Extracted by ABHI

Question 1
If J and E are current density and electric field inside a current carrying conductor at an instant, then J × E is

1)Positive
2)Negative
3)Zero
4)May be positive or negative

Question 2
The S.I unit of electric dipole moment is

1)Newton-metre
2)Volt
3)Coulomb-metre
4)Coulomb

Question 3
The SI unit of conductivity is

1)Ω – m
2)(Ω – m)–1
3)Ω
Ω
4) m

Question 4
Radius of cross-section of a wire is decreased by 1.5% keeping the volume of wire constant. Percentage increase in its resistance is

1)6%
2)3%
3)1.5%
4)0.75%
Question 5
In the electric field of a point charge Q which is kept at point O, a certain charge is carried from A to B and from A to C. If work done from A to B is
W1 and from A to C is W2, then (Where OA = OB = OC)

1)W2 > W1
2)W1 > W2
√
3) W2 = 2 W1, W1 ≠ 0
4)W2 = W1 = 0

Question 6
Choose the correct graph between electric field (E) due to a uniformly charged infinite straight wire versus perpendicular distance (r) from the wire.

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 7
Which graph represents the variation of capacitance (C) of a capacitor with the charge (Q) given to it?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 8
The drift velocity of electrons in a conductor with usual notations is given by

1) eEτ
m
eτ
2)
mE
meτ
3)
E
4) em
τE

Question 9
The current I in the circuit shown below is

1)2 A
2)12 A
3)14 A
4)10 A
Question 10
Dependence of resistivity (ρ) for a typical semiconductor with temperature (T) is best shown by

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 11
Find the current through (Resistor) 20 Ω just after the key is closed (at t = 0)

1)10 A
2)0.4 A
3)0 A
4) 4 mA

Question 12
Five equal capacitors each of capacitance C are connected as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance between A and B is

1)2C
2)1.5C
3)C
4)2.5C
Question 13
Current flowing through the cross-section of a conductor is given by i = 3t2 + 2t + 1. The average current flowing through the cross-section in first 2
seconds is (where i is in A and t is in s)

1)5 A
2)2 A
3)7 A
4)3 A

Question 14
Power delivered by the 4 V battery as shown in figure is

1)1 W
2)3 W
3)5 W
4)Zero

Question 15
Figure shows graph between I and V for two conductors A and B. Their respective conductances are in ratio

1)3 : 4
2)4 : 3
3)9 : 16
4)16 : 9

Question 16
Match the following and choose appropriate option

Column-I Column-II
a. Electric flux (i) [MLT–3A–1]
b. Dipole moment (ii) [ML3T–3A–1]
c. Electric field (iii) [LTA]
d. Surface charge density (iv) [L-2TA]
1)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
2)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
3)a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
4)a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Question 17
Three point charges are placed as shown in the figure. S is a gaussian surface. ϕ is the net flux passing through surface S and E be the electric
field at point P on the surface, then?

1)Flux ϕ is due to q1 and q3 only

2)Flux ϕ is due to q1 and q2
3)Electric field at point P is due to q1 and q2 only
4)Flux ϕ is due to q3 only

Question 18
Two concentric spheres A and B exist in space as shown in the figure. A charge q lies at the common centre of the spheres. The ratio of electric flux
through sphere A to that through B is

1)1 : 1
2)1 : 2
3)2 : 1
4)4 : 1

Question 19
Two parallel plates have area A and separation d. They are given charges q1 and q2. They repel each other by a force
q1q2
1)
4π ∈ 0 d 2
q1q2
2)
2 ∈ 0A
q1q2
3)
∈ 0A
q1q2
4)
4 ∈ 0A

Question 20
A very long line charge having uniform charge distribution produces an electric field of 18 × 105 N/C at a perpendicular distance of 10 cm from it.
The linear charge density on the wire approximately is
μC
1)3.5 m
μC
2)10 m
μC
3)1.5 m
μC
4)5.5 m
Question 21
Force on an electric dipole of dipole moment 2 C-m, placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude 10 V/m

1)Has maximum value 20 N

2)Has minimum value 10 N
3)Is equal to zero
4)Both (1) and (2)

Question 22
Three electric charges each equal to q are placed along x-axis at x = 1 m, x = 3 m and x = 9 m respectively. What is electric field due to this set of
charges at x = 0?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 23
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
For electric field E = 2 i + 3 j − 2k and area of a surface A = 2 i + 2 j − 3k , find the flux passing through the area.

