SECTION – A

PRACTICE EXERCISE

Dual Nature

1. The energy of photon of visible light with 6. The work- function of a substance is 4.0 eV.
maximum wavelength in eV is : The longest wavelength of light that can cause
(1) 1 (2) 1.6 photoelectron emission from this substance
(3) 3.2 (4) 7 is approximately :
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm
2. What is the momentum of a photon having (3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm
frequency 1.5 × 1013Hz :
(1) 3.3 × 10–29 kg m/s (2) 3.3 × 10–34 kg m/s 7. Photoelectric effect takes place in element A.
(3) 6.6 × 10 kg m/s
–34 (4) 6.6 × 10–30 kg m/s Its work function is 2.5 eV and threshold
wavelength is . An other element B is having
3. The strength of photoelectric current is work function of 5 eV. Then find out the
directly proportional to : maximum wavelength that can produce
(1) Frequency of incident radiation photoelectric effect in B :
(2) Intensity of incident radiation (1) /2 (2) 2
(3) Angle of incidence of radiation (3)  (4) 3
(4) Distance between anode and cathode
8. When light of wavelength lesser than 6000 Å
4. When light is incident on surface, photo is incident on a metal, electrons are emitted.
electrons are emitted. For photoelectrons : The approximate work-function of the metal is:
(1) The value of kinetic energy is same for all (1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV
(2) Maximum kinetic energy do not depend (3) 4 eV (4) 6 Ev
on the wave length of incident light
(3) The value of kinetic energy is equal to or 9. Surface of sodium is illuminated by a light of
less than a maximum kinetic energy 6000 Å wavelength. Work function of sodium
(4) None of the above. is 1.6 eV. Then minimum K.E. of emitted
electrons is :
5. When light falls on a photosensitive surface, (1) 0 eV (2) 1.53 eV
electrons are emitted from the surface. The (3) 2.46 eV (4) 4.14 eV
kinetic energy of these electrons does not
depend on the: 10. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
(1) Wavelength of light emitted from a surface when photons of energy
(2) Frequency of light 6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in
(3) Type of material used for the surface volt is :
(4) Intensity of light (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10
11. When a point source of monochromatic light
is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric
cell, the cut - off voltage and the saturation
current are 0.6 volt and 18 mA respectively. If
the same source is placed 0.6 m away from
the photoelectric cell, then :-
(1) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
(2) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V (1) Charge of electron
(3) The saturation current will be 6 mA (2) Work function of metal
(4) The saturation current will be 18 mA (3) Planck’s constant
(4) Ratio of Planck constant and charge of
12. The stopping potential as a function of Electron
frequency of incident radiation is plotted for
two different surfaces A and B. The graphs 17. Photon of energy 6 eV is incident on a metal
show that the work function of A is surface of work function 4 eV. Maximum KE
of emitted photo electrons will be :-
(1) 0 eV (2) 1 eV
(3) 2 eV (4) 10 eV

18. Light of frequency  is incident on a metal of

(1) Greater than that of B
threshold frequency 0. Then work function
(2) Smaller than that of B
of metal will be:-
(3) Same as that of B
(1) h (2) h0
(4) No comparison can be done from given
(3) h( – 0) (4) h ( + 0)
graphs

19. The work function of a photo electric material

13. The slope of graph drawn between stopping
is 3.3 eV. Its threshold frequency will be :
potential and frequency of incident light for a
(1) 4 × 1023 Hz (2) 8 × 1012 Hz
given surface will be :-
(3) 4 × 1011 Hz (4) 8 × 1014 Hz
(1) h (2) h/e
(3) eh (4) e
20. The value of planck's constant is :–
(1) 6.63 × 10–34 J/s
14. By photo electric effect, Einstein proved :-
(2) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2/s
(3) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2
(4) 6.63 × 10–34 J–s–1

21. When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate

then photoelectric effect does not occur, it
15. Which one among shows particle nature of occurs by incidence of :–
light? (1) Infrared rays (2) X–rays
(1) P.E.E. (2) Interference (3) Radio wave (4) Light wave
(3) Refraction (4) Polarization
22. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point
16. Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic source of light 1 m away. When the source is
energy of electron with frequency of incident shifted to 2m then
photon in Photo electric effect. The slope of (1) each emitted electron carries one quarter
curve will be : of the initial energy
 (2) number of electrons emitted is half the of the incident radiation gives a straight line
initial number whose slope :
(3) each emitted electron carries half the (1) depends on the intensity of the radiation
initial energy (2) depends of the nature of the metal used
(4) number of electrons emitted is a quarter (3) depends both on the intensity of the
of the initial number radiation and the metal used.
(4) is the same for all metals and independent
23. The graphs show the variation of current of the intensity of the radiation.
I (y-axis) in two photocell A & B as a function
of the applied voltage V(x-axis) when light of 26. If E and P are the energy and the momentum
same frequency is incident on the cell. Which of a photon respectively then on reducing the
of the following is the correct conclusion wavelength of photon –
drawn from the data ? (1) P and E both will decrease
(2) P and E both will increase
(3) P will increase and E will decrease
(4) P will decrease and E will increase

27. If the kinetic energy of a moving particle is E,

then the De Broglie wavelength is :
(1) Cathodes of the two cells are made from
the same substance, the intensity of light
used are different
(2) Cathodes are made from different
substances and the intensity of light is the
same
28. Electron has energy of 100 eV what will be its
(3) Cathode substances as well as intensity of
wavelength :
light are different
(1) 1.2 Å (2) 10 Å
(4) no conclusion can be drawn
(3) 100 Å (4) 1 Å

24. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,

29. The ratio of wavelength of deutron and proton
the graph between the kinetic energy of
accelerated through the same potential difference
photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of
will be –
incident radiation is

30. The magnitude of De broglie wavelength ()

of electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and  -
particle () all having the same kinetic energy of
1MeV, in the increasing order will follow the
sequence :
(1) e, p, n,  (2) e, n, p, 
(3) , n, p, e (4) p, e, , n

25. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, 31. A proton and an -particle accelerated through
the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted same voltage. The ratio of their De broglie
photoelectrons from a metal v/s the frequency wavelength will be :
32. The De Broglie wavelength of an atom at 39. De Broglie equation for an electron shows is :
absolute temperature T K will be – (1) Particle nature (2) Wave nature
(3) Dual nature (4) None of these

40. Which of the following is true for photon :-

33. The wavelength of very fast moving electron (v 

c) is :

41. For a moving particle having kinetic energy E,

the correct de Broglie wavelength is :

34. Which experiment explains the wave nature

of electron :-
(1) Michelson's experiment
(2) Davisson Germer experiment
42. The De Broglie wavelength of an electron in
(3) Roentgen experiment
the first bohr orbit is :
(4) Rutherford experiment
(1) Equal to the circumference of the first
orbit
35. In davisson-Germer experiment, the filament
(2) Equal to twice the circumference of the
emits :-
first orbit
(1) Photons (2) Protons
(3) Equal to half the circumference of the first
(3) X - rays (4) Electrons
orbit
(4) Equal to one fourth the circumference of
36. In Davisson - Germer experiment, Nickel crystal
first orbit
acts as :-
(1) Perfect reflector
43. If given particles are moving with same velocity,
(2) Three dimensional diffraction grating
then maximum de-Broglie wavelength for :
(3) Ideal absorber
(4) Two dimensional diffraction grating (1) Proton (2) - particle
(3) Neutron (4)  - particle
37. The diffracted waves in the Davisson-Germer
experiment are :- 44. If an electron and a photon propagate with
(1) Electrons (2) X – Rays same wavelength, it implies that they can
(3) Photons (4) Protons have the same:–
(1) Energy
38. An electron and a proton have the same (2) Momentum
De-Broglie wavelength. Then the kinetic energy (3) Velocity
of the electron is : (4) Angular momentum
(1) zero
(2) Infinity 45. According to De Broglie, wavelength of
(3) Equal to kinetic energy of proton electron in second orbit is 10–9metre. Then
(4) Greater than the kinetic energy of proton the circumference of orbit is :–
 (1) 10–9 m (2) 2 × 10–9m 53. The energy of the most energetic photoelectrons
(3) 3 × 10–9 m (4) 4 × 10–9m emitted from a metal target depends upon
(1) Threshold frequency of the metal
46. If the mass of a microscopic particle as well as (2) Photoelectric work function of the metal
its speed are halved, the de Broglie wavelength (3) Wavelength of the incident radiation
associated with the particle will (4) All of these
(1) increased by a factor more than 2
(2) increase by a factor of 2 54. Threshold wavelength for sodium is 6 × 10–7m.
(3) decrease by a factor of 2 Then photoemission occurs for light
(4) decrease by a factor more than 2 ofwavelength  if
(1)  6 × 10–7 metre
(2)  6 × 10–7 metre
47. An electron and proton are accelerated
(3)  = 5 × 1014 metre
through same potential, then e/p will be
(4) Frequency  5 × 1014 hertz

55. Given that a photon of light of wavelength 10000

Å has energy 1.23 eV. Now when light of intensity
I0 andwavelength 5000 Å falls on a photo cell the
48. An electron, proton and alpha particle have
saturation current and stopping potential are
same kinetic energy. The corresponding de
0.40 A and 1.36 Vrespectively. The work
Broglie wavelength would have the following
function is
relationship
(1) 0.43 eV (2) 1.10 eV
(3) 1.36 eV (4) 2.47 eV

56. If the frequency of light incident on a metallic

49. If p and  be the wavelengths of protons and plate be doubled, how will the maximum kinetic
-particles of equal kinetic energies, then energy of thephotoelectrons change?
(1) It becomes more than double
(2) It becomes less than double
(3) It becomes exactly double
(4) It does not change
50. When photon of energy 3.8 eV falls on metallic
57. Wave nature of light cannot explain photoelectric
surface of work function 2.8 eV, then the kinetic
energy ofemitted electrons are effect because in photoelectric effect, it is seen
(1) 1 eV (2) 6.6 eV that
(3) 0 to 1 eV (4) 2.8 eV (1) For the frequency of light below a certain
value, the photoelectric effect does not take
51. The photoelectric work function
place, irrespectiveof intensity
(1) Is different for different materials (2) Maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons
(2) Is same for all metals is independent of intensity of radiation
(3) Depends upon frequency of the incident light (3) There is no time lag between the incidence of
(4) Depends upon intensity of the incident light radiation and emission of electrons
(4) All of these
52. The phenomenon of photoelectric effect was first
58. The photoelectric threshold for a certain metal
explained by
(1) Hallwach (2) Einstein surface is 330 Å. What is the maximum kinetic
(3) Planck (4) Bohr energy of thephotoelectrons emitted, ifradiations
of wavelength 1100 Å are used ?
(1) 1 eV
 (2) 2 eV (1) E/c
(3) 7.5 eV (2) E/2c
(4) No electron is emitted (3) 2E/c
(4) It has no momentum
59. When a point source of light is at a distance of 50
65. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the
cm from a photoelectric cell, the cut-off voltage is nth Bohr orbit is related to the radius R of the
found to be V0. If the same source is placed at a orbit as
distance of 1 m from the cell, then the cut-off
voltage will be
(1) V0/4 (2) V0/2
(3) V0 (4) 2 V0 66. Wavelength of an electron accelerated through a
potential difference of 1 volt is
60. In photoelectric effect when photons of energy (1) 12.27 Å (2) 1.234 Å
hfall on a photosensitive surface (work function (3) 1 micron (4) 1 fermi
h0) electrons are emitted from the metallic
67. For a proton accelerated through V volts, de
surface. It is possible to say that Broglie wavelength is given as =
(1) All ejected electrons have same kinetic energy
equal to h– h0
(2) The ejected electrons have a distribution of
kinetic energy from zero to (h– h0)
(3) The most energetic electrons have kinetic
energy equal to h
68. The wavelength of matter waves is independent
(4) All ejected electrons have kinetic energy h0 of
(1) Mass (2) Velocity
61. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold (3) Momentum (4) Charge
frequency is incident on photo-sensitive material.
If the frequencyis halved and intensity is doubled, 69. Which one of the following statements is not true
about de-Broglie waves ?
the photo current becomes
(1) All atomic particles in motion have waves of a
(1) Quadrupled (2) Doubled definite wavelength associated with them
(3) Halved (4) Zero (2) The higher the momentum, the longer is the
wave-length
62. The work function of a substance is 4eV. The (3) The faster the particle, the shorter is the
longest wavelength of light that can cause the wave-length
emission ofphotoelectrons from this substance is (4) For the same velocity, a heavier particle has a
shorter wavelength
approximately
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm 70. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated
(3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm through the same potential difference. The ratio
of de Brogliewavelength of the proton to that of
63. The cathode of a photocell is changed such that the alpha particle will be
the work function changes from w1 to w2 (w2> (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
w1). If the saturation currents before and after (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 2 :1
the change are I1 and I2 and all other conditions
are unchanged, then(assuming h> w2) 71. The ratio of specific charge e/m of a proton to
that of an -particle is
(1) I1 = I2 (2) I1< I2
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) I1> I2 (4) I1< I2< 2I2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

64. If the energy of a photon is E, then its momentum 72. Choose the only correct statement out of the
is (c is velocity of light) following
 (1) Only a charged particle in motion is 80. The energy of a photon of wavelength  is given
accompanied by matter waves by
(2) Only subatomic particles in motion are (1) h (2) ch
accompanied by matter waves
(3) Any particle in motion, whether charged or
uncharged, is accompanied by matter waves
(4) No particle, whether at rest or in motion, is 81. The approximate wavelength of a photon of
ever accompanied by matter waves energy 2.48 eV is
(1)500 Å (2) 5000 Å
73. Neglecting variation of mass with velocity, the (3) 2000 Å (4) 1000 Å
wavelength associated with an electron having a
kinetic energy E is proportional to 82. Wavelength of a 1 keV photon is 1.24 × 10–9 m.
What is the frequency of 1 MeV photon?
(1) 1.24 × 1015 Hz (2) 2.4 × 1020 Hz
(3) 1.24 × 10 Hz
18 (4) 2.4 × 1023 Hz

