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Aakash: Unanswered/unattempted Questions Will Be Given No Marks

Term test aakash neet -2026

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views19 pages

Aakash: Unanswered/unattempted Questions Will Be Given No Marks

Term test aakash neet -2026

Uploaded by

Abhay Mishra
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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Code-A

|12106/2024

Aakash
Medlcall iIT-JEE|Foundatlons
Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47523450
orporate Office: Aakash Tower 8 Puea Road New Time :200 Min,
MM:720 Term Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P1)-TEO1A
Topics Covered:
Physics: Units & Measurements, Mouon in a Straight Line
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany: Cell: The Unit of Lite, Cell Cycle &Cell
Division
Zoology: Structural Organisation in Animals-Animal Tissues only, Biomolecules

General Instructions:
Secion-A & only 10
1. There are two 35 questions from
secions in each subject, i.e Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all
questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Eachquestion carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -l mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the
appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and
completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each
entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space
provided only. sheet.
.Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white luid or any other rubbing material on the Answer

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1, I p is linear momentum and c is speed of light, then 4. The velocity time graph of a particle moving in a straight
dimensions of pcis line is given below.

() u²4T
(2) (ML4T 2 (Vs)
(3) (ML^T)
(4) (MLZr31
2 The numnber of significant igures in 0.003894 m is

(1) 7 4 6 8 10 12
(2) 6
The acceleration of the particle at t = 9 s is
(3) 5
(4) 4
(1) Zero
3. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m, which ater (2) 5 m/s2
making repeated bounces finally comes to halt in 5 (3) -5 mis
seconds, its average velocity is
(1) O ms (4) -2 mfs2
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 2 m/s

(4) 3 m/s

1
erm Exam tor

5. A car
NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TE01A
accelerates
time, ater from rest at a
which it decelerates constant
at
rate a for some 7. A car moves along a straight line
(x-axis) such that its
Comes to rest, If the total time a constant rate B and by x= 20+ 12(-, where x
maximnum velocity acquired by the elapsed is L then position at any time tis given Time taken by the particle to
car is the is in metre andtis in secona
come monentarily at rest
(4)( ) (1) 2 s

(2)( ) (2) 1s
(3) 3 s
(a+d)e
(3) (4) 4s
8. Which one the following quantities has not been
(4) expressed in proper units?
(1) Unit of Energy = kg m/s
6. The position of a particle varies with the ome (as x = (7 +
5t - E) m. s (2) Uni! of =
represented as
acceleration time grapt(is best
(3) Unit of Pressure

(4) Unit of Surface tension =


diameters of a hollow cylinder
(1) 9 The external and internal 0.01)
(5.23 + 0.01) cm and (4.75
are measured to be the
of wall of the cylinder is
cm. The thickness
(1) (0.24 + 0.01) cm
(2) (0.24 + 0.02) cm
(3) (0.48 + 0.01) cm

(4) (0.48 + 0.02) cm


is the position vector and is time then
Assertion: If

dimensional formula of is (MOLT-1


(2) vector with respect to
Reason: First derivative of position
time is acceleration vector.
and the reason is
Both Assertion & Reason are true
(4 the correct explanation of the assertion
the reason is
Both ASsertion & Reason are true but
4not the correct explanation of the assertion
Reason is false
(3) Assertion is true statement but
are false statements
(4) Both Assertion and Reason
dimensionless?
11. Which of the following quantity is
(3)
(1) Surlace tension

(2) Focal length of concave lens


(3) Refractive index of glass slab

(4) Radius of urvature of concave mirror


0.4) m.
12 Asquare shape park has an area of (400.0
The side of park is

(1) (20.00 + 0.01) m


t (2) (20.00 + 0.02) m
(4)
(3) (10.00 + 0.01) m
(4) (10.00 + 0.02) m
érm Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P1)-TE0LA
moving along x-ax1s
velocity-ime graph of a particle
13. Slope of velocity-time graph and area under velocity"time 19. The in
graph represents respectively is given as shownt hgure
(1) Distarnce, Acceleration
v(m/s)
(2) Acceleration, Displacement 10
(3) Displacement, Velocity
(4) Acceleration, Velocity >t(s)
14. Acceleration--Ume graph of a body isbody
given The
should be -10 x=-10m, the positon
corresponding velocity-bme graph of u
if the particle is situated at
AlI=0,
at the end of 6 s is

(1) 10 m
(2) 15 m
(3) Zeru
(4) 20 m cube is
rement of side of a
measuremer in
percentage error in percentage error
16. I1 mass is 3%. The
2% and in its
easurement of its density is
nea
V
(1) 5%
(2) 7%
(3) 9%
(1) (4) 2% suddenly
a car with a speed
of 54 km/h, by car
17. Aperson driving
on the road. If the distance moved
reaction
sees a cow then
applies brakes is 5 m,
before he person
time of the perSon is

(1) 0.5 s
(2) 0.33 s
(3) 0.67s
(4) 1s
height 4.9
(2) from the top of a tower of
18. A particle is dropped with which it strikes the ground
m. The velocity of particle
is
(1) 5 m/s
(2) 4.9 m/s

(3) 9.8 m/s


(4) 7.3 m/s
= 20
19. The velocity of a body depends on time as v(in m/s)
1
+ 5t(in s). The average velocity of the body between t=
(3) >t sto (=3sis