1)5 unit
2)10 unit
3)20 unit
4)16 unit

Question 24
Magnitude of electric field due to an electric dipole at a distance r from it, at axial position is given as E. The magnitude of electric field due to the
dipole at a distance 2r from it, on equatorial line is

1) E
8
2) E
16
3)8E
4)16E

Question 25
Choose the correct statement.

1)Electric field inside a cavity is always zero for a nonconducting sphere

2)Electric potential inside a cavity is always zero inside a conducting sphere
3)Electric field at the surface of charged conductor is σ where σ is local surface charge density
ε0
4)Electric field at the surface of charged conductor is σ where σ is surface charge density
2ε0
Question 26
Three capacitors of capacities 1 μ F, 2 μ F and 3 μ F are connected in series and a potential difference of 22 V is applied across the combination of
the capacitors. Then, the charge that will appear on the positive plate of 3 μ F capacitor will be

1)132 μ C
2)22 μ C
3)11 μ C
4)12 μ C

Question 27
A glass slab (K = 10) is introduced between two parallel plates and then the plates are charged. The surface charge density of charge on plates is
10–6 C m–2. The surface charge density of polarised charge is

1)9 × 10–9 C m–2

2)9 × 10–7 C m–2
3)10–7 C m–2
4)10–9 C m–2

Question 28
A : The electrostatic potential is necessarily zero at a point, where the electric field strength is zero.

R : V = − ∂ E , where V is potential and E is electric field.

∂r
1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 29
The electric potential V is given as a function of x (in metre) V = (x2 – 6x + 5). The electric field is zero at

1)x = 1 m
2)x = 2 m
3)x = 3 m
4)x = 6 m

Question 30
The conducting spheres of radii 4 cm and 8 cm are given the same charge of 10 nC. If two spheres are brought in contact and separated then the
potential of the larger sphere will be

1)3 × 103 V
2)1.5 × 103 V
3)103 V
4)7.5 × 103 V
Question 31
Assertion (A) : Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal, yet there is no current in the absence of electric field.

Reason (R) : In the absence of electric field, electrons do not move.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 32
The effective capacitance of combination of equal capacitors between points A and B as shown figure is

1)C
2)2C
3)3C
4)4C

Question 33
The equivalent emf between A and B in the given figure is

1)15 V
2)10 V
3)25 V
4)5 V

Question 34
The equipotential surface due to the radial electric field will be

1)Spherical
2)Cylindrical
3)Planar
4)Circular
Question 35
An electric dipole of dipole moment P is placed in a uniform electric field E , then

I. The resultant force on the dipole is zero.

II. The torque on the dipole is P × E

III. The potential energy of the system is – P · E

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1)Only I
2)I and II
3)I, II and III
4)I and III

Question 36
Which of the following is not a property of electric charge?

1)Scalar addition
2)Charge is conserved for an isolated body
3)Charge is quantized
4)Conversion of charge to mass

Question 37
The electric current through 15 Ω resistance shown in electric circuit is

1)Zero
2)1 A
3)2 A
4)3 A

Question 38
The force per unit charge is equal to

1)Electric flux
2)Electric field
3)Electric potential
4)Electric current

Question 39
The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor depends on

1)Area of plates
2)Potential difference between the plates
3)Charge on capacitor
4)Both (2) & (3)
Question 40
Resistivity of a conductor does not depend upon

1)Length of conductor
2)Material of conductor
3)Temperature of conductor
4)All of these

Question 41
The correct dimensional formula for electric potential is

1)[ML2T–3A–1]
2)[MLT–2A–1]
3)[ML2T–2A–1]
4)[ML–2T2A–1]

Question 42
If V1 and V2 are potentials of points A and B respectively then ratio of the charge on capacitor C1 and C2 is (V1 ≠ V2)

1)1 : 1
2)2 : 1
3)1 : 2
4)1 : 4

Question 43
A 3µF capacitor is connected across a battery of 20 V. Energy stored in the capacitor is

1)100 µJ
2)200 µJ
3)600 µJ
4)300 µJ

Question 44
The work done in bringing a point charge 3 nC from infinity to a point at a distance of 10 cm from a fixed charge 6 nC, is

1)21.8 μJ
2)0.2 μJ
3)20 μJ
4)1.62 μJ
Question 45
A flow of 1012 electrons per minute in a conducting wire constitutes a current of

