SMART Current Affairs - Full Length Test – 01- Answer Key

1. (b) 11. (a) 21. (b) 31. (b) 41. (c) 51. (b) 61. (d) 71. (a) 81. (c) 91. (d)
2. (c) 12. (a) 22. (a) 32. (b) 42. (d) 52. (a) 62. (b) 72. (a) 82. (c) 92. (d)
3. (b) 13. (d) 23. (c) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (b) 63. (b) 73. (a) 83. (d) 93. (b)
4. (b) 14. (c) 24. (b) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (d) 74. (b) 84. (c) 94. (b)
5. (b) 15. (a) 25. (b) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (a) 65. (c) 75. (b) 85. (a) 95. (a)
6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (c) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (c) 76. (a) 86. (c) 96. (a)
7. (c) 17. (a) 27. (a) 37. (b) 47. (c) 57. (b) 67. (c) 77. (d) 87. (a) 97. (a)
8. (a) 18. (a) 28. (d) 38. (c) 48. (d) 58. (b) 68. (c) 78. (d) 88. (a) 98. (c)
9. (a) 19. (b) 29. (a) 39. (b) 49. (d) 59. (a) 69. (d) 79. (c) 89. (a) 99. (d)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (b) 50. (b) 60. (b) 70. (c) 80. (d) 90. (d) 100. (c)

Q1.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Satyagraha Sabha was established by Mahatma Gandhi in the Bombay district of Maharashtra on
24 February 1919. It was in response to the Rowlatt Act of 1919 passed by the Imperial Legislative
Council.
● The Rowlatt Act was discriminatory, as it permitted the British government to detain people
suspected of terrorist activities for up to two years without charge or trial, and allowed the police to
conduct warrantless searches.
● In response to Gandhi's call, members of the Satyagraha Sabha vowed to oppose the Rowlatt Act,
even if it meant being arrested and detained. It was a novel strategy, as until then, the Nationalist
movements led by moderates or revolutionaries had confined themselves to using force and
agitations to protest.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q2.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Indian National Congress, on 19 December 1929, passed the historic ‘Purna Swaraj’ (total
independence) resolution at its Lahore session. Jawaharlal Nehru was nominated as the President
for the Lahore session.
● The following major decisions were taken at the Lahore session:
○ The First Round Table Conference was to be boycotted. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Complete independence or Purna Swaraj was declared as the aim of Congress. January 26,
1930, was fixed as the first Independence (Swarajya) Day. The newly adopted tricolour flag
of freedom was hoisted by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 31, 1929 at midnight on the banks
of River Ravi. So, point 1 is correct.

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 ○ Congress Working Committee was authorised to launch a program of civil disobedience
including non-payment of taxes and all members of legislatures were asked to resign from
their seats. So, point 4 is correct.
● Resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme were adopted during
the Karachi session of 1931. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q3.
Answer: b
Explanation:
In the late fifteenth century, Portuguese explorer Vasco da Gama reached the shores of the Indian
subcontinent, establishing maritime connections that marked the onset of European influence.
Subsequent expeditions by other European powers, including the Dutch, English and French, intensified
this engagement, leading to competition for trade dominance and territorial control. The establishment
of trading posts and colonies paved the way for a new chapter in India's history, shaped by global
interactions and the eventual ascendance of British colonial rule.
English:
In 1599 the 'English Association of the Merchant Adventurers' was formed to trade with the East. This
company (popularly known as the East India Company) got a Royal Charter with her trade monopoly in
the East by Queen Elizabeth in 1600. In 1611, the English started trading at Masulipatnam on the
southeastern coast of India and later established a factory there in 1616. It was in 1612 that Captain
Thomas Best defeated the Portuguese in the sea off Surat; an impressed Jahangir granted permission
to the English in early 1613 to establish a factory at Surat under Thomas Aldworth.
By 1619, they succeeded in establishing factories at Agra, Ahmedabad and Broach. In the South, the English
opened their first factory at Masulipatam in 1611. In 1626, another factory was opened at Aramgaon. In
1639, they got Madras on lease from the local Raja to build a fortified factory at Madras which later
became Fort St. George and replaced Masulipatnam as the headquarters of the English settlements in
south India. They acquired the island of Bombay in 1668 and fortified it soon after. It was soon to
supersede Surat (by 1687) as the headquarters of the Company on the west coast.
The English penetration in the East was comparatively late. They established their first factory in Orissa at
Hariharpur and Balasore in 1633. In 1651, they got permission to trade at Hugli. Soon they also opened
their factories in Patna (Bihar) and Qasimbazar (Bengal). In 1690, an English factory was opened at
Sutanati which was later (16%) fortified. In 1698, the English acquired the zamindari of Sutanati, Kalikata
and Govindpur, where they built Fort William. Soon it grew into a big city and came to be known as
Calcutta.
So, the correct chronological order of the British setting up their first factories in India is Surat (1613) - Agra
(1619) - Balasore (1633) - Madras (1639).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q4.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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 Rampa Rebellion (Manyam): It was a tribal revolt led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in the Rampa regions of
present-day Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh. The uprising was against the exploitative British
policies and oppressive forest laws that threatened the lives of tribes in the region. The rebellion was
started by looting police stations in Chintapalli, Krishnadevipet, and Rajavommangi by 500 tribals under
Raju. Tribal masses continued actively supporting the rebellion, which revealed their deep-rooted anti-
British sentiments and yearning for freedom. Nevertheless, the British crushed the rebellion after the
capture and murder of Raju. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Santhal Rebellion: This event marked the beginning of a turbulent year-long armed uprising (Hool) in the
Rajmahal hills of Eastern India and surrounding regions by the Santhal tribe. The peasants of this region
had been pushed to the breaking point by decades of relentless exploitation by the colonial government,
its police, the moneylenders and other agents of the Raj. Under the leadership of Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand,
and Bhairava, the Santhals rose up with the sole intention of uprooting the rule of the Dikus once and
for all. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Khandesh Bhil Rebellion: It was a valiant uprising of the Bhil community against the oppressive British
colonial rule, which sparked a spirit of resistance in the Khandesh region of the present-day Dhule
district of Maharashtra. The rebellion started in 1818 under the leadership of Bhil leaders such as Kazi
Singh and Bhima Naik, as the British authorities deprived the tribes of their traditional rights over forest
resources and land. During the rebellion, the Bhils caused significant damage to the British administrative
apparatus, including attacking their forces and looting their treasuries. So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q5.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet
Mission Plan. It was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to
be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a
limited franchise.
In the Constituent Assembly, 15 women from diverse backgrounds faced societal challenges like patriarchy
and caste discrimination. Their experiences influenced their views on reservations, minority rights, and
finances. They played a key role in discussions on the Hindu Code Bill, with Durgabai Deshmukh and
Hansa Kumari supporting a Uniform Civil Code for gender equality.
The 15 women who were part of the Constituent Assembly are: Ammu Swaminathan, Annie Maccarene,
Begum Aizaz Rasul, Dakshayani Velayudhan, Durgabai Deshmukh, Hansa Jivraj Mehta, Kamala
Chaudhary, Leela Roy, Malti Chaudhary, Poornima Baneerji, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Renuka Ray, Sarojini
Naidu, Sujeta Kriplani and Vijaylaxmi Pandit. So, points 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Ramabai Ranade and Sarla Devi Chaudhurani were not the members of Constituent Assembly of India. So,
points 3 and 5 are not correct.
So, only three of the above women were part of the Constituent Assembly of India.

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Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Annie Mascarene:
She fought to integrate the princely state of Travancore into the newly independent India
and became the first woman to hold a ministerial and legislative assembly position in
Travancore.
Mascarene in the Constituent Assembly Debates firmly believed in the centralisation of
power for a smooth functioning of a democracy. She also warned against complete
centralisation
Hansa Jivraj Mehta:
On August 15, 1947, as the country celebrated its independence and President Rajendra
Prasad took the pledge of freedom, Mehta presented the country’s first national flag
on behalf of the women of India
She also served on the board of UNESCO and became the first Vice Chancellor of MS
University in Baroda.
Dakshayani Velayudhan:
She supported Article 17 of the Constitution which abolishes untouchability.
Amrit Kaur:
She advocated for universal adult franchise and did not believe in reservations for women.
She advocated for the Uniform Civil Code along with Hansa Mehta and wanted to replace
“free practice of religion” with “freedom of religious worship” in the draft Constitution.
Kaur also served as the first women Health Minister and founded renowned institutions
like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS).
Ammu Swaminathan:
She formed the Women’s India Association along with Annie Besant in 1917.
In the Constituent Assembly, Swaminathan supported the adult franchise and the removal
of untouchability.
Having been at the receiving end of the practice of child marriage herself, she advocated
for the Child Marriage Restraint Act and Age of Consent Act and the various Hindu Code
Bills that pushed for reform in Hindu religious laws.
Durgabai Deshmukh:
Pioneered the Andhra Mahila Sabha in 1937.
In the Constituent Assembly, she weighed in on judicial matters and advocated lowering
the age from 35 to 30 to hold a seat in the Council of Ministers.
Begum Aizaz Rasul
She was the only Muslim woman member in the Constituent Assembly and advocated for
minority rights.
She opposed reservations and separate electorates on communal lines.
Vijaya Laxmi Pandit:
She was the first woman cabinet minister in the British era. She was also one of the first
leaders to call for an Indian constituent assembly to frame a Constitution.
Only woman delegate at the United Nations Organisation Conference. She was also the
first woman President of the UN General Assembly in 1953.
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Q6.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Basadis and Nishidis are terms related to Jainism, particularly referring to Jain temples. “Basadi" is a
Kannada word that translates to "residence" or "dwelling place." It signifies the Jain temples as places
of spiritual residence and enlightenment.
Moodbidri and Karkala are the two small towns located in coastal Karnataka that are restoring ancient water
bodies, reminiscent of Bhagiratha's legendary efforts. Moodbidri town is known as 'Jain Kashi,' and is
home to Jain temples (Basadis and Nishidis) as well as monasteries.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The town of Moodbidri in Karnataka, is known for Jain basadis and nishidis has grown into an
educational hub in recent years.

Q7.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The whole system of Surya Tilak is based on an optomechanical system which is specially designed to
converge and focus sun rays on the idol’s forehead. The Surya Tilak ritual is performed at various temples
across India, each having a distinct engineering technique that illuminates deities with sunlight at specific
times. Surya Tilak is performed at the following places in India:
Suriyanar Kovil (Tamil Nadu): Constructed during the 11th and 12th centuries, it pays homage to Surya, the
Sun God. The architectural design of the temple allows sunlight to illuminate specific areas within the
sacred structure at predetermined times throughout the year. During these moments, the light falls upon
the deity, Suriyanar (Sun) and his divine consorts, Ushadevi and Pratyusha Devi. So, point 1 is correct.
Mahalakshmi Temple (Maharashtra): It was built during the Chalukyan era and is famous for a unique
phenomenon called the Kiranotsav which occurs twice a year. During the Kiranotsav, sunrays directly
penetrate the temple ultimately reaching the 'garbhagriha', or the inner sanctum. On two particular
days, the sun's rays illuminate the feet of the goddess Mahalaxmi's idol. So, point 2 is correct.
Omkareshwar Temple (Madhya Pradesh): It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva and is one of the 12
Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. Surya Tilak is not performed here. So, point 3 is not correct.
Koba Jain Temple (Gujarat): Surya Tilak” occurs annually on 22nd May in which the Sun rays appear directly
on the forehead of the murti of Mahaveerswami at exactly 2.07 pm local time and continues for three
minutes. So, point 4 is correct.
Gavi Gangadhareshwara Temple (Karnataka): It was built in the 16th century by Kempe Gowda I, the
founder of the city. It is a sacred shrine devoted to Lord Shiva and known for its two huge stone discs.
Every year on the Makar Sankranti day, when the Sun enters Capricorn. Rays of the sun fall on the Shivling
inside the cave. So, point 5 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Surya Tilak was recently performed at Ram Mandir in Ayodhya, where sunlight was brought on the
forehead of Sri Ram Lalla at 12 noon on the occasion of Sri Ram Navami in the Chaitra month.

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 Knowledge Box

Other temples famous for Surya Tilak:

Vedanarayanaswamy Temple (Andhra Pradesh): It is dedicated to Lord Vishnu in his
Matsya Avatar. During the 12th, 13th, and 14th days of the Phalguna month (around
March), the Sun's rays fall on different parts of the deity—feet, chest, and forehead—
on consecutive days.
Konark Temple (Odisha): It is renowned as one of the most prominent Sun temples. Its
architecture resembles a grand chariot, complete with intricately carved wheels and
horses. Designed with astronomical precision, the temple aligns with the first rays of
sunlight illuminating its main entrance.
Modhera Sun Temple (Gujarat): It is devoted to the Sun god. It was constructed in the
early 11th century under the rule of King Bhimdev I of the Solanki dynasty, this temple
boasts a remarkable feature: its design facilitates the sunlight to illuminate a specific
spot on certain days.
Arasavalli Temple (Andhra Pradesh): It is a temple dedicated to Lord Surya where sun
rays fall at the feet of the deity on certain days. The early morning sun falls on the feet
of the deity on summer solstice and winter solstice even when the five entrance gates
are closed. According to Padmapuranam, Kasyapa Rishi had installed the Idol of Surya
at Arasavalli for the welfare of human beings. The temple was built by the Eastern
Kalinga Kings in the 7th century.
Relevance: Recently Surya Tilak ritual was performed at Ram Temple Ayodhya.

Q8.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Guptas as a political power ruled in north India for about two and half centuries and out of this period they
functioned as an empire for almost 150 years. The Gupta power at its peak extended from the Kathiawar
peninsula in Gujarat in the west to Bengal in the east and from north-west India in the north to Madhya
Pradesh in the south.
The Gupta administration made efforts to restructure the agrarian economy. This is indicated by land grants
where the donees were expected to augment the agricultural potential of the region. It was in this way
that cultivation of fertile, irrigated lands was improved and settlement of wasteland was encouraged.
The initial land grants were not in the centre but in the areas beyond. Thus, this initiative brought
peripheral regions into the larger agrarian economy. So, statement 1 is correct.
Agriculture produce was not the sole monopoly of the cultivator. The state claimed the agricultural
produce as taxes ranging from one-fourth to one-sixth of the produce. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Irrigation held significant importance during the Gupta period, with locally managed irrigation devices such
as the ghati-yantra, also known as the araghatta, being prevalent. Various irrigation methods were
employed across the Gupta kingdom. One notable example is the Sudarshana reservoir (tadaga) in
Saurashtra, Gujarat.

