CBQ 12 Physics Final

D.A.V.
INSTITUTIONS, WB ZONE
QUESTION BANK
PHYSICS
Class: XII
D.A.V.INSTITUTIONS, WB ZONE
QUESTION BANK
Class: XII Chapter no.:-1
Subject: Physics Chapter Name:-Electric Charges and Fields
Q. No. Question Marks

1. Electric field lines are pictorial representations of electric fields due to static charges 1
on the plane of a paper.
Study the given electric field representation and identify one INCORRECT
qualitative impression given by this representation.
(a) The electric field at point A is stronger than at point B.

(b) The electric field distribution is two-dimensional.
(c) The electric field at point C is zero.
(d) The electric field always points away from a positive charge.
2. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E=Ar. 1
A charge contained in a sphere of radius 'a' centered at the origin of the field, will be
given by
(a) 4πϵ0Aa3 (b) Aϵ0a2 (c) ϵ0Aa3 (d) 4πϵ0Aa2
3. For a Gaussian surface through which the net flux is zero, the following statements 1
COULD be true.
P) No charges are inside the Gaussian surface.
Q) The net charge inside the surface is zero.
R) The electric field is zero everywhere on the surface.
S) The number of field lines entering is equal to the number of lines exiting the
surface. Which of the statements is/are DEFINITELY true?
(a) Only statement Q (b) Both statements P and S
(c) Both statements Q and R (d) Both statements Q and S
4. A charge q = +2 C is located at the center of a circle of radius 2 m. A unit positive test 1
charge is moved along the circle.
Identify the correct statement.

(a) Work done in moving a test charge from A to C is maximum.
(b) Work done in moving a test charge from A to B or from A to D is minimum.
(c) Work done in moving a test charge from A to B to C to D is more than from A
to D.
(d) Work done in moving a test charge between any two points along the circle is
zero.
5. The frequency of oscillation of an electric dipole moment having dipole moment p 1
and rotational inertia I, oscillating in a uniform electric field E is given by
(a) 2𝜋√𝐼 ⁄𝑝𝐸 (b) (1/2π)√𝐼 ⁄𝑝𝐸 (c) (1/2π)√𝑝𝐸 ⁄𝐼 (d) 2𝜋√𝑝𝐸 ⁄𝐼
6. Two charges of −4 μC and +4 μC are placed at points A (1, 0, 4) and B (2,−1, 5) located 1
in an electric field E=20𝑖̂ V/m. The torque acting on the dipole is
(a) 2.31 x 10-4Nm (b) 1.13 x 10-4Nm (c) 8.0 x 10-4Nm (d) 3.04x 10-4Nm.
7. Twelve charges of charge q are situated at the corners of the 12 sided polygon of side 1
a. The net force on the charge Q at the centre
(a) Zero (b) 3qQ/πε0a2 (c) qQ/πε0a2 (d) None of the above
8. Two charges of equal magnitudes kept at a distance r exert a force F on each other. If 1
the charges are halved and distance between them is doubled, then the new force
acting on each charge is
(a) F/4 (b) F/8 (c) 4F (d) F/16
9. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field E due to a hollow 1
spherical conductor of radius R as a function of distance from the centre of
the sphere?
10 Four charges + 8Q, - 3Q +5Q and -10Q are kept inside a closed surface. What will be 1
the outgoing flux through the surface?
(a) 26 Vm (b) 0 Vm (c) 10 Vm (d) 8 Vm
11 Four charges are arranged at the comers of a square ABCD, as shown. The 1
force on the charge kept at the centre O is
(a) zero (b) along the diagonal AC

(c) along the diagonal BD (d) perpendicular to side AB
12 The total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge q is 1
placed at corner A of the cube is
(a) q/8𝜀 0 (b) q/4𝜀 0 (c) q/2𝜀 0 (d) q/𝜀 0

In the questions 13 to 16 below, two statements are given. One is labelled as Assertion and the
other one is labelled as the Reason. Select the correct option provided below that applies best for
the statements.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True And Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are False.
13 Assertion: Net electric field inside a conductor is zero. 1
Reason: Total positive charge equals to total negative charge in a charged conductor.
14 Assertion: Electric flux through closed spherical surface enclosing an electric dipole 1
is zero.
Reason: Net charge enclosed inside a spherical surface when a dipole is inside it is
zero.
15 Assertion (A): On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an electric 1
field, it returns back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
Reason(R): A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable
equilibrium.
16 Assertion (A): A point charge is brought in an electric field, the field at a nearby 1
point will increase or decrease, depending on the nature of charge.
Reason (R): The electric field is independent of the nature of charge.
17 A uniformly charged rod with linear charge density λ of length L is inserted into a 2
hollow cubical structure of side ’L’ with constant velocity and moves out from the
opposite face. Draw the graph between flux and time. What is the significance of the
slope of the graph?
18 Draw a graph showing the variation of electric field (y-axis) with distance along the 2
axial line (x axis) of a dipole, by choosing the mid-point of the dipole as the origin.
19 A long solid non conducting cylinder of radius R is charged such that the volume 2
charge density is proportional to r, where r is the distance from the axis. How does the
electric field E at a distance r (r < R) depend on r?
20 If a point charge of 12 micro coulomb is at a distance 6 cm vertically above the centre 2
of a square of side 12 cm as shown in the figure, find electric flux passing through the
square:
21. A metallic spherical shell has an inner radiusa and outer radius b has a charge Q. A 3
charge q is placed at the centre of the spherical cavity.
(a) What will be surface charge density on i) the inner surface ii) the outer surface
of the shell?
(b) Is the electric field inside a cavity (with no charge) zero, even if the shell is not
spherical, but has any irregular shape? Explain.
22. Two charged sheets having charge density 2σ and -σ are placed parallel and close to 3
each other in a vertical plane as shown in the figure. A particle having positive charge
q and mass m is placed between these sheets and released from rest under gravity.
What is the acceleration of this particle?
23. A very small uncharged metal-coated Styrofoam ball is suspended in the region 3
between two parallel oppositely charged metallic plates. A uniform electric field
exists between the two plates. Describe the motion of the ball when it is brought into
contact with one of the plates.
24 A particle of charge 2µC and mass 1.6g is moving with a velocity 4î ms-1. At t = 0 the 3
particles enters in a region having an electric field E (in N C-1) = 80î + 60ĵ. Find the
velocity of particle at t = 5s.
25 Given is a line of charge of uniform linear density. A charge +q is distributed 3
uniformly between y = 0 and y = a and charge –q is distributed uniformly between y
= 0 and y = -a. Explain how the direction of the resultant electric field at point P can
be obtained. Represent using a vector diagram.
26 A hollow cube of side 5cm encloses a charge of 6C at its centre. What is the net flux 3
through one of the square face of cube? How would flux through square face change
if 6C charge is placed as 4C and 2C inside the cube at two different points?
27. Coulomb’s law: This law is a quantitative statement of about the force between two- 4
point charges. When the linear sizes of charged bodies are much smaller than the
distance between them, their sizes may be ignored and the charge bodies are called
point charges. After retiring from his active services as a military engineer in 1776,
Coulomb discovered a torsion balance to measure a small quantity of force and used
it for determination of forces of attraction or repulsion between small charged
spheres. He thus arrived in 1785 at the inverse square law relation, now known as
Coulomb’s law. He found that the force between two-point charges varied inversely
with the square of the distance between the charges and was directly proportional to
the product of the magnitude of the charges and acted along the line joining the two
charges. Coulomb’s law is an electrical analogue of Newton’s Universal law of
Gravitation in mechanics. | F1| = |F2| = k (q1 x q2) / r2
Answer the following questions
(i) Identify the wrong statement in the following: Coulomb’s law correctly
describes the electric force that
(a) binds the electrons of an atom to its nucleus.
(b) binds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
(c) binds atoms together to form molecules.
(d) binds atoms and molecules to form solids.
(ii) Two charges 3 x 10-5C and 5 x 104C are placed at a distance 10cm from each
other. The value of electrostatic force acting between them is
(a) 13.5 x 1011 N (b) 40 X 1011 N
(c) 180 x 109 N (d) 13.5 x 1010 N
(iii) Each of two point charges is doubled and their distance is halved. Force of
interaction becomes n times, where n is
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 18 (d) 16
(iv) The minimum value of force acting between two point charges placed 1 m apart
from one another is
(a) ke2 (b) ke (c) ke/4 (d) ke2 /2
OR
A and B are two identical spherical charged bodies which repel each other with
force F, kept at a finite distance. A third uncharged sphere of same size is
brought in contact with sphere B and removed. It is then kept at a mid-point of
A and B. Find the magnitude of the force on C.
(a) F/2 (b) F/8 (c) F (d) Zero
28 Electric field strength is proportional to the density of lines of force i.e., electric field 4
strength at a point is proportional to the number of lines of force cutting a unit area
element placed normal to the field at that point. As illustrated in given figure, the
electric field at P is stronger than at Q.
(i) Electric field lines are curved