1)1.6 × 10–7 A
2)1.6 × 10–8 A
3)2.67 × 10–9 A
4)2.67 × 10–10 A

Question 46
A dipole of dipole moment P is rotated inside a uniform electric field E from its stable equilibrium position to unstable equilibrium position slowly.
Then work done by external agent is

1)– 2PE
2)– PE
3)+ 2PE
4)+ PE

Question 47
^ ^ ^ ^
If current density inside a conductor is J = 2i + k A/m2 and the area through which the current flows is A = 4i + 2j m2, then current
through the area is

1)10 A
2)2 A
3)8 A
4)4 A

Question 48
Energy of 2 eV in joule is equal to

1)8.2 × 10–19 J
2)3.2 × 10–19 J
3)1.6 × 10–19 J
4)4.8 × 1019 J

Question 49
The total electric flux through a closed surface enclosing an α - particle is

1)Zero
2e
2)
ε0
3) 4e
ε0
3e
4)
ε0
Question 50
n identical capacitors of capacitance C each, are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance of the combination will be

1)nC
2) C
n
n
3)
C
4) C
n2

Question 51
Consider the following reactions

Identify the correct statements about the products A and B.

I. A and B are geometrical isomers.

II. Boiling point of A is greater than the boiling point of B.

III. Melting point of B is more than the melting point of A.

1)I and III only

2)II and III only
3)I and II only
4)I, II and III

Question 52
Cu /523K
Product of the given reaction is CH 4 + O 2 ⟶
100atm

1)Methanal
2)Methanoic acid
3)Methanol
4)Glyoxal

Question 53
In the reaction, B is
Red hot FeTube873 ​K
CaC2 + H2O A B

1)CH2 = CH2
2)CH3 – C ≡ CH

3)

4)
Question 54
Most acidic hydrocarbon among the following is

1)HC ≡ CH
2)CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3
3)H2C = CH2

4)

Question 55

on oxymercuration demercuration majorly gives

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 56
Non-aromatic species among the following is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 57
Aqueous solution of sodium salt of propanoic acid on electrolysis gives

1) n-Hexane
2) n-Butane
3) Propane
4) n-Pentane
Question 58
Hexane on reaction with V2O5 at 773 K and 10-20 atm pressure forms

1)Cyclohexane
2)Benzene
3)Cyclohexene
4)1,3-cyclohexadiene

Question 59
Wurtz reaction can not be used for the preparation of

1)Ethane
2)Butane
3)Methane
4)Hexane

Question 60
The major monochlorinated product of the following reaction is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 61
Most reactive alkene towards dil. HCl is

1)Ethene
2)Propene
3)Butene
4)2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
Question 62
Alkene which can show geometrical isomerism among the following is

1)CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − CH 3
2)CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3
3)CH 2 = CH − CH 3

4)

Question 63
Propene on reductive ozonolysis gives

1)CH3CHO, HCHO
2)CH3COOH, H2O, CO2
3)HCOOH, CH3COOH
4)CH3CHO, CO2, H2O

Question 64
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A) : In Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction, the function of anhy. AlCl3 is to produce electrophile.

Reason (R) : AlCl3 is a Lewis base.

In light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 65

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 66

The major product is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 67
During sulphonation of Benzene, the electrophile is

1)SO2
2)H2SO3
3)H3O+
4)SO3

Question 68
The rate of dehydrohalogenation is maximum in

1)Tert alkyl iodide

2)Tert alkyl chloride
3)Primary alkyl iodide
4)Primary alkyl chloride

Question 69
Consider the following statements:

(a) The rate of reaction of alkanes with halogens is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.

(b) In halogenation, the rate of replacement of hydrogens of alkanes is 1° > 2° > 3°.

(c) Fluorination of alkanes is too violent to be controlled.

Choose the correct statements.