83. Which of the following statements is not correct?

74. Of the following having the same kinetic energy,
(1) Photographic plates are sensitive to infrared
the one which has the largest wavelength is
rays
(1) An alpha particle (2) A neutron
(2) Photographic plates are sensitive to
(3) A proton (4) An electron
ultraviolet rays
(3) Infrared rays are invisible but can
75. In photoelectric effect, if a weak intensity
castshadows like visible light
radiation instead of strong intensity of suitable
(4) Infrared photons have more energy than
frequency is used then
photons of visible light
(1) Photoelectric effect will get delayed
(2) Photoelectric effect will not take place
84. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV fall on an
(3) Maximum kinetic energy will decrease
aluminium surface (work function 4.2 eV). The
(4) Saturation current will decrease
kinetic energy (in joule)of the fastest electron
emitted is approximately
76. The work function of tungsten is 4.50 eV. The
(1) 3.2 × 10–21 (2) 3.2 × 10–19
wavelength of fastest electron emitted when light
(3) 3.2 × 10–17 (4) 3.2 × 10–15
whose photonenergy is 5.50 eV falls on tungsten
surface, is
85. The work function of a metallic surface is 5.01 eV.
(1) 12.27 Å (2) 0.286 Å
The photo electrons are emitted when light of
(3) 12400 Å (4) 1.227 Å
wavelength2000 Å falls on it. The potential
difference applied to stop the fastest photo
77. A proton is accelerated through 225 V. Its de
electrons is [h = 4.14 × 10–15 eV s]
Broglie wavelength is
(1)1.2 volt (2) 2.24 volt
(1) 0.1 nm (2) 0.2 nm
(3) 3.6 volt (4) 4.8 volt
(3) 0.3 nm (4) 0.4 nm
86. A radio transmitter operates at a frequency of
78. For same energy, find the ratio of photon and
880 kHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of
electron (Here m is mass of electron) photons emittedper second is
(1) 1.72 × 1031 (2) 1.327 × 1034
(3) 13.27 × 10 34 (4) 0.075 × 10–34

87. Assuming photoemission to take place, the factor

by which the maximum velocity of the emitted
79. What should be the velocity of an electron so that photo electrons changes when the wavelength of
its momentum becomes equal to that of a photon the incident radiation is increased four times, is
of wavelength5200 Å? (assuming work function to be negligible in
(1) 700 m/s (2) 1000 m/s comparison to hc/)
(3) 1400 m/s (4) 2800 m/s 1
(1) 4 (2)
4
 1
(3) 2 (4)
2 92. Variation of momentum of particle (p) with
associated de-Broglie wavelength () is shown
88. The stopping potential V for photoelectric correctly by
emission from a metal surface is plotted along Y-
axis and frequency  of incident light along X-axis.
A straight line is obtained as shown. Planck’s
constant is given by

(1) Slope of the line

(2) Product of slope on the line and charge on the
electron 93. A photon and a proton have equal energy E. Ratio
(3) Product of intercept along Y-axis and mass of
 photon
the electron of wavelengths is proportional to
(4) Product of slope and mass of electron  proton

89. If the work function of a metal is ‘’ and the

frequency of the incident light is ‘’, there is no
emission of photoelectron for

94. For a proton accelerated through potential

difference of one volt, kinetic energy gained in eV
is
(1) 1 (2) 1840
90. How many photons are emitted by a laser source 1
of 5 × 10–3 W operating at 632.2 nm in 2 s? (3) (4) 931.5 × 10–6
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) 1840
(1) 3.2 × 1016 (2) 1.6 × 1016
(3) 4 × 10 16 (4) 0.4 × 1016 95. If frequency of light falling on a photosensitive
material doubles
91. V (stopping potential) is plotted against 1, (1) Saturation photocurrent doubled

(2) Saturation photocurrent becomes more than
where  is wavelength of incident radiations, for double
two metals (3) Cut-off voltage becomes more than double
(4) Stopping potential doubles

96. Photoelectrons from metal do not come out with

same energy. Most appropriate explanation is
(1) Some electrons loose energy in form of heat
(2) Work function of a metal is average energy
(1) Metal 1 may be gold and metal 2 may be required to pull out electrons
cesium (3) Electrons in metal occupy different energy
(2) 1>2, if metal -1 is gold and metal-2 is levels and work function is the minimum
cesium energy required forelectron in highest level of
(3) 1 = 2, for any two metals conduction band to get out of metal
(4) 1>2, if metal -1 and metal-2 are gold and
copperRespectively
 (4) For some electrons, some part of energy (3) Paschen series lies in infrared region
gained during inelastic collision with photon (4) Brackett series lies in visible region
is spent in over coming attractive force by
nucleus 105. According to the Bohr theory of Hydrogen
atom, the speed of the electron, its energy and
97. For an alpha particle, accelerated through a the radius of its orbit varies with the principal
potential difference V, wavelength (in Å) of the quantum number n, respectively, as
associated matter wave is

Atomic Physics 106. If the ionization potential of hydrogen atom is

13.6 eV, its energy in the n = 3 isapproximately
98. What is the wavelength of the least energetic
(1) – 1.14 eV (2) – 1.51 eV
photon emitted in the Lyman series of the
(3) –3.4 eV (4) – 4.53 Ev
hydrogen atom spectrum ?
(1) 150 nm (2) 122 nm
107. According to classical theory, Rutherford atom
(3) 102 nm (4) 82 nm
was
(1) Electrostatically stable
99. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of
(2) Electrodynamically unstable
the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength
(3) Semi stable
of the Lyman series ?
(4) Stable
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 5 : 9
108. The angular momentum of an electron in a
hydrogen atom is proportional to (where r is
100. Kinetic energy for Hydrogen atom in first
radius of orbit)
Bohr's orbit is–
1 1
(1) – 13.6 eV (2) 13.6 eV (1) (2)
r r
(3) –27.2 eV (4) –6.5 eV
(3) r (4) r 2
101. According to Bohr Model for Hydrogen, energy
is proportional to : 109. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground
(1) –Z2 / n (2) – n/Z2 state to third state
(3) –Z2/n2 (4) –n2/Z (1) Both kinetic energy and potential energy
increase
102. In above question radius is related as :- (2) Both kinetic energy and potential energy
decrease
(3) Potential energy increases and kinetic energy
103. If ionization potential of Hydrogen atom is decreases
13.6 V then what is ionization potential of He (4) Potential energy decreases and kinetic energy
atom ? increases
(1) 27.6 V (2) 13.6 V
(3) 54.2 V (4) None of these 110. What is the angular momentum of an electron in
Bohr’s hydrogen atom whose energy is –3.4 eV?
104. Which of the following statements is correct ? h 2h
(1) (2)
(1) Lyman series is continuous  
(2) Balmer series lies in ultraviolet region
 h 1 (4) 2.64 × 10–11metre
(3) (4)
2 4
118. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength of
111. The ground state energy of H - atom is –13.6 eV. radiation emitted by transition of an electron to
The energy needed to ionise H - atom from its ground state of Bohr’s hydrogen atom is
second excited state is 3 1
(1) (2)
(1) 1.51 eV (2) 3.4 eV 4 4
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 12.1 eV 1 3
(3) (4)
8 8
112. The angular speed of electron in the nth orbit of
hydrogen atom is 119. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio
(1) Directly proportional to n2 between the period of revolution of an electron in
(2) Directly proportional to n the orbit of n = 1 to the period of revolution of
(3) Inversely proportional to n3 the electron in the orbit n = 2 is
(4) Inversely proportional to n (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8
113. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum,
the one which lies completely in the ultraviolet 120. How many times does the electron go round the
region is first Bohr orbit in a second?
(1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series (1) 6.57 × 105 (2) 6.57 × 1010
(3) Paschen series (4) Brackett series (3) 6.57 × 10 13 (4) 6.57 × 1015

114. As the n (number of orbit) increases, the 121. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in
difference of energy between the consecutive its first excited state to second excited state is
energy levels (1) 1/4 (2) 4/9
(1) Remains the same (3) 9/4 (4) 4
(2) Increases
122. Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen
(3) Decreases
atom emit photons of lowest frequency?
(4) Sometimes increases and sometimes
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 4 to n = 2
decreases
(3) n = 4 to n = 3 (4) n = 3 to n = 1

115. The magnetic field induction produced at the

123. The energy of hydrogen-atom in its ground state
centre of orbit due to an electron revolving in nth
is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding
orbit of hydrogen atom is proportional to
to n = 5is
(1) n-3 (2) n-5
(1) –0.544 eV (2) –5.40 eV
(3) n5 (4) n3
(3) –0.85 eV (4) –2.72 eV

116. The speed of an electron in the orbit of hydrogen

124. If the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third
atom in the ground state is
orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the
(1) c (2) c/10
emitted radiation is given by
(3) c/2 (4) c/137

117. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is

5.29 × 10–11 m, the radius of the second orbit will
be
(1) 21.16 × 10–11metre
(2) 15.87 × 10–11metre
(3) 10.58 × 10–11metre
125. When an electron is excited to nth energy state in
hydrogen, the possible number of spectral lines 132. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a
emitted are transition from n1 to n2. If the time period of
(1) n (2) 2n electron in the initial state is eight times that in
n2  n n2  n the final state then
(3) (3) (1) n1 = 3n2 (2) n1 = 4n2
2 2
(3) n1 = 2n2 (4) n1 = 5n2
126. Which series of hydrogen atom lie in infra red
region? 133. When a hydrogen atom emits a photon of energy
(1) Lyman 12.09 eV, its orbital angular momentum changes
(2) Balmer by (whereh is Planck’s constant)
(3) Brackett, Paschen and Pfund
(4) All of these

127. Using Bohr’s formula for energy quantization, the

ionisation potential of the ground state of Li++
atoms is 134. The maximum wavelength that a sample of
(1) 122 V (2) 13.6 V hydrogen atoms can absorb is
(3) 3.4 V (4) 10.2 V (1) 912 Å (2) 1216 Å
(3) 1028 Å (4) Infinite
128. The total energy of an electron in the hydrogen
atom in the ground state is –13.6 eV. The kinetic 135. The lines in Balmer series have their wavelengths
energy of this electron is lying between
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 0 (1) 1266 Å to 3647 Å
(3) –13.6 eV (4) 6.8 eV (2) 642 Å to 3000 Å
(3) 3647 Å to 6563 Å
129. The wavelength of first member of Balmer series (4) Zero to infinity
in hydrogen spectrum is . Calculate the
wavelength of first member of Lyman series in 136. Let F1 be the frequency of second line of Lyman
the same spectrum series and F2 be the frequency of first line of
(1) (5/27) (2) (4/27) Balmer series then frequency of first line of
(3) (27/5) (4) (27/4) Lyman series is given by

130. Which state of triply ionised beryllium (Be3+) (1) F1 – F2 (2) F1 + F2

has the same orbital radius as that of the ground (3) F2 – F1 (4) F1 F2
F1  F2
state of hydrogen?
(1) 1 (2) 2 137. Identify the incorrect relationship
(3) 3 (4) 4 2 r
(1) Number of waves in an orbit, n 

131. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond (2) Number of revolutions of an electron per
to increasing values of energy i.e. EA< EB< EC. If Vn
second in nth orbit 
1, 2and 3 be the wavelength corresponding to 2 rn
the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A
h
respectively, then which of the following is (3) Wavelength of an electron 
p
correct?
(4) Speed of a (de-Broglie wavelength) particle
accelerated by a potential difference V is
 vn (4) T0 = 6.6 × 1015 s, b = 3
v
2 rn
145. Maximum wavelength in balmer series of
138. If radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.29 × hydrogen spectrum is
10–11 m, the radius of fourth orbit will be (1) 912 Å (2) 3645 Å
(1) 8.46 Å (2) 10.23 Å (3) 6561 Å (4) 8201 Å
(3) 9.22 Å (4) 9.48 Å
146. Compton effect supports that
(1) X-rays are transverse waves
139. The ratio of energies of hydrogen atom in its first
(2) X-rays have high frequency compared to
excited state to third excited state is
visible light
(3) X-rays can easily penetrate matter
(4) Photons have momentum

147. Which is the correct relation between de-Broglie

140. The product of angular speed and tangential wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit
speed of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is and radius of the orbit R?
(1) Directly proportional to n2
(2) Directly proportional to n3
(3) Inversely proportional to n4
(4) Independent of n
148. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to
141. Ground state energy of H-atom is –13.6 eV. The the principal quantum number 5. Number of
energy needed to ionise H-atom from its second spectral lines observed will be
excited state is (1) 5 (2) 4
(1) 1.51 eV (2) 3.4 eV (3) 10 (4) 8
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 12.1 eV
X-Ray
142. Total energy of an electron in the hydrogen atom
149. If the X–ray tube is working at 25 kV then the
in the ground state is –13.6 eV. The potential
minimum wavelength of X–rays will be :–
energy of this electron is
(1) 0.49 Å (2) 0.29 Å
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 0
(3) 0.19 Å (4)0.39 Å
(3) –27.2 eV (4) –13.6 eV