(a) in the field of a single positive or negative charge
(b) in the field of two equal and opposite charges.
(c) in the field of two like charges.
(d) both (b) and (c)
(ii) Electric lines of force about a positive point charge are
(a) radially outwards (b) circular clockwise
(c) radially inwards (d) parallel straight lines
(iii) Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?
(a) They always start from positive charge and terminate on negative charges.
(b) They are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged conductor.
(c) They always form closed loops.
(d) They are parallel and equally spaced in a region of uniform electric field.
(iv) At ‘Electrical Neutral Point’ the lines of force
(a) Are absent (b) Coincide with each other
(c) Always converge (d) Always diverge
OR
It is observed that N number of field lines come out perpendicularly from the
unit surface area of the sphere of radius R. What is the amount of charge inside
the sphere? ∈ is the dielectric constant of the medium.
(a) -4πR2 N∈ (b) 4πR2 N∈ (c) 4πR2/Nϵ (d) –4πR2N/ϵ
29. Total charge -Q is uniformly spread along the length of a ring of radius R. What is the 5
force acting on a small test charge +q of mass m is kept at the centre of the ring. Now
if test charge is given a gentle push along the axis of the ring then
(a) Show that the test charge will execute a simple harmonic oscillation.
(b) Obtain its time period.
(c) For what distance from the centre, the test charge will experience maximum
force?
30. (a) Use Gauss’ law to derive the expression for the electric field (E) due to a 5
straight uniformly charged infinite line of charge density λ C/m.
(b) Draw a graph to show the variation of E with perpendicular distance r from the
line of charge.
(c) Find the work done in bringing a charge q from perpendicular distance r1to r2
(r2> r1).
31 (a) A charge of 10 C each is given to two spherical conductors A and B. The 5
volumes of A and B are in ratio of 1:3. When A and B are connected by a
conducting wire, show that it is impossible for the charge to flow from B to A.
(b)
32 (a) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q on its surface. A 5
point charge Q/2 is placed at its center C and another charge +2Q is placed
outside the shell at a distance x from the center as shown in the figure. Find (i)
the force on the charge at the center of shell and at the point A, (ii) the electric
flux through the shell.
Show graphically plot of E(r) with r.

D.A.V.INSTITUTIONS, WB ZONE
MARKING SCHEME
Class: XII Chapter no.:-1
Subject: Physics Chapter Name:-Electric Charges and Fields
Q. No. Value Points Marks

1. (b) The electric field distribution is two-dimensional. 1
2. (a) 4πϵ0Aa 3
1
3. (d) Both statements Q and S 1
4. (d) Work done in moving a test charge between any two points along the circle is 1
zero.
5. (c) (1/2π)√𝑝𝐸 ⁄𝐼 1
6. (b) 1.13 x 10-4N-m 1
7 (a) Zero 1
8 (d) F/16 1
9 (a) 1
10 (b) 0 Vm 1
11 (c) along the diagonal BD 1
12 (a) q/8𝜀 0 1
13 c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 1
14 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of 1
Assertion.
15 (a) ) Both Assertion and Reason are True And Reason is the correct explanation of the 1
Assertion.
16 (d) Both Assertion and Reason are False. 1
17 2
18 2
19
Using Gauss’s theorem :

1
20 1
12  10–6

6  8.85  10–12
   226 103 Nm2/C 1
21 (a) +Q charge is lies on the outer surface of the shell.
Charge q is placed at the centre, it induces a charge −q on the inner surface and 2
charge +q on the outer surface of the shell.
Total charge on the inner surface=−q
σ1=−q/4πa2
Total charge on the outer surface=Q+q
σ2=(Q+q)/4πb2
(b) Yes
The electric field intensity inside a cavity is zero, even if the shell is not spherical and 1
has any irregular shape. Take a closed loop such that a part of it is inside the cavity
along a field line while the rest is inside the conductor. Net work done by the field in
carrying a test charge over a closed loop is zero because the field inside the conductor
is zero. Hence, electric field is zero, whatever is the shape.
22 Acceleration of the particle a=Fnet/m
Fnet = Electric force (Fe) + Gravitational force (W) 1
Here, Electric force Fe=qE Where, E = Electric field. Magnitude of electric field due
to a thin charged sheet is given by σ/2∈0, where σ is its surface charge density. Thus,
E = Electric field between the sheets = 2σ/2∈0 + σ/2∈0 = 3σ/2∈0 (As fields due to both 1
the sheets are in the same direction so they add up)
Thus, Fe = qE = 3σq/2∈0 and W = mg. Now, as both the forces are in opposite
direction, thus Fnet = 3qσ/2∈0 - mg 1
Acceleration a = Fnet/m = 3qσ/2m∈0 – g
23.
1
24
1½
1½
25 3
26 6  10–6
Flux  
6  8.85  10–12
2
   113 103 Nm2/C
No Change 1
27 (i) b 1
(ii) a 1
(iii) d 1
(iv) a OR c 1
28 (i) (d) 1
(ii) (a) 1
(iii) (c) 1
(iv) (a) OR (b) 1
29 a) 5
(b)When x2<<R2, then the
(c) The electric field will be maximum when dE/dX=0 --> X=𝑅⁄√2
30 (i)
1
31 (a) The greater volume of sphere B corresponds to a greater radius. So for the same 2
charge given to the two spherical conductors, the conductor with a smaller radius,
that is, B is at the lower potential. It is impossible for the charge to flow from B to
A
32
(b)
1
D.A.V. INSTITUTIONS, WB ZONE
QUESTION BANK
Class: XII Chapter no.: 02
Subject: Physics Chapter: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
1 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C 1
having a charge Q and area A, is
(a) independent of the distance between the plates
(b) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
(c) proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates
(d) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
2 In a certain region of space with volume 0.1 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V 1
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is
(a) zero (b) 0.5 N/C (c) 1 N/C (d) 5 N/C
3 Two point charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as shown in the figure. A third 1
charge q3 is moved along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in
𝑞3 𝐾
the potential energy of the system is 4𝜋𝜖 , where k is
°
(a) 8q1 (b) 6q1 (c) 8q2 (d) 6q2
4 The graph shows the variation of electric potential with distance from a fixed point. The 1
electric field in V/m at points x =0.5m, x =2m and x =3.5m respectively are
(a) +4, +2, -4 (b) -6, 2, +6 (c) +4, 0, -4 (d) -4, 0, +4
5 Two isolated and identical metal plates are given charge Q and q respectively. They are 1
now brought very close to form a parallel plate capacitor with capacitance C. The
potential difference between the plates is
(a) (Q-q) /2C (b) (Q-q) /C (c) 2(Q-q) /C (d) (Q-q) /4C
6 Two capacitors C and 3C are connected as shown in figure, Initially, key K is open and 1
capacitor C holds charge Q = 12μC. After closing the key K, the charge on each
capacitor at steady state will be
(a) 3μC, 3µc (b) 3μC, 9μC (c) 9μC, 9μC (d) 12μC, 4μC
7 A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart 1
(a) the capacitance increases
(b) the potential differences increase
(c) the total charge increases
(d) the charge & potential difference remain the same
8 Three capacitors are connected in triangle as shown in the figure. The 1
equivalent capacitance between the points A and C is
(a) 1µF (b) 2 µF (c) 3 µF (d) 1/4µF

