1.

Number of electrodes used in 12 lead ECG

A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12

2. The color coding of electrode placed on right arm in 12 lead ECG id.
A. White
B. Black
C. Blue
D. Yellow

3. Which of the following combination correctly indicates Bipolar Leads?

A. V1,V2,V3
B. I,II,III
C. aVR,aVF,aVL
D. V1,aVR,III

4. Which combination contains all anterior leads?

A. V1,V2
B. V1,V2,V3
C. V1,V2,V3,V4
D. V1,V2,V3,V4,V5

5. All are lateral leads except?

A. I lead
B. aVL lead
C. V6 lead
D. V4 lead

6. Anterior wall MI is indicated by ___leads.

A. V1 to V4
B. V1 to V6
C. I,II,III
D. aVL,aVF

7. All of the following are common problems of a critically ill Patient

except
A. Hemodynamic Adequacy
B. Respiratory Insufficiency
C. Deterioration in LOC
D. Fluid imbalance
8. The Equal number of large boxes between consecutive QRS
complexes,determines______.
A. Dysrhythmia
B. Regular Rhythem
C. Ventricular relaxation
D. Ventricular repolarization

9. Which among the following is right wrist lead?

A. aVF
B. aVL
C. aVR
D. V6

10. Patient with inferior wall MI is on great risk of ______.

A. Hypovolemic Shock
B. Cardiogenic Shock
C. Neurogenic Shock
D. Septic Shock

11. Each large box on an ECG Strip equals ____.

A. 0.04 seconds
B. 0.12 seconds
C. 0.004 seconds
D. 0.2 seconds

12. Straight line on ECG is termed as______.

A. Ventricular Tachycardia
B. Arrhythmia
C. Asystole
D. Atrial Fibrillation

13. The term Hemodynamics refers to?

A. Body movement
B. Blood volume
C. Blood circulation
D. Force to pump blood

14. The main purpose of haemodynamic monitoring is______

A. To monitor blood volume
B. To calculate blood loss
C. To investigate diseases
D. To identify life threatening conditions
15. Which among the following is Non Invasive method of Blood pressure
monitoring?
A. Use of automated BP monitoring devices
B. Through arterial line
C. Through PA catheter
D. N.O.T

16. One Cc of heparin equals to?

A. 1500 IU
B. 2500 IU
C. 3500 IU
D. 5000 IU

17. ______ is most common artery used to insert A-line.

A. Brachial artery
B. Radial artery
C. Ulnar artery
D. Axillary artery

18. Before insertion of Aline catheter,to confirm the presence of adequate

collateral circulation someone should perform?
A. ABGs
B. Blood glucose test
C. Allen test
D. Weber test

19. All are purposes of A-line,except.

A. Blood pressure monitoring
B. Taking samples
C. Drug administration
D. ABGs

20. Phlebostatic axis is the position at____.

A. 2nd Intercostal space
B. 3rd intercostal space
C. 4rth intercostal space
D. 5th intercostal space

21. Hemodynamic monitoring includes all except.

A. Blood pressure
B. Blood gases
C. Heart rate
D. Blood PH
22. All are complications of Atrial line insertion,except.
A. Hemorrhage
B. Pnemothorax
C. Dissection
D. Infections

23. Which one is not an indication of A-line?

A. B.P monitoring
B. Permanent access
C. Taking samples
D. Fluid volume deficit monitoring

24. Vein that is most commonly used in children to insert Central venous
line (CVL)
A. Internal jugular vein
B. Femoral vein
C. Brachial vein
D. Temporal vein

25. Cellulitis is the inflammation of?

A. Bones
B. Skin
C. Cervix
D. Muscles

26. Position recommended for Central venous line (CVL) insertion.

A. Recumbent position
B. Trendelnberg position
C. Supine position
D. Prone position

27. Which of the following series is correct when considering the increased
chances of infection?
A. Internal jugular>Femoral> Brachial
B. Femoral>Brachial>Internal jugular
C. Femoral>Internal jugular>Subclavian
D. Subclavian>Internal jugular>Femoral

28. The term Thrombus indicates______.

A. Moving air bubble in vessel
B. Moving blood clot in vessel
C. Localized air bubble in vessel
D. Localized blood clot in vessel
29. Normal value of Central venous pressure (CVP) is____.
A. 2-6cmH2O
B. 4-8cmH2O
C. 5-10cmH2O
D. 6-12cm H20

30. 1 mm of Hg equals to?

