Section I

The Exam

AP® Physics B Exam

SECTION I: Multiple-Choice Questions

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Instructions
At a Glance
Section I of this examination contains 70 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only the
Total Time ovals for numbers 1 through 70 on your answer sheet.
90 minutes
CALCULATORS MAY NOT BE USED IN THIS PART OF THE EXAMINATION.
Number of Questions
70 Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet.
Percent of Total Grade No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use
50% the booklet for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested
Writing Instrument answers is best, completely fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Give
Pen required only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous
mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer.
Sample Question Sample Answer

Chicago is a A B C D E
(A) state
(B) city
(C) country
(D) continent
(E) village

Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do
not spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come
back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that
everyone will know the answers to all the multiple-choice questions.

About Guessing
Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about
which they are not certain. Multiple choice scores are based on the number of
questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers, and no
points are awarded for unanswered questions. Because points are not deducted for
incorrect answers, you are encouraged to answer all multiple-choice questions. On
any questions you do not know the answer to, you should eliminate as many choices
as you can, and then select the best answer among the remaining choices.

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 Section I

Advanced Placement Examination

PHYSICS B
SECTION I

TABLE OF INFORMATION FOR 2011

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 Section I

PHYSICS B

SECTION I

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or
completions. Select the one that is best in each case and mark it on your sheet.

1. If the acceleration of an object is not zero, then all of Questions 5–7 refer to the following figure:
the following could be constant EXCEPT the object’s
m = 0.5 kg
I. speed
II. linear momentum
III. kinetic energy
5m
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only 30°
(D) II only
(E) II and III only
5. If the surface of the incline is frictionless, how long
will it take the block to reach the bottom if it was
2. What happens to the force of gravitational attraction released from rest at the top?
between two small objects if the mass of each object
(A) 0.5 s
is doubled and the distance between their centers is
(B) 1.0 s
doubled?
(C) 1.4 s
(A) It is doubled. (D) 2.0 s
(B) It is quadrupled. (E) 2.8 s
(C) It is halved.
(D) It is reduced fourfold.
(E) It remains the same. 6. If the surface of the incline is frictionless, with what
speed will the block reach the bottom if it was re-
leased from rest at the top?
3. A particle travels in a circular path of radius 0.2 m
(A) 8 m/s
with a constant kinetic energy of 4 J. What is the net
(B) 10 m/s
force on the particle?
(C) 14 m/s
(A) 4N (D) 18 m/s
(B) 16 N (E) 20 m/s
(C) 20 N
(D) 40 N
(E) Cannot be determined from the information 7. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block
given and the incline is 0.4, how much work is done by
the normal force on the block as it slides down the
full length of the incline?
4. Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?
(A) 0J
(A) Displacement (B) 2.0 J
(B) Velocity (C) 4.0 J
(C) Acceleration (D) 4.9 J
(D) Linear momentum (E) 10 J
(E) Potential energy

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 Section I

8. Two satellites are in circular orbit around the earth. E

The distance from Satellite 1 to the earth’s center
is r1, and the distance from Satellite 2 to the earth’s –21 eV
–38 eV
center is r2. If the speed of Satellite 1 is v1, what is
the speed of Satellite 2? –85 eV
(A) v1 r2 r1
(B) v1 r1 r2 –340 eV ground state
(C) v1 (r2 r1 )
(D) v1 (r2 r1 )2 12. The diagram above (not drawn to scale) gives the
2 first few electron energy levels within a single-
(E) v1 (r1 r2 )
electron atom. Which of the following gives the
energy of a photon that could NOT be emitted by
9. Which of the following would increase the capaci- this atom during an electron transition?
tance of a parallel-plate capacitor? (A) 17 eV
(A) Using smaller plates (B) 42 eV
(B) Replacing the dielectric material between the (C) 64 eV
plates with one that had a smaller dielectric (D) 255 eV
constant (E) 302 eV
(C) Moving the plates closer together
(D) Increasing the voltage between the plates
(E) Decreasing the voltage between the plates
13. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal
gas does –150 J of work against its surroundings.
10. A simple harmonic oscillator has a frequency of 2.5 Which of the following describes the heat transfer
Hz and an amplitude of 0.05 m. What is the period during this process?
of the oscillations? (A) 150 J of heat was added to the gas.
(A) 0.4 s (B) 150 J of heat was removed from the gas.
(B) 0.2 s (C) 300 J of heat was added to the gas.
(C) 8s (D) 300 J of heat was removed from the gas.
(D) 20 s (E) No heat was transferred because the process
(E) 50 s was isothermal.