20 mis

(2) 25 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 35 ms
20. lM in a vernier callipers 4 VSD coincides with 2 MSD, then
least count of vernier calliper is [given 1 MSD = 1 mm)
(1) 0.2 mm
(4) >t (2) 0.1 mm
(3) 0.3 mm
(4) 0.5 mm
Arm Exam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P1)-TE01A
21. The velocity of a body is changing with time(() as v= 10 rest. Its acceleration (a) versus
bme
20t + 5¾ ms, it's 27. A paricle starts from The maximum speed of the
be
velocity when accelerabon is zero will () graph is shown below.
particle witl h
ll be
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
10 m/s?
(3) -10 m/s
(4) -20 m/s
-+t(s)
22. I Force, Length and Time to be 11
the fundamental
quantities, then dimension of density is
(1) 110 m/s
(2) 55 m/s
(2) (FL-4134 (3) 550 m/s
(3) 214n (4) 63C ms
x-axis
unilorm acceleration along and
(4) (FL²r1 28. Apartcle moving with
m and x= 50 m with velocities 10 m/s
crossesX=
which it crosses the
30 m/s respectively, The velocity with
23. TwO cars are moving in a
straight line in same direction
with same speed of 70 kmh, The pointx = 40 m is
one car with respect to other is relative velocity of
(1) 10/3 m/s
(1) 70 kmh-l (2) 20 m/s

(2) 140 kmh-1 (3) 10/5 m/s


(3) 35 km h-l (4) 107 m/s

(4) Zero 29. A parbcle is moving in a straight line then under constant
acceleration. I the motion slarts from rest the ratio of
24. A particle moves along a circular path of radius R. The displacement in 5 second to that in the 5 second
ratio of distance an magnitude of displacement of
particle in completing half revolution is

(1) n:2
(2)
(2) 1:1
(3)
(3) : /2
(4) V2 :1
25. The area under the curve of acceleration ime graph 30. A particle is said to have non-zero acceleration
represents: (1) Only if its direction of velocity changes
(1) Velocity (2) Only if its magnitude of velocity changes
(2) Speed When either its direction of velocity or magnitude of
(3) velocity or both changes
(3) Change in position
(4) Change in velocity When neither direction nor magnitude of velocity
(4)
changes
26. The distance travelled by a body falling freely trom rest in 31, A screw qauge has least count of 0.02 mm and
one second, two seconds and three seconds are in the there are
ratio of 100 divisions its circular scale. The pitch of the screw
gauge t
(1) 1:2:3
(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 1:3:5
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 1:4:9
(3) 2 mm
(4) 3:2:1
(4) 1.0 mm

4
rm Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TE01A
speed VË and
dislance with
32. For which of the following posiion time graph, the body is 34. A car travels of the tolal Average speed of the
under non-zero acceleration? with speed vT,
remaining distance
distance is
car for the total

(1) (1) }vei


(2)

(3)
2vu+Jar

(2) (4)
angle) is equivalent lo
35. 4 second (unit of

(3)

(4)

33. Which of the following physical quantty is a derived unit?

(1) Mass
(2) Current
(3) Velocity
(4) Amount of substance

SECTION-B

quantities having different


38. The pairs of physical
object, among
36. The most precise reading of length of an dimensional formula is
the following is
(1) Impulse and momentum
(1) 50 cm (2) Work and energy
(2) 5.0 x 10 cm (3) Work and torque

(3) 0.5 x 10 cm (4) Force and impulse


bodies in free fall near
(4) 0.0005 cm 39. A:The relative acceleration of two
of direction
earth under gravity alone is zero irrespective
straight line covers a distance in
37. A body moving along speed of motion.
three equal parts with 2 m/s, 3 m/s and 4 m/s, then R:Cirection and magnitude of gravitaicnal acceleration
its average speed.is CC is independent of body's motion.
(1) 3 m/s Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1 the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)ms Both ASsertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) ms (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) mis (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

5
fm Examn for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P1)-TE01A

40. A person walks 6 m north and then 8 m east. Ifa perSon moves with Conslant speed, then
The
magnitude of resultant displacement of person is
(1) Velocity of the person must be constant
(1) 14 m
(2) Velocity of the person must be variable
(2) 2 m
(3) veloCity of he person may be constant
(3) 10 m (4) Displacement of the person must be zero
(4) 12 m
The dimensions of (bla) in the equation P= where
41. A car starts its journey trom P and reaches R through the
path as shown in the fiqure. f a = 1 m, b = 6 m and r=7 Pis power, xis distance and tis time, are
m. The ratio of distance to the magnitude of displacement
of the car will be (take 22I7) () (ML2r
P R (2) M-3
(3) MLr)

then which of the


(1) 1:1 48. Il dimensions of A and B are different,
following relations is valid?
(2) 73:21
(3) 29:27 (1) sin (4)
(4) 73:49
(2) kog.(4)
42. Position of particle Avaries as ra=212 - 4t and that of B
as rp = (-2t. Find velocity of B with respect to A at =4 (3) AB
s.
(4)
(1) 36 m/s
49. The speed-time graph of a paricle moving along a
(2) 34 m/s is shown in the figure. The distance covered
straight line
(3) 58 m/s by the particle from time (= 0 to (=4 s is
(4) 38 m/s speed (m s'
43. A balloon is going vertically upwards with a velocity of 20
ms, When it is 60 m above the ground, a stone is
released from it. The time taken by the stone to reach the
ground is (g= 10 ms)
(1) 2s 4 times)
(2) 4 s
(1) 2 m
(3) 8 s
(2) 4 m
(4) 6s
(3) 6 m
44. The quanity having both unit as well as dimensions, is
(4) 3 m
(1) Velocity
50 Aperson moves for 10Os S with velocity 3 m/s then velocity
(2) Plane angle
4mis lor another 5 s and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s
for 6 s. The average speed of the person will be
(3) Strain
(4) Specific grav1ty (1) 's
45. The value of 45° in radian is
(2) m's
(1)
(3) 's
(2)
(4) s
(3)
(4)

