains why the
depletion region is free of mobile charge carriers: it is due to the diffusion of
electrons and holes, which leaves behind fixed ions.
14. A Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
15. C The assertion is true (low resistance in forward bias and high resistance in reverse

Page | 50
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
bias), but the reason is false because, in reverse bias, the depletion region
increases, not decreases.
16. B Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
17. A Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the
assertion. The reduction in the potential barrier in forward bias allows current to
flow through the p-n junction diode.
18. D Both Assertion and Reason are false.
19. B Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
20. A The reverse saturation current arises from the minority carriers crossing the
junction. This current remains constant as it depends on the intrinsic properties
of the material and not on the applied reverse bias voltage.
21. A The threshold voltage for a silicon diode is typically around 0.7 V. This voltage is
needed to overcome the potential barrier of the p-n junction, allowing current to
flow in the forward bias direction.
22. D Both Assertion and Reason are false
23. B Study of junction diode characteristics shows that the junction diode offers a low
resistance path, when forward biased and high resistance path when reverse
biased. This feature of the junction diode enables it to be used as a rectifier.
24. C The full wave rectifier has a lower ripple factor because it produces a more
continuous DC output.
25. A An ideal diode allows current to flow in one direction (forward bias) and blocks it
in the reverse bias. In reverse bias, the potential barrier (built-in electric field)
prevents charge carriers from crossing the junction, explaining why the diode
does not conduct

Page | 51
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
PRACTICE SET- 1
TIME: 30 MIN
MAX. MARKS 30

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : The work function of a given material increases with an increase in the
frequency of the incident radiation.
Reason (R) : As per Einstein's photoelectric equation hν = φ + KE, work function φ is
directly proportional to the frequency ν of the incident radiation.
Q2. Assertion (A) : The conductivity of intrinsic semiconductors increases with an increase in
temperature.
Reason (R) : Increase in temperature decreases the average time between collisions of
electrons.
Q3. Assertion (A) : The direction of the electric field is always perpendicular to the
equipotential surface.
Reason (R) : Work is done by the electric force in moving a charge between any two
points on an equipotential surface is zero.
Q4. Assertion (A) : If the focal length of two convex lenses is the same, the lens with the larger
diameter will produce brighter images.
Reason (R) : Convex lenses with larger diameters are able to focus light better.
Q5. Assertion (A) : The net magnetic force experienced by a current carrying loop in a uniform
magnetic field is always zero.
Reason (R) : A current carrying loop placed in a uniform magnetic field never
experiences a torque.
Q6. Assertion (A) : According to Bohr’s atomic model the ratio of angular momenta of an
electron in first excited state to that in ground state is 2:1.
Reason (R) : According to Bohr’s theory the angular momentum of the electron is
directly
proportional to the principal quantum number
Q7. Assertion (A) : Bohr postulated that the electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus
do not radiate energy.
Reason (R) : According to classical Physics, all accelerated electrons radiate energy.
Q8. Assertion (A) : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by a photosensitive surface
depends upon the frequency of incident photon.

Page | 52
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is possible with frequency of
incident photon below the threshold frequency.
Q9. Assertion (A) : As the temperature of a conducting wire increases, the drift velocity of the
electrons also increases.
Reason (R) : With an increase in temperature, the average time of collision increases.
Q10. Assertion (A) : Interference pattern has all maxima that are equally bright and bands are
large in number in comparison to the diffraction pattern that has maxima of
decreasing intensity and fewer in number.
Reason (R) : Interference is the result of the superposition of the waves from two
different wavefronts whereas diffraction is the result of the superposition
of the wavelets from different points of the same wavefront.
Q11. Assertion (A) : The curve between the binding energy per nucleon versus mass number
droops at high mass numbers (A>170) as well as at low mass numbers
(A<30).
Reason (R) : Nuclei with middle mass numbers (30<A<170) have higher binding energy
per nucleon.
Q12. Assertion (A) : Consider two identical charges placed distance
2d apart, along x-axis.
The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed
at the point O midway between them is stable
for displacements along the x-axis.
Reason (R) : Force on test charge is zero.
Q13. Assertion (A) : On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an electric field, it
returns back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
Reason (R) : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable
equilibrium.
Q14. Assertion (A) : The electric flux of the electric field ∮ E.dA is zero. The electric field is zero
everywhere on the surface.
Reason (R) : The charge inside the surface is zero.
Q15. Assertion (A) : The inductive reactance limits amplitude of the current in a purely inductive
circuit.
Reason (R) : The inductive reactance is independent of the frequency of the current.
Q16. Assertion (A) : A capacitor blocks direct current in the steady state.
Reason (R) : The capacitive reactance of the capacitor is inversely proportional to
frequency f of the source of emf.
Q17. Assertion (A) : White light falls on a double slit with one slit is covered by a green filter.
The bright fringes observed are of green color.
Reason (R) : The fringes observed are colored.
Q18. Assertion (A) : In YDSE number of bright fringe or dark fringe cannot be unlimited.

Page | 53
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : In YDSE path difference between the superposing waves cannot be more
than the distance between the slits.
Q19. Assertion (A) : A uniformly charged disc has a pin hole at its centre. The electric field at the
centre of the disc is zero.
Reason (R) : Disc can be supposed to be made up of many rings. Also electric field at the
centre of uniformly charged ring is zero.
Q20. Assertion (A) : In the forward bias region, a silicon diode has a knee voltage of
approximately 0.7 V.
Reason (R) : The knee voltage represents the minimum voltage required to overcome
the potential barrier and allow current to flow through the diode.
Q21. Assertion (A) : To bind a nucleus together there must be a strong attractive force of a
totally different kind. It must be strong enough to overcome the repulsion
between the (positively charged) protons and to bind both protons and
neutrons into the tiny nuclear volume.
Reason (R) : Columbic attraction given by F = K q1q2 / r2 is responsible for the strong
attraction between the nucleons.
Q22. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum.
Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves require a medium like air or water for propagation.
Q23. Assertion (A) : The image of a point object situated at the centre of hemispherical lens is
also at the centre.
Reason (R) : For hemisphere Snell’s law is not valid.
Q24. Assertion (A) : When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, only a
torque acts on the dipole.
Reason (R) : The net force will act on dipole if magnetic field were uniform.
Q25. Assertion (A) : Ampere’s circuital law is used to determine the magnetic field due to a given
current distribution.
Reason (R) : Ampere’s circuital law states that the line integral of the magnetic field
around a closed path is proportional to the total current enclosed by the
path.
Q26. Assertion (A) : Kirchhoff's junction rule can be applied to a junction of several lines or a
point in a line.
Reason (R) : When steady current is flowing, there is no accumulation of charges at any
junction in series with a galvanometer.
Q27. Assertion (A) : When a charged capacitor is filled completely with a metallic slab, Its
capacitance is increased by a large amount
Reason (R) : The dielectric constant for metal is infinite.
Q28. Assertion (A) : The depletion region in a p-n junction is free of mobile charge carriers.
Reason (R) : The depletion region is formed due to the diffusion of electrons and holes,
leaving behind fixed ions.
Q29. Assertion (A) : The potential inside a hollow spherical charged conductor is zero.

Page | 54
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
Reason (R) : Inside the hollow spherical conductor electric field is constant.
Q30. Assertion (A) : An ammeter is always connected in series whereas a voltmeter is
connected in parallel.
Reason (R) : An ammeter is a low resistance galvanometer while a voltmeter is high
resistance galvanometer.

Page | 55
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
PRACTICE SET -1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B A C C A B C D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A D C B C B A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C C D A A A A D A

Page | 56
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
PRACTICE SET- 2
TIME: 30 MIN
MAX. MARKS 30

In the Questions given below two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Q1. Assertion (A) : Electric field is always normal to equipotential surfaces and along the
direction of decreasing order of potential.
Reason (R) : Negative gradient of electric potential is electric field.
Q2. Assertion (A) : The surface charge densities of two spherical conductors of different radii
are equal. Then the electric field intensities near their surface are also
equal.
Reason (R) : Surface charge density is equal to charge per unit area.
Q3. Assertion (A) : The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.
Reason (R) : If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on
conductor will flow to ground.
Q4. Assertion (A) : Two concentric charged shells are given. The potential
difference between the shells depends on charge of
inner shell.

Reason (R) : Potential due to charge of outer shell remains same at every point inside
the sphere.
Q5. Assertion (A) : Two metal plates having charges Q, –Q face each other at some separation
and are dipped into an oil tank. If the oil is pumped out, the electric field
between the plates increases.
Reason (R) : Electric field between the plates, Emed = Eair/K
Q6. Assertion (A) : A dielectric is inserted between the plates of a battery connected capacitor.
The energy of the capacitor increases.
Reason (R) : Energy of the capacitor, U=CV2/2
Q7. Assertion (A) : In a simple battery circuit, the point of the lowest potential is positive
terminal of the battery.
Reason (R) : The current flows towards the point of the higher potential, as it does in
such a circuit from the negative to the positive terminal.
Q8. Assertion (A) : If the length of the conductor is doubled, the drift velocity will become half

Page | 57
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR
of the original value (keeping potential difference unchanged).
Reason (R) : At constant potential difference, drift velocity is inversely proportional to
the length of the conductor.
Q9. Assertion (A) : The given figure does not show a balanced Wheatstone bridge.

Reason (R) : For a balanced bridge, small current should flow through the galvanometer.
Q10. Assertion (A) : The deflecting torque on a current carrying loop is zero when its plane is
perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.
Reason (R) : The deflecting torque acting on a loop of magnetic moment m in a magnetic
field B is given by the dot product of m and B .
Q11. Assertion (A) : On increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by increasing the
number of turns, may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.
Reason (R) : The resistance of the coil of galvanometer increases on increasing the
number of turns.
Q12. Assertion (A) : If an electron is not deflected while passing through a certain region of
space, then only possibility is that there is no magnetic region.
Reason (R) : Force is inversely proportional to the magnetic field applied.
Q13. Assertion (A) : The ability of a material to permit the passage of magnetic lines of force
through it is called magnetic permeability.
Reason (R) : For a perfect diamagnetic substance, permeability is always one.
Q14. Assertion (A) : A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same
magnetic field) when cooled.
Reason (R) : The magnetisation does not depend on temperature.
Q15. Assertion (A) : In water, value of magnetic field decreases.
Reason (R) : Water is a diamagnetic substance.
Q16. Assertion (A) : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A
copper ring is placed on a smooth surface, the axis of the ring being
horizontal. As the switch is closed, the ring will move away from the
solenoid.

Reason (R) : Induced emf in the ring, e=-dΦ/dt

Q17. Assertion (A) : Figure shows a metallic conductor moving in magnetic field. The induced
emf across its ends is zero.

Page | 58
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Reason (R) : The induced emf across the ends of a conductor is given by e = Bvℓ sinθ.
Q18. Assertion (A) : Step-down transformer increases the current.
Reason (R) : Transformer obeys the law of conservation of energy.
Q19. Assertion (A) : When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive reactance in LCR
series circuit, emf leads the current.
Reason (R) : The phase angle is the angle between the alternating emf and alternating
current of the circuit.
Q20. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves interact with matter and set up oscillations.
Reason (R) : Interaction is independent of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.
Q21. Assertion (A) : Microscope magnifies the image.
Reason (R) : Angular magnification for image is more than object in microscope.
Q22. Assertion (A) : If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens; the lens must be
concave.
Reason (R) : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
Q23. Assertion (A) : The fringe closest on either side of the central white fringe in case of
interference pattern due to white light is red and the farthest appears blue.
Reason (R) : The interference patterns due to different component colors of white light
overlap.
Q24. Assertion (A) : In YDSE number of bright fringe or dark fringe cannot be unlimited.
Reason (R) : In YDSE path difference between the superposing waves cannot be more
than the distance between the slits.
Q25. Assertion (A) : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work function is small.
Reason (R) : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold frequency.
Q26. Assertion (A) : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be
available in the absorption spectrum.
Reason (R) : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum.
Q27. Assertion (A) : Fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei is the source of energy of all
stars.
Reason (R) : In fusion, heavier nuclei split to form lighter nuclei.
Q28. Assertion (A) : Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor.
Reason (R) : The mass of electron is less than the mass of the hole.
Q29. Assertion (A) : The half wave rectifier work only for positive half cycle of AC.
Reason (R) : In half wave rectifier, only one diode is used.
Q30. Assertion (A) : The depletion layer in the p-n junction is free from mobile charge carriers.
Reason(R) : There is no electric field across the junction barrier.

Page | 59
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

MARKING SCHEME
PRACTICE SET -2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B B A C A D A C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D C D A A A B B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D B B B D C A A C

Page | 60
_____________________________________________________________________________________
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25) KVS RO JAIPUR

PART B:

MCQ BASED QUESTIONS

PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter -1
Electric charges and fields
1. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
a) Electric field
b) Electric potential
c) Electric charge
d) Electric dipole moment
2. The electric field lines are:
a) Always straight
b) Always curved
c) Never meet
d) Always parallel
3. The electric flux through a closed surface is zero when:
a) There is no charge inside the surface
b) The charge inside is uniform
c) The surface is conducting
d) The surface has a charge
4. Coulomb’s law is valid in:
a) Vacuum
b) All substances
c) Air only
d) None of the above
5. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about electric lines of force?
a) They are imaginary lines
b) They always start from negative charges
c) They never intersect
d) They are parallel in a uniform electric field
6. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
a) Coulomb (C)
b) Ampere (A)
c) Volt (V)
d) Newton (N)
7. The electric field produced by a positive charge is:
a) Radial and outward
b) Radial and inward
c) Tangential
d) Uniform
8. The electric field at the center of a uniformly charged spherical shell is:
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Equal to the field on the surface
d) None of the above
9. A negative charge placed in an electric field experiences:

Page | 62
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

a) A force in the direction of the electric field

b) A force opposite to the direction of the electric field
c) No force
d) A force that depends on the charge of the field
10. If the electric potential is constant, then the electric field is:
a) Zero
b) Non-zero and uniform
c) Non-zero and varying
d) Indeterminate
11. The electric field due to a point charge is:
a) Directly proportional to the square of the distance
b) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance
c) Directly proportional to the charge
d) None of the above
12. Which of the following is correct about electric field lines in the case of an electric dipole?
a) They point from negative to positive charge
b) They point from positive to negative charge
c) They are parallel and equally spaced
d) They form closed loops
13. The force between two point charges is quadrupled if:
a) The distance between them is doubled
b) The distance between them is halved
c) One of the charges is doubled
d) Both charges are doubled
14. The electric potential energy of a system of two charges is positive when:
a) Both charges are positive
b) Both charges are negative
c) One charge is positive and the other is negative
d) Both a and b
15. The electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is:
a) Zero
b) Non-zero and uniform
c) Maximum at the surface
d) Varying with distance
16. The electric field due to an infinite uniformly charged plane sheet is:
a) Zero
b) Constant and directed perpendicular to the surface
c) Varying with distance from the sheet
d) Dependent on the size of the sheet
17. The electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical shell inside the shell is:
a) Zero
b) Non-zero and directed radially outward

Page | 63
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

c) Non-zero and directed radially inward

d) None of the above
18. The principle of superposition of electric fields states that:
a) Electric fields add up vectorially
b) Electric fields cancel each other
c) The net field is the vector sum of individual fields
d) Both (a) and (c)
19. What is the relation between electric field and electric potential?
a) E=−dV/dx
b) E=dV/dx
c) E=V/x
d) None of the above
20. The electric potential energy of two charges is negative when:
a) The charges are both positive
b) The charges are both negative
c) One charge is positive and the other is negative
d) The charges are at infinity
21. The potential due to a point charge is:
a) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance
b) Directly proportional to the distance
c) Inversely proportional to the distance
d) None of the above
22. The field intensity at a point due to a uniform electric field is:
a) Zero
b) Maximum at the surface
c) Constant throughout the region
d) Inversely proportional to the distance from the charge
23. The electric potential is higher at the:
a) Positive charge
b) Negative charge
c) Midpoint between two charges
d) None of the above
24. The flux through a closed surface is given by:
a) Φ=E⋅A
b) Φ=E⋅Acosθ
c) Φ=q/ϵ0
d) Both (b) and (c)
25. The electric field is zero at a point where:
a) The charge is zero
b) The potential is constant
c) There is no charge
d) The charge is positive
26. Which of the following is true for an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field?