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 Copper plates from this era distinctly mention various irrigation infrastructures such as tanks and ponds
(tadaga and pushkarini), marshy areas and ditches (Jola, hajjika and khata), as well as embankments
along rivers (ali, brihadali) as means of irrigation. The state was not wholly responsible for providing
irrigation facilities. Much of agriculture was also rain-dependent. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Vishti or forced labour was also a kind of regular tax during this period. Forced labour
(Vishti) became more common than before in this period, it was considered a source of
income for the state, a sort of tax paid by the people. The State accepted Vishti as a
formal source of income. The practice of vishti made the position of ordinary cultivators
miserable.

Q9.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) (3300 BCE - 1800 BCE) culture was the town culture with trade as the
main occupation, while during the Vedic Age (1500 BC - 600 BC), the predominant culture was rural,
characterised initially by pastoralism, which later evolved into agriculture as the primary occupation.
So, statement 1 is not correct.
The main food of the people of IVC was wheat and fish, while the main food of the people of Vedic culture
was barley and rice. However, rice was also known to the IVC. Its evidence is found in Lothal. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
The people of the IVC were of a peaceful nature. They fought only for self-defence, while the people of Vedic
culture were belligerent and belligerent. They were adept at defensive and offensive warfare. The
people of the IVC made weapons (swords, daggers, spears) from copper, bronze and stone, which were
of inferior quality. The Aryans made sharp iron weapons, the level of which was higher than that of the
IVC. So, statement 3 is correct.
In the field of religion, people of IVC culture were mainly idol-worshipers and worshipped Shiva and Shakti.
People from Vedic culture were generally opposed to idol worship. They did not believe in idol worship
and their main deities were Indra, Agni, Varuna, Surya, etc. So, statement 4 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q10.
Answer: c
Explanation:

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 The Jahangiri Mahal was built by Akbar and is
conceived as a robust building in red sandstone. It
is the only surviving example in the fort of the
domestic requirements of the ruler and is a fine
specimen of the fusion of Hindu and Islamic building
designs. It is planned in the form of an asymmetrical
range of apartments. The facade on the eastern side
has an entrance gateway leading to a domed hall
with an elaborately carved ceiling. As one crosses
this hall one reaches a central open courtyard. The entire construction is mainly in red sandstone with
the combination of beam and bracket forming its principal structural system. So, statement 1 is correct.
During the reign of Jahangir, his wife Noor Jahan also undertook some major construction projects like the
tomb of Itmad-ud-daulah (father of Noor Jahan) is an excellent example. It was during this time that
white marble became the chief building material, replacing red sandstone which had been used till now.
The tomb of Itmad-ud-daulah was the first Mughal work made completely of white marble. It also has
some of the finest pietra-dura works. The
tomb of Jahangir was constructed by his
son Shah Jahan at Lahore. So, statement 2
is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q11.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Seafloor spreading is a geologic process in
which tectonic plates—large slabs of
Earth's lithosphere—split apart from each
other. Seafloor spreading and other
tectonic activity processes are the result of mantle convection. Mantle convection is the slow, churning
motion of Earth's mantle.
The mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions revealed the
following facts:
It was realised that all along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring
huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area. So, statement 1 is correct.
The rocks equidistant on either side of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities
in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to
the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest. The age of the rocks
increases as one moves away from the crest. So, statement 2 is correct.
The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. The age of rocks in the oceanic
crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are
as old as 3,200 million years. So, statement 3 is not correct.
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Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q12.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Avdiivka is a pivotal city in eastern Ukraine's Donbas region. Russian forces have escalated their efforts to
capture it amid ongoing conflict. With a population reduced to under 1,000, the city, once bustling, now
faces devastation. Described as a "fortress" by Russian-backed officials, it holds strategic importance for
both sides, serving as a gateway to Donetsk. The intense battle signifies Russia's push for full control
over Donbass provinces while posing challenges for Ukrainian forces and influencing Western opinion
on Kyiv's support. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Murmansk is the seaport and center of Murmansk oblast (region), northwestern Russia. The town, founded
in 1915 as a supply port in World War I, was a base for the British, French and American expeditionary
forces against the Bolsheviks in 1918. Murmansk’s ice-free harbour makes it Russia’s only port with
unrestricted access to the Atlantic and world sea routes. In the first seven months of 2023, Murmansk
Port, the main northern gateway of Russia and a transhipment hub handled eight million tonnes of cargo.
Of this, India accounted for 35% of cargo. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Baalbek is a large archaeological complex encompassing the ruins of an ancient Roman town in eastern
Lebanon. It is located in the broad Al-Biqāʿ (Bekaa Valley) region. The complex was designated a UNESCO
World Heritage site in 1984. Israeli strikes happened in eastern Lebanon's Baalbek region. The strikes
targeted Janta and Sifri in the Bekaa Valley. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
So, only one of the above pairs is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The fall of Avdiivka is Russia's biggest gain since it captured the city of Bakhmut.

Q13.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Deccan Trap flood basalt is one of the largest volcanic features on Earth and crops out over the west-central
Indian subcontinent. The trap complex is predominantly composed of multiple layers of tholeiitic flood basalt.
Formation of Deccan Traps: At the close of the Cretaceous period, peninsular India was witnessed by the
major phase of volcanic activity. It was a remarkable event in the geology of India, where numerous lava
flows were poured out mainly through fissure-type volcanic eruptions and covered a vast area of the
Deccan Plateau in western and central India. These lava flows formed as one of the largest Igneous
Provinces in the world, which are known as the Deccan Traps or Deccan Volcanic Province.

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 Deccan Traps, which host one of the largest igneous provinces of the globe, occupy an area of about 500,000
km2 mainly in western and central India. It covers parts of
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Andhra
Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Goa
and Daman and Diu in peninsular India.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.

Q14.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Saharan dust is a type of Particulate Matter (PM) that
originates in the Sahara Desert in Northern Africa. The dust
is made up of particles that can be blown for thousands of
miles. So, statement 1 is correct.
Saharan dust comes from the Sahara Desert in Northern Africa.
Thunderstorms and cyclones can produce high-speed
winds that lift the dust and transport it thousands of miles through the air. The dust can travel around
the globe to parts of Europe, South America, Central America, the Caribbean and the United States of
America. So, statement 2 is correct.
Saharan dust can be harmful to one's health. The particles can be breathed in and enter the lungs and
bloodstream, potentially triggering asthma attacks in people who have asthma and aggravating other
respiratory conditions. It worsens air quality and increases the levels of particulate matter in the air. So,
statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Local authorities in France have announced that the air pollution threshold had been breached in
some areas.

Q15.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Lithium is often dubbed as “white gold” for electric vehicles (EVs). The lightweight metal plays a key role in
the cathodes of all types of lithium-ion batteries that power EVs. Accordingly, the recent rise in EV
adoption has sent lithium production to new highs.
Lithium producers at present: Australia alone produces 52% of the world’s lithium. Unlike Chile, where
lithium is extracted from brines, Australian lithium comes from hard-rock mines for the mineral
spodumene. China, the third-largest producer, has a strong foothold in the lithium supply chain.
Alongside developing domestic mines, Chinese companies have acquired lithium assets in countries like
Chile, Canada and Australia over the last decade.

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 Uses of lithium other than batteries: Before EVs and lithium-ion batteries transformed the demand for
lithium, the metal’s end-uses looked completely different as compared to today. In 2010, ceramics and
glass accounted for the largest share of lithium consumption at 31%. In ceramics and glassware, lithium
carbonate increases strength and reduces thermal expansion, which is often essential for modern glass
ceramics. Lithium is also used to make lubricant greases for the transport, steel and aviation industries,
along with other lesser-known uses.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India has been exploring ways to secure lithium supplies with the first lithium deposits of 5.9 million
tonnes found in Jammu and Kashmir in February this year.

Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
In India, population data are collected through a Census operation held every 10 years. The first census of
independent India was conducted in 1951. The latest census is the Census of India, 2011.
Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points
in time. Its rate is expressed in percentage. According to the Census of India, 2011, Nagaland
experienced a population growth of -0.6% from 2001 to 2011 which is less than all of the other States
and Union Territories in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
Density of the population is expressed as the number of persons per unit area. It helps in getting a better
understanding of the spatial distribution of population in relation to land. The density of the population
in India (2011) is 382 persons per sq km. According to the 2011 census, the highest population density
occurs in the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, which is 11,320 persons per sq km. So, statement
2 is not correct.
According to the Census of India, 2011, the highest percentage of the population living in urban areas as
compared to rural areas occurs in the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, which is 97.50 % of the
total population of the NCT of Delhi. So, statement 3 is correct.
Census of India, 2011, indicates that data of 56.21 % of female literacy for Jharkhand shows the lowest
female literacy in Jharkhand as compared to all the other States/Union Territories in India. So, statement
4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q17.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Kuroshio, or Japan Current, is a north-flowing warm ocean current on the west side of the North Pacific
Ocean. So, point 1 is correct.
California current is a cold current which flows along the coasts of the western USA. So, point 2 is not
correct.
Humboldt current or Peruvian current is a cold current which flows along the west coast of South America.
So, point 3 is not correct.
Agulhas is a warm oceanic current of the Southwest Indian Ocean. So, point 4 is correct.
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 Benguela Current in the Atlantic Ocean is a cold current. So, point 5 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q18.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot make amendments in a Money
Bill passed by Lok Sabha and transmitted to it. It can, however, recommend amendments in a Money
Bill, but must return all Money Bills to Lok Sabha within fourteen days from the date of their receipt. It
is open to Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of the recommendations of Rajya Sabha with regard
to a Money Bill.
If Lok Sabha accepts any of the recommendations of Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been
passed by both Houses with amendments recommended by Rajya Sabha and accepted by Lok Sabha. If
Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations of Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to
have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by Lok Sabha without any of the
amendments recommended by Rajya Sabha.
If a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha and transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its recommendations is not returned
to Lok Sabha within the said period of fourteen days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses
at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by Lok Sabha.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q19.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The United Nations (UN) General Assembly may grant Permanent Observer Status to non-member states,
international organisations and other entities.
Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and some are
allowed to maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.
The African Union has permanent observer status at the United Nations. This status allows the AU to
participate in the General Assembly discussions and other relevant UN meetings but not to vote on
resolutions. So, point 1 is correct.
The European Union also holds permanent observer status at the United Nations. So, point 2 is correct.
The organisations G20 and BRICS do not have permanent observer status at the United Nations as of now.
So, points 3 and 4 are not correct.
So, only two of the above bodies/organisations have Permanent Observer status at the United Nations.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q20.
Answer: b
Explanation:
For every constituency, there is a list of voters which is called the electoral roll. Article 326 of the Constitution
and Section 19 of Representation of the People Act, 1950 stipulate that the minimum age for registration of a
voter as 18 years.
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 Elections, on the basis of electoral rolls consisting of names and details of local people, were introduced in
India for the first time under the Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley Minto Reforms). The elective element
for Indians in Legislature was further continued in 1919 Act and 1935 Act, however, in these Acts the
eligibility for enrolment as electors was restricted to a miniscule section of Indians having certain high
qualifications, like ownership of property, payment of income tax, holding of land, educational
qualification, Government Service. So, statement 1 is correct.
Photo electoral roll was introduced for the first time in all Assembly Constituencies of Kerala and
Puducherry and some selected Assembly Constituencies in Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.
Photo electoral rolls were prepared by linking image of elector kept in the EPIC database with the
elector’s details. Photo electoral rolls were prepared in other states in staggered manner during
subsequent annual revisions and gradually photo electoral roll replaced the text roll. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
The Election Commission has developed several IT applications, collectively known as Electoral Roll
Management System (ERMS) for managing the huge electoral database and streamlining the monitoring
system. Through these applications, regular exercise of error removal and de-duplication of multiple
entries from electoral roll is done. The Election Commission has also extended facility of online
submission of claims and objections. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q21.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the President. The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the
Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He
holds office during the pleasure of the President. This means that he may be removed by the President
at any time. So, point 1 is correct.
The Governor, who is the head of the state, is appointed by the President. He holds office during the pleasure
of the President. He also acts as an agent of the Centre. So, point 3 is correct.
The Comptroller and Auditor General holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the
president. He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge
of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution
passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the President,
though he is appointed by him. So, point 2 is not correct.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not hold his office till the pleasure of the President and remains in office
during the life of the Lok Sabha. So, point 4 is not correct.
However, he has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
if he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and

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 if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the Lok Sabha.
Such a resolution
So, only two of the above hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q22.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Principle of Natural Justice is derived from the word ‘Jus Natural’ of the Roman law and it is closely related to
Common law and moral principles but is not codified. It simply means to make a sensible and reasonable
decision making procedure on a particular issue.
Sometimes, it doesn’t matter what is the reasonable decision but in the end, what matters is the procedure
and who all are engaged in taking the reasonable decision. It is not restricted within the concept of
‘fairness’ it has different colours and shades which vary from the context. Rules/ principles of Natural
Justice consist of: Nemo Judex In Causa Sua, Audi Alteram Partem and Reasoned Decision
Audi Alteram Partem basically means that no person can be condemned or punished by the court
without having a fair opportunity of being heard.
In many jurisdictions, a bulk of cases are left undecided without giving a fair opportunity of being
heard.
The literal meaning of this rule is that both parties should be given a fair chance to present
themselves with their relevant points and a fair trial should be conducted.
This is an important rule of natural justice and its pure form is not to penalize anyone without any
valid and reasonable ground. Prior notice should be given to a person so he can prepare to know
what all charges are framed against him.
It is also known as a rule of fair hearing. The components of fair hearing are not fixed or rigid in
nature. It varies from case to case and authority to authority.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q23.
Answer: c
Explanation:
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL): It was constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. It is a 47-
member committee, headed by the Prime Minister of India and the Union Minister of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change as vice chairperson. The board is advisory in nature and advises the
Government in conservation and development of wildlife and forests. So, point 1 is correct.
Central Ground Water Authority: It was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to
regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country. It is not
chaired by the Prime Minister. So, point 2 is not correct.
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is a pan-India organisation, with a dynamic network of
national laboratories, outreach centres, innovation complexes and units. It is headed by the Prime
Minister of India. The Union Minister of Science and Technology acts as the Vice-President. So, point 3
is correct.