6
mExam for NEET-2024-26
TYM(P1)-TE01A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. It 4 moles ofa gas 'x' weighs 176 g, then the gas 'x' could 56. An organic compound containing C. H and N gave the
be following analysisC= 40%; H = 13.33%; N= 46.67%. Its
empirical formula would be
(1) NH3
(2) CO (1) CHaN
(3) CO2 (2) CHsN
(4) O2 (3) CzttyN2
52. TWo elements A(Atomic mass = 60 u) and B(Atomic mass (4) CH3N
=20 u) combine to give a compound having 75% of Aby 57. Mole fraction of solvent in 4 molal aqueous
solution of
mass. empirical formula of compound is NaOH is
(1) A2B
(1) 0.99
(2) AB
(2) 0.75
(3) AB2 (3) 0.93
(4) A283 (4) 0.05
AgB4
53. Match the following 58. Two elements A and B reacts to form 2 compounds
Column Column ll and A2B3. If 0.08 mole of AgB4 weighs 18.56 g and 0.2
A
(Physical Quantity) (SI Units) mole of A283 weighs 32 g. then the atomic weights of
a. Luminous intensity ()Kelvin and Brespecively are
(1) 27 u, 16 u
b. Frequency (ü) Candela
c. Temperature (2) 56 u, 16 u
(o)|Ampere
d.Electric current J(iv)Mole (3) 54 u, 14 u
e. Amount of substancel(v) Hertz (4) 63.5u, 14 u
Choose the correct option 59. All samples of carbon dioxide contain carbon and oxygen
(1) a(ii), b(v). c(Ö), d(i),. e(iv) in the ratio of 3:8 by mass. This follows
(1) Law of conservation of mass
(2) a(ii), b(v). c(i). d(ii), e(iv)
(3) a(v). b(iv), c(i), d(ii), e(0) (2) Law of definite proportions
(4) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(üi), e(i) (3) Law of multiple proportions
54 Numerical prefix used for 10l2 is (4) Gay Lussac's law of gaseous volumes
60. Law of Multiple proportion is applicable to which pair of
(1) Giga compounds?
(2) Tera (1) H2S and H0
(3) Peta
(2) HCl and HBr
(4) Exa
(3) SO2 and SO3
The number of significant figures in 6.02x10<S is (4) NaCl and KCI
(1) 23
61. 200 ml of 0.1 MH2SO4 and 300 mL of 0.2 MHCI are
(2) 3
mixed together. The molarity of H in the resultant mixture
(3) 4 is

(4) 26 (1) 0.2 M


(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.02 M

(4) 0.01 M

7
rm Exam for
NEET-2024-26 TYM(P1)-TEOIA
62. 11.2 L of CO2 gas
at STP
present in contains as many molecules as vO From 320 ma of O. x ma of O is removed. If 6.02 x 10*
(1) 300 gof C2H molecules of O are let then xwill be
(2) 45 g of H2C204 (1) 320 mg
(3) 4.5 g of H20 (2) 32 mg
(4) 98 g of H2S04 (3) 288 ma

63. The molality of 9.8% ww (4) 28 mg


H2SO4 solution is
0. Given below are wo statements one is labelled as
(1) 2 m
ASsertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(2) 1.1 m Assertion (A): 0.031 has four significant figures.
Reason (R): Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are
(3) 2.2 m significant.
In the ight of above slatements choose the correct
(4) 0.5 m answer.
64, I1 the mass ratio of O and NT is 4:7, then the ratio of Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1) explanation
their moles is of (A)
(1) 4:7 (2) Bo (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) 1:2
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) 3:5
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) 4 :5
65. What is the molarity of
71. Total number of electrons present in 6 g of carbon is
H2SO4 solution containing
H2SO4 by mass? (density of soluttons = 1.09 g/mL) 49% (1) 6 NA
(1) 20 M (2) 2 NA
(2) 5.45 M (3) 4 NA
(3) 15 M (4) 3 NA
(4) 13.80 M 72. 6.5 g of an impure sample of limestone liberates 2.2g of
66. If the mass ratio of methanol and CO2 on strong heating. The percentage purity of CaCO3
water in a solution is 4: in the sample is
9 then the mole fraction of methanol in the
solution
will be
(1) 85.29%6
(1) 0.4
76.9%
(2) 0.1
(3) 72.5%
(3) 0.6
(4) 92.596
(4) 0.2
(3. 12.044 x 10<Z molecules of glucose are present in 500
67. Mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with 100 mL
mL of its solution. The molarity of the solution is
of 0.5 M H2SO4 is
(1) 0.01 M
(1) 10 g (2) 0.4 M
(2) 5 9 (3) 0.04 M
(3) 15 g
(4) 0.2 M
(4) 25 g
74. Asoluaen is prepared by adding 9 gef a sustance 'X* to
68. Volume of oxygen required for complete combusion of 1 18 g of water. What is the mass percent of the
solute?
LC2Hs at S.T.P. is
(1) 27.749%
(1) 2.5 L
(2) 33.33%
(2) 7L
(3) 50%
(3) 3.5 L (4) 66.66%
(4) 2 L
nExam for NEET-2024-26 TYM(P1)-TEO1A

