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Answer Keys: AIATS For Two Year Medical-2025 (XI Studying-P1) - Test-01

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

11 views33 pages

Answer Keys: AIATS For Two Year Medical-2025 (XI Studying-P1) - Test-01

Uploaded by

hariprasad j

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Answer keys : AIATS for Two Year Medical-2025(XI Studying-P1)_Test-01 You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
You scored 0 of 4 This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Question : 3
only one is correct.
The radius of a circle is 1.21 metre. Its area according to the rule of significant figures is (π = 3.14)
Question : 1 skipped
Options:
Celestial and terrestrial mechanics was unified by which scientist?
4.597 m2
Options:
4.59 m2
Albert Einstein

Isaac Newton 4.60 m2

Maxwell 4.6 m2

Faraday Solution :
Answer (3)
Solution :
Hint: Area of circle = πr2
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Celestial and terrestrial mechanics was unified by Issac Newton. Sol.: Area = π(1.21)2 = 4.5972 m2
Since the number 1.21 has three significant figures, therefore the answer should have three significant figures. Hence, the
answer will be 4.60 m2
You scored 0 of 4

Phy-Section A You scored 4 of 4

This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct. Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Question : 2 skipped
only one is correct.
Indian scientist who won Nobel prize for physics is Question : 4

Options: The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is

J.C. Bose
Options:
H. J. Bhabha
[ML2T–2]
Sir C.V. Raman
[ML2T2]
Vikram Sarabhai
[M2L2T2]
Solution :
Answer (3) [M2L–2T–2]
Hint & Sol.: Sir C.V. Raman won Nobel Prize for physics in 1930.
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Unit of energy = kg m2 s–2
∴ [KE] = [ML2T–2]

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct. only one is correct.

Question : 5 Question : 7

Side length of a square plate is measured to be , then perimeter of the plate is A car travelling with a velocity of 54 km/h slowed down to 36 km/h in 25 s. The retardation of the car is

Options: Options:

0.3 m/s2

0.2 m/s2

0.1 m/s2

0.5 m/s2

Solution : Solution :
Answer (3) Answer (2)
Hint: Perimeter of square plate = 4 × side length
Hint:
Sol.:
P=
Sol.: a = =
P= m

a=– m/s2
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 6

Which of the following is the most precise measurement?

Options:

0.001 m3

0.010 m3

0.011 m3

0.0001 m3

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Precision is related to least count.
You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 8 Question : 9

A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and undergoes acceleration as shown in a–t diagram. The velocity of particle after 5 s will Person A has an acceleration of 3 m/s2 due east and person B has an acceleration 4 m/s2 due west. The acceleration of A
be w.r.t. B is

Options:

7 m/s2

5 m/s2

1 m/s2

6 m/s2

Solution :
Options: Answer (1)

Hint:
15 m/s
Sol.: =
10 m/s

9 m/s

Zero

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Area under a-t graph gives change in velocity
Sol.: = Area under a-t graph
v – 0 = (3 × 4) – (3 × 1)
v = 12 – 3 = 9 m/s

You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 10 Question : 11

Two trains having lengths l1 and l2 are running in the opposite directions with speeds v1 and v2 on parallel tracks. In what If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental quantities, then the dimensions of mass are
time they will completely cross each other?
Options:
Options:
[FVT–1]

[FV–1T]

[FV–1T–1]

[FVT–2]

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: [M] = [MLT–2]x [LT–1]y [T]z
[M] = [Mx] [Lx+y] [T–2x-y+z]
Comparing both sides,
x =1 and x + y = 0
Solution :
∴ y = –1
Answer (4)
Also, –2x – y + z = 0
Hint: Relative velocity of the given trains = v1 + v2
(–2×1)–(–1) + z = 0
z=1
Sol.:
∴ [M] = [FV–1T1]
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 12 Question : 13

If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 3%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will If in a vernier callipers n1 VSD coincides with n2 MSD, then the least count of vernier calliper is (given 1 MSD = 1 mm)
be
Options:
Options:

12%

Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint: V = πR3

Sol.: =
Solution :
Answer (3)
= 3 × 3% Hint & Sol.:
Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
∴ Percentage error in volume determination is 9%
LC = 1 MSD – MSD

LC =

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 14 Question : 15

The volume of an object is measured to be 0.2350 × 10–2 m3. The number of significant figures in the given measurement A new system of units is introduced in which length is measured in 10 metre, mass in 100 kg and time in 30 s. The
is numerical value of 1 J in the new system is

Options: Options:

Three

Two

Six

Four

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: V = 0.2350 ×10–2 m3
Leading zeroes are always insignificant and trailing zeroes after decimal are significant
Hence there are four significant figures in the given measurement.
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: n1u1 = n2u2; [E] = [ML2T–2]

Sol.: 1 = n2

1 = n2 × ⇒ n2 =
You scored -1 of 4 You scored -1 of 4

Question : 16 Question : 18

Which of the following relation can be deduced using dimensional analysis? A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 40 m/s from ground. The time after which the ball will strike the ground
(Symbols have their usual meanings) is (g = 10 m/s2)

Options: Options:
v = u + at
8s
F = ma
4s

16 s

10 s

Solution :
Solution : Answer (1)
Answer (2) Hint: Total time of flight = Time of ascent + time of descent
Hint & Sol.: Relation containing product of different physical quantities can be deduced by the dimensional analysis. Also Time of ascent = Time of descent
Constant of proportionality cannot be deduced by this method. Sol.: Time of ascent :-
v = u + at ⇒ 0 = 40 - 10 × t
t=4s
Time of flight = 4 × 2 = 8 s
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 17

The displacement of an object as a function of time is given as x = t + 3t2 + 2, where x is in metre and t is in second. The
instantaneous velocity of the object at t = 4 s is

Options:

24 m/s

27 m/s

25 m/s

20 m/s

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint: Instantaneous velocity ⇒ v =

Sol.: v = (t + 3t2 + 2) ⇒ v = 1 + 6t

v (t = 4) = 1 +(6 × 4) = 25 m/s

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 19 Question : 20

A person travels along a straight road and covers half of the total distance with speed v1 and other half with speed v2. The
If acceleration-time relation for a vehicle is given by , then velocity as a function of time is given by (at t = 0, u = 0)
mean speed of the person is

Options:
Options:

Solution :
Answer (3)
Solution : Hint:
Answer (1)

Hint: Mean speed = Sol.: = ⇒v = ×

Sol.:
v=

<v> =

<v> =
You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 21 Question : 22

The correct velocity-time graph representing positive acceleration is A particle is moving on a straight line and has initial velocity equal to 5 m/s. If the particle has constant acceleration equal to
4 m/s2, then the distance covered by it in 3rd second is
Options:
Options:

10 m

15 m

12 m

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint: =u+ (2n –1)

Sol.: =5+ (2 × 3 – 1)

= 5 + 2(5) = 15 m

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Slope of velocity-time graph gives instantaneous acceleration
Sol.: Only in graph (3) slope is positive at every point, hence it shows positive acceleration.

You scored 0 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 23 skipped Question : 24

Two cars A and B start from rest from same point and move in same direction with accelerations 1 m/s2 and 4 m/s2 A ball is released from the top of a tower. Its speed at half of height of the tower is v0, the height of the tower is
respectively. The time at which the separation between them become 5400 m is
Options:
Options:

60 s

30 s

90 s

50 s

Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint: Relative acceleration: = –

Sol.: Acceleration of B w.r.t. A

= – Solution :
Answer (1)
= 4 – 1 = 3 m/s2 ...(1) Hint: Apply 2as = v2 – u2
Sol.: Let the height of the tower is h
Since the relative acceleration is constant,
hence equations of motion are applicable.

= +

5400 = 0 + × 3 × t2

t2 = = 3600

t = 60 second

2×g× =

h=
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 25 Question : 26

A vehicle is moving on a straight road and its velocity as a function of time is given by v = αt2 + βt. The average velocity of A particle moves along x-axis and covers 100 m with speed 4 m/s, next 200 m with 10 m/s and then next 300 m with 5 m/s.
the vehicle between t = 0 to t = t is given by The average speed of the particle for the whole journey is

Options: Options:

5 m/s

5.7 m/s

αt + β
6.7 m/s

6.3 m/s

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint: Average speed =

Solution :
Answer (4) Sol.: t1 = = 25 s; t2 = = 20 s; t3 = = 60 s

∴ <v> = = = 5.7 m/s

Hint: < v > =

You scored 4 of 4
Sol.: Given, v = αt2 + βt
Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
<v>=
Question : 27

Which of the following is not the property of

gravitational force?
= =
Options:

It is conservative in nature

It is the strongest force in nature

It is always attractive in nature

It obeys inverse square law

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Gravitational force is the weakest force in nature.