143. If potential energy of an electron in a hydrogen

150. The structure of solids is studied by :–
atom in first excited state is taken to be zero,
(1) X–rays (2) –rays
kinetic energy(in eV) of an electron in ground
(3) Cosmic rays (4) Infrared rays
state will be
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 10.2 eV
151. On increasing the filament current in X-ray
(3) 3.4 eV (4) 5.1 eV
tube :–
(1) wavelength of X-rays increases
144. Time period of revolution of an electron in nth
(2) penetration power of X-ray increases
orbit in a hydrogen like atom is given by
(3) intensity of X-rays decreases
T0 na
T . Z = atomic number (4) intensity of X-rays increases
Zb
(1) T0 = 1.5 × 10–16 s, a = 3 152. Which of the following is not affected by
(2) T0 = 6.6 × 1015 s, a = 3 electro-magnetic fields :–
(3) T0 = 1.51 × 10–16 s, b = 3 (1) -rays (2) -rays
 (3) X-rays (4) cathode-rays 159. Which of the following have velocity equal to
light
153. Minimum wavelength of X-ray is 2Å, then (1) cathode rays (2) anode rays
potential difference between anode and cathode (3) X-rays (4) positive rays
is:–
(1) 62 kV (2) 6.2 kV 160. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced
(3) 24.8 kV (4) 2.48 kV by electrons accelerated by a potential difference
of V volts is equal to :–
154. X-rays obtained by coolidge tube are :–
(1) mono-chromatic
(2) of all wavelength below a maximum
wavelength 161. In E.M. waves spectrum X-rays region lies
(3) of all wavelength above a minimum wave between
length (1) short radio waves and visible region
(4) of all wavelength between a maximum (2) visible and ultraviolet region
and a minimum wave length (3) gamma rays and ultra-violet region
(4) short radio waves and long radio waves
155. X-ray is an electromagnetic radiation, so
X-ray photons carry :– 162. If V be the accelerating voltage, then the
(1) an electric charge maximum frequency of continuous X-rays is
(2) a magnetic moment given by :–
(3) both the electric charge and magnetic
moment
(4) neither electric charge nor magnetic
moment 163. The shortest wave length emitted from an X
ray tube depends upon :–
156. Characteristic X-rays are not obtained in the (1) the voltage applied to the tube
spectrum of H-atom because :– (2) the nature of the gas in the tube
(1) hydrogen is a gas (3) the current in the tube
(2) hydrogen is very light (4) the nature of target material
(3) energy difference in energy levels of
hydrogen is much less 164. In an X-ray tube, the intensity of the emitted
(4) energy difference in energy levels of X-ray beam is increased by :–
hydrogen is much high (1) increasing the filament current
(2) decreasing the filament current
157. Which of the following is related with (3) increasing the target potential
characteristic emission of X-ray :– (4) decreasing the target potential
(1) -particle emission
(2) electron emission 165. For harder X-rays :–
(3) positron emission (1) the wavelength is higher
(4) K-electron capturing (2) the intensity is higher
(3) the frequency is higher
158. Penetration power of X-rays depend on :– (4) the photon energy is lower
(1) current flowing in filament
(2) applied potential difference 166. When cathode rays strike a metal target of
(3) nature of target high melting point with very high velocity,
(4) all of the above then :–
(1) X-rays are produced
 (2) -rays are produced (1) X-rays have wavelength of the order of
(3) -rays are produced interatomic spacing
(4) ultrasonic waves are produced (2) X-rays are highly penetrating radiations
(3) wavelength of X-rays is of the order of
167. Penetrating power of X-rays can be increased nuclear size
by (4) X-rays are coherent radiations
(1) increasing the potential difference
between anode and cathode 173. The most penetrating radiation out of the
(2) decreasing the potential difference following is
between anode and cathode (1) X-rays (2) -rays
(3) increasing the cathode filament current (3) -particles (4) -rays
(4) decreasing the cathode filament current
174. On increasing the number of electrons
168. K characteristic X-ray refers to the transition :– striking the anode of an X-ray tube, which one
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 3 to n = 2 of the following parameters of the resulting
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 4 to n = 2 X-rays would increase
(1) penetration power (2) frequency
169. The production of characteristic X-rays is due (3) wavelength (4) intensity
to:-
(1) transfer of momentum in collision of 175. For production of characteristics K X-ray, the
electrons with the target atom electron transition will be :–
(2) transfer of energy in collision of electrons (1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 3 to n = 2
with the target atom (3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) the transition of electrons in heavy target
atoms from high to low energy level 176. If X-rays is passed through from strong
(4) none of these magnetic field, then X-rays :–
(1) will deviate maximum
170. X-rays are produced in X-ray tube operating at (2) will deviate minimum
a given accelerating voltage. The wavelength (3) undeviated
of the continuous X-rays has values from :– (4) none of these
(1) 0 to 
(2) min to , where min > 0 177. If voltage of X–ray tube is doubled then
(3) 0 to max. ,wheremax. < intensity of X–rays will :–
(4) min to max., where 0 <min <max.< (1) halved (2) remains constant
(3) doubled (4) quadrupled
171. According to Mosley’s law, the frequency of a
characteristic spectral line in X-ray spectrum 178. What is the minimum wavelength of X–rays :–
varies as :–
(1) atomic number of the element
(2) square of the atomic number of the
element 179. In Coolige tube the relation between used
(3) square root of the atomic number of the voltage V and minimum wavelength min is-
element
(4) fourth power of the atomic number of the
element

172. For the structural analysis of crystals, X-rays

are used because :–
180. The minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced (1) Becquere rays (2) Rontgen rays
at accelerating potential V is . If the accelerating (3) neutron rays (4) cathode rays
potentialis changed to 2V, then the minimum
wavelength would become 188. The nature of the target used for the
(1) 4 (2) 2 production of X-rays should be
(3) /2 (4) /4 (1) solid of high atomic number
(2) solid of low atomic number
181. The frequencies of X-rays, -rays and U.V. rays are (3) solid of high melting point
respectively a, b and c. Then (4) solid of high atomic number and high melting
(1) a < b, b < c (2) a < b, b > c point
(3) a > b, b >c (4) a > b, b < c
189. Which of the following are used for the study
of structure of crystals ?
182. The wavelength of the K line for an element of
(1) infrared rays (2) visible light rays
atomic number 43 is . The wavelength of the K (3) ultraviolet rays (4) X-rays
line for an element of atomic number 29 is
190. Bragg’s law of X-ray is correct for
(1) refraction (2) reflection
(3) diffraction (4) polarisation

191. X-rays are not used in radar because

(1) they damage the target
183. X-rays incident on a material
(2) they are electromagnetic waves
(1) Will exert a force on it
(3) they are not reflected by the target
(2) Will transfer energy to it
(4) they are completely absorbed by air
(3) May cause emission of electrons
(4) All of these
192. X-rays were discovered by
(1) Rontgen (2) Becquerel
184. Penetrating power of X-rays increases with
(3) De-Broglie (4) Rutherford
increase in
(1) Accelerating potential
193. In a Coolidge tube X-rays are produced by
(2) Wavelength
(1) positive rays
(3) Mass number of the target material
(2) cathode rays
(4) Filament current
(3) electromagnetic rays
185. If the potential difference V applied to the
(4) a proton beam
coolidge tube is doubled, then the cut off
wavelength 194. X-ray is an electromagnetic radiation, so
(1) Is doubled (2) Is halved X-ray photons carry
(3) Remains unchanged (4) Is quadrupled (1) an electric charge
(2) a magnetic moment
186. The X-ray beam coming from the X-rays tube will (3) both the electric charge and magnetic
be moment
(1) Monochromatic (4) neither electric charge nor magnetic torque
(2) Dichromatic
(3) Having all wavelengths greater than a certain 195. X-rays and -rays both are electromagnetic
minimum wavelength waves. Which of the following statements is
(4) Having all wavelengths between a minimum correct ?
and maximum wavelengths (1) the wavelength of X-rays is greater than
that of -rays
187. X-rays are also called
 (2) the wavelength of X-rays is less than that X-rays with which the crystal structure can
of -rays be studied are
(3) the frequency of -rays is less than that (1) 50Å to 100 Å (2) 10Å to 50 Å
of X-rays (3) 5Å to 10 Å (4) 0.1Å to 2.7 Å
(4) the frequency and wavelength of X-rays
are more than those of -rays 204. The distance between two successive atomic
planes of a calcite crystal is 0.3 Å. The
196. The nature X-rays is similar to minimum angle for Bragg scattering of 0.3Å
(1) cathode rays (2) neutron beam x-rays will be
(3) -rays (4) -rays (1) 1.5º (2) 30º
(3) 2.86° (4) 60º
197. Which of the following characteristics of
X-rays increases on increasing the number 205. X-rays of frequency are used to irradiate
of electrons striking the anticathode ? sodium and copper surface in two separate
(1) Hardness (2) Wavelength experiments and the stopping potential
(3) Penetrating power (4) Intensity determined. Then :
(1) the stopping potential is more for copper than
198. The velocity of X-rays is equal to the velocity of for sodium
(1) sound waves (2) elastic waves (2) the stopping potential is more for sodium
(3) ultrasonic waves (4) light waves than for copper
(3) the stopping potential is same for copper
199. The wavelength of the most energetic X-ray and for sodium
emitted when a metal target is bombarded (4) none of the above
by 40 keV electron is approximately :
(1) 300 Å (2) 10 Å 206. The lattice spacing in a crystal is 0.5Å. The
(3) 4 Å (4) 10 Å maximum wavelength of X-rays for which
diffraction can be observed will be
200. X-rays are diffracted by (1) 0.5Å (2) 1.0Å
(1) a single slit (3) 2.0Å (4) 5.0 Å
(2) a double slit
(3) a diffraction grating
207. X-rays do not penetrate
(4) a crystal
(1) wood (2) meat
201. If X-rays are deflected from their path then
(3) Al (4) BaSO4
its cause may be
(1) electric field 208. If X-rays are passing through different material
(2) magnetic field of same thickness then its absorption is minimum
(3) electric and magnetic field both in
(4) none of the above (1) copper (2) gold
(3) air (4) lead
202. X-rays travel a long distance in a material if
their 209. In x-ray tube, the percentage of energy of
(1) wavelength is low electron converted into x-rays is –
(2) wavelength is high (1) nearly 50% (2) nearly 10%
(3) frequency is low (3) less than 1% (4) almost 100%
(4) not depend on wavelength and frequency
210. An x-ray tube operates at 30 kV. Then the
203. In majority of crystals the value of lattice speed of the electrons when they hit the target is
constant is of the order of 3Å. The proper
 about. 216. If potential difference of 10,000 volt is applied
(1) 108 m/s (2) 107 m/s in an X-ray tube, then minimum wavelength
(3) 106 m/s (4) 10 m/s
9 of X-rays produced will be
(1) 1.24Å (2) 12.4Å
211. Difference between soft and hard X-rays is (3) 0.124Å (4) 1.24 × 10–6A
(1) of frequency
(2) of velocity 217. The minimum wavelength of X-rays in the
(3) of penetration power and frequency continuous spectrum is min, then
(4) of intensity and velocity

212. Which of the following statements is correct

for hard X-rays ?
(1) Penetrating power is more and wavelength
is less than that of soft X-rays
(2) Penetrating power is more and wavelength 218. When accelerated electron knock out
is more that of soft X-rays electrons of inner shell of target atoms then
(3) Penetraing power is equal to that of soft we get
X-rays and wavelength is less than that of (1) continuous spectrum
soft X-rays (2) characteristic spectrum
(4) Penetrating power is equal to that of soft (3) -spectrum
X-rays and wavelength is more than that (4) -spectrum
of soft X-rays
219. Characteristic spectrum is
213. The cause of characteristic X-rays is (1) linear
(1) transition of valence electrons from higher (2) continuous
to lower orbits (3) continuous and linear
(2) transition of inner shell electrons from (4) uncertain
higher to lower orbits
(3) transition of atomic nuclei electrons from 220. Spectrum of X-rays is
higher to lower energy states (1) continuous
(4) none of these (2) linear
214. The energy of a continuous X-ray photon (3) continuous and linear
comes from (4) band spectrum
(1) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of
target 221. The characteristic x-ray radiation is
(2) the atomic transition in the target emitted when,
(3) the kinetic energy of the striking electron (1) the electrons are accelerated to a fixed
(4) none of these energy
(2) the source of electrons emits a mono
215. The energy of a characteristic X-ray photon energetic beam
comes from (3) the bombarding electrons knock out
(1) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of electrons from the inner shell of the target
target atoms and one of the outer electrons falls
(2) the atomic transition in the target into this vacancy
(3) the kinetic energy of the striking electron (4) the valence electrons in the target atoms
(4) none are removed as a result of the collision
222. The minimum energy of electrons required to (4) may increase or may decrease
emit Kline from molybdenum target(Z = 42) will
be – 228. Possible forces on a proton by a proton in a
(1) 0.2399 KeV (2) 2.399 KeV nucleus is/are :-
(3) 23.99 KeV (4) 239.9 KeV (1) Coulomb force (2) Nuclear force
(3) Gravitational force (4) All of these
223. In the Mosley’s law for characteristic X-rays
229. In the process of atomic explosion, the most

(1) both the constant a and b depend on the of fission energy is released in the form of :–
nature (1)  - rays
(2) a depends on the nature of material (2) Kinetic energy of products
whereas b does not (3) Infra red rays
(3) b depends on the nature of material (4) Visible light
whereas a does not
(4) both the constants a and b do not depend 230. The example of nuclear fusion is .
on the nature of the material (1) formation of barium and krypton from
uranium
224. Which of the following curves best represents (2) formation of helium from hydrogen
the Moseley law ? (3) formation of plutonium –235 from uranium
–235
(4) formation of water from hydrogen and
oxygen