75. 1 amu is equal to depends upon


81. Which of the following concentration terms
(1) 6.02 x10-28g temperature?

(2) 1.66 x 10-2 g (1) Molality


(2) Molarity
(3) 1 9 (3) (ww) %
(4) 1 mg
(4) Mole fractions
76, When 134.4 L of HT combines with 89.6 L of O at STP 16 g. Number or
then the number of moles of H0 formed is 82. 5.6L of atriatomic 0as at STP weighs
represents Avogadr0
dloms n 64 g of the aas is (NA
(1) 3 mole number)
(2) 2 mole (1) NA
(3) 6 mole (2) 2 NA
(4) 2.5 mole (3) 3 iNA
77 Molarity of 100 dm solution in which 0.2 mol NaOH is (4) 4 N
present is If percentage
83. An element X exist in three isotopic forms.
composition of 150x 148x and 151y are
(1) 0.2 M 0%, 20% and
weight oft X
(2) 0.02M 40% respectively then, the average atomic
(3) 0.002 M will be

(4) 0.0002 M (1) 150.0u


(2) 149.5u
78. If the temperature of water bath is 30°C then its value in
F scale will be (3) 150.4u
(1) 92°F (4) 150.6u
to prepare
(2) 54°F 84. Mass of concentrated HNOa solution required
5M HNOR is (Concentrated HNO3 is 70%
(3) 86°F 750 mL of
(4) 72°F ()HNO3)
79. Which (1) 225.8g
atoms?
among the following contains highest number of
(2) 549.2g
(1) 16 g of CH4 (3) 175.5g
(2) 1 g molecule of NH3 (4) 337.5 g

(3) 22.4 Lof CzH at STP 85. The number of carbon atoms present in 90 g of glucose is
(1) 3 NA
(4) 6.02 x 10< molecules of CO2
(2) 6 NA
80. When 100 mL of 179% (ww) solution of AgNO3 is mixed
with 100 mL of 5.85% (W) NaCl solution, the mass of (3) 2 NA
precipitate formed will be (Ag = 108, N = 14, Na = 23, Cl = (4) NA
35.5)
(1) 14.35 9
(2) 27.5 g
(3) 8.35 g
(4) 11.35g

SECTION-B

9
Exam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TE01A

e6 Volume of 1 litre expressed in Sl units is is 78% then the


92. fIf volume percentage of nitrogen in air is air at STP is
(1) 10 m3 number of N> mole cules present in of

(2) 10² m? (1) 1.25 NA


(3) 10-3 m3 (2) 0.35 NA
(3) 0.18 NA
(4) 10-2 m2
(4) 0.78 NA
87. Identily the example of pure substance among the ammonia. Then
following 93. 12g of H2 reacis with 28 g of N to give
(1) Milk (1) H2 is the limiting reagent
(2) Air (2) 6g of H2 is let
(3) Sugar solution (3) 8g of H2 is let
(4) Carbon dixide
(4) 17 g of NH3 is formed
88. ldentity the incorrect match
atoms of triatomic gas is 80 g.
MuliplePrefix D4. The mass of 3.01 x 1o24
The molecular mass of gas is
(1)10-18 atto
(1) 240
(2)10-15 pico
(2) 40
(3)10-21 zepto (3) 26.67
(4)10-9 nano (4) 48
The final
is diluted to 500 mL.
95. 100 mL of 1 M HCI solution
(1) (1) molarity of HCl solution is
(2) (2) (1) 0.40 M
(3) (3) (2) 0.20 M
(4) (4)
(3) 0.44 M
89. Correct scientific notation for 232.508 is
(4) 0.5 M
for green colour
(1) 2.32508 x 102 96 Ml is a biomole cule responsible
30 in the laors Chlorophyll contains 2.689% of magnesium
magnesium atoms in 6
(2) 2.32508 x 10-2 by mass. Calculate the number of
gof chlorophyll (Mg = 24)
(3) 0.232508 x 103
(1) 2.01 x 1021
(4) 0.232508 x 10
(2) 4.03 x 1021
2
90. A sample of aluminium sulphate, Al2(SO4)3 contains
moles of sulphur atoms, the number of moles of oxygen (3) 6.02 x 1023
atoms in the sample is
(4) 4.03 *1023
(1) 2
97. Volume of 2g He at STP will be
(2) 3
(3) 6
(1) 2 L
(2) 224 L
(4) 8
(3) 44.8 L
91. Mass of KOH solution required (50% (ww)) to neutralize
2 litre of1 MHCI solution is (4) 11.2L

(1) 112 g 98. 100 gm of a mixture of CaCO3 and Naz CO3 was ignited
strongly which forms 11.2 L of CO2 at STP. Then the mass
(2) 224 g
(3) 56 g
ratio of NapCO3 and CaCO3 in the mixture will be

(4) 62 g (1) 1:4


(2) 4:1
(3) 2:1
(4) 1:1

10
mExam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TE01A
O9. I a solubon contains 320 g of methyl alcohol, 230 g of
ethyl alcohol and 180 g of Water
Solutiow the mole fraction of
ethyl alcohol in the