You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 28 Question : 30

The correct statement regarding significant figures is The velocity of a particle is given v = α sin(ωt) + β e–2t, where t is time and α and β are dimensional constants. The unit of
αβ is
Options:

The trailing zeroes are always significant Options:

All zeroes appearing between two non-zero digits are insignificant m s–1

The trailing zeroes in a number having a decimal point are significant m2 s–2

Non-zero digits in a number may be insignificant m2 s2

m s–2
Solution :
Answer (3) Solution :
Hint & Sol.: Answer (2)
• The trailing zeroes are significant only when the number has decimal point.
Hint: sin(ωt) and e–2t are dimensionless.
• All zeroes appearing between two non-zero digits are significant.
Sol.: [v] = [α] = [β]
• Non-zero digits in a number are always significant.
Since v is velocity, there α and β also have dimensions of velocity.
∴ αβ = (m s–1) (m s–1) = m2 s–2

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 29

The dimensions of linear momentum of a particle in mass, length and time respectively are

Options:

(1, 1, –1)

(1, 2, –1)

(0, 2, –1)

(1,1,1)

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: P = mv
Sol.: Unit of linear momentum = kg m s–1
∴ [P] = [MLT–1]
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 31 Question : 32

Mass of an object is measured and the following readings were observed: A particle starts from a point and covers a total distance of 72 metre, then the displacement of the particle cannot be
1.72 g, 1.69 g, 1.70 g, 1.73 g
The mean absolute error of the observations is Options:

Options: 71.5 m

0.01 g 67.5 m

0.02 g 72.5 m

0.03 g 70 m

0.016 g Solution :
Answer (3)
Solution : Hint & Sol.: |Displacement| ≤ Distance
Answer (2)
Hint: Absolute error =

Mean absolute error =

Sol.: amean = = 1.71 g

Δa1 = |1.71–1.72| = 0.01

Δa2 = |1.71–1.69| = 0.02
Δa3 = |1.71–1.70| = 0.01
Δa4 = |1.71–1.73| = 0.02

Δam =

= = 0.015

Rounding off to two decimal places, the answer will be 0.02 g

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 33 Question : 34

A bike accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate b and comes to A body is dropped from a tower of height h. The time taken by the body to cover last one-third of the journey is
rest. If total time elapsed is t0, then maximum velocity acquired by the bike will be
Options:
Options:

Solution :
Solution : Answer (1)
Answer (2) Hint: use equation of motion
Hint: Draw velocity-time graph for the given situation

Sol.:
Sol.:

v = u + at ⇒ vm = at1 ...(i) Total time of flight; T = ...(i)

0 = vm – b(t0 – t1) ⇒ vm = b (t0 – t1) ...(ii)
Eliminate t1 from equation (i) and (ii), Time taken to cover distance

vm = b ⇒ vm =
t1 = ...(ii)

∴ Time taken to cover last distance

t' = T – t1 =

t' =
You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A Phy-Section B
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
only one is correct. 10 questions

Question : 35 Question : 37

Which of the following statement is correct regarding one dimensional motion of a body? The density of a fluid is 700 kg/m3. Its density in CGS system is

Options: Options:
A body must have zero acceleration when its velocity is zero
0.7 g/cc
Average velocity and average speed are always equal for a body
0.7 g/m3
Instantaneous velocity and instantaneous speed are always equal
70 g/cc

A body can have constant speed with non-zero acceleration

70 g/m3

Solution : Solution :
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Hint: In one dimensional motion, a body can only move in a line. Hint: CGS unit of mass is g and length is cm.
Sol.: Sol.: n1u1 = n2u2
• A body can have non-zero acceleration when its velocity is zero. For example, motion under gravity
[ρ] = [ML–3]
• Instantaneous velocity is always equal to instantaneous speed. Average velocity and average speed may or may not be equal.
• In one dimensional motion, acceleration always changes speed. 700 = n2

You scored 0 of 4 700 = n2

Phy-Section B 700 = n2 (10–3) (106)

This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions n2 = ⇒ n2 = 0.7

Question : 36 skipped ∴ Density in CGS unit is 0.7 g/cc

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Statement I: A vernier calliper is more precise than a meter scale.
Statement II: Lower value of least count of an instrument result in more error.

Options:

Only (I)

Only (II)

Both (I) and (II)

Neither (I) nor (II)

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: A vernier calliper is more precise than a meter scale.
Lower value of least count results in less error.

You scored 0 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions 10 questions

Question : 38 skipped Question : 39

A physical quantity is given by P = [MxLyTz]. The relative error in measurement of M, L and T are a, b and c respectively. A car moving with speed 30 m s–1 can be stopped by the application of brakes in a distance of 81 m. If the speed of the car
Then, the relative error in quantity P is is 20 m s–1, it can be stopped in (Assuming uniform retardation]

Options: Options:
a+b+c
36 m

81 m

72 m

60 m

ax + by + cz Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Assume that the brakes cause same constant retardation in both the cases.
Solution : Sol.: Apply equation of motion
Answer (4)
2as = v2 – u2
Hint: = + + 2 × a × 81 = 02 – 302 ...(i)
2 × a × s = 02 – 202 ...(ii)
Sol.: = (x × a) + (y × b) + (z × c)
=

s= = 36 m
You scored 0 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 40 skipped Question : 42

A police jeep is moving with 80 m/s, chasing a thief's car which is moving with 50 m/s. Police fires a bullet with muzzle The displacement of a particle in a straight-line motion is given by s = t2 – 2t + 1. The correct representation of its velocity
velocity of 200 m s–1, then the speed of the bullet as seen by the thief will be with respect to time is

Options: Options:

330 m/s

230 m/s

150 m/s

200 m/s

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Muzzle velocity of a bullet is the velocity of bullet w.r.t. the gun.
Sol.: Velocity of bullet w.r.t. ground (vb/g) is
200 + 80 = 280 m/s
Velocity of bullet as seen by the thief:
= –
vb/T = 280 – 50 = 230 m/s

You scored -1 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions

Question : 41

Assertion: A lift is going down with decreasing speed means its acceleration is upwards.
Reason: Speed is decreasing because acceleration and velocity are in opposite direction.

Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
Hint:
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

Assertion is true but reason is false Sol.: v = (t2 – 2t – 1) ⇒ v = 2t – 2

Both assertion and reason are false At t = 0 ⇒ v = –2; At t = 1 ⇒ v = 0

And the slope is constant equal to 2.
Hence the graph will be
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Velocity of the lift is downwards but its magnitude is decreasing, it means the lift is retarding. Hence its acceleration
is upwards.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 43 Question : 44 skipped

A particle X starts from rest at t = 0 with an acceleration 3 m/s2. At t = 2 s, another particle Y starts from rest with an A body of mass kg is moving with a speed of m/s. Its kinetic energy will be
acceleration a0. If they travel equal distance in the 5th second from t = 0, then the value of a0 is
Options:
Options:
J
5.2 m/s2
J
5.1 m/s2
J
5.4 m/s2
J
5.8 m/s2
Solution :
Solution : Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Hint: K = mv2; = +2
Hint:

Sol.: K = × 2 × 102 = 100 J

Sol.: For particle X: ...(i)

=
For particle Y: ...(ii)

Given, = ΔK =

= ΔK = 5 + 4 = 9
∴ Kinetic energy = J

a0 = m/s2
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 45 Question : 47

The dimensional formula of a physical quantity whose unit is pascal per second, is A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and then 2x with velocity v2 on a straight line in the same direction. If his
average velocity is v, then the correct expression for v is
Options:
Options:
[MLT–3]

[ML–1T–3]

[ML–1T–2]

[M–1L–1T]

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint & Sol.: = = = kg m–1 s–3

∴ The dimensional formula is [ML–1T–3]

Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4 Hint: Average velocity =

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
Sol.: <v> = =
10 questions

Question : 46 skipped
v=
If a measurement done using a screw gauge is reported as (23.35 ± 0.01) mm, then the least count of the screw gauge is

Options:

0.02 mm

0.01 mm

0.35 mm

0.37 mm

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: The least count is 0.01

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 48 Question : 49 skipped

A particle starts with an initial velocity of 80 m/s decelerates uniformly at the rate of 4 m/s2. The time taken by the particle to The velocity-time graph of a body moving on straight line is given in the figure
reach the velocity of 20 m/s will be

Options:

10 s

15 s

20 s

25 s
The ratio of distance to displacement travelled by the body in time 0 to 4 s is
Solution :
Answer (2) Options:
Hint: Apply v = u + at
5:3
Sol.: 20 = 80 + (–4) × t
6:5
t= = 15 s

7:1

8:3

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Area under velocity-time graph give displacement of the body.

Sol.: Displacement = (2 × 1) + (6 × 1) + (1 × –4) + ( × 1 × –4)

=2+6–4–2=2m

Distance = |2 × 1| + |6 × 1|+|1 × –4| + | × 1 × –4|

= 2 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 14 m

= =7
You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B Chem-Section A
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
10 questions only one is correct.

Question : 50 Question : 52

A boy standing on a building throw two balls in vertical direction, first with speed v downwards and second with speed v Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?
upwards and finally both the balls reach to the ground. Then
Options:
Options:
1 g of Na
The displacement of second ball is more
1 g of H2
The displacement of first ball is more
1 g of H2O

The displacement of both the balls is equal

1 g of Ca

Distance covered by first ball is more than the distance covered by second ball Solution :
Answer (2)
Solution : Hint: Number of atoms = moles × atomicity × NA
Answer (3)
where NA = Avogadro’s number
Hint & Sol.: Since displacement only depends on initial and final points, therefore displacement of both the balls is equal.
While the distance covered will be more for the second ball. Sol.: Number of atoms in 1 g of Na

You scored 4 of 4 Number of atoms in 1 g of H2

=
Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Number of atoms in 1 g of H2O
only one is correct.
=
Question : 51
Number of atoms in 1 g of Ca
The number of moles of nitrogen molecules required to produce 85 g of ammonia through Haber’s process is
=
Options:

1.5

2.5

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: 2 mole of NH3 formation require one mole N2 gas
Sol.: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Number of moles of NH3 = 85/17 = 5 mole
2 mole of NH3 is produced by 1 mole of N2
5 mole of NH3 is produced by 5/2 mole of N2
= 2.5 mole N2

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct. only one is correct.

Question : 53 Question : 55

How many litre of oxygen at STP is required for complete combustion of 1 mol C3H8? 3.011 × 1022 molecules of urea are present in 200 ml of its solution. The molarity of solution is

Options: Options:

112 L 0.60 M

56 L 0.25 M

22.4 L 0.75 M

11.2 L 0.50 M

Solution : Solution :
Answer (1) Answer (2)
Hint: At STP, volume of 1 mole of a gas = 22.4 L
Sol.: C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) Hint: Molarity =
1 mole C3H8 requires 5 mole of O2
Sol.: 1 mole urea (NH2CONH2) contain =
∴ 1 mole C3H8 requires 5 × 22.4 L of O2 at STP = 112 L
6.023 × 1023 molecules

Moles of urea = = 0.05 mol

You scored 4 of 4
Molarity = = 0.25 M
Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 54

A mixture contains SO2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 2 : 3 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture?