A. 1.3 cm H20
B. 1.5 cm H20
C. 1.8 cm H20
D. 2 cm H20

31. When the CVP drops to ______, it indicates a decrease in blood volume.
A. 5 cm H2O
B. 8 cm H2O
C. 10 cm H2O
D. 12 cm H2O

32. In pressure bag, pressure is maintained upto_____mmHg.

A. 100 mmHg
B. 200 mmHg
C. 300 mmHg
D. 400 mmHg

33. Which port of the inter venous catheter is suitable to measure CVP?
A. Proximal port
B. Distal port
C. Thermostor port
D. AOT

34. Pulmonary artery catheter is mainly used for the_____ purpose.

A. Diagnostic purpose
B. Treatment purpose
C. To monitor ABGs
D. Taking samples

35. Approximate size of arterial catheters might be____.

A. > 4 inches
B. 4 inches
C. < 4 inches
D. 5 inches
36. Pulmonary artery monitoring is helpful for_____.
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Treatment
D. A.O.T

37. Most common complication of PA catheter is_____.

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Ventricular ectopy
C. Hemorrhage
D. Shock

38. Pulmonary artery catheter is inserted in___.

A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle

39. Normal value of pulmonary artery systolic pressure ranges from?

A. <16 mmHg
B. 16-22 mmHg
C. 18-25 mmHg
D. 20-28 mmHg

40. Normal value of ejection fraction lies between?

A. 50-60%
B. 55-65%
C. 60-70%
D. 65-75%

41. Which among the following best defines Cardiac Index?

A. Cardiac output Body surface area
B. Cardiac output + Body surface area
C. Cardica output × Body surface area
D. Cardica output ÷ Body surface area

42. Normal range of Mean arterial pressure lies between____.

A. 45 to 90 mmHg
B. 60 to 95 mmHg
C. 65 to 100 mmHg
D. 70 to 105 mmHg
43. Maximum tension developed in ventricular wall at end diastole is
termed as?
A. Cardiac output
B. Preload
C. Afterload
D. Venous return

44. Afterload is define as____.

A. Per minute blood ejected from ventricle
B. Tension developed in ventricular wall at end diastole
C. Tension developed in ventricular wall needed to eject blood.
D. Per second blood ejected from ventricle

45. Alternative term for Inotropy is______.

A. Flexibility
B. Contractility
C. Augmentation
D. Counter pulsation

46. In the indicator dilution method, the most commonly used indicator is
______.
A. Lithium ions
B. Radioisotopes
C. Lidocaine
D. Indocyanine dye

47. The Bolus of cold saline in right atrium is injected through?

A. Central venous line
B. Aterial line
C. Pulmonary artery catheter
D. IABP

48. To dilate the balloon of Intraaortic balloon pump(IABP),which gas is

filled in?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
49. The term Augmentation refers to____.
A. Amount of pressure in left ventricle
B. Ability of balloon to be fully dilate
C. Ability of balloon to be fully expand
D. Back flow of blood in aorta

50. Which statement regarding IABP is correct?

A. Used as a permanent access
B. Used as a partial alternative
C. Used as an alternative of PA catheter
D. A.O.T

51. The basic purpose behind IABP insertion is?

A. To Improve preload
B. To Decrease afterload
C. To Push blood in coronary arteries
D. A.O.T

52. Normal right ventricular diastolic pressure ranges between_______.

A. 2 to 4 mm of Hg
B. 4 to 8 mm of Hg
C. 6 to 12 mm of Hg
D. 8 to 16 mm of Hg

53. Which of the following hemodynamics parameter relates heart

performance with the size of individual?
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Cardiac index
D. Cardiac output

54. The term Dicrotic Notch refers to____.

A. Amount of pressure in left ventricle
B. Ability of balloon to be fully dilate
C. Ability of balloon to be fully expand
D. Back flow of blood in aorta

