VISION INSTITUTE OF SUBJECT: DBMS

. TECHNOLOGY, ALIGARH

UNIT-1 (100 Important MCQ questions)

1. Which of the following best describes a database?

 A) A collection of interrelated data

 B) A collection of programs for managing data
 C) An isolated system for data processing
 D) A system independent of data structure
Answer: A) A collection of interrelated data

2. What is the primary function of a DBMS?

 A) Data retrieval and manipulation

 B) Program management
 C) Hardware maintenance
 D) Operating system control
Answer: A) Data retrieval and manipulation

3. In a traditional file-oriented system, data redundancy is usually...

 A) Minimized
 B) Increased
 C) Eliminated completely
 D) Not possible
Answer: B) Increased

4. What is an example of a database model?

 A) SQL
 B) E-R Model
 C) HTML
 D) HTTP
Answer: B) E-R Model

5. Which of the following is not a type of database user?

 A) DBA (Database Administrator)

 B) Database designer
 C) Data Entry Operator
 D) Compiler
Answer: D) Compiler

6. Which of the following is a major advantage of using a DBMS?

 A) Reduced data redundancy

 B) Simplified coding

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 C) Automatic error correction
 D) Immediate access to physical storage
Answer: A) Reduced data redundancy

7. What is the purpose of a database schema?

 A) To store raw data

 B) To define the structure of the database
 C) To create reports from data
 D) To enforce security
Answer: B) To define the structure of the database

8. An instance of a database refers to...

 A) The structure of the database

 B) The specific data at a given time
 C) The programming language used
 D) A unique identifier for a table
Answer: B) The specific data at a given time

9. Which component in DBMS is responsible for managing the physical storage of data?

 A) Query Processor
 B) Storage Manager
 C) Transaction Manager
 D) Data Model
Answer: B) Storage Manager

10. Data independence refers to the...

 Ability to modify data without modifying applications

 B) Flexibility of SQL queries
 C) Security of user data
 D) Functionality to access multiple databases
Answer:A) Ability to modify data without modifying applications

11. DDL stands for...

 Database Description Language

 B) Data Definition Language
 C) Database Design Language
 D) Data Development Language
Answer: B) Data Definition Language

12. Which architecture separates the database from the application and user?

A) Two-tier architecture
B) Three-tier architecture
C) Client-server architecture
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D) Cloud-based architecture
Answer: B) Three-tier architecture

13. Which type of DBMS is primarily used for complex data and relationships, such as
multimedia databases?

 Network DBMS
 B) Hierarchical DBMS
 C) Object-oriented DBMS
 D) Relational DBMS
Answer:C) Object-oriented DBMS

14. Which language is used to specify the internal schema?

 DDL (Data Definition Language)

 B) DML (Data Manipulation Language)
 C) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
 D) QBE (Query By Example)
Answer: A) DDL (Data Definition Language)

15. Which of the following is not a database model?

 Relational Model
 B) Hierarchical Model
 C) Object-Oriented Model
 D) TCP/IP Model
Answer: D) TCP/IP Model

16. Which component of DBMS is responsible for interacting with the file system at the
lowest level?

 A) Query Processor
 B) Storage Manager
 C) DDL Compiler
 D) Data Model
Answer: B) Storage Manager

17. In a DBMS, which of the following languages is used to manipulate data?

 A) DDL (Data Definition Language)

 B) DML (Data Manipulation Language)
 C) DCL (Data Control Language)
 D) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
Answer: B) DML (Data Manipulation Language)

18. Which of the following is a key feature of a relational database?

 A) Network structure

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 B) Table-based structure
 C) Object-based data
 D) Flat-file data storage
Answer: B) Table-based structure

19. What does ER stand for in ER Model?

 A) Entity Relationship
 B) Entity Range
 C) Entity Role
 D) Entity Resource
Answer: A) Entity Relationship

20. In database architecture, what is a schema?

 A) A set of operations on data

 B) A blueprint of the database structure
 C) A type of query language
 D) An indexing method
Answer: B) A blueprint of the database structure