Page | 64
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

a) The net force on the dipole is zero

b) The net force on the dipole is non-zero
c) The electric field produces a torque
d) Both (a) and (c)
27. The electric field between two parallel plates with uniform charge distribution is:
a) Zero
b) Non-uniform
c) Uniform
d) Varying with distance
28. Gauss’s law is based on the principle of:
a) Superposition
b) Conservation of energy
c) Conservation of charge
d) Both (b) and (c)
29. Which of the following is true for a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium?
a) The electric field inside the conductor is zero
b) The electric field on the surface is uniform
c) The electric potential inside the conductor is non-zero
d) None of the above
30. The electric flux through a closed surface surrounding a charge is:
a) Proportional to the charge inside the surface
b) Inversely proportional to the square of the charge
c) Independent of the charge
d) None of the above
31. The electric field intensity is measured in:
a) Volt/meter (V/m)
b) Newton/Coulomb (N/C)
c) Coulomb/meter (C/m)
d) Both (a) and (b)
32. The value of ke in Coulomb’s law is:
a) 9×10^9 N m^2/C^2
b) 8.85×^-12 N m^2/C^2
c) 9×10^8 N m^2/C^2
d) None of the above
33. The electric field due to a point charge is:
a) Radial
b) Uniform
c) Spherical
d) None of the above
34. The electric field at a point due to an infinitely long uniformly charged wire:
a) Decreases with distance from the wire
b) Increases with distance from the wire

Page | 65
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

c) Remains constant with distance

d) None of the above
35. The potential at a point due to a dipole is zero if:
a) The point lies along the axis of the dipole
b) The point lies along the equatorial line of the dipole
c) The point is at the center of the dipole
d) The point lies at infinity
36. Which of the following statements is true regarding the electric potential of a system of
charges?
a) The electric potential is a scalar quantity
b) The potential at a point due to a positive charge is negative
c) The potential decreases with increasing distance from a positive charge
d) None of the above
37. In a uniform electric field, the equipotential surfaces are:
a) Parallel to the field lines
b) Perpendicular to the field lines
c) At right angles to each other
d) Varying in shape
38. The total electric field at any point is:
a) The sum of the electric fields due to all charges
b) The field due to the largest charge
c) The field due to the smallest charge
d) None of the above
39. Which of the following forces is responsible for electric field formation?
a) Gravitational force
b) Electromagnetic force
c) strong force
d) weak force
40. The electric potential at a point due to a point charge is:
a) Positive for a positive charge and negative for a negative charge
b) Negative for a positive charge and positive for a negative charge
c) Zero for all charges
d) Directly proportional to the charge
41. The electric field intensity at a distance r from a point charge Q is given by:
a) E=keQ/ r^2
b) E=keQ/r
c) E=Q/ r^2
d) E=Q/r
42. If the distance between two charges is doubled, the force between them changes by a
factor of:
a) 1
b) 2

Page | 66
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

c) 4
d) 1/4
43. The electric potential energy of a system of charges is:
a) Negative if the charges are unlike
b) Positive if the charges are like
c) Zero for a single charge
d) Both (a) and (b)
44. The concept of electric field lines is most useful for:
a) Understanding Coulomb's Law
b) Visualizing the effect of a charge on its surroundings
c) Calculating the potential energy of a system
d) Describing the force between conductors
45. The electric field due to a dipole at a point on the axial line is:
a) Directly proportional to 1/r^3
b) Inversely proportional to 1/r^3
c) Inversely proportional to 1/r^2
d) Directly proportional to 1/r^2
46. If a positive test charge is placed in a region of space where the electric field is directed to
the left, the force on the charge will be:
a) Toward the right
b) Toward the left
c) Zero
d) In a direction perpendicular to the field
47. The electrostatic force between two charges is:
a) Always attractive
b) Always repulsive
c) Attractive or repulsive depending on the nature of the charges
d) Independent of the nature of the charges
48. The electric field lines inside a uniformly charged conductor are:
a) Parallel and equidistant
b) Radial and outward
c) Zero
d) Perpendicular to the surface
49. Which of the following is a correct representation of the electric field around a uniformly
charged spherical shell?
a) The field is radial and directed outward
b) The field is radial and directed inward
c) The field is zero inside the shell
d) The field is uniform inside the shell
50. The electric potential at a point due to a uniformly charged spherical shell is:
a) Zero inside the shell
b) Uniform inside the shell

Page | 67
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

c) Varies as 1/r outside the shell

d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer Key
Chapter -1 Electric Fields and charges
1. b) Electric potential

2. c) Never meet

3. a) There is no charge inside the surface

4. a) Vacuum

5. d) They are parallel in a uniform electric field

6. a) Coulomb (C)

7. a) Radial and outward

8. a) Zero

9. b) A force opposite to the direction of the electric field

10. a) Zero

11. b) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance

12. b) They point from positive to negative charge

13. b) The distance between them is halved

14. d) Both a and b

15. a) Zero

16. b) Constant and directed perpendicular to the surface

17. a) Zero

18. d) Both (a) and (c)

19. a) E=−dVdxE = - \frac{dV}{dx}

20. c) One charge is positive and the other is negative

21. c) Inversely proportional to the distance

22. c) Constant throughout the region

23. a) Positive charge

24. d) Both (b) and (c)

Page | 68
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

25. b) Potential is constant

26. d) Both (a) and (c)

27. c) Uniform

28. c) Symmetry

29. a) The electric field inside the conductor is zero

30. a) Proportional to the charge inside the surface

31. d) Both (a) and (b)

32. a) 9×10^9 N m^2/C^2

33. a) Radial

34. a) Decreases with distance from the wire

35. b) The point lies along the equatorial line of the dipole

36. a) The electric potential is a scalar quantity

37. b) Perpendicular to the field lines

38. a) The sum of the electric fields due to all charges

39. b) Electromagnetic force

40. a) Positive for a positive charge and negative for a negative charge

41. a) E=keQ/r^2

42. d) 1/4

43. d) Both (a) and (b)

44. b) Visualizing the effect of a charge on its surroundings

45. b) Inversely proportional to 1/r^3

46. b) Toward the left

47. c) Attractive or repulsive depending on the nature of the charges

48. c) Zero

49. c) The field is zero inside the shell

50. d) Both (a) and (c)

Page | 69
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter 2
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE
1. Which of the following options is correct? In a region of constant potential
a) The electric field is uniform.
b) The electric field is zero.
c) There can be charge inside the region.
d) The electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region.
2. The potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be maximum and minimum when
the angles between the axis of the dipole and the line joining the point to the dipole
are respectively
a) 900 and 1800
b) 00 and 900
c) 900 and 00
d) 00 and 0o
3. A parallel plate capacitor with dielectric slab (dielectric constant 2) in between the
plates has a capacitance ‘C’. Without the slab capacitance of the capacitor is
a) C
b) 2𝐶
c) 𝐶/2
d) √2C
4. The dielectric constant for metai is –
a) Zero
b) 1
c) Infinite
d) Greater than 1
5. A 2𝜇𝐹capacitor is charged to 100𝑣⃑⃑⃑𝑜𝑙𝑡 and then its plates are connected by a
conducting wire resistance 2ohm. The heat produced is
a) 1 𝐽
b) 0.1 𝐽
c) 0.01 𝐽
d) 0.001 𝐽
6. Three equal charges are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the
center of the triangle
a) The field is zero but potential is non-zero
b) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
c) Both field and potential are zero
d) Both field and potential are non-zero

7. The electric potential V is given as a function of distance 𝑥 (metre) by 𝑉 = (𝑥2 + 2 −

9).

Page | 70
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Value of electric field at x = 1 is-

a) 4 𝑉/𝑚
b) 6𝑉/𝑚
c) 2𝑉/𝑚
d) 0

8. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is C . Its capacity when the separation between
the plates is halved and dielectric slab of dielectric constant K=5 in inserted between the
plates, will be-
a) 10𝐶 (b) 2𝐶 (c) 5 C (d) 0

9. A 2𝜇𝐹capacitor is charged to 100𝑣⃑⃑⃑𝑜𝑙𝑡 and then its plates are connected by a

conducting wire resistance 2ohm. The heat produced is
a) 1 (b) 0.1 𝐽 (c) 0.01 𝐽 (d) 0.001 𝐽
10. Three equal charges are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the center of
the triangle
a) The field is zero but potential is non-zero
b) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
c) Both field and potential are zero
d) Both field and potential are non-zero
11. The potential on the hollow sphere of radius 1 m is 1000V, then potential at ¼ m from the
center of sphere is-
(A) 1000 V (b) 500 V (c) 250 V (d) Zero V
12. Which of the following is not the property of equipotential surface?
(a) They do not cross to each other
(b) The rate of change of potential with distance on them is zero.
(c) For a uniform electric field they are concentric spheres
(d) They can be imaginary spheres.
13. A dipole is placed in a uniform electric field. Its potential energy will be minimum when
the angle between its axis and field is-
(a) π (b) 0 (c) π/2 (d) 2 π
14. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed parallel to electric field . The amount of
work done in rotating the dipole by 900 is-
(a) 2pE (b) pE (c) pE/2 (d) Zero
15. Capacitors are used in electrical circuits where appliances need more –
(a) Current (b) Voltage (c) Watt (d) Resistance
16. A capacitor of capacitance C has charge Q and stored energy is W. If charge is increased to
2Q the stored energy will be-

Page | 71
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) W/4 (b) W/2 (c) 2W (d) 4W

17. A metal foil of negligible thickness is introduced between two plates of a capacitor at the
centre . The capacitance of capacitor will be-
(a) Same (b) Double (c) Half (d) K times
18. Two points P and Q are maintained at the potentials of 10 V and -4 V respectively. The
work done in moving 100 electrons from P to Q is-
(a) -19 X 10 -17 J (b) 9.60 X 10 -17 J (c) -2.24 X 10 -16 J (d) 2.24 X 10 -16 J
19. If the uniform electric field exists along X-axis, then equipotential is along
(a) XY-plane (b) XZ-plane (c) YZ-plane (d) anywhere
20. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor .......... by the introduction of a dielectric
between the plates of capacitor.
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) nothing can be said
21. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V . If distance between
the plates is Increased, then potential difference between the plates.
(a) Decreases (b) increases (c) becomes zero (d) does not change
22. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected
alternatively. If capacitance between any two adjacent plates is C , then the resultant
capacitance is
(a) C (b) nC (c) (n - 1)C (d) (n + 1)C
23. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor are 1 cm apart and potential difference between
them is 10 V. The electric field between the plates is
(a) 10 N-C-1 (b) 250 N-C-1 (c) 500 N-C-1 (d) 1000 N-C-1
24. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 μ F is broken into eight drops of equal radius. The
capacitance of each small drop is
(a) a)
½ μF (b) F ¼ μF (c) 1/8 μF (d) 1/16 μF
25. When two charged capacitors having capacitance and potential C1, V1 and C2 , V2
respectively, are joined with the help of a wire, the common potential will be
(a) C1+ C2 (b) C1 V1 + C2 V2/C1 + C2 (c) C1 V1 + C2 V2/V1 + V2 (d) C1 V2+ C2 V1 /V1 + V2

26. Two charges of +2 μC and -3 μC are placed at a distance of 10 cm. The electric potential at
the midpoint of the line joining the charges is

(a) 0 (b) 10 V (c) 20 V (d) 30 V

27. The electric potential inside a hollow spherical conductor is

(a) Zero (b) Constant (c) Varies with distance from center (d) None of these

28. The work done in moving a charge of 2 μC from a point at 10 V to a point at 20 V is

Page | 72
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) 10 μJ (b) 20 μJ (c) 30 μJ (d) 40 μJ

29. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 100 pF. If the potential difference between
the plates is 10 V, the charge on the plates is
(a) 1 μC (b) 2 μC (c) 5 μC (d) 10 μC
30. The electric potential at a point due to a dipole is-
(a) Directly proportional to the distance from the dipole
(b) Inversely proportional to the distance from the dipole
(c) Directly proportional to the square of the distance from the dipole
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the dipole

31. The electric potential energy of a dipole in an external electric field is

(a) U = -pE (b) U = pE (c) U = -pE^2 (d) U = pE^2

32. A dipole is placed in a uniform electric field. The torque acting on the dipole is
(a) τ = pE (b) τ = -pE (c) τ = p x E (d) τ = -p x E
33. The electric potential at a point due to a line charge is-
(a) Directly proportional to the distance from the line charge
(b) Inversely proportional to the distance from the line charge
(c) Directly proportional to the square of the distance from the line charge
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the line charge
34. A capacitor consists of:
(a) (b) Two conductors separated by a dielectric
(c) (d) Two conductors connected by a wire
(e) (f) A single conductor
(g) (h) A conductor and a dielectric
35. What is the energy stored in a capacitor?
(a) E = 1/2 CV2 (b) E = 1/2 CV (c) E = CV2 (d) E = CV
36. What is the impedance of a capacitor?
(a) Z = 1/jωC (b) Z = jωC (c) Z = 1/jωL (d) Z = jωL
37. What is the reactance of a capacitor?
(a) Xc = 1/ωC (b) Xc = ωC (c) Xc = 1/ωL (d) Xc = ωL
38. What is the power factor of a capacitor?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) j
39. What is the dielectric strength of a capacitor?
(a) The maximum voltage it can withstand
(b) The minimum voltage it can withstand
(c) The maximum current it can withstand
(d) The minimum current it can withstand

Page | 73
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

40. What is the purpose of a capacitor in a filter circuit?

(a) To block DC signals
(b) To block AC signals
(c) To amplify signals
(d) To attenuate signals
41. What is the capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric constant of 5, plate area of 0.01
m2, and plate separation of 0.1 mm?
(a) 44.3 nF (b) 44.3 μF (c) 4.43 nF (d) 4.43 μF
42. A 10 μF capacitor is connected in series with a 20 μF capacitor. What is the equivalent
capacitance?
(a) 5 μF (b) 10 μF (c) 200/3 μF (d) 30 μF
43. A capacitor is charged to 100 V. If the capacitance is 50 μF, what is the charge stored?
(a) 5 mC (b) 10 mC (c) 50 mC (d) 100 mC
44. What type of capacitor is commonly used for high-frequency applications?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Film capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Tantalum capacitor
45. What is the advantage of using a capacitor in a audio circuit?
(a) To block DC signals
(b) To block AC signals
(c) To amplify signals
(d) To filter out unwanted frequencies
46. What happens to the capacitance of a capacitor when the temperature increases?
(a) Increase
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) Becomes zero
47. What is the purpose of a capacitor in a motor starting circuit?
(a) To block DC signals
(b) To block AC signals
(c) To regulate voltage
(d) To provide a high starting torque
48. What type of capacitor is commonly used for high-voltage applications?

Page | 74
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) Ceramic capacitor

(b) Film capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Mica capacitor
49. What is the purpose of a capacitor in a voltage regulator circuit?
(a) To block DC signals
(b) To block AC signals
(c) To regulate voltage
(d) To filter out unwanted frequencies
50. What type of capacitor is commonly used for audio applications?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Film capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Tantalum capacitor

Answers-Multiple choice questions

Chapter 2 : ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b b c c d a a a c a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a c b b a d a d c a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a c d a b a b b a b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a c b a a a a a a a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
a c a a d b d d c b

Page | 75
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter 3
Current Electricity
1 If the potential difference V applied across a conductor is increased to 2V with its
temperature kept constant, then the drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor will
(a) Remains the same
(b) Become half of its previous value
(c) Be double of its initial value
Become zero
2. The current I and the voltage V graph for a given metallic wire at two different
temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in figure.it is concluded that

I T2
T1

V
(a) T1> T2 (b) T1< T2 (c) T1= T2 (d) T1= 2T2
3. The length of 50 ohm resistance becomes twice by stretching. The new resistance is-
(a) 25 ohm (b) 50 ohm (c) 100 ohm (d) 200 ohm
4 Which of the following is correct? Resistivity of a conductor is-
(a) Independent of temperature.
(b) Inversely proportional to temperature.
(c) Independent of dimensions of conductor.
(d) Less than the resistivity of a semiconductor.
5 A wire is stretched so as to changed its length by 0.1%, the percentage increase in
its resistance will be –
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.2% (c) 0.25% (d) 0.4%
6 For a cell the graph between the potential difference across the terminals of the cell
and the current drawn from the cell is shown in the figure given below.