9 1
In the above figure if a positive charge is moved from A to B ,

(a) In all cases work done is same (b) minimum work is done in (i)
(c) maximum work is done in (ii) (d) maximum work is done in (iii)
10 If a conductor has a potential V ≠ 0 and there are no charges anywhere else outside, 1
then
(a) there must be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(b) there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
(c) there must be charges only on the surface.
(d) there must be charges inside the surface.
11 Four positive charges of equal magnitude are organized into a square with a side length 1
a. What is the Electric Potential at the centreof the square?
(a) 0 (b) 4Kq/a (c) 8√2Kq/a (d) 4√2Kq/a
12 A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged so that the potential on its surface is 1
10 V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is
(a) 0 V
(b) 10 V
(c) Same as at point 5 cm away from the surface
(d) Same as at point 25 cm away from the surface
In the questions 13 to 16 below, two statements are given. One is labelled as Assertion and the other
one is labelled as the Reason. Select the correct option provided below that applies best for the
statements.
13 Assertion: Two conductors share charges till they reach a common potential. 1
Reason: The entire charge of a conductor cannot be transferred to another isolated
conductor.
14 Assertion: The electric potential is constant everywhere inside a charged conductor and 1
is equal to its value at the surface.
Reason: The electric field is perpendicular to the charged surface.
15 Assertion (A): A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. 1
A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy
which is stored becomes K times.
Reason (R): The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.
16 Assertion (A): If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and 1
dielectric constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
Reason (R): Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material
of the dielectric.
17 Would the electric field be necessarily zero at point where the electric potential is zero? 2
Use suitable diagram to explain your answer.
18 Na+ and Cl- are kept separately at point A. It is then displaced a little along + y- 2
direction and left. Which of the two charge is in stable and unstable equilibrium and
why?
19. A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor. 2
What is its effect on the capacitance of the capacitor?
20 Figure shows two identical capacitors C1 and C2, each of 2 µF capacitance, connected to 2
a battery of 5 V. Initially switch ‘S’ is closed. After sometime the switch ‘S’ is left open
and dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K = 5 are inserted to fill completely the space
between the plates of the two capacitors. (i) How will the charge and (ii) potential
difference between the plates of the capacitors be affected after the slabs are inserted?
21 (a) Evaluate the percentage change of capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with 3
dielectrics as shown in figure. Given K = 2.
(b) What would be the answer if dielectric is replaced by conducting plates.

22 Four capacitors, each of capacitance 4μF are connected to a battery of voltage 10V as 3
shown in figure.
(i) Calculate the ratio of potential energy stored in C1 and C2.

(ii) Calculate the amount of charge which will flow through the battery, when a copper
plate is inserted in capacitor C2 touching both the plates of capacitor.
23 (a) Can there be potential difference between two conductors of same volume carrying 3
equal positive charges?
(b) A metal foil of negligible thickness is introduced between the plates of a parallel
plate capacitor. What will be its new capacitance?
(c) Figure shows a part of network of a capacitor and resistors. The potential indicated
at A, B and C are with respect to the ground. Find the charge on the capacitor (in
μC) in steady state.
24 A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The 3

charge stored in it is 300 µC. When potential across the capacitor is reduced by 100 V,
the charge stored in it becomes 100 C. Calculate the potential V and the unknown
capacitance. What will be the charge stored in the capacitor if the voltage applied had
increased by 100 V?
25 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential difference V. It 3

is disconnected from battery and then connected to another uncharged capacitor of the
same capacitance. Calculate the ratio of the energy stored in the combination to the
initial energy on the single capacitor.
26 Calculate the potential difference and the energy stored in the capacitor C2 in the 3
circuit shown in the figure.
Given potential at A is 90 V, C1 = 20 µF, C2 = 30 µF and C3 = 15 µF.
27 Capacitance is the property of an electric conductor, or set of conductors, to store 4
energy in the form of an electrical charge. Capacitance depends only on the geometrical
configuration of the system of two conductors and on the nature of the dielectric
separating the two conductors. Polarization in dielectrics reduces net electric field due to
induced electric dipole moment, which is proportional to the applied field.
(i) The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend on:

(a) the shape of the plates (b) the size of the plates
(c) the charges on the plates (d) the separation between the plates
(ii) Energy per unit volume for a capacitor having area A and separation d kept at
potential difference V with dielectric medium (K) is given by:
(a) (1/2) εo V2/d2 (b) (1/2 εo )V2/d2
(c) (1/2) εo KV2/d2 (d) (1/2 K εo)V2/d2
(iii) Electric field inside the capacitor is 50 V/m and the dielectric constant = 4.5. The
polarization is:
(a) 225𝜀0 C/m2 (b) 175𝜀0 C/m2 (c) 225𝜀0 C/m3 (d) 175𝜀0 C/m3
(iv) Capacitor is charged with a battery and energy stored is U. After disconnecting
battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first
capacitor. Then energy stored in each capacitor is
(a) U/2 (b) U/4 (c) 4U (d) 2U
OR
A system of two capacitors of capacitance 2 µF and 4 µF is connected in series
across a potential difference of 6V. the energy stored in a system is
(a) 3 µJ (b) 24 µJ (c) 30 µJ (d) 108 µJ 33
28 The capacitance of a capacitor is a constant and depends on geometric factors, such as 4

the shapes, sizes and relative positions of the two conductors, and the nature of the
medium between them. The unit of capacitance is farad (F), but the more convenient
units are µF and pF. A commonly used capacitor consists of two long strips or metal
foils, separated by two long strips of dielectrics, rolled up into a small cylinder.
Common dielectric materials are plastics (such as polyesters and polycarbonates) and
aluminum oxide. Capacitors are widely used in radio, television, computer, and other
electric circuits.
(i) A parallel plate capacitor C has a charge Q. The actual charge on its plates are
(a) Q,Q (b) Q/2, Q/2 (c) Q ,-Q (d) Q/2, -Q/2
(ii) The work done in placing a charge of 8x10 -18 C on a condenser of capacity 100
microfarad is
(a) 3.1x10-26 joule (b) 4x10-10 joule
(c) 32x10 -32 joule (d) 16x10 -32 joule
(iii) A capacitor works in
(a) A.C. circuits (b) D.C. circuits
(c) both A.C and D.C. circuits (d) analog circuits
OR
A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated. The effect of increasing the
plate separation on charge, potential and capacitance respectively are
(a) Increases, decreases, decreases (b) Constant, increases, decreases
(c) Constant, decreases, decreases (d) Constant, decreases, increases
iv) In a charged capacitor energy is stored in
(a) the negative charges (b) the positive charges
( c) both (a) and (b) (d) field between the plates
29 (a) Potential difference which is a scalar function of distance in an electric field can be 5
expressed in term of vector quantity electric field. Obtain a relation establishing the
above statement.
(b) Calculate the work done by the electric field in moving a charge -1µC from (i) B to
E and (ii) B to D.
A set of equipotential surfaces

(c) Draw direction of electric field passing through the points A, E and D respectively.
30 Obtain an expression for potential energy stored inside a capacitor. 5

The figure shows a capacitor having three layers of equal thickness and same area as
that of plates of capacitor. The layer I is vacuum, layer II is conductor and layer III is
dielectric of dielectric constant K = 3. A constant potential difference is maintained
across the plates of capacitor.
(i) Calculate the ratio of energy stored in region I to the total energy stored in
capacitor.
(ii) Draw the graph showing the variation of (a) electric field and (b) electric potential
inside the capacitor as one move from positive plate to the negative plate.
31 (a) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V by a battery. 5
Without disconnecting the battery, the distance between the plates is tripled and a
dielectric medium of k = 10 is introduced between the plates of the capacitor.
Explain giving reasons, how will the following be affected:
(i) capacitance of the capacitor
(ii) charge on the capacitance.
(b) The plates of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium are separated by a
distance of 8 mm. A medium of dielectric constant 2 and thickness 4 mm having
the same area is introduced between the plates. The distance between the plates of
the capacitor is changed such that the capacitance remains the same. Find the new
distance between the plates of the capacitor.
32 (a) A proton (e) approaches a short fixed electric dipole (p) moving along the dipole 5
axis as shown in the figure. At a large distance from the dipole, the kinetic energy
of the proton was K0 = 400 eV. The graph below shows the variation of kinetic
energy (K) of the proton at points close to the dipole. Find the value of r0 (r0>>
length of the dipole).
In the graph r is the distance from the centre of the dipole.