11. What happens to the image formed by a concave

mirror as the object is moved from far away toward 14. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through warm air
the focal point? and at 3500 m/s through brass. What happens to
(A) The image moves away from the mirror and the wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it en-
gets shorter. ters brass from warm air?
(B) The image moves away from the mirror and (A) It decreases by a factor of 20.
gets taller. (B) It decreases by a factor of 10.
(C) The image moves toward the mirror and gets (C) It increases by a factor of 10.
shorter. (D) It increases by a factor of 20.
(D) The image moves toward the mirror and gets (E) The wavelength remains unchanged.
taller.
(E) None of the above

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 Section I

+Q +q
m
fixed in
position
3m

18. The figure above shows two positively charged

particles. The +Q charge is fixed in position, and the
+q charge is brought close to +Q and released from
rest. Which of the following graphs best depicts
the acceleration of the +q charge as a function of its
15. In the figure above, the coefficient of sliding friction
distance r from +Q?
between the small block and the tabletop is 0.2. If
the pulley is frictionless and massless, what will be
the acceleration of the blocks once they are released
from rest? (A) (D)
(A) (0.5)g
a a
(B) (0.6)g
(C) (0.7)g
(D) (0.8)g r r
(E) (0.9)g

16. Two people, one of mass 100 kg and the other of (B) (E)
mass 50 kg, stand facing each other on an ice- a a
covered (essentially frictionless) pond. If the heavier
person pushes on the lighter one with a force F, then

1
(A) the force felt by the heavier person is − F
r r
2
(B) the force felt by the heavier person is –2F
(C)
(C) the magnitude of the acceleration of the lighter
a

1
person will be of the magnitude of the
2
r
acceleration of the heavier person

(D) the magnitude of the acceleration of the lighter 19. A spring of force constant 800 N/m is hung from
a ceiling. A block of mass 4.0 kg is hung from its
person will be twice the magnitude of the lower end and allowed to come to rest. How far will
the block stretch the spring?
acceleration of the heavier person (A) 0.50 cm
(B) 1.0 cm
(E) None of the above (C) 3.2 cm
(D) 5.0 cm
(E) 10.0 cm
17. An object of volume 2 × 10–3 m3 and weight 6 N is
placed into a tank of water, where it floats. What
percentage of the object’s volume is above the sur-
face of the water?
(A) 3%
(B) 12%
(C) 30%
(D) 60%
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 Section I

20. A crane lifts a shipping crate that weighs 5000 N at 24. What is the maximum efficiency of an engine op-
a constant speed of 4 m/s. At what rate is this crane erating between a heat source at 127°C and a heat
doing work on the crate? reservoir (sink) at 27°C?
(A) 1250 W (A) 25%
(B) 2000 W (B) 33%
(C) 4000 W (C) 50%
(D) 10,000 W (D) 67%
(E) 20,000 W (E) 79%

21. Each of the following particles is projected with the 25. A rope stretched between two fixed points can sup-
same speed into a uniform magnetic field B such port transverse standing waves. What is the ratio of
that the particle’s initial velocity is perpendicular to the sixth harmonic frequency to the third harmonic
B. Which one would move in a circular path with frequency?
the largest radius?
(A) 1/2
(A) Proton
(B) 1/ 2
(B) Beta particle
(C) Alpha particle (C) 2
(D) Electron (D) 2 2
(E) Positron (E) 4