Options:

1:3

3:2

2:1

1:4

Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint: Number of moles =

Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 56 Question : 57

The mole fraction of methanol when equal masses of methanol and ethanol are mixed together is The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 4f orbital is

Options: Options:

39/23

12/17

23/39

17/12

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint:

Sol.: Let mass of CH3OH and C2H5OH taken is w gram

Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint: Orbital angular momentum of an electron in an orbital =

Sol.: For f-orbital, value of l = 3

Orbital angular momentum

Ar 0
You scored -1 of 4
Mn 5
Chem-Section A Ca 0
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Cr 6
only one is correct.

Question : 58

Which among the following element has maximum number of unpaired electrons? You scored 4 of 4

Options: Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Ar(18) only one is correct.

Mn(25) Question : 59

Consider the following set of quantum numbers.

Ca(20)

n l ml ms
Cr(24)
a. 2 1 0 1/2

Solution : b. 3 2 –3 –1/2
Answer (4) c. 4 1 0 –1/2
Hint: Cr (Z = 24) has its electronic configuration; [Ar]3d54s1 d. 1 1 –1 1/2
Sol.:
Which among the following set of quantum numbers are not possible?
Element Number of unpaired electrons

Options:

a and b only

a, c and d only

a, b and d only

b and d only

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For a value of n, the value of l ranges from 0 to n –1
Sol.: For a value of l, the value of m ranges from –l to +l
∴ for l = 2, ml = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
For n = 1, l = 0
You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 60 Question : 62

During the transition of an electron from n = 3 to n = 2, the shortest wavelength will be produced in the case of Select the incorrect statement regarding photoelectric effect.

Options: Options:

There is no time lag between the striking of light and ejection of electrons from the metal surface.
H

The number of electrons ejected is proportional to the frequency of light used.

Be3+
Threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of light needed to cause photoelectric effect.
He+
The expression for photoelectric effect is
Li2+

Solution : Solution :
Answer (2) Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: The number of electrons ejected in photoelectric effect is proportional to the intensity or brightness of light.
Hint:

Sol.: Since You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
∴ λ will be minimum for Be3+ (Z = 4)
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

You scored -1 of 4 Question : 63

Chem-Section A Mass of 2 atoms of He in gram is

This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct. Options:

Question : 61 1.34 × 10–23 g

Maximum number of electrons in an atom for which n + l = 3, is

1.66 × 10–24 g

Options:
2.25 × 10–24 g

6 2.41 × 10–23 g

8 Solution :
Answer (1)
4 Hint: 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g
Sol.: Mass of 1 He atom = 4 amu
2
Mass of 2 He atoms = 2 × 4 amu

Solution : = 8 × 1.66 × 10–24 g = 1.33 × 10–23 g

Answer (2)
Hint: An orbital can accommodate maximum two electrons.
Sol.: n + l = 3 for the orbitals 2p and 3s
∴ Total number of electrons associated in these orbitals = 8

You scored 4 of 4 You scored -1 of 4

Question : 64 Question : 65

The percentage mass of oxygen in HNO3 is approximately The mass of concentrated sulphuric acid solution needed to prepare 500 ml of 1 M H2SO4 is [Given that H2SO4 is 70%
w/w]
Options:
Options:
76%
40 g
92% 98 g
65%
49 g
48%

70 g
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Mass percentage of oxygen Solution :
Answer (4)
= Hint: 70% (w/w) H2SO4 means 70 g H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution
Sol.: Molarity
Sol.: Mass percentage of oxygen
=
= [Molar mass of HNO3 = 63 g]

Mass of H2SO4 required =

Mass of H2SO4 required from 70% (w/w)

=
You scored -1 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 66 Question : 68 skipped

Total number of electrons in 71 mg of Cl– is The mass of glucose required to prepare 1 kg of 2 molal solution is nearly

Options: Options:

128 g

265 g

3.6 × 10–2 NA 290 g

155 g
2 × 10–3 N A
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: 2 molal glucose solution means 2 mole glucose is present in 1 kg of solvent.
Sol.: 1000 g solvent = 2 × 180 g = 360 g glucose
Solution : Mass of solution = 1000 + 360 = 1360 g
Answer (2) ∵ 1360 g solution contain = 360 g glucose
1000 g solution contain
Hint: One mole of Cl– ion contain 18 NA electrons where NA is Avogadro’s number.
= = 264.7 g
Sol.: Number of moles of Cl– ion =

= 2 × 10–3 mol
Number of electrons in 2 × 10–3 mole Cl– ion
= 2 × 10–3 × 18 × NA = 3.6 × 10–2 NA

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 67

The total number of concentration terms dependent on temperature are

Molarity, Molality, Normality, V/V%, Mole-fraction

Options:

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: The concentration terms containing volume are temperature dependent
Sol.: Molality and mole fraction does not contain any volume term, therefore, are temperature independent.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 69 Question : 70

Empirical formula and molecular formula is same for Match the series given in list I with the values of n1 and n2 respectively for spectral lines of atomic hydrogen given in list II.

Options: List I List II

H2 C2 O 4 a. Lyman (i) 4 and 5, 6, …

b. Brackett (ii) 2 and 3, 4, …
H2 S 2 O 8 c. Balmer (iii) 3 and 4, 5, …
d. Paschen (iv) 1 and 2, 3, …
H3PO3
Choose the correct option.
C6 H6
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Hint: Molecular formula = n × empirical formula
a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
Sol.: H3PO3 has the simplest whole number ratio.
a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
Molecular formula Empirical formula
H2 C2 O 4 HCO2 a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
H2 S 2 O 8 HSO4
Solution :
C6 H6 CH Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.:
Lyman – 1 and 2, 3, …
Brackett – 4 and 5, 6, …
Balmer – 2 and 3, 4, …
Paschen – 3 and 4, 5, …
You scored 0 of 4 You scored -1 of 4

Question : 71 skipped Question : 73

The ratio of radius of first orbit of He+ ion to the second orbit of Be3+ ion is Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Magnetic orbital quantum number defines the three-dimensional shape of the orbital Statement II: There are 3
Options: values of ml possible for 2p sub-shell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1:4
Options:
1:2
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2:3

1:3 Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution :
Answer (2)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Hint:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Sol.: Hint: For any subshell, 2l + 1 values of ml are possible.
Sol.: Magnetic quantum number defines the spatial orientation of the orbital with respect to standard set of co-ordinate axis.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 72

The total number of nodes in 3d orbital is

Options:

Zero

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Total number of nodes = n – 1
Sol.: For 3d orbital, n = 3, l = 2
Total nodes = 3 – 1 = 2

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 74 Question : 75

If the uncertainty in position of an electron is double than the uncertainty in momentum, then the uncertainty in velocity is Which among the following is not an isoelectronic pair?

Options: Options:

H, Li2+

H+, Be+

Be2+, He

Be3+, He+

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Isoelectronic species contain same number of electrons.
Sol.:

Solution : Species Number of electrons

Answer (1) H 1
Hint: Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle:
Li2+ 1

H+ 0

Sol.: ∵ Be2+ 2

He 2

Be3+ 1

He+ 1
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 76 Question : 77 skipped

200 g sample of limestone liberates 44 g carbon dioxide on heating. The percentage purity of CaCO3 in the sample of Number of S-atoms present in 0.5 g molecules of S8 is
limestone is
Options:
Options:
1.98 × 1023 atoms
40%
2.14 × 1023 atoms
50%
2.41 × 1024 atoms
20%

80% 1.25 × 1024 atoms

Solution : Solution :
Answer (2) Answer (3)
Hint: 1 mole CaCO3 produces 1 mole CO2 upon heating Hint: Number of atoms
= Number of moles × Atomicity × NA
Sol.:
Sol.: Number of moles of S8 = 0.5 mole
Moles of CaCO3 = = 2 mole Number of S atoms = 0.5 × 8 × 6.022 × 1023

[Molar mass of CaCO3 = 100 g] = 2.41 × 1024 atoms

Moles of CO2 produced = 1 mole

∵ 1 mole CaCO3 produces 1 mole CO2

∴ Amount of CaCO3 used = 100 g

% purity = = 50%

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 78 Question : 79

Mole fraction of NaOH in a solution in which 0.5 mole of NaOH dissolved in 81 g of water is 1 mole aluminium sulphate contains
a. 2 moles of aluminium
Options: b. 3 moles of sulphur
c. 4 moles of oxygen
Select the correct option among the following

Options:

(b) and (c) only

(a) and (b) only

(a) and (c) only

(a), (b) and (c)

Solution :
Solution : Answer (2)
Answer (1) Hint: Aluminium sulphate is Al2(SO4)3
Sol.: 1 mole Al2(SO4)3 contains 2 mole of Al atoms, 3 mole of S atoms and 12 mole of O atoms.
Hint: Mole fraction of NaOH =

Sol.: Mass of solvent (H2O) present = 81 g

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 80

If a naturally occurring element X has two isotopes 100X(30%) and 101X(70%), then the average atomic mass of the
element X is

Options:

100.4

100.3

100.7

100.6

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint:

Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 81 Question : 82

The ratio of energy required to remove an electron from second and third Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom respectively is Which among the following properties can be explained by particle nature of electromagnetic radiation?
I. Black body radiation
Options: II. Variation of heat capacity of solid as function of temperature
III. Photo-electric effect
2:5 IV. Interference
4:3
Options:
3:7
II, III and IV only
9:4
II and IV only

Solution : I and IV only

Answer (4)
I, II and III only
Hint:
Solution :
Sol.: For ΔE2 ; n1 = 2, n2 = ∞ Answer (4)
Hint: Blackbody radiation is the nature of emission of radiation from the hot bodies.
ΔE2 = 2.18 × 10–18 × (1)2 Sol.: Interference can be explained by the wave nature of the electromagnetic radiation.