(b) 8 A parallel plate capacitor is given as in the diagram. A small ball is suspended by
an insulated thread in the space between the plates of the capacitor. The thread
makes an angle θ with the vertical at equilibrium.
What is the potential difference between the capacitor plates?

MARKING SCHEME
Subject: Physics Chapter: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
1 (a) independent of the distance between the plates 1
2 (a) zero 1
3 (c) 8q2 1
4 (c) +4, 0, -4 1
5 (a) (Q-q) /2C 1
6 (b) 3μC, 9μC 1
7 (b) the potential differences increase 1
8 (b) 2 µF 1
9 (a) In all cases work done is same 1
10 (a) there must be charges on the surface or inside itself. 1
11 (d) 4√2Kq/a 1
12 (b) 10 V 1
13 (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 1
14 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of 1
Assertion.
17 No, in case of electric dipole at equatorial plane potential is zero but electric field is 1
finite.
Diagram 1
18 Negative ion is in stable equilibrium due to attractive forces it may come back 1
its potential energy is minimum.
Positive ion is in unstable equilibrium due to repulsive forces it never return come back 1
its potential energy is maximum.
19 By introducing the metal plate between the plates of charged capacitor, the capacitance 2
of capacitor increases. As C=AεO /d-t(1- 1/𝐾 ). For metal plate K is infinite so
Obviously, effective separation between plates is decreased from d to (d – t)
20 When switch S is closed, the charge of the two capacitors q1 = q2 = 2 F x 5V = 10 C.

The potential difference across the two capacitors V1 = V2 = 5V
(i) When switch S is opened C1  C2  5  2F  10F 1
The charge of first capacitor will be q1  C1  V  10  5C  50C
The charge of second capacitor will be q2  q2  10C
(ii) Potential difference across the plate of first capacitor V1  V  5V
V 5
Potential difference across the plate of second capacitor V2    1Volt 1
K 5
21 (a) case I- increases by 33.3%
Initial capacitance C = ϵoA/d 0.5
When it is half filIed by a dielectric of dielectric constant K= 2, then
C1= ϵoA/(d/2)= 2C and 0.5
C2=2KϵoA/d =4C are in series
equivalent C’= (2C×4C)/(2C+4C)=4C/3
Hence % increase in capacitance [(4C/3−C)/C]×100=100/3%=33.3%
Case II – increses by 50% 0.5
When it is half filIed by a dielectric of dielectric constant K= 2, then
C1=ϵo(A/2)/d= C/2
C2=KϵoA/2d = C 0.5
are in parallel equivalent
C’=C/2+C or C’= 3C/2
Hence % increase in capacitance
[(3C/2−C)/C]×100=50/3 =50%
(b) C2 =∞ (Infinite), Case I, % increase = 200%, Case II, path becomes conducting 1
22 (i) C = 3μF, q = CV=30μC, V1=q/C1=7.5V, V2=2.5V 1
U1/U2 =(C1/ C2)x(V1/ V2)2=9/1 1
(ii) When copper plate is inserted C2 becomes conducting (short circuited) 0.5
q`= C1V = 40μC, Extra charge = 10μC 0.5
23 (a) Yes, due to different shape capacitance may vary. 1
(b) no change, explanation 1
(c) In the steady state the capacitor is fully charged so no current will pass through
resistor 8Ω. 0.5
Let the potential at the junction be V.
As sum of the currents at junction =0
(4−V)/4 + (6−V)/2 +(8−V)/4 =0
V = 6 volts
So, the voltage across the capacitor is 4 V.
Thus charge on the capacitor is Q=CV=1×10−6×4 = 4μC 0.5
24 When potential difference = V, Charge q = 300 µC 2
When potential difference = (V-100), Charge q  =100 µC
300  10–6 100  10–6
As the capacitance remains same  , Solving V =150 Volt
V V – 100
The Capacitance C = 300C /150 V =2F
The Charge of the capacitor when the potential difference is increased by 100 V is
Q = 2F x 250 Volt = 500C 1
2
25 Energy of the single capacitor U1 = ½CV 1
CV  0 V
The new potential difference across the combination = V   
2C 2
2
1 V 2 CV 2
The energy across the combination U    2C  
2 4 4
U 1
Ratio of energy of the combination to that of the single capacitor = 
U 2
26 Since these capacitors are connected in series, net capacitance will be 20/ 3 µF 1
Charge on each capacitor q = CV =600µC Potential difference across the
capacitor C2 V2= 20 v
Energy stored in capacitor across C2 2
E2= 6000J
27 (i) (c) the charges on the plates (ii) (c) (1/2) εo KV2/d2 1x4= 4
(iii) (b) 175𝜀0 C/m2 (iv) (b) U/4 OR (b) 24 µJ
28 (i) (c) (ii) (c) (iii) (c) (iii) OR (b)Constant, increases, decreases (iv) (d) 1x4 =4
29 (a) Derive E = - dv/dr 2
(b) W= qV, (i) Zero (equipotential surface), (ii) -40μJ 1½
(c) 1½
30 Derivation 2
(i) (i) Take CI = C, CII =∞, CIII= 3C are in series so q= const. and Ctotal= 3C/4 1
U = (1/2) q2/C, UI/Utotal= CI/ Ctotal= 4/3 1
(ii)
1
31 a) b) 2 +3
32 a) Given: Initial kinetic energy of proton = K0 = 400 eV As the proton approaches the 3
dipole its kinetic energy reduces and the potential energy increases, however, the
total energy is conserved. Electric potential due to the dipole at axial point =
p/4π∈0r2 Let P and K be the potential and kinetic energy of the proton at any
instant, respectively. From the graph, at r = 0.2 m, K = 100 eV Applying
conservation of energy: K + P = K0 100 + ep/(4π∈0 x 0.22) = 400 This implies
ep/4π∈0 = 300 × 0.22 = 12 At r = r0 the kinetic energy is zero and thus we have,
ep/4π∈0r02 = 400 12/r02 = 400 r20 = 12/400 r0 = √3/10 m ≈ 0.17 m
b) At equilibrium, the forces on the ball are balanced along x-axis and y-axis. Let T be 2
the tension in the thread.
Dividing, tanθ = qE/mg E = mg tanθ/q

Potential difference V= Ed = mgd tanθ/q
QUESTION BANK
Subject: PHYSICS Chapter: Current Electricity

1. Two wires of equal diameters of resistivity 𝝆1 and𝝆2 and of length l1 andl2 are 1
connected in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is:
𝜌1𝑙1 + 𝜌2𝑙2 𝜌1𝑙1 +𝜌2𝑙2 𝜌1𝑙2 + 𝜌2𝑙1 𝜌1𝑙1 −𝜌2𝑙2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑙1+𝑙2 𝑙1−𝑙2 𝑙1+𝑙2 𝑙1−𝑙2
2. 1
V vs I graph for a cell is given in the adjoined diagram. The internal resistance of the
cell would be:
a) 0.2 A (b) 0.4 A (c) 0.8 A (d) 1A
3. Figure represents a part of closed circuit. The potential difference between points A 1
and B (VA- VB) is
(a) +9 V (b) -9 V (c) +3 V (d) +6 V