231. Electron - positron pair can be created by

(1) a (2) b -rays. In this process the minimum energy of
(3) c (4) d -rays should be :-
(1) 5.0 MeV (2) 4.02 MeV
Nuclear Physics
(3) 15.0 MeV (4) 1.02 MeV
225. Let Fpp, Fpn and Fnn denote the nuclear force 232. For nuclear reaction :
between proton–proton, proton–neutron and 92U235 + 0n1 → 56Ba144 + ..........+3 0n1
neutron–neutron pair respectively. When (1) 26Kr89 (2) 36Kr89
separation is 1 fm :- (3) 26Sr90 (4) 38Sr89
(1) Fpp<Fpn = Fnn (2) Fpp>Fpn = Fnn 233. In a breeder reactor, useful fuel obtained from
(3) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn (4) Fpp<Fpn<Fnn U238is :
(1) Ac233 (2) Th238
226. A nuclear fission is given below (3) U 235 (4) Pu239
A240 → B100 + C140 + Q (energy)
Let binding energy per nucleon of nucleus 234. Boron used in Atomic Reactor for:-
A, B and C is 7.6 MeV, 8.1 MeV and 8.1 MeV (1) absorbption of neutrons
respectively. Value of Q is :-(Approximately) (2) absorbption of  - particles
(1) 20 MeV (2) 220 MeV (3) speed up the reaction
(3) 120 MeV (4) 240 MeV (4) change the reaction

235. Who discovered the nuclear fission :-

227. As the mass number increases, binding energy
(1) Otto Hahn and strassman
per nucleon :-
(2) Fermi
(1) increases
(3) Baithe
(2) decreases
(4) Rutherford
(3) remains same
236. Which one is best neutron moderator in all
respects: 243. Which one of the following particle is unstable?
(1) Barium oxide (2) Water (1) -particle (2) electron
(3) Graphite (4) Heavy water (3) proton (4) neutron

237. 244. Which of the following is weakest force :-

(1) Gravitational force (2) Electric force
(3) Magnetic force (4) Nuclear force
238. Mn and Mp represent the mass of neutron and
proton respectively. An element having nuclear 245. The volume occupied by an atom is greater
mass M has N neutrons and Z-protons, then the than the volume of the nucleus by a factor of
correct relation will be :- about :-
(1) M<{N.Mn+Z.Mp} (2) M>{N.Mn+Z.Mp } (1) 101 (2) 105
(3) M={N.Mn+Z.Mp} (4) M=N{Mn + Mp} (3) 1010 (4) 1015

239. Energy is released in nuclear fission is due to 246. The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of
(a) Few mass is converted into energy neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit).
(b) Total binding energy of fragments is more The binding energy of 24He is :-
than the B.E. of parental element (1) 0.0305 J (2) 0.0305 erg
(c) Total B.E. of fragments is less than the B.E. (3) 28.4 MeV (4) 0.061 u
of parental element (Given:- mass of helium nucleus 4.0015 u)
(d) Total B.E. of fragments is equals to the B.E.
of parental element is 247. The mass number of a nucleus is
(1) a,c (2) a,b (1) always less than its atomic number
(3) a,d (4) All (2) always more than its atomic number
(3) may equal to its atomic number
(4) sometimes less than and sometimes more
240. Energy in an atom bomb is produced by the
than its atomic number
process of :
(1) nuclear fusion
248. In the following reaction X is :–
(2) nuclear fission
20Ca40 + X → 21Sc43 + 1H1
(3) combination of hydrogen atoms
(1) Electron (2) Positron
(4) combination of electrons and protons
(3) alpha particle (4) Proton
241. 1 a.m.u. (1.66 × 10–27 kg) is equal to
249. Nuclear fusion is possible :–
(1) 139 MeV/c2 (2) 39 MeV/c2
(1) only between light nuclei.
(3) 93 MeV/c2 (4) 931 MeV/c2
(2) only between heavy nuclei.
242. Which of the following are suitable for the (3) between both light and heavy nuclei.
fusion process :- (4) only between nuclei which are stable against
(1) Light nuclei –decay.
(2) heavy nuclei
(3) Element must be lying in the middle of the 250. The order of nuclear density is
periodic table (1) 1013 kg/m3 (2) 1015 kg/m3
(4) Middle elements, which are lying on binding (3) 1017 kg/m3 (4) 1019 kg/m3
energy curve
251. Two light nuclei of masses m1 and m2 are
fused to form a more stable nucleus of mass
m3then:-
 (1) 34Se74, 31Ga71 (2) 38Sr84, 38Sr86
(3) 42Mo92, 40Zr92 (4) 20Ca40, 16S32

259. Which one of the following is a possible

252.
nuclear reaction :-

253. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that

of a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy B,
contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M
(N, Z) of the nucleus is given by(c is velocity of 260.
light) :-
(1) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
(2) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
(3) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
(4) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2

254. Mass equivalent to energy 931 MeV is 261.

(1) 6.02 × 10–27
kg (2) 1.66 × 10–27 kg
(3) 16.66 × 10–26 kg (4) 6.02 × 10–26 kg

255. One milligram of matter converted into energy

will give
(1) 9 J (2) 9 × 1013 J
(3) 9 × 105 J (4) 9 × 1010 J
262. Fission of nuclei is possible because the
256. Force acting on proton-proton inside a binding energy per nucleon in them –
nucleus is– (1) Decreases with mass number at low mass
(1) Nuclear force > electric force numbers.
(2) Electric force > Nuclear force (2) Increases with mass number at low mass
(3) Gravitational force > Nuclear force numbers.
(4) None of the above (3) Decreases with mass number at high mass
numbers.
257. The dependence of binding energy per (4) Increases with mass number at high mass
nucleon (BN) on the mass number (A), is numbers.
represented by
263. The main function of moderators in nuclear
reactors is to :-
(1) decrease the energy of neutrons
(2) absorb the extra neutrons
(3) provide shield from nuclear radiations
(4) provide cooling

264. Which spectrum is continuous

258. Which one of the following pairs of nuclei are (1) –rays (2) –rays
isotones :- (3) –rays (4) All of these
265. Which statement about radioactive radiations
is true 272.
(1) Speed of -particles is a characteristic
property.
(2) Speed of -particles is a characteristic
property.
(3) Speed of -photon is a characteristic
property.
(4) All of these. 273.

266. Which one moves with greatest speed :-

(1) -rays (2) –rays
(3) –rays (4) cathode rays

267. If a nucleus is emitting e– particle, its neutron 274. Which rays contain (+ Ve) charged particle:–
to proton ratio (n/p) will :– (1) –rays (2) –rays
(1) Increase.
(3) –rays (4) X–rays
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain unchanged 275. The number of undecayed nuclei N in a
(4) Can't be determined. sample of radioactive material as a function of
time is shown in the graph. Which of the
268. A radioactive source is kept in an uniform following graph correctly shows the relationship
electric field ,  and - particle are emitting. between N and the activity A ?
 are respectively :-

(1) A,B,C (2) A,C,B

(3) C,A,B (4) C,B,A

269. The isotope used for curing the cancer is : 276.

(1) K (40) (2) Co (60)
(3) Sr (90) (4) I (131)

270. Neutrino is a particle, which is :

(1) charged like an electron and has no spin
(2) chargeless and has spin
(3) chargeless and has no spin
(4) charged like an electron and has spin 277. Which of the following ray are not
electromagnetic waves :-
271. (1) X-rays (2) -rays
(3) -rays (4) Heat rays
278. The nuclear radius as compared to the atomic
radius is of the order 285. The nuclei 6A
13 and 7B14 can be described as
(1) 10–3 (2) 10–5 (1) Isotones
(3) 10–7 (4) 10–9 (2) Isobars
(3) Isotopes of carbon
279. Two nuclei which are not identical but have the (4) Isotopes of nitrogen
same number of nucleons represent
(1) Isotones (2) Isobars 286. Ratio of nuclear radii of 135Cs to 40Ca is
(3) Isotopes (4) Isotones (1) 1.40 (2) 1.50
(3) 2.750 (4) 3.375
280. The binding energy per nucleon for a 6C12 nucleus
is(Nuclear mass of 6C12 = 12.00000 a.m.u. 287. A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a
Mass of hydrogen nucleus = 1.007825 a.m.u sequence , –,–, , , , , , –, –, +, , +, .
Mass of neutron = 1.008665 a.m.u) The Z of the resulting nucleus is
(1) 2.675 MeV (2) 7.675 MeV (1) 74 (2) 76
(3) 0 MeV (4) 3.675 MeV (3) 78 (4) 82

281. Which of the following pairs of particles cannot 288. In nuclear reactions we have the conservation of
exert nuclear force on each other? (1) Mass only
(1) Proton and electron (2) Energy only
(2) Neutron and electron (3) Momentum only
(3) Electron and neutron (4) Charge, total energy and momentum
(4) All of these 289. A heavy nucleus is unstable for any value of N
P
282. The nuclear force between two nucleons is because
explained by (1) Electrostatic repulsion dominate over nuclear
(1) Quark exchange theory attraction
(2) Meson exchange theory (2) Nuclear repulsion dominate over nuclear
(3) Photon exchange theory attraction
(4) Gravitation exchange theory (3) Nuclear forces are absent in heavy nucleus
(4) Nuclear force is long range force
283. Nuclear energy is released in fusion reaction,
since binding energy per nucleon is 290. When 90Th228 gets converted into 83Bi212,
then the
(1) Smaller of fusion products than for fusing number of - and -particles emitted will
nuclei respectively be
(2) Same for fusion products as for fusing nuclei (1) 4, 7 (2) 4, 1
(3) Larger for fusion products than for fusing (3) 8, 7 (4) 4, 4
nuclei
(4) Sometimes larger and sometimes smaller 291. In a radioactive decay let N be the number of
residual active nuclei, D the number of daughter
284. A nucleus X undergoes following transformation nuclei, R the rate of decay and M the mass of
active sample at any time t. Below are shown four
curves

(1) X and Y are isotopes

(2) X and Z are isobars
(3) X and Y are isobars
(4) X and Z are isotopes
 (3) 3-neutron (4) 2--particle

298. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of

(1) Stainless steel (2) Graphite
The correct ones are (3) Cadmium (4) Plutonium
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 299. In the equation
(3) (iii), (iv) and (i) (4) All of these

292. -decay occurs when The correct symbol for X is

(1) Pair annihilation takes place
(2) Energy is released due to conversion of
neutron into proton
(4) Energy is released due to de-excitation of 300. A certain stable nucleide, after absorbing a
nucleus neutron, emits -particle and the new nucleide
(4) None of these splits spontaneously into two -particles. The
nucleide is
293. Half life of radioactive element depends upon
(1) Amount of element present
(2) Temperature
(3) Pressure
(4) The nature of the element 301. Pauli suggested the emission of nutrino during
+ decay to explain
294. Neutrino is a particle which
(1) Continuous energy distribution of positrons
(1) Has no charge and no spin
(2) Conservation of linear momentum
(2) Has no charge but has spin
(3) Conservation of mass-energy
(3) Is charged like an electron and has spin
(4) All of these
(4) Has no charge but has mass nearly equal to
that of a proton
302. If a heavy nucleus has N/Z ratio higher than that
required for stability, then
295. Heavy water instead of ordinary water is used as
(1) It emits –
a moderator in nuclear reactor because ordinary
(2) It emits +
water
(3) It emits  particle
(1) Cannot slow down neutron
(4) It will undergo K electron capture
(2) Absorbs neutrons
(3) Is expensive
303. Choose the correct statement
(4) Accelerates neutron
(1) The nuclear force becomes strong if the
nucleus contains too many protons compared
296. Out of the following, which one is not emitted by
to neutrons
a natural radioactive substance?
(2) The nuclear force becomes strong if the
(1) Electrons
nucleus contains too many neutrons
(2) Electromagnetic radiations
compared to protons
(3) Helium nuclei with charge equal to that of two
(3) Nuclei with atomic number less than 82
protons
shows a tendency to disintegrate
(4) Neutrons
(4) The nuclear force becomes weak if the
nucleus contains a large number of nucleons
297. A neutron strikes a 92U235nucleus and as a result
36Kr93and 56Ba140 are produced with 304. An element A decays by a two step process into
(1) -particle (2) 1-neutron element C
 (3) , , 
(4) All have same penetrating power as all have
same kinetic energy
Then,
(1) A and B are isobars
310. 37 Rutherford equals
(2) A and C are isobars
(1) 1 milli bacquerel (2) 1 milli curie
(3) A and B are isotopes
(3) 1 micro bacquerel (4) 1 micro curie
(4) A and C are isotopes

305. A radioactive element X emits six -particles and 311. Which of these is incorrect about nuclear forces?
four -particles leading to end product 208
Pb .X is (1) They are independent of charge
82
(2) Nuclear forces are derived from quark-quark
interaction
(3) Hadrons do not experience strong nuclear
force
306. In nature, ratio of isotopes of Boron, 5B10 and 5B11,
(4) Nuclear force is not a central force
is (given that atomic weight of boron is 10.81)
(1) 81 : 19 (2) 21 : 44
312. Which of the following is not the property of
(3) 19 : 81 (4) 44 : 21
atomic nucleus ?
(1) Definite charge
307. Q-value of the decay
22
11 Na  10
22
Ne  e   v (2) Definite number of nucleons

 Na   m  10 Ne  c 2
(3) Characteristic atomic number
(1)  m 22 22
 11 (4) Sharp boundary
(2)  m  22
Na   m  10
22
me  c 2
 11
313. The radius of the nucleus with nucleon number 2
(3)  m  22
Na   m  22
Ne   2me  c 2 is 1.5 × 10–15m, then the radius of nucleus with
 11 10
nucleon number 54 will be
(4)  m  22
Na   m  10
22
Ne   3me  c 2 (1) 3 × 10–15 m (2) 4.5 × 10–15m
 11