Similarly, ΔE3 ; n1 = 3, n2 = ∞

ΔE3 = 2.18 × 10–18 × (1)2 You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 83

The maximum number of electrons accommodated in subshell having n = 3 and l = 1 will be

Options:

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: l = 1 corresponds to p-subshell
Sol.: 3p subshell can accommodate maximum 6 electrons.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A Chem-Section B
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
only one is correct. 10 questions

Question : 84 Question : 86

The de Broglie wavelength of a particle having mass 0.132 kg and moving with velocity of 2 × 105 ms–1 is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 400 ml of 0.5 M NaOH solution is mixed with another 200 ml of 1.5 M NaOH solution. The molarity of resultant solution will
Js) be

Options: Options:

0.75 M
3.9 × 10–40 m
1.0 M
5.2 × 10–34 m
0.83 M
4.5 × 10–36 m
0.95 M
2.5 × 10–38 m
Solution :
Solution : Answer (3)
Answer (4)
Hint:
Hint:

Sol.:
Sol.: = 2.5 × 10–38 m

You scored 0 of 4
You scored -1 of 4
Chem-Section B
Chem-Section A This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which 10 questions
only one is correct.
Question : 87 skipped
Question : 85
If mass percentage of Fe in a biomolecule is 0.5%, then the minimum possible molecular weight of biomolecule will be
The number of waves produced by an electron in an orbit with n = 4 is/are [Atomic mass (Fe) = 56]

Options: Options:

13,000 u
4
12,800 u
8
11,500 u
2
11,200 u
3
Solution :
Solution : Answer (4)
Answer (1)
Hint: Number of waves of an electron in an orbital = principal quantum number Hint: % of Fe =
Sol.: For n = 4, the total number of waves will be four.
Sol.:

Mass of compound = 11,200 u

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions 10 questions

Question : 88 Question : 89

The ratio of vapour densities of oxygen with respect to methane is An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C = 40% and H = 6.66%. The
empirical formula of the compound would be
Options:
Options:
1:4
CH2O
2:1
CHO
1:2
CH3O
4:1
C2 H3 O
Solution :
Answer (2)
Solution :
Hint: Vapour density =
Answer (1)
Hint: Empirical formula is the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms present in a compound
Sol.: Sol.:

Element % Molar ratio Simple whole number ratio

C 40

H 6.66

O 53.4

The empirical formula of the compound is CH2O

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 90 Question : 92 skipped

Mass of carbon present in 11.2 L of propane at STP is The wave number associated with an electromagnetic radiation with frequency 4 × 10–12 Hz will be

Options: Options:

18 g 2.49 × 10–16 m–1

25 g 2.16 × 10–15 m–1

14 g
1.33 × 10–20 m–1
28 g
1.75 × 10–18 m–1
Solution :
Answer (1) Solution :
Hint: At STP, 1 mole of a gas contain 22.4 L Answer (3)
Sol.: Hint:
ncarbon = 3 × 0.5 = 1.5 mole
Mass of carbon = 1.5 × 12 = 18 g Sol.: = 1.33 × 10–20 m–1

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions

Question : 91

The total number of atomic orbitals in M shell of an atom is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Number of orbitals in nth shell = n2
Sol.: The value of n for M shell = 3
∴ Number of orbitals = (3)2 = 9
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 93 Question : 94 skipped

Match orbitals given in list I with their (n + l) value in list II and select the correct option Given below are two statements:
Statement I: and orbitals lie in between the axes.
List I List II
Statement II: dxy orbital contains two nodal planes.
a. 2s (i) 6
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
b. 3p (ii) 2
c. 4d (iii) 4 Options:
d. 3d (iv) 5
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Options:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
Solution :
a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Answer (4)

Solution : Hint: d subshell contains five d orbitals i.e. dxy, dyz, dzx, and in which three orbitals lie in between the axis and
Answer (2) two lies along the axis.
Hint & Sol.:
Sol.: dxy, dyz and dzx lie in between the axis, however and lie along the axis.
List I List II
Each d orbital contains two nodal planes except .
2s 2
3p 4
4d 6
3d 5

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 95 Question : 96

The correct increasing order of energy of the following orbitals for multielectron species is Density of SO2 gas in gL–1 at STP will be

Options:
Options:
3p < 3d < 4s < 4d
2.45 gL–1
4d < 4s < 3d < 3p
1.75 gL–1
4d < 3d < 4s < 3p

2.85 gL–1
3p < 4s < 3d < 4d

1.28 gL–1
Solution :
Answer (4)
Solution :
Hint: For multielectron species, the orbital with greater (n + l) value have higher energy and for same (n + l) value, the orbital
Answer (3)
with greater n values has higher energy.
Hint: 1 mole SO2 occupy 22.4 L at STP
Sol.:
Sol.:

at STP [1 mole SO2 = 64 g]

= 2.85 gL–1

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions

Question : 97

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are not significant.
Statement II: 1.006 contains four significant figures.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Options:

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Zeros between the non-zero digits are significant.
Sol.: Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are not significant. e.g., 0.0064 has only two significant figures.
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 98 Question : 100 skipped

The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in S2– ion is respectively A 150 watt bulb emits monochromatic light at wavelength 300 nm. The number of photons emitted per second by the bulb is

Options: Options:

16, 16 and 16 2.9 × 1019

16, 18 and 18
2.3 × 1020

16, 18 and 16
1.5 × 1018
18, 16 and 18
2.4 × 1015
Solution :
Solution :
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Hint: Number of protons = Atomic number
Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number Hint: Energy of one photon = h
Sol.: Power of bulb= 150 watt = 150 J s–1
Sol.: For S2– ions
Number of protons = 16 Energy of a photon = h =
Number of electrons = 16 + 2 = 18
Number of neutrons = 32 – 16 = 16

= 6.626 × 10–19 J s–1

You scored 0 of 4
Number of photons emitted =
Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any = 2.3 × 1020
10 questions

Question : 99 skipped

The correct increasing order of frequency for the following electromagnetic radiation is

Options:

-rays > UV rays > Microwaves > Radio waves

Radio waves > Microwaves > UV rays > -rays

Microwaves > UV rays > -rays > Radio waves

UV rays > Microwaves > Radio waves > -rays

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Radio waves has the largest wavelength and smallest frequency
Sol.: Decreasing order of frequency: -rays > UV rays > Microwaves > Radio waves

You scored -1 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 101 Question : 103

Which of the following stages involves splitting of centromere? Match the following List I to List II.
a. Anaphase I
b. Anaphase List I List II
c. Anaphase II (a) G1 phase (i) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
d. Telophase
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
Options: (c) S phase (iii) Centriole duplication
(d) G0 phase (iv) RNA molecules are synthesized
Only b
Options:
Only a and b
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Only b and c (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Only d (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Solution : (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer (3)
Hint: During mitosis splitting of centromere takes place in Anaphase. Solution :
Sol.: During meiosis, splitting of centromere takes place in anaphase II. Answer (3)
Hint: During S phase, centriole as well as DNA duplicates.
Sol.: G1 – It takes place between M and S phase

You scored 4 of 4 G0 – It is an inactive stage

G2 – Proteins and RNA molecules are synthesised here.
Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 102
Bot-Section A
During prophase I, which of the following events does not occur? This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Options:
Question : 104
Synapsis
Which of the following is true for quiescent phase?
Terminalisation of chiasmata

Condensation of chromatin Options:

Moving of chromosomes towards opposite poles Cell is metabolically active

Cytoplasmic growth occurs for cell division

Solution :
Answer (4) Cell replicates its DNA
Hint: Prophase I is the first stage of meiosis, which is further divided into five sub phases.
Sol.: Moving of chromosomes towards opposite poles takes place in anaphase I. Nuclear division takes place

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Quiescent stage is G0 phase.
Sol.: Cell is metabolically active in G0 phase. DNA replication occurs in S phase. In G0 phase cell does not divide.
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 105 Question : 107

Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores of chromosomes occurs in In the given figure one pair of homologous chromosome is shown. Here crossing over takes place between

Options:

Anaphase

Prophase

Metaphase

Telophase Options:

AB
Solution :
Answer (3)
BC
Hint: This stage is marked by complete disintegration of nuclear membrane.
Sol.: Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores in metaphase.
CD

Both (1) and (3)

You scored 4 of 4
Solution :
Answer (2)
Bot-Section A
Hint: Crossing over takes place between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Sol.: BC are non-sister chromatids. AB and CD are sister chromatids.
only one is correct.

Question : 106
You scored 4 of 4
Crossing over takes place in

Bot-Section A
Options:
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Meiosis I
Question : 108
Meiosis II
The best stage to study shape of chromosomes (V, L, J, I) is
Mitosis

Amitosis Options:

Solution : Anaphase
Answer (1)
Hint: Crossing over takes place in reduction division. Metaphase
Sol.: Meiosis is called reduction division. Crossing over takes place in meiosis I.
Telophase

Prophase

Solution :
Answer (1)
Sol.: The best stage to study the shape of the chromosomes is Anaphase.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 109 Question : 111 skipped

If there are 20 chromosomes in G1 phase then the number of chromosomes in G2 phase will be An aster is shaped like a star. Select the incorrect statement about it.

Options: Options:

10 Consisting of centrosome and associated microtubules

Is a part of mitotic apparatus

20
Seen in prophase stage
30
Formed in all plant cells during mitosis
40

Solution : Solution :
Answer (2) Answer (4)
Hint: Chromosome number does not change in interphase. Hint: Aster is seen in mitotic cells.
Sol.: G1, S and G2 are parts of interphase. So chromosome number remains same. Sol.: It is formed during mitosis in animal cells. Plant cells lack centrosome. They show anastral mitosis.