22. An astronaut lands on a planet whose mass and 26. How much current does a 60 W light bulb draw if it
radius are each twice that of Earth. If the astronaut operates at a voltage of 120 V?
weighs 800 N on Earth, how much will he weigh on
this planet? (A) 0.25 A
(B) 0.5 A
(A) 200 N (C) 2A
(B) 400 N (D) 4A
(C) 800 N (E) 30 A
(D) 1600 N
(E) 3200 N

23. An object of mass 5 kg is acted upon by exactly four

forces, each of magnitude 10 N. Which of the fol-
lowing could NOT be the resulting acceleration of
the object?
(A) 0 m/s2
(B) 2 m/s2
(C) 4 m/s2
(D) 8 m/s2
(E) 10 m/s2

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 Section I

Questions 27–28 refer to the following plane diagram. 30. A beam of monochromatic light entering a glass
The figure shows four point charges arranged at the window pane from the air will experience a
corners of a square with point B as its center. change in
(A) frequency and wavelength
–Q +Q
(B) frequency and speed
(C) speed and wavelength
B (D) speed only
A• • •C (E) wavelength only

+Q –Q
B

27. A positive charge would experience no net force if

it were placed at which of the three points shown in
the figure?
(A) A only
(B) B only 31. A metal loop of wire shown above is situated in a
(C) C only magnetic field B pointing out of the plane of the
(D) A or B only page. If B decreases uniformly in strength, the in-
(E) A, B, or C duced electric current within the loop is
(A) clockwise and decreasing
28. At which points is the electric potential equal to (B) clockwise and increasing
zero? (C) counterclockwise and decreasing
(A) A only (D) counterclockwise and constant
(B) B only (E) counterclockwise and increasing
(C) C only
(D) A or B only 32. How does λe, the de Broglie wavelength of an elec-
(E) A, B, or C tron (mass = me), compare with λp, the de Broglie
wavelength of a proton (mass = mp) moving with
29. A spherical balloon filled with helium is floating the same kinetic energy as the electron?
in air. If the balloon is inflated until its radius is
(A) λ e = λ p mp / me
doubled, how will the buoyant force on the balloon
be affected? (B) λ e = λ p me / mp
(A) It will decrease by a factor of 4. (C) λ e = λ p (mp / me )2
(B) It will increase by a factor of 2.
(D) λ e = λ p (me / mp )2
(C) It will increase by a factor of 4.
(D) It will increase by a factor of 8. (E) λ e = λ p , because the electron and proton have
(E) It will not be affected. the same magnitude of charge

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 Section I

13
6
C + (?) → 13
7
N+n
string
P 36. Identify the missing particle in the nuclear reaction
rod given above.
θ (A) Electron
(B) Proton
(C) Deuteron
(D) Positron
(E) Gamma-ray photon
33. If the rod in the figure above is uniform and has
mass m, what is the tension in the supporting
string? The rod is free to rotate about point P. Questions 37–38 refer to the circuit shown below:

1
(A) mg sin θ b
2
(B) mg sin θ
a c e
1
(C) mg cos θ
2
d f
1
(D) mg
2
(E) mg
ε

34. Which of the following statements is true concern-

ing phase changes? 37. If each of the resistors in the circuit has a resistance
(A) When a liquid freezes, it releases thermal of 3 Ω, what must be the emf of the battery if the
energy into its immediate environment. circuit draws a total current of 3 A?
(B) When a solid melts, it releases thermal energy
into its immediate environment. 3
(A) V
(C) For most substances, the latent heat of fusion is 10
greater than the latent heat of vaporization. 10
(B) V
(D) As a solid melts, its temperature increases. 3
(E) As a liquid freezes, its temperature decreases.
(C) 10 V