V(volt)
1.5
1.0
0.5
0 1 2 3 4
I (amp)
The emf and the internal resistance of the cell are-
(a) 1.5V,0.5 Ω
(b) 1.5V,0.4 Ω
(c) 1.5V,0.375 Ω
(d) > 1.5V, 0.375 Ω

Page | 76
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

7 A cell having an emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable

external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential
difference V across R is given by

8 A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of

the metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it
(a) Increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(b) Decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(c) Increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(d) Decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
9 The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both
doubled, then
(a) The resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(b) The resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(c) Resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
(d) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
10 In a Wheat stone’s bridge, all the four arms have equal resistance R. If resistance of
the galvanometer arm is also R, then equivalent resistance of the combination is-
(a) R/2 (b) 4R (c) 𝑅/4 (d)𝑅
11 A strip of copper and another of silicon are cooled from room temperature to 80 K.
The resistance of
(a) each of these increases
(b) each of these decreases
(c) copper strip increases and that of silicon decreases
(d) copper strip decreases and that of silicon increases
12 The resistance of a wire of uniform diameter 𝑑 and length 𝐿 is 𝑅. The resistance of
another wire of the same material but diameter 2𝑑 and length 4𝐿 will be
(a) 2𝑅 (b) 𝑅 (c) 𝑅/2 (d) 𝑅/4
13 The magnitude and direction of the current in the circuit shown will be
(a) 7/3 A from a to b through e
(b) 7/3 A from b to a through e
(c) 1A from b to a through e
(d) 1A from a to b through e
14 When no current is passed through a conductor,
(a) The free electrons do not move
(b) The average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(c) The average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is zero
(d) None of these
15 On increasing the temperature of a conductor, its resistance increases because
(a) Relaxation time decreases
(b) Mass of the electrons increases
(c) Electron density decreases

Page | 77
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(d) None of the above

16 A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a metallic wire. If the length is
halved and the radius of the wire is doubled, the rate of heat developed in the wire
will be:
(a) Doubled (b) Halved
(c) Unchanged (d) Increased 8 times
17 A battery of emf E has an internal resistance r. A variable resistance R is connected to
the terminals of the battery. A current ' i' is drawn from the battery. V is the terminal
potential difference. If R alone is gradually reduced to zero, which of the following best
describes I and V?
(a) I approaches E/r, V approach E
(b) I approaches zero, V approaches E
(c) I approaches E/r, V approaches zero
(d) I approaches infinity, V approaches E
18 Choose the correct statement
(a) Kirchhoff’s first law of electricity is based on conservation of charge while the
second law is based on conservation of energy.
(b) Kirchhoff’s first law of electricity is based on conservation of energy while
second law is based on conservation of charge.
(c) Kirchhoff’s both laws are based on conservation of charge.
(d) Kirchhoff’s both laws are based on conservation of energy.
19 According to Kirchhoff's current law as applied to a junction in a network of
conductors
(a) Total sum of currents meeting at junction is infinite
(b) Net current flow at the junction is positive
(c) No current can leave the junction without some current entering it
(d)Algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
20 Two bulbs of 40W and 60W are connected to 220 V, the ratio of resistance will be-
(a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2
21 In the following figure represents a balanced Wheatstone bridge circuit. What is the
value of X?
(a) 15 Ω
(b) 20 Ω
(c) 25 Ω
(d) 30 Ω
22 Find the resistivity of a conductor in which a current density of 2.5 Am -2 is found to
exist, when an electric field of 15 V/m is applied on it.
(a)15 Ωm (b) 6 Ωm (c) 10 Ωm (d) 0.0 Ωm
23 Two bulbs are marked 220V, 100W& 220V, 50W. They are in series to 220V mains.
Find the ratio of heat generated in them.
(a) 3:4 (b)1:2 (c)1:1 d)3:5
24 An Electron beam has an aperture of 1mm . A total of 6x1016 electrons flow through
2

any perpendicular cross section per second. Calculate the current density.
(a) 9.6x103 Am-2
(b) 10.6x103 Am-2
(c) 19.6x103 Am-2

Page | 78
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(d) 18.6x103 Am-2

25 A cell of emf 1.1V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm connected to a wire of resistance
0.5 Ω Another cell of the same emf is connected in series but the current in the wire
remains the same. Find the internal resistance of the second cell.
(a) 0.5Ω (b) 1.1Ω (c) 1.0 Ω (d) None of these
26 The resistance of a wire is 20 Ω it is so stretched that length becomes three times the
new resistance of wire will be:-
(a) 6.7 Ω (b) 60 Ω (c)120 Ω (d) 180 Ω
27 The resistance of each arm of a Wheatstone bridge is 10 Ω. A resistance of 10 Ω is
connected in series with the galvanometer. Then, the equivalent resistance of the
bridge across the battery will be:-
(a)10 Ω (b) 15 Ω (c) 20 Ω (d) 40 Ω
28 Thickness of a conductor continuously decreases from its one end another end. It is
connected across terminals of a battery. What will be effect on electric field from
thicker to narrower end of conductor?
(a) E Increases (b) E decreases (c) No change (d) None
29 The number of electrons that constitute 1 C of charge is :-
(a) 6.25 × 1016
(b) 6.25 × 1017
(c) 6.25 × 1018
(d) 6.25 × 1019
30 A 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance is charged by a 200 v dc supply. If the
resistance in the circuit is 38 Ω. What is the value of the charging current?
(a) 2.5 A
(b) 5.0 A
(c) 1.0 A
(d)10.0 A
31 The potential difference (VA−VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is.

(a) +9 V
(b) -3 V
(c) +3 V
(d) +6 V

32 The resistance of a conductor is

(a) Inversely proportional to the length
(b) Directly proportional to the square of the radius
(c) Inversely proportional to the square of the radius
(d) Directly proportional to the square root of the length
33 Two wires of same material have lengths L and 2L and areas of cross section 4A and
A respectively. The ratio of their specific resistances would be-
(a) 1:2 (b) 8:1 (c) 1:8 (d) 1:1

Page | 79
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

34 From the graph between the current I and the voltage V ,

identify the portion corresponding to the negative
resistance-
(a) AB (b) BC (c) CD (d) DE
35 Two wires having the resistance R and 2R are connected in parallel with constant DC
voltage V then the ratio of the heat generated in R and 2R is
(a) 3:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
36 The I-V characteristics of the three wires X,Y and Z at constant temperatures are
shown in the figure. The three wires have equal lengths and diameters. Which of
them is made up of material of large resistivity-

I X
Y
Z

V
(a) X (b) Y (c) have equal resistivity (d) Z

37 Thickness of a conductor continuously increase from its one end another end. It is
connected across terminals of a battery. What will be effect on mobility of electrons
from thicker to narrower end of conductor?
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) No change (d) None
38 Which of the following correctly describes the drift velocity in a conductor?
(a) Drift velocity is very large compared to the random velocity of electrons.
(b) Drift velocity is directly proportional to the temperature.
(c) Drift velocity is the average velocity of electrons in the conductor due to an
applied electric field.
(d) Drift velocity is independent of the electric field applied across the conductor.
39 How does the mobility of the electrons in a conductor change, if the potential
difference applied across the conductor is doubled, keeping the length and
temperature of the conductor constant?
(a) Double (b) no change (c) half (d) four times
40 Resistance of a wire is 5 ohm at 50 C and 6 ohm at 1000C. Resistance of the wire at
0

00C will be
(a) 3 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) 1 ohm (d) 4 ohm
Assertion and Reasoning type questions
In the following questions two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
are given.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

Page | 80
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

41 Assertion (A): The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will increase, if the
temperature of the wire is increased.
Reason (R): On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire increase.
42 Assertion (A): The electric bulb glows immediately when switch is on.
Reason(R): The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire is very high.
43 Assertion (A): If a wire stretched to double of its length, its resistivity remains same.
Reason(R): Resistivity proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its cross
section area
44 Assertion (A): Resistivity of metals increases with the rise in temperature.
Reason (R): With the rise in temperature, relaxation time decreases.
45 Assertion (A): The alloys constantan and manganin are used to make standard
resistance.
Reason(R): The have low resistivity and high temperature coefficient.
46 Assertion (A):in a simple battery circuit, the point of the lowest potential is positive
terminal of the battery,
Reason(R): the current flows towards the point of the higher potential, as it does in
such a circuit from the negative to positive terminal
47 Assertion (A): Dimensional formula for the product of resistance and conductance is
same as for the dielectric constant.
Reason(R): both have dimensions of time constant.
48 Assertion (A): Electric power is transmitted at low voltages over long distances.
Reason(R): To increase power loss
49 Assertion (A): A current flows in a conductor only when there is an electric field within
the conductor.
Reason (R): The drift velocity of electron in presence of electric field decreases.
50 Assertion (A): Kirchhoff’s junction rule follows from conservation of charge.
Reason (R): Kirchhoff’s loop law follows from conservative nature of electric field.

Answer Key
Chapter 3: Current Electricity

S.No. Answers Hint

1 c Vd α V
2 a slope α 1/R
3 d
4 c&d
5 b R α L, SO %change in R =2 X% change in L=2X0.1=0.2%
6 c
7 b V=IR=RE/(R+r), at R=0,V=0 and R=ꝏ,V=E
8 b Vd=Eeꝏ/m, T α 1/ꝏ
9 c R=ρl/A
10 d At balance condition Ig=0
11 d
12 b R=ρl/A
13 d I=(E2-E1)/R
14 c

Page | 81
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

15 a ρ α 1/ ꝏ
16 d Calculate R, H α 1/R
17 c V=IR=RE/(R+r)
18 a
19 c&d
20 d R α 1/ ρ
21 c 1/5=(1/100)+(1/x)
22 b J= =σ E=E/ρ
23 b P=I2R
24 a J=ne/At
25 c I=E/(R+r1), I=(E1+E2)/(R+r1+r2)
26 d R’=n2R
27 a
28 a E=V/L, E α 1/A
29 c I=ne/t
30 b I=(E2-E1)/R
31 a VB=VA-2X2-3-2X1=VA-9 , VA-VB=9Volt
32 c
33 d ρ same
34 c I decreases
35 b H=V2/R , H α 1/R
36 d Slope=1/R
37 c µ=Vd/E=e ꝏ/m=constant
38 c
39 b No change
40 d (R1-R0)/(R2-R0) =50/100
41 d
42 c
43 c
44 a
45 c
46 d
47 c
48 d
49 c
50 b

Page | 82
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

CHAPTER 4
MOVING CHARGE AND MAGNETISM
1. A current of 10A is passing through a long wire which has semicircular loop of the radius
20cm as shown in the figure. Magnetic field produced at the
center of the
loop is
(a) 10𝜋𝜇𝑇 (b) 5𝜋𝜇𝑇 (c) 4𝜋𝜇𝑇 (d) 12𝜋𝜇𝑇

2. Aanc alpha particle is moving perpendicularly to a uniform magnetic field of 3 Tesla with the
velocity 10 × 105 m/what is the work done by the particle?

a)30 × 106 J b) 60 × 106 J c) infinity d) zero

3. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long
straight wire such that the wire is parallel to the one of the sides
of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I
is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will

(a) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

(b) Move away from the wire or towards right
(c) Move towards the wire
Remain stationary
4. 4Two charged particles traverse identical helical paths in a completely opposite sense in a
uniform magnetic field B = B0(along z-axis)

(a) They have equal z-components of momenta.

(b)They must have equal charges.
(c) They necessarily represent a particle-antiparticle pair
(d). They must be unlike charges
5. ABCD is a square loop made of a uniform conducting wire. A current
enters the loop at A and leaves at D. The magnetic field is

(a) zero only at the center of the loop

(b) maximum at the center of the loop
(c) zero at all points outside the loop
(d) zero at all points inside the loop
6. A proton an electron and a neutron are projected into a uniform magnetic field with equal
velocity perpendicular to the field. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) All the particles will describe circular paths

(b) Both proton and electron will describe helical paths
(c) The neutron will go undeflected.
(d) Both proton and electron will go un deviated.

Page | 83
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

7. A wire carrying a current I is shaped as shown. Section AB is

a quarter circle of radius r. The magnetic field at C is
directed

(a) along the bisector of the angle ACB, away from AB

(b) along the bisector of the angle ACB, towards AB
(c) perpendicular to the plane of the paper, directed into the
paper
(d) at an angle π/4 to the plane of the paper
8. A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x-y plane with centre at the
origin. Half of the loop with x>0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane.

(a) The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes.

(b) The magnetic moment does not change.
(c) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z >>R increases.
(d) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z >>R is unchanged
9. A straight conductor carries a current from south to north. Point P and Q lie to the east and
west of it at the same distance. The magnetic field at P is-

(a) equal to magnetic field at Q.

(b) smaller than the magnetic field at Q.
(c) greater than the magnetic field at Q.
(d) cannot be predicted unless the value if I is known
10. In a current carrying long solenoid, the field produced does not depend upon-
(a) Number of turns per unit length
(b) Current flowing
(c) Radius of the solenoid
(d) All of the above three
11. By mistake a voltmeter is connected in series and an ammeter is connected in parallel with
a resistance in an electric circuit. What will happen to the instruments?
(a) voltmeter is damaged
(b) ammeter is damaged
(c) both are damaged
(d) none is damaged
12. In an ammeter, 10% of main current is passing through the galvanometer. If the resistance
of the galvanometer is G, than the shunt resistance in ohm is
(a) 9G
(b) G/9
(c) 90G
(d) G/90

Page | 84
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

13. Calculate the force experienced by the loop in the

given figure: AB=CD=25 cm
(a) 17.8 X 10-4 N (Attractive)
(b) 7.8 X 10-4 N (Attractive)
(c) 17.8 X 10-6 N (Attractive)
(d) 7.8 X 10-4 N (Repulsive)

14. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer increases by 20%. If its resistance also increases
by 25%, the voltage sensitivity will be-

(a) decrease by 1% (b) increased by 5%

(c) increased by 10% (d) decrease by 4%
15. The magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is B. If the radius of the
loop is doubled keeping the current unchanged, the magnetic field at the centre of loop will
become:

(a) 𝐵/2 (b) 𝐵/4 (c) 2B (d) 4B

16. The radius of curvature of the path of charged particle in a uniform magnetic file is directly
proportional to the
(a) charge on fie particle (b) Momentum of particle
(c) energy of particle (d) Strength of field
17. The magnetic field in the outside region of the given figure is
(a) 𝜇0 𝑛𝐼
(b) 𝜇0 𝑁𝐼
(c) infinite
(d) zero
18. A current I flows through a long straight which is bent into
a circular loop of radius R in the middle as shown in the
figure The magnitude of net magnetic field at the point O will
be-
(a) Zero
𝜇 𝐼
(b) 0 (1 + 𝜋)
2𝑅
𝜇0 𝐼
(c)
2𝜋𝑅
𝜇0 𝐼 1
(d) (1 − 𝜋)
2𝑅
19. Two long conductors separated by a distance d m carry current I 1 and I 2 in the same
direction. They exert a force F on each other. Then the current in one of them is increased to
two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increased 3d . The new value of
force between them is
(a) –F/3
(b) F/3
(c) 2F/3
(d) -2F/3

Page | 85
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

20. A current of 10 A is flowing from east to west in a long straight wire kept on the horizontal
table. The magnetic field developed at 10 cm due north on the table is
(a) 2 x 10 -5 Tesla acting downward
(b) 2 x 10 -5 Tesla acting upward
(c) 4 x 10 -5 Tesla acting downward
(d) 4 x 10 -5 Tesla acting upward
21. An electron, a proton, a deuteron, and an alpha particle, each having the same speed are in
a region of constant magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of the velocities of the
particles. The radius of the circular orbits of these particles are respectively Re, Rp, Rd and
Rα. It follows that
(a) Re =Rp
(b) Rp =Rd
(c) Rd =Rα
(d) Rp =Rα
22. In hydrogen atom, the electron is making 6.6. X 1015 rev/sec around the nucleus in
an orbit of radius 0.528 Å. The magnetic moment A - M 2 will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
23. A wire in the form of a circular loop, of one turn carrying a current, produces magnetic
induction B at the centre. If the same wire is looped into a coil of two turns and carries the
same current, the new value of magnetic induction at the centre is
(a) B
(b) 2B
(c) 4B
(d) 8B
24. The electrons in the beam of a television tube moves horizontally from south to north. The
vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field points down. The electron is deflected
towards-
(a) west
(b) east
(c) no deflection
(d) north to south
25. An electron is projected along the axis of a circular conductor carrying some current. Electron
will experience force-
(a) along the axis
(b) perpendicular to the axis
(c) at an angle of 4° with axis
(d) no force experienced

Page | 86
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

26. A particle of charge q and mass m is moving along the x-axis with a velocity of v and
enters a region of electric field and magnetic field B as shown in the figure below. For
which figure is the net force on the particle is zero?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

27. The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B⃗ vs distance r from centre of the wire
is, if the radius of wire is
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Page | 87
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

28. An element Δ l = Δ x î is placed at the origin and carries a large current of I=10 A. What is the
magnetic field on the y-axis at a distance of 0.5m?
(Δ x=1cm)
(a) 6 x 10-8 T (b) 4 x 10-8 T
(c) 5 x 10-8 T (d) 5.4 x 10-8 T

29. Which of the following graphs

correctly represents the
variation of magnetic field
induction with distance due to a thin
wire carrying current?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
30. Two rings X and Y are placed in such a way that their axes are along the X and the Y axes
respectively and their centers are at the origin. Both the rings X and Y have the same radii
of 3.14 cm. If the current through X and Y rings are 0.6 A and 0.8 A respectively, find the
value of the resultant magnetic field at the origin. (μ0 = 4π x 10-7 SI)
(a) 10-5
(b) 2X10-5
(c) 3X10-5
(d) 4X10-5
31. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis if a current carrying long solenoid.
Which of the following is true?
(a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis
(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis
(c) The electron will experience a force at 45̊ to the axis and hence execute a helical path
(d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
32. If a charge –Qis moving vertically upwards, then what will be the force on the charged particle
if it enters a magnetic field that is pointed towards the south?
(a) NORTH
(b) SOUTH
(c) EAST
(d) WEST
33. A circular coil of radius 4 cm and of 20 turns carries a current of 3 amperes. It is placed in a
magnetic field of intensity of 0.5 weber/m². The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is-
(a) 0.15 ampere-m²
(b) 0.3 ampere-m²

Page | 88
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(c) 0.45 ampere-m²

(d) 0.6 ampere-m²
34. Biot-Savart Law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produces a magnetic- field B
such that
(a) B is perpendicular to v.
(b) B is parallel to v
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
(d) it is along to the line joining the electron and point of observation
35. If a charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it
(a) both momentum and energy of particle change.
(b) momentum as well as energy are constant.
(c) energy is constant but momentum changes.
(d) momentum is constant but energy changes.