55. Most important determininng factor for preload is___.

A. Cardiac output
B. Stroke volume
C. Venous return
D. Cardiac index
56. Afterload of the right ventricle can be determined by___.
A. Pulmonary artery pressure
B. Aortic pressure
C. Blood pressure
D. Venous return

57. The greater the stretch of myocardial fibers,the stronger the force of
contraction,this statement relates with____.
A. Williston's law
B. Starling's law
C. Bergman's law
D. Mendel's law

58. Preload equals to______.

A. Systolic volume
B. Diastolic volume
C. End systolic volume
D. End diastolic volume

59. Average value of cardiac index is?

A. 2.2 litres
B. 3.2 litres
C. 4.3 litres
D. 5.3 litres

60. Stroke volume is define as____.

A. SV = EDV - ESV
B. SV = EDV + ESV
C. SV = EDV × ESV
D. SV = EDV ÷ ESV

61. It is the volume of blood remaining in ventricle after ejection of

blood____.
A. End diastolic volume
B. Tidal volume
C. End systolic volume
D. Stroke volume

62. Balloon deflation of IABP is triggered by_____.

A. P wave on ECG
B. Q wave on ECG
C. R wave on ECG
D. T wave on ECG
63. Intraaortic balloon pump promotes___
A. Increase in diastolic pressure
B. Decrease in diastolic pressure
C. Increase in systolic pressure
D. Decrease in systolic pressure

64. IABP balloon Inflation occurs during___.

A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. Venous return
D. A.O.T

65. Which one among the following is NOT a determinant of stroke volume?
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Contractility
D. Heart rate

66. All of the following are indicators of mechanical ventilation,except___.

A. PH = 7.25
B. PaO2 = 58 mm of Hg
C. Respiratory rate =23 breaths/minute
D. Tidal volume less than 5 ml/kg

67. Amount of air passing into and out of lungs during each cycle of
breathing is called____.
A. Vital capacity
B. Tidal volume
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Respiratory rate

68. Normal value of partial pressure of CO2 lies between____.

A. 25-35 mm of Hg
B. 35-45 mm of Hg
C. 45-55 mm of Hg
D. 55-65 mm of Hg

69. Negative pressure ventilators are also known as____.

A. Iron lungs
B. High frequency ventilators
C. Volume ventilators
D. N.O.T
70. The most commonly used ventilators in critical care settings are_____.
A. Volume ventilators
B. Pressure ventilators
C. Negative pressure ventilators
D. High frequency ventilators

71. These ventilators are used in pediatric intensive care areas.

A. Negative pressure ventilators
B. Volume cycled ventilators
C. Time cycled ventilators
D. Pressure cycled ventilators

72. High frequency ventilators use small tidal volumes at frequencies

______breaths/min.
A. <90 b/m
B. >90 b/m
C. <100 b/m
D. >100 b/m

73. A patient is considered paralyzed when placed in the ______ mode of

the ventilator.
A. Spontaneous mode
B. Mandatory control
C. Assist control
D. SIMV

74. Which among the following statement relates with C-PAP.

A. It is given to provide extra breaths
B. It is given to vanish airway obstructions
C. It is given to decrease breathing
D. It is given to decline oxygen level

75. Inverse ratio of I:E is used when patient is placed on____.

A. Assist control ventilation
B. Pressure control ventilation
C. Pressure support ventilation
D. Continuous positive airway pressure mode (CPAP)

76. In infants, levels of FiO2 must be maintained upto___.

A. 60%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 100%
77. Which one among the following is a sign of Oxygen toxicity?
A. Fever
B. Headache
C. Chest pain
D. Hypertension

78. Minute volume is define as_____

A. Volume of inspired air per minute
B. Volume of expired air per minute
C. Volume of air inspired in one breath
D. Volume of air expired in one breath

79. Low pressure alarms in ventilator, may warn about?

A. Rising pressure
B. Absence of pressure
C. Disconnection of ventilator
D. Abnormal pressure

80. As a nurse you are working in an ICU and caring a patient that is on
ventilator,if ventilator alarm sounds, you arrived but did not identify
the problem,what would be the next step you have to take?
A. Close the alarms sound
B. Close the ventilator
C. Ventilate the patient through oxygen source
D. Wait for the next step until physician arrives