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(a), (b) and (c)
Question 70
The most reactive compound towards electrophillic substitution reaction is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 71
For the reaction

R is

1)CH3 — CH2 —
2)CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 —

3)

4)

Question 72
Correct order of boiling point of the given compounds is

1)(iii) > (i) > (ii)

2)(ii) > (iii) > (i)
3)(iii) > (ii) > (i)
4)(ii) > (i) > (iii)
Question 73

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 74
1, 1, 1-Trichloroethane reacts with aq. KOH to give

1)Acetaldehyde
2)Acetic acid
3)Acetone
4)Ethyl alcohol

Question 75
Major product of the given reaction is

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 76
The correct order of nucleophilicity in polar aprotic medium would be

1)F– > Cl– > Br– > I–

2)I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
3)Br– > Cl– > I– > F–
4)I– > F– > Cl– > Br–

Question 77
Major product of the given reaction is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 78
In the given reaction identify the major product formed
AgCN
CH 3 − CH 2 − Cl

1)CH3 – CH2 – CN
2)CH2 = CH2
3)CH3 – CH2 – NC
4)CH3–CH2–COOH
Question 79
Which of the following is geminal dihalide?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 80

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 81
The correct order of melting point for the following compounds is

1)I > II > III

2)I > III > II
3)III > II > I
4)III > I > II

Question 82
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion ( A) : 3° alkyl halide undergoes SN1 reaction very fast.

Reason ( R) : 3° carbocation has high stability.

In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the option given belwo.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 83
Which among the following compounds will undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 84
Product P of the given reaction is

1)CH3 – C ≡ C – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

2)CH3 – C ≡ C – CH = CH – CH3
3)CH3 – C ≡ C – CH2 – CH = CH2
4)CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2

Question 85

Product P is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 86
Consider the following statements.

Statement (I) : Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Statement (II) : In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen atom are in conjugation with π-electrons of the ring.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect

2)Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct
3)Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct
4)Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect
Question 87
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion ( A) : Vinyl chloride can be easily hydrolysed.

Reason (R) : Resonance is not observed in vinyl chloride.

In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 88
CH3 3CBr + CH3ONa → Product

Major product formed is

1)

2)(CH3)3C – OH
3)(CH3)3C – OCH3
4)CH3CH2OH

Question 89
Acetone
RCl + Nal ⟶ R + NaCl is known as

1)Frankland reaction
2)Finkelstein reaction
3)Fittig reaction
4)Ullmann reaction

Question 90

P (Major)

Major product P is

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 91
Consider the following reactions

Major products A and B respectively are

1)
2)
3)
4)

Question 92
Among the following which bromide will react fastest with AgNO3 solution

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 93
Given below are two statements.

Statement I: The most stable conformation of ethane is staggered conformation.

Statement II: Staggered conformation has the maximum torsional strain.

In the light of above statements, the correct option is

1)Both statement I and II are true

2)Both statement I and II are false
3)Statement I is true but statement II is false
4)Statement I is false but statement II is true
Question 94
Consider the given reaction.
Baeyer'sreagent
CH3 − CH = CH2 A

Compound A is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 95
Which among the following has highest dipole moment?

1)CH3 F
2)CH3Cl
3)CH3 Br
4)CH3 I

Question 96
Zn /Alcohol
CH3 — C H — C H2 (C),
| | Δ
Br Br
Product (C) formed in this reaction is

1)CH3 — CH = C H
|
Br
2)CH3 – CH = CH2
3)CH3 — C ≡ CH
4)CH2 = CH2
Question 97
In the following reaction, the most stable intermediate is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 98
The maximum number of monochloro derivatives of toluene is

1)8
2)6
3)4
4)3

Question 99
Consider the following chlorides

The correct order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction is

1)C > B > A

2)B > A > C
3)C > A > B
4)B > C > A

Question 100

Correct statement about the above reaction

1)Rate of reaction doubles when conc. of halide is doubled

2)Rate of reaction quadruples when conc. of halide is doubled
3)Reaction proceed via formation of cyclic transition state
4)Rate of reaction quadruples when conc. of halide as well as base is doubled
Question 101
Which of the following phytohormones speeds up the malting process in brewing industry?

1)Cytokinin
2)Gibberellin
3)Auxin
4)IBA

Question 102
Which of the following hormones is involved in closing of stomata in stressful conditions?

1)Auxin
2)Cytokinin
3)Abscisic acid
4)Ethylene

Question 103
All of the following plant hormones are acidic in nature, except

1)Gibberellin
2)Auxin
3)ABA
4)Cytokinin

Question 104
Which of the following plant hormones is considered as stress hormone?

1)Auxin
2)Abscisic acid
3)Gibberellins
4)Cytokinin

Question 105
Which of the following hormone help to form new leaves, lateral shoot growth and adventitious shoot formation?

1)Zeatin
2)2, 4-D
3)Dormin
4)IAA

Question 106
Identify the correct pair of synergistic hormones w.r.t. abscission of plant parts.