35. Which of the following changes to a double-slit (D) 30 V

interference experiment would increase the widths
of the fringes in the interference pattern that ap- (E) 54 V
pears on the screen?
(A) Use light of a shorter wavelength.
38. Which of the following relates Pb, the rate at which
(B) Move the screen closer to the slits.
energy is dissipated by Resistor b, and Pe, the rate at
(C) Move the slits closer together.
which energy is dissipated by Resistor e?
(D) Use light with a lower wave speed.
(E) Increase the intensity of the light. (A) Pb = 3Pe
(B) Pb = 9Pe
(C) Pb = Pe
(D) Pe = 3Pb
(E) Pe = 9Pb

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 Section I

39. In which of the following situations involving a 42. An object (mass = m) above the surface of the Moon
source of sound and a detector of the sound is it (mass = M) is dropped from an altitude h equal to
possible that there is NO perceived Doppler shift? the Moon’s radius (R). What is the object’s impact
(A) The source travels toward the stationary speed?
detector. (A) GM / R
(B) The detector travels toward the stationary
source. (B) GM / (2 R)
(C) Both the source and detector travel in the same (C) 2GM / R
direction.
(D) Both the source and detector travel in opposite (D) 2GMm / R
directions, with the source and detector (E) GMm / (2 R)
moving away from each other.
(E) Both the source and detector travel in opposite
directions, with the source and detector 43. Traveling at an initial speed of 1.5 × 106 m/s, a
moving toward each other. proton enters a region of constant magnetic field of
magnitude 1.5 T. If the proton’s initial velocity vec-
tor makes an angle of 30° with the magnetic field,
40. If L, M, and T denote the dimensions of length, compute the proton’s speed 4 s after entering the
mass, and time, respectively, what are the dimen- magnetic field.
sions of power? (A) 5.0 × 105 m/s
(A) ML/T 2
(B) 7.5 × 105 m/s
(B) L2M/T2 (C) 1.5 × 106 m/s
(C) M2L/T2 (D) 3.0 × 106 m/s
(D) L2M/T3 (E) 6.0 × 106 m/s
(E) M2L/T3
44. At a distance of 20 m from a source of sound, the
41. Consider two adjacent transparent media. The sound level is 40 dB. If the observer backs up to
speed of light in Medium 1 is v1, and the speed of a distance of 40 m from the source, what will the
light in Medium 2 is v2. If v1 < v2, then total internal sound level be? (Assume no absorption nor reflec-
reflection will occur at the interface between these tion of sound.)
media if a beam of light is (A) 10 dB
(A) incident in Medium 1 and strikes the interface (B) 14 dB
at an angle of incidence greater than (C) 20 dB
sin–1(v1/v2) (D) 28 dB
(B) incident in Medium 1 and strikes the interface (E) 34 dB
at an angle of incidence greater than
sin–1(v2/v1)
(C) incident in Medium 2 and strikes the interface 45. An electric dipole consists of a pair of equal but op-
at an angle of incidence greater than posite point charges of magnitude 4.0 nC separated
sin–1(v1/v2) by a distance of 2.0 cm. What is the electric field
(D) incident in Medium 2 and strikes the interface strength at the point midway between the charges?
at an angle of incidence greater than (A) 0
sin–1(v2/v1) (B) 9.0 × 104 N/C
(E) Total internal reflection is impossible in the (C) 1.8 × 105 N/C
situation described. (D) 3.6 × 105 N/C
(E) 7.2 × 105 N/C