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.32

100-The volume of a gas in discharge tube is 1.12 x 10- m


at STP. Then the number of molecules of aas in the tube
is

(1) 3.01 x 1014

(2) 3.01 x 1015


(3) 3.01 x1012
(4) 3.01 x 1016

BOTANY

SECTION-A

found in some bacteria is


101.The major function of Golgi apparatus is 105.Thick and tough glycocalyx
called
(1) Packaging of materials (1) Slime layer
(2) To synthesise steroidal hormones
(2) Mesosome
(3) Providing sites for protein synthesis
(3) Capsule
(4) Storage of fats (4) Lamellae
102.Plastid involved in storage of fats and oils in castor is cells are stored in
106.Reserve materials iin prokaryoticbodies which are
(1) Aleuroplast cytoplasm in the form of inclusion
(2) Amyloplast (1) Double membrane bound structures
(3) Elaioplast (2) Non-membrane bound structures

(4) Chromoplast (3) Always associated with plasma membrane of cell


(4) Rich in slarch granules only
103.The site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis in eukaryotes
iS
107.Ribosomes are composed of
(1) Cytoplasm (1) rRNA and tRNA
(2) NUclear membrane
(2) mRNA and proteins
(3) Nuclear pore CC (3) mRNA ard rRNA
(4) Nucleolus
(4) rRNA and proteins
104.The plasmid DNA 108.Kinetochores
(1) Is found in all eukaryotes 1 Occur around primary constriction and help in
Confers certain unique phenotypic characters to crossing over
(2) bacteria
(2) Are terminal ends of chromosomes
(2 Is the genetic material inside the genomic DNA of
prokaryotes (3) Provide a site for attachment to the spindle fibers

(4) is larger than genomic DNA Are present near nuclear envelope and take part in
(" spindle formation

11
Exam for NEET-2024A-26_TYM(P1)-TE0LA

mitochondria,
A09,Which of the given cell organelles hashave ribosomes? 14.Choose the feature which is common in
(A) Mitochondria chloroplast and prokaryotic cell?
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (1)Single stranded DNA
(D) Lysosome (2) Presence of 70S ribosomes
(1) Only (A) and (B) (3) Absence of enzymes
(2) All except (D) (4) Surrounded by rigid cell wall
(3) Both (A) and (D) of cell wall
15.The scientist who concluded that the presence
IS a unique character of the plant cell, was alan
(4) Only (C)
10.Microtubules are the constituents of which of the following (1) German botanist
sets of structures? (2) Australian botanist
(1) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromain (3) German zoologist
(2) Centrosome, Histones and Centrioles (4) Biish zoslogist
(3) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes 116.The function of centromere is lc
chromosome
(4) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia (1) Hold two sister chromatids of a
111. Select the wrong statement about chromatin. (2) Form basal body of flagella
(1) These are nucleoprotein fibres (3) Form spindle fibres
microtubules of flagella
(2) Named by Flemming (4) Support the central
(3) Composed of DNA and histone proteins 117. Find the odd one w.r.t. plasmodesmata.
which cytoplasm of
(4) Does not get stained with any dye They are present in pit through
one cellis in contact with other cell
112.Read the following statements and select the correct
option, (2) They form the dead components of cell wall
A, The cis and the trans faces of Golgi apparatus are
entirely different and are not interconnected. (3) They contain a fine tubule called desmotuble
B. Golgi apparatus remains in close association with (4) They form the symplastic systemn between two cells
endoplasmic reticulum.
C. Cisternae in Golgi apparatus are stacked parallel to 118.All of the ollowing phenomena may occur twice in
each other. meiosis, except
(1) Only statement A is incorrect. (1) Spindle formaion
(2) Statements Aand C are correct. (2) Uncoiling of chromosomes
(3) All statements A, Band C are correct. (3) DNA duplication
(4) Statements A and B are incorrec. (4) Centriole duplication
113. Match the following columns and select the correct 119.When karyokinesis is not followed by cyokinesis, it
opion. results in the
Column Column !
(1) Entrance of the cell into Go phase
Anton Von Fluid mosaic model of plasma
a Leeuwenhoek membrane (2) Formation of cell plate
b. Rudolf Virchow () First described nucleus as a (3) Haploid stage of the cell
cell organelle
i First saw and described a live (4) Formation of syncytium
c. Robert Brown
cell
Singer and 120.Activity of recombinase enzyme occurs during
(iv) Omnis cellula-e cellula (1) Leptotene
Nicolson
(1) a(ii), b(iv). c(i). d() (2) Pachytene
(2) a(ii). b(v). c(üi). d(0) (3) Diplotene
(3) a(ii), b(), c(iv). d(i) (4) Diakinesis
(4) a(iv). b(i). c(0). d(ji) 121.During M phase, the
complete
nuclear envelope marks the disintegrauon of the
start of
(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

12
cam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TEOA

select the incorrect option about Go phase.