36. If the beams of electrons and protons move parallel to each other in the same direction,
then they
(a) attract each other.
(b) repel each other.
(c) no relation.
(d) neither attract nor repel.

37. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron. Then the electron
(a) moves in the direction of the field.
(b) remained stationary.
(c) moves perpendicular to the direction of the field.
(d) moves opposite to the direction of the field.

38. A charged particle is moving on circular path with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B, if
the velocity of the charged particle is doubled and strength of magnetic field is halved, then
radius becomes
(a) 8 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 2 times
(d) 16 times
39. Consider a wire carrying a steady current, I placed in a uniform magnetic field B
perpendicular to its length. Consider the charges inside the wire. It is known that magnetic
forces do not work. This implies that,
(a) motion of charges inside the conductor is unaffected by B, since they do not absorb
energy.
(b) Some charges inside the wire move to the surface as a result of B.
(c) if the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is done by the force.
(d) If the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is done by the electric force on the
ions, assumed fixed within the wire.

Page | 89
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

40. The maximum current that can be measured by a galvanometer of resistance 40 Ω is 10

mA. It is converted into voltmeter that can read up to 50 V. The resistance to be connected
in the series with the galvanometer is-

(a) 2010 Ω
(b) 4050 Ω
(c) 5040 Ω
(d) 4960 Ω
41. Three long, straight parallel wires, carrying current are
arranged as shown in the figure. The force
experienced by a 25 cm length of wire C is-

(a) 10-3 N
(b) 2.5 × 10-3 N
(c) zero
(d) 1.5 × 3 N
42. What is the net force on the rectangular coil?

(a) 25 × 10-7 N towards wire.

(b) 25 × 10-7 N away from wire.
(c) 35 × 10-7 N towards wire.
(d) 35 × 10-7 N away from wire.
43. A positive charge enters in a magnetic field and travels parallel to but opposite the field. It
experience-

(a) an upward force. (b) a downward force.

(c) an accelerated force. (d) no force

44. If an electron is moving with velocity ν produces a magnetic field B , then-

(a) the direction of field B will be same as the direction of velocity ν.

(b) the direction of field B will be opposite to the direction of velocity ν.
(c) the direction of field B will be perpendicular to the direction of velocity ν.
(d) the direction of field B does not depend upon the direction of velocity ν.

45. The magnetic moment of a current I carrying circular coil of radius r and number of turns N
varies as-

(a) 1/r²
(b) 1/r
(c) r
(d) r²

Page | 90
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

46. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0. 65 J T-1, then the magnitude and direction
of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance 8 cm from the centre of magnet
on the axis is-

(a) 2.5 × 10-4 T, along NS direction

(b) 2.5 × 10-4 T along SN direction
(c) 4.5 × 10-4 T, along NS direction
(d) 4.5 × 10-4 T, along SN direction
47. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque acting on it does not
depend upon

(a) area of loop

(b) value of current
(c) magnetic field
(d) None of these
48. The magnetic field at the center of a current carrying circular loop is B. If the radius of the
loop is doubled keeping the current unchanged, the magnetic field at the center of loop will
become:

(a) 𝐵/2 (b) 𝐵/4 (c) 2B (d) 4B

49. An alpha particle and proton having same momentum enter a region of uniform magnetic
field and move in a circular path. The ratio of the radii of curvatures of their paths-
(a )1 (b) ¼ (c) ½ (d) 4
50. A galvanometer of resistance 5ohm gives a full-scale deflection for a potential difference of
10mV. To convert the galvanometer into voltmeter giving a full-scale deflection for a
potential difference of 1V, the size of the resistance that must be attached to the voltmeter
is
(a) 0.495ohm
(b) 495ohm
(c) 49.5ohm
(d) 4950ohm
Answer Key
Chapter 4: MOVING CHARGE AND MAGNETISM)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b d c d a c c a a c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
d b b d a b d d d a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c c c b d b b b d b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
d d b a c b b b b d
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
c a d c d b d a c b

Page | 91
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter 5
MAGNETISM AND MATTER
Q1 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION
Ferromagnetic substances are those which gets strongly magnetised when placed in an
external magnetic field. They have strong tendency to move from a region of weak
magnetic field to strong magnetic field, i.e., they get strongly attracted to a magnet.
The individual atoms (or ions or molecules) in a ferromagnetic material possess a dipole
moment as in a paramagnetic material. However, they interact with one another in such
a way that they spontaneously align themselves in a common direction over a
macroscopic volume called domain.
Each domain has a net magnetisation. Typical domain size is 1mm and the domain
contains about 1011 atoms. In the first instant, the magnetisation varies randomly from
domain to domain and there is no bulk magnetisation. When we apply an external
magnetic field B0, the domains orient themselves in the direction of B 0 and
simultaneously the domain oriented in the direction of B0 grow in size. This existence of
domains and their motion in B0 are not speculations. One may observe this under a
microscope after sprinkling a liquid suspension of powdered ferromagnetic substance of
samples. This motion of suspension shows the situation when the domains have aligned
and amalgamated to form a single ‘giant’ domain.
Now answer questions from 1 to 5 on the basis of above-
1 The primary origin of magnetism lies in
(A) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons.
(B) polar and non polar nature of molecules.
(C) pauli exclusion principle.
(D) electronegative nature of materials.
2 Which of the following property shows the property of ferromagnetic substances?
(A) The ferromagnetic property depends on temperature. ‘
(B) The ferromagnetic property does not depend on temperature.
(C) At high enough temperature ferromagnet becomes a diamagnet.
(D) At low temperature ferromagnet becomes a paramagnet.
3 The magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material is:
(A) Independent of temperature
(B) Inversely proportional to temperature
(C) Directly proportional to temperature
(D) Non-linear function of field strength
4 Which domain configuration represents the demagnetized state of a ferromagnetic
material?
(A) All domains aligned parallel
(B) Random domain orientation
(C)Domains in antiparallel alignment
(D)Single domain structure
5 The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is:

Page | 92
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(A)Equal to 1 (B)Much greater than 1

(C)Less than 1 (D)Equal to 0
Q2 The magnetic field lines are a visual and intuitive realization of the magnetic field. Their
properties are: (i) The magnetic field lines of a magnet (or a solenoid) form continuous
closed loops. This is unlike the electric dipole where these field lines begin from a positive
charge and end on the negative charge or escape to infinity.
One can plot the magnetic field lines in a variety of ways. One way is to place a small
magnetic compass needle at various positions and note its orientation. This gives us an
idea of the magnetic field direction at various points in space
The resemblance of magnetic field lines for a bar magnet and a solenoid suggest that a
bar magnet may be thought of as a large number of circulating currents in analogy with a
solenoid. Cutting a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid
1 Point out the correct direction of magnetic field in the given figures.

2 A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations
as shown in figure. Arrange them in the decreasing order of potential energy.

(A) 4, 2, 3,1 (B) 1, 4, 2, 3 (C) 4, 3, 2,1 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

3
Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary
charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the
centre O as shown in the figure. The force on the charge Q is

Page | 93
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(A) zero (B) directed along OP

(C) directed along PO (D) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

4 Which of the following is not showing the essential difference between electrostatic
shielding by a conducting shell and magnetostatic shielding?
(A) Electrostatic field lines can end on charges and conductors have free charges.
(B) Magnetic field lines can end but conductors cannot end them.
(C) Lines of magentic field cannot end on any material and perfect shielding is not
possible.
(D) Shells of high permeability materials can be used to divert lines of magnetic field from
the interior region.
5 In a paramagnetic material, what happens to magnetic dipoles in the absence of an
external magnetic field?
(A)They align parallel to each other
(B)They remain randomly oriented
(C)They form domains
(D)They align antiparallel to each other
Q3. Ferromagnetic Materials:In the presence of an external magnetic field, the magnetic
domains within these materials align in the direction of the field, resulting in a strong
magnetic effect. Even after the external field is removed, the alignment can persist,
making these materials useful for permanent magnets.

Paramagnetic Materials:These materials have unpaired electrons that align with an

external magnetic field, but the effect is weak and temporary. The thermal motion of
atoms disrupts the alignment, so the magnetization is only present while the external
field is applied.

Diamagnetic Materials: These materials have no unpaired electrons, and the magnetic
moments of the electrons cancel each other out. When an external magnetic field is
applied, it induces a small magnetic moment in the opposite direction, causing a weak
repulsion.
1 The magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is
(A)Positive and small (B)Negative and small
(C) Positive and large (D)Zero
2 In magnetic materials, domains are regions where:
(A) Magnetic moments are randomly oriented
(B) Magnetic moments are aligned parallel
(C) No magnetic moments exist
(D) Only electron spins exist

Page | 94
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

3 The relative permeability of a vacuum is:

(A) Zero (B)Infinity (C)One (D) Less than one
4 Which statement about magnetic monopoles is correct?
(A) They exist in nature
(B) They can be artificially created
(C) They exist only in theory
(D) They don't exist in any form
5 The magnitude of induced magnetic moment in diamagnetic materials is:
(A) Directly proportional to field strength
(B) Inversely proportional to field strength
(C) Independent of field strength
(D) Exponentially related to field strength
Q4. The earth abounds with a bewildering variety of elements and compounds. In addition,
we have been synthesising new alloys, compounds and even elements. One would like to
classify the magnetic properties of these substances. In the present section, we define
and explain certain terms which will help us to carry out this exercise. We have seen that
a circulating electron in an atom has a magnetic moment. In a bulk material, these
moments add up vectorially and they can give a net magnetic moment which is non-zero.
We define magnetisation M of a sample to be equal to its net magnetic moment per unit
volume:
Magnetic susceptibility (χ\chi) is a measure of how much a material will become
magnetized in an external magnetic field. It indicates the degree to which a material can
be magnetized. Here's a brief overview of the susceptibility of different types of magnetic
materials:
1 The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material:
(A)Increases with temperature (B)Decreases with temperature
(C) Is independent of temperature (D)Is always constant

2 The property of diamagnetism is due to:

(A) Aligned electron spins (B)Induced magnetic moment
(C) Permanent magnetic moment (D) Nuclear magnetic moment

3 A magnetic material has susceptibility of -3×10⁻⁵. The material is:

(A) Ferromagnetic (B) Paramagnetic
(C) Diamagnetic (D) Antiferromagnetic
4 In a magnetic field, the alignment of magnetic dipoles in paramagnetic materials is:
(A) Random due to thermal agitation
(B) Perfectly aligned with the field
(C) Opposite to the field
(D) Perpendicular to the field
5 In a magnetic material, domain formation occurs to:
(A) Minimize magnetic energy
(B) Maximize magnetic energy

Page | 95
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(C) Keep magnetic energy constant

(D) Eliminate magnetic properties
Q5 The orbital magnetic moment of an electron arises due to its motion around the nucleus,
akin to how a current loop generates a magnetic field. Here's a breakdown of the
concept:
Quantization: In quantum mechanics, electrons orbit the nucleus in discrete orbits or
energy levels. Each orbit has a specific angular momentum, which is quantized. The
magnetic moment of a current-carrying loop, often referred to as a magnetic dipole
moment, is a measure of the loop's ability to produce a magnetic field. This concept is
crucial in understanding the magnetic properties of coils and solenoids, which are
fundamental components in many electromagnetic devices.
The magnetic moment (μ\mu) of a current-carrying loop is given by:M=IA
1 The relative permeability of a diamagnetic material is:
(A)Small and negative (B)Less than 1
(C)Equal to 1 (D)Infinity
2 The magnitude of orbital magnetic moment of electron is given by:
(A)μ = evr/2 (B) μ = evr (C) μ = e2vr/2 (D)μ = e2vr
3 The energy of an electron orbiting around the nucleus in hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. The
magnetic moment of electron is:
(A) 9.27 × 10-24JT-1 (B) 9.27 × 10-23 JT-1
(C) 9.27 × 10-22 JT-1 (D) 9.27 × 10-21 JT-1

4
A magnetising field of 2 × 10 4 A/m produces a magnetic flux density of 0.4 T in a material. The
relative permeability of the material will be.
(A) 16π (b) 8π (c) 50/π (D) 2π
5 The magnetic moment of a current loop is independent of:
(A) Current in the loop (B) Area of the loop
(C)Temperature of the loop (D)Shape of the loop
Q6 Magnetic monopoles do not exist. If you slice a magnet in half, you get two smaller
magnets. On the other hand, isolated positive and negative charges exist. There exists a
smallest unit of charge, for example, the electronic charge with value |e| = 1.6 ×10–19 C.
All other charges are integral multiples of this smallest unit charge. In other words,
charge is quantised. We do not know why magnetic monopoles do not exist or why
electric charge is quantised.
A bar magnet's magnetic moment is a vector quantity that represents the strength and
orientation of its magnetic field. It's essentially a measure of the magnet's ability to
generate a magnetic field in the surrounding space.
Magnetic Dipole Moment: The bar magnet has a magnetic dipole moment, which is the
product of the pole strength (m) and the distance (d) between the poles: μ=m×d
1 A bar magnet of magnetic moment m is placed in uniform magnetic field B such that m is
parallel to B . In this position, the torque and force acting on it are
________and_____respectively –

Page | 96
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(A) 0 ,0 (B) m x B , mB (C) m . B , mB (D) m x B , m . B

2 A thin circular wire carrying a current I, has a magnetic moment M. The shape of a wire is
changed to a square and it carries the same current. It will have a magnetic moment-
(A) 4M/π2 (B) M (C) πM /4 (D) 4M/πA
3 2
A bar magnet of the magnetic moment 50 Am has poles 20 cm apart. Its pole strength is:

(A) 250 Am (B) 4 Am (C) 100 Am (D) 25 Am

4 A stationary magnet does not interact with:-

(A)moving charge (B)magnet

(C)iron rod (D)stationary charge
5 How does the magnetic moment of a revolving electron changes when frequency of
revolution get doubled without change in radius of circular path.

(A)becomes half (B)no change

(C)becomes 4 times (D)becomes twice
Q7 A bar magnet's magnetic moment is a vector quantity that represents the strength and
orientation of its magnetic field. It's essentially a measure of the magnet's ability to
generate a magnetic field in the surrounding space.
Magnetic Dipole Moment: The bar magnet has a magnetic dipole moment, which is the
product of the pole strength (m) and the distance (d) between the poles: μ=m×d
The resemblance of magnetic field lines for a bar magnet and a solenoid suggest that a
bar magnet may be thought of as a large number of circulating currents in analogy with a
solenoid. Cutting a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid.

1 A coil of ‘N’ turns and radius’R’ carries a current ‘I’. It is unwound and rewound to make a
square coil of side’a’ having same number of turns(N). Keeping the current’I’ same, find the
ratio of the magnetic moments of the square coil and the circular coil.
(A):4 (B) :1 (C) 4:1 (D) 4:

2 A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It may experience:

(A) a force and torque. (B) a force but not a torque.