21. Which of the following is an example of a logical data independence?

 A) Changing the table schema without affecting programs

 B) Modifying hardware without impacting data
 C) Updating operating systems without affecting the DBMS
 D) Altering data files directly
Answer: A) Changing the table schema without affecting programs

22. Which database language is primarily used to control access to data?

 A) DML (Data Manipulation Language)

 B) DDL (Data Definition Language)
 C) DCL (Data Control Language)
 D) QBE (Query By Example)
Answer: C) DCL (Data Control Language)

23. In which architecture is the DBMS and application software stored at the client
side?

 A) Centralized
 B) Distributed
 C) Two-tier
 D) Three-tier
Answer: C) Two-tier

24. Which term describes the physical storage of data in the database?

 A) Logical schema

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 B) Physical schema
 C) External schema
 D) Conceptual schema
Answer: B) Physical schema

25. In an ER diagram, an entity is represented by a...

 A) Square
 B) Rectangle
 C) Circle
 D) Diamond
Answer: B) Rectangle

26. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a DBMS?

 A) Increased data security

 B) Data redundancy reduction
 C) High cost of implementation
 D) Increased data sharing
Answer: C) High cost of implementation

27. A view in a DBMS can be described as...

 A) A subset of a database
 B) A permanent storage
 C) Physical storage of data
 D) An unrelated part of the database
Answer: A) A subset of a database

28. Which term describes data about data?

 A) Metafile
 B) Metadata
 C) Dataset
 D) Schema
Answer: B) Metadata

29. The ACID properties in a database system stand for...

 A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability

 B) Access, Control, Isolation, Durability
 C) Availability, Consistency, Independence, Durability
 D) Accuracy, Consistency, Integrity, Durability
Answer: A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability

30. Which type of DBMS is mainly used for applications that require a large amount of
multimedia data, such as videos or images?

 A) Network DBMS

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 B) Object-oriented DBMS
 C) Hierarchical DBMS
 D) Relational DBMS
Answer: B) Object-oriented DBMS

31. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a DBMS?

 A) Improved data sharing

 B) Data redundancy
 C) Enhanced data security
 D) Better data integration
Answer: B) Data redundancy

32. In an ER diagram, what symbol represents a relationship?

 A) Rectangle
 B) Circle
 C) Diamond
 D) Triangle
Answer: C) Diamond

33. What is a primary key in a database?

 A) A field that allows duplicate values

 B) A unique identifier for each record
 C) A combination of several fields
 D) An attribute with a null value
Answer: B) A unique identifier for each record

34. Which type of DBMS is designed for distributed databases?

 A) Centralized DBMS
 B) Relational DBMS
 C) Distributed DBMS
 D) Object-oriented DBMS
Answer: C) Distributed DBMS

35. Which database model uses a tree structure to organize data?

 A) Network model
 B) Relational model
 C) Hierarchical model
 D) Object-oriented model
Answer: C) Hierarchical model

36. Which DBMS level includes both physical and logical storage?

 A) Internal level
 B) Conceptual level

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 C) External level
 D) Application level
Answer: A) Internal level

37. Data abstraction levels in DBMS are...

 A) Physical, logical, and view

 B) Conceptual, internal, and physical
 C) External, conceptual, and internal
 D) Logical, external, and physical
Answer: C) External, conceptual, and internal

38. Which is NOT a component of a DBMS?

 A) Database Engine
 B) Query Processor
 C) OS Kernel
 D) Storage Manager
Answer: C) OS Kernel

39. What is data integrity?

 A) The accuracy and consistency of data

 B) The process of data backup
 C) A type of database model
 D) The encryption of data
Answer: A) The accuracy and consistency of data

40. Which of the following database users is responsible for defining the content,
structure, and constraints of the database?