1)Ethylene and gibberellin

2)Abscisic acid and ethylene
3)Cytokinin and abscisic acid
4)Cytokinin and ethylene
Question 107
Most gardeners improve the size as well as shape of apple through the application of mostly

1)Ethylene
2)Gibberellins
3)Cytokinins
4)Abscisic acid

Question 108
Plant’s response observed by Charles Darwin when coleoptile was exposed to unilateral light was

1)Photoperiodism
2)Geotropism
3)Phototropism
4)Heterophylly

Question 109
Plant, which shows different shapes of leaves according to its habitat, is

1)Cotton
2)Larkspur
3)Buttercup
4)Coriander

Question 110
Which phytohormone was isolated from autoclaved herring sperm DNA ?

1)Auxins
2)Gibberellins
3)Cytokinin
4)Ethylene

Question 111
ABA is responsible for promoting

1)Stem elongation
2)Cell elongation
3)Abscission of flowers and dormancy of buds
4)Root elongation

Question 112
Ripening of fruits can be enhanced by the use of

1)Auxin
2)Ethylene
3)Gibberellins
4)Cytokinins
Question 113
Which of the following scientists isolated the auxin from tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings?

1)Charles Darwin
2)F. Skoog
3)Francis Darwin
4)F.W. Went

Question 114
Auxin and cytokinin work antagonistically as

1)Auxin promotes cell division whereas cytokinin inhibits it

2)Auxin promotes apical dominance whereas cytokinin counteracts it
3)Cytokinin promotes senescence whereas auxin prevents it
4)Auxin induces shoot formation whereas cytokinin inhibits it

Question 115
Growth in plants is

1)Closed and limited

2)Open but limited
3)Closed and indeterminate
4)Open and indeterminate

Question 116
If we apply ethylene on cucumber plants the fruit yield will increase. This is due to

1)Decrease in the rate of catabolic process of the plant

2)Decrease in the requirements of minerals by stem and leaves
3)Increase in the water retaining capacity of the plant
4)Increase in the number of female flowers

Question 117
In the geometric growth equation, W1 = W0ert, ‘e’ is

1)Growth rate
2)Time of growth
3)Base of natural logarithm
4)Initial size
Question 118
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement-A : Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is capable of giving rise to microspore tetrad.

Statement-B : Each microsporogenesis involves one meiosis and two mitosis in anther.

1) Only statement A is incorrect

2) Only statement B is incorrect
3) Both statements are correct
4) Both statements are incorrect

Question 119
Amorphophallus and Yucca are mainly pollinated by

1)Wind
2)Water
3)Insects
4)Birds

Question 120
An event unique to flowering plants is

1)Embryo formation
2)Seed formation
3)Syngamy
4)Triple fusion

Question 121
The junction between funicle and ovule is represented by

1)Hilum
2)Integuments
3)Micropyle
4)Nucellus

Question 122
Remains of second cotyledon occur in some grasses is called

1)Scutellum
2)Epiblast
3)Coleoptile
4)Hypocotyle
Question 123
Scutellum represents

1)Single cotyledon of monocots

2)Embryonal axis
3)Triploid structure of seeds
4)Endosperm of maize seed

Question 124
Endosperm persists in the mature seeds of

1)Pea
2)Groundnut
3)Coconut
4)Bean

Question 125
Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

1)Zygote
2)Suspensor
3)Egg
4)Synergid

Question 126
Egg apparatus contains

1)One egg cell and one antipodal cell

2)One egg cell and one synergid cell
3)One egg cell and two synergid cell
4)One egg cell and two antipodal cell

Question 127
Hydrophily is not observed in which of the following aquatic plants?
(a) Water hyacinth
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Zostera
(d) Water lily
The correct one(s) is/are

1)(a) and (c)

2)(c) only
3)(b) and (c)
4)(a) and (d)
Question 128
Choose the correct option w.r.t post fertilization event in flowering plants.

1)Transfer of pollen grain

2)Formation of pollen tube
3)Embryo development
4)Embryo sac development

Question 129
“Pollen grains are well preserved as fossil due to presence of A in the B layer”. Complete the above statement by choosing correct option for A
¯ ¯
and B.