128.HoW many of the following events islare assoctated wiu
(1) It is also called quiescent stage S phase of cell cycle?
(a) DNA replicaton
(2) Cells in this stage are metabolically inacive (b) Tubulin protein synthesis
(c) Duplicatbon of mitochondria
(3) Cells do not proliferate unless called on to do so (d) Duplicauon of centrioles
I4) Cells exit G1 phase to enter this phase (1) One
123.An onion root cell has 16-chromosomes in its G1 phase (2) Two
then how many chromosomes it has in S and GT phase (3) Three
respecively?
(4) Four
(1) 16 and 16 DNA in each meiosis
129.What will be the amount of pa of DNA in G2 phase?
(2) 32 and 32 product if the mother cell has 40

(3) 8 and8 (1) 10 pg


(4) 32 and 16
(2) 20 pg
124.Average duration of cell cycle of a typical human cell in (3) 40 pg
culture is
(4) 80 pg
during
(1) 90 minutes 130.Splitting of centromere is observed
(2) 24 hours (1) Anaphase
(3) 90 hours (2) Anaphase Il
(4) 24 minutes (3) Telophase I
125.If it takes 20 hours to complete the cell cycle of a cell, (4) Metaphase I
approximately for how much time duration its interphase
Il as
is going to last? 131,Prophase I is similar to prophase
occur in haploid cells
(1) 19 hours (1) Both always
subslages
(2) 15 hours (2) Both include five
both
(3) Nuclear
membrane disappears in
(3) 10 hours
complex and prolonged stages
(4) 1 hour (4) Both are equally
correct 132.Synapsis occurs beween
126.Arrange the following events of meiosis in heir
choose the option
(1) Two sister chromatids
sequence of 0ccurrence and
accordingly. chromosomes
a. Chromosomal synapsis (2) Two homologous
complex
b. Dissolution of synaptonemal (3) Two non-homologous
chromosomes
c. Alignment of univalents at equator
d, Terminalisation of chiasmata (4) Sex chromosomes only
cytokinesis occurs by the
(1) a - b d C 133.In which of the following cells, membrane?
appearance of a furrow in the plasma
(2) a - d-b-c
(3) b -- a -c- d (1) Yeast
b-ad (2) Algal cell
(4) c
if a diploid cell that (3) Animal cell
127.How many tetrads will be formed
contains 18 chromosomes? (4) Plant cel!

(1) 18
(2) 9
(3) 27
(4) 36

13
n for NEET-Z024-26_TYM(P1)-TE01A

s4.Select wrong statement with respect to


milosis
significance of

1) Maintains chromosome number


2) Responsible for the growth of individual
(3) Intoduces variations
(4) Play important role in healing and repair
135.The total number of mitotic divisions required for the
formation of 32 daughter cells from a cell is
(1) 31
(2) 5
(3) 16
(4) 8

SECTION-B

cells but
is present in animal
136."The central part of centriole is made up of A and 139.Which of the following
absent in higher plant cells?
is called_ B_
Select the option which correctly fills the blanks (1) Plastids
B vacuole
A (2) Large sap
(1) Microtubule Hub (3) Cell wall
Central sheath
(2) Microtubule (4) Centriole
centrosome?
Central sheath a
(4)Protein centriole(s) islare present in
140.How many
li(4) Protein Hub
(1) One
(1) (1) (2) Two
(2) (2) (3) Three
(3) (3) (4) Four
in plant cells are
(4) (4) 141.Semi-autonomous organelles present
w.r.t. vacuoles. mitochondria
137.Select the incorrect statement (1) Chloroplast and
chloroplast
(1) Single membranous organelle (2) Nucleus and
and excretory products (3) ER and Golgi apparatuS
(2) Contains water, sap
cell
90% of volume of the plant (4) Golgiapparatus and
nucleus
(3) Can occupy upto
transport of ions into statements is incorrect w.r.l
Tonoplast does not facilitate the 142.Which of the tollowing
(4) the vacuole cytoskeleton?
pair.
138.Select the incorrectly matched
Filament, Hook and basal
(1) Helps in motility.
(1) Bacterial flagellum (2) Maintains the shape of cell.
body
ATP.
|Primary cell wall in Incapable of growth (3) It is invalyed in producion of
to the cell.
(plants (4) Provides mechanical support
Amoeboid function(s)) of cell
(3) White blood cells 143.How many of the following islare the
Non-membrane bound
wall?
(4) Ribosomes organelles (a) Gives shape to the cells
(b) Protects from mechanical damage and infection
across it
(1) (1) (c) Requlates the transport of the molecules
(d) Helps in cell to cell interaction
(2) (2)
(1) One
(3) (3)
(4) (4) (2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
ExAm for NEET-202426 TYM(P1)-TE01A

144.Morphology of chromosomes is best studied in


148.0bserve the given diaatam caretully and choose ne
(1) Metaphase Correct option w.rL phase of mitosis it is showing.
(2) Anaphase
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase

145.Nucleolus and nuclear membrane reappear during


(1) Anaphase
(2) Telophase (1) Late prophase
(3) Late prophase (2) Early prophase
(4) Metaphase (3) Transition to metaphase
146.The initiation of assembly of mitotc spindle occurs during (4) Anaphase
meiosis-ll are
149.The daughter cells formed after
(1) Prophase dissimilar to parent cell
(1) Similar to each other but
(2) Metaphase dissimilar to each other
(2) Similar to parent cell but
well as to parent cell
(3) Anaphase (3) Similar to each other as
(4) Telophase other nÍr to parent celI
(4) Neither similar to each
147.Select the correct statement. 150.A tetrad consists of
centromere
(1)
In all organisms gametes are produced only by (1) Two chromatids and one
meiosis centromeres
(2) Four chromat1ds and two
(2) In plants meiosis takes place in diploid mother cell (3) Two chromat1ds and wo
centromeres
(3) Mitosis cannot be a method for gamete formation (4) One chromatids and one
centromere