 A) DBA (Database Administrator)

 B) Database Designer
 C) End User
 D) Application Programmer
Answer: B) Database Designer

41. In a relational database, tables are also known as...

 A) Relations
 B) Attributes
 C) Fields
 D) Entities
Answer: A) Relations

42. A candidate key is...

 A) The same as the primary key

 B) A set of keys that uniquely identify a record

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 C) A redundant key in a database
 D) A non-essential key
Answer: B) A set of keys that uniquely identify a record

43. Which type of dependency exists between primary and foreign keys in relational
databases?

 A) Transitive dependency
 B) Functional dependency
 C) Referential dependency
 D) Non-transitive dependency
Answer: C) Referential dependency

44. In relational database schema, each column represents a(n)...

 A) Attribute
 B) Tuple
 C) Entity
 D) Relation
Answer: A) Attribute

45. Which database language is used to perform actions like update, insert, or delete?

 A) DML (Data Manipulation Language)

 B) DDL (Data Definition Language)
 C) DCL (Data Control Language)
 D) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
Answer: A) DML (Data Manipulation Language)

46. Which of the following best describes a weak entity?

 A) An entity without any attribute

 B) An entity with no unique identifier
 C) An entity related to multiple other entities
 D) An independent entity
Answer: B) An entity with no unique identifier

47. A foreign key is used to...

 A) Uniquely identify each record

 B) Define a table
 C) Establish relationships between tables
 D) Enforce security
Answer: C) Establish relationships between tables

48. In the three-schema architecture, the external schema is also known as...

 A) User View
 B) Logical View

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 C) Internal View
 D) Physical View
Answer: A) User View

49. Which of the following operations can be performed by DDL?

 A) Create and alter tables

 B) Retrieve data from tables
 C) Control access to data
 D) Manage transactions
Answer: A) Create and alter tables

50. What is a transaction in a database system?

 A) A single operation on the database

 B) A sequence of operations performed as a single logical unit of work
 C) A method of creating reports
 D) A system error in the database
Answer: B) A sequence of operations performed as a single logical unit of work

51. Which of the following ensures a transaction is either fully completed or fully rolled
back?

 A) Consistency
 B) Atomicity
 C) Isolation
 D) Durability
Answer: B) Atomicity

52. In the relational model, what is a tuple?

 A) A column in a table
 B) A row in a table
 C) A foreign key in a table
 D) An attribute of a table
Answer: B) A row in a table

53. Which of the following helps manage concurrent transactions in a DBMS?

 A) Query Processor
 B) Concurrency Control
 C) Data Dictionary
 D) Storage Manager
Answer: B) Concurrency Control

54. In a DBMS, which language is used for transaction control?

 A) DML (Data Manipulation Language)

 B) DDL (Data Definition Language)

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 C) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
 D) QBE (Query By Example)
Answer: C) TCL (Transaction Control Language)

55. Which term refers to the minimum and maximum number of entity occurrences
that can participate in a relationship?

 A) Cardinality
 B) Degree
 C) Dependency
 D) Data Integrity
Answer: A) Cardinality

56. Which isolation level in SQL allows a transaction to read only committed data?

 A) Serializable
 B) Read Committed
 C) Repeatable Read
 D) Read Uncommitted
Answer: B) Read Committed

57. What is normalization in the context of databases?

 A) The process of data encryption

 B) The elimination of data redundancy
 C) The structure of data storage
 D) A method of data access
Answer: B) The elimination of data redundancy

58. In SQL, which keyword is used to retrieve only unique values?

 A) DISTINCT
 B) UNIQUE
 C) PRIMARY
 D) DIFFERENT
Answer: A) DISTINCT

59. Which of the following statements about secondary storage is true?

 A) It is volatile
 B) It includes RAM and cache
 C) It stores data persistently
 D) It cannot be used by the DBMS
Answer: C) It stores data persistently

60. Which form of normalization eliminates partial dependency?

 A) First Normal Form (1NF)

 B) Second Normal Form (2NF)

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 C) Third Normal Form (3NF)
 D) Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)
Answer: B) Second Normal Form (2NF)

61. What is the purpose of a data dictionary in a DBMS?

 A) To store database records

 B) To describe data and relationships in the database
 C) To maintain hardware resources
 D) To process database queries
Answer: B) To describe data and relationships in the database