1)A – Pectin, B – Intine

2)A – Sporopollenin, B – Intine
3)A – Pectin, B – Exine
4)A – Sporopollenin, B – Exine

Question 130
A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity is

1)8-nucleated-7-celled
2)8-nucleated-8-celled
3)7-nucleated-8-celled
4)4-celled-4-nucleated

Question 131
Gynoecium of Michelia is

1)Monocarpellary syncarpous
2)Multicarpellary syncarpous
3)Monocarpellary apocarpous
4)Multicarpellary apocarpous

Question 132
Cleistogamous flowers of Oxalis are

1)Wind pollinated
2)Water pollinated
3)Self-pollinated
4)Insect pollinated

Question 133
Vegetative cell in pollen is/has

1)Smaller than generative cell

2)Abundant food reserve
3)Spindle-shaped nucleus
4)Small, irregularly-shaped nucleus
Question 134
All of the following are characteristic features of wind pollinated flowers, except

1) Have large feathery stigma

2) Have well exposed stamens
3) Are packed into inflorescence
4) Have unwettable and sticky pollen grains.

Question 135
Largest cell in embryo sac of angiosperm is

1)Synergid cell
2)Egg
3)Antipodal cell
4)Central cell

Question 136
Formation of tracheary elements in primary xylem is an example of

1)Differentiation
2)Dedifferentiation
3)Redifferentiation
4)Fragmentation

Question 137
A gardener is willing to prepare weed-free lawns. Which of the given plant hormones can be effectively employed in such preparations?

1)Gibberellin
2)Ethylene
3)Abscisic acid
4)Auxin

Question 138
The chemicals like inhibitor-B and dormin were proved to be chemically identical. It was later named

1)Indole acetic acid

2)Gibberellins
3)Abscisic acid
4)Auxins

Question 139
Which phytohormone can induce stem elongation in cabbage?

1)Auxin
2)Gibberellins
3)Abscisic acid
4)Cytokinin
Question 140
The plant hormone which is a derivative of carotenoids is

1)ABA
2)IAA
3)CH2 = CH2
4)Cytokinin

Question 141
Measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time is called

1)Relative growth rate

2)Absolute growth rate
3)Arithmetic growth rate
4)Geometric growth rate

Question 142
Which plant growth regulator does not occur naturally in plants?

1)Indole butyric acid

2)Kinetin
3)Abscisic acid
4)Ethylene

Question 143
___I___ increases rate of respiration during ripening of fruits. The sudden sharp rise in rate of respiration is called ___II___.

Select correct option for I and II.

I II
(1) GA Respiratory climactic
(2) Ethylene Respiratory climactic
(3) Ethylene Epinasty
(4) GA Thinning of fruits
1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)

Question 144
Pollen grains of cereals, such as wheat, lose viability ________ of their release.

Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

1)After several months

2)In 20 hours
3)After 60 minutes
4)Within 30 minutes
Question 145
The anther wall layer that provides nourishment to developing pollen grains is

1)Endothecium
2)Tapetum
3)Epidermis
4)Middle layer

Question 146
Dioecy prevents

1)Autogamy only
2)Geitonogamy only
3)Both autogamy and geitonogamy
4)Allogamy only

Question 147
The ovary has generally single ovule in

1)Wheat
2)Papaya
3)Orchid
4)Water melon

Question 148
Which of the following plants came into India as contaminant with imported wheat and cause pollen allergy?

1)Rice
2)Castor
3)Carrot grass
4)Bean

Question 149
A maize plant has 20 chromosomes in its leaf cells. What would be the number of chromosomes present in its synergids and cells of aleurone layer,
respectively?

1)10, 30
2)20 ,30
3)30, 20
4)20, 10

Question 150
Integuments represent

1)Cells having nutritive function

2)Protective envelopes of ovule
3)Basal part of the ovule
4)Small opening in the ovule
Question 151
How many of the organisms given in the box below is/are acoelomate(s) and is/are diploblastic in nature?

Physalia, Pennatula, Psittacula, Pteropus, Pheretima

Select the correct option.

1)Three
2)Two
3)Four
4)One

Question 152
The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is

1)Radial symmetry in larva

2)Presence of free swimming larva
3)Presence of water vascular system
4)External fertilization

Question 153
Complete the analogy

Hirudinaria : Annelida :: Scorpion : _____

1)Ctenophora
2)Arthropoda
3)Annelida
4)Mollusca

Question 154
Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and their common name.