4. A piece of iron and another of silicon are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The 1
resistance of
(a) each of them increases (b) each of them decreases
(c) iron increases and silicon decreases (d) iron decreases and silicon increases
5. A student connects an ammeter A and a voltmeter V to measure a resistance R as 1
shown in figure. If the voltmeter reads 20 V and the ammeter reads 4 A, then R is
(a) equal to 5 Ω (b) greater than 5 Ω

(c) less than 5 Ω (d) greater or less than 5Ω depending upon the direction of current
6. A steady current flow in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. Which of 1
the following quantities is constant along the conductor?
a) Electric field (b) Drift velocity (c) Current (d) Current density.
7. If a wire is stretched to “n” times of its original length, it’s new resistance will be – 1
(a) R/n (b) nR (c) 𝑛2 R (d) n/R
8 ⃗ 4 −2
The current density at a point is 𝐽 = (2×10 𝑗̂)𝐴𝑚 . Find the rate of flow of charge 1
through a cross sectional area S = (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂) 𝑐𝑚2
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 15 (d) 20
9 The current density varies with radial distance r as J=a𝑟 2 , in a cylindrical wire of 1
radius R. The current passing through the wire between radial distance R/3 and R/2 is
81𝜋𝑎2 𝑅 4 65𝜋𝑎1 𝑅 4 65𝜋𝑎2 𝑅 4 81𝜋𝑎2 𝑅 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
144 2592 2938 72
10 Current I versus time t graph through a conductor is shown in the figure. Average 1
current through the conductor in the interval 0 to 15s is:
(a) 1A (b) 10 A (c) 7.5 A (d) 5 A

11 Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal resistance r1 and r2 respectively are connected 1
in series to an external resistor R (see figure). The value of R, at which the potential
difference across the terminals of the first cell becomes zero is
(a) r1 - r2 (b) r1 + r2 (c) (r1/2) + r2 (d) (r1/2) - r2

12 The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have resistances as shown in the figure. A 1
galvanometer of 15 resistance is connected across BD. Calculate the current through
the galvanometer when a potential difference of 10 V is maintained across AC.
(a) 4.87 mA (b) 4.87 µA (c) 2.44 µA (d) 2.44mA

statements.
13 Assertion (A): In meter bridge experiment a high resistance is connected in series with 1
the galvanometer.
Reason (R): As resistance increases, current through the circuit increases.
14 Assertion (A): current flows in a conductor only when there is an electric field within 1
the conductor.
Reason(R): The electric field decreases the drift velocity of electrons in the conductor.
15 Assertion (A): The resistivity of conductors increases with an increase in temperature. 1
Reason (A): The drift speed of electrons decreases with an increase in temperature.
16 Assertion (A): When Wheatstone bridge is balanced then current through cell depends 1
on resistance of galvanometer.
Reason (R): At balanced condition current through galvanometer is zero.
17 A conductor of length ‘l’ is connected to a DC source of potential difference V. If 2
length of the conductor is tripled by gradually stretching it, by keeping V constant,
how will
(i) Drift speed of electrons and
(ii) Resistance of the conductor is affected? Justify your answer.
18. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r, is connected across a variable load resistor R. 2
Draw the plots of the terminal voltage V vs. (i) resistance R (ii) current I.
19 In the circuit the cells are of emfs 30 V and 10 V, 2
determine which of the two points, P or Q is at
higher potential.
20 The image below shows two circuits (I and II) 2

consisting of a battery, a bulb, and a switch.
a) What is the difference in the working of
the bulb in the two circuits when the
switch is opened and closed?
b) Which circuit is preferred and why?
21. Define internal resistance of a cell. 3
In the figure shown, an ammeter A and a
resistor of 4Ω are connected to the terminals of
the source. The emf of the source is 12 V
having internal resistance of 2Ω. Calculate the
voltmeter and ammeter readings.
22. Find the potential difference across each cell 3
and the rate of energy dissipation in R.
23 Find the emf and internal resistance of a single 3

battery which is equivalent to a combination of
all three batteries in the adjoin diagram.
24 The image below shows a three-way bulb that

can glow at three different brightness. The bulb 3
is rated to operate at 120 V power supply.
Determine how the bulb can have three different
brightness’s. Determine the Total current
through the circuit which causes the bulb to
glow in each of the Three cases.
25 Find the change in power dissipated in the 4 Ω resistor after the switch S is closed. 3
26 In an electric circuit shown, a network of 3

resistors is connected across a cell of emf 2V
and internal resistance 0.5 ohm.
a) What is the total current drawn from the
battery by the circuit?
b) What is the power consumed by the circuit
from the battery?
27. In 1845, a German physicist, Gustav Kirchhoff, developed a pair of laws that deal with
the conservation of current and energy within electrical circuits. These two laws are
commonly known as Kirchhoff’s Voltage and Current Law. These laws help calculate
the electrical resistance of a complex network or impedance in the case of AC and the
current flow in different network streams. Let us look at what these laws state.
According to the Kirchhoff’s First Law or Junction rule, the total of the currents in a
junction is equal to the sum of currents outside the junction in a circuit.
According to Kirchhoff’s Second Law or loop rule, the sum of the voltages around the
closed loop is equal to null.
(i) Which among the following is true?
(a) According to Kirchhoff’s law, the current flowing towards a junction is equal
to the voltage drop
(b) According to Kirchhoff’s law, the current flowing towards a junction is equal
to the resistance across the junction
(c) According to Kirchhoff’s law, the current flowing towards a junction is equal
to the current leaving the junction
(d) According to Kirchhoff’s law, the current flowing towards a junction is equal
to all the currents in the circuit
(ii) Find the false statement
(a) Sum of voltage over any closed loop is zero
(b) Kirchhoff’s Laws can be applied to any circuit, regardless of its structure and
Composition
(c) Kirchhoff’s 2nd law is applied at nodes
(d) Kirchhoff’s 1st law can be applied for both planar and non-planar circuits
(iii) Which is the extension for ‘Conservation of Charge’?
(a) Kirchhoff’s Law of Current (b) Kirchhoff’s law of Voltage
(c) Kirchhoff’s Loop Rule (d) Kirchhoff’s Impedance
OR
The figure below shows current in a part of an electric circuit. The value of
current ‘i’ is
(a) 1 ampere (b) 1.3 ampere (c) 3.7 ampere (d) 1.7 ampere
(iv) Calculate potential difference (Vx -Vy).
(a) 4.275v (b) -4.275v (c) 4.527v (d) -4.527v

28. An ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in series to a battery with an emf of 10V. 4
When a certain resistance is connected in parallel with the voltmeter, the reading of the
voltmeter decreases three times, whereas the reading of the ammeter increases two
times.
(i) Find the voltmeter reading after the connection of the resistance.
(a) 1V (b) 2V (c) 3V (d) 4V
(ii) If the resistance of the ammeter is 2 ohm, then the resistance of the voltmeter is:
(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) 3 ohm (d) 4 ohm
(iii) An Ammeter should have __________
(a) Low resistance for accurate measurement of potential difference
(b) Low resistance for accurate measurement of current.
(c) High resistance for accurate measurement of potential difference
(d) High resistance for accurate measurement of current
OR
A voltmeter should have _____________
(a) Low resistance for accurate measurement of potential difference
(b) Low resistance for accurate measurement of current.
(c) High resistance for accurate measurement of potential difference
(d) High resistance for accurate measurement of current
(iv) If the resistance of ammeter is 2 ohm, then resistance of the resistor which is
added in Parallel to the voltmeter is
(a) ⅗ ohm (b) 2/7 ohm (c) 3/7 ohm (d) None of the above
29. a) State the principle and three application of meter bridge. 5
b) In a meter bridge, null point is at 20 cm. When the known résistance R is shunted
by 10 Ω resistance, null point is found to be shifted by10 cm. Find the unknown
resistance X.
30. Define Relaxation time ‘𝜏′in drift velocity. State the factors affecting Relaxation time. 5
Calculate the drift speed of the electrons when 1 A of current exists in a copper wire of
cross-section 1 mm2. The number of free electrons in 1 cm3 of copper is 8.5 × 1022.
31 For a current-carrying conductor of changing diameter as shown below, how does each 5
of the following quantities vary along the two ends of conductors with area of cross
sections A1 and A2? Give an explanation for each.
1) Current
2) Current density
3) Resistance
4) Potential drop
32 i) Space between two concentric conducting spheres of radii a and b (a < b) is filled 5
with a medium of resistivity ρ. Find the resistance between the two spheres.
ii) What will happen to the resistivity of a conductor if temperature is increased?
Give reason.
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: PHYSICS Chapter: Current Electricity