62. Which SQL command is used to delete a table structure and all its data?

 A) DELETE
 B) TRUNCATE
 C) REMOVE
 D) DROP
Answer: D) DROP

63. Which of the following describes a composite key?

 A) A key with duplicate values

 B) A single attribute that uniquely identifies a row
 C) A primary key made of multiple attributes
 D) A unique identifier in a table
Answer: C) A primary key made of multiple attributes

64. The highest level of isolation in a DBMS is known as...

 A) Read Committed
 B) Serializable
 C) Read Uncommitted
 D) Repeatable Read
Answer: B) Serializable

65. What does the SELECT statement in SQL do?

 A) It creates a table
 B) It modifies table records
 C) It retrieves data from the database
 D) It deletes records in a table
Answer: C) It retrieves data from the database

66. The three-schema architecture in DBMS includes all except...

 A) Internal schema
 B) Conceptual schema
 C) Physical schema

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 D) External schema
Answer: C) Physical schema

67. Which SQL command is used to update existing data within a table?

 A) ALTER
 B) INSERT
 C) UPDATE
 D) MODIFY
Answer: C) UPDATE

68. In database management, what is a deadlock?

 A) A situation where transactions wait indefinitely for resources

 B) A technique to optimize queries
 C) A method of data indexing
 D) A type of database model
Answer: A) A situation where transactions wait indefinitely for resources

69. The SQL command to remove specific rows from a table based on a condition is...

 A) DELETE
 B) DROP
 C) REMOVE
 D) CLEAR
Answer: A) DELETE

70. Which data type would best represent a variable-length text field in SQL?

 A) INT
 B) DATE
 C) VARCHAR
 D) BOOLEAN
Answer: C) VARCHAR

71. In the context of DBMS, which of the following is a characteristic of a distributed

database?

 A) Data is stored in a single location

 B) Data is replicated across multiple sites
 C) It only supports hierarchical data models
 D) It cannot be accessed remotely
Answer: B) Data is replicated across multiple sites

72. What is a logical schema in a database?

 A) The physical arrangement of data on storage devices

 B) A blueprint of how data is structured at the logical level
 C) A detailed description of hardware configurations

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 D) The actual data stored in the database
Answer: B) A blueprint of how data is structured at the logical level

73. Which of the following ensures that transactions are processed reliably and ensures
the integrity of the database?

 A) Concurrency Control
 B) Data Independence
 C) Transaction Management
 D) Query Optimization
Answer: C) Transaction Management

74. A surrogate key is...

 A) A natural key that is used to uniquely identify records

 B) A key that is created by the database for unique identification
 C) A composite key made of two or more columns
 D) A redundant key used for security
Answer: B) A key that is created by the database for unique identification

75. In SQL, what does the acronym DML stand for?

 A) Data Manipulation Language

 B) Database Management Language
 C) Data Model Language
 D) Data Maintenance Language
Answer: A) Data Manipulation Language

76. What is the purpose of the GROUP BY clause in SQL?

 A) To sort the results of a query

 B) To aggregate data based on specified columns
 C) To filter records based on conditions
 D) To join two or more tables
Answer: B) To aggregate data based on specified columns

77. Which type of join returns all records from the left table and the matched records
from the right table?

 A) Inner Join
 B) Right Join
 C) Left Join
 D) Full Join
Answer: C) Left Join

78. Which SQL function is used to count the number of rows in a query?

 A) COUNT(*)
 B) SUM()

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 C) TOTAL()
 D) NUM()
Answer: A) COUNT(*)

79. Which of the following is a characteristic of a relational database?

 A) Data is stored in a hierarchical format

 B) Relationships between data are established through links
 C) Data is stored in tables with rows and columns
 D) Data must be stored in files
Answer: C) Data is stored in tables with rows and columns

80. Which command is used to grant privileges to a user in a database?

 A) GRANT
 B) ALLOW
 C) PROVIDE
 D) ENABLE
Answer: A) GRANT

81. Which of the following is a common way to enforce referential integrity in a

relational database?