1)Hippocampus - Sea horse

2)Pterophyllum - Fighting fish
3)Exocoetus - Flying fish
4)Carcharodon - Great white shark

Question 155
Aptenodytes belong to a group of animals having

1)Mammary glands and 2 pairs of limbs

2)Epidermal scales with 3-chambered heart
3)Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in ventricle
4)Oviparity and air sacs to supplement pulmonary respiration
Question 156
Birds can be generally differentiated from mammals on the basis of presence of

1)Four chambered heart

2)Hollow long bones with air cavities
3)Glandular skin
4)Pulmonary respiration

Question 157
Radial symmetry is the characteristic feature of adults belonging to the phylum

1)Mollusca and Annelida

2) Ctenophora and Echinodermata
3) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes
4) Arthropoda and Annelida

Question 158
Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option.
Lamprey : Cyclostomata :: Hyla : ______

1)Amphibia
2)Osteichthyes
3)Reptilia
4)Aves

Question 159
A fully grown tadpole larva of frog performs branchial respiration through

1)Gills
2)Skin
3)Lungs
4)Tail fin

Question 160
The vasa efferentia of a male frog opens into the A and arises from the B . Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
¯ ¯

A B
(1) Testes Bidder’s canal
(2) Bidder’s canal Testes
(3) Cloaca Kidneys
(4) Testes Urinogenital duct
1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)
Question 161
How many organisms given in the below is/are dioecious?

Earthworm, Freshwater sponge, Tapeworm, Leech, Cockroach

Choose the correct option.

1)One
2)Two
3)Three
4)Four

Question 162
Which of the following is not a character of hemichordates?

1)Presence of notochord, which is mesodermal in origin

2)Excretory organ is proboscis gland
3)Circulatory system is open
4)Respiration takes place through gills

Question 163
Carefully observe the diagram and select the correct option w.r.t it.

1)Pseudocoelomate, triploblastic
2)Acoelomate, triploblastic
3)Coelomate, diploblastic
4)Acoelomate, diploblastic

Question 164
How many moultings are required for the development of a nymph into an adult Periplaneta?

1)6
2)10
3)13
4)15

Question 165
Arthropods can be differentiated from annelids by

1)Metameric segmentation
2)Ventral nerve cord
3)Jointed appendages
4)Presence of nephridia
Question 166
Metagenesis can be associated with

a. Polyp and medusa

b. Pseudocoelomates

c. Endoparasites like tapeworms

d. Bioluminescent triploblastic animals

1)a and d only

2)b, c and d
3)a and c only
4)a only

Question 167
Match column A and B and choose the option with all correct matches.

Column-A Column-B
a. Statocyst (i) Nereis
b. Radula (ii) Prawn
c. Parapodia (iii) Aplysia
d. Proboscis (iv) Balanoglossus
1)a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
2)a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
3)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
4)a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

Question 168
Which of the following animals lacks ear pinna?

1)Calotes
2)Pteropus
3)Rattus
4)Camelus

Question 169
The presence of crop and gizzard in their digestive tract is characteristics of

1)Aves
2)Amphibians
3)Mammals
4)Fishes

Question 170
Aplysia is commonly known as

1)Apple snail
2)Sea lemon
3)Pearl oyster
4)Sea hare
Question 171
Choose the odd one with respect to animals and their common names.

1)Ancylostoma – Hookworm
2)Bombyx – Silkworm
3)Locusta – Lac insect
4)Pinctada – Pearl oyster

Question 172
All of the following features are correct for non-chordates except

1)Absence of notochord
2)Absence of gill slits
3)Presence of dorsal heart in all non-chordates
4)Presence of ventral solid double nerve cord

Question 173
Fertilization is A with B development in Ctenoplana. Fill in the blanks A and B by choosing the correct option.
¯ ¯

1)A – Internal, B – Indirect

2)A – Internal, B – Direct
3)A – External, B – Indirect
4)A – External, B – Direct

Question 174
How many organisms given in the box below are oviparous?

Corvus, Macropus, Testudo, Hemidactylus, Delphinus, Pavo

1)Six
2)Four
3)Two
4)Five

Question 175
Periplaneta americana belongs to the class

1)Crustacea
2)Chilopoda
3)Insecta
4)Arachnida
Question 176
Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option.
Sponges : Choanocytes :: _____ : Cnidoblasts

1)Roundworms
2)Flatworms
3)Coelenterates
4)Sea walnuts

Question 177
Organ level of organisation is present in

1)Coelenterates
2)Platyhelminths
3)Poriferans
4)Ctenophores

Question 178
Which of the following is a true fish?