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 The Central Government, by a notification in 2009, set up ‘National GangaRiver Basin Authority’ (NGRBA)
as an empowered planning, financing, monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganga River, in
exercise of the powers conferred under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Prime Minister is
ex-officio Chairperson of the Authority, and it has as its members, the Union Ministers concerned and
the Chief Ministers of States through which Ganga flows: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand
and West Bengal, among others. So, point 5 is correct.
So, the Prime Minister of India is the chairperson of only three of the above bodies.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has approved an elevated road over nine corridors used by
the animals of Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve, usually during heavy floods.

Q24.
Answer: b
Explanation:
India-Palestine Relations:
India’s support for the Palestinian cause is an integral part of the nation’s foreign policy. In 1974,
India became the first Non-Arab State to recognize Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) as
the sole and legitimate representative of the Palestinian people. So, statement 1 is correct.
Government of India has set up an India-Palestine Centre of Excellence in ICT and Innovation in Al
Quds University, Abu Dis in 2015 and another ICT centre in Ramallah in 2016 and equipped
Vocational Training Centers in Palestine.
During the historic first ever visit of an Indian Prime Minister to Palestine in 2018, he was bestowed
upon the highest Palestinian award of the “Grand Collar of the State of Palestine”, in recognition
of India’s enhanced support for Palestinian Cause. So, statement 2 is not correct.
MoU for Construction of India Palestine Centre for Empowering Women “TURATHI”: a National
Centre for Development and Marketing of Palestinian Heritage Projects has been signed between
the two nations. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q25.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) provides that the Bank shall separately prepare a weekly
account of the Issue Department and of the Banking Department in the forms prescribed by the Central
Government. While Balance Sheets for the Issue and Banking Departments have been kept separate,
only one Profit and Loss Account is prepared for the entire bank.
As per the RBI Act, the only liability of the Issue Department is 'Notes in Circulation'. The assets of the Issue
Department comprise broadly, gold coins and bullion, rupee coins, rupee securities and foreign
securities.

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 Notes in Circulation comprises the notes issued by the Government of India up to 1935 and by the
RBI since then minus notes held in the Banking Department, i.e. notes held outside the Reserve
Bank by the public, banks treasuries etc. The Government of India's one rupee notes issued since
1940 are treated as rupee coins and hence are not included under this head. Notes in circulation
are shown under the liability side of the Balance Sheet.
India's Foreign Exchange Reserves comprise Foreign Currency Assets, Gold, Special Drawing Rights and a
Reserve Bank position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Foreign currency assets include
investments in US Treasury bonds, Bonds/Treasury Bills of other selected Governments, deposits with
foreign central banks, foreign commercial banks etc. These are shown under the asset side of the
Balance Sheet.
Loans and advances to others include loans and advances made to various funds created under Section 46
of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This mainly includes the loans given under special refinance
schemes to EXIM Bank and collateralised loans to primary dealers. These are shown under the asset side
of the Balance Sheet.
Treasury bills purchased and discounted by the Government represent the Government of India Treasury
Bills rediscounted by the Bank which is kept in the Banking Department. These are shown under the
asset side of the Balance Sheet.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.

Q26.
Answer: a
Explanation:
There has been a noticeable increase in investments by Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) in the Indian
debt markets in recent times. This trend reflects growing interest and confidence among foreign
investors in India's debt securities. They invested Rs 22,419 crore in February, Rs 19,836 crore and Rs
18,302 crore in January 2024. So, statement 1 is correct.
JP Morgan Chase & Co, in 2023, announced that it will add Indian government bonds to its Government
Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM) from June 2024. FPIs have been pumping money into the debt
markets for the past few months, driven by this decision. This landmark inclusion is anticipated to
benefit India by attracting around USD 20-40 billion in the subsequent 18 to 24 months. So, statement
2 is correct.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–
I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Benefits of inclusion of Indian bonds in the Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-
EM):

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 Such inclusions could lead to billions of dollars worth of inflows into India’s rupee-
denominated government debt. As demand rises, bond yields fall, supporting the local
currency.
The inclusion will help India realize the goal of a $5 trillion economy by 2030. It will help
Asia’s third-largest economy integrate with the global economy.
It will also help India raise more funds, meet growing borrowing costs and grow the
investor base for government securities.
As a consequence of these stable long-term global investments, Indian banks, the largest
investors of government securities, will be able to lend more domestically, leading to
infrastructure creation and employment generation.
Fully Accessible Route (FAR):
The reforms that have led to index inclusion is namely the establishment of the FAR
component of the government bond market.
Under the FAR, eligible investors can put money in specified government securities
without ceiling limits, paving the way for foreign investors to access Indian bond
markets.
Relevance: J.P. Morgan recently announced the inclusion of Indian government bonds in its Government Bond
Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM).

Q27.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Emigration Act, 1983 provides the regulatory framework for emigration of Indian workers for
contractual overseas employment and seeks to safeguard their interests and ensure their welfare. The
Act makes it mandatory for registration of Recruiting Agents with the Protector General of Emigrants.
So, statement 1 is not correct.
In order to safeguard the interests of Indian nationals working abroad, the Emigration Act of 1983 requires
all workers seeking contractual employment abroad to obtain emigration clearance from any of the ten
Offices of the Protectors of Emigrants (POEs). The Act also mandates that no agency/establishment can
undertake recruitment of Indians for employment abroad without obtaining registration from the
Protector General of Emigrants, Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India. So, statement 2 is
correct.
Workers going to conflict zones or places without sufficient labour protections are required to register with
the Ministry of External Affairs ‘e-migrate’ portal. Passports issued under the ECR (Emigration Check
Required) scheme cover workers travelling to 18 countries, including Afghanistan, Bahrain, Indonesia,
Iraq, Jordan, the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Malaysia, Oman, Qatar, South Sudan,
Sudan, Syria, Thailand, the UAE and Yemen. Israel is not on this list and the ‘e-migrate’ system will not
be used for those going to Israel despite continuing violence due to Israel’s bombing of Gaza. So,
statement 3 is not correct.

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 India has not ratified the international conventions that govern the protection of migrant workers: the
Migration for Employment Convention (Revised), 1949 (No. 97) and the Migrant Workers
(Supplementary Provisions) Convention, 1975 (No. 143), established by the International Labour
Organisation. So, statement 4 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In collaboration with the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), the Governments of Uttar
Pradesh and Haryana have initiated the recruitment of approximately 10,000 workers for construction projects
in Israel.

Q28.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The multiplier effect is an economic term, referring to the proportional amount of increase, or decrease, in
final income that results from an injection, or withdrawal, of capital. Multiplier effects measure the
impact that a change in economic activity—like investment or spending—will have on the total economic
output of something.
The multiplier effect explains that government spending intended to stimulate the economy causes
increases in private spending that additionally stimulates the economy. Government spending gives
households additional income, which leads to increased consumer spending. That, in turn, leads to
increased business revenues, production, capital expenditures, and employment, which further
stimulates the economy.
The currency deposit ratio shows the amount of currency that people hold as a proportion of aggregate
deposits. A decrease in the Currency Deposit Ratio leads to an increase in the money multiplier and
vice versa. An increase in deposit rates will induce depositors to deposit more, thereby leading to a
decrease in the Cash to Aggregate Deposit ratio. This will in turn lead to a rise in Money Multiplier.
Any increase in private investment has a more than proportionate positive impact on aggregate income
and the general economy. The larger an investment's multiplier, the more efficient it is at creating and
distributing wealth throughout an economy that increases the money supply.
The reverse repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows money from commercial
banks within the country. An increase in the reverse repo rate will decrease the money supply and vice-
versa, other things remaining constant. An increase in the reverse repo rate means that commercial
banks will get more incentives to park their funds with the RBI, thereby decreasing the supply of money
in the market.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q29.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Central Government taxes the production of petroleum products, while states tax their sale.
The Central Government levies Excise Duty on both petrol and diesel, while states apply a Value Added Tax
(VAT) or Sales Tax. So, points 1 and 2 are correct.

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 While excise duty rates are uniform across the country, the state taxes (sales tax/ VAT) levied vary across
states. This implies that while the value of the excise duty component of the price structure is fixed, the
value of the sales tax component is dependent on the other three components, i.e., the price charged
to dealers, dealer commission, and excise duty. There is no Goods and Services Tax (GST) being levied
on petrol and diesel at present in India. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q30.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Convertibility refers to the ability to convert domestic currency into foreign currencies and vice versa to
make payments for the balance of payments transactions. There are two types of convertibility: Current
Account Convertibility & Capital Account Convertibility.
Current Account Convertibility is the ability or freedom to convert domestic currency for current account
transactions while Capital Account Convertibility is the ability or freedom to convert domestic currency
for capital account transactions.
The Tarapore Committee (2006) defined Capital Account Convertibility as the “freedom to convert local
financial assets into foreign financial assets and vice versa.” So, statement 1 is correct.
Capital Account Convertibility improves access to international financial markets and makes capital more
accessible. This leads to lowering of the borrowing cost of capital. It also means that Indian companies
can obtain external commercial borrowing without the approval of the Reserve Bank of India or the
government. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Liberalised Exchange Rate Mechanism Scheme (LERMS) was provided by the Union Budget 1992-93.
This was the initial step to enabling a transition to a market-determined exchange rate system. Later in
1994, the rupee was made fully convertible in the Current Account and made partially convertible in the
capital account. Thus, India follows the policy of partial Capital Account Convertibility in the ratio of
60:40. This means 40% of the receipts are convertible at the official rate and 60% of the receipts at the
market rate. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q31.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Revenue receipts can be defined as those receipts that neither create any liability nor cause any reduction
in the assets of the government.
Tax Revenue Receipts include all money earned by the government via the different taxes the government
collects, i.e., all direct and indirect tax collections. Income tax, sales tax, service tax, excise duty, and
customs duty are some of the taxes that a government collects.
The surcharge is a tax on tax. It constitutes the tax revenue receipts in India It is levied on the tax
payable, and not on the income generated. So, point 2 is correct.

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 Non-Tax Revenue is recurrent income earned by the government from sources other than taxes. The
following are important non-tax revenue sources:
Fees, Penalties, and fines received by the
government. Fees are charges levied by
the government to pay the cost of
recurrent services. So, point 1 is not
correct.
The license fees from telecom operators on
account of spectrum usage costs that
licensed Telecom Service Providers to pay
to the government ministry in charge of
telecommunications make up the
majority of this. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Subject: Economics| Public Finance
Tags: Conceptual

Q32.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The fabric of space-time is a conceptual model combining the three dimensions of space with the fourth
dimension of time. According to the best of current physical theories, space-time explains the unusual
relativistic effects that arise from travelling near the speed of light as well as the motion of massive
objects in the universe. The famous physicist Albert Einstein helped develop the idea of space-time as
part of his theory of Relativity. So, statement 1 is correct.
One way of envisioning the space-time continuum is to think of a large piece of fabric, such as a sheet.
Einstein realised that objects with mass, such as a person or Planet Earth, create a distortion in space-
time. Imagine placing a bowling ball in the middle of the sheet. The area around the bowling ball would
be pressed down, creating a dimple in the sheet. These dimples represent curvatures in the fabric of
the space-time continuum. Einstein identified these curves in the space-time continuum as gravity. So,
statement 2 is correct.
The light should bend when travelling around massive objects. This phenomenon, known as gravitational
lensing, has been observed by astronomers who use it to study galaxies and stars otherwise hidden
behind massive objects.
Einstein also theorised that the relative nature of space and time would mean that an object in motion
would experience time at a slower rate than one at rest (Time Dilation theory). Every day, the satellites
that make up the Global Positioning System gain about 38 microseconds compared to Earth clocks. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Scientists have found that the supermassive black hole Sagittarius A*, which is located at the centre
of our galaxy, has been spinning rapidly as well as altering space-time around it.
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Q33.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The atom bomb is based on the principle of uncontrolled chain reaction. In an uncontrolled chain reaction,
the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply almost in a geometrical
progression. This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to an
explosion. So, statement 1 is correct.
Approximately 99.3% of naturally occurring uranium is of the isotope U-238, which is not fissionable.
Naturally occurring uranium, therefore, cannot be used in a weapon, or for that matter, in nuclear
power plants. Thus, uranium ore is enriched in order to increase the concentration of Uranium-235 (U-
235). Most nuclear power plants require an enrichment of 3-4% U-235 to sustain a chain reaction. Fission
bombs on the other hand need closer to 90% enrichment. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Scientists need to make sure that the bomb does not reach critical mass earlier than intended to
prevent an accidental explosion. Critical mass is the minimum mass of fissionable material
required to sustain a nuclear fission. Thus, in a fission bomb, the fuel is kept in separate
subcritical masses and then brought together when the explosion is intended.
Fission bombs, although very destructive, are not very efficient. There is also a theoretical limit to
the yield they can possibly generate. The largest fission bombs tested till date have had yields of
around 500 kilotonnes. Fusion bombs, on the other hand, have no such limit. The largest fusion
bomb ever tested — the Soviet Tsar Bomba — gave a yield of roughly 50 megatonnes, or 50,000
kt.
Thermonuclear weapons, sometimes referred to as Hydrogen, or “H-bombs,” utilise both atomic fission
and nuclear fusion to create an explosion. The combination of these two processes releases massive
amounts of energy, hundreds to thousands of times more powerful than an atomic bomb. So, statement
3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recently released film ‘Oppenheimer’ has reigned the conversations around nuclear weapons.

Q34.
Answer: d
Explanation:
DNA fingerprinting is a laboratory technique used to determine the probable identity of a person based on
the nucleotide sequences of certain regions of human DNA that are unique to individuals. The
nucleotide sequences of specific human DNA segments, known as repetitive DNA, which are specific to
each person, are used as the basis for the laboratory procedure known as DNA fingerprinting to ascertain
a person’s probable identification.
DNA fingerprinting is a chemical test that shows the genetic makeup of a person or other living things. It is
used as evidence in courts, to identify bodies, track down blood relatives, and to look for cures for
disease. So, statement 1 is correct.