You scored 4 of 4
You scored 4 of 4

Question : 112
Question : 110
Mark the option which is not the significance of mitosis.
A bivalent consists of

Options:
Options:
Help in growth of organisms
Two homologous chromosomes
Maintenance of cell size
One allosome and one autosome
Maintenance of chromosome number
Two chromatids of a chromosome only
Introduction of variations
Two arms of a chromosome only

Solution :
Solution :
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
Hint: Reductional division brings variations.
Hint: A bivalent has four chromatids.
Sol.: A bivalent consists of two homologous chromosomes. Sol.: Meiosis is called reductional division.
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 113 Question : 115

Recombinase is required during Major check point is

Options: Options:

Pachytene G1 → S

Leptotene G2 → M

Zygotene G1 → G 2
Diplotene
S → G2

Solution :
Solution :
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Hint: Recombinase is required for recombination.
Sol.: Recombination takes place in pachytene stage. Hint: Restriction check point is major check point.
Sol.: G1 → S is major check point.

You scored -1 of 4
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Bot-Section A
only one is correct. This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Question : 114
Question : 116
Given are two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): DNA replication does not take place just before meiosis II. Identify the option which is true regarding the contribution of Anton Von Leeuwenhoek in the study of cell.
Reason (R): DNA is already present in double amount as that of G1 phase.
In the light of above statements select the correct option. Options:

He first discovered the cells from a slice of cork

Options:
He first saw and described a live cell
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A) He gave the cell theory

He described the structure of bacteria

(A) is true but (R) is false
Solution :
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) Answer (2)
Hint: Robert Hooke studied and described the cell from a thin slice of cork but that was the dead cells.
Solution : Sol.: Anton van Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.
Answer (2)
Hint: DNA replication takes place only once during entire M phase.
Sol.: DNA should be doubled once only during meiosis as daughter cells are haploid.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 117 Question : 119

The non-staining secondary constriction in some chromosomes that gives the appearance of a small fragment called The smallest cell lacks is only 0.3 μm in length.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
Options:

Options:
Satellite
A- Virus, B- Cell wall
Short arm
A- PPLO, B- Ribosomes
Loop
A- Bacterium, B- Nuclear membrane
Chromomere
A- Mycoplasma, B- Cell wall
Solution :
Answer (1)
Solution :
Hint: Secondary constriction is seen in SAT chromosome.
Answer (4)
Sol.: The chromosomes that have non-staining secondary constrictions at a constant location gives the appearance of a small
Hint: The smallest cell known is a prokaryote.
fragment called the satellite.
Sol.: Mycoplasma is the smallest cell. They lack cell wall.

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Bot-Section A
Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
only one is correct.
Question : 118
Question : 120
According to the cell theory
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(a) All living organisms are composed of cells and product of cells.
Statement 1: The cells actively carrying out protein synthesis have large and numerous nucleoli in the cytosol.
(b) A cell can have RNA or DNA as genetic material.
Statement 2: Chromatin does not contain RNA.
(c) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
The correct one(s) is/are
Options:

Options: Only statement 1 is correct

All (a), (b) and (c) Only statement 2 is correct

Only (a) and (b)

Both the statements are correct
Only (c)

Both the statements are incorrect

Only (a) and (c)

Solution :
Solution :
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Hint: Nucleolus is present in the nucleoplasm.
Hint: Rudolf Virchow first explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
Sol.: Chromatin contains DNA, histones, non-histone proteins and RNA.
Sol.: According to cell theory, all cells arise from pre-existing cells and all living organisms are composed of cells and product of
cells.
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Question : 121 Question : 123

Which of the following structures in bacteria is functionally similar to that of mitochondria in a few aspects? The cell organelle that does not constitute an endomembrane system in a cell is

Options: Options:

Pilus
Peroxisome

Mesosome
Golgi complex

Nucleoid Lysosome

Filament Vacuole

Solution : Solution :
Answer (2) Answer (1)
Hint: Mitochondria are the power house of the cell. Hint: Some organelles function in a coordinate manner and constitute an endomembrane system.
Sol.: Mesosome in bacteria has enzyme that help in respiration to produce ATP as mitochondria do. Sol.: Cell organelles such as mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisome are not considered as a part of the endomembrane
system.

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Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Bot-Section A
only one is correct. This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Question : 122
Question : 124
Match the following columns and choose the correct option.
Select the option which is not true w.r.t. cell wall.
Column-I Column-II
a. Fimbriae (i) Provide resistance to antibiotic Options:
b. Chromatophore (ii) Help to attach the host tissue It protects the cells from mechanical injury
c. Plasmid (iii) Inclusion body
It maintains the shape of the cell
d. Gas vacuole (iv) Contains photosynthetic pigments

Options: It helps in cell-to-cell interaction

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) It provides uphill transport of material by the use of energy

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Solution :
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) Answer (4)
Hint: Cell wall is the non-living, rigid structure of the cell.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) Sol.: Uphill transport of material occurs through plasma membrane by the mechanism of active transport.

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: The fimbriae are small bristle-like fibres in bacteria that help in attaching to the host tissue.
Sol.: Chromatophores are membranous structures containing photosynthetic pigments. Plasmid is small circular DNA that
provide certain phenotypic character such as resistant to antibiotics to such bacteria. Gas vacuoles are considered to be
inclusion bodies.

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Question : 125 Question : 127

In which of the following options, percentage of different components of the membrane of human erythrocyte is represented Perinuclear space is a space
correctly?
Options:
Options:
Around the nucleolus
Lipids > Proteins
Between two membranes of a nucleus
Carbohydrates > Lipids

Steroids > Proteins Near to the nucleus in the cytoplasm

In the nucleoplasm near to the inner membrane

Proteins > Lipids
Solution :
Solution : Answer (2)
Answer (4) Hint: The nucleus is bound by double membrane with space 10 to 50 nm in width.
Hint: Cell membrane is mainly made up of phospholipid bilayer and proteins. Sol.: The two membrane of the nuclear envelope are separated by a space known as perinuclear space.
Sol.: In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately 52 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids.

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Bot-Section A
Bot-Section A This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only one is correct.
only one is correct.
Question : 128
Question : 126
The ribosomes which are responsible for the synthesis of polypeptide in semi-autonomous cell organelles have the subunits
Identify the wrong statement regarding plasmodesmata.
Options:
Options:
40S and 30S
It forms the living component of cell wall
50S and 20S
It connects the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells
50S and 30S
It is lined by plasma membrane
60S and 20S
It is originated by the microtubules
Solution :
Solution : Answer (3)
Answer (4) Hint: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous cell organelles.
Hint: Plasmodesmata is lined by plasma membrane and contains a fine tubule called desmotubule. Sol.: Mitochondria and chloroplasts have 70S ribosomes which have the subunits 50S and 30S.
Sol.: Endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in origin of plasmodesmata.
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Question : 129 Question : 131

Regarding Golgi apparatus choose the option for correct one(s). The enzymes present in lysosome are optimally active at pH
(a) Cis and trans faces are entirely different.
(b) Trans face is concave and called maturing face. Options:
(c) Cis and trans faces of a Golgi apparatus are not interconnected.
(d) Vesicles are discharged from cis face. Less than 7

Options: 10 to 12

(a), (b) and (c) Higher than 12

(d) only 14

(a) and (b) only Solution :

Answer (1)
(c) and (d) only Hint: Hydrolases of lysosome are optimally active at the acidic pH.
Sol.: The pH less than 7 is said to be acidic.
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Cis and trans faces of a Golgi apparatus are interconnected.
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Sol.: Vesicles are discharged from trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
You scored 4 of 4 only one is correct.

Bot-Section A Question : 132

This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
only one is correct.
Assertion (A): Mitochondria can synthesise some of its own proteins.
Question : 130 Reason (R): Both inner and outer membrane of the mitochondria have enzymes.

Tonoplast is a membrane that bounds Options:

Options: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Cytoplasm
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Lysosome
Only (A) is true but (R) is false
Vacuole
Both (A) and (R) are false
Peroxisome
Solution :
Solution : Answer (2)
Answer (3) Hint: Mitochondria are semiautonomous cell organelles as they can synthesize some of their own proteins.
Hint: Tonoplast is membrane of a cell organelle that is a part of endomembrane system. Sol.: Mitochondria can synthesize their proteins because they have DNA, RNA, ribosomes and components required for protein
Sol.: The vacuole is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast. synthesis.

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Question : 133 Question : 135

One of the differences between eukaryotic cilia and flagella is that the former is The plastid which specifically stores fats and oils is a

Options: Options:

Smaller than the latter Coloured plastid contains chlorophyll

Leucoplast
Outgrowth of cell membrane

Not involved in movement Chromoplast

Hair like structure Glucose synthesizing plastid

Solution : Solution :
Answer (1) Answer (2)
Hint: Fundamental structure of both eukaryotic cilia and flagella is the same. Hint: Elaioplasts store fats and oils.
Sol.: Cilia are smaller structures whereas flagella are comparatively longer. Sol.: Elaioplast is a type of leucoplast, i.e., colourless plastid that stores fats and oils.

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Bot-Section A Bot-Section B
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
only one is correct. 10 questions

Question : 134 Question : 136 skipped

The cell organelle that has an organisation like the cartwheel Which of the following takes place in most dramatic phase of the cell cycle?

Options: Options:

Has 9 + 2 arrangement of axonemal microtubules

Chromosomes align at equator
Is surrounded by a semipermeable membrane
DNA replication
Is involved in the movement of cytoplasm around the nucleus
Chromosome duplication
Gives rise to spindle apparatus during cell division
Cell organelles duplication

Solution : Solution :
Answer (4) Answer (1)
Hint: Centrioles have an organisation like the cartwheel. Hint: Most dramatic phase of cell cycle is M phase.
Sol.: Centrioles give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division. Sol.: Chromosomes align at equator in metaphase.
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Bot-Section B Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions 10 questions

Question : 137 Question : 139 skipped

Which of the following stage lasts for many years in oocytes of some vertebrates? Disappearance of nucleolus, Golgi and ER begins in

Options: Options:

Diakinesis Metaphase

Leptotene
Prophase
Zygotene
Anaphase
Diplotene
Telophase

Solution : Solution :
Answer (4) Answer (2)
Hint: Diplotene is called dictyotene stage in oocytes of some vertebrates. Hint: Disappearance of nucleolus, Golgi and ER occurs in first phase of karyokinesis.
Sol.: Diplotene may last for many years in oocytes of vertebrates. Sol.: Prophase is first phase of karyokinesis.