(3) 6 × 10–15 m (4) 9 5 10–15 m

308. Which of the alternatives gives correct match of
314. The mass number of a nucleus is
Column-I with Column-II?
(1) always less than its atomic weight
Column-I Column-II
(2) always greater than its atomic weight
a. Binding energy per
(3) equal to its atomic weight
nucleon for 56Fe (i) 5.5 M eV
(4) sometimes greater than and sometimes equal
b. Energy of -particle in Geiger to its atomic weigh
Marsden experiment (ii) 200 M eV 315. If there are N nucleons in a nucleus of radius R,
c. Energy of photon of visible then the number of nucleons in a nucleus of
light (iii) 8.75 M eV radius 2R will be :
d. Energy released in fission of (1) N (2) 2N
a uranium nucleus (iv) 2 eV
(3) 8N (4) 21/3N
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 316. The radius of 29Cu64 nucleus will be
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) 1.2 × 10–15 m (2) –2.4 × 10–15 m
309. Correct increasing order of penetrating powers of (3) 3.6 × 10–15 m (4) 4.8 × 10–15 m
,  particles and -rays, all moving with same
kinetic energy is 317. Of the three basic forces, gravitational,
(1) , ,  electrostatic and nuclear, which are able to
(2) , , 
 provide an attractive force between two neutrons 325. The graph between the binding energy per
- nucleon (E) and atomic mass number (A) is as :
(1) electrostatic and gravitational only
(2) electrostatic and nuclear only
(3) electrostatic, nuclear and gravitational
(4) nuclear and gravitational only

318. Attractive nuclear forces exist between -

(1) neutron - neutron (2) proton - proton
(3) neutron - proton (4) all of the above

319. Force that acts between proton and proton in the

nucleus is 326. The value of binding energy per nucleon is
(1) attractive (2) gravitational (1) more for light nuclei
(3) repulsive (4) electro-magnetic (2) more for heavy nuclei
320. The correct statements about nuclear forces is (3) more for medium nuclei
(1) these are the strongest among forces (4) equal for all nuclei
(2) these are short range forces
(3) these are charge independent forces 327. The binding energy per nucleon for a radioactive
(4) all of the above element in comparison to that for a stable
element is
321. If Fpp, Fpn and Fnn are the magnitudes of nuclear (1) less
(2) more
force between proton-proton, proton-neutron
(3) having no definite relation
and neutron-neutron respectively, then
(4) none of the above
(1) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn (2) Fpp< Fpn = Fnn
(3) Fpp> Fpn> Fnn (4) Fpp< Fpn< Fnn
328. Binding energies of nuclei 1H2, 2He4, 25Fe56 and
235 are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and
322. Two protons are kept at a separation of 50Å. Fn is 92U 1786
the nuclear force and Fe is the electrostatic force respectively. Most stable nucleus is :
between them, then (1) 26Fe56 (2) 1H2
(1) Fn>> Fe (2) Fn = Fe (3) 92H235 (4) 2He4
(3) Fn<< Fe (4) Fn  Fe
329. The value of binding energy per nucleon is
323. In most stable nuclei neutron number N and maximum for the elements having the mass
proton number Z has the relation : number
(1) N < Z (2) N = Z (1) more then 10
(3) N > Z (4) N  Z (2) between 50 to 100
(3) more than 100
324. The correct relation between the packing fraction (4) between 100 to 200
f and mass number A is –
330. Masses of nucleus, neutron an protons are M, mn (1) 0.03074 (2) 0.030384
and mp respectively. If nucleus has been divided (3) 0.030374 (4) 0.30374

in to neutrons and protons, then

336. The binding energy of a deuterium nucleus is
(1) M = (A – Z) mn + Zmp
about 1.115 MeV per nucleon. Then the mass
(2) M = Zmn + (A – Z)mp defect of the nucleus is about –
(3) M < (A – Z)mn + Zmp (1) 2.23 u (2) 0.0024 u
(4) M > (A – Z) +Zmp (3) 2077 u (4) None of the above

337. The energy equivalent to 1 kilogram of matter is

331. The wrong statement about binding energy is
(1) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of approximately -
nucleus minus the rest mass energy of the (1) 1011 joule (2) 1014 joule
nucleus (3) 1017 joule (4) 1020 joule
(2) It is the energy released when the nucleons
combine to from a nucleus 338. In nuclear reactions :
(3) It is the energy required to break a given (1) mass and momentum both are conserved
nucleus into its constituent nucleus (2) energy and momentum both are conserved
(4) It is the sum of the kinetic energies of all the (3) charge and momentum both are conserved
nucleons in the nucleus (4) energy and charge both are conserved

339. When do two protons attract each other ?

332. As the mass number A increases, which of the
(1) the distance between them is 1 Å
following quantities related to a nucleus do not (2) the distance between them is 1mm
change
(3) the distance between them is 10–15 m
(1) mass (2) volume
(4) this will never happen
(3) density (4) binding energy

340. If two nuclei of mass number A1 and A2 fuse

333. Mass defect of an atom refers to –
(1) packing fraction of the atom together to form a nucleus of mass number A,
(2) increase in mass over total mass of its then
constituents to bind the atoms (1) A = A1 + A2 (2) A > A1 + A2
(3) mass annihilated to produce energy to bind (3) A < A1 + A2 (4) A  A1 + A2
the nucleons
(4) error in the measurement of atomic masses
341. If there is a mass defect of 0.1% in nuclear fission,
then the energy released in the fission of 1kg
334. Most of the stable nuclides have – mass would be
(1) even number of protons and even number of
(1) 2.5 × 105kWH (2) 2.5 × 107kWH
neutrons
(2) odd number of proton and odd number of (3) 2.5 × 109kWH (4) 2.4 × 10–7kWH
neutrons
(3) even number of protons and odd number of 342. Thermal neutron means :
neutrons (1) neutron being heated
(4) odd number of protons and even number of (2) the energy of these neutrons is equal to the
neutrons energy of neutrons in a heated atom.
(3) these neutrons have energy of neutron in a
335. Calculate the mass defect for helium-4 nucleus, neutron gas at normal temperature
given M(He) = 4.0015084, Mp = 1.007276 u, mn (4) such neutrons gather energy released in the
= 1.008665u. fission process
 (1) 84Sr220 (2) 84Po220
343. 1014 fissions per second are taking place in a
nuclear reactor having efficiency 40%. The (3) 84Sn220 (4) none of the above
energy released per fission is 250 MeV. The
power output of the reactor is 350. Which of the following materials is used for
(1) 2000 W (2) 4000 W controlling the fission
(3) 1600 W (4) 3200 W (1) heavy water (2) graphite
(3) cadmium (4) Berilium oxide
344. Two lighter nuclei are fused together to form
another nucleus an energy is released in the 351. Which of the following is a fusion reaction ?
process because
(1) binding energy of lighter nucleus is more
(2) binding energy per nucleon of lighter nucleus
is more
(3) binding energy per nucleon is more for
medium nucleus
(4) energy is always released when two nuclei 352. Which element is used for making atom bomb
are combined. (1) Ra226 (2) U234
(3) U238 (4) Pu239
345. Atomic reactor is based on –
(1) controlled chain reaction
(2) uncontrolled chain reaction 353. For a chain nuclear fission of U235 the
(3) nuclear fission moderation of neutron is a must because very
(4) nuclear fusion high energy neutron :
(1) will collide in elastically with the nucleus and
346. If the energy required to eject an electron from an so there is no fission
atom is Ee and the energy required to eject a (2) will collide elastically with the nucleus and so
there is no fission
nucleon from a nucleus is En, then
(3) will be trapped in the nucleus and hence no
(1) En< Ee fission
(2) Ee< En (4) replied by nucleus
(3) Ee = En
354. In an atomic reactor fast moving neutrons are
(4) nothing can be stated
slowed down to thermal energies by colliding
them with
347. The critical mass of fissionable material is
(1) oxygen atoms of heavy water
(1) 75 kg (2) 1 kg
(2) lead atoms
(3) 20 kg (4) 10 kg
(3) paraffin-Hydrogen
(4) cadmium-atoms
348. In fission the percentage of mass converted into
energy is about
355. Neutron ratio (available/used) r per fission in
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.1%
atomic reactor an atom bomb are :
(3) 1% (4) 10%
(1) r > 1 in atomic reactor and r < 1 in bomb
(2) r = 1 in atomic reactor and r > 1 in bomb
349. A radon nucleus 86R224 of mass 3.6 × 10–25kg (3) r > 1 in both atomic reactor and bomb
undergoes α-decay. α-particle has mass (4) r < 1 in both atomic reactor and bomb.
6.7 × 10–27kg and energy 8.8 × 10–13 J. The
resulting nucleus is –
 SECTION – B
PRACTICE EXERCISE

Dual Nature

1. The maximum wavelength of light for 6. The energy that should be added to an
photoelectric effect from a metal is 200 nm. The electron to reduce its De-Broglie wavelength
maximum kinetic energy of electron which is from 10–10m to 0.5 × 10–10 m will be :
emitted by the radiation of wavelength 100 nm (1) Four times the initial energy
will be : (2) Equal to initial energy
(1) 12.4 eV (2) 6.2 eV (3) Twice the initial energy
(3) 100 eV (4) 200 eV (4) Thrice the initial energy

2. A photo-cell is illuminated by a source of light, 7. The accelerating voltage of an electron gun is

which is placed at a distance d from the cell, If 50,000 volt. De-Broglie wavelength of the
the distance become d/2, then number of electron will be :
electrons emitted per second will be :- (1) 0.55 Å (2) 0.055 Å
(1) Remain same (2) Four times (3) 0.077Å (4) 0.095 Å
(3) Two times (4) One-fourth
8. If the mass of neutron = 1.7 × 10—27 kg. then
3. A photon of energy 4 eV is incident on a metal the De broglie wavelength of neutron of energy
surface whose work function is 2eV. The 3eV is :
minimum reverse potential to be applied for (1) 1.6 × 10—10 m (2) 1.6 × 10—11 m
stopping the current is :- (3) 1.4 × 10—10 m (4) 1.4 × 10—11 m
(1) 2V (2) 4V
(3) 6V (4) 8V 9. The De-Broglie wavelength associated with
electrons revolving round the nucleus in a
4. An electron is accelerated from rest, between hydrogen atom in ground state, will be-
two points A and B at which the potentials are (1) 0.3 Å (2) 3.3 Å
20V and 40 V respectively. The De Broglie (3) 6.62 Å (4) 10 Å
wavelength associated with the electron at B
will be – 10. The correct curve between intensity of
(1) 0.75 Å (2) 7.5 Å scattering (I) and the angle of diffraction  in
(3) 2.75 Å (4) 2.75 m Davisson - Germer experiment is :

5. An electron is moving with velocity 6.6 × 103

m/s. The De-Broglie wavelength associated with
electron is (mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 Kg,
Plank's Constant = 6.62 × 10–34 J-S)
(1) 1 × 10-19 m (2) 1 × 10-5 m
(3) 1 × 10-7 m (4) 1 × 10-10 m
11. What will happen to De Broglie's wavelength 18. Find the number of electrons emitted per second
if the velocity of electron is increased : by a 24 W source of monochromatic light of
(1) It will increase wavelength 6600 Å, assuming 3% efficiency for
(2) It will decrease photoelectric effect (take h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(3) It will remain same (1) 48 × 1019 (2) 48 × 1017
(4) It will become twice (3) 8 × 1019 (4) 24 × 1017

12. A photon of wavelength 4400Å is passing 19. Figure shows four situations in which an electron
through vaccum. The effective mass and is moving in electric / magnetic field. In which
momentum of the photon are respectively case the de Broglie wavelength of electron is
(1) 5 × 10–36 kg, 1.5 × 10–27 kg – m/s increasing?
(2) 5 × 10–35 kg, 1.5 × 10–26 kg – m/s
(3) zero, 1.5 × 10–26 kg – m/s
(4) 5 × 10–36 kg, 1.67 × 10–43 kg – m/s

13. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an

electron. When it is accelerated by a potential
difference of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will be :–
20. A photosensitive metallic surface is illuminated
(1) 1840 keV. (2) 1/1840 keV.
(3) 1 keV. (4) 920 keV. alternately with lights of wavelength 3100 Å and
6200 Å. It is observed that maximum speeds of
14. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an
the photoelectrons in two cases are in ratio 2 : 1.
electron with a kinetic energy of 120 eV ? The workfunction of the metal is (hc = 12400
(Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s, me = 9.11 × 10–31kg eVÅ)
and e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb) (1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV
(1) 725 pm (2) 500 pm 4 2
(3) eV (4) eV
(3) 322 pm (4) 112 pm 3 3

15. A photon and an electron both have wavelength 21. For an electron microscope, which of the
1Å. The ratio of energy of photon to that of following is false?
electron is (1) It uses magnetic lens to converge electron
(1) 1 (2) 0.012 beam
(3) 82.7 (4) 10–10 (2) Its resolving power is directly proportional to
accelerating potential of electrons
16. The de Broglie wavelength  associated with a (3) Its resolving power is inversely proportional
proton increases by 25%, if its momentum is to wavelength of electrons
decreased byp0. The initial momentum was (4) Magnification attained with the help of it is of
p0 the order of 106
(1) 4 p0 (2)
4
22. Specific heat of water is 4.2 J/g°C. If light of
p
(3) 5 p0 (4) 0 frequency 3 × 109 Hz is used to heat 400 gm of
5
water from 20°Cto 40°C, the number of photons
needed will be
17. If in a photoelectric cell, the wavelength of
(1) 1.69 × 1029 (2) 1.69 × 1028
incident light is changed from 4000 Å to 3000 Å (3) 2.80 × 104 (4) 2.80 × 105
then change in stopping potential will be
(1) 0.66 V (2) 1.03 V
(3) 0.33 V (4) 0.49 V
23. The work function of a certain metal is 2.3 eV. If 28. If element with principal quantum number n > 4
light of wave number 2 × 106 m–1
falls on it, the were not allowed in nature, then the number of
kinetic energiesof fastest and slowest ejected possible elements would be
electron will be respectively (1) 60 (2) 32
(1) 2.48 eV, 0.18 eV (2) 0.18 eV, zero (3) 4 (4) 64
(3) 2.30 eV, 0.18 eV (4) 0.18 eV, 0.18 Ev
29. The wavelength of radiation emitted is 0 when
24. When the electromagnetic radiations of an electron jumps from third to second orbit of
frequencies 4 × 1015 Hz and 6 × 1015 Hz fall hydrogen atom. For the electron to jump from the
on the same metal indifferent experiments, the fourth to the second orbit of the hydrogen atom,
ratio of maximum kinetic energy of electrons the wavelength of radiation emitted will be
liberated is 1 : 3. The threshold frequency for the
metal is
(1) 2 × 1015 Hz (2) 1 × 1015 Hz
(3) 3 × 10 Hz
15 (4) 1.67 × 1015 Hz