(C) a torque but not a force. (D) neither a force nor a torque.
3 Two identical bar magnets each of dipole moment p and length I are perpendicular to each
other as shown in Fig. The dipole moment of the combination is:

Page | 97
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(A)√2 p (B) p/√2 (C)p (D) 2p

4 A circular coil of ‘N’ turns and diameter ‘d’ carries a current ‘I’. It is unwound and rewound
to make another coil of diameter ‘2d’, current ‘I’ remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of
the magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil.

(A)1:4 (B)4:1 (C) 1:2 (D) 2:1

5 According to Gauss’s theorem in magnetism, surface integral of magnetic field intensity
over a surface (closed or open) is always:

(A) -1 (B)1 (C) 0 (D) infinity

Q8 Magnetic monopoles do not exist. If you slice a magnet in half, you get two smaller
magnets. On the other hand, isolated positive and negative charges exist. The
resemblance of magnetic field lines for a bar magnet and a solenoid suggest that a bar
magnet may be thought of as a large number of circulating currents in analogy with a
solenoid. Cutting a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid

The magnetic field is strongest at the poles and decreases with distance from the
magnet. The field lines are directed from the north pole to the south pole outside the
magnet.

The magnetic field at the equatorial point is perpendicular to the axis of the magnet and
is weaker compared to the axial field at the same distance. The field lines form closed
loops, emerging from the north pole and entering the south pole.

1 A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10 –⁴ m² carries a
current of 3.0 A. What is its associated magnetic moment?

(A)0.60 J/T (B)6.0 J/T (C)60.0 J/T (D)0.06 J/T

2 Which of the following points lies in the region of the highest magnetic field strength?

Page | 98
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

3 A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their lengths are in the ratio 2: 1. The pole
strengths of the two pieces will have a ratio;

(A) 2: 1 (B) 1: 2 (C) 4: 1 (D) 1: 1

4 The ratio of magnetic intensities for an axial point and a point on the equatorial point at an
equal distance d from the center of the magnet will be

(A) 1: 1 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 2: 1 (D) 3: 2

5 The work done in rotating a bar magnet of magnetic moment M from its unstable
equilibrium position to its stable equilibrium position in a uniform magnetic field B is;

(A) 2MB (B) MB (C) –MB (D) –2MB

Q9 The potential energy (U) of a bar magnet with magnetic moment (m) in a uniform
magnetic field (BB) is given by:
U=−m⋅Bcos(θ)
The potential energy is minimum when the magnetic moment is aligned with the
magnetic field, and it is maximum when the magnetic moment is anti-aligned with the
magnetic field (θ=180)
Torque Experienced: The torque (τ) experienced by a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic
field is given by:
τ=m×B. The torque tends to align the magnetic moment with the magnetic field. It is
maximum when the magnetic moment is perpendicular to the magnetic field (θ=90∘) and
zero when the magnetic moment is parallel or anti-parallel to the magnetic field (θ=0 or
θ=180).

Page | 99
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

1 A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 mA
and is subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by
180° from stable equilibrium;

(A) 9.4 mJ (B) 4.55 mJ (C) 2.3 mJ (D) 1.15 mJ

2 A bar magnet is held perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. If the torque acting on the
magnet is to be halved by rotating it, then the angle by which it is to be rotated is;

(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°

3 A magnetic dipole in a constant magnetic field has;

(A) maximum potential energy when the torque is maximum.

(B) zero potential energy when the torque is minimum.
(C) zero potential energy when the torque is maximum.
(D) minimum potential energy when the torque is maximum.

4 The relative permeability of a material is 25, then its susceptibility is;

(A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 5 (D) 625

5 The universal property of all substances is;

(A) Diamagnetism (B) Ferromagnetism

(C) Paramagnetism (D) All of these

Q10 Ferromagnetic Materials:In the presence of an external magnetic field, the magnetic
domains within these materials align in the direction of the field, resulting in a strong
magnetic effect. Even after the external field is removed, the alignment can persist,
making these materials useful for permanent magnets.

Paramagnetic Materials:These materials have unpaired electrons that align with an

external magnetic field, but the effect is weak and temporary. The thermal motion of
atoms disrupts the alignment, so the magnetization is only present while the external
field is applied.

Diamagnetic Materials: These materials have no unpaired electrons, and the magnetic
moments of the electrons cancel each other out. When an external magnetic field is
applied, it induces a small magnetic moment in the opposite direction, causing a weak
repulsion.

Page | 100
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

1 Liquid oxygen remains suspended between two pole faces of a magnet because it is;

(A) Diamagnetic (B) Paramagnetic

(C) Ferromagnetic (D) Anti-ferromagnetic

2 A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves;

(A) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field.

(B) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field.
(C) perpendicular to the field.
(D) in none of the above directions.

3 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is

(A) repelled by the North Pole and attracted by the South Pole.
(B) attracted by the North Pole and repelled by the South Pole.
(C) attracted by both the poles.
(D) repelled by both the poles.

4 There are four light-weight-rod samples; A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar

magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted;

(i) A is feebly repelled.

(ii) B is feebly attracted.
(iii) C is strongly attracted.
(iv) D remains unaffected.

Which one of the following is true?

(A) A is of a non-magnetic material.
(B) B is of a paramagnetic material.
(C) C is of a diamagnetic material.
(D) D is of a ferromagnetic material.

5 Choose the correct statement.

(A) Electric lines of force are closed curves while magnetic lines are not.
(B) Magnetic lines of force are closed curves while electric lines are not.
(C) Both electric and magnetic lines of force are closed curves.
(D) Neither electric nor magnetic lines of force are closed curves.

Page | 101
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

ANSWER KEY
Chapter 5: MAGNETISM AND MATTER
Q1
1 A 2 A 3 B 4 B 5 B
Q2
1 D 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 B
Q3
1 B 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 A
Q4
1 B 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A
Q5
1 2 3 A 3 A 4 C 5 D
Q6
1 A 2 C 3 A 4 D 5 D
Q7
1 D 2 A 3 A 4 C 5 C
Q8
12 A 2 A 3 D 4 C 5 D
Q9
1 A 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 A
Q10
1 B 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 B

Page | 102
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter 6
Electromagnetic Induction
1. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then the induced e.m.f. is
(a) larger in case (i)
(b) smaller in case (i)
(c) equal to both the cases
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
2. The magnetic flux linked with a coil of N turns of area of cross section A held with its plane
parallel to the field B is

3. A square of side L metres lies in the x-y plane in a region, where the magnetic field is given
by B = B0(i + 3j + 4k) T, where Bo is constant. The magnitude of flux passing through the
square is
(a) 2BoL² Wb. (b) 3BoL² Wb. (c) 4BoL² Wb. (d) √29 BoL² Wb
4. A cylindrical bar magnet is rotated about its axis (Figure). A wire is connected from the
axis and is made to touch the cylindrical surface through a contact. Then

(a) a direct current flows in the ammeter A.

(b) no current flows through the ammeter A.
(c) an alternating sinusoidal current flows through the ammeter A with a time period T =
2πω
(d) a time varying non-sinosoidal current flows through the ammeter.
5. If number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times each, the
mutual inductance
(a) becomes 4 times (b) becomes 2 times
(c) becomes A times (d) remains unchanged 4
6. In an inductor of self-inductance L=2mH, current changes with time according to relation
i=t2e−t. At what time emf is zero?
A) 4 s B) 3 s C) 2 s D) 1 s
7. A coil of resistance 400Ω is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux ϕ (Wb) linked
with the coil varies with time t (sec) as ϕ=50t2+4. The current in the coil at t=2s is
A) 0.5 A B) 0.1 A C) 2 A D) 1 A
8. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
A) 1.389 H B) 138.88 H C) 0.138 H D) 13.89 H

Page | 103
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

9. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5×105 T.
When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90º around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the
emf induced in the coil will be:
A) 2×103 V B) 0.02 V C) 2 V D) 0.2 V
10. The magnetic flux (∅) linked with a coil is related to the number of turns (n) of the coil as:
(a) ∅ ∝ n (b) ∅ ∝ n-1 (c) ∅ ∝ n2 (d) ∅ ∝ n-2
11. A wire cd of length l , mass m, is sliding without friction on conducting rails ax and by as
shown in figure. The vertical rails are connected to one
another via an external resistance r. The entire circuit is
placed in a region of space having a uniform magnetic field b. The
field is ⊥ to the plane of circuit & directed outwards. The
steady speed of rod cd is
(a) mg r/bl
(b) mg r/b2l2
(c) mg r/bl2
(d) mg r/b2l
12. A thin circular-conducting ring having n turns of radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a
horizontal magnetic field b. At the position mnq, the speed of ring is v, the induced e.m.f.
developed across the ring is

(a) zero
(b) bvπr2n/2 and m is at higher potential
(c) n πbrv and q is at higher potential
(d) 2rbvn and q is at lower potential
13. A conductor of length 5 cm, and resistance 2ω is moving on frictionless rails with a
constant velocity of 5 cm/s in a magnetic field of intensity 3 tesla as shown below. If
conductor is connected to a circuit as shown, by two lead wires of almost negligible
resistance, then current flowing in it is

(a) 0.25 a (b) 2.5 amp (c) 2.5 ma (d) 0.25 ×104 amp
14. Two coils a and b have 200 and 400 turns respectively. A current of 1 a in coil a causes a
flux per turn of 10-3 wb to link with a and a flux per turn of 0.8 × 10-3 wb through b. The
ratio of self-inductance of a and the mutual inductance of a and b is :
(a) 5/4

Page | 104
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(b) 1/1.6
(c) 1.6
(d) 1
15. A copper rod moves with a constant angular velocity ω , about a long straight wire
carrying a current i. If the ends of the rod from the wire are at
distances a and b, then the e.m.f. induced in the rod is
(a) μ0iωa2πln(ba)
(b) μ0iωb2πln(ba)
(c) zero
(d) μ0iω(a+b)4πln(ba)

16. The time required for a current to attain the maximum value in a d.c. circuit containing l
and r, depends upon :
(a) r only
(b) l only
(c) l/r
(d) none of these
17. An inductor coil of inductance l is divided into two equal parts and both parts are
connected in parallel. The net inductance is :
(a) l (b) 2l (c) l/2 (d) l/4
18. A metal disc of radius r rotates with an angular velocity ω about an axis perpendicular to
its plane passing through its centre in a magnetic field of induction b acting perpendicular
to the plane of the disc. The induced e.m.f. between the rim and axis of the disc is:
(a) bπr2
(b) 2bπ2r2/ω
(c) bπr2ω
(d) br2ω/2
19. A coil of area 500 cm2 having 1000 turns is placed such that the plane of the coil is
perpendicular to a magnetic field of magnitude 4 × 10-5 weber/m2. If it is rotated by 180°
about an axis passing through one of its diameter in 0.1 sec, find the average induced emf.
(a) zero.
(b) 30 mv
(c) 40 mv
(d) 50 mv
20. For the l shaped conductor in a uniform magnetic field b
shown in figure, the emf across its ends when it rotates with
angular velocity ‘ω’ about an axis through one of its ends o and
normal to its plane will be
(a) 2 bωl2
(b) bωl2
(c) (1/2) bωl2
(d) 4 bωl2
21. A coil of inductance 8.4 mh and resistance 6 ω is connected to a 12 v battery. The current
in the coil is 1.0 a approximately after time

Page | 105
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) 500 ms
(b) 20 s
(c) 35 ms
(d) 1 ms
22. A uniform but time-varying magnetic field b(t) exists in a circular region of radius a and is
directed into the plane of the paper, as shown. The magnitude of the induced electric field
at point p at a distance r from the centre of
the circular region is
(a) is zero
(b) proportional to r
(c) proportional to 1/ r
(d) proportional to 1/r2

23. Find the strength of the magnetic field in a conductor 0.5m long moving with a velocity of
10m/s, inducing an emf of 20v if magnetic field, velocity and length of conductor are
mutually perpendicular to each other.
A) 1t
b) 2t
c) 3t
d) 4t
24. If a conductor 0.2m long moves with a velocity of 0.3m/s in a magnetic field of 5t,
calculate the emf induced if magnetic field, velocity and length of conductor are mutually
perpendicular to each other.
A) 0.3v
b) 0.03v
c) 30v
d) 3v
25. Find the length of a conductor which is moving with a velocity 0.4m/s in a magnetic field
of 8t, inducing an emf of 20v if magnetic field, velocity and length of conductor are
mutually perpendicular to each other.
A) 50m
b) 5m
c) 6.25m
d) 0.5m
26. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected to
a short galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with the north
pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly. The maximum deflection
of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet was
(a) moving towards the solenoid
(b) moving into the solenoid
(c) at rest inside the solenoid
(d) moving out of the solenoid
27. Two identical coaxial coils P and Q carrying equal amount of current in the same direction
are brought nearer. The current in

Page | 106
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) P increases while in Q decreases

(b) Q increases while in P decreases
(c) both P and Q increases
(d) both P and Q decreases
28. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a circuit changes, an emf is induced
in circuit.
(b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.
(c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s law.
(d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of momentum.
29. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the paper.
An irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in the plane of
the paper. Then
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction.
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction.
(c) ac is induced in the loop.
(d) no current is induced in the loop.
30. The north pole of a bar magnet is rapidly introduced into a solenoid at one end (say A).
Which of the following statements correctly depicts the phenomenon taking place?
(a) No induced emf is developed.
(b) The end A of the solenoid behaves like a south pole.
(c) The end A of the solenoid behaves like north pole.
(d) The end A of the solenoid acquires positive potential.

31. Identify the wrong statement.

(a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field.
(b) Eddy currents can be minimized by using laminated core.
(c) Induction furnace uses eddy current to produce heat.
(d) Eddy current can be used to produce braking force in moving trains.
32. If number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times each, the
mutual inductance
(a) becomes 4 times
(b) becomes 2 times
(c) becomes A times
(d) remains unchanged 4
33. There are two coils A and B as shown in Figure. A current starts flowing in B as shown,
when A is moved towards B and stops when A stops moving. The current in A is
counterclockwise. B is kept stationary when A moves. We can infer that

(a) there is a constant current in the clockwise direction in A.

(b) there is a varying current in A.

Page | 107
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(c) there is no current in A.

(d) there is a constant current in the counterclockwise direction in A.

34. The coil A is made to rotate about a vertical axis (Figure). No

current flows in B if A is at rest. The current in coil A, when the
current in B (at t = 0) is counterclockwise and the coil A is as
shown at this instant, t = 0, is
(a) constant current clockwise.
(b) varying current clockwise.
(c) varying current counterclockwise.
(d) constant current counterclockwise.
35. Two bar magnets are quickly moved towards a metallic loop connected across a capacitor
C as shown in the figure. Predict the polarity of the capacitor.

(a) plate A of capacitor will be positive and plate B will be negative.

(b) plate B of capacitor will be positive and plate A will be negative.
(c) plate A and plate B of the capacitor will be negative.
(c) plate A and plate B of the capacitor will be positive.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. So
select the correct choice :
(A) ASSERTION is True, REASON is True; & REASON is a correct explanation for
ASSERTION.
(B) ASSERTION is True, REASON is True; & REASON is NOT a correct explanation for
ASSERTION.
(C) ASSERTION is True, but REASON is false.
(D) ASSERTION is false, and REASON is also false
36. ASSERTION: Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil.
REASON: The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil
if the circuit is continuous.

37. ASSERTION: An electric lamp is connected in series with a long solenoid of copper with air
core and then connected to AC source. If an iron rod is inserted in solenoid the lamp will
become dim.
REASON: If an iron rod is inserted in solenoid, the inductance of solenoid increases.
38. ASSERTION: A capacitor allows AC but blocks DC.
REASON: When AC passes through a capacitor, there is local oscillation of bound charges
of dielectric.
39. ASSERTION: magnetic flux is given by Φ = L i = (product of the self-inductance and
current).

Page | 108
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

REASON: When current is increased; self-inductance increases.

40. ASSERTION: The work done by a charge in a closed (induced) current carrying loop is non–
zero.
REASON: Induced electric field is non–conservative in nature.
41. ASSERTION: Lenz’s law does not violate the principle of conservation of energy.
REASON: Induced e.m.f. always opposes the change in magnetic flux responsible for its
production.
42. ASSERTION: The growth of current in R-L circuit is uniform.
REASON: Inductor (L) supports the growth of current.
43. ASSERTION: Magnetic flux linked to closed surface is zero.
REASON: Direction of induced current due to change of magnetic flux is given by Faraday’s
Law.
44. ASSERTION: Time dependent magnetic field generates electric field.
REASON: Direction of electric field generated from time variable magnetic field does not
obey Lenz’s law.
45. ASSERTION: Varying magnetic field produces an electric field, which is non–conservative.
REASON: Charge particles in motion produces only magnetic field.