1 𝜌1𝑙1 + 𝜌2𝑙2 1
a) 𝑙1+𝑙2
2 b) 0.4 A 1
3 a) +9 V 1
4 d) iron decreases and silicon increases 1
5 c) less than 5 Ω 1
6 c) current 1
7 c) 1
8 a) 1
9 b) 1
10 d) 1
11 d) 1
12 a) 1
13 c) A is true but R is false. 1
14 c) A is true but R is false. 1
15 a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation 1
16 d) Assertion is false and reason is true 1
17 𝑉 1
Here V= constant, lf= 3l. vd=𝑛𝑒𝑙𝜌
1
So, vd𝞪 𝑙 , new drift speed will be 1/3
As lf= 3l then, Af= A/3 1
And Rf = 9R
18 1
19 Applying Kirchhoff’s rule (in clockwise direction):

30 – 30I – 10 - 15I – 5I – 10I = 0, 1
where I is the current through the loop. Calculating I, I = 1/3 A
Across points P and Q:
VP – VQ = -30 +30 x 1/3 = -20 volt
VQ = VP + 20 1
VQ> VP
20 a) Circuit I - the bulb glows when the switch is closed and does not glow when the ½
switch is open. Circuit II - the bulb glows when the switch is open and does not glow
when the switch is closed. ½
(b) Circuit I is preferred because current flows in circuit I only when the switch is
closed.
In circuit II, current flows both when the switch is opened and closed. This causes a
wastage of energy. (OR)
In circuit II, when the switch is closed, the battery might get damaged due to short- 1
circuiting.
21 Proper Definition. 1
emf E = 12 V
Internal resistance r = 2 Ω
External resistance R= 4 Ω 1
Ammeter Reading, I = E/ (R + r) = 12/6 ∴ I = 2 A
Voltmeter Reading, V = E – Ir = 12 – (2 × 2) ∴ V = 8 V 1
22
Applying KVL in loop ADCBA 1

12=6I1 + 4I2----------------------------------(1)
Applying KVL in loop ADEFA
6=4I1+ 5I2------------------------------------(2)
I1= 18/7 A, I2= - 6/7 A
P.d across each cell= P.d across R is, V= (I1+ I2) R = 48/7 V 1
Energy dissipation across R is, P= 576/49 J or 11.75 J 1
𝐸1 𝐸2
23 −
𝑟1 𝑟2
Equivalent of 10V and 4 V is 𝐸𝑒𝑞 = 1 1 = 3V 1
+
𝑟1 𝑟2
1 1 1
= 𝑟 + 𝑟 = 1Ω 1
𝑟𝑒𝑞 1 2
The equivalent emf of all cell is (6 – 3) V or 3 V

The net internal resistance will be (1+ 1) or 2 Ω 1
24 Case (i) - when switch S1 is closed, only the 75 W filament glows. ½

Current through the circuit = P/V = 75/120 = 0.625 A ½
Case (ii) - when switch S2 is closed, only 100 W filament glows. ½
Current through the circuit = P/V = 100/120 = 0.833 A ½
Case (iii) - when both switches are closed, both 75 W and 100 W filament glow. ½
Current through the circuit = 0.625 + 0.833 = 1.458 A ½
25 When the switch is off, the current through the 4 Ω resistor is I = 12 V/12 Ω = 1 A. ½
Power dissipated = I2R = 4 W. Now, when the switch is closed, let the current in
various branches of the circuit be as shown in the image. ½
Applying KVL in loop 1
4I1-2I2 = 4, 2I1-I2=2 ...(i)
Applying KVL In loop 2
-8I-2I2+8=0, 4I+I2=4, 4(I1+I2) +I2=4, 4I1+5I2=4… (ii)
from (i) and (ii) 1
I1 = 1 A ½
The current through the 4 Ω resistor is the same even after the switch is closed, so
there will be no change in power dissipated in the 4 Ω resistor. ½
26 Applying the principle of resistors in parallel and series:
Req = 4/3-ohm Current is drawn from the cell due to total Resistance = 4/3 ohm + 1
0.5 ohm in series = 11/6 ohm
V = R I So current drawn from the cell 1
I = 2 x 6/11 = 12/11 A ≈ 1.1
(b) Power consumed by the circuit = I2R = (12/11)2. (11/6) = 24/11 = 2.2 W 1
27 (i) c) According to Kirchhoff’s law, the current flowing towards 1
a junction is equal to the current leaving the junction
(ii) c) Kirchhoff’s 2nd law is applied at nodes. 1
(iii) a) Kirchhoff’s Law of Current 1
OR
(iii) d) 1.7 ampere
(iv) b) -4.275 V 1
28 (i) b) 2 1
(ii) c) 3ohm 1
(iii) b) Low resistance for accurate measurement of current. 1
OR
(iii) c) High resistance for accurate measurement of potential difference
(iv) a) ⅗ ohm 1
29 Statement ½
Applications.
(100 − 𝑙) 80 112
𝑋= 𝑅= = 4𝑅
𝑙 20
When known resistance R is shunted, its net resistance will decrease 1
(100 − 𝑙′) ′ 90 10𝑅
𝑋= 𝑅 = = 9𝑅 ′ , 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑅 ′ =
𝑙′ 10 10 + 𝑅
So, 4𝑅 = 9𝑅′. After Solving R= 50/4Ω, 1

Hence X = 50Ω 1
30 Statement 1
Any two factors 1x2
n= 8.5 × 1022 ×106= 8.5 × 1028 per m3 1
I=neAvd or Vd= I /neA =7.2× 10-5 m/s 1
31 i. Current: It remains the same along the length of the conductor. This is as per ½
Kirchhoff’s junction rule. Charge cannot collect at any point along the length of the ½
conductor.
ii. Current density J varies inversely with area cross section of the conductor. As J =
I/A, more the area cross section, less is the current density, for a constant current ½
through the conductor. ½
iii. Resistance varies inversely with area cross section of the wire. R of the wire at
broader parts will be lesser than along narrower part. ½
iv. Potential drop across two ends of the entire length of the conductor is as provided ½
by the power source. The potential drop across different equal parts along the length
of the wire varies in direct proportion to the resistance. Potential drop at narrower end 1
will be more than at broader end (Resistance at narrower end is more than at broader
end) 1
32 a) 3
GIVEN, resistivity of medium = ρ

We know that the elemental resistance can be given as;
(𝜌)(𝑑𝑋)
dR = 4𝜋𝑥 2
for complete system
𝑏 𝑑𝑥
∫ 𝑑𝑅 = ρ ∫𝑎 4𝜋𝑥 2
𝜌 1 1
R = 4𝜋 ( 𝑎 − 𝑏)
2
b) on increasing the temperature, the relaxation time will decrease.
𝑚
ρ = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏
as, relaxation time is inversely proportional to resistivity

so, resistivity will be increased
QUESTION BANK
Subject: Physics Chapter: Moving Charges and Magnetism