25. Violet light is falling on a photosensitive material 30. A hydrogen atom is in ground state. In order to
causing ejection of photoelectrons with maximum get six lines in its emission spectrum, wavelength
kinetic energy of 1 eV. Red light falling on metal of incident radiation should be
will cause emission of photoelectrons with (1) 800 Å (2) 825 Å
maximum kinetic energy (approximately) equal (3) 970 Å (4) 1025 Å
to
(1) 1.2 eV 31. If the energy in the first excited state in hydrogen
(2) 0.9 eV atom is 23.8 eV then the potential energy of a
(3) 0.5 eV hydrogen atom in the ground state can be
(4) Zero, that is no photoemission assumed to be
(1) 10 eV (2) 23.3 eV
Atomic Physics (3) – 13.6 eV (4) Zero

26. An alpha particle colliding with one of the

32. If energy required to remove one of the two
electrons in a gold atom loses
electrons from He atom is 29.5 eV, then what is
(1) Most of its momentum
the value of energy required to convert a helium
1 atom into -particle?
(2) About rd of its momentum
3 (1) 54.4 eV (2) 83.9 eV
(3) Little of its energy (3) 29.5 eV (4) 24.9 Ev
(4) Most of its energy
33. If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third
27. The energy levels of a certain atom for first, orbit to second orbit, the frequency of the emitted
second and third levels are E , 4 E and 2E radiation is given by (c is speed of light)
3
respectively. A photon of wavelength  is emitted
for a transition 3 → 1. What will be the
wavelength of emission for transition 2 →1?

(1) (2) 3 34. If the difference between (n + 1)th Bohr radius
3
and nth Bohr radius is equal to the (n – 1)th Bohr
3 4
(3) (4) radius then find the value of n
4 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
35. Ratio of magnetic dipole moment to the angular
momentum for hydrogen like atoms is (e and m
are electronic charge and mass respectively)

36. What should be the ratio of minimum to

maximum wavelength of radiation emitted by
transition of an electron to ground state of Bohr’s
hydrogen atom?
42. The ratio of energies in Fourth and third excited
state for Hydrogen atom is .
(1) 4:5 (2) 16:25
(3) 25:16 (4) 1:1

43. Momentum of photon of red light with frequency

37. The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state
400 × 1012 Hz is .
is –13.6 eV, the energy of the level corresponding
(c = 3 × 108 ms-1)
to n = 7is
(1) Zero
(1) –0.544 eV (2) –5.40 eV
(2) 8.8 x 10-28 kgms-1
(3) –0.85 eV (4) –0.28 eV
(3) 11.65 x 16-6 MeV C-1
(4) insufficient information
38. Which series of hydrogen atom lie in infrared
region?
44. Calculate the radius of an electron in most
(1) Lyman
external orbit, when Phosphorus atom is added in
(2) Balmer
Silicon (whose Di-electric constant = 12).
(3) Brackett, Paschen and Pfund
(1) 380.9 pm (2) 390.8 pm
(4) All of these
(3) 930.8 pm (4) 830.9 pm
39. In Rutherford’s experiment, number of particles
45. Linear speed of an electron in Hydrogen atom for
scattered at 90º angle are x per second. Number
ground state (first orbit) is .
particles scattered per second at angle 60º is
(1) x (2) 4 x
(3) 8 x (4) 16 x

40. If in Bohr’s atomic model, it is assumed that force

46. When electron transit from n = 5 to n = 1 in
between electron and proton varies inversely as
Hydrogen atom. Find the speed of emitted
r4, energyof the system will be proportional to
photon.
(1) n2 (2) n4
(3) n 6 (4) n8

41. Which of the following may be representing

graph between number of scattered particles 47. If R, v, T and E are radius of orbit, speed of
detected (N) and scattering angle () in electron, periodic time of revolution and total
Rutherford’s experiment? energy of an electron respectively. Which option
is not directly proportional to quantum number
‘n’.
 56. Find the speed of photon during transition n = 5
to n = 1 in Hydrogen atom.
(1) 4.718 ms-1 (2) 7.418 ms-1
(3) 4.178 ms-1 (4) 7.148 ms-1
48. Total energy of an electron in first excited state
for Hydrogen atom is -3.4 eV. What is kinetic 57. If principle quantum number n > 4 is not
energy of this electron ? possible, then number of possible elements
(1) 0 (2) 3.4 eV are____.
(3) -3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV (1) 4 (2) 32
(3) 60 (4) 64
49. Angular momentum of an electron in Hydrogen
atom for ground state is L1 and for fourth excited 58. For energy levels A, B and C, EA < EB <EC
state is L4 then L4 – L1 =_________ . 1 , 2 and 3 are wave lengths for A, B, and C.
(1) 5L1 (2) 3L1
Which option is true for a transition in Figure.
(3) 2L1 (4) 4L1

50. Energy of photon in Hydrogen atom is 12.1 eV, its

angular momentum is _____.
(1) 1.05 x 10-34 Js (2) 2.11 X 10-34 Js
(3) 3.16 x 10 Js
-34 (4) 4.22 x 10-34 Js

51. Kinetic energy of an electron in n = 1 for H-atom

is 13.6 eV, Total energy of an electron for n=2 for
He+2 is
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 3.4 eV
(3) -13.6 eV (4) -3.4 eV 59. Electron transit from fourth orbit to first excited
state in Hydrogen atom, Find the frequency of
52. Find the ratio of orbital periodic time for an radiation. (R =107 m-1)
electron in n = 1 and n = 2.
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:1
(3) 1:4 (4) 1:8

53. Ratio of orbital area for an electron in first 60. Total energy of an electron in excited state of H -
excited state and ground state in Hydrogen atom atom is -3.4 eV. calculate the De-broglie
is__________. wavelength.
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (1) 6.6 x 1010 m (2) 6.6 x 10-11 m
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 (3) 6.6 x 10-9 m (4) 6.6 x 10-12 m

54. Energy of an electron in ground state for H - atom 61. Orbital angular momentum quantum number l =
is (R = Rydberg’s constant) _____. 7, What is orbital angular momentum ?

0
55. Radius of first orbit in Hydrogen atom is 0.528 A ,
radius of second orbit is _____. 62. Hydrogen ( 1 H 1 ) , deuterium ( 1 H 2 ) , ionized helium

( He4 ) and ionized lithium ( Li 6 )

+ ++
2 3
are given.
Their wavelengths are 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 respectively
 compare their wavelengths for a transition of an X-Ray
electron from n =2 to n =1.
71.

63. Calculate the number of emitted spectral lines,

when hydrogen atom having principle quantum
number = 4 moves from ground state to specific 72. If the K radiation of Mo has a wavelength of
excited state. 0.71 Å. The wavelength of the corresponding
(1) 3 (2) 5 radiation of Cu :– [ZMo = 42, ZCu = 29]
(3) 6 (4) 2 (1) 0.52 Å (2) 1.52 Å
(3) 2.52 Å (4) 3.52 Å
64. Find the ratio of minimum and maximum
wavelength for H-spectra.
73. In coolidge tube the potential difference
(1) 81.86 (2) 86.81
between cathode and anticathode is 120 kV.
(3) 0.012 (4) 0.12
The maximum energy of emitted X-rays will be:
65. Find the ratio of maximum and minimum (1) 1.2 × 105 eV (2) 1010 eV
wavelength for Brackett series. (3) 1015 eV (4) 1020 eV
(1) 3.6 (2) 0.36
(3) 78.2 (4) 2.78 74. The distance between interatomic lattice
planes is 10Å. The maximum wavelength of X–
66. Maximum wave number in infrared series is rays which are diffracted by this crystal will be :–
_______m1. (1) 10Å (2) 20Å
(1) 12.18 x 105 (2) 12.18 x 1010 (3) 30Å (4) 40Å
(3) 18.12 x 105 (4) 8204
75. 50% of X–rays obtained from a Coolidge tube
67. Find the ratio of  of α line, for Balmer and pass through 0.3 mm. thick aluminium foil. If
Lyman series. the potential difference between the target
(1) 27:5 (2) 5:27 and the cathode is increased, then the fraction
(3) 1:4 (4) 20:27 of X–rays passing through the same foil will
be :–
68. Wavelength of first line for Balmar series___ . (1) 50% (2) >50%
(3) <50% (4) 0%

76. When 50 keV electrons are made incident on a

target material, the wavelength of KX–ray line
69. f1 and f2 are frequency of last and first line of
was found to be 0.5Å. When the accelerating
Lyman series. f3 is frequency of last line of Balmar
potential is increased to 100 kV, then the
series then,
wavelength of K–line from the same target will
be
(1) 0.25 Å (2) 0.5 Å
0 (3) 0.75 Å (4) 1.0 Å
70. Minimum wavelength of Lyman series is 912 A ,
0
then maximum wavelength is_____ A . 77. The energy of characteristic X-rays photon
obtained from coolidge tube comes from :–
(1) kinetic energy of incident electron.
(2) kinetic energy of free electrons of target
 material 84. The kinetic energy of an electron which is
(3) kinetic energy of ions of target material accelerated through a potential of 100 volts is
(4) electron transition in target material :–
(1) 1.602 × 10–17 joules
78. Absorption of X-ray is maximum in which of (2) 418.6 calories
the following sheets :– (3) 1.16 × 104 eV
(1) copper (2) gold (4) 6.626 × 10–34 watt-second
(3) beryllium (4) lead
85. The wavelength of the most energetic X-ray
79. In X-ray spectrum wave length  of line K emitted when a metal target is bombarded by
depends on atomic number Z as :– electrons having kinetic energy 100 keV is
approximately :
(1) 12 Å (2) 4 Å
(3) 0.31 Å (4) 0.124 Å

86. The ratio of the energy of an X-ray photon of

80. If potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is
wavelength 1 Å to that of visible light of
V volt, then minimum wavelength of X-rays
wavelength 5000 Å is :–
produced is about (in Å) :–
(1) 1 : 5000 (2) 5000 : 1
(1) 1240/V (2) 12400/V
(3) 1 : 25 × 10 6 (4) 25 × 106
(3) 24000/V (4) 12.27/V

87. What determines the hardness of the X-rays

81. In an X-ray tube, electrons accelerated through a
obtained from the Coolidge tube :–
potential difference of 15000 V strike a copper
(1) current in the filament
target. The speed of the emitted X-rays from the
(2) pressure of air in the tube
tube is :–
(3) nature of target
[e=charge on electron, m=mass of electron,
(4) potential difference between cathode and
Z=atomic number of target]
target

88. Which of the following wavelength is not

possible for an X-ray tube which is operated
at 40 kV:–
(1) 0.25 Å (2) 0.5 Å
82. The momentum of a photon in an X-ray beam (3) 0.52 Å (4) 0.34 Å
of 10–10metre wavelength is :–
(1) 1.5 × 10–23 kg–m/sec 89. If the operating voltage of X–ray tube is 50 kV
(2) 6.6 × 10–24 kg–m/sec then velocity of X–ray :–
(3) 6.6 × 10–44 kg–m/sec (1) 4 × 104 m/sec (2) 3 × 108 m/sec
(4) 2.2 × 10–52 kg–m/sec (3) 108 m/sec (4) 3 m/sec

83. The energy of a photon of light with 90. When X–rays are projected in strong magnetic
wavelength 5000Å is approximately x eV. field it will :–
This way the energy of an X-ray photon with (1) deflect right.
wavelength 1Å would be:– (2) deflect left.
(3) move in opposite direction to magnetic field
(4) not deflect
91. If minimum wavelength obtained in a X–ray
tube is 2.5 × 10–10 m. For this minimum 100. Lattice constant of a crystal is 3 × 10–8 cm and
wavelength the minimum operating voltage of the glance angle of X-ray is 30° for first order
tube should be– diffraction, then the value of  will be :–
(1) 2 kV (2) 3 kV (1) 6 × 10–8 cm (2) 3 × 10–8cm
(3) 4 kV (4) 5 kV (3) 1.5 × 10 cm
–8 (4) 10–8 cm

92. In X-ray tube, wavelength of X-ray is the 101. min of X-rays depends on :-
characteristic of :– (1) Atomic number of target
(1) tube voltage (2) target material (2) Energy of electron
(3) filament current (4) none of these (3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of these
93. 5000V is applied on an electronic X-ray tube.
Then minimum wavelength of X-ray will be :– 102. The order of energy of X-ray photon is :-
(1) 1.24 × 10–11 m (2) 2.48 × 10–10m (1) MeV (2) keV
(3) 3.72 × 10–11 m (4) 4.96 × 10–11 m (3) eV (4) GeV

94. Pressure inside the X-ray tube is :– 103. If vacuum tube is operated at 6.4 kV, what is
(1) equal to 740 mm of Hg the wavelength of X-ray produced :-
(2) equal to 76 mm of Hg (1) 1.93Å (2) 1.53Å
(3) equal to 10–5 mm of Hg (3) 2.67Å (4) 0.78Å
(4) equal to 10–7 mm of Hg
104. When electron is incident on molyblednum
95. 20 kV potential is applied across X-ray tube, then by changing energy of electron :-
the minimum wavelength of X-ray emitted will be
:–
(1) 0.62 Å (2) 0.37 Å
(3) 1.62 Å (4) 1.31 Å

96. To increase the hardness of X–rays incoolidge

tube we should :– 105. In an X–ray tube accelerating potential is
(1) increase filament current 60 kV. What is the maximum frequency of
(2) increase filament voltage emitted X-ray ?
(3) increase the voltage applied between (1) 1.45 × 1019 Hz (2) 1.45 × 1015Hz
cathode and anticathode (3) 1.25 × 1015 Hz (4) 1.25 × 1013 Hz
(4) none of these
106. When a metallic surface is illuminated with light
97. For X–ray diffraction, order of size of obstacle of wavelength , the stopping potential is x volt.
is : When the same surface is illuminated by light of
(1) 1 Å (2) 10 Å x
wavelength 2, the stopping potential is .
(3) 20 Å (4) 30 Å 3
Threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
98. Voltage applied across the X-ray tube is
4
(1) 1000 V (2) 100 V (1) (2) 4
3
(3) 10 V (4) 106V
8
(3) 6 (4)
99. Which of the following is the wave length of 3
X-ray: 107. A monochromatic point source of light is placed
(1) 10,000 Å (2) 1000 Å at a distance d from a metal surface. Photo
(3) 1 Å (4) 10–4 Å electrons are ejected at a rate n per second, and
 with maximum kinetic energy E. If the source is 114.
brought nearer to distance d/2, the rate and the
maximum kinetic energy per photoelectron
become nearly
(1) 2n and 2E (2) 4n and 4E
(3) 4n and E (4) n and 4E 115.