81. Which mode of weaning is most preferred one_____?

A. Placing on BiPAP
B. Placing on SIMV mode
C. Placing on Pressure support ventilation
D. Placing on CPAP

82. The best time to start weaning a patient is_______.

A. At night
B. Mid day time
C. In evening time
D. In morning time

83. Cardiac output is determined by

A. Heart rate times stroke volume
B. Heart rate end diastolic volume
C. After loads times preload
D. Stroke volume plus end diastolic
84. ______ is a type of severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction:
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Septic Shock
D. Anaphylactic shock

85. Cardiac output in resting position is:

A. 5 L/sec
B. 70 ml/min
C. 10 L/min
D. 05 L/min

86. Brain damage begins 4-6 minutes after cardiac arrest and it becomes
irreversible in
A. 6-8 minutes
B. 8-10 minutes
C. 10-12 minutes
D. 12-14 minutes

87. In _____ shock vasodilation occurs as a result of loss of balance between

sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation:
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Hypovolemic shock

88. ______ is caused by spinal cord injury, usually as a result of a

traumatic accident or injury
A. Classic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Septic Shock
D. Neurogenic shock

89. The common symptom of acute ischemic stroke?

A. Sudden severe headache
B. One-sided weakness
C. Aphasia
D. Impaired swallow
90. ____ is also known as vasodilatory shock.
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Distributive shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Obstructive shock

91. ____is the inability of the circulatory system to deliver enough blood to
meet the oxygen and nutrient requirements of body tissues.
A. Heart failure
B. Hypertension
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Shock

92. Which of the following is not one of the stages of shock?

A. Initial Stage
B. Compensatory Stage
C. Terminal Stage
D. Progressive Stage

93. In which stage of shock is therapy no longer effective in saving the

patient's life due to irreversible organ damage?
A. Initial Stage
B. Compensatory Stage
C. Progressive Stage
D. Refractory Stage

94. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a

motor vehicle accident. He is pale, cold, and sweating. His heart rate is
130 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. On
physical examination, there is a large wound on his leg with active
bleeding.What is the most likely cause of his condition?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Neurogenic shock

95. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of shock?

A. Increased blood pressure
B. Inadequate tissue perfusion
C. Decreased respiratory rate
D. Hypervolemia
96. Type of shock caused by a severe allergic reaction.
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Neurogenic shock

97. The most common cause of hypovolemic shock.

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Spinal cord injury
C. Severe infection
D. Blood loss

98. Which of the following is a defining feature of cardiogenic shock?

A. Reduced cardiac output
B. Excessive vasodilation
C. Severe blood loss
D. Neurotransmitter dysfunction

99. Neurogenic shock typically occurs due to:

A. Loss of sympathetic tone
B. Bacterial infection
C. Severe hemorrhage
D. Myocardial dysfunction

100. Which of the following conditions is an example of obstructive shock?

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Sepsis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Spinal cord injury
1. C 44. C 87. B
2. A 45. B 88. D
3. B 46. A 89. B
4. C 47. C 90. B
5. D 48. B 91. D
6. A 49. C 92. C
7. A 50. B 93. D
8. B 51. D 94. B
9. C 52. B 95. B
10. B 53. C 96. C
11. D 54. D 97. D
12. C 55. C 98. A
13. C 56. A 99. A
14. D 57. B 100. C
15. A 58. D
16. D 59. B
17. B 60. A
18. C 61. C
19. C 62. C
20. C 63. B
21. B 64. B
22. B 65. D
23. D 66. C
24. A 67. B
25. B 68. B
26. B 69. A
27. C 70. A
28. D 71. C
29. C 72. D
30. A 73. B
31. A 74. B
32. C 75. B
33. A 76. A
34. A 77. C
35. C 78. B
36. C 79. C
37. B 80. C
38. A 81. B
39. C 82. D
40. B 83. A
41. D 84. D
42. D 85. D
43. B 86. B