1. An electric current passes through a long straight wire. At a distance of 5 cm from the 1
wire, the magnetic field is B The magnetic field at 20 cm from the straight wire would be
𝐵 𝐵 𝐵 𝐵
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 4 3 2
2. 1
A current of 10A is passing through a long wire which has semicircular loop of the radius
20 cm as shown in the figure. Magnetic field produced at the centre of the loop is:
(a) 10 π μT (b) 5 π μT (c) 20 π μT (d) 0 μT
3. A proton and an alpha particle of the same velocity enter in a uniform magnetic field 1
which is acting perpendicular to their direction of motion. The ratio of the radii of the
circular paths described by the alpha particle and proton is
(a) 1:4 (b) 4:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
4. Two parallel, long wires are kept 0.20 m apart in vacuum, each carrying current of x A 1
in the same direction. If the force of attraction per metre of each wire is 2 x 10 - 6 N,
then the value of x is approximately.
(a) √2 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 2π
5. What is the net force on the rectangular coil ? 1
(a) 25 x 10-7 N towards wire
(b) 25×10-7 N away from wire
(c) 35×10-7 N towards wire
(d) 35×10-7 N away from wire
6. If the number of turns in a moving coil galvanometer is increased, its current sensitivity 1
(a) increases (b) remains same (c) decreases (d) data incomplete
7. A conductor has three segments; two straights of length L and a semicircular with radius 1
R. It carries a current I What is the magnetic field B at point P?
μ0I μ0I μ0I μ0I

(𝑎) (b) (c) (d)
4𝜋𝑅 4𝑅 𝜋𝑅 2𝜋𝑅
8. The force between two parallel current carrying conductors is F. If the current in each 1
conductor is doubled, then the force between them becomes
(a) 4F (b) 2F (с) F (d) F/4
9. A 100 turns coil shown in figure carries a current of 2 amp in a magnetic field 0.2 1
Wb/m2. The torque acting on the coil is
(a) 0.32 N-m tending to rotate the side AD into the page
(b) 0.32 N-m tending to rotate the side AD out of the page
(c) 0.64 N-m tending to rotate the side AD into the page
(d) 0.64 N-m tending to rotate the side AD out of the page
10. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the 1
magnitude of the magnetic field B with the distance d from the Centre of the conductor,
is correctly represented by the figure:
11. In a uniform magnetic field, an electron enters perpendicular to the field. The path of 1
electron will be
(a) ellipse (b) Circular (c) Parabolic (d) linear
12. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle if they carry same 1
current, ratio of magnetic moment is:
(a) 2: π (b) π :2 (с) п:4 (d) 4: π
statements.
13. Assertion: Electric field intensity of charged circular ring of radius a is maximum at a 1
/√2 along the axial point.
Reason: Magnetic field intensity of current carrying circular ring of radius a is also
𝑎
maximum at √2along the axial point.
14. Assertion: The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent 1
of its length and cross-sectional area.
Reason: The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform
15. Assertion: Magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its 1
length and cross-sectional area.
Reason: There is a uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid.
16. Assertion: Gauss's theorem is not applicable in magnetism. 1
Reason: Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
17. (i) Draw the magnetic field due to a straight current carrying conductor of uniform 2
cross section of radius a.
(ii) At which point of the above current conductor the magnetic field will be maximum
and minimum.
18. Two particles A and B of masses m and 2m have charges q and 2q respectively. Both 2
these particles moving with velocities 𝑣1 and 𝑣2 respectively in the same direction, enter
the same magnetic field B acting normal to their directions of motion. If the two forces
FA and FB acting on them are in the ratio 1:2. Find ratio of their velocities.
19. A galvanometer of resistance ‘G’ can be converted into a voltmeter of range (0-V) volts 2
by connecting a resistance ‘R’ in series with it. How much resistance will be required to
𝑉
change its range from 0 to 2 ?
20. A current loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in the following orientations (1) 2
and (2). Calculate the magnetic moment in each case.
21. A proton and an alpha particle enter at right angles into a uniform magnetic field of 3
intensity B. Calculate the ratio of the radii of their paths, when they enter the field with
the (i) same momentum (ii) same kinetic energy.
22. (i)A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter of certain range by connecting a 3
resistance of 980 Ω in series with it. When the resistance is 470 Ω connected in series,
the range is halved. Find the resistance of the galvanometer.
(ii) Why is it necessary to use a cylindrical soft iron core in a galvanometer?
23. The magnetic field B due to a current-carrying circular loop of radius 12 cm at its centre 3
is 0.50 × 10 -4 T. Find the magnetic field due to this loop at a point on the axis at a
distance of 5.0 cm from the centre.
24. A long straight wire AB carries a current I. A proton P levels with a speed V, parallel 3
to the wire at a distance d from it in a direction opposite to the current. What is the
force experienced by the proton and what is its direction?
25. A wire AB is carrying a steady current of 6 A and is lying on the table. Another wire 3
CD carrying 4 A is held directly above AB at a height of 1 mm. Find the mass per unit
length of the wire CD so that it remains suspended at its position when left free. Give
the direction of the current flowing in CD with respect to that in AB. [Take the value of
g=10 ms-2 ]
26. A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of 3
0.40 A.
a) What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the Centre of the coil ?
b) What is the direction of the field.
27. Case Study Based Question: 4
A galvanometer is a device used to detect current in an electric circuit. It cannot as such
be used as an ammeter to measure current in a given circuit. This is because a
galvanometer is a very sensitive device, it gives a full-scale deflection for a current of
the order of µA. Moreover, for measuring currents, the galvanometer has to be
connected in series, and it has a large resistance, this will change the value of current in
the circuit. To overcome these difficulties, we connect a small resistance Rs called shunt
resistance, in parallel with the galvanometer coil, so that most of the current passes
through the shunt. Now to use galvanometer as a voltmeter, it has to be connected in
parallel with the circuit element across which we need to measure p.d. Moreover, it
must draw a very small current, otherwise it will appreciably change the voltage which
we are measuring. To ensure this a large resistance R is connected in series with the
galvanometer.
(i) A sensitive galvanometer like a moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an
ammeter or a voltmeter by connecting a proper resistance to it. Which of the
following statements is true?
(a) A voltmeter is connected in parallel and current through it is negligible.
(b) An ammeter is connected in parallel and potential difference across it is small
(c) voltmeter is connected in series and potential difference across it is small
(d) An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit and the current through it is
negligible.
(ii) By mistake a voltmeter is connected in series and an ammeter is connected in
parallel with a resistance in an electrical circuit. What will happen to the
instruments?
(a) Voltmeter is damaged. (b) Ammeter is damaged
(c) Both are damaged (d) None is damaged
(iii) Two identical galvanometers are converted into an ammeter and a milliammeter.
Resistance of the shunt of milliammeter through which the current passes through
will be
(a) More (b) Equal (c) Less (d) Zero
OR
A voltmeter of resistance 2000 Ω, 0.5 volt is to be converted into a voltmeter to
read 2/div. The value of high resistance to be converted in series with it is
(a) 6000 Ω (b) 4000 Ω (c) 5000Ω (d) 1000 Ω
(iv) A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15Ω and gives full scale deflection for a
current of 4 mA. To convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A
(a) 10 m Ω resistance is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer.
(b) 10 m Ω resistance is to be connected in series with the galvanometer.
(c) 0.1Ω resistance is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer.
(d) 0.1Ω resistance is to be connected in series to the galvanometer.
28. Case Study Based Question: 4
The magnetic field strength of a solenoid having n turns is B =μ onI where, I is the
current flowing in the solenoid, n is number of turns per unit length and μo is the
permeability of free space.
(i) A long solenoid has 400 turns per meter and it is used as an electromagnet. If 1.5A
current is flowing through it, what is the strength of the electromagnet
(a) 0.008 T (b) 0.4 T (c) 0.6T (d) 0.007 T
(ii) Solenoid has length L, N turns and carrying a current I, what will be the magnetic
field inside the solenoid
𝜇
(a) μonIL (b) 0𝐿𝑛𝐼 (c) μonL2 (d) zero
(iii) The strength of magnetic field in a solenoid cannot be affected by
(a) Increasing its length (b) Decreasing the value of current
(c) Decreasing the number of turns (d) None of these
OR
The nature of magnetic field lines passing through the current carrying solenoid is
(a) Closed loop (b) Discontinuous curve
(c) Straight line (d) None of these
(iv) The strength of magnetic field outside a solenoid is
(a) Infinity (b) Zero
(c) Double the value of field inside (d) Half the value of the field inside
29. A student records the following data for the magnitudes(B) of the magnetic field at axial 5
points at different distances x from the centre of the circular coil of radius ‘a’ carrying a
current I. Verify that these observations are in good agreement with the expected
theoretical variation of B with x.
X X= 0 X= a X= 2a X= 3a
B B0 0.25√2B0 0.039√5B0 0.010√10B0
30. (i) Draw the variation of magnetic field along the axis of circular current loop. At 5
which point the magnetic field intensity is maximum for the current carrying loop?
(ii) A long straight solid conductor of radius 4 cm carries a current of 2 A, which is
uniformly distributed over its circular cross-section. Find the magnetic field at a
distance of 3 cm from the axis of the conductor.
31. (i) (a) State the principle of working of a galvanometer. 5
(b) A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure up to
V volts by connecting a resistance R1 in series with the coil. If a resistance R2
is connected in series with it then it can measure up to V/2 volts. Find the
resistance, in terms of R1 and R2, required to be connected to convert it into a
voltmeter that can read up to 2 V. Also find the resistance G of the
galvanometer in terms of R1 and R2 .
(ii) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer may not necessarily increase
its voltage sensitivity.” Justify the statement.
32. (i) A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm carrying a current of 6.0 A is suspended 5
vertically in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines
make an angle of with the normal of the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the counter
torque that must be applied to prevent the coil from turning.
(ii) Would your answer change, if the circular coil in (a) were replaced by a planar coil of
some irregular shape that encloses the same area? (All other particulars are also
unaltered.)
MARKING SCHEME
Class: XII Chapter no. : 4
Subject: Physics Chapter: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Q.No. Value Points Marks
1. 𝐵
b. 1
4
2. b. 5 π μT 1
3. c. 2:1 1
4. a. √2 1
5. a. 25 x 10−7N towards wire 1
6. A 1
7. μ0𝐼
b) 1
4𝑅
8. a) 4F 1
9. b) 0.32 N-m tending to rotate the side AD out of the page. 1
10. a) 1
11. b) circular 1
12. c) п:4 1
13. C 1
14. B 1
15. b) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
1
Explanation of the assertion(A).
16. a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason(R) is the correct Explanation
1
of the assertion(A).
17. Max at surface
Min along axis 2
18. F = qvB
𝑣1 1
2
= 2.2 =1
𝑣2
19. Given: resistance of galvanometer = G Ω
Range of voltmeter (𝑅𝐿 )= (0-V) volts
Resistance to be connected in parallel= R
𝑅 ′ =?
where range is (0-V/2) volts
𝑉
In the first case ig= 𝑅+𝐺….(i)
𝑉 2
In the second case ig= 𝑅′ 2+𝐺 …. (ii)
[ 𝑖𝑔 is the maximum current which can flow through galvanometer]
From equation (i) and (ii) on solving we get
𝑅−𝐺
𝑅′ =
2
20. Orientations (1): −mB
2
Orientations (1): Zero
21. (i) Centripetal force on a charged particle =mv2/r Magnetic force acting on
particle=qvBsin90=qvB
As centripetal force is provided by the magnetic force mv2/r =qvBsin90°,
r = mv / qB= p / qB
For same momentum p and field B
rp/ rα = 2:1
3
(ii) Kinetic energy K = ½ mv , v = √( 2K/m)
2
r = mv/ qB = √( 2mK)/ qB
r ∝√m/q
rp/ rα = 1:1
(For same kinetic energy K and same momentum)
22. i. Ig=V/(Rg+980)
Ig= (V/2) /(Rg+470)
∴Rg = 40Ω
3
ii. maximum torque is obtained and torque is uniform in all the positions of the moving
coil galvanometer. This increase the strength of the magnetic field and hence increase
the sensitivity of the galvanometer.
23. At centre, B0 = μ i/ 2a
At an axial point is B = μ i a2/ 2(a2 + x2 )3/2
3
B / B0 = a3/ (a2 + x2 )3/2
B = 3.9 × 10 – 5 T
24. Magnetic field due to the straight wire AB at a perpendicular, distance r from
𝜇0 𝐼
В=2𝜋𝑟
Therefore, force on proton moving with velocity 'v' perpendicular to B, is 3
𝜇0 𝐼𝑞𝑣
F= qvВ = 2𝜋𝑟
The direction of force on proton acts in plane of paper towards right.
25. Weight per unit length of the wire must be supported
by magnetic force per unit length.
𝑚 𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2 3
= 2𝜋𝑟𝑔
𝑙
= 48 x10-5 kg/m
26. μ0 NI (4𝜋∗10−7 )(100)(0.4)
Magnetic field at the centre of the coil is, B = 2𝑟 = = 3.14×10−4 T 3
2∗8∗10−2
Direction of the field will be perpendicular to the plane of the coil.
27. i. a 1
ii. d 1
iii. a OR a 1
iv. a 1
28. i. (d) B = 𝜇0nI 1
ii. (b) Derivation of magnetic field inside a solenoid. 1
iii. (d) B = 𝜇0 nI OR(a) 1
iv. (b) The magnetic field outside the solenoid is so weak that it is taken to be zero 1
29. Formula
Verification of each observation 5
30. (i) graph, At center