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 Section I

46. A lightweight toy car crashes head-on into a heavier 49. Assume that the Moon (mass = m) orbits Earth
toy truck. Which of the following statements is true (mass = M) in a circular path of radius R. What is
as a result of the collision? the Moon’s orbital angular momentum with respect
I. The car will experience a greater impulse to Earth’s center?
than the truck. (A) GmM / R
II. The car will experience a greater change in
momentum than the truck. (B) GmMR
III. The magnitude of the acceleration experi- (C) m GM / R
enced by the car will be greater than that
(D) m GMR
experienced by the truck.
(E) m GM / R 2
(A) I and II only
(B) II only
(C) III only 50. In an experiment designed to study the photo-
(D) II and III only electric effect, it is observed that low-intensity
(E) I, II, and III visible light of wavelength 550 nm produced no
photoelectrons. Which of the following best
describes what would occur if the intensity of
47. A projectile is launched with an initial velocity of this light were increased dramatically?
magnitude a at an angle β to the horizontal. Find its
(A) Almost immediately, photoelectrons would be
maximum vertical displacement, ignoring effects
produced with a kinetic energy equal to the
due to the air.
energy of the incident photons.
(A) (a2 sin 2β)/(2g) (B) Almost immediately, photoelectrons would be
(B) (a2 sin2β)/(2g) produced with a kinetic energy equal to the
(C) (a2 sin 2β)/g energy of the incident photons minus the
(D) (a2 sin2β)/g work function of the metal.
(E) (a sin β cos β)/g (C) After several seconds, necessary for the
electrons to absorb sufficient energy from
the incident light, photoelectrons would be
produced with a kinetic energy equal to the
energy of the incident photons.
θmax (D) After several seconds, necessary for the
electrons to absorb sufficient energy from
the incident light, photoelectrons would be
θ produced with a kinetic energy equal to the
energy of the incident photons minus the
work function of the metal.
(E) Nothing would happen.
48. A simple pendulum executes simple harmonic mo-
tion as it swings through small angles of oscillation.
If θmax denotes the amplitude of the oscillations,
which of the following statements is true?
(A) When θ = 0, the tangential acceleration is 0.
(B) When θ = θmax, the tangential acceleration is 0.
(C) When θ = 0, the speed is 0.
(D) When θ = 0, the restoring force is maximized.
(E) When θ = θmax, the speed is maximized.

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 Section I

I 55. The plates of a capacitor are charged to a potential

difference of 5 V. If the capacitance is 2 mF, what is
a the charge on the positive plate?
(A) 0.005 C
I (B) 0.01 C
(C) 0.02 C
51. Electric current is established in each of two long (D) 0.5 C
parallel wires, as shown in the figure above. De- (E) 0.1 C
scribe the force per unit length on each wire.

(A) attractive, strength = (µ0/2π)I2/a2 56. An object of mass 2 kg increases in speed from
2 m/s to 4 m/s in 3 s. Calculate the total work per-
(B) repulsive, strength = (µ0/2π)I2/a2 formed on the object during this time interval.
(C) attractive, strength = (µ0/2π)I2/a (A) 4J
(B) 6J
(D) repulsive, strength = (µ0/2π)I2/a (C) 12 J
1 2 (D) 36 J
(E) attractive, strength = (µ0/2π)I2/( a)
2 (E) Cannot be determined from the information
given
52. An object is placed 100 cm from a plane mirror.
How far is the image from the object?
57. A confined ideal gas undergoes a cyclical process
(A) 50 cm in three steps—an isobaric step, followed by an iso-
(B) 100 cm choric step, followed by an isothermal step. Which
(C) 150 cm of the following must be true?
(D) 200 cm
(E) 300 cm (A) The change in internal energy of the gas is
equal to the work done during the isobaric
step.
53. What happens to the pressure, P, of an ideal gas if (B) The change in internal energy of the gas is
the temperature is increased by a factor of 2 and the equal to the work done during the isobaric
volume is increased by a factor of 8? step minus the work done during the
(A) P decreases by a factor of 16. isothermal step.
(B) P decreases by a factor of 4. (C) The work done during the isothermal step is
(C) P decreases by a factor of 2. equal but opposite to the work done during
(D) P increases by a factor of 4. the isochoric step.
(E) P increases by a factor of 16. (D) The total work done during the cycle is
positive.
(E) The total work done during the cycle is equal
54. Two nuclides that have the same excess number of but opposite to the net amount of heat
neutrons over protons are called isodiapheres. Which transferred.
of the following is an isodiaphere of 68
30
Zn ?
67
(A) 31
Ga
74
(B) 32
Ge
75
(C) 33
As
72
(D) 34
Se
78
(E) 35
Br