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Question : 138 Question : 140 skipped

Disc shaped structure associated with centromere is called Phragmoplast is

Options: Options:

Kinetochore Formed by Golgi complex

Primary constriction Formed during animal cytokinesis

Secondary constriction Precursor of cell membrane in animal cell

Telomere Cellular structure formed in mitochondria

Solution : Solution :
Answer (1) Answer (1)
Hint: Disc shaped structure is proteinaceous. Hint: Phragmoplast is precursor of cell wall.
Sol.: It is called kinetochore. Sol.: Phragmoplast is formed by Golgi. It is seen during cytokinesis in plant cells.

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Question : 141 Question : 143

One of the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell is that the former has Choose the incorrect match from the following.

Options: Options:

Cytoplasm as main arena of cellular activities Human red blood cell – Biconcave

Only 70S ribosomes as cell organelles Vibrio – Comma shaped

Chromosomes spread throughout the cytoplasm Coccus – Rod like

Cell organelles which are not membrane bound Nerve cell – Branched

Solution : Solution :
Answer (2) Answer (3)
Hint: Eukaryotic cells have both membrane bound and non-membrane bound cell organelles. Hint: Human RBCs are round and biconcave and nerve cells are long and branched.
Sol.: Prokaryotic cells have only 70S ribosomes as cell organelles, whereas eukaryotic cells have both 70S and 80S ribosomes. Sol.: The bacterium bacillus is rod shaped and coccus is spherical.

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Question : 142 Question : 144 skipped

Select the statement which is true w.r.t. telocentric chromosome. The outermost layer in the cell envelope of bacteria

Options: Options:

It lacks centromere
May be in the form of loose sheath or may be thick and tough
It is present only in prokaryotic cells
Is made up of phospholipids
It does not take part in RNA synthesis
Prevents them from bursting or collapsing
It has centromere at the terminal end
Has enzymes that help in DNA replication

Solution : Solution :
Answer (4) Answer (1)
Hint: Telocentric chromosome appear I-shaped during anaphase. Hint: The outermost layer in the cell envelope of bacteria is the glycocalyx.
Sol.: Centromere in telocentric chromosome is present at the terminal end and thus the chromosomes appears to have single Sol.: The outermost layer, i.e., glycocalyx in bacteria can be in the form of loose sheath called the slime layer or may be thick
arm. and tough called capsule.
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Question : 145 Question : 147

All of the following are the functions of endoplasmic reticulum, except In unicellular organisms such as Amoeba, the functions such as osmoregulation and excretion is associated with

Options: Options:

Synthesis of lipids and steroids Endoplasmic reticulum

Golgi complex
Providing precursors of enzymes

Contractile vacuole
Oxidation of respiratory substrates
Gas vacuole
Providing site for the synthesis of proteins
Solution :
Solution : Answer (3)
Answer (3) Hint: Gas vacuole is found in prokaryotes.
Hint: Endoplasmic reticulum can be free of ribosomes, i.e., smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) or can bear ribosomes, i.e., Sol.: In Amoeba the contractile vacuole is important for osmoregulation and excretion.
rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
Sol.: SER is associated with lipid and steroid synthesis. RER is associated with the synthesis of proteins and enzymes.

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You scored -1 of 4 Bot-Section B

This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
Bot-Section B 10 questions
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions Question : 148 skipped

Question : 146 Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: Cristae are formed by the outer membrane of the mitochondria.
Algal cell wall is composed of Statement II: Inner membrane encloses the matrix of mitochondria.
(a) Galactans
(b) Calcium carbonate Options:
(c) Mannans
(d) Cellulose Only statement I is correct
The correct one(s) is/are
Only statement II is correct
Options:
Both the statements are correct
All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Both the statements are incorrect

Only (d)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Only (a), (c) and (d) Hint: Cristae are present towards the matrix of mitochondria.
Sol.: The inner membrane of mitochondria forms a number of infoldings called the cristae.
Only (a) and (c)

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Cellulose is present in cell walls of all groups of plants.
Sol.: Algal cell wall is composed of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate.

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Bot-Section B Zoo-Section A
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
10 questions only one is correct.

Question : 149 Question : 151

Thylakoids of the different grana are connected to each other by Choose the incorrect statement from the following.

Options: Options:

Intragranal thylakoids Cellulose cannot hold I2 as it contains complex helices.

Radial spokes
Starch can hold I2 as it forms helical secondary structures.
Stroma lamellae
Cellulose does not contain complex helices, so it cannot hold I2.
Filaments
Starch gives a positive iodine test.

Solution :
Solution :
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Hint: Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called grana.
Hint: Cellulose gives a negative iodine test.
Sol.: The flat membranous tubules called stroma lamellae connecting the thylakoids of the different grana.
Sol.: Starch and cellulose are homopolymers of glucose. Starch forms helical secondary structures and can hold I2 molecules in
the helical portion.
Cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence, cannot hold I2.
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Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any You scored 0 of 4
10 questions
Zoo-Section A
Question : 150 This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Which of the following is not a function of microtubules?
Question : 152 skipped
Options:
Which tissue among the following exerts the greatest control over the body's responsiveness to changing conditions?
Formation of astral rays during cell division
Options:
Helping in anaphasic movement of chromosomes
Epithelial tissue
Formation of pseudopodia
Connective tissue
Determining future cell plate during cell division
Neural tissue
Solution :
Answer (3) Muscular tissue
Hint: Microtubules are made up of tubulin proteins which are non-contractile proteins.
Sol.: Microfilaments help in pseudopodia formation. Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Neurons are part of this tissue.
Sol.: Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the body's responsiveness to changing conditions.
Connective tissue links and supports other tissues/organs of the body.
Epithelial tissue provides a covering or a lining for parts of the body.
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Zoo-Section A Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct. only one is correct.

Question : 153 Question : 155

Consider the given equation. Select the mismatch.

S – G + S' S + S' – G
Options:
‘X’ is the enzyme in the above given equation. ‘X’ belongs to which of the following groups?
Insulin – Hormone
Options:
Trypsin – Enzyme
Dehydrogenases
GLUT- 4 – Enables glucose transport into cells
Hydrolases
Collagen – Intracellular ground substance
Lyases

Transferases Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Most abundant protein in the animal world.
Solution :
Sol.:
Answer (4)
Hint: Enzymes catalysing the transfer of a group. Protein Functions
Sol.: Enzymes catalysing the transfer of a group, G (other than hydrogen) between a pair of substrate S and S' are called Collagen Intercellular ground substance
transferases e.g.
Trypsin Enzyme
S – G + S' S + S' – G
Insulin Hormone
Oxidoreductases/dehydrogenases: Enzymes which catalyse oxidoreduction between two substrates S and S’ e.g.,
S reduced + S’ oxidised → S oxidised + S’ reduced. Antibody Fights infectious agents
Hydrolases: Enzymes catalysing hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C-C, C-halide or P-N bonds. Receptor Sensory reception (smell, taste, hormone, etc.)
Lyases: Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.
GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport into cells

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Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Zoo-Section A
only one is correct.
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct. Question : 156

Question : 154 According to the famous Watson-Crick model, the DNA exists as a

Choose the odd one w.r.t nucleotides.

Options:

Options: Single helix

Cytidylic acid
Double helix

Adenosine
Straight line

Thymidylic acid Single stranded sphere

Guanylic acid
Solution :
Answer (2)
Solution :
Hint: Twisted ladder
Answer (2)
Sol.: One of the secondary structures exhibited by DNA is the famous Watson and Crick model. This model says that DNA
Hint: Adenine + Ribose
exists as a double helix . The two strands of polynucleotides are antiparallel, i.e., run in the opposite direction.
Sol.: Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine and cytidine are nucleosides.
Adenylic acid, thymidylic acid, guanylic acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid are nucleotides.

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Question : 157 Question : 159

The non-aromatic amino acid among the following is Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option.
Goblet cell : Unicellular gland :: Salivary gland : _____
Options:
Options:
Tyrosine
Unicellular gland
Lysine
Multicellular gland
Phenylalanine
Non-glandular epithelium
Tryptophan
Compound epithelium
Solution :
Answer (2) Solution :
Hint: Identify a basic amino acid. Answer (2)
Sol.: Hint: Consists of cluster of cells
Basic amino acid – Lysine Sol.: Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular epithelium.
Aromatic amino acids – Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan They are of two types– unicellular, like goblet cells of the alimentary canal and multicellular, like salivary glands.
Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands is lined by compound epithelium.