46. ASSERTION: Induced potential across a coil and therefore induced current is always
opposite to the direction of current due to external source.
REASON: Lenz law states that it may not oppose the cause due to which it is being
produced.
47. ASSERTION: The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying solenoid is half
of that at the center.
REASON: If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field with in it is uniform.
48. ASSERTION: The energy of charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field does not
change.
REASON: Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.
49. ASSERTION: When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the
coils is maximum.
REASON: Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils.
50. ASSERTION: The induced emf in a conducting loop of wire may not be zero when it rotates
in a uniform magnetic field.
REASON: The emf must be induced due to change in magnetic field.

Page | 109
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Answer Key
Chapter 6: Electromagnetic Induction

ANSWERS OF MCQs

Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ANSWER A D C A A C A D C A
Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANSWER B D C A C C D D C B
Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
ANSWER D C D B C D D D A B
Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35
ANSWER A A D A A
ANSWERS OF ASSERTION-REASONS

Q.NO. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
ANSWER C A A C A A D A C C
Q.NO. 46 47 48 49 50
ANSWER D A A C A

Page | 110
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter–7:
Alternating Current

1. In a circuit having a resistance of 100Ω connected in series with a capacitive reactance of

100Ω to alternating voltage source, the current:-
(a) leads voltage by 90 ֯ (b) leads voltage by 45֯
(c) lags behind voltage by 90֯ (d) lags behind voltage by 45֯
2. The value of current at half power frequency points is:-
(a)Irm √2 (b) Irm / √2
(c) 2Irm (d) Irm/2
3. A capacitor of capacity C has reactance X. If capacitance and frequency become double
then reactance will be:-
(a) 4X (b) X/2
(c) X/4 (d) 2X

4. In an AC Circuit decrease in impedance with increase in frequency indicates that circuit

has/have:-
(a) only resistance (b) resistance and inductance
(c)resistance and capacitance (d) resistance, capacitance and
inductance

5. Energy loss in pure capacitance in A.C. circuit is:-

(a) 1/2 CV2 (b) CV
(c) 1/ (d) Zero

6. A capacitor is connected to an A.C. circuit, then the phase difference between current
and the voltage is:-
(a) π (b) π/2
(c) -π/2 (d) Zero

7. In an L-C-R series resonating circuit the relation between XL and XC is :-

(a) XL /XC = 1 (b) XL/XC > 1
(c) XL/XC < 1 (d) X L/XC = -1

8. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is 10 ampere having frequency of 50 Hz. The time
taken by the current to increase from zero to maximum and the maximum value of
current will be:-
(a) 2 x 10-2 s and 14.14 A
(b) 1 x 10-2 s and 7.07 A
(c) 5 x 10-3 s and 7.07 A
(d) 5 x 10-3 s and 14.14 A

Page | 111
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

9. In pure inductance the current is :-

(a) leading, potential by π/2
(b) lagging, potential by π/2
(c) in same phase with potential
(d) with a phase difference of π with potential
10.
In an A.C. circuit inductance, capacitance and resistance are connected. If the effective
voltage across inductance is VL , across capacitance is VC and across resistance is VR ,
then the total effective value of voltage is :-
(a) VR+VL+VC (b) VR+VL-VC
2
(c) √ VR + (VL-VC) 2 (d) √ VR2 – (VL-VC)2
11. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is :-
(a)Double of peak value (b) half of peak value
(c) 1/ √2 times of peak value (d)equal to peak value

12. Current flows through an ideal capacitor when it is connected to an AC source but it does
not flow when connected to DC source in steady state. It is so because, for DC X c is-
(a) Zero (b) infinity (c) 1 (d) 90
13. At resonance condition in LCR circuit, which of the following is not true?
(a)Z=R (b) current is minimum (c) Xc – Xl =O (D) Xc / Xl =1
14. A transformer is used to-
(a)Convert AC into DC (b) convert DC into AC
(c)obtain a suitable DC voltage (d) low AC voltage into high voltage and
Vice versa
15. A transformer is based on the principal of –
(a)Ampere’s law (b) faraday’s laws (c) mutual induction (d) self induction
16. AC generator converts-
(a) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
(b) electrical energy to mechanical energy
(c) Mechanical energy to heat energy
(d) heat energy to mechanical energy
17. An electric lamp is connected in series with a capacitor and an AC source. It is glowing
with certain brightness. On reducing capacitance, the brightness-
(a) Decreases (b) increases (c) remains constant (d) zero

18. The mean value of AC over a complete cycle is-

(a)1 (b) 0 (c) infinity (d) none of these
19. The unit of inductive reactance is –
(a) Ohm (b) mho (c) farad (d) henry-1
20. In a pure capacitive circuit, the current –
(a) Lags behind the applied emf by angle 𝜋/2
(b) Leads the applied emf by π
(c) leads the applied emf by 𝜋/2

Page | 112
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(d) Applied emf are in same phase

21. A current in circuit is given by i = 3 + 4 sin wt. then the effective value of current is :-
(a) 5 (b) √7 (c) √10 (d) √17
22. Core of transformer is made up of :-
(a) Soft iron (b) steel (c) iron (d) alnico
23. In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is 1:2 . If voltage across primary is 1.5 V, then
voltage developed in the secondary would be :-
(a) 3V (b) 0.75 V (c) 1.5 V (d) zero
24. A current of 5A is flowing at 220V in the primary of a transformer. If the voltage
produced in the secondary coil is 2200 v and 50% power is lost, then the current in the
secondary will be :-
(a) 0.5 A (b) 5A (c) 2.5 A (d) 0.25 A
25. An ideal transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 250 turns in the secondary. The
peak value of the AC is 28 V. The r.m.s. secondary voltage is nearest to :-
(a) 50 V (b) 70 V (c)100 V (d) 40 V
26. A step down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to deliver 20 A at 120 V at the
secondary coil. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current drawn from the line
is:-
(a) 20A (b) 30A (c) 3A (d) 2.4 A
27. Electric inertia of coil is :-
(a) Self inductance (b) charge (c) Electrical current (d)all of these
28. The current in an AC circuit is given by I =I0 sin (50π)t, where t is in second. The time
interval in which it will reach from zero to its peak value is:-
(a) 20 ms (b) 10 ms (c) 5 ms (d) 12 ms
In an AC circuit, only a resistor of resistance 15 Ω is present. If voltage applied is V= 150
29. sin (50t) volt then rms current is:-
10√2 A (b) 5 A (c) 10 A (d) 5√2 A
30. The impedance in a circuit containing a resistance of 1Ω and an inductance of 0.1 H in
series, for AC of 50 Hz, is :-
(a)100√10 Ω (b) 10√10 Ω (c) 100Ω (d) √10 Ω
31. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3kW power supply. If the
current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current
in the primary coil respectively are:
(a)330 V, 15A (b)450 V , 13A (c) 450V , 15A (d)6000v 15A
32. In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the components, L, C and R IN 50V.
the voltage across the LC combination will be:
100 v (b) 50 V (c) 150 V (d)0 V

Page | 113
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

33. A transformer connected to 220 V mains is used to light a lamp of rating 100 W and 110 V
. if the primary current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is :
(a)60% (b)25% (c) 50% (d) 90%
34. The emf developed by the generator depends upon :-
(a) Size of magnet (b) length of the rotating wire
(c) radius of twire (d) area of the rotating wire
35. Vrms is related to V0 as:
(a) Vrms =0.636 V0 (b) Vrms = 0.707 V0
(c) Vrms = 1 V0 (d) none of these
36. The primary winding of transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns.
The primary is connected to an ac supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an
output of:
200 v, 50 Hz (b)2V,50Hz (c)200V, 500Hz (d)2V, 5Hz
37. The ratio of secondary to the primary turns in a transformer is 3:2. If the power output
be P, then input power neglecting all losses must be equal to:-
(a)5P (b)P (c)1.5P (d)2/5 P
38. For a series LCR circuit the power loss at resonance is :-
(a)V2/[ωl-1/ωC] (b)I2Lω (c)I2R (d)V2/Cω
39. If the frequence of AC is 60Hz, the phase difference corresponding to a time difference of
1/360s is:-
(a)π/6 (b)π/4 (c)π/3 (d)π/2
40. An alternating emf of angular frequency ω is applied across an inductance. The
instantaneous power developed in the circuit has an angular frequency:-
(a)ω/4 (b)ω/2 (c)ω (d)2ω

41. In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to
remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to:-
(a)4L (b)2L (c)L/2 (d)L/4
42. The self- inductance of the motor of an electric fan is 10 H. In order to impart maximum
power at 50 Hz, it should be connected to a capacitance of:-
(a)4µF (b)8µF (c)1µF (d)2µF
43. A 200 watt bulb is connected in secondary coil. Its primary is connected at 400 volt. If the
efficiency of the transformer is 80% and the bulb is running with its peak power then, the
current in primary coil is:-
(a)3/2A (b)4/3A (c)5/8A (d)1/2A
44. In an AC circuit instantaneous current is given by i=io sin π/6 t . The time for starting
when current in circuit becomes equal to its rms value for the first time is:-
(a)1.5s (b)2s (c)2.5s (d)3s

Page | 114
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

45. Average power supplied by an AC source is maximum when

(a)Current leads voltage by π/2
(b)Current lags voltage by π/2
(c)Current leads voltage by π/4
(d)Current and voltage are in same phase
46. A standard filament lamp consumes 100W when connected to 200V ac mains supply. The
peak current through the bulb will be :-
(a)2A (b)0.707A (c)1A (d)1.414A
47. The value of capacitance C in an LCR series circuit with L = 100mH, so that current in
circuit becomes maximum(ω = 100 rad s-1)
(a)1µF (b)1 mF (c)1 F (d)10 F
48. Alternating current cannot be measured by DC ammeter because
(a)AC cannot pass through DC ammeter
(b)AC changes direction
(c)average value of current for complete cycle is zero
(d)DC ammeter will get damaged
49. The average emf during the positive half cycle of an AC supply of peak value E o is:-
(a)E0/π (b)E0/√2π (c)E0/2π (d)2E0/π
50. A step down transformer reduces 440v to 22v current in primary and secondary coils are
8A and 100A. The efficiency of transformer is:-
(a)62.50% (b)31.25% (c)87.20% (d)96.70%

Answer Key
Chapter 7: Alternating Current

1.B 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.C
11.C 12.B 13,B 14.D 15.C 116.A 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.C
21.D 22.A 23.A 24.D 25.A 26.C 27.A 28.B 29.D 30.B
31.C 32.D 33.D 34.D 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.C 40.D
41.C 42.C 43.C 44.A 45.D 46.B 47.B 48.C 49.D 50.A

Page | 115
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter–8 Electromagnetic Waves

1. Match List–A (Electromagnetic wave type) with List–B (Its application) and select the correct
option
List – A List – B
(A) Infrared waves (i) To treat muscular strain
(B) Radio waves (ii) For broadcasting
(C ) X–rays (iii) To detect fracture of bones
(D) Ultraviolet rays (iv) Absorbed by the ozone layer of the
atmosphere
Option (A) (B) (C ) (D)
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
2. 8
Electromagnetic waves travelling in a medium has speed 2 × 10 m/s. If the relative
permeability is 1, then the relative permittivity of medium must be
(a) 2
(b) 2.25
(c) 2.5
(d) 1.5
3. Electromagnetic waves travelling in a medium having relative permeability μr = 1.3 and
=relative permittivity ξ r= 2.14 . The speed of electromagnetic waves in medium must be
(a) 1.8 × 108 m/s
(b) 1.8 × 104 m/s
(c) 1.8 × 106 m/s
(d) 1.8 × 102 m/s
4. The maximum value of E in an electromagnetic wave is equal to 18 V m–1. Thus the
maximum value of B is –
(a) 3X10–8 T
(b) 6X10–8 T
(c) 9X10–8 T
(d) 2X10–8 T
5. ...... lamp is used in physiotherapy treatment.
(a) Infrared
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) X
(d) UV

6. In given medium electric field of electromagnetic waves Ex = 0, Ey = 2.5 cos ((2πX106 t –π x

10–2x); Ez = 0 then this wave ......
(a) is moving in x

Page | 116
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(b) is moving in x
(c) moving in negative x
(d) moving in y
7. A welder wears special glasses to protect his eyes from the harmful effect of
(a) very intense visible light
(b) infrared light
(c ) ultra violet light
(d) microwaves
8. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity v î . The instantaneous oscillating
electric field of this em wave is along + y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field
of the em wave will be along
(a) – x direction
(b) – z direction
(c) –y direction
(d) + z direction
9. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in operating a RADAR?
(a) radio Waves
(b) Microwaves
© infrared
(d) gamma rays
10. The quantity represents
(a) speed of sound
(b) speed of light in vacuum
(c) speed of electromagnetic waves
(d) inverse of speed of light in vacuum
11. In the following list of different electromagnetic waves and their source, which one is not
correct ?
(a) Gamma rays → decay of a radioactive nucleus
(b) Ultraviolet rays → magnetron valve
(c) Infrared rays → oscillations of atoms and molecules
(d) X
12. If we want to produce electromagnetic waves of wavelength 500 km by an oscillating charge;
then frequency of oscillating charge must be
(a) 600 Hz
(b) 500 Hz
(c) 167 Hz
(d) 15 Hz
13. Electromagnetic waves with wavelength 10 nm are called
(a) Infrared waves
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) microwave

Page | 117
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

14. In four regions I, II, III and IV, the magnetic field is given by :
I. By = B0 sin kz
II. By = B0 cos kz
III. By = B0 sin (kz
IV. By = B0 sin kz + B0 cos kz
The electromagnetic wave will exist in the region :
(A) IV (B) I (C) III (D) II
15. ...... are used in the interceptor van used by traffic police.
(a) Radio
(b) Microwave
(c) Infrared
(d) UV
16. Which type of rays are used for LASIK eye surgery ?
(a) Gamma
(b) X
(c) Infrared
(d) Ultraviolet
17. In communication system and RADAR microwave are used, because ......
(A) its wavelength is very small.
(B) its diffraction (spread) is very less.
(C) its diffraction is more.
(D) they propagate very fast.
18. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing
energy :
A : Blue light, B : Yellow light, C:X

(A) D, B, A, C
(B) A, B, D, C
(C) C, A, B, D
(D) B, A, D, C

19. Electromagnetic waves possess

(A) only energy, not momentum
(B) only momentum, not energy
(C) both energy and momentum
(D) none of above
20. CASE
MICROWAVE OVEN
Our objective is to cook food or warm it up. All food items such as fruit, vegetables, meat,
cereals, etc., contain water as a constituent. Now, what does it mean when we say that

Page | 118
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

a certain object has become warmer? When the temperature of a body rises, the
energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules increases and the molecules
travel or vibrate or rotate with higher energies. The frequency of rotation of water
molecules is about 300 crore hertz, which is 3 gigahertz (GHz). If water receives
microwaves of this frequency, its molecules absorb this radiation, which is equivalent to
heating up water. These molecules share this energy with neighbouring food molecules,
heating up the food. One should use porcelain vessels and not metal containers in a
microwave oven because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric
charges. Metals may also melt from heating. The porcelain container remains
unaffected and cool, because its large molecules vibrate and rotate with much smaller
frequencies, and thus cannot absorb microwaves. Hence, they do not get heated up.
Thus, the basic principle of a microwave oven is to generate microwave radiation of
appropriate frequency in the working space of the oven where we keep food. This way
energy is not wasted in heating up the vessel. In the conventional heating method, the
vessel on the burner gets heated first, and then the food inside gets heated because of
transfer of energy from the vessel. In the microwave oven, on the other hand, energy is
directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food.
(i) Why does a microwave oven heat up a food item containing water molecules most
efficiently?
(a) Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating
(b) Infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven
(c) Energy from the microwaves is transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy of water
molecules at their resonant frequency.
(d) The frequency of microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water
molecules.
(ii) Microwaves are
(a) Transverse electromagnetic wave
(b) Longitudinal electromagnetic wave
(c) Stationary wave
(d) None of the above
(iii) Microwaves are used in

Page | 119
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) Radar system for aircraft navigation

(b) Long
(c) Microwave ovens
(d) All of the above
(iv) In microwave oven, if frequency of rotation of water molecules is n 1 and frequency of
microwave is n2 then ......
(A) n 1 < n 2 (B) n 1 > n 2 (C) n 1 = n 2 (D) n 1 = 0 and n 2 = ∞
ANSWERS:-
Chapter–8 Electromagnetic Waves
1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (C )

8. (D) + z direction

9. (b)

10. (d)

11. (b)

12. (a)

13. (b)

14. (C) III

15. (B) Microwave

16. (D) Ultraviolet

17. (B) its diffraction (spread) is very less.