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 Section I

58. How much force is required to lift a 50-newton 62. Lenz’s law concerning induced emf can be viewed
object with an acceleration of 10 m/s2? most directly as a result of which of the following
(A) 10 N principles?
(B) 50 N (A) Gauss’s law
(C) 100 N (B) Ampere’s law
(D) 150 N (C) Biot-Savart law
(E) 200 N (D) Conservation of charge
(E) Conservation of energy
59. Why do baseball catchers wear a mitt rather than just copper sphere
using their bare hands to catch a pitched baseball? (with cavity)
(A) The impulse delivered to the catcher’s hand is
reduced due to the presence of the mitt. plastic ball
(B) The force on the catcher’s hand is reduced
because of the increased area provided by
the mitt.
insulating
(C) The baseball’s change in momentum is reduced stand
due to the presence of the mitt.
(D) The force on the catcher’s hand is reduced
because the mitt increases the time of 63. The figure above shows a solid copper sphere carry-
impact. ing a charge of +1 mC that contains a hollow cavity.
(E) The force on the catcher’s hand is reduced Which of the following best describes what will
because the mitt decreases the time of occur when a plastic ball carrying a charge of +1 mC
impact. is placed inside the cavity?
(A) A charge of +1 mC will appear on the wall of
60. A liquid flows at a constant flow rate through a pipe the cavity, leaving zero net charge on the
with circular cross-sections of varying diameters. At outer surface of the sphere.
one point in the pipe, the diameter is 2 cm and the (B) A charge of +1 mC will appear on the wall of
flow speed is 18 m/s. What is the flow speed at an- the cavity, leaving a charge of –2 mC on the
other point in this pipe, where the diameter is 3 cm? outer surface of the sphere.
(A) 4 m/s (C) A charge of –1 mC will appear on the wall of
(B) 6 m/s the cavity, leaving a charge of –2 mC on the
(C) 8 m/s outer surface of the sphere.
(D) 12 m/s (D) A charge of –1 mC will appear on the wall of
(E) 27 m/s the cavity, leaving a charge of +2 mC on the
outer surface of the sphere.
(E) Nothing will happen.
61. A bi-convex lens has a radius of curvature of mag-
nitude 20 cm. Which of the following best describes
the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed
30 cm from the lens?
(A) real, inverted, height = 1 cm
(B) virtual, upright, height = 0.25 cm
(C) real, upright, height = 1 cm
(D) virtual, inverted, height = 0.25 cm
(E) real, inverted, height = 4 cm

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 Section I

64. Wire Y is made of the same material but has twice light bulb
the diameter and half the length of Wire X. If Wire
X has a resistance of R then Wire Y would have a
resistance of insulating handle
R
(A)
8
R
(B)
2
(C) R

(D) 2R
ε
(E) 8R
variable
resistor
65. How much work is required to charge a 10 µF
capacitor to a potential difference of 100 V?
(A) 0.005 J 67. In the figure shown above, a loop of metal wire
(B) 0.01 J containing a tiny light bulb is attached to an insulat-
(C) 0.05 J ing handle and placed over a coil of wire in which
(D) 0.1 J a current can be established by a source of emf and
(E) 0.5 J controlled by a variable resistor. The plane of the
top loop is parallel to the plane of the bottom coil.
Which of the following could NOT cause the bulb to
light?
(A) Rotating the handle 90° while keeping the
plane of the top loop parallel to the plane of
I II III IV the bottom coil
(B) Raising the handle up and away from the coil
(C) Lowering the handle down toward the coil
66. A fluid flows through a pipe of changing cross- (D) Decreasing the resistance of the coil
section as shown. In which section would the (E) Increasing the resistance of the coil
pressure of the fluid be greatest?
(A) Section I
(B) Section II
(C) Section III
(D) Section IV
(E) All sections have the same pressure.