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 Since it was invented in 1984, DNA fingerprinting most often has been used in court cases and legal matters.
It can physically connect a piece of evidence to a person or rule out someone as a suspect, show who
your parents, siblings, and other relatives may be, identify a dead body that’s too old or damaged to be
recognizable. It also has medical uses. It can match tissues of organ donors with those of people who
need transplants, identify diseases that are passed down through your family, help find cures for those
diseases, called hereditary conditions. So, statement 2 is correct.
DNA Fingerprinting method has its own limitations. The sample of DNA can easily be ruined during the
process of DNA fingerprinting, causing the sample to become completely useless for testing. The test
needs to be run on multiple samples, a numerous number of times for ideal accuracy. Commonly, labs
run each test twice with four samples. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q35.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The latest HIV Drug Resistance (HIVDR) Report from the World Health Organization (WHO) provides crucial
insights into the emergence of drug resistance. It offers recommendations for countries to monitor and
address potential challenges effectively.
WHO emphasises successful viral load suppression (>90%) among populations receiving Antiretroviral
Therapy (ART) containing dolutegravir (DTG). However, there is cause for concern as observational data
and country-generated surveys indicate that levels of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) drug
resistance to DTG are surpassing those observed in controlled clinical trials.
Since 2018, WHO has recommended the use of dolutegravir as the preferred first- and second-line HIV
treatment for all population groups. It is more effective, easier to take, and has fewer side effects than
other drugs currently in use. It also has a high genetic barrier to developing drug resistance.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent report by the World Health Organization (WHO) states the growing resistance to the
antiretroviral drug dolutegravir (DTG) among HIV patients.
Subject: Science & Technology | Health and Diseases
Tags: Factual

Q36.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Chandrayaan 3’s rover Pragyaan has recently sent its second observation confirming the presence of
Sulphur on the lunar surface near the south pole region of the Moon. The Laser-Induced Breakdown
Spectroscopy (LIBS) instrument onboard Chandrayaan-3’s rover Pragyan also revealed the presence of
Aluminum (Al), Calcium (Ca), Iron (Fe), Chromium (Cr), and Titanium (Ti) on the Moon.
In the first-ever in-situ measurements on the elemental composition of the lunar surface near the
south pole region, the LIBS instrument also found traces of manganese (Mn), silicon (Si), and
oxygen (O) while the search for Hydrogen was being conducted.

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 The presence of Sulphur could actually be an indication that there is water ice on the lunar surface. Sulphur
is a volatile element that easily vaporizes and escapes from the atmosphere. The Pragyan rover has
found Sulphur on the Moon’s surface so it must have been released from volcanoes relatively recently.
There are chances that this Sulphur could be trapped in water ice. It is also probable that the water ice
present near the south pole region was exposed to lunar radiation due to which it broke down and
released Sulphur. So, points 1 and 2 are correct.
Also, Sulphur is considered a decent absorber of contaminants and it could be used to protect the Moon’s
water ice from contamination by other harmful materials. It is believed that the water ice is covered by
the lunar regolith, a loose material that covers the lunar surface. Sulphur can be used to absorb water
vapour and extract water ice from the regolith.
The evidence of the presence of Sulphur can reveal insights into the formation and evolution of the Moon.
Sulphur usually originates from volcanic activities, and its presence on the Moon can offer indications
about the Moon’s history and composition.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Phosphine is developed naturally by bacteria that live in very low-oxygen environments.

The discovery of phosphine in Venus hints towards the possibility of life on Venus.
Relevance: Recently, the Laser-Induced Breakdown Spectroscopy (LIBS) instrument onboard Chandrayaan-3
Rover confirmed the presence of Sulphur (S) on the lunar surface.

Q37.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Pancreatic cancer is classified as a "cold tumour," meaning that because it does not provoke a strong
immune response, it can hide more effectively from the immune system. Immunotherapy usually has
no effect on cold tumours. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The protein SRSF1, which regulates RNA splicing, plays a critical role in the development of pancreatic
ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC), a deadly form of pancreatic cancer. Elevated levels of SRSF1 lead to
inflammation and stimulate tumor growth while restoring normal levels halts the disease’s progress. This
discovery could pave the way for new diagnostic methods and treatments for PDAC. PDAC is the most
common form of pancreatic cancer. So, statement 2 is correct
The pancreas is a small organ located deep in the abdominal cavity. Carcinoma is one of the leading causes
of cancer death worldwide. The main problem is that pancreatic cancer is usually detected at a very late
stage. There is no early detection method, and patients don’t usually have any symptoms until the
cancer becomes unusually large or has spread to other organs. Even if it is possible to surgically remove
the tumor, it often returns.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A new mRNA vaccine was in the news which could prevent tumors from returning after surgery.

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Q38.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Mpemba effect:
It is a physics concept that postulates that
when hot water and cold water are
placed in an identical freezing
environment, the hot water will freeze
faster than the cold water. It is named
after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba,
who brought attention to this
counterintuitive phenomenon.
When water freezes into ice, it undergoes a
phase change; it turns from a liquid into a
solid. Physicists traditionally declare the phase of a substance when it's at equilibrium. This means the
substance is in a stable state and significant amounts of energy are not flowing from one region to
another. It also means that its volume and temperature remain steady. When a substance is not at
equilibrium, its energy levels fluctuate and so does (potentially) its state of matter.
For water to freeze and stay frozen, individual water particles have to reach equilibrium. If too much energy
surges through nonequilibrium water, it will fluctuate between solid and liquid (at low temperatures) or
liquid and gas (at higher temperatures). The sooner that water particles reach equilibrium at low energy
levels, the sooner they can freeze.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q39.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Dog bites can transmit various infections to humans due to the bacteria or viruses present in the dog's saliva
or on their teeth.
Rabies: It is a viral infection transmitted through the saliva of infected animals, including dogs. It affects
the central nervous system and can be fatal if not treated promptly after exposure. So, point 1 is correct.
Lyme disease: It is transmitted through the bite of infected ticks, not directly through dog bites. While dogs
can carry ticks that may transmit Lyme disease to humans, the disease itself is not transmitted through
a dog bite. So, point 2 is not correct.
Pasteurellosis: This infection is caused by Pasteurella multocida bacteria, commonly found in the mouths of
dogs. A dog bite can introduce these bacteria into a wound. So, point 3 is correct.
Leptospirosis: It is a bacterial disease that can be transmitted by dogs, but it is typically spread through the
urine of infected animals, not through a bite. However, it can be a risk if a dog bite leads to exposure to
the infected urine. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Other diseases that can be caused by dog bites include: Cellulitis, Meningitis, Lymphangitis
and Endocarditis.

Q40.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Hemis National Park: It is located in Ladakh and has 4,400 sq km, it is the largest national park in India and
the whole of South Asia. It is one of the most important natural habitats for the snow leopard.
Desert National Park: Located in Rajasthan, it is one of the largest national parks in the country. The Desert
National Park (DNP) covers an area of 3162 sq km of which 1900 sq km is in the Jaisalmer district and
the remaining 1262 sq km is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. The main attraction is the Indian
bustard, which is an endangered species. Despite a fragile ecosystem, the region is home to a number
of migratory and resident birds like harriers, falcons, buzzards, vultures and eagles.
Gangotri National Park: It is located in Uttarakhand. It is spread over a mammoth 2,390 sq km and is
inhabited by more than 15 species of mammals and 150 bird species. The dense pine and deodar forests
here are home to black bears, Himalayan Tahr, blue sheep, musk deer and the elusive snow leopards.
Khangchendzonga National Park: It is located in Sikkim and is home to Mt. Khangchendzonga, the third-
highest peak in the world. It spans over 1784 sq. Km. The park covers about 25% of the entire state of
Sikkim, about half of India’s bird diversity, and one-third of India’s flowering plants call it home.
So, the correct order of National Parks in descending order based on their area is 4-3-2-1.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A Member of Parliament from Ladakh brought pressing concerns about wildlife protected areas,
including the Hemis National Park of Leh district.

Q41.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Planetary Boundaries Framework presents a
set of nine planetary boundaries within which
humanity can continue to develop and thrive
for generations to come.
These nine planetary boundaries were first
proposed by former centre director Johan
Rockstrom and a group of 28 internationally
renowned scientists in 2009.
Since then, their framework has been revised
several times. The latest update of 2023 not
only quantified all boundaries, it also concluded that six of the nine boundaries have been breached.

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 The six boundaries include climate change, biosphere integrity (genetic diversity and energy
available to ecosystems), land system change, freshwater change (changes across the entire
water cycle over land), biogeochemical flows (nutrient cycles) and novel entities (microplastics,
endocrine disruptors, and organic pollutants).
Crossing boundaries increases the risk of generating large-scale abrupt or irreversible environmental
changes. Drastic changes will not necessarily happen overnight, but together the boundaries mark a
critical threshold for increasing risks to people and ecosystems.
Boundaries are interrelated processes within the complex biophysical Earth system. This means that a
global focus on climate change alone is not sufficient for increased sustainability. Instead, understanding
the interplay of boundaries, especially climate and loss of biodiversity, is key in science and practice.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The world has breached six of the nine planetary boundaries necessary to maintain Earth’s stability
and resilience, according to a new study.

Q42.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Indoor air pollution can be defined as the contamination people are exposed to in their home, office or in the
commercial buildings they frequent. Indoor pollution sources that release gasses or particles into the air are the
primary cause of indoor air quality problems.
Deodorants: Aerosol deodorants contain gas propellants that contribute to air pollution and climate change.
Blends of propane and butane [liquefied petroleum gas] are widely used as propellants. They can react
with other components in the air and form secondary organic compounds which promote and contribute
to global warming. So, point 1 is correct.
Laser Printers: Printers and photocopiers have been found to emit volatile organic compounds (VOCs),
ozone and ultrafine particles. So, point 2 is correct.
VOCs are gases that are emitted into the air from products or processes. Some are harmful by themselves,
including some that cause cancer. Examples include benzene, formaldehyde and toluene.
Adhesives: Offgassing from adhesives can release VOCs in the environment. So, point 3 is correct.
Gas Stoves: One of the main air pollutants commonly associated with using gas stoves is nitrogen dioxide,
or NO₂, which is a byproduct of fuel combustion. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q43.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Andhra Pradesh Government has released approximately 10 million Gambusia fish into the state’s
water bodies to combat mosquito-borne diseases like malaria and dengue.
The fish, also known as mosquito fish, is widely used as a biological agent for controlling mosquito larvae.
Gambusia affinis (G affinis) is native to the waters of the southeastern United States and a single full-grown
fish eats about 100 to 300 mosquito larvae per day.
Gambusia fish have a high breeding capacity. A single female may produce between 900 and 1200 offspring
during its lifespan.

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 Mosquitofish has been part of various malaria control strategies in India since 1928, including the Urban
Malaria Scheme.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Andhra Pradesh government has recently released approximately 10 million Gambusia fish into
the state’s water bodies to combat mosquito-borne diseases.
Subject: Environment | Biodiversity and Conservation
Tags: Factual

Q44.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (SLCPs) derive their name from their relatively short life in the atmosphere as
compared to carbon dioxide. So, statement 1 is correct.
Types of super pollutants:
Methane from sources such as fossil fuels, agriculture, and waste
Black carbon from sources such as diesel engines and coal-fired power plants
Ground-level ozone is an irritating gas that forms above the Earth’s surface. So, statement 2 is correct.
Hydrofluorocarbons (F-gases) from sources such as refrigerants and aerosol propellants
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Climate and Clean Air Conference 2024 called for international collaboration to phase-out short-
lived climate pollutants or super pollutants.

Q45.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Ecocide is the widespread and long-term environmental damage that is wilfully caused by humans and
harms humans, animals and plant species.
Origin of the concept:
Biologist Arthur Galston in 1970 is credited be the first to link environmental destruction with genocide,
which is recognised as an international crime when referring to the U.S. military’s use of Agent Orange
(a herbicide) during the Vietnam War.
At present, the Rome Statute of the ICC deals with four atrocities: genocide, crimes against humanity,
war crimes and the crime of aggression.
The provision on war crimes is the only statute that can hold a perpetrator responsible for
environmental damage, albeit if it is intentionally caused and during wartime situations.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Mexico’s Maya Train Project:

The Tren Maya is an intercity railway line stretching 950 miles around the Yucatan Peninsula,
connecting beach resorts with ancient Maya archaeological sites.
It has been hailed by the Mexican government as an economic “detonator” for Mexico’s
southeast, a historically poor and marginalized region.

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 It has been described as a “megaproject of death” as it imperils the Yucatán peninsula’s rich
wilderness, ancient cave systems and indigenous communities.

Relevance: The Tribunal for the Rights of Nature has said that Mexico’s Maya train project caused “crimes of
ecocide and ethnocide”.

Q46.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Mangrove forests, or mangals, grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator where the sea
surface temperatures never fall below 16°C. Mangals line about two-thirds of the coastlines in tropical
areas of the world.
Some mangroves remove salt from brackish estuarine waters through ultra-filtration in their roots. Other
species have special glands on their leaves that actively secrete salt, a process that leaves visible salt
crystals on the upper surface of the leaves. So, point 1 is correct.
Mangrove seeds begin growing while still attached to the parent plant. These seedlings, called propagules,
even grow roots. After a period of growth, these seedlings drop to the water below and float upright
until they reach water that is shallow enough for their roots to take hold in the mud. So, point 2 is
correct.
Many species of mangrove trees have aerial roots called pneumatophores that take up oxygen from the air
for the roots. So, point 3 is correct.
All mangrove species have laterally spread roots with attached vertical anchor roots. These roots are very
shallow. So, point 4 is correct.
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Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q47.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Genetic rescue is defined as the immigration of unique genomes into a population with the result of
alleviating genetic load and increasing population size. It is the process of increasing population growth
with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population (i.e., gene flow).
In practice, wildlife managers take individuals from a larger, healthier population and bring them to a
smaller population to introduce new variation. This conservation strategy aims to alleviate genetic load,
decrease extinction risk and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations.
It is often employed in conservation biology to mitigate the negative effects of inbreeding depression,
which can occur when individuals within a population mate with close relatives, leading to decreased
reproductive success and viability of offspring.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, genetic rescue has been proposed as a method to conserve the tiger population in the
Ranthambore National Park.