 A) Use of unique keys

 B) Use of primary keys
 C) Use of foreign keys
 D) Use of indexes
Answer: C) Use of foreign keys

82. What does the acronym SQL stand for?

 A) Structured Query Language

 B) Simple Query Language
 C) Standard Query Language
 D) Secure Query Language
Answer: A) Structured Query Language

83. Which of the following is used to define the structure of a table in a database?

 A) DML
 B) DDL
 C) DCL
 D) TCL
Answer: B) DDL

84. What does the term "data redundancy" refer to?

 A) The same piece of data being stored in multiple places

 B) The inability to access data

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 C) A decrease in data integrity
 D) A method of securing data
Answer: A) The same piece of data being stored in multiple places

85. Which of the following is an advantage of normalization?

 A) Reduced data integrity

 B) Increased data redundancy
 C) Improved data consistency
 D) Increased complexity of queries
Answer: C) Improved data consistency

86. Which SQL command would you use to create a new table?

 A) CREATE TABLE
 B) NEW TABLE
 C) ADD TABLE
 D) INSERT TABLE
Answer: A) CREATE TABLE

87. Which statement is true about SQL views?

 A) Views store data physically in the database.

 B) Views are not updatable.
 C) Views can be used to restrict access to specific data.
 D) Views can only be created on a single table.
Answer: C) Views can be used to restrict access to specific data.

88. What is the main purpose of indexing in a database?

 A) To increase data redundancy

 B) To enhance data retrieval speed
 C) To enforce data integrity
 D) To store backup data
Answer: B) To enhance data retrieval speed

89. In SQL, which of the following is used to modify existing data?

 A) UPDATE
 B) CHANGE
 C) MODIFY
 D) ALTER
Answer: A) UPDATE

90. What does the term "atomicity" imply in the context of transactions?

 A) Each transaction is executed only once.

 B) A transaction must be completed in its entirety or not at all.
 C) All operations in a transaction must be visible to other transactions.

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 D) A transaction can consist of multiple steps.
Answer: B) A transaction must be completed in its entirety or not at all.

91. Which of the following best describes a "relation" in a relational database?

 A) A single record in a table

 B) A table containing data
 C) A unique identifier for a record
 D) A set of attributes
Answer: B) A table containing data

92. Which type of database model uses objects to represent data?

 A) Relational Model
 B) Object-oriented Model
 C) Hierarchical Model
 D) Network Model
Answer: B) Object-oriented Model

93. In database terms, what is an attribute?

 A) A specific data type

 B) A row in a table
 C) A characteristic of an entity
 D) A collection of records
Answer: C) A characteristic of an entity

94. Which type of integrity constraint ensures that a value in a foreign key column
matches a value in the primary key column?

 A) Domain Integrity
 B) Entity Integrity
 C) Referential Integrity
 D) User-defined Integrity
Answer: C) Referential Integrity

95. Which SQL statement is used to create a view?

 A) CREATE VIEW
 B) NEW VIEW
 C) MAKE VIEW
 D) ADD VIEW
Answer: A) CREATE VIEW

96. In the context of databases, what is a schema?

 A) The actual data stored in a database

 B) A diagram representing data relationships
 C) The structure that defines the organization of data

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 D) A method for data retrieval
Answer: C) The structure that defines the organization of data

97. Which of the following describes an "outer join"?

 A) Combines rows from two or more tables based on a related column

 B) Returns all records from both tables regardless of matching
 C) Returns all records from the left table and matched records from the right
 D) A join that only returns matched records from both tables
Answer: C) Returns all records from the left table and matched records from the right

98. In the context of database security, what is the purpose of authentication?

 A) To back up the database

 B) To verify the identity of a user
 C) To encrypt data
 D) To restore data
Answer: B) To verify the identity of a user

99. Which type of database management system is most commonly used for structured
data?

 A) Document-based DBMS
 B) Relational DBMS
 C) Graph DBMS
 D) Key-value DBMS
Answer: B) Relational DBMS

100. What is a "stored procedure"?

 A) A temporary table created for a specific query

 B) A precompiled collection of SQL statements
 C) A method for securing database access
 D) A backup procedure for data recovery
Answer: B) A precompiled collection of SQL statements

Page no. 17 Faculty : Dayashankar sharma

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