18. (A) D, B, A, C
19. (C) both energy and momentum
20. (i) c (ii) a (iii) d (iv) c

Page | 120
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Chapter 10 : Wave Optics
1 In a certain double slit experimental arrangement, interference fringes of width 1.0 mm
each are observed when light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keeping the set-up unaltered
if the source is replaced by another of wavelength 6000 Å, the fringe width will be :
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.00 mm (C) 1.2 mm (D) 1.5 mm

2 Ratio of intensities of two light waves is given by 4: 1. The ratio of the amplitudes of the
waves is: (A) 2: 1 (B) 1: 2 (C) 4: 1 (D) 1 : 4

3 Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed; the
maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are:
(A) 5Ι and Ι (B) 5Ι and 3Ι (C) 9Ι and Ι (D) 9Ι and 3Ι

4 For constructive interference to take place between two monochromatic light waves of
wavelength λ and having initial phase difference zero the path difference should be:
(A) (2n – 1) λ/4 (B) (2n – 1) λ/2 (C) n λ (D) (2n + 1)λ/2

5 Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by
monochromatic blue light of the same intensity:
(A) fringe width will decrease. (B) fringe width will increase.
(C) fringe width will remain unchanged. (D) fringes will become less intense.

6 The distance between two slits in a Young's double slit experiment is 3 mm. The distance
of the screen from the slits is 1 m. Microwaves of wavelength 1 mm are incident on the
plane of the slits normally. The distance of the first maxima on the screen from the central
maxima will be:
(A) 33.33 cm (B) 35.35 cm (C) 17.7 cm (D) 18 cm

7 In a YDSE: D = 1 m, d = 1 mm and λ = 5000 n m. The distance of 1000th maxima from the

central maxima is:
(A) 0.5 m (B) 0.577 m (C) 0.495 m (D) does not exist

8 In a Young's double slit experiment, d = 1 mm, λ = 6000 Å & D = 1 m. The slits produce
same intensity on the screen. The minimum distance between two points on the screen
having 75 % intensity of the maximum intensity is:

Page | 121
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(A) 0.45 mm (B) 0.40 mm (C) 0.30 mm (D) 0.20m

9 If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4 then the visibility [(I max- Imin)/ (Imax +
Imin)] of the fringes is
(A) 4 (B) 4/5 (C) 3/5 (D) 9

10 In Young’s double slit experiment, the interference pattern is found to have an intensity
ratio between bright and dark fringes as 9. This implies:
(A) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 5 and 4 units
(B) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 4 and 1 units
(C) the amplitude ratio of the individual waves is 3
(D) the amplitude ratio of the individual waves is 2

11 In a Young’s double slit experiment the slit is illuminated by a source having two
wavelengths of 400 nm and 600 nm. If distance between slits, d = 1mm, and distance
between the plane of the slit and screen, D = 10 m then the smallest distance from the
central maximum where there is complete darkness is :
(A) 2mm (B) 3mm (C) 12 mm (D) there is no such point

12 If the first minima in a Young’s slit experiment occurs directly infornt of one of the slits.
(distance between slit & screen D = 12 cm and distance between slits d = 5 cm) then the
wavelength of the radiation used is :
(A) 2 cm only (B) 4 cm only (C) 2m, 2/3 cm, 2/5 cm (D) 4cm, 4/3 cm, 4/5 cm

13 In a YDSE arrangement composite lights of different wavelengths λ1 = 560 nm and λ2 =

400 nm are used. If D = 1m, d = 0.1 mm. Then the distance between two completely dark
regions is
(A) 4 mm (B) 5.6 mm (C) 14 mm (D) 28 mm

14 To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle

(A) Should be λ/2, when λ is the wavelength
(B) Should be of the order of Wavelength.
(C) Has no relation to wavelength.
(D) Should be much larger than the wavelength.

15 Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of when 0.2 mm. The angular
width of central maxima in the diffraction pattern is (measured from minimum to
minimum)
(A) 6 x 10-3rad (B) 4 x 10-3rad (C) 2.4 x 10-3 rad (D) 4.5 x 10-3rad

16 A Diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam of red light. What will happen, if the red
light is replaced by the blue light?
(A) Bands disappear
(B) Bands become broader and farther apart
(C) No change will take place

Page | 122
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(D) Diffraction bands become narrower and crowded together.

17 A convex lens of focal length 60cm is cut into two equal parts of perpendicular to its
principal axis. The focal length of each part will be

(A) 60 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 120 cm
(D) 15 cm

18 A convex lens of power P, is cut vertically from the middle into 2 equal parts. The power of
each part will be-
(a) 2P (b) P (c) P/2 (d) P2

19 The angle of refraction when light is incident on a refracting boundary at Critical Angle is-
(A) 00 (B) 900 (C) 450 (D) r = C

20 Which of the following is NOT an application / consequence of Total Internal Reflection-

(A) Mirage (B) Brilliance of diamond (C) Optical fiber (D) Colours visible on
bubbles

21 The refractive index of a prism with respect to air is 2. The Critical Angle for Prism
is……………..
(A) 30◦ (B) 60◦ (C) 45◦ (D) 75◦

22 If the lens is cut horizontally & the pieces are kept side to side as shown in figure, the
effective
power of the combination will be-

(A) 2P (B) P/2 (C) 4P (D) P

23 The critical angle for a medium is highest for ……….. light

(A) Yellow (B) Green (C) Violet (D) Red

24 A light having three colours / wavelengths ie, Red, Violet and Green is incident normally on
a prism as shown in the figure. The emergent rays for the three colours are numbered i, ii
& iii. Identify the red light from the given emergent rays.

Page | 123
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) None of them

25 The power of a thick lens is …………….. than a thin lens.

(A) More (B) Less (C) Equal (D) Data inadequate

26 The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wavefront

(A) reflection (B) diffraction (C) refraction (D) origin of spectra

27 What is the geometric shape of the wavefront that originates when a plane wave passes
through a convex lens?
(A) Converging spherical (B) Plane (C) Diverging spherical (D) None of the above

28 Two light sources are said to be coherent when both the sources of light emit light of
(A)The same amplitude and phase
(B)The same intensity and wavelength
(C)The same speed
(D)The same wavelength and constant phase difference

29 A convex lens of power 4D and a concave lens of power 3D are placed in contact. What is
the equivalent power of the combination?
(A) 7D (B) 4/3 D (C)1D (D) 3/4 D

30 An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform speed 5
m/s and stops at the focus. The image
(A) moves away from the lens with a uniform speed 5 m/s.
(B) moves away from the lens with a uniform acceleration.
(C) moves away from the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.
(D) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.

31 Air bubble in water behaves as

(A) sometimes concave, sometimes convex lens (B) concave lens
(C) convex lens (D) always refracting surface

32 In the formation of a rainbow, the light from the sun on water droplets undergoes
(A) dispersion only. (B) only TIR. (C) dispersion, refraction and TIR. (D)
scattering.

Page | 124
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

33 The length of an astronomical telescope for normal vision (relaxed eye) will be
(A) fo – fe (B)fo /fe (C) fo × fe (D) fo + fe

34 A convex lens is dipped in a liquid, whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of
the lens. Then its focal length will _____ .
(A) become zero (B) remain unchanged (C) become infinite (D) None of
these

35 Absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3. The ratio of velocity of light
in glass and water will be
(a) 4:3 (b) 8:7 (c) 8:9 (d) 3:4

36 Half of the lens is wrapped in black paper. How will it change the image
(A) Size of image is halved
(B) Intensity of image is halved
(C) There is no change in the size of image or intensity
(D) Both size and intensity of the image are changed.

37 What should be increased to increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope?

(A)The power of the lens (B)The focal length of the lens
(C)Lens Aperture (D)Object Size

38 When a thin convex lens of glass 5D is immersed in a liquid, it behaves as a divergent lens
of focal length 100 cm. What is the refractive index of the liquid?
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/5 (D) 5/3

39 For a thin lens when the heights of the object and the image are equal, object distance and
image distance are equal to _____ .
(A) f (B) 4f (C) 3f (D) 2f

40 Which of the following actions will lead to an increase in the magnifying power of an
astronomical telescope?
(A) Increase in the length of the telescope tube.
(B) Interchange the objective and the eyepiece of the telescope.
(C) A small piece of paper on the objective of the telescope pointed towards the moon.
(D) Increase in the focal length of the objective and decrease in the focal length of the eye
piece.

41 The angle of minimum deviation for thin prism of refractive index µ is

(A) (1 - µ)A (B) (µ - 1)A (C) (µ +1)A (D) (µ = 1)A2

42 Optical fibre communication is based on which of the following phenomena

(A) Total internal reflection (B) Scattering (C) Reflection (D) Interference

Page | 125
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

43 The radius of curvature of plane mirror is

(A) infinite (B) zero (C) +5m (D) -5cm

44 The angle of a prism is 600. If green light of refractive index 1.5 passes through it, the angle
of deviation will be
(A) 300 (B) 400 (C) 500 (D) 600

45 If the critical angle for total internal reflection, from a medium to vacuum is 30c, then
velocity of light in the medium is
(A) 6x108 m/s (B) 3 x 108 m/s (C) 2 x 108 m/s (D) 1.5 x 108 m/s

46 In Huygen’s wave theory, the locus of all points oscillating in the same phase is called a
(A) ray (B) vibrator (C) wavefront (D) half period zone

47 When exposed to sunlight, thin films of oil on water often exhibit brilliant colours due to
the phenomenon of
(A) interference (B) diffraction (C) dispersion (D) polarization

48 Which nature of the wavefront is associated with a parallel beam of light?

(A) plane (B) spherical (C) cylindrical (D) all of these

49 A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance
'u' from the lens and measuring the distance 'v' of the image pin. The graph between 'u'
and 'v' plotted by the student should look like

50 In an experiment to find focal length of a concave mirror, a graph is drawn between the
magnitude of u and v. The graph looks like:

Page | 126
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Answer key Ray Optics and Wave Optics

1 C 11 D 21 A 31 B 41 B
2 A 12 A 22 A 32 C 42 A
3 C 13 D 23 D 33 D 43 A
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 C 44 A
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 D
6 B 16 D 26 D 36 B 46 C
7 B 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 A
8 D 18 C 28 D 38 D 48 A
9 B 19 B 29 C 39 D 49 A
10 B&D 20 D 30 C 40 D 50 C

Page | 127
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

CHAPTER—11
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATION
1. Light of frequency 1.9 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive
material. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photocurrent becomes--
(a) quadrupled (b) doubled
(c) halved (d) zero

2. Threshold wavelength for a metal having work function W is X. What is the threshold
wavelength for the metal having work function 2W?
(a) 4λ (b) 2λ
(c) λ/2 (d) λ/4
3. Radiations of frequency v are incident on a photosensitive metal. The maximum K.E. of
the photoelectrons is E. When the frequency of the incident radiation is doubled, what is
the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons?
(a) 2E (b) 4E
(c) E + hv (d) E – hv
4. Maximum kinetic energy (Ek) of a photoelectron varies with frequency (v) of the incident
radiation as

5. The stopping potential V0 for photoelectric emission from a metal surface is plotted along
y-axis and frequency v of incident light along x-axis. A straight line is obtained as shown.
Planck’s constant is given by

(a) slope of the line

(b) product of the slope of the line and charge on electron

Page | 128
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(c) intercept along y-axis divided by charge on the electron

(d) product of the intercept along x-axis and mass of the electron
6. The kinetic energy of an electron is 4 eV. Calculate the de broglie wavelength associated
with it. (h = 6.6 × 10-34 Js, me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)
(a) 5.47 Å (b) 10.9 Å
(c) 6.13 Å (d) None of these
7. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated by the same potential difference. The ratio of
their de broglie wavelengths (λp, /λα) is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) √8 (d) 1/√8
8. Work function of three metals A, B and C are 3.0 eV, 2.83 eV and 2.5 eV respectively. If a
light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident on the metals then
(a) Photoelectrons are emitted from A.
(b) Photoelectrons are emitted from B.
(c) Photoelectrons are emitted from C.
(d) Photoelectrons are emitted from all the metals.
9. Which of the following figure represents the variation of particle momentum and
associated de Broglie wavelength?

10. If K.E. of free electron is doubled, its de Broglie wavelength will change by factor of---
(a) 1/√2 (b) √2
(c) 1/2 (d) 2
11. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle as a
function of height is proportional to ---
(a)H (b)H 1/2
(c)H 0 (d) H-1/2
12. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an α-particle have same energy. Then their de
Broglie wavelengths compared as---
(a)λp = λn > λe > λα (b) λα < λp = λn < λe
(C) λe < λp = λn > λα (d) λe = λp = λn = λα

Page | 129
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

13. The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to
the nucleus with 1 MeV energy is nearly
(a) 1.2 nm (b) 1.2 × 10 -3 nm
-6
(c) 1.2 × 10 nm (d) 1.2 × 10 1 nm
14. An electron is moving with an initial velocity v = v0i and is in a magnetic field B = B0 j. Then,
its de Broglie wavelength --
(a) remains constant. (b) Increases with time.
(c) Decreases with time. (d) Increases and decreases periodically.
15. If the stopping potential for a photoelectron is 3 V, what is the maximum kinetic energy
of the photoelectron?
(a) 3 J (b) 3 eV
(c) 3 W (d) 3 C
16. Photocell is based on which of the following phenomenon --
(a) Thermionic emission (b) Field emission
(c) Photoelectric emission (d) All of these
17. When light falls on a metal surface, no electrons are emitted if the:
(a). Wavelength of light is less than the threshold wavelength
(b). Frequency of light is less than the threshold frequency
(c). Intensity of light is less than a minimum value
(d). Velocity of electrons is zero
18. A metal surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but nothing when hit by yellow
light. The electrons will be ejected when the surface is hit by
(a) blue light (b) orange light
(c) infrared light (d) red light
19. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the photoelectric experiment?
(a) The photocurrent increases with intensity of light.
(b) Stopping potential increases with increase in intensity of incident light.
(c) The photocurrent increases with increase in frequency.
(d) All of these
20. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on
(a) frequency of incident light (b) nature of the emitter material
(c) intensity of incident light (d) both (a) and (b)
21. The figure shows stopping potential V0 and frequency for two different metallic surfaces A
and B. The work function of A, as compared to that of B is

(a) less (b) more

(c) equal (d) nothing can be said

Page | 130
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

22. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a photosensitive
surface for three different radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and va, vb. and vc be
the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively. Then the correct relation is

(a) va = vb and Ia ≠ Ib (b) va = vc and Ia = Ic

(c) va = vb and Ia = Ib (d) vb = vc and Ib = Ic
23. A bulb of 660 watt emits light of wavelength 300 nm. What will be the approximate no. Of
photons emitted by the bulb per second--
(a) 1015 (b) 1017
(c) 1020 (d) 1021
24. The rest mass of a photon of wavelength λ is-
(a) Zero (b) ℎ/𝑐𝜆 (c) h/λ (d) hc /λ

25. The threshold frequency for a metal is 5×1014 Hz. What will be the kinetic energy of the
emitted electron if light of frequency 7×1014 Hz is incident on the metal?
(Planck’s constant h=6.63×10−34 J·s)
(a) 6.63×10−20 J (b) 1.326×10−19 J
−19
(c) 1.989×10 J (d) Zero
26. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is:
(a) hv=hv0 +1/2 mv2 (b) hv0=hv +1/2 mv2
(c)hv=hv0 -1/2 mv 2 (d) 2hv=hv0 + mv2

27. In photoelectric effect, the number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to

(a) Intensity of incident beam. (b) Frequency of incident beam.
(c) Velocity of incident beam. (d) work function of photo cathode
28. Which of the following shows particle nature of light?
(a) Photoelectric effect (b) Refraction
(c) Interference (d) Polarization
29. Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) have the same de Broglie wavelength.
Then,
(a) Their momenta are the same. (b) Their energies are the same.
(c) energy of A1 is greater than the energy of A2 (d) energy of A1 is equal to the
energy of A2
30. Consider the following statements:
I. According to de Broglie hypothesis, particles have wave-like characteristics.
II. When an electron and a proton have the same de Broglie wavelength, they will have
equal momentum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Page | 131
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) I only (b) II only

(c) both I and II (d) neither I nor II

ANSWERS KEY—

1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(a)

11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(d)

21.(a) 22.(a) 23.(d) 24.(a) 25.(b) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(a) 30.(c)