Q48.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Bioaccumulation is defined as the net accumulation of a contaminant in or on an organism from all sources
including water, air, and diet. Bioaccumulation describes the accumulation and enrichment of
contaminants in organisms, relative to that in the environment. Bioaccumulation takes place in a single
organism over the span of its life, resulting in a higher concentration in older individuals. So, statement
1 is correct.
Biomagnification is the process by which a compound (such as a pollutant or pesticide) increases its
concentration in the tissues of organisms as it travels up the food chain. Biomagnification takes place
as chemicals transfer from lower trophic levels to higher trophic levels within a food web, resulting in
a higher concentration in apex predators. So, statement 2 is correct.
Because of their persistence and high lipid solubility, Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) tend to
bioaccumulate in fatty tissues. They also are semi-volatile and therefore can vaporize or absorb into
atmospheric particles. This permits the global transport of these chemicals in air and water. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q49.
Answer: d
Explanation:

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 The world’s tropical areas receive more energy from the Sun and have greater primary productivity. This
facilitates the formation of more ecological niches and complex ecosystems leading to greater biological
diversity in tropical regions. But naturalists found that the mountains carry disproportionately high
biodiversity and developed their version of the link between biodiversity and mountains and called it
Humboldt’s enigma.
The proponents of Humboldt’s enigma held that the earth’s tropical areas by themselves don’t contain all
the biodiverse regions and many areas outside the tropics are highly biodiverse and these places are
mountains.
This is possible because mountains host two processes that generate biodiversity:
Geological processes like uplifts, result in new habitats where new species arise, so the habitats are
‘cradles’.
Species on some climatologically stable mountains persist there for a long time, so these spots are
‘museums’ that accumulate many such species over time.
Humboldt’s enigma in India can be demonstrated by the fact that the Eastern Himalayas are much more
diverse than the tropical regions of the country.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Explorers and naturalists have found that mountains have more biodiversity than tropical areas.

Q50.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Malwa culture:
It is the most predominant chalcolithic culture of central India, with a wide distribution of sites almost all
over the Malwa region. It was first identified in the excavations at Maheshwar, on river Narmada.
Maheshwar was identified with the ancient Mahishmati of the Puranas. Navdatoli on the opposite bank
also revealed great potential and was subsequently excavated. Other excavated sites of this culture are
Nagda, Kayatha, Eran etc. Based on calibrated dates, the Malwa culture is placed in the bracket of 1900-
1400 BC. The Malwa culture spread into Maharashtra, with extensive sites identified in the Tapi,
Godavari and Bhima valleys. So, statement 1 is correct.
Malwa region lying to the east of the Banas Valley and Aravalli hills forms a distinct geographical unit,
forming a link between the Indo-Gangetic plain and the peninsular region. Two great river systems, the
Chambal and the Narmada traverse the region. A very heavy concentration of Malwa settlements is
found in the central Narmada basin, which is considered to be a very fertile land. So, statement 2 is
correct.

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 Sites in the Malwa region are mostly found on the banks of
the tributaries. They were not affected by the flood,
unlike those on the main river. At Nagda, a mud
rampart has been recorded- a feature also seen at Eran.
At Nagda, the houses seem to have been laid out in
rows along the road and bylanes. The use of mud bricks
and fired bricks at Nagda is significant as they are
absent at other Malwa sites. The houses were multi-
roomed with a chulah (Hearth/ oven) bearing four
arms. The floors were rammed hard, and several floor
levels were indicating periodic repair and re-laying.
There were pebble platforms as well. Two rooms
enclosing squarish pits have also been found, the
function of which remains unclear. So, statement 3 is
not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Ahar Culture:
Also known as the Banas culture, it is one of the earliest Chalcolithic cultures in India. Most
sites of this culture are located in the Banas Valley in southeastern Rajasthan.
Important sites are Balathal, Gilund, Ojiyana, Pachamta, etc.
Sites are found to be rich in mineral deposits and were believed to supply copper to the
Harappan sites.
Kayatha Culture:
Named after the chalcolithic site Kayatha, located in Ujjain district, Madhya Pradesh. Most
of these settlements are situated along the tributaries of the Chambal River.
The pottery types of bowls, high and short-necked storage jars with a globular profile, and
basins, as well as chocolate slipped ware, were distinctive.
Jorwe culture:
It is the Chalcolithic culture of Maharashtra that spans almost all of the state except for
the coastal strip and Vidarbha.
3 main centres - Prakash (Tapi valley), Daimabad (Godavari-Pravara valley), and
Inamgaon (Bhima valley).
Dry farming was the mainstay of Jorwe culture, with stock raising, hunting, and fishing
serving as ancillary pursuits.
Crop rotation and a variety of crops were practised, including barley, wheat, jowar, rice,
and pulses.

Q51.
Answer: b
Explanation:
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 The launch of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor at the G20 Summit is reminiscent of an old
trading route that connected the subcontinent to the Roman Empire. While the existence of this trade
route, which flourished in the early years of the common era, has long been acknowledged, fresh
evidence has shed new light on its massive magnitude, surpassing even the well-known overland Silk
Road in importance.
In the 1930s and 40s, Sir Mortimer Wheeler excavated Arikamedu near modern Pondicherry, confirming
the existence of Indo-Roman trade in the 1st century CE. However, his interpretation of the findings
focused solely on Roman merchants trading with India, neglecting the significant role of Indian
merchants and ship owners in this trade, which was undoubtedly substantial. So, statement 1 is correct.
Recent estimates suggest that customs taxes from the Red Sea trade with India, Persia, and Ethiopia could
have contributed up to one-third of the Roman exchequer's income. This striking figure is primarily
sourced from the Muziris Papyrus, a document obtained by an Egypto-Roman financier in Alexandria.
It records a transaction for purchasing goods from an Indian merchant located in distant Muziris, along
the Kerala coast. So, statement 2 is correct.
Luxuries from India were highly sought after throughout the Roman Empire, including the malabathrum
plant, used for perfume, as well as ivory, pearls, and gemstones. Notably, an ivory sculpture of a yakshi
fertility spirit discovered in Pompeii reflects this demand. Records suggest that Pompeii even had a shop
exclusively selling ivory items. Additionally, there was a desire for "exotic" goods like elephants and
tigers.
Pepper stood out as India's primary export, with significant findings unearthed at Berenike. These
discoveries, frequently in torpedo-shaped pottery jars exceeding 10 kg each, underscored its
importance. Remarkably, by the close of the first century, Indian pepper reached levels of
accessibility comparable to today's standards. Notably, pepper played a pivotal role in Roman
culinary culture, featuring in approximately 80 per cent of the 478 recipes catalogued in the
Apicius cookbook. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, unveiled at the G20 Summit, recalls an ancient
trade route linking the subcontinent and the Roman Empire.

Q52.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Advaita philosophy:
● Shankaracharya was an exponent of this philosophy and it propounds that the world is an illusion.
All actions and emotions including sorrow are just false impressions.
● Fundamentally, the soul and God are one. When the soul releases itself from this illusion, it merges
with Brahma, the Universal Consciousness. So, statement 1 is correct.
Dvaita philosophy:
● Its founder was Madhva, also called Anandatirtha. According to dvaita, the world is real. God, the
creator of this world, is also real. It promotes Dualism. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● There is a natural difference between the ordinary, ignorant soul who experiences sorrow in this
world and the God who knows all and is omnipotent.
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Visishtadvaita philosophy:
● It is the name given to the philosophy of Ramanujacharya and his followers. It is also called Qualified
Monism.
● It believes that the supreme reality is Saguna Brahman, a personal being with countless auspicious
attributes. It is a qualified whole of which Brahman is the soul, and the Jiva and the Jagat (the soul
and material nature) constitute the body, which has an inseparable relationship with the whole. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q53.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Akbar was deeply interested in the improvement and extension of cultivation. He asked the amil to act like
a father to the peasants. He started to advance money by way of loans called Taccavi to the peasants
for seeds, implements, animals etc., in times of need and to recover from them in easy installments. So,
statement 1 is correct.
Akbar provided a systematic and centralized system of administration which contributed to the success of
the empire. The salary of a Mansabdar was fixed in cash but was paid by assigning him a jagir (an estate
from which he could collect money in lieu of his salary), which was subjected to regular transfers. The
rank of Mansabdar was not hereditary and immediately after the death of a Mansabdar, the jagir was
resumed by the state. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In 1580, Akbar introduced a new system called dahsala for land revenue settlement. Under this system,
the average produce of different crops as well as the average prices prevailing over the last ten years
were calculated. One-third of the average produce was the state’s share. The state demand was however
in cash. This was done by considering the state share into money on the basis of a schedule of average
prices over the past ten years. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q54.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Seal making was an important Harappan craft. Most of the seals are square or rectangular. The average size
of the square seals is about 2.54 cm, but there are larger ones, a little over 6.35 cm. Some have a
perforated base at the back for handling and suspension. A few cylindrical and round seals have also
been found.
Most of the seals are made of steatite (soapstone), but there are a few silver, faience (a man-made ceramic
material) and calcite ones as well.
Two fine silver seals with the unicorn motif were discovered at Mohenjodaro, and some copper and
soapstone ones were found at Lothal.
Motifs on seals include the elephant, tiger, antelope, crocodile, hare, humped bull, buffalo, rhinoceros and
the one-horned mythical animal referred to as a unicorn. There is often a small feeding trough or stand
in front of the animal. There are also composite animals, human figures, and plants. Most of the seals
have a short inscription. Some rectangular seals have writing, but no motif. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
correct.

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So, all four of the above animals have been depicted on Indus Valley Civilization seals.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q55.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Round Table Conferences (RTC):
● First RTC: It took place from November, 1930 to January 1931. It was agreed that India was to
develop into a federation. There were to be safeguards related to defence and finance, while other
departments were to be transferred. Little was done to implement these recommendations and civil
disobedience continued in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Second RTC: It took place from September, 1931 to December 1931. Gandhi was the sole
representative of the Indian National Congress in this conference. The lack of agreement among the
many delegate groups led to no substantial results regarding India’s constitutional future. The
session ended with MacDonald’s announcement of:
○ two Muslim-majority provinces—North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) and Sindh.
○ the setting up of an Indian Consultative Committee. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ setting up of three expert committees—finance, franchise and states
○ the prospect of a unilateral British Communal Award if Indians failed to agree
● In the Second RTC, separate electorates were being demanded by the Muslims, depressed classes,
Christians and Anglo-Indians. All these came together in a ‘Minorities’ Pact’.
● Third RTC: It took place in November, 1932. It was not attended by the Indian National Congress
and Gandhi. It was ignored by most other Indian leaders. The recommendations were published in a
White Paper in March 1933 and debated in the British Parliament afterwards. A Joint Select
Committee was formed to analyse the recommendations and formulate a new Act for India, and that
committee produced a draft Bill in February 1935 which was enforced as the Government of India
Act of 1935 in July 1935. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q56.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The first-ever demand for regulation of the condition of workers in factories in India came from the
Lancashire textile capitalist lobby. Apprehending the emergence of a competitive rival in the Indian
textile industry under conditions of cheap and unregulated labour, they demanded the appointment
of a commission for investigation into factory conditions. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The first commission was appointed in 1875 although the first Factory Act was passed in 1881.
○ The Indian Factory Act of 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour (between 7
and 12 years of age). The Indian Factory Act of 1891 increased the minimum age (from 7 to
9 years) and the maximum (from 12 to 14 years) for children and reduced the maximum
working hours for children to 7 hours a day. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.

Q57.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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 ● Lord Wavell became the Viceroy in 1943. He was mandated to propose a plan for the smooth
transition of power to the Government of India that would be acceptable to both the Indian National
Congress and the All-India Muslim League.
● The Wavell Plan was first presented at the Simla Conference in 1945, which was convened to decide
on the Plan. The proposals included the following:
○ Except for the Viceroy and Commander-in-Chief, it was supposed to be an entirely Indian
Council, and for the first time the Home, Finance and Foreign Affairs portfolios would be in
Indian hands. So, statement 1 is not correct.
○ Council would work within the framework of the existing constitution namely the
Government of India Act 1935
○ Council could consider the means by which an agreement could be arrived at for framing a
new constitution
○ Consider the formation of the Constituent Assembly and negotiate with the British
Government a treaty for the transfer of power
○ To adopt the principle of parity between Caste Hindus and the Muslims (equal
representation) in the Executive Council. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ To establish a popular government in all the provinces of British India.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q58.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Metamorphic rocks are initially igneous rocks, sedimentary rocks or early metamorphic rocks. They are
formed through a transformative process that occurs when existing rocks experience specific conditions.
These conditions typically involve exposure to high temperatures, intense pressure, or contact with hot,
mineral-rich fluids. Often, all three of these factors come together during the formation of metamorphic
rocks. These processes primarily take place deep within Earth's crust or at plate boundaries, where
tectonic plates collide.
The crucial aspect of creating metamorphic rocks is that the original rock must remain in a solid state and
not undergo melting. If the heat and pressure become excessive, the rock may melt, transforming into
magma and eventually solidify into an igneous rock instead of a metamorphic rock. Thus, it's the delicate
balance of heat and pressure that leads to the unique structure and characteristics of metamorphic
rocks.
Metamorphic rocks are classified into two major groups: foliated rocks and non-foliated rocks. Gneissoid,
granite, syenite, slate, schist, marble, quartzite, etc. are some examples of metamorphic rocks. So,
points 1, 2 and 5 are correct.
Sedimentary rocks are formed on or near the Earth’s surface, in contrast to metamorphic and igneous rocks,
which are formed deep within the Earth. The most important geological processes that lead to the
creation of sedimentary rocks are erosion, weathering, dissolution, precipitation and lithification.
Depending upon the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are classified into three major groups:
Mechanically formed: sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess Organically
formed: geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal
Chemically formed: chert, limestone, halite, potash. So, point 4 is not correct.

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 As igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, they are known as primary
rocks. The igneous rocks are formed when magma cools and solidifies. Granite, gabbro, pegmatite,
basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some examples of igneous rocks. So, point 3 is not correct.
So, only three of the above are metamorphic rocks.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q59.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The universal force of attraction among all the entities or matter in this universe is also known as gravity (g). It
is the fundamental force responsible for bringing all matter closer. The measurement of gravity is based on the
acceleration it imparts to freely falling objects. On Earth's surface, the acceleration of gravity is approximately
9.8 m/s². This means that for every second an object falls freely, its speed increases by about 9.8 meters per
second. In essence, gravity governs the motion of objects and is the reason why things naturally fall toward the
Earth's center.
The reading of the gravity at different places is affected by the following factors:
Shape of the Earth: The Earth is not perfectly spherical but is an oblate spheroid. The polar radius (radius
near poles) of the Earth is 21 km smaller than its equatorial radius (near the equator). The acceleration
due to gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the radius of the Earth. Therefore, the
acceleration due to gravity increases when one moves from the equator to the pole. So, statement 1 is
correct.
Rotational motion of the Earth: The Earth's rotation creates a centrifugal force that slightly reduces the
gravitational force at the equator compared to the poles. So, statement 2 is correct.
Altitude above the Earth’s surface: The gravitational force decreases with an increase in altitude. Therefore,
places at higher elevations experience slightly weaker gravity compared to those at lower elevations. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Depth below the Earth's surface: The value of gravity decreases if one moves towards the center of the
Earth. Within the Earth's interior, the value of g, which represents the acceleration due to gravity,
gradually decreases compared to its value at the Earth's surface. As one moves deeper below the Earth's
surface, the strength of gravity diminishes. As we approach the Earth's center, the value of g continues
to decrease, eventually reaching zero at the Earth's core. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q60.
Answer: b
Explanation:
A watershed is an area of land that drains all the streams and rainfall to a common outlet.
The watershed consists of surface water--lakes, streams, reservoirs, and wetlands--and all the underlying
groundwater.