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You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Zoo-Section A
only one is correct. This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Question : 158
Question : 160
Given is a list of features
(i) Main circulating fluid of body Select the statement which is wrong w.r.t the respiratory pigment present in erythrocytes in adults.
(ii) Is a specialised connective tissue
(iii) Absence of fibres Options:
Select the option from the following to which the above given features are applicable.
Four subunits come together to form the adult human haemoglobin.
Options: This protein exhibits the quaternary structure.
Cartilage
It consists of two α-subunits and two -subunits.
Bone
It consists of two α-subunits and two β-subunits.
Blood
Solution :
Tendon Answer (3)
Hint: Two main types of cells in Islets of Langerhans
Solution : Sol.: Adult haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits. Two of these are identical to each other. Hence, two subunits of α-type and two
Answer (3) subunits of β-type together constitute the human haemoglobin.
Hint: Contains RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
Sol.: Blood is one of the specialised connective tissues.
It is a fluid connective tissue which contains plasma, red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. It is the
main circulating fluid that helps in transport of various substances.
In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
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Question : 161 skipped Question : 162

‘P’ is an enzyme. From the below given options, choose the one that represents a pair of toxins.
‘P’ acts on ‘Q’, so ‘Q’ is the substrate.
‘Q’ gets converted into ‘R’, when ‘P’ acts on ‘Q’. Options:
‘W’ is a chemical which closely resembles ‘Q’ in structure.
If in the above given scenario, ‘P’ is succinic dehydrogenase then ‘W’ is Concanavalin A, curcumin

Rubber, gums
Options:

Succinate Ricin, abrin

Malonate Morphine, diterpenes

Solution :
Acetate
Answer (3)
Lactate Hint: Concanavalin A is a lectin.
Sol.:
Solution : Pigments Carotenoids, Anthocyanins, etc.
Answer (2)
Hint: ‘W’ is a competitive inhibitor. Alkaloids Morphine, Codeine, etc
Sol.: ‘P’ is succinic dehydrogenase. Terpenoides Monoterpenes, Diterpenes etc
‘Q’ is succinate.
Essential oils Lemon grass oil, etc
‘W’ is the competitive inhibitor of succinate, which is malonate. When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its
molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, then it is known as a competitive inhibitor.

Toxins Abrin, Ricin

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Lectins Concanavalin A
Drugs Vinblastine, Curcumin, etc Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Polymeric Substances Rubber, Gums, Cellulose
only one is correct.

Question : 164 skipped

You scored 4 of 4 In a protein, the sequence of amino acids, i.e., the positional information in a protein – which is the first amino acid, which is
second, and so on describes its
Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Options:
only one is correct.
Primary structure
Question : 163

Read the given statements carefully. Secondary structure

Statement A: Non-protein constituents called co-factors are bound to the enzyme to make the enzyme catalytically inactive.
Tertiary structure
Statement B: When the co-factor is separated from the enzyme, the protein portion that is left is called the holoenzyme.
Choose the correct option. Quaternary structure

Options: Solution :
Answer (1)
Both statements A and B are true Hint: This structure represents protein as a line.
Only statement A is true Sol.: Primary structure of a protein gives the positional information of amino acids in a protein-which is the first amino acid,
which is second, and so on.
Only statement B is true Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for many biological activities of proteins.

Both statements A and B are false

You scored 4 of 4
Solution :
Answer (4) Zoo-Section A
Hint: Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-factor This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
Sol.: Non-protein constituents called co-factors are bound to the enzyme to make the enzyme catalytically active. only one is correct.
The protein portion of the enzymes is the apoenzyme.
Question : 165

Which is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals?

Options:

Epithelial tissue

Connective tissue

Muscular tissue

Neural tissue

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: The tissue that links and supports other tissues and organs.
Sol.: Connective tissues are the most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals. They are named
connective tissues because of their special function of linking and supporting other tissues/ organs of the body.
The neural tissue exerts greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions.
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Question : 166 Question : 168

Match column I with column II and select the appropriate option. Choose the mismatch w.r.t the enzyme and its co-factor.

Column I Column II Options:

a. Gap junctions (i) Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue
Carboxypeptidase – Zinc ion
b. Adhering junctions (ii) Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
c. Tight junctions (iii) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together Peroxidase – Haem

Options: Carbonic anhydrase – NADP

a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
Catalase – Haem
a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
Solution :
a(iii), b(ii), c(i) Answer (3)
Hint: Peroxidase and catalase have the same co-factor.
a(ii), b(iii), c(i) Sol.: Haem is the prosthetic group for the enzymes peroxidase and catalase.
Zinc is the co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase and carbonic anhydrase.
Solution : Co-enzyme NAD and NADP contain the vitamin niacin.
Answer (4)
Hint: Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.
Sol.:
You scored -1 of 4
Tight junctions: Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue
Adhering junctions: Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
Zoo-Section A
Gap junctions: Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.

Question : 169
You scored 4 of 4
Assertion (A): An enzyme like any other protein has a secondary structure which imparts the enzyme its catalytic activity.
Zoo-Section A
Reason (R): The primary structure of an enzyme has many crevices or pockets into which the substrate fits.
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
In the light of above given statements, choose the correct option.
only one is correct.

Question : 167 Options:

Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) correctly explains (A)
Select the statement from the following which is true about neuroglial cells.
Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) does not explain (A)
Options:

They are excitable cells. (A) is true, (R) is false

They are a part of epithelial tissue.

Both (A) and (R) are false
Neurons are more in number than neuroglial cells.
Solution :
They protect and support the neurons. Answer (4)
Hint: Tertiary structure of proteins makes them biologically active.
Solution : Sol.: An enzyme like any protein has a primary, secondary and tertiary structure.
Answer (4) The tertiary structure of an enzyme has crevices or pockets into which the substrate fits. These crevices are called active sites
Hint: Neurons are excitable cells. which make the enzymes catalytically active.
Sol.: Neurons are the units of neural system and are excitable in nature.
The neuroglial cells are non-excitable and they protect and support the neurons.
Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored -1 of 4

Question : 170 Question : 172

The amount of product formed per unit time can be expressed as How many components given in the box below are common to areolar tissue as well as adipose tissue?

Options: Fibroblasts, Macrophages, Mast cells, Adipocytes, Collagen fibres

Options:
Rate =
Five

Rate = Three

Rate = Four

Zero
Rate =
Solution :
Answer (1)
Solution : Hint: Adipose tissue is a modified areolar tissue.
Answer (1) Sol.: Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue present beneath the skin. It contains fibroblasts that secrete yellow fibres
Hint: Rate of a physical or chemical process. (elastin) and white fibres (collagen). It also has macrophages, mast cells and adipocytes.
Sol.: Rate of a physical or chemical process refers to the amount of product formed per unit time. It can be expressed as: Adipose tissue is a modified areolar tissue to store fats. Hence, the components of adipose tissue and areolar tissue are the
same except that adipocytes are more in adipose connective tissue.
Rate =

You scored 4 of 4

Question : 171 The collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres in a connective tissue that

The single layer of flattened epithelial cells with irregular boundaries is usually present in the walls of
Options:

Options:
Attaches skeletal muscles to bone
Stomach
Transports respiratory gases
Intestine
Is excitable in nature
Blood vessels
Has semi-fluid ground substance

Pharynx
Solution :
Answer (1)
Solution :
Hint: Example of dense regular connective tissue
Answer (3)
Sol.: Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the dense connective tissues.
Hint: Arteries carry oxygenated blood.
In the dense regular connective tissues, the collagen fibres are present in rows between many bundles of fibres.
Sol.: The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
Tendons (dense regular connective tissue) attach skeletal muscles to bones.
They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs and are involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
Blood is the carrier of respiratory gases.
The columnar epithelium is found in the lining of stomach and intestine.
Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground substance.
The inner lining of pharynx is lined by compound epithelium.
You scored 4 of 4 You scored -1 of 4

Question : 174 Question : 176

The polysaccharide present in the exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of the monomeric unit called Given below is a list of secretions of human body.
(i) Digestive enzymes (ii) Earwax
Options: (iii) Oil (iv) Milk
(v) Hormones (vi) Mucus
N-acetyl galactosamine How many secretions given above are produced by exocrine glands?

N-acetyl glucosamine
Options:

Fructose
Four
Glucose
Three
Solution :
Answer (2) Five
Hint: Monomer of chitin
Sol.: Chitin, a homopolysaccharide, is present in the exoskeleton of arthropods. The monomer of chitin is N-acetyl glucosamine Six
(NAG).
Fructose is the monomer of inulin. Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Insulin is secreted by an endocrine gland.
Sol.: Exocrine glands secrete mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes and other cell products. These products are
You scored 4 of 4
released through ducts or tubes.
Endocrine glands (ductless glands) secrete hormones.
Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 175
Zoo-Section A
The muscle cells present in the heart can contract together as a unit due to the presence of
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Options:
Question : 177
Striations
Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option w.r.t. intercellular material.
Branching
Cartilage : Solid and pliable : : Bone : ____
Intercalated discs
Options:
Nuclei Solid and pliable

Solution : Semi-solid and non-pliable

Answer (3)
Semi-solid and pliable
Hint: Communication junctions
Sol.: Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only in the heart. Communication junctions (intercalated discs) at
Hard and non-pliable
some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a unit, i.e. when one cell receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also
stimulated to contract.
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Bones are non-pliable.
Sol.: Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres which give bone its strength.
It is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 178 Question : 180

If cytosine content in a B-DNA molecule is 20%, what will be the percentage of adenine in it? Consider the following carefully
a. Excitability
Options: b. Strength
c. Flexibility
20 The feature(s) provided by the fibres of the connective tissues is/are

30
Options:

60 a and b only

50 a and c only

Solution : b and c only

Answer (2)
Hint: Adenine pairs with thymine. a, b and c
Sol.: A and G of one strand compulsorily base pair with T and C, respectively, on the other strand. Hence, if cytosine content is
20% then guanine will also be 20%; adenine and thymine will be 30% each. Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Less than 3
Sol.: In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin. The fibres
You scored -1 of 4
provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct. You scored 4 of 4

Question : 179 Zoo-Section A

This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
To perform a chemical analysis, which of the following chemicals is primarily used to grind a living tissue?
only one is correct.

Options: Question : 181

Cl3CCOOH Choose the incorrect statement about amino acids.

Cl2CCOOH Options:

Amino acids are substituted methanes.

Cl3COOH
The nature of the amino acid depends on the nature of the variable group.
Cl2CCOOH2
In solutions of different pHs, the structure of amino acids changes.

Solution :
Answer (1) is the zwitterionic form of the amino acid.
Hint: Trichloroacetic acid
Sol.: To perform a chemical analysis we can take any living tissue (a vegetable or a piece of liver, etc.) and grind it in
Solution :
trichloroacetic acid (Cl3CCOOH) using a mortar and a pestle.
Answer (4)
Hint: Zwitterions have both a positive and a negative charge.
Sol.: A particular property of amino acids is the ionizable nature of –NH2 and –COOH groups. Hence, in solutions of different
pHs, the structure of amino acids changes. These fully ionized species known as zwitterions have both a positive and a negative
charge.