(4) Meiosis can occur in haploid cells

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

154.Select the statement which is not related to smooth


151.The heterocyclic nitrogenous base which is not
muscle fibres.
considered as a pyrimidine is
Their fibres taper at both ends and dÍ not show
(1) Adenine (1) striations.
(2) Thymine (O They are located in the wall of blood vessels, stomach
(3) Cytosine and intestine.
(4) Uracil Their functions cannot be directly controlled by our
(3) will.
152.Which of the following structures of proteins gives an idea
about the positGnal iniTrmation of amino acids? stiow multinucleated apoeiiance and

(1) Primary structure


(2) Secondary structure
(4)
Thching
155.Choose the correct optiorn to complete the analogy
Cellulose : Glucose:: Inulin
(3) Tertiary structure
(1) Glucose
(4) Quaternary strUcture (2) Fructose
153.The property of muscle fibres that enable them to shorten
in length is (3) Ribose
(1) Conducivity (4) Deoxyribose

(2) Contracility
(3) Excilability
(4) Abiliy to get insulated

15
Fxan for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TEOA

156.The chemical and physical propeties of amino acids are


essentially because the 162.In DNA of an organism "X, which is double stranded
29% of the bases guanine. The
to be
(1) R funcional groups only percentages of the other
were Showr
expected to be
ree bases
(2) R functional group and carboxyl present in this DNA are
groups only
(3) R funcional group and amino (1) C 29% A 21% T 29%
groups
only
(2) C 21% A 29% T 21%
(4) Amino group, carboxyl group and the R functional
group (3) C 29% A 21% T219%
157.In which ype of epithelial tissue, are the (4) C 21% A 29% T 29%
closer to the base of cells and nuclei located
cells?
possess single layer of 263.Type of specialized connectve tissue present in the op o
nose in humans is
(1) Simple columnar epithelium
(1) Bone
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium (2) Dense regular
(3) Simple squsmous epithelium (3) Carilage
(4) Compound cuboidal epithelium
(4) Dense iregular
158.The function affect the enzymatic
of adhering juncions is to 164.How many of the tollowing factors
Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by acivity?
( connecting the cytoplasm (a) Temperature
(b) pH concentration
(2) Form gap junctions (C) Change in substrate
(d) Absence of co-factors
(3 Pertorm cementing to keep neighbouring cells Select the correct option.
together
(4) Stop substances rom leaking across a tissue (1) Four
(2) Three
159.Select the mismatch w.r.t, secondary metabolites listed
and their description. (3) Two
(1) Alkaloid- Morphine (4) One
165.0bserve the structure given below.
(2) Toxin- Carotenoids
R, O H R,
(3) Drug - Vinblastine
(4) Essential oils- Lemon grass oil H,Nc-cNCco0
160.Read the following statements A and B
Statement A: Chondrocytes are cells of cartlage hat are X
involved in secretion'of matrix.
X represents alan
Statement B: Matrix of bone is arranged in concentric
layers called lamellae (1) lonic linkage
Choose the correct option.
(2) Peptide bond
(1) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect
(3) Glycosidic bond
(2) Statement B is correct, A is incorrect
(4) Ester bond
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
166.Which one exerts the greatest control over the body's
(4) Both statements A and B are correct responsiveness to changing conditions?
161.Match column I with column Il and choose the correct (1) Epithelial tissue
option.
Columnl Column | (2) Muscuiar issue
a. Acidic amino acid 0) Valine (3) Neural issue
b. Basic amino acid () Arginine (4) Connective tissue
c. Neutral amino acid (ii) Aspartic acid
167.The bond present between the hydroxyl group of sugar
(1) a(u), b(0), c(i) and phosphate is
(2) a(ii), b(i). c(i) (1) Glycosidic bond
(3) a(), b(1). c(ii) (2) Hydrogen bond
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ü) (3) Ester bond
(4) lonic bond

16
Eam for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TEOLA

168.The microvilli present on the apical surface of the


columnar epithelium mainly 176.Assertion (A): All monosaccharides are reducin9
Sugars.
(1) Increase the surtace area for
absorption Reason (R): Monosaccharides possess tree aldehyde or
ketone group.
(2) Help in movement of particles In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(3) Act as receptors option.
(1) Bon Asserton & Reason are true and reason is the
(4) Provide protection
correct explanation of the assertion.
169.Select the odd one out. Both ASSertion & Reason are true but reason 1S not
(2 the correct explanabon of the assertion.
(1) Guanylic acid
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is lalse.
(2) Cytidylic acid
slatements.
(3) Thymidylic acid (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
has molecular weight
(4) Palmitic acid 177.category of biomolecules which present in retentate or
less than 1000 daltons but are
acid-iisuluoie fraction is
170.Enzymes isolaed from thermophilic organisins can retain
their catalytic potential upto (1) Proteins
(1) 80°C - 90°C
(2) Lipids
(2) 40°C-50°C (3) Polysaccharides
(3) 37°C - 40°C (4) Nucleic acids
in secondary structure
of
(4) 50°C - 60°C 178.The bond usually present
171.Biomolecule which produces blue colour with l2 is protein is
(1) Glycosidic bond
(1) Cellulose
(2) Hydrogen bond
(2) Glycogen
(3) Ester bond
(3) Starch
(4) lonic bond
(4) Inulin catalytic activity of
172.Bones will become dislodged significanty when a tear 179.Zinc is a cofactor required for
proteolytic enzyme
occurs in
(1) Amylase
(1) Muscles
(2) Carboxypeptidase
(2) Tendons
(3) Peroxidase
(3) Ligaments
(4) Irregqular connective tissue
(4) Catalase
180.Consider following statements.
173.The term 'Zwitterionic form' can be associated
with
A. In cardiac muscles, communication
junctions allow the
cells to contract as a unit
a signal to
(1) Lecithin B. In cardiac muscles, when one cell receives to
neighbouring cells are also stimulated
(2) Lysine contract, its
contract.
(3) RNA Select the correct option.
(4) Lactose (1) Both statements A and B are correct
main
174.The EC number of an enzyme is 3.7.1.1. To which (2) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
class of enzymes does it belong?
(3) Boh sta'ements AandB are incorrect
(1) Hydrolases
(4) Statement A Is incorrect but statement B is correct
(2) Lyases
181,Which of the following co-factors are organic and are
(3) Ligases
tightly bound to the apoenzyme?
(4) Transterases
arachidonic acid
(1)Co-enzyme
175.How many C-atoms are present in (2) Metal ion
excluding the carbon of carboxylic acid group?
(3) Prosthetic group
(1) 19
(4) NADP
(2) 20
(3) 16
(4) 15