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 Larger watersheds contain many smaller watersheds. It all
depends on the outflow point; all of the land that drains
water to the outflow point is the watershed for that
outflow location.
Himalayan range with its Karakoram branch in the north,
Vindhyan and Satpura ranges in Central India and
Sahyadri or Western Ghats along the West Coast are the
major watersheds in India.
The northern most range of the Trans-Himalayan Ranges in
India is the Great Karakoram Range also known as the
Krishnagiri Range. It is a range with lofty peaks and is the abode of some of the greatest glaciers of the
world outside the polar regions.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Catchment Area Vs Drainage Basin Vs Water Divide

A river drains the water collected from a
specific area, which is called its ‘catchment
area’.
An area drained by a river and its tributaries is
called a drainage basin or watershed.
The boundary line, formed by ridges and hills,
separating one drainage basin from the
other, is known as the drainage/water
divide.
Watershed Development:
It’s all about making running water to stop and
standing water to sink inside the ground.
Within the site of a watershed development
project, a ridge is identified and structures such as check dams, percolation dams, ponds
and channels are built from the ridge to the valley.
Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWMP):
The Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development is implementing the
Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWMP) from 2009-10 with an objective
to cover 55 million hectares of rain-fed land by 2027.
The program is being implemented in all the states of the country.
The programme is financed by the central and State governments in a ratio of 90:10.
Relevance: The Secretary, Department of Land Resources (DoLR), Government of India (GoI), reviewed the
Implementation Support Mission of the World Bank Assisted Rejuvenating Watersheds for Agricultural
Resilience through Innovative Development (REWARD) program.

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Q61.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) is a region spanning 5,000
kilometres across the central Pacific Ocean, at depths of
4,000 - 5,500 metres. This region has reserves of the
polymetallic nodules of greatest mining interest, which
are lying on the sediment surface across abyssal plains.
These polymetallic nodules are a potential mineral
resource for copper, nickel, cobalt, iron, manganese and
rare earth elements. CCZ is regulated by the International
Seabed Authority (ISA) because this region is outside
national jurisdiction.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q62.
Answer: b
Explanation:
India produces nearly all of the world’s turmeric crop and consumes 80% of it. With its inherent qualities and
high content of the important bioactive compound curcumin, Indian turmeric is considered to be the best in the
world.
Turmeric is a product of Curcuma longa, a rhizomatous herbaceous perennial plant belonging to the ginger
family Zingiberaceae, which is native to tropical South Asia. Turmeric, a plant in the ginger family, is native
to Southeast Asia and is grown commercially in that region, primarily in India. Its rhizome (underground
stem) is used as a culinary spice and traditional medicine. So, statement 1 is correct.
India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of
3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of
global turmeric production). So, statement 2 is correct.
India has more than 62% share of world trade in turmeric. The leading export markets for Indian
turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia.
The largest producing States of turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Erode, a city
in Tamil Nadu, is the world’s largest producer of and the most important trading center for turmeric. It is
also known as “Yellow City,” “Turmeric City,” or “Textile City.” Sangli, a city of Maharashtra, is second only
to Erode in size and importance as a production and trading site for turmeric. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Central Government has notified the constitution of the National Turmeric Board
(NTB).

Q63.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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 The Indus also known as the Sindhu, is the westernmost of the Himalayan rivers in India. It originates from
a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Tibetan region at an altitude of 4,164 m in the Kailash Mountain range.
In Tibet, it is known as ‘Singi Khamban; or Lion’s mouth. So, statement 1 is not correct.
After flowing in the northwest direction between the Ladakh and Zaskar ranges, it passes through Ladakh
and Baltistan. It cuts across the Ladakh range, forming a spectacular gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and
Kashmir. It enters into Pakistan near Chilas in the Dardistan region. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Indus receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza,
the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus. It is formed by two streams, the Chandra and the Bhaga,
which join at Tandi near Keylong in Himachal Pradesh. Hence, it is also known as Chandrabhaga. So,
statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q64.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Indian plate includes Peninsular India, Indian Ocean, Australian continental and oceanic portions. In
the east, it extends through the Rakinyoma Mountains of Myanmar towards the island arc along the
Java Trench. The eastern margin is a spreading site lying to the east of Australia in the form of an oceanic
ridge in the South Western Pacific region. The Western margin follows the Kirthar Mountain of Pakistan.
It further extends along the Makrana coast and joins the spreading site from the Red Sea rift south-
eastward along the Chagos Archipelago. So, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.
The subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the northern plate boundary in the form of continent-
continent convergence. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q65.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Russia is a democratic federative law-governed state with a republican form of government. Its Constitution
states that the Russian Federation consists of republics, krays, oblasts, cities of federal significance, an
autonomous oblast and autonomous okrugs, which shall have equal rights as constituent entities of the
Russian Federation. A republic (state) shall have its own constitution, and elected head of State.
Indonesia has a Presidential system in which a directly elected President serves as both head of state and of
government. A maximum two-term limit on the presidency helps to ensure a peaceful alternation of
power. Also directly elected, the House of Representatives (the lower house of the bicameral People's
Consultative Assembly) has asserted itself as a strong and independent institution. There are nine
parliamentary parties, none of which holds a majority, obliging the government to seek support from a
broad coalition. So, statement 1 is correct.
Parliament is the legislative authority of South Africa and has the power to make laws for the country, in
accordance with the Constitution. It consists of the National Assembly (NA) and the National Council of
Provinces (NCOP). Parliamentary sittings are open to the public.
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 Sri Lanka is a Democratic Republic and a Unitary State which is governed by a semi-Presidential system, with
a mixture of a presidential system and a parliamentary system. Most provisions of the constitution can
be amended by a two-thirds majority in Parliament. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Maldives is a sovereign, independent, democratic Republic based on the principles of Islam. The
Maldives is a Presidential Republic, the executive power is vested in the President, which is the head of
the State, of the Government and the Commander in Chief of the Armed Forces. So, statement 3 is
correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Around 60 countries, more than a fourth of all countries and populations will hold important polls
in 2024, including South Asia, Global South and P-5 countries.

Q66.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Grey zone warfare generally means a middle, unclear space that exists between direct conflict and peace
in international relations.
It can be broadly defined as the exploitation of operational space between peace and war to change the
status quo through the use of coercive actions which remain below a threshold that, in most cases, would
prompt a conventional military response.
Activities characterised as grey zone warfare methods range from the use of proxies for kinetic action or
change of territorial status quo through coercion to non-kinetic subversive actions such as cyberattacks,
economic coercion, disinformation campaign, election meddling and more recently, weaponization of
migrants.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India’s Chief of Defence Staff said that “grey zone warfare” is the latest in informal
warfare.

Q67.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Registration of Political Parties (Furnishing of Additional Particulars) Order, 1992 is an order to provide
for the furnishing of additional particulars by associations or bodies of individual citizens of India seeking
registration as a political party with the Election Commission of India.
These additional particulars are:
the principles on which the association or body is based. So, point 1 is correct.
the policies, aims and objects it pursues or seeks to pursue. So, point 2 is correct.
its programme, functions and activities for the purpose of carrying out its principles, policies, aims
and objects;
the names of the main organs (by whatever name called) of the association or body, their functions
and the names of the Chairman (by whatever name called) and other members or such organs;
and

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 the relationship of the association or body with the electors and the popular support it enjoys,
along with tangible proof, if any, of such relationship and support. So, point 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above particulars are to be furnished for registration as a political party in India.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Registration of Political parties

Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951.
A party seeking registration under the said Section with the Commission has to submit an
application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its
formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers
conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per existing guidelines, the applicant association is, inter-alia, asked to publish the
proposed Name of the party in two national daily newspapers and two local daily
newspapers, on two days for submitting objections, if any, with regard to the proposed
registration of the party before the Commission within 30 days from such publication.
Notice so published is also displayed on the website of the Commission.

Q68.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a pact between India and Myanmar that allows tribes living along the
border on either side to travel up to 16 km inside the other country without a visa. It is being seen as a
part of India's Act East policy.
However, the agreement has been defunct since 2020, first because of the COVID pandemic and later due
to the military coup in Myanmar in 2021 and the continued escalation of its refugee crisis. India
suspended the FMR in September 2022.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box
Rationale behind FMR:
The boundary between India & Myanmar was demarcated by the British in 1826.
This effectively divided people of the same ethnicity and culture into two nations
without seeking their opinion. Hence, the need was felt to enable ethnically similar
communities living across the borders to move freely without the need for a visa.
The FMR was supposed to provide impetus to local trade and business. However, it
has been criticised for unintentionally aiding illegal immigration, drug trafficking
and gun-running.
Relevance: The Manipur State Government has requested the Centre to permanently wind up the Free
Movement Regime (FMR) along the Indo-Myanmar border.

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Q69.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Special Session of the Parliament: The Constitution of India does not use the term “Special Session”. The
term sometimes refers to Sessions the government has convened for specific occasions, like
commemorating parliamentary or national milestones. So, statement 1 is not correct.
For the two Houses to be in session, the presiding officers should chair their proceedings. The
presiding officers can also direct that the proceedings of their respective Houses would be limited
and procedural devices like question hour would not be available to the Members of
Parliament (MPs) during the session. So, statement 3 is not correct.
However, Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) does refer to a “special sitting of the House”.
Parliament added the part relating to the special sitting through the Constitution (Forty-fourth
Amendment) Act, 1978. Its purpose was to add safeguards to the power of proclaiming
Emergency in the country. It specifies that if a Proclamation of Emergency is issued and
Parliament is not in session, then one-tenth of Lok Sabha MPs can ask the President to convene
a special meeting to disapprove the Emergency.
The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs determines the date and duration of Parliamentary
Sessions. The President is informed about the Committee’s decision, who then summons Members of
Parliament to meet for the session. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. The
framers of the Constitution borrowed it from the Government of India Act of 1935. It allowed the
British Governor General to call a session of the Central Legislature at his discretion, requiring that the
gap between two sessions should not be more than 12 months.
So, none of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A Special Session of Parliament was recently held that witnessed the passage of the Women's
Reservation Bill.

Q70.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Parliamentary Ethics Committee: A Presiding Officers’ Conference held in Delhi in 1996 first mooted the
idea of ethics panels for the two Houses. Then Vice President (and Rajya Sabha Chairman) K.R. Narayanan
constituted the Ethics Committee of the Upper House in 1997, and it was inaugurated to oversee the
moral and ethical conduct of members and examine cases of misconduct referred to it.
The Rules applicable to the Committee of Privileges also apply to the Ethics Panel. The Committee of
Privileges finally recommended the constitution of an Ethics Committee during the 13th Lok
Sabha. The late Speaker, GMC Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000, which
became a permanent part of the House only in 2015.

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 Any person can complain against a Member through another Lok Sabha MP, along with evidence of the
alleged misconduct and an affidavit stating that the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”. If
the Member himself complains, the affidavit is not needed. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Committee does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or on matters that are sub
judice. The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint. It makes its
recommendations after evaluating the complaint. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Committee presents its report to the Speaker, who asks the House if the report should be taken up for
consideration. There is also a provision for a half-hour discussion on the report. So, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the TMC MP was disqualified from Membership of Parliament as per recommendation of
the Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha in case related to cash for query.

Q71.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Among the three lists specified in the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution, water falls within the
purview of Entry 17 in List-II, commonly known as the State List. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Jal Shakti Abhiyan is an independent scheme, and is not related to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
(PMKSY). The scheme focuses on rain water harvesting and rejuvenation of traditional water bodies in
the country, while PMKSY targets revival of lost irrigation potential, improving water use efficiency,
ground water recharge etc. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The National Water Policy (2012) promotes rainwater harvesting and water conservation, emphasizing the
necessity of increasing water availability through the direct utilization of rainfall. Additionally, it
advocates for the scientific and community-involved conservation of rivers, river bodies, and
infrastructure. The policy has been circulated to all State Governments, Union Territories, and relevant
Ministries/Departments of the Central Government for adoption. The Central Ground Water Authority
(CGWA) has recommended that States/UTs undertake initiatives to encourage/adopt artificial recharge
to groundwater and rainwater harvesting. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the successful completion of the ‘Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain' 2023 nationwide
campaign was announced.