Page | 132
 PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter–12: Atoms

ATOM (MCQ)
1 Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series (c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
2 As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen – like
atom/ion
(a) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same
(b) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
(c) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
(d) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
3 In a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic transitions would involve the maximum
energy change
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 1 (c) n = 4 to n = 2 (d) n = 3 to n = 2
4 The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to lose energy because, they
(a) move randomly (b) jump on nucleus
(c) Radiate electromagnetic waves (d) escape from the atom
5 Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
(a) Coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force (c) Vander Waal’s force (d) gravitational force
6 The size of the atom is proportional to which of the following?
(a) A (b) A1/3 (c) A2/3 (d) A-1/3
7 What is the ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in the Balmer series?
(a) 5 : 9 (b) 5 : 36 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 4
8 -particle scattering is a consequence of :
(a) nuclear force (b) coulomb force (c) gravitational force (d) magnetic force
9 In Rutherford's experiment of a scattering the -particles which helped Rutherford to predict
the existence of nucleus was :
(a) Going straight through the metal foil. (b) Deflected by small angle.
(c) Deflected by large angles. (d) Absorbed by the metal foil.
10 An -particle moving with a constant energy is scattered by the nucleus. The scattering angle
will be maximum when the -particle :
(a) Approaches the nucleus head on. (b) Just passes the nucleus.
(c) Passes at large distance from the nucleus (d) is attracted by the nucleus.
11 According to classical theory, the path of an electron in Rutherford model is :
(a) circular (b) straight line (c) parabolic (d) helical
12 The correct value of scattering angle (when impact parameter b = 0) in an -ray scattering
experiment is :
(a) 90° (b) 270 o (c) 0° (d) 180°
13 -particle of 400 KeV are being bombarded on 82Pb nucleus. The distance of closest approach
for the -particle to the nucleus will be :
(a) 0.59 nm (b) 0.59Å (c) 5.9 pm (d) 0.59pm

Page | 133
 PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

14 According to Bohr's theory there can be an infinite number of electron orbits around the nuc-
leus, however only those orbits are possible for which :
(a) Kinetic energy of electron is integral multiple of h/2n.
(b) Angular momentum is constant.
(c) Angular momentum of electron is integral multiple of h/2.
(d) None of the above.
15 Bohr's quantum condition for electrons orbit is that :
(a) in hydrogen atom electron energy is nE0 where E0 is a constant and n is integer.
(b) the angular momentum of electron about the hydrogen nucleus is nħ.
(c) not more than one electron can occupy a stable orbit.
(d) none of the above.
16 The Bohr's postulate "only those orbits are stable in which the angular momentum of electron
is quantized" can be explained by :
(a) classical mechanics (b) relativistic mechanics
(c) wave mechanics (d) statistical mechanics
17 According to Bohr's theory :
(a) L = nh/2 (b) t = n2h2/2
(c) E = n2h2/4 (d) none of the above
18 For the circular orbit of electron in hydrogen atom :
ke2 ke2
(a)  mv 2 (b) 2  mv 2
r r
2 2
ke mv mv 2
(c)  (d) ke2  2
r r r

19 According the Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of electron in H atom :

(a) nh/2 (b) nh/4 (c) nh/ (d) h/2
20 If ħ = h/2, then the value of momentum of the electron in first orbit of hydrogen atom is :
(a) ħ/r (b) ħ (c) ħ/2r (d) ħr
21 For explaining the atomic structure, Bohr used:
(a) law of conservation of linear momentum. (b) quantization of angular momentum.
(c) law of conservation of quantum frequency. (d) energy conservation
22 An electron emits energy :
(a) Because it is in orbit (b) When it falls into the orbit
(c) When it jumps from one energy level to another (d) When it escape form the atom
23 Which of the following set of values is correct for potential energy (U) and kinetic energy (K) for
an electron in ground state of the hydrogen atom ?
(a) U = 27.2eV,K = +13.6eV (b) U = 13.6eV,K = +13.6eV
(c) U = 6.8eV, K = 6.8eV (d) U = 13.6eV, K = + 27.2eV
24 The expression for Rydebrg's constant is :
me 4 me 4 m2e4 m4e4
(a) R = (b) R = (c) R  (d) R 
8  2 ch3 4  2 ch3 8  2 ch3 8  2 ch3

Page | 134
 PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

25 The figure shows energy levels of an atom origin of six spectral line e.g. line number 5 is
originated by a transition from level B to A. The following set of lines will also be present in
absorption spectrum :

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 4, 5
(c) 2, 3,5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

ANSWER- KEY (ATOM)

Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans.
1 B 7 A 13 D 19 A 25 A
2 C 8 B 14 C 20 A
3 B 9 C 15 B 21 B
4 C 10 A 16 C 22 C
5 A 11 D 17 A 23 A
6 B 12 D 18 A 24 A

Page | 135
 PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

Chapter–13: Nuclei

1 Particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical
properties are called
(a) neutrons (b) electrons (c) protons (d) alpha particles
2 Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
(a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(d) 11 protons and 13 electrons
3 Nuclear forces are
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central part
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central part
(c) spin independent and have no non-central part
(d) spin independent and have a non-central part
4 For a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are
(a) any nuclei (b) heavy nuclei
(c) lighter nuclei (d) nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table
5 The number of protons in an atom of atomic number Z and mass number A is
(a) zero (b) Z (c) A – Z (d) A
6 The atomic number of an element is determined by:
(a) Number of neutrons (b) Number of protons
(c) Number of electrons (d) Sum of protons and neutrons
7 The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two lighter nuclei is called:
(a) Fusion (b) Fission (c) Radioactive decay (d) Beta decay
8 The binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus is a measure of its:
(a) Stability (b) Instability (c) Radioactivity (d) Mass defect
9 The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for nuclei with a mass number around:
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200
10 The binding energy of a nucleus is:
a) Energy needed to break the nucleus into its constituent protons and neutrons
b) Energy needed to create the nucleus from its constituent protons and neutrons
c) Energy released during the formation of the nucleus
d) Both a and c
11 The process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is called:
(a) Fission (b) Fusion (c) Radioactive decay (d) Beta decay
12 1 amu is equivalent to :

Page | 136
 PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(a) (l/12)th of the mass of 6C12 atom. (b) mass of a 6C12 atom.
(c) (1/16)th of the mass of 8O16 atom.
13 As the mass number A increases, the binding energy per nucleon in a nucleus
A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) varies in a way that depends on the actual value of A.
14 The energy of the reaction Li7 + p → 2 He4 is (the binding energy per nucleon in Li7 and He4 nuclei
are 5.60 and 7.06 MeV respectively.)
(A) 17.3 MeV (B) 1.73 MeV
(C) 1.46 MeV (D) depends on binding energy of proton
15 Choose the statement which is true.
(A) The energy released per unit mass is more in fission than in fusion
(B) The energy released per atom is more in fusion than in fission.
(C) The energy released per unit mass is more in fusion and that per atom is more in fission.
(D) Both fission and fusion produce same amount of energy per atom as well as per unit mass.

16 Fusion reaction is possible at high temperature because -

(A) atoms are ionised at high temperature
(B) molecules break-up at high temperature
(C) nuclei break-up at high temperature
(D) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.

17 In a fission reaction 23692U → 117X + 117Y + n + n the average binding energy per nucleon of

X and Y is 8.5 MeV whereas that of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated will be about :
(A) 200 keV (B) 2 MeV (C) 200 MeV (D) 2000 MeV
18 Let Fpp, Fpn and Fnn denote the magnitudes of the nuclear force by a proton on a proton, by a
proton on a neutron and by a neutron on a neutron respectively. When the separation is 1 fm,
(A) Fpp> Fpn = Fnn (B) Fpp= Fpn = Fnn (C) Fpp> Fpn > Fnn (D) Fpp< Fpn = Fnn
19 The stable nucleus that has a radius 1/3 that of Os189 is –
(A) 3Li7 (B) 2He4 (C) 5B10 (D) 6C12
20 Which of the following is a wrong description of binding energy of a nucleus ?
(A) It is the energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent nucleons.
(B) It is the energy released when free nucleons combine to from a nucleus
(C) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the
nucleus
(D) It is the sum of the kinetic energy of all the nucleons in the nucleus
21 The mass number of a nucleus is
(A) always less than its atomic number

Page | 137
 PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(B) always more than its atomic number

(C) equal to its atomic number
(D) sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number

22 For uranium nucleus how does its mass vary with volume?
(A) m α V (B) m α 1/V (C) m α V (D) m α V2
23 The atomic weight of boron is 10.81 g/mole and it has two isotopes 105B and 115B. The ratio (by

number) of 105B : 115B in nature would be :

(A) 19 : 81 (B) 10 : 11 (C) 15 : 16 (D) 81 : 19
24 6
Two lithium Li nuclei in a lithium vapour at room temperature do not combine to form a carbon
12C nucleus because

(A) a lithium nucleus is more tightly bound than a carbon nucleus

(B) carbon nucleus is an unstable particle
(C) it is not energetically favourable
(D) Coulomb repulsion does not allow the nuclei to come very close

25 A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments of mass
number 80 and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 M eV and for daughter
nuclei is 7 M eV and 8 M eV respectively, then the energy released in each decay will be :
(A) 200 M eV (B) -220 M eV (C) 220 M eV (D) 180 M eV

ANSWER- KEY (NUCLEI)

Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans. Q.N. Ans.
1 A 7 B 13 D 19 A 25 C
2 C 8 A 14 A 20 D
3 B 9 B 15 C 21 D
4 C 10 D 16 D 22 A
5 B 11 B 17 C 23 A
6 B 12 A 18 B 24 D

Page | 138
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

CHAPTER 14
SEMICONDUCTOR

1. An ac source of voltage is connected in series with a p-n junction diode and a load resistor.
The correct option for output voltage across load resistance will be :

2. When an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with a small amount of trivalent impurity, then:
(a) its resistance increases
(b) it becomes a p-type semiconductor.
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor.
(d) dopant atoms become donor atoms.
3. In the energy-band diagram of n-type Si, the gap between the bottom of the conduction
band E C and the donor energy level E D is of the order of :
(a) 10 eV
(b) 1 eV
(c) 0.1 eV
( (d) 0 .01 eV
4. Pieces of copper and silicon are initially at room temperature. Both are heated to
temperature T the conductivity of
(a) both increases
(b) both decreases
(c (c) copper increases and Silicon decreases
( (d) copper decreases and Silicon increases
5. If a p-n junction diode is reverse biased,
(a) the potential barrier is lowered.
(b) the potential barrier remains unaffected.
(c) the potential barrier is raised.
( (d) the current is mainly due to majority carriers.
6. At a certain temperature in an intrinsic semiconductor, the electrons and holes
concentration is 1·5x 1016 m-3. When it is doped with a trivalent dopant, hole concentration
increases to 4·5 x1022 m-3. In the doped semiconductor, the concentration of electrons (n e)
will be :
( (a) 3 x106 m-3

Page | 139
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

( (b) 5x 107 m-3

(c) 5x 109 m-3
( ( d) 6·75x 1038 m-3

7. Assertion (A) : In n- type semiconductor the number density of electron is greater than the
number density of holes but the crystal maintains an overall charge neutrality.
Reason (R) : The charge of electrons donated by donor atoms is just equal and opposite to
that of the ionised donor.

8. The threshold voltage for a p-n junction diode used in the circuit is 0·7 V. The type of

biasing and current in the circuit are :

(a) Forward biasing, 0 A
( (b) Reverse biasing, 0 A
(c) Forward biasing, 5 mA
(d) Reverse biasing, 2 Ma

9. Ge is doped with As. Due to doping,

(A) the structure of Ge lattice is distorted.
(B) the number of conduction electrons increases.
( (C) the number of holes increases.
(D) the number of conduction electrons decreases.
10. An n-type semiconducting Si is obtained by doping intrinsic Si with :
(A) Al
(B) B
(C) P
(D) In
11. As shown in the following circuit two ideal diodes are connected. The current flowing

through the circuit is –

(A) 2.31
(B) 1.33 A
(C) 1.71 A
(D) 2.0 A

Page | 140
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

12. Two diodes are shown in figure. In forward biasing resistance of diodes is 50 Ω and in
reverse biasing it is infinite. Find the current flowing through 120 Ω ?

(A) 20 mA
( (B) 25 mA
( (C) 32 mA
(D) 16 mA
13. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity r of a semiconductor is represented by -

14. Two sides of a semiconductor germanium crystal A and B are doped with arsenic and
indium respectively. They are connected to a battery as shown in figure.

The correct graph between the voltage for the arrangement is -

15. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental
frequency in the ripple would be –
(A) 25 Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 70.7 Hz
(D) 100 Hz
16. At absolute zero temperature Si acts as –
(A) non metal

Page | 141
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(B) metal
( (C) insulator
( (D) none of these
17. In the middle of the electron layer of a reverse biased p - n junction, the –
( (A) electric field is zero.
( (B) electric field is maximum.
(C) potential is zero.
(D) potential is maximum.
18. When p - n junction diode is forward biased –
(A) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased.
( (B) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced.
(( (C) both the depletion region and barrier height reduced.
( (D) both the depletion region and barrier height increased.

19. For a pure Si crystal has 5 X 1028 atom m–3. It is doped by 1 PPM concentration of
pentavalent As. Calculate the number of holes. Given that n i = 1.5X 1016 m–3
(A) 4.5 X 10 9 m–3
(B) 5.4 X 10 9 m–3
© 4.5 X 10- 9 m–3
(D) 5.4 X 10- 9 m–3
20. Which of the following diode is in reverse bias?

21. The potential barrier of the p - n junction depends –

(i) On kind of semiconductor material
(ii) On amount of doping
(iii) On temperature

(A) Only (i) and (ii)

(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) 0n all (i), (ii) and (iii)
22 In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would
be -(A) 60 Hz
(B) 120 Hz
(C) zero
(D) 30 Hz

Page | 142
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

23 The direction of the electric field in p - n junction diode is –

(A) from p-side to n-side
(B) from n-side to p-side
(C) randomly oriented
(D) electric field does not exist
24 The forbidden gap between conduction band and valence band is maximum for –
(A) metal
(B) insulator
(C) semiconductor
(D) superconductor
25 A p - n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency
of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly –
(A) 10X1014 Hz
(B) 5X1014 Hz
(C) 1X1014 Hz
(D) 20X1014 Hz
26 In given figure, V0 is the potential barrier across a p-n junction, when no battery is
connected across the junction

(a) 1 and 3 both correspond to forward bias of junction

(b) 3 corresponds to forward bias of junction and 1 corresponds to reverse bias of junction
(c) 1 corresponds to forward bias and 3 corresponds to reverse bias of junction.
(d) 3 and 1 both correspond to reverse bias of junction.

27 In the following diagram ‘S’ is a semiconductor. What would be the change in the value of R
to keep the reading of the ammeter A constant when S is heated?

(a) the value of R needs to be increased

(b) the value of R needs to be decreased
(c ) the value of R need not to be changed
(d) None of above

28 In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from p-region to n-region because

(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them
(b) they move across the junction by the potential difference

Page | 143
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

(c) hole concentration in p-region is more compared to n-region

(d) all of the above

29 In figure shown, assuming the diodes to be ideal, which of the following statements is true?

(a) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reversed biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(b) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A
and vice-versa.
(c) D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(d) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B and vice-
versa.

30 In the following diagram, which bulb out of B1 and B2 will glow?

(a) (b) B1
(c) (d) B2
(e) (f) Both will glow
(g) (h) None will glow

Answer Key Semiconductor

1 (C )
2. (b) it becomes a p-type semiconductor.
3. (d) 0 .01 eV
4. ( d ) Copper decreases and silicon increases
5. (c) the potential barrier is raised
6. (c) 5 x 109 m-3
7. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
8. (a) Forward biasing, 0 A
9. (B) the number of conduction electrons increases
10. (C) P
11. D

Page | 144
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

12. A
13. C
14. A
15. (D) 100 Hz
16. (C) insulator
17. (B) electric field is maximum.
18. (C) both the depletion region and barrier height reduced.
19. A
20. B
21. (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
22. A
23. B
24. (B) insulator
25. (B) 5X1014 Hz
26. B
27. (a) the value of R needs to be increased
28. (c) hole concentration in p-region is more compared to n-region
29. B
30. A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. a c d a b a c d c c
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. b d a b b b a b a d
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. d c d c b

Page | 145
PHYSICS/XII (2024-25)
MCQ BASED QUESTIONS KVS RO JAIPUR

THANK YOU

*NOTE: THE QUESTIONS USED IN THIS WORK ARE FOR THE HELP OF STUDENTS AND ARE DEVELOPED BY
THE CONTENT DEVELOPING TEAM WITH THE HELP OF VARIOUS AVAILABLE SOURCES.

Page | 146