(B) is called zwitterionic form.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 182 Question : 184

Among the following the matrix of the connective tissues is secreted by Read the following statements.
Statement A: Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms excluding the carboxyl carbon.
Options: Statement B: Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms excluding the carboxyl carbon.
Select the correct option.
Fibroblasts
Options:
Macrophages
Both statements A and B are true
Mast cells
Both statements A and B are false
Adipocytes
Only statement A is true
Solution :
Answer (1) Only statement B is true
Hint: Cells which secrete fibres.
Sol.: Fibroblasts are the cells which secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin. These fibres provide strength, Solution :
elasticity and flexibility to the tissue. These cells secrete modified polysaccharides which accumulate between cells and fibres Answer (2)
and act as matrix (ground substance). Hint: Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
Mast cells secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin. Adipocytes are specialised to store fats. Macrophages are phagocytic cells. Sol.: Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the
carboxyl carbon.

You scored 4 of 4
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which Zoo-Section A
only one is correct. This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
only one is correct.
Question : 183
Question : 185
The epithelium which is made of more than one layer of cells is present in all of the following, except
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the structure and function of bones in adult humans.
Options:
Options:
Inner lining of pancreatic ducts

Moist surface of buccal cavity This tissue primarily provides structural frame to the body.

Dry surface of skin

It is made up of cells called chondrocytes.
Walls of PCT
Fluid-filled spaces present in this tissue are called lacunae.

Solution : The red bone marrow in some of these are the site of haemopoiesis.
Answer (4)
Hint: Compound epithelium Solution :
Sol.: Compound epithelium is made of more than one layer (multi-layered) of cells and thus has a limited role in secretion and Answer (2)
absorption. They cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary Hint: Tissue with osteocytes
glands and of pancreatic ducts. PCT is lined by brush bordered cuboidal epithelium. Sol.: Bones are a type of specialised connective tissue. The bone cells (osteocytes) are present in ring shaped fluid filled
spaces called lacunae.
The red bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells. Chondrocytes are present in lacunae of cartilages.

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions 10 questions

Question : 186 Question : 188

Choose the one feature common to all the compounds found in the acid soluble pool. Which is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere?

Options: Options:

Molecular weight up to 18 daltons

RuBisCO

Molecular weight from 18 to 800 daltons

Collagen

Molecular weight from 800 to 1800 daltons Cellulose

Molecular weight from 10,000 daltons and above ChlorophyII

Solution : Solution :
Answer (2) Answer (1)
Hint: Acid-soluble pool has compounds with low molecular weights. Hint: Photosynthetic enzyme
Sol.: Acid-soluble pool has compounds which have molecular weights ranging from 18 to around 800 daltons. Sol.: Collagen is the most abundant protein in the animal world.
These are micromolecules. The acid-soluble pool represents roughly the cytoplasmic composition. Ribulose Bisphosphate Carboxylase - Oxygenase (RuBisCO) is the most abundant protein in the whole of biosphere.
Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose.

You scored 4 of 4
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any Zoo-Section B
10 questions This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions
Question : 187
Question : 189
Dietary proteins are the source of ____ which can not be synthesized in our body. Choose the option which fills the blank
correctly. The primary difference between dense regular connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue is

Options: Options:

Non-essential amino acids Absence of fibroblasts in the latter

Essential amino acids Composition of the ground substance

Semi-essential amino acids only Orientation of fibres

Basic amino acids only Percentage of mast cells

Solution : Solution :
Answer (2) Answer (3)
Hint: Leucine belongs to this category. Hint: Arrangement of fibres
Sol.: There are 20 types of amino acids. Sol.: Dense connective tissues are of two types, namely, dense regular and dense irregular tissues.
The amino acids which can't be synthesized by our body have to be supplied through our diet. These are called essential amino The collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres in dense regular connective tissues. Tendons
acids. and ligaments are examples of dense regular connective tissue.
The amino acids which our body can make are non-essential amino acids. Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts and many fibres that are oriented differently. This tissue is present in the skin.
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 190 Question : 191 skipped

Arrange the steps given below in the correct order as it occurs in a catalytic cycle of an enzyme.
(i) Enzyme releases the product
(ii) Enzyme-product complex is formed
(iii) Substrate and enzyme binds
(iv) Substrate undergoes a chemical change
Choose the correct option.

Options:
Identify the bonds 'A' and 'B' from the options given below.
(i) → (iv) → (iii) → (ii)
Options:
(iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
A- Glycosidic; B- Hydrogen
(iii) → (i) → (iv) → (ii)
A- Hydrogen; B- Glycosidic
(iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)
A- Glycosidic; B- Covalent

Solution :
A- Hydrogen; B- Disulphide
Answer (4)
Hint: E + S ES EP E+P
Solution :
Sol.: The catalytic cycle of an enzyme action can be described in the following steps: Answer (4)
(i) Substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme
Hint: 3-dimensional view of a protein
(ii) The chemical bonds of the substrate break Sol.: Tertiary structure of protein
(iii) New enzyme-product complex is formed
(iv) Enzyme releases the products and free enzyme is ready to bind to another molecule of the substrate

You scored -1 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 192 Question : 193 skipped

If the building block of a nucleic acid is ‘A’, then ‘A’ is made of ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’. Read the statements given below.
Identify P, Q and R from the options given below. Statement A: Striated muscle cells are present in the wall of blood vessels.
Statement B: Ramachandran plot is used to confirm the structure of proteins.
P Q R Choose the appropriate option.
(1) Heterocyclic compound Monosaccharide Phosphoric acid
(2) Homocyclic compound Monosaccharide Phosphate Options:

(3) Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid Only statement A is true

(4) Sugar Adenine Nitrogenous base
Only statement B is true
Options:
Both statements A and B are true
(1)
Both statements A and B are false
(2)
Solution :
(3) Answer (2)
Hint: Smooth muscle fibres are involuntary.
(4) Sol.: Ramachandran plot is used to confirm the structure of proteins.
Smooth muscle fibres are present in the wall of blood vessels.
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: The building block of nucleic acids is a nucleotide. You scored 4 of 4
Sol.: Heterocyclic compounds in nucleic acids are the nitrogenous bases named adenine, guanine, uracil, cytosine and thymine.
The sugar found in polynucleotides is either ribose or 2' deoxyribose. Zoo-Section B
Phosphoric acid or phosphate is the third component of a nucleotide. This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions

Question : 194

Which of the following is not secreted by mast cells?

Options:

Histamine

Epinephrine

Heparin

Serotonin

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Adrenaline is other name of this compound.
Sol.: Mast cells are present in the connective tissue. They secrete histamine, heparin and serotonin. Histamine is responsible
for an inflammatory response.
Heparin is an anticoagulant. Serotonin is a vasoconstrictor.
You scored 4 of 4 You scored 4 of 4

Question : 195 Question : 197

There are ____ hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine and ____ hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine in All of the following features differentiate skeletal muscle fibres from smooth muscle fibres, except
a DNA molecule.
Select the option which respectively fills the blanks correctly. Options:

Options: Presence of striations

Multinucleated cells
Two and three
Unbranched fibres
Four and three

Three and two Voluntary regulation

Four and five Solution :

Answer (3)
Solution : Hint: Cardiac muscle fibres are branched.
Answer (1) Sol.:
Hint: A = T Skeletal muscle fibres – Striated, cylindrical in shape, multinucleated, unbranched and voluntary
Sol.: In a DNA molecule, A and G of one strand compulsorily base pair with T and C respectively, on the other strand.
There are two hydrogen bonds between A and T and three hydrogen bonds between G and C. Smooth muscle fibres – Unstriated, fusiform in shape, uninucleated, unbranched and involuntary

You scored 4 of 4 You scored 0 of 4

Question : 196 Question : 198 skipped

Select the incorrect statement. Choose the phospholipid.

Options: Options:

Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state. Glycerol

Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of temperature. Cholesterol

As proteins are preserved by heat, high temperature destroys enzymatic activity. Lecithin

Each enzyme shows its highest activity at its optimum temperature and optimum pH. Alanine

Solution : Solution :
Answer (3) Answer (3)
Hint: Proteins are denatured by heat. Hint:
Sol.: High temperature destroys proteins. Hence, enzymes do not show any enzymatic activity at a high temperature.

Sol.: Some lipids have phosphorus and a phosphorylated organic compound in them. These are phospholipids. They are found
in cell membrane. Lecithin is one example. Some tissues especially the neural tissues have lipids with more complex structures.

You scored 0 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions

Question : 199 skipped

Assertion (A): When the substrate concentration increases, the velocity of enzymatic reaction increases, then reaches the
maximum and does not exceed any further.
Reason (R): The free enzyme molecules have no substrate molecules to bind with, hence, reaches a saturation.
In the light of above given statements, choose the appropriate option.

Options:

Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) correctly explains (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) does not explains (A)

(A) is true; (R) is false

Both (A) and (R) are false

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Enzyme molecules are fewer than substrate molecules.
Sol.: When the substrate concentration increases, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction increases at first. After reaching the
maximum velocity (Vmax), the velocity stays stationary in spite of an increase in the concentration of substrate.
This is because the enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecules and after saturation of these molecules, there
are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecules.

You scored 0 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions

Question : 200 skipped

The enzyme commission number of an enzyme starts with ‘5’. This enzyme belongs to which of the following classes?

Options:

Ligases

Transferases

Oxidoreductases

Isomerases

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Enzymes catalysing isomerisation.
Sol.: The 6 classes of enzymes based on their commission number are:
(1) Oxidoreductases
(2) Transferases
(3) Hydrolases
(4) Lyases
(5) Isomerases
(6) Ligases

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