Q72.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Creation of new districts: The power to create new districts or alter or abolish existing districts rests with the
State Governments. This can either be done through an executive order or by passing a law in the State
Assembly. Many States prefer the executive route by simply issuing a notification in the official gazette.
Changing the name of a district:
Step 1: An appeal to change the name of a district is made by the people of that district or the public
representatives of the district.
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 Step 2: A resolution in this regard is passed by the State Legislative Assembly and sent to the Governor. To
change the name of any district or institution, the approval of the State cabinet is first required. So,
statement 1 is correct.
Step 3: The Governor sends the notification of change of name to the Ministry of Home Affairs (not Union
Cabinet). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Step 4: The Ministry of Home Affairs can accept or reject such a proposal. if approved,
Step 5: The State Government issues a notification to change the name of the district or the government
publishes this decision in a gazette. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Step 6: A copy of this is sent to the District Magistrate (DM) of the district concerned by official post.
Step 7: On receipt of the notification, the DM informs officials of this change by writing to the heads of all
departments under him. There are 70 to 90 government departments in a district.
Step 8: As soon as the information is received, the work of changing the name in the current documents of
all these departments begins.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q73.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Article 334: It provides for the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in
the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies of the States for a period of ten years (and not
more than 80 years) from the commencement of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
It also provided for the reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the House of the
People and in the Legislative Assemblies of the States by nomination.
The 104 Constitutional Amendment Act ceased the practice of nominating two members of the
Anglo-Indian community by the President while extending the reservations for SCs and STs in the
Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for up to ten years. The reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, as specified by the Ninety-Fifth Amendment, was
supposed to expire on January 26, 2020, but was extended for another ten years. So, statement
2 is not correct.
Prior to the 23rd Amendment Act of 1969, the Governor of a State could nominate as many Anglo-Indians
to the State Legislative Assemblies as decided by them. This amendment act ended the reservation of
seats for Scheduled Tribes in Nagaland’s Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly and mandated that
the Governor could not designate more than one Anglo-Indian to any State Legislative Assembly. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q74.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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 The Government of India Act of 1858 (and not the Indian Council Act of 1861) transferred the powers of
the Government of India to the British Crown. It provided that India, henceforth, was to be governed
by, and in the name of, Her Majesty, the Crown. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of
India to that of Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India.
So, statement 1 is not correct.
In order to feed the growing demand that some representative element should be introduced in the
Legislative Council, the Indian Council Act of 1861 provided that Indians were to be added to the
Viceroy’s council as non-official members through nomination by Viceroy. The first three Indians to be
added include Raja of Benares, Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Charter Act of 1833 had centralized the legislative procedures and deprived the Governments of
Madras and Bombay of their power of legislation. This was reversed by the Indian Council Act 1861, as
it guaranteed their legislative rights back but only with the consent of the Viceroy. This eliminated the
drawbacks of centralized law-making. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q75.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha together with the President of India constitute the Parliament of India.
Execpt in certain financial matters which are to be the sole concern of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha enjoys co-
equal status in all respects.
A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It has to be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and
after it is passed by that House, it has to be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendation. The
Lok Sabha has the power of either accepting or rejecting the recommendations, if any, made by the Rajya
Sabha. So, point 1 is not correct.
Certain categories of Financial Bills also cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha but there is no other
limitation on the power of the Rajya Sabha with regard to such Bills and the Rajya Sabha has full powers
to reject or amend a Financial Bill as it has in respect of any Bill other than a Money Bill. So, point 2 is
correct.
The annual budget of the Government of India has to be laid before the Rajya Sabha as well and members
have the right to discuss the same like the Lok Sabha. Though the Rajya Sabha does not vote on Demands
for Grants of various Ministries--a privilege exclusively reserved for the Lok Sabha. So, point 3 is correct.
Demands for Grants of various Ministries, a privilege exclusively reserved for the Lok Sabha: no money can
be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India unless the Appropriation Bill is passed by the Rajya
Sabha also. Similarly, the Annual Finance Bill also passes through the Rajya Sabha. In the legislative field,
except in regard to financial legislation, the Rajya Sabha enjoys real and substantial power, both as an
originating chamber and as a revising chamber. So, point 4 is not correct.
So, the Rajya Sabha enjoys co-equal status with the Lok Sabha in only two of the above aspects.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Chief Justice of India (CJI) will constitute a seven-judge Constitution Bench to hear a batch of
petitions challenging the Centre’s use of the Money Bill route to pass key legislations.

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Q76.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) aims to accelerate the development of diverse and sustainable
critical energy minerals supply chains through working with host governments and industry to facilitate
targeted financial and diplomatic support for strategic projects along the value chain. MSP partners
include Australia, Canada, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, Norway, the Republic
of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union.
In 2008, the G20 was upgraded to the level of Heads of State/Government in the wake of the global
economic and financial crisis of 2007 and, in 2009, was designated the “premier forum for international
economic cooperation”. The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries (Argentina, Australia, Brazil,
Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi
Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom and USA) and two regional bodies: the European Union
and the African Union.
The Nuclear Suppliers Group is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the
nonproliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear
exports and nuclear-related exports. India is not a member.
Indo Pacific Framework for Economic Prosperity (IPEF) was launched jointly by the USA and other partner
countries of the Indo-Pacific region in 2022. IPEF has 14 partner countries including Australia, Brunei,
Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand,
Vietnam & USA. It seeks to strengthen economic engagement among partner countries with the goal of
advancing growth, peace and prosperity in the region. Norway, Sweden and France are not its
members.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India will leverage Minerals Security Partnership to help PSUs to secure critical mineral assets.

Q77.
Answer: d
Explanation:
A Bullet Repayment Scheme refers to a lump sum repayment made at the end of the loan tenure. This
includes paying the entire principal and interest amount as a lump sum, in one shot. In the context of
gold loans, a bullet repayment system implies that borrowers need not make periodic payments of
interest and principal throughout the loan term. Instead, they can settle the entire outstanding amount
in one go at the end of the loan tenure. However, one aspect to remember about bullet gold loan
repayment is that bullet repayment is not based on reducing balance terms. Hence, one may pay higher
interest than other repayment modes.
Gold loans, by nature, are secured loans where the borrower pledges their gold ornaments or assets
as collateral.
The borrower does not have to follow an EMI schedule for the repayment. Bullet repayments offer short-
term financial relief, but this implies a higher total repayment on maturity. This may put additional strain
on the borrower.

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 The value of gold responds to market fluctuations, and if the value of the pledged gold falls significantly,
borrowers might find themselves repaying more than the initial loan amount, affecting the overall cost-
effectiveness of the loan.
The bullet repayment method requires disciplined financial planning to ensure the availability of funds at
the specified time. If the borrower fails to accumulate the necessary funds or encounters unexpected
financial challenges, there is a risk of non-compliance, leading to penalties or complications.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the limit for gold loans under the Bullet Repayment Scheme has been raised for Urban Co-
operative Banks that have met their targets under Priority Sector Lending.

Q78.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures changes over time in the prices of goods sold by manufacturers and
producers in the wholesale market. Unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), WPI does not capture the
change (increase or decrease) in the prices of services.
WPI includes three components:
Fuel and power - 13.1%
Primary articles - 22.6%
Manufactured products - 64.2%
The base year for the calculation of All-India WPI is 2011-12.
It is compiled and published by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), an attached office of the
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
The Office of Economic Adviser also:
Releases monthly Index of Core Industries Production
Develop other indices on an experimental basis, e.g. select business service price indices
Supervises as a 'source agency', compilation of monthly production statistics for identified industrial
items, their validation and onward transmission for computation of the monthly Index of
Industrial Production (IIP) by the Central Statistics Office.
Releases monthly Statistical compilation of macro indicators (secondary information).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Consumer Price Index (CPI):

It measures the change in prices paid by consumers for goods and services. It tracks the
change in retail prices of goods and services which households purchase for their daily
consumption.
The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(MoSPI) releases the All India Consumer Price Index (CPI) on Base 2012=100 and
corresponding Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) for Rural (R), Urban (U) and Combined
(C).

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 CPI for Industrial Labour (CPI-IL), CPI for Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) and CPI for Rural
Labourers (CPI-RL) are published by the Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and
Employment.
The MGNREGA wages are presently linked to CPI-AL and the government’s proposal
is to link it to CPI-RL. CPI-IW is used for the calculation of Dearness Allowance.
Relevance: The annual rate of inflation based on all India Wholesale Price Index (WPI) numbers is 0.53%
(Provisional) for March 2024 (over March 2023).

Q79.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Monetised Deficit is the monetary support the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extends to the Centre as part of
the government's borrowing program. It refers to the purchase of government bonds by the RBI to
finance the spending needs of the government. RBI creates fresh money to purchase the bonds. So,
statement 1 is correct.
The monetization of deficit was in practice in India till 1997, whereby the central bank automatically
monetized government deficit through the issuance of ad-hoc treasury bills. After the enactment of the
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, RBI was completely barred from
subscribing to the primary issuances of the government from April 1, 2006.
Henceforth, the RBI would operate only in the secondary market through the open market operations
route. Thus, RBI no longer subscribes to the primary issuance of either Treasury Bills or the G-Secs.
However, for the need of regulating monetary policy, RBI keeps buying and selling all of the Government
securities under the open market operations (OMOs). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Deficit monetization leads to an increase in the total money supply in the system, and hence inflation, as
RBI creates fresh money to purchase the bonds. The same bonds are later used to bring down inflation
as they are sold in the open market. This helps RBI suck excess money out of the market and rein in rising
prices. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q80.
Answer: d
Explanation:
e-Choupal is conceived by ITC's Agri Business Division to tackle the challenges of Indian agriculture,
characterised by fragmented farms, weak infrastructure and the involvement of numerous
intermediaries, among the others. It is a more collaborative and integrated platform that leverages new
digital technologies to provide end-to-end and personalised services to farmers on weather and
markets on a real-time basis.
e-Choupa triggers a virtuous cycle of higher productivity, higher incomes, enlarged capacity for farmer risk
management, larger investments and higher quality and productivity.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q81.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Small Savings Schemes are a set of savings instruments managed by the central government to encourage
citizens to save regularly irrespective of their age. They are popular as they not only provide returns
that are generally higher than bank fixed deposits but also come with a sovereign guarantee and tax
benefits.
All deposits received under various small savings schemes are pooled in the National Small Savings Fund.
The National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) in the Public Account of India was established in 1999. The
objective of NSSF is to de-link small savings transactions from the Consolidated Fund of India and ensure
their operation in a transparent and self-sustaining manner. So, statement 1 is correct.
Interest rates on small savings schemes are reset quarterly, in line with the movement in benchmark
government bonds of similar maturity. Since 2016, the Finance Ministry has been reviewing the
interest rates on small savings schemes every quarter. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The money in the fund is used by the Central Government to finance its fiscal deficit. Since NSSF operates
in the public account, its transactions do not impact the fiscal deficit of the Centre directly. So, small
savings have emerged as a key source of financing the government deficit, especially after the Covid-19
pandemic led to a ballooning of the government deficit, necessitating a higher need for borrowings. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box
The National Small Savings Fund is administered by the Ministry of Finance (Department of Economic
Affairs) under National Small Savings Fund (Custody and Investment) Rules, 2001, framed by the
President under Article 283(1) of the Constitution.
Small savings instruments can be classified under three heads:
o Postal deposits comprise savings accounts, recurring deposits, time deposits of varying
maturities, and monthly income schemes.
o Savings certificates like National Small Savings Certificate and Kisan Vikas Patra.
o Security schemes like Public Provident Fund (PPF) and Senior Citizens’ Savings Scheme.

Q82.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recession refers to a general slowdown in economic activities, i.e. a business cycle contraction.
A recessionary gap, or contractionary gap, occurs when a country's Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is
lower than its GDP at full employment. Recessionary gaps close when real wages return to equilibrium
and the quantity of labor demanded equals the quantity supplied.
Generally, a recessionary gap occurs when an economy is approaching recession. So, it is also associated
with business cycle contraction.
Policymakers may choose to implement a stabilization policy to close the recessionary gap and increase real
GDP. This recessionary gap pushes prices down in the long term. Central Banks (RBI in case of India)
might increase the amount of money in circulation in the economy by lowering interest rates. The
government may use expansionary fiscal policy to boost its spending.
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Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box
Output Gap:
It is a difference between an economy's actual output and its maximum potential
output expressed as a percentage of GDP.
It is a comparison between actual GDP (output) and potential GDP (maximum-
efficiency output).
Potential output is the maximum amount of goods and services an economy
can produce when it is most efficient, that is, at full capacity. Often,
potential output is referred to as the production capacity of the economy.-
An inflationary gap occurs when the current real GDP is higher than the potential
GDP for the gap to be considered inflationary.
Policies that reduce an inflationary gap include reductions in government
spending, tax increases, bond and securities issues, interest rate increases,
and transfer payment reductions.
A government may use fiscal policy to help reduce an inflationary gap by
decreasing the number of funds circulating within the economy.
A tight monetary policy should lower the money available to most consumers,
triggering less demand.
Relevance: Economists have projected that the US economy is likely to face a recessionary gap within the next
few months.

Q83.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Homeshoring involves decentralising work by allowing employees to work from home instead of a
centralised office location. This can offer flexibility to both employers and employees, making it an
attractive option in today's digital economy.
Jobs suitable for homeshoring are those that can be accomplished using digital technologies and
communication tools, allowing workers to perform their duties from any location with internet access.
By leveraging homeshoring, companies can save on expenses related to office space, utilities and
infrastructure. This cost-saving aspect makes homeshoring an appealing option for businesses seeking
to streamline operations and improve efficiency.
It can democratise job opportunities by enabling individuals from rural or remote areas to participate in the
workforce without needing to relocate. This can help address unemployment issues in such areas and
promote economic development.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q84.
Answer: c
Explanation:

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 Biomarker is a term often used to refer to a protein measured in blood whose concentration reflects the
severity or presence of some disease state. It is a characteristic that is objectively measured and
evaluated as an indicator of normal biological processes, pathogenic processes or pharmacological
responses to a therapeutic intervention. They may be used alone or in combination to assess the health
or disease state of an individual.
The principles of biomarkers in disease have been applied to the detection, screening, diagnosis, treatment
and monitoring of cancer. Traditionally, anti-cancer drugs were agents that killed both cancer cells and
healthy cells. The assessment of a typical biomarker in cancer helps in the development of therapies that
can target the biomarker. This can minimise the risk of toxicity and reduce the cost of treatment. So,
statement 1 is correct.
Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is a biomarker used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. HbA1c levels in the blood
reflect the average blood glucose levels over the past three months and can be used to monitor disease
progression or the effectiveness of diabetes treatments. So, statement 2 is correct.
Plasma biomarkers are substances in the blood that can signal the presence of Tuberculosis (TB)
progression. A specific set of plasma biomarkers, namely GM-CSF, CXCL10, and IL-1Ra—can
effectively identify household contacts at significant risk of developing TB disease.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Scientists have recently identified a specific set of plasma biomarkers capable of identifying
household contacts of tuberculosis (TB) patients

Q85.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Attosecond science, including attosecond physics, or attophysics, deals with the production of extremely
short light pulses and using them to study superfast processes. An attosecond is one quintillionth of a
second, or 10^-18 seconds. This is the timescale at which the properties of an electron change.
Attophysics helps in the understanding of the photoelectric effect, which is at the heart of solar power. It
also extends to most parts of physics, chemistry and biology, everywhere the properties of electrons
matter.
Production of an attosecond pulse:
When the infrared beam strikes the noble gas atoms, it produces multiple overtones. If the peak of
one overtone merges with the peak of another, they undergo constructive interference (like in
the double-slit experiment) and produce a larger peak. When the peak of one overtone merges
with the trough of another, however, they undergo destructive interference, ‘cancelling’
themselves out.
By combining a large number of overtones in this way, physicists could fine-tune a setup to produce
light pulses for a few hundred attoseconds — due to constructive interference — and then stop,
due to destructive interference. These pulses are produced only when the beam’s frequency is
within the plateau range.
A major technique to measure the duration of a short light pulse is called RABBIT. It was developed by
Pierre Agostini and his colleagues at a facility in Paris in 1994. Here, the attosecond pulse and another
pulse of a longer duration are shined on atoms of a noble gas.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: The 2023 Nobel Prize for physics was awarded to Anne L’Huillier, Pierre Agostini and Ferenc Krausz
“for experimental methods that generate attosecond pulses of light for the study of electron dynamics in
matter”.