17
frm Examfor NEET-2024-26 TYM(P1)-TEO1A
182.A hve carbon sugar with molecular lormula CsH1004 iS 184.Select the correct representation of holoenzy
(1) Deoxyribose
(1) Co-factors = Apoenzyme + Holoernzyne
(2) Ribose
(2) Co-enzyme =Holoenzyme +Metal ions
(3) Glucose
(3) Apoenzyme Holoenzyme + Co-factors
(4) Lactose
(9) Apoenzyme + Co-tactors = Holoenzyme plasma
183.In B-DNA, One full turn of a double stranded helical strand in the
185.Electrical disturbances generated
would involve pairs. neuron, swiftly travels from is
membrane of a
Select the option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) Output zone to axon
(1) 5 base
(2) Cell body to dendrites
(2) 8 base
(3) Cylon lo axon
(3) 10 base (4) Axon to dendrites
(4) 12 base

SECTION-B

of RNA?
would VOu find as a part
186.Which of the following is not a component of blood? 190.Which carbohvdrate
(1) Leucocytes (1) Disaccharides

(2) Erythrocytes (2) Hexose

(3) Platelets (3) Deoxyribose

(4) Chondrocytes (4) Ribose


strands of
B-DNA, the wo
191.In Watson Crick model of
187.The terms monoglyceride, diglyceride and triglyceride are polynucleotides are
differentiated on the basis of
(1) Parallel to each other
(1) Number of glycerol molecules
other
(2) Number of faty acid molecules (2) Perpendicular to each
helix
(3) Presence of saturated or unsaturated fatty acid (3) Coiled in let handed
opposite direction
(4) Number of carbon rings (4) Antiparallel i.e., run in
acid soluble fracion or
188.Read the following statements and choose the correct 192.Which biomolecule is found in
filtrate?
option.
Statement A : The structure of a cell varies according to (1) RNA
its function.
Statement B: Depending on location, structure and (2) RuBisCO
function, the animal tissues have been broadly classified (3) Adenosine
into four general types
(1) Both statements are incorrect (4) Glycogen
193.Read the qiven statements and state them either as true
(2) Only statement A is correct
(T) or false (F).
(3) Only statement B is correct a. Antibody does not fight against infectious agents.
b. GLUT-4 enables glucose transport into cells.
(4) Both statements are correct
c. Trypsin is an active proteolytic enzyme.
189.Which of thE fo!ovirng is a correct representaäsn of Choose the siitable option.
various cellular components in decreasing order of their a bc
percentage of the total cellular mass?
(1) F FF
(1) Water > Proteins > Lipids > lons > Nucleic acids (2) TFF
(2) Water > Nucleic acids > lons > Proteins > Lipids (3) FTT
Carbohydrates > (4) TT T
VYater > Proteins > Nucleic acids >
(3) inids >lons (1) (1)
Water > Lipids > Nucleic acid >
Proteins (2) (2)
(4) Carbohydrate
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

18
ExAm for NEET-2024-26_TYM(P1)-TE01A

.oADuring conversion
states formed are
of
substrate to
product, transition 197.Choose the odd one w.r. polymers
(1) Stable and transient
(1) Rubber
(2) Temporary and
unstable (2) Collagen
(3) Low energy states
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Permanent altered structural states (4) Gums
195.Adenylic acid can be
converted to L96.1he epithelium which is made of a single thin laye
removing adenosine by is found m
natened cells with irreqular boundaries
(1) Ribose sugar
(1) PCT of nephron
(2) 2'-deoxyribose sugar (2) Walls of blood vessels
bronchioles
(3) Adenine (3) Inner surface of hollow organs like
(4) Phosphate Gious (4) Stomach and intestine
196.The mucus secreting goblet cells of the 199.Choose the correct set of primary mielabolies.
are represented by alimentary canal
(1) Curcumin and codeine
(2) Glucose and cellulose
(3) Valine and vinblastin

(4) Tyrosine and glucose


lining of ducts
200.The type of epithelium present in the inner
of salivary glands is also found in the
(A) (B) (1) Blood vessels
(1) A:Mulicellular consisting of cluster of cells (2) Pharynx
(2) B:Unicellular consisting of isolated glandular cells (3) Small intestine
(3) A:Columnar cells producing exocrine secretions (4) PCT of nephron
(4) B:Cuboidal cells also known as glandular epithelium

19

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