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 Section I

68. Which of the following types of electromagnetic 70. A uniform bar is lying on a flat table. Besides the
radiation has the longest wavelength? gravitational and normal forces (which cancel), the
(A) Gamma rays bar is acted upon by exactly two other forces, F1 and
(B) Ultraviolet F2, which are parallel to the surface of the table. If
(C) Blue light the net force on the rod is zero, then which one of
(D) X-rays the following is true?
(E) Orange light (A) The net torque on the bar must also be zero.
(B) The bar can accelerate translationally if F1 and
F2 are not applied at the same point.
69. Two traveling waves of equal frequency, one of
(C) The net torque will be zero if F1 and F2 are
amplitude 4 cm and the other of amplitude 6 cm,
applied at the same point.
superimpose in a single medium. Which of the fol-
(D) The bar cannot accelerate translationally or
lowing best describes the displacement, D, of the
rotationally.
resultant wave?
(E) None of the above
(A) 2 cm ≤ D ≤ 10 cm
(B) D = 5 cm
(C) D = 10 cm
(D) 10 cm ≤ D ≤ 12 cm
(E) 12 cm ≤ D ≤ 24 cm

END OF SECTION I

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 Section II

PHYSICS B
SECTION II
Free-Response Questions
Time—90 minutes
6 required questions. Questions 1–4 are worth 15 points each. Questions 5–6 are worth 10 points each.
Percent of total grade—50

General Instructions

Use a separate piece of paper to answer these questions.

Show your work. Be sure to write CLEARLY and LEGIBLY. If you make an error, you may save time by crossing it out
rather than trying to erase it.

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 Section II

ADVANCED PLACEMENT PHYSICS B EQUATIONS FOR 2011

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 Section II

ADVANCED PLACEMENT PHYSICS EQUATIONS FOR 2011

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 Section II

PHYSICS B

SECTION II

Time—90 minutes

6 Questions

Directions: Answer all six questions. The suggested time is 17 minutes for answering each of questions 1–4, and about
11 minutes for answering each of questions 5–6. The parts within a question may not have equal weight.

1. (15 points)
A light spring of natural length 10 cm with force constant k = 500 N/m is embedded vertically in the
ground. A ball of mass m = 0.15 kg is placed on top of the spring, which is compressed 8.0 cm; when
released, the spring pushes the ball. When the ball reaches ground level, it leaves its light supporting
platform and continues vertically upward. When it reaches the top of its path, a batter strikes the ball at an
angle θ0 to the horizontal. Ignore air resistance.

θ0

h
ground

10 cm

(a) Find the height h at which the batter strikes the ball.
(b) If the batter gives the ball an initial velocity of 30 m/s with θ0 = 0 by striking the ball with an impact
time of 4 ms, determine:
(i) the average force exerted on the ball by the bat;
(ii) how long the ball is in flight after it’s been hit;
(iii) how far the ball travels horizontally.
(c) If the ball failed to release from the platform, with what frequency would it oscillate?

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 Section II

2. (15 points)
ε
The figure below shows an electric circuit containing a source of emf, , a variable resistor (r) and a resistor
of fixed resistance R. The resistor R is immersed in a sealed beaker containing a mass m of water, currently
at temperature Ti. When the switch S is closed, current through the circuit causes the resistor in the water
to dissipate heat, which is absorbed by the water. A stirrer at the bottom of the beaker simply ensures that
the temperature is uniform throughout the water at any given moment. The apparatus is well-insulated
(insulation not shown), and it may be assumed that no heat is lost to the walls or lid of the beaker or to the
stirrer.