108. X-rays of wavelength 22 pm are scattered from a

carbon target at an angle of 85° to the incident
beam. The Compton shift for X-rays is
(1) 2.2 pm (2) 1.1 pm
(3) 0.55 pm (4) 4.4 pm

109. If the frequency of K X-rays emitted from the

element with atomic number 31 is  then the
frequency of K X-rays emitted from the element 116.
with atomic number 51 would be

110. Atomic number of anticathode material in an X-

117.
ray tube is 41. Wavelength of K X-ray produced
in the tubeis
(1) 0.66 Å (2) 0.76 Å
(3) 0.82 Å (4) 0.88 Å

111.

118.
112.

113. 119.
120.

126.
121.

127.

122.

128.

123.

129.

124.

125.

130.
 136.

131.

137.

Nuclear Physics

132. 138. The atomic mass of 7N15 is 15.000108 a.m.u. and

that of 8O16 is 15.994915 a.m.u. If the mass of a
proton is1.007825 a.m.u. then the minimum
energy provided to remove the least tightly
bound proton is
(1) 0.013018 MeV (2) 12.13 MeV
133. (3) 13.018 MeV (4) 12.13 eV

139. Consider the nuclear reaction X200→ A110 + B90

If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B is
7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, then
the amount of the energy released is
(1) 200 MeV (2) 160 MeV
134. (3) 110 MeV (4) 90 MeV

140. In each fission of 92U235

energy of 200 MeV is
released. How many acts of fission must occur per
second to produce a power of 1kW?
(1) 3.1 × 1013 (2) 1.3 × 1016
(3) 1.3 × 1015 (4) 3.1 × 1016

141. If 1 g hydrogen is converted into 0.993 gm of

helium in a thermonuclear reaction, the energy
released in the reaction is
(1) 63 × 107 J (2) 63 × 1010 J
(3) 63 × 1014 J (4) 63 × 1020 J

142. Thermal neutrons are those whose energy is

about
135. (1) 1 J (2) 0.03 eV
(3) 1 MeV (4) 0.03 MeV

143. The average binding energy per nucleon in the

nucleus of atom is approximately
(1) 8 J (2) 8 KeV
(3) 8 eV (4) 8 MeV
 150. The binding energies per nucleon of deutron and
144. For the nuclear fusion reaction α-particles are x1 and x2 respectively. The energy
4
1 H + H →2 He + 0 n temperature to which gases
3
1
4 1
released in the following reaction will be :1H2 +
must be heated is 3.7 × 109 K. Potential energy 2 4
between two nuclei is closest to (Boltzmann’s 1H = 2He + Q
constant k = 1.38 ×10–23 J/K) (1) (x1 + x2) (2) (x2– x1)
(1) –10–10 J (2) –10–12 J (3) 4(x1 + x2) (4) 4(x2 – x1)
(3) –10–14 J (4) –10–16 J
151. If the binding energy per nucleon in 7Li and 4He
145. A nucleus 220X at rest decays emitting an - nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, then energy of
particle. If energy of daughter nucleus is 0.2 MeV,
the reaction 7Li + 1H → 2 4 He is
Q value of the reaction is 2

(1) 10.8 MeV (2) 10.9 MeV (1) 19.6 MeV (2) 2.4 MeV
(3) 11 MeV (4) 11.1 MeV (3) 8.4 MeV (4) 17.3 MeV

146. In proton-proton cycle, four hydrogen atoms 152. A nuclear fission is represented by the following
combine to release energy reaction
(1) 2.67 MeV (2) 2.67 KeV U236 = X111 + Y122 + 3n
(3) 26.7 MeV (4) 26.7 KeV
If the binding energies per nucleon of X111, Y122
147. For nuclei with A > 100, mark the incorrect and U236 are 8.6MeV, 8.5 MeV and 7.6 MeV
statement – respectively, then the energy released in the
(1) the binding energy per nucleon decreases on reaction will be
the average as A increases (1) 200 MeV (2) 202 MeV
(2) if the nucleus breaks into two roughly equal (3) 195 MeV (4) 198 MeV
parts, energy is released
(3) if two nuclei fuse to form a bigger nucleus 153. If mass of the fissionable material is less than the
energy is released critical mass, then :
(4) the nucleus with Z > 83 are generally (1) fission and chain reactions both are
unstable impossible
(2) fission is possible but chain reaction is
impossible
148. If the mass of proton = 1.008 a.m.u. and mass of
(3) fission is impossible but chain reaction is
neutron = 1.009 a.m.u., then binding energy per
possible
nucleon for 4Be9 (4) fission and chain reaction both are possible.
(mass = 9.012 amu) would be:
(1) 0.065 MeV (2) 60.44 MeV 154. A positron of 1MeV collides with an electron of 1
(3) 67.2MeV (4) 6.72 MeV MeV and gets annihilated and the reaction
produces two  -ray photons. If the effective

149. 200MeV energy is released due to fission of U235 mass of each photon is 0.0016 amu, then the
by slow neutrons. If the output power from a energy of each  -ray photon is about
atomic reactor is 1.6MW, then rate of fission will (1) 1.5 MeV (2) 3 MeV
be : (3) 6 MeV (4) 2 MeV
(1) 5 × 1016s–1 (2) 10 × 1016s–1
(3) 15 × 1016s–1 (4) 20 × 1016s–1
155. If the rest mass of electron or positron is 0.51
MeV, then the kinetic energy of each particle in 161. The heavier nuclei tend to have larger N/Z ratio
the electron-positron pair production by a  - because
photon of 2.42 MeV will be (a) a neutron is heavier than a proton
(1) 0.3 MeV (2) 1.9 MeV (b) a neutron is an unstable particle
(3) 0.7 MeV (4) 1.5 MeV (c) a neutron does not exert electric repulsion
(d) Coulomb forces have longer range compared
to the nuclear forces.
156. An electron and a positron may annihilate one
(1) c, d (2) a, b
another producing two  -ray photons of equal
(3) b, c (4) b, d
energy. The minimum energy of each of these
photon is :
162. The binding energies of two nuclei Pn and Q2n
(1) 8.2 × 10–14 MeV (2) 8.2 × 10–14 J
are x and y joules. If 2x > y then the energy
(3) 16.4 × 10–14 MeV (4) 16.4 × 10–14 J released in the reaction :
Pn + Pn→ Q2n, will be :
157. The amount of U235 in kg which is to be used per (1) 2x + y (2) 2x – y
hour in a nuclear reactor of capacity 100kW(E (3) –(2x – y) (4) x + y
=200MeV/fission)
(1) 0.45 × 10–5 (2) 4.5 × 10–5 163. Consider the fission reaction
(3) 4.5 × 105 (4) 45 × 105 92 U 236
→X 117
+Y 117
+ 0 n + 0 n i.e. two nuclei of
1 1

same mass number 117 are formed plus two

158. The binding energies of two nuclei Xn and Y2n neutrons. The binding energy per nucleon of X
are P and Q joules respectively, where P> Q/2.
and Y is 8.5 MeV where as of U236 is 7.6 MeV.
In the reaction Xn + Xn→ Y2n The total energy liberated will be about
(1) energy will be released (1) 2 MeV (2) 20 MeV
(2) energy will be absorbed (3) 200 MeV (4) 2000 MeV
(3) energy will be neither released nor absorbed
(4) release or absorption of energy, will depends 164. Two deuterons are moving towards each other
upon n. with equal speeds. What should be their initial
159. In a fast breeder atomic reactor : kinetic energies so that the distance of closest
(1) fast neutrons converts natural uranium into approach between them is 2 fm?
fissionable fuel and released energy. (1) 0.36 MeV (2) 0.51 MeV
(2) thermal neutrons cause fission of enriched (3) 1.02 MeV (4) 7.8 MeV
uranium and released energy
(3) fast neutrons cause fission of enriched 165. A stationary 238U nucleus decays by α emission
uranium and release more energy generating a total kinetic energy T
(4) thermal neutron cause fission of natural 238
92 U →90
234
Th + 42 
uranium and produce energy .
What is the kinetic energy of the α-particle ?
(1) slightly less than T/2
160. A fusion reaction takes place at very high
(2) T/2
temperature because : (3) slightly less than T
(1) atoms get ionized at high temperature (4) slightly greater than T
(2) molecules get decomposed at high
temperature 166. The rest mass of the deuteron,
2
H , is equivalent
1
(3) nuclei get decomposed at high temperature
to an energy of 1876 MeV, the rest mass of a
(4) due to their high energy nuclei overcome
proton is equivalent to 939 MeV and that of a
their mutual repulsion and combines.
 neutron to 940 MeV. A deuteron may disintegrate
to a proton and a neutron if it 172. If u = 1 amu and A = atomic mass number If mass
(1) emits a  -ray photon of energy 2 MeV of an atom is Au then A =_____ .
(2) captures a  -ray photon of energy 2 MeV (1) 1 (2) 12
(3) emits a  -ray photon of energy 3 MeV (3) 16 (4) between 1 to 100

(4) captures a  -ray photon of energy 3 MeV

173. Mass in the proton is completely converted in
energy, then energy is ______MeV.
167. In the nuclear fusion reaction (1) 9310 (2) 931
2
1 H +13 H →42 H + n , given that the repulsive (3) 10078 (4) 100
potential energy between the two nuclei is –7.7 ×
10–14 J, the temperature at which the gases must 174. A and B are Isotops, B and C are Isobars. dA, dB
be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly and dC are the densities of their nuclei then ____.

[Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 J/K]

(1) 109 K (2) 107 K
(3) 105 K (4) 103 K 175. The energy required to separate a nucleon from a
nucleus is called__________.
168. For the same separation of 1 fm in the nucleus, (1) Binding energy per nucleon
the force acting between two proton is F1, (2) Binding energy
between two neutron is F2 and between proton (3) Reaction energy
and neutron is F3 then,______ (4) Separation energy
(1) F1 < F2 < F3 (2) F2 < F1 < F3
(3) F1 < F2 = F3 (4) F1 = F2 < F3 176. Calculate the released energy Q in nuclear fusion.

169. 1040 deuterons are present in a star initially.

Energy released according to reaction given
below : (1) 12 Me V (2) 6 Me V
(3) 24 Me V (4) 48 Me V

If emitted power is 1016 W. The time to destroy 2

177. If velocity of light becomes the energy releases
quantity of deuteron is . 3
(1) 106 s (2) 108 s in nuclear fission decreases in multiple of _____.
(3) 10 s
12 (4) 1016 s
m(1H2) = 2.014u, m(P) = 1.007u, m(n) = 1.008 u,
m(2He4) = 4.001 u.

170. Reaction of nuclear fission,

178. Mass of two isotops of Boron 5B10 and 5B11 are
10.01294 u and 11.00931 u respectively. Mass of
For X and Y Ebn = 8.5 MeV and Ebn = 7.6 MeV for an atom of Boron is 10.811 u. Find the proportion
U236 then produced energy______ MeV. of these two isotops.
(1) 2000 MeV (2) 200 MeV (1) 30%, 70% (2) 42.12%, 59.88%
(3) 20 MeV (4) 2 MeV (3) 72.05%, 27.95% (4) 19.90% 80.10%

171. Packing fraction (f) = _________. 179. Mass defect in nuclear fission is 0.03 %. Energy
released in fission of 1 kg mass is .
(1) 2.7 x 1013 J (2) 27 x 1014 J
(3) 0.27 x 10-13 J (4) none of these
 188. Energy releases in a given fusion = _____.
180. In a nuclear reaction given below, ZXA=_____ .
(1) 1 erg (2) 1 eV
(3) 4 MeV (4) 4 keV

189. Energy released in each fission of U235 is 200 MeV.

Output power in nuclear reactor is 1.6 MW. Find
181. For 8O16 , Ebn = _________MeV. Mp = 1.007825amu,
the rate of fission. (number of fission per second).
mN = 1.008665 amu. M(8O16) = 15.9949 amu.
(1) 5 x 1016 (2) 1017
(1) 7.973 (2) 79.73
(3) 1.6 x 1013 (4) 1019
(3) 0.79 (4) none of these
190. What is produced in a consecutive step in a given
182. Find the number of electron, proton and neutron
reaction ?
in 12 g, 6C12 .