1)Silverfish
2)Cuttlefish
3)Dog fish
4)Star fish

Question 179
The first pair of wings of cockroach arises from ___A___ and is known as ___B___.

Select the option which fills the blanks A and B correctly.

A B
(1) Metathorax Metathoracic wings
(2) Mesothorax Tegmina
(3) Mesothorax Metathoracic wings
(4) Metathorax Tegmina

1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)

Question 180
Structures that help in distinguishing male cockroaches from female cockroaches are

1)Anal cerci
2)Anal styles
3)Antennae
4)Arthrodial membrane
Question 181
On an average, female cockroaches produce__ ootheca, each containing___eggs

Select the correct option to fill the blanks respectively.

1)14 – 16, 9 - 10
2)9 – 10, 12 -14
3)9 – 10, 14 -16
4)6 – 9, 10 -12

Question 182
Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in

1)Female frogs
2)Male frogs
3)Both male and female frogs
4)Cockroaches

Question 183
Which is correct w.r.t the heart of frog?

(a) Ventrally located

(b) Myogenic

(c) 3 chambered

Choose the correct option.

1)Only (a)
2)Only (b)
3)(a) and (b) only
4)(a), (b) and (c)

Question 184
Frog's eyes are protected while in water by

1)Retina
2)Photoreceptor cells
3)Nictitating membrane
4)Skin

Question 185
In cockroach, which structure has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth?

1)Hepatic caeca
2)Proventriculus
3)Malpighian tubule
4)Salivary gland
Question 186
Assertion (A): Annelids and molluscs shown true metamerism.

Reason (R): In annelids and molluscs body is divided both externally and internally into metameres.

In the light of above statement, select the correct option.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Question 187
Triploblastic, metamerically segmented, dioecious and coelomate animals are

1)Apis, Hirudinaria
2)Nereis, Locusta
3)Pheretima, Periplaneta
4)Nereis, Pila

Question 188
In adult frog, which of the following structures does not help in respiration?

1)Gills
2)Lungs
3)Buccopharyngeal cavity
4)Skin

Question 189
Read the following statements w.r.t. Aschelminthes and choose the incorrect statement.

1)They may be free-living or parasitic

2)Open circulatory system is present
3)They are dioecious
4)Excretory waste is removed mainly through excretory pore

Question 190
The structure which is present at the junction of foregut and midgut of cockroach, is
1) Gizzard
2) Malphigian tubules
3) Mesenteron
4) Hepatic caecae
Question 191
Which of the following features is common for all the given examples?

1)Tracheal respiration
2) Body division is head, thorax and abdomen
3) Excretion through malpighian tubules
4) Circulatory system is of open type

Question 192
Spiny skinned animals are

1) Arthropods
2) Echinoderms
3) Hemichordates
4) Cyclostomes

Question 193
In molluscs, mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding called

1)Maxilla
2)Statocyst
3)Mandible
4)Radula

Question 194
What is common feature between Aptenodytes and Hemidactylus?

1)Feathers
2)Presence of diaphragm
3)Direct development
4)Pneumatic bones

Question 195
Which among the following is not a feature of Ornithorhynchus?

1)Exhibits hair
2)Contains milk producing glands
3)Viviparity
4)Presence of internal ears
Question 196
What is incorrect about reptiles?

1)Crawling mode of locomotion

2)Mostly oviparous and direct development
3)External ear openings are present in snakes
4)Possess epidermal scales

Question 197
Read the following statements w.r.t frog and choose the correct option.
Statement A : Testes is attached to the upper part of kidney by a double fold of peritoneum, called mesorchium.
Statement B : The vasa efferentia run transversely through the mesorchium, enter the kidneys and open into the Bidder’s canal.

1)Both statements A and B are incorrect

2)Both statements A and B are correct
3)Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
4)Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.

Question 198
Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. mouth parts of cockroach.

1)Labrum – Upper lip

2)Labium – Lower lip
3)Maxilla – Contains salivary gland duct
4)Mandible – Contains grinding and incising region

Question 199
The head of cockroach is connected with thorax by a short extension of

1)Head capsule
2)Prothorax
3)Abdomen
4)Wings

Question 200
During hibernation and aestivation, gaseous exchange in frogs take place through (A) and (B) respectively. Choose the option which represents (A)
and (B) correctly.

(A) (B)
(1) Skin Lungs
(2) Lungs Skin
(3) Buccal cavity Buccal cavity
(4) Skin Skin
1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)