ε S

variable
resistor, r

lid

water

stirrer

(a) ε
Determine the current in the circuit once S is closed. Write your answer in terms of , r, and R.
(b) How much heat is dissipated by the resistor R in time t?
(c) (i) Give an equation that expresses T, the temperature of the water as a function of time t since
ε
turning on the circuit. Write your answer in terms of , r, R, Ti, m, and c (the specific heat of
water).
[question continues on next page]

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 Section II

(ii) On the axes below, provide a sketch of T vs. t. Be sure to mark T = Ti at t = 0.

(d) Explain briefly how the temperature of the water can be increased more rapidly by adjusting the
rotation rate of the stirrer.

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 Section II

3. (15 points)
A cyclotron is a device used to accelerate charged particles to high speeds. It consists of two hollow contain-
ers—called dees because of their shape—facing each other and separated by a small gap. They are immersed
in a uniform magnetic field, B, and are attached to a source of alternating voltage. A charged particle is pro-
jected from the center of the cyclotron into Dee #1, and the magnetic force causes it to turn in a circle. When
it completes its semicircular path within one dee, the polarity of the voltage is reversed, and the particle is
accelerated across the gap into the adjacent dee. This process continues, and the particle spirals outward
at faster and faster speeds, until it emerges from Dee #2. Notice that the voltage must be alternated twice
during each revolution of the particle. The figure below shows a view—looking down from above—of a
cyclotron.
d

Dee #1 Dee # 2
region containing
magnetic field

charged
particle
exit

~
alternating
voltage
(a) Explain why the electric field in the gap must be used to increase the speed of the particle.

Assume that the charged particle to be accelerated by the cyclotron is a proton.

(b) Should the magnetic field point into the plane of the page or out of the plane of the page in order to
cause the particle to rotate clockwise as shown in the figure?

For each of the following, write your answer in terms of the magnetic field strength B, the proton’s charge
(+e) and mass (m), and fundamental constants.

(c) Show that the time to complete one revolution does not depend on the speed of the proton, and
determine this orbital period.

(d) How many revolutions does the proton make per second?

(e) What must be the frequency (in Hz) of the alternating voltage?

(f) If the maximum radius of the proton’s orbit is R, what is its maximum kinetic energy upon exiting?
(Your answer should also include R.)

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 Section II

4. (15 points)
The figure below shows two boxes attached by a light cord that runs over a frictionless peg. The mass of the
block on the 60° incline is M = 8 kg, and the mass of the block on the 45° incline is m = 2 kg.

M
m

60° 45°

Assume that both inclined surfaces are frictionless for parts (a), (b), and (c).

(a) Find the acceleration of the blocks once they are released from rest.
(b) What is the total force exerted by the cord on the peg?
(c) If block M is released from rest at a height of H = 1.5 m above the bottom of the triangle, find its
speed when it reaches the bottom.
(d) Answer the question posed in part (a) assuming that the coefficient of sliding friction between the
blocks and the inclined surfaces is 0.2.

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 Section II

5. (10 points)
The figure below is a view from above of two clay balls moving toward each other on a frictionless surface.
They collide completely inelastically at the indicated point and are observed to then move in the direction
indicated by the post-collision velocity vector, v’. The masses are m1 = 200 g and m2 = 100 g, and the speed
of m1 just before impact is v1 = 6.0 m/s.

m1

m2
45°
60°
v1
v2
•

v'

(a) What is v2?

(b) What is v’, the common speed of the clay balls immediately after the collision?

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 Section II

6. (10 points)
A cylindrical tank 50 m high and 60 m in diameter resting on level ground is completely filled with water which
is open to the air. A worker accidentally pokes a small hole in the side of the tank, 35 m above the base. The water
then flows out through the hole at a rate of 3 × 10–4 m3/min. The tank is shown in the figure below.

60 m

50 m

35 m

(a) Determine the speed with which the water exits the hole.
(b) What is the diameter of the hole?
(c) How far from the base of the tank does the stream of water initially hit the ground?

STOP

END OF EXAM

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