Q86.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Trans fat are formed by a process called hydrogenation. It adds hydrogen molecules to highly unsaturated
oil, such as corn oil, vegetable oil or soybean oil etc. After hydrogenation, the oil is called ‘partially
hydrogenated. They increase the risk of heart disease. So, statement 1 is correct.
Omega-3 fats are an important type of polyunsaturated fat. It cannot be formed by the human body. It
comes from food. Fish is a good source of it. Good plant sources of omega-3 fats include flax seeds,
walnuts, and canola or soybean oil. Higher blood omega-3 fats are associated with a lower risk of
premature death among older adults. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature. They are considered beneficial fats as they can improve
blood cholesterol levels, ease inflammation, stabilize heart rhythms, and play a number of other
beneficial roles. Unsaturated fats are predominantly found in foods from plants, such as vegetable oils,
nuts, and seeds. They are of two types: Monounsaturated fats and Polyunsaturated fats.
Cholesterol is a waxy, fat-like material, which is found in various parts of the body. There are two main
types of cholesterol - High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) and Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL). LDL cholesterol
can clog blood vessels as it carries the cholesterol away from the liver into the bloodstream, where it
can stick to the blood vessels. It is also called bad cholesterol. HDL carries the cholesterol back to the
liver where it can be broken down. It is also called good cholesterol. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q87.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Magnus effect is the commonly observed effect in sports in which a spinning object moves
through the air and departs from its straight path. Magnus effect is the generation of a sidewise
force on a spinning cylindrical or spherical solid immersed in a fluid (liquid or gas) when there is
relative motion between the spinning body and the fluid.
● This difference in the velocities of air results in the pressure difference between the lower and
upper faces and there is a net upward force on the ball. This dynamic lift due to spinning is called
the Magnus effect.
● The Magnus effect is a particular manifestation of Bernoulli’s theorem which states that fluid
pressure decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. In the case of a ball spinning
through the air, the turning ball drags some of the air around with it.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q88.
Answer: a
Explanation:

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 The blue colour in the sky is a result of scattering. When white light passes through the atmosphere, tiny
air molecules cause it to ‘scatter’. The scattering caused by these tiny air molecules increases as the
wavelength of light decreases. Violet and blue light have the shortest wavelengths and red light has
the longest. Therefore, blue light is scattered more than red light and the sky appears blue during the
day. When the Sun is low in the sky during sunrise and sunset, the light has to travel further through the
Earth’s atmosphere. Blue light can't be seen because it gets scattered away, but the red light isn’t
scattered very much, so the sky appears red. So, statement 1 is correct.
Fiber optics uses the optical principle of "Total Internal Reflection" to capture the light transmitted in
optical fibre and confine the light to the core of the fibre.
An optical fibre is comprised of a light-carrying core in the centre, surrounded by a cladding that acts
to trap light in the core. Glass fibre is covered by a plastic buffer coating that protects it from the
environment and allows easy handling for splicing or termination.
Beyond a certain angle, the refraction will cause light to be reflected from the surface. Optical fibre
uses this reflection to trap fibre in the core of the fibre by choosing core and cladding materials
with the proper index of refraction that will cause all the light to be reflected if the angle of the
light is below a certain angle. It is called total internal reflection. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Raman Effect is the process of scattering light particles by molecules of a medium. The scattering
occurs due to a change in the wavelength of light as it enters the medium. When a beam of light travels
through a dust-free, transparent chemical, a small fraction of the light emerges in directions other than
where it should. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Refraction of light is defined as the change in direction or the bending of a wave passing from one medium
to another due to the change in speed of the wave. Some natural phenomena occurring in nature where
refraction of light takes place are the twinkling of stars, the formation of mirages and Rainbows, Optical
illusions, and many more. The major cause of refraction to occur is the change in the speed of waves in
different mediums, which is different due to the difference between the densities of the mediums. e.g.
the speed of light in a vacuum is maximum.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q89.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Polarisation is the property of certain electromagnetic radiations in which the direction and magnitude of
the vibrating electric field are related in a specified way. Light waves are transverse: that is, the vibrating
electric vector associated with each wave is perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
A beam of unpolarized light consists of waves moving in the same direction with their electric vectors
pointing in random orientations about the axis of propagation. Plane-polarised light consists of waves in
which the direction of vibration is the same for all waves.
In circular polarisation, the electric vector rotates about the direction of propagation as the wave
progresses. Light may be polarised by reflection or by passing it through filters, such as certain
crystals, that transmit vibration in one plane but not in others.

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 Normal X-ray measurements only reveal the energy or intensity of the radiation. Polarisation
characteristics of X-rays, which tell about the orientation of the oscillating electric field, hold clues on
the geometry and other properties of the black hole. Polarisation is one of the properties that a photon
carries from the celestial objects in the sky.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, AstroSat, India’s first, dedicated multi-wavelength astronomy mission, accomplished the
task of measuring the X-ray polarisation of the Cygnus X-1 black hole system.

Q90.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Pesticides in Tea Plantations:
Due to the environmental and climatic conditions in which tea is cultivated, plantations are prone to pests.
As a result, the planters have been resorting to the use of high volumes of pesticides that cause the
presence of higher than prescribed limits of pesticide residue in tea. Pesticides are harmful to human
health and are known to cause allergies, aggravated asthma symptoms, and certain types of cancer.
Emamectin Benzoate, Fenpyroximate, Hexaconazole along with propiconazole, and quinalphos are widely
used pesticides in tea plantations. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has
operationalised the maximum residue limit (MRL) for five pesticides used in tea.
Quinalphos is considered to be important for pest control under the integrated pest management
programme. The Assam government recently prohibited the sale, distribution, and use of four
insecticides, including quinalphos with relevance to tea cultivation for a period of 60 days.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, FSSAI has notified residue caps for five pesticides in tea plantations.

Q91.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV):
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with a lift-off mass
of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. So, statement
1 is correct.
It is also used to launch satellites of lower lift-off mass of up to about 1400 Kg to the elliptical
Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).

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 PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle with first and third
stage using solid rocket motors and the second
and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
It also uses strap-on motors to augment the thrust.
Depending on the number of these strap-on
boosters, the PSLV is classified into various
versions like core-alone version (PSLV-CA), PSLV-
G or PSLV-XL variants.
The vehicle has successfully launched two spacecraft
"Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter
Spacecraft in 2013". So, statement 4 is correct.
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV):
The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the
communication-satellites to the highly elliptical
(typically 250 x 36000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
It employs a cryogenic stage to carry heavier satellites of the order of 2200 kg into the GTO. The heavy lift
launcher GSLV MkIII is intended to enhance the GTO capability to 4000 kg. So, statement 3 is correct.
GSLV Mark II is a three-stage vehicle with four liquid strap-ons. The flight-proven indigenously developed
Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS), forms the third stage of GSLV Mk II.
GSLV MkIII is configured as a three-stage vehicle with two solid strap-on motors (S200), one liquid core stage
(L110) and a high-thrust cryogenic upper stage (C25).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: PSLV-C54 has successfully placed earth observation satellite and 8 nanosatellites in orbit.

Q92.
Answer: d
Explanation:
According to Darwin's theory of evolution, the
fitness of species is based on the number of
offspring that survive and are then capable of
reproduction. Based on this, the species can be
classified into two extreme categories in
evolutionary terms - r-selected species and k-
selected species.
K-selected (K refers to the carrying capacity)
produces a low number of offsprings that each
have a higher probability of survival to maturity. This means that the babies are entering a competitive
world, in a population at or near its carrying capacity. In contrast, r-selected (r is for reproduction)
species puts only a small investment of resources into each offspring, but produce many such low-effort
babies. So, statement 1 is not correct.

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 K-selected species possess relatively stable populations fluctuating near the carrying capacity of the
environment. These species are characterized by having only a few offspring but investing high amounts
of parental care. On the other hand, r-selected species often inhabit unstable environments and are
completely density independent. These species often have short life expectancies and invest very low
amounts of parental care. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Elephants, humans and bison are all K-selected species while R-selected species can include mosquitos,
mice and bacteria. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q93.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Fishes, reptiles and amphibians are cold-blooded creatures or Poikilothermic. It means that they cannot
regulate their own body temperature. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Both reptiles and fishes have scales while amphibians don’t have them. Amphibians have moist skin. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Unlike amphibians, reptiles lay eggs with tough coverings and they don’t need to lay their eggs in water.
Amphibian eggs are jelly-like. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q94.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Estuaries are often called the “nurseries of the sea,” because so many animals reproduce and spend the
early part of their lives there. Salty seawater mixes with fresh water draining from the land to create
habitats with unique conditions that are not found elsewhere.
As the tide rises and falls, water depth and chemistry change, creating a wide range of habitats. In some
parts of estuaries, moving water becomes still, allowing mud and food particles to settle at the bottom.
These safe conditions make estuaries ideal homes for the plants and animals that feed, grow, and
reproduce there.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q95.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Eutrophication is the enrichment of natural waters with inorganic nutrients, which causes an increase in the
development of algae and macrophytes. It is the aquatic ecosystem's reaction to the addition of nutrients such
as nitrates and phosphates, which can occur naturally or artificially.
Cultural eutrophication occurs when the runoff pollutes natural water sources, it creates algal blooms.
Eutrophication is a natural growth process in fresh and saltwater. Cultural eutrophication represents
human-caused pollution speeding up algal blooms.
The primary cause of cultural eutrophication is the series of human activities that primarily increase
the concentration of phosphorus and nitrogen in the ecosystem.
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 This type of eutrophication occurs within a shorter period of time and usually has significant
consequences for the health of all living beings.
Many human activities like overfertilization, industrial and agricultural expansion and the release
of sewage into water resources are among the prime causes of the process.
Natural eutrophication is mostly caused by natural processes such as floods, high rainfall and landslides.
These natural forces erode the silt, causing the destruction of animals, plants and any organic matter in
adjacent bodies. This influx of organic materials adds to nutrient enrichment in the water bodies.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q96.
Answer: a
Explanation:
International Network for Terrestrial Research and Monitoring in the Arctic (INTERACT) is an infrastructure
project under the auspices of SCANNET, an Arctic network of 74 terrestrial field bases (with an additional
21 research stations in Russia on pause) in northern Europe, the United States of America, Canada,
Greenland, Iceland, the Faroe Islands and Scotland as well as stations in northern alpine areas.
INTERACT specifically seeks to build capacity for research and monitoring all over the Arctic and is offering
access to numerous research stations through the Transnational Access Program.
The project, which is funded by the European Union, has a main objective to build capacity for identifying,
understanding, predicting and responding to diverse environmental changes throughout the wide
environmental and land-use envelopes of the Arctic.
INTERACT is multidisciplinary. The INTERACT stations also host and facilitate many international single-
discipline networks and aid training by hosting summer schools.
INTERACT is offering transnational access to 43 research stations located in the Arctic, and northern alpine
and forest areas in Europe, Russia and North America. It provides opportunities for researchers to work
in the field in often harsh and remote locations that are generally difficult to access.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: An INTERACT TA user group has been working on land cover changes in Greenland and identified
that there has been a doubling of vegetation in only three decades.

Q97.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Alpha diversity refers to diversity on a local scale, describing the species diversity (richness) within a
functional community. For example, alpha diversity describes the observed species diversity within a
defined plot or within a defined ecological unit, such as a pond, a field, or a patch of forest.
Beta diversity describes the amount of differentiation between species communities. It is an expression of
diversity between habitats. Unlike the other levels of species diversity, the exact interpretation and
quantification of beta diversity varies substantially across studies. Beta diversity is the ratio between
regional and local species diversity. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

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 Gamma diversity describes the overall species diversity across communities within a larger geographic
area. It is often summarized across biogeographic or political units, such as eco-regions or countries. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Gamma diversity is the most communicated level of species diversity when referring to biodiversity
hotspots, with tropical regions, in particular the Neo-tropics, showing the globally highest gamma
diversity values.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.

Q98.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is light of wavelengths 400-700 nm and is the portion of the light
spectrum utilised by plants for photosynthesis.
Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). Plants
capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world.
Photosynthetic photon flux density (PPFD) is defined as the photon flux density of PAR.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q99.
Answer: d
Explanation:
India’s Biological Diversity Act 2002 was enacted to meet the requirements of the United Nations
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992. The Act formulates a three-tier structure consisting of
a National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the national level, State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the State
level and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at local body levels.
The State Government notifies areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) in
consultation with local bodies under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. These are areas of biodiversity
importance that harbour rich biodiversity, wild relatives of crops, or areas, which lie outside the
protected area network. So, statement 1 is not correct.
All matters relating to requests by foreign individuals, companies or institutions and all matters relating to
transfer of results of research to any foreigner, approvals for intellectual property protection where
biological resources and associated knowledge gets involved are dealt by the NBA. All matters relating
to access by Indians for commercial purposes is under the purview of the concerned State Biodiversity
Boards. However, the benefit sharing guidelines are issued by the NBA. So, statement 2 is correct.
The primary responsibility of the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) is to document local
biodiversity and associated knowledge in the form of a People’s Biodiversity Register. These registers
are used to identify the BMCs where from the biological resources are accessed and benefits will be
provided to the Local Biodiversity Funds (LBFs) maintained by BMCs. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q100.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Stratification is the separation of water in layers. The ocean is stratified due to differences in density.
Generally, the warmer, lighter and less saline water form the top layer while the heavier, colder and
more saline water is at the bottom layer.
Intermixing between layers takes place when heat slowly seeps into deeper layers of the ocean. It is
also influenced by the action of currents, winds, and tides. Due to increased differences in density
(increase in stratification) between the layers, the rate of mixing is slower. Due to this, oceans
remains more stable. So, point 1 is correct.
As a result of Increase in the temperature of the upper levels of the ocean, warm water tends to
absorb less oxygen. It hampers the tendency of absorbed oxygen to mix with the cooler ocean
waters below. This leads to further difficulties for marine organisms. So, point 2 is correct.
Warm ocean water also leads to increased bleaching of coral reefs. So, point 3 is correct.
It creates more favourable conditions for the development of intense long-lasting hurricanes. So,
point 4 is correct.
A warming climate increases ocean stability by making the surface ocean less dense. Firstly, it warms
the water itself which expands its volume and secondly, it melts ice by adding freshwater into
the ocean and decreases surface salinity. So, point 5 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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