183. Mass-defect for the nucleus with Z = 2 and A = 4

is 0.04 u. Calculate the binding per nucleon. 191. Find the number of D and E β particles in the
(1) 931 MeV (2) 93.1 MeV conversion
(3) 9.31 MeV (4) 0.04 MeV
(1) 4,4 (2) 5,5
184. Energy produced due to destruction of proton is (3) 6,6 (4) 4,8
3724 MeV in a nuclear reaction, then these
number of protons = _________. 192. If Pα ,Pβ ,P  are penetrating power of α,β,  then
(1) One (2) Two ___________.
(3) Three (3) Four

185. Atomic mass number of Helium and sulpher are 4

and 32 respectively. The radius of Sulphur 193. α and β particles are emitted from the ends A and
nucleus is times the radius of Helium nucleus. B respectively in a wire, then .
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) Electric current flows from A to B
(3) 8 (4) 12 (2) Electric current flows from B to A
(3) Electric current is not produced.
186. 1H2 + 1H3 → 2He4 +0n1. Binding energies of + 1H2
(4) Electric current flows toward the mid-pt.
1H3 → 2He4are a, b and c (MeV) respectively. from every side.
Energy releases in the reaction = ___________MeV
(1) a+b-c (2) c+a-b 194. During the radio active emission of element
(3) c-a-b (4) a+b+c having atomic number 90 and atomic mass
number 232, final product is 82Pb208 . Find the
187. Ebn for the nucleus of 3Li7 and 2He4 is 5.60 M eV
emitted number of α and β- particles
and 7.06 M eV respectively. Energy
released = __________MeV.

195. Nuclear reaction :

(1) 19.6 (2) 17.3
(3) 8.6 (4) 2.4
(1) Proton (2) neutron
(3) electron (4) α
196. 6C12 absorbs neutron and emits β- particle. Find 204. 1H2+1H3→2He4 + n, potential energy due to
the final product. repulsive force between two nucleus in nuclear
fusion is 7.7 x 10-44 J. How much temperature
should be given to the gas so this
reaction be possible ?
(1) 105 K (2) 103 K
197. Arrange the ionizing power of α β , and  in
(3) 10 K
9 (4) 107 K
descending order.
205. What this reaction suggest ?

198. Energy produced in nuclear fission is 200 MeV. If

output power of reactor is 5W then find the rate
of fission.
206. α- particles are emitted from stable radio active
element having atomic mass member 208. Energy
of emitted α - particles is E. Find the energy of
disintegration.
199. α-particle is emitted by nucleus zXA . Final nucleus
emits β+. Then find the atomic number and
atomic mass number of final nucleus.

200. Three α-particles and one β- particle are emitted

by 86Rn 236 , then for product nucleus X_______.

201. Calculate the release energy in reaction,

Kinetic energy of α-particle is 4.78 MeV . Parent

element is stable.
(1) 8 MeV (2) 4.78 MeV
(3) 4.87 MeV (4) none of these

202. Energy emitted from a star is 2.7x1036 Js-1. Find

the decrement in its mass.

203. Series of emitted particles from the nucleus (Z=

92) is α α, β_, β_, α, α, α, α, β_ ,β_ , α β+ ,β+ α. Then Z
of final nucleus =_______
(1) 78 (2) 82
(3) 74 (4) 76
 SECTION - C
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUSTIONS

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

1. A : Every metal has a definite work function, still 5. A : Wave nature of particles is not visible in daily
all photoelectrons do not come out with the same life.
energy if incident radiation is monochromatic. R : In daily life, mass of particles is very high so
R : Work function is the minimum energy their de Broglie wavelength is very small.
required for the electron in the highest level of
the conduction band to get out of the metal. Not 6. A : If a stationary nucleus emits an -particle, the
all electrons in the metal belong to this level de Broglie wavelengths of the daughter nucleus
rather they occupy a continuous band of levels. and the -particle are equal.
R : The magnitudes of the linear momenta of the
2. A : Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. daughter nucleus and the -particle are the same.
Emission of electrons will be possible by two
photons, each of 2.5 Ev energy, striking the 7. A : When a photon of energy h is incident on an
electron of aluminium. electron in a metal of work function (< h), the
R : Energy of a photon can be less than the work electron will not necessarily come out of the
function of the metal, for photoelectron emission. metal.
R : Work function is the minimum energy
3. A : On increasing the intensity of light, the required to liberate an electron out of a metal. So
number of photoelectrons emitted is more. Also some electrons may require more energy for
the kinetic energy of each photon increases but their liberation.
the photoelectric current is constant.
R : Photoelectric current is independent of 8. A : The photoelectric effect is a proof of the
intensity but increases with increasing frequency quantized nature of the light.
of incident radiation. R : Each photon in a light beam has same amount
of energy.
4. A : The process of photoelectron emission and
thermionic emission of electrons is different. 9. A : A photon cannot transfer all of its energy to an
R : Photoelectric emission does not depend upon isolated electron.
temperature, whereas thermionic emission is
temperature dependent.
 R : When energy of a photon is more than 1.02 R : For transitions between large quantum
MeV, it can materialize into two particles called number the frequency of revolution of an
electron and positron. electron in its orbit is connected to the frequency
of spectral line, as per Bohr's Correspondence
10. A : There is almost no time-lag between the principle.
incidence of light and the emission of
photoelectrons. 15. A : Spectral analysis can differentiate between
R : A photon transfers almost all its energy to a 1 1 1
isotopes as per the equation = RZ 2  2 − 2 
single electron in a metal.   n1 n2 
R : Rydberg's constant R is not a universal
11. A : Both the Thomson's as well as the
constant and is dependent on the mass of nuclei
Rutherford's models constitute an unstable
as well.
system.
R : Thomson's model is unstable electrostatically
16. A : If the accelerating potential in an X-ray
while Rutherford's model is unstable because of
machine is decreased, the minimum value of the
electromagnetic radiation of orbiting electrons.
wavelength of the emitted X-rays gets increased.
R : The minimum value of the wavelength of the
12. A : Bohr's orbits are regions where the electron
emitted X-rays is inversely proportional to the
may be found with large probability.
accelerating potential.
R : The orbital picture in Bohr's model of the
hydrogen atom was inconsistent with the
17. A : According to Bohr’s atomic model the ratio of
uncertainty principle.
angular momenta of an electron in first excited
state and in ground state is 2 : 1.
13. A : Bohr's model with its planet-like electron is
R : In a Bohr’s atom the angular momentum of the
not applicable to many electron atoms.
electron is directly proportional to the principal
R : Unlike the situation in the solar system, where
quantum number.
planet-planet gravitational forces are very small
as compared to the gravitational force of the sun
18. A : If a beam of photons of energy 10.0 eV each, is
on each planet, the electron-electron electric
incident on a sample of hydrogen gas containing
force interaction is comparable in magnitude to
all atoms in the ground state, then the beam of
the electron nucleus electric force.
the photons is completely transmitted through
the gas without absorption.
14. A : In Bohr model, the frequency of revolution of
R : The minimum energy required by an electron
an electron in its orbit is not connected to the
to make a transition to an excited state is 10.2 eV.
frequency of spectral line for smaller principal
quantum number n.
19. A : The nature of the characteristic X-rays does 25. A : A free proton is stable but inside a nucleus, a
not depend on accelerating potential. proton gets converted into a neutron, positron
R : X-rays are electromagnetic radiation. and neutrino (p → n + e+ + ).
R : Inside a nucleus, neutron decay
20. A : If vacuum is not created inside an X-ray tube, (n → p + e– + v ) as well as proton decay are
X-rays will not be produced. possible, since other nucleons can share energy
R : Without vacuum inside the X-ray tube the and momentum to conserve energy as well as
electrons are not emitted by the filament.
momentum and both the decays are in dynamic
equilibrium.
21. A : Gases are insulators at ordinary pressure but
they start conducting at very low pressure. 26. A : Exothermic reactions are possible when two
R : At low pressures, ions have a chance to reach light nuclei fuse or when a heavy nucleus
their respective electrodes and constitute a undergoes fission into intermediate mass nuclei.
current but at ordinary pressures, ions undergo R : The nature of nuclear binding energy curve is
collision with gas molecules and recombination. such that it rises for lighter nuclei and slightly
decreasing for heavier nuclei.
22. A : The oil-drops of Millikan’s experiment should
be of microscopic size. 27. A : For fusion, the light nuclei must have sufficient
R : For larger drops the electric fields needed in initial energy to cross the Coulomb barrier.
the experiment will be impractically high.
Hence, fusion requires high temperature,
however, the actual temperature required is
23. A : Stoke’s formula for viscous drag is not really somewhat less than expected classically.
valid for oil-drops of extremely minute sizes. R : It is due to quantum mechanical tunneling of
R : Stoke’s formula is valid for motion through a the potential barrier.
homogeneous continuous medium and the size of
the drop should be much larger than the 28. A : Only in low or medium energy nuclear
intermolecular separation in the medium for this reactions, the number of protons and number of
assumption to be valid. neutrons are separately conserved.
R : In high energy reactions, protons and
24. A : Uncertainty principle demands that an neutrons can be converted into other particles
electron confined to a nucleus must have very and a new quantum number, the Baryon number
high energy so that the electron cannot reside in a
is however, always conserved.
nucleus.
R : The electrostatic attraction between electron 29. A : Nuclear density is almost same for all nuclei.
and proton is large at such a small distance but is R : The radius (r) of a nucleus depends only on
not enough to bind such a high-energy electron.
the mass number (A) as r  A1/3
30. A : During radioactive disintegration an -particle 36. A : X - rays are used for studying the structure of
crystals.
and a -particle do not emit simultaneously from
R : The difference between the atoms of crystal is
any nucleus. of the order of wavelength of X - ray.
R : An -particle emits from a nucleus when the
37. A : Isobars are the nuclei having same mass
N/Z ratio is less than the stability range (where N
number A but different atomic number Z.
= number of neutrons and Z = number of protons R : Neutrons and Protons are present inside
in a nucleus). nucleus.

38. A : The ionisation potential of Hydrogen is 13.6

31. A : In -decay an electron is emitted by the eV, the ionised potential of double ionised lithium
nucleus. is 122.4 eV.
R : Electrons are not present inside the nucleus. R : Energy in nth state of Hydrogen atom is
13.6
En = eV .
n2
32. A : A radioactive substance has half life of 1 hour.
Therefore, if two nuclei of the substance are 39. A : Radio active nuclei emit β- particle
present initially, after 1 hour only one will remain R : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.

undissociated.
40. A : Balmar series lies in the visible region of
R : When a nucleus makes a transition from electro magnetic spectrum.
excited state to ground state, it emits a -particle. 1  1 1 
R: = R  2 − 2  Where , n = 3, 4,5
 2 n 
33. A : Fast moving neutrons do not cause fission of a
41. A : Energy is released in nuclear fission.
uranium nucleus. R : Total binding energy of the fission fragments
R : A fast moving neutron spends very little time is larger than the total binding energy of the
inside the nucleus. parent nucleus

42. A : Heavy water is preferred over ordinary water

34. A : ZXA undergoes two α-decay, two β-decays and as a moderator in reactors.
two  -decays and the daughter product is R : Heavy water, used for slowing down the
Z-2X A-8. neutrons, has lesser absorption probability of
R : In α-decay the mass number decreases by 4 neutrons than ordinary water
and atomic number decreases by 2. In β-decay
the mass number remain unchanged, but atomic
number increases by 1 only

35. A : All nuclei are not of same size.

R : Size depends on atomic mass.
ASSERTION REASON - SECTION - C ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 4 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 4 1 2 2 1 2 2 3 1
41 42
1 1
 COMPREHENSION TYPE QUESTIONS :

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.
7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.
Match the columns :

15.

16.
17.

COMPREHENSION TYPE :- SECTION - C ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
3 2 1 2 1 4 1
 SECTION - D

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

1.

8.

2. 9.
V-MEDICO

10.

3.

4.

11.

5.

12.

6.

13.

7.
 19.

14.

15.

20.

21.
V-MEDICO

22.

16.
23.

17.

24.

18.

25.
26.
34.

27.

35.

28.

36.
V-MEDICO

29.
37.

30.
38.

31.

39.

32.

40.

33.
 47.

41.

48.

49.
42.

50.

43.
V-MEDICO

51.

44.

52.

45.

53.
46.

54.
 62.
55.

63.
56.

57.
64.
V-MEDICO

58.

65.

59.

60.

66.

61.
67.

73.

68.

74.

69.

75.
V-MEDICO

76.

70.

77.

78.

71.

72. 79.
 85.

80.

86.

81. 87.

88.
V-MEDICO

82.

89.

83.
90.

84.

91.

92.
93. 101.

94.

102.

95.
103.

96.
V-MEDICO

104.
97.

98.
105.

99.

106.

107.

100.
 115.

108.

109.
116.

110.

111. 117.

112.
V-MEDICO

NEET (2024)

118.
NEET (2023)

113.

114.
119.
120.

121.

V-MEDICO

122.
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS - SECTION - D ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 4 4 2 4 1 2 2 2 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 3 4 3 3 1 2 1 3 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 3 3 1 4 2 2 4 4 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 3 1 3 4 3 3 1 2 4
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 4 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
3 3 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 1
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 1
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 3
V-MEDICO

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
4 4 1 1 1 4 2 3 2 3
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
1 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 2
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
2 1 4 4 2 2 1 1 4 2
121 122
2 4