(ii)Current enclosed by the loop of radius r, 𝐼’= I × πr2 / πR2 5
Using Ampere’s circuital law, BL= μ I’ or, B×2πR = μIr2/R2 or B = μIr/2πR2 = 7.5 ×
10 – 6 T
31. i. (a) Galvanometer works on the principle of torque on a coil carrying current in a
magnetic field. The torque acting on the coil is proportional to the magnitude of
electric current. The coils connected to a pointer and the pointer of the galvanometer is
calibrated to show correct deflection on a scale.
(b) Let the resistance of the galvanometer be 𝑅𝐺
Let the max. current carrying capacity be I.
From the given data,
V = I (𝑅𝐺 + 𝑅1 )
V/2 = I (𝑅𝐺 + 𝑅2 )
From the equations,
5
2 = (𝑅𝐺 + 𝑅1 )/ (𝑅𝐺 + 𝑅2 )
𝑅𝐺 = (𝑅1 - 𝑅2 )
Let the resistance required to read 2V be R3
2V = I (𝑅𝐺 + 𝑅3 )
R3 = (𝑅𝐺 + 2𝑅1)
ii. Due to deflecting torque, the coil rotates and suspension wire gets twisted. A
restoring torque is set in the suspension wire NIBA = kθ (In equilibrium) I=kθ/(NBA) .
I = Gθ Where, G= k/(NBA). It is known as galvanometer constant. θ/I = NBA/k
Therefore, current sensitivity of the galvanometer is the deflection per unit current. θ/V
= (NBA/k). (I/V) = (NBA/k). 1/R
32. i. Area =𝜋 r2 ,𝜏=BINA sin α =3.133 N-m
ii. It can be inferred from relation (i) that the magnitude of the applied torque is not
dependent on the shape of the coil. It depends on the area of the coil. Hence, the answer
5
would not change if the circular coil in the above case is replaced by a planar coil of
some irregular shape that encloses the same area.
QUESTIONS BANK
Class: XII Chapter no.:5
Subject: Physics Chapter Name: Magnetism and Matter
1. If a diamagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field the magnetic field inside the 1
material compared to the outside will be
(a) Slightly less (b) Slightly more (c) Very high (d) Same
2 Magnetic permeability is maximum for 1
(a) Ferromagnetic substances (b) Diamagnetic substances
(c) Para magnetic substances (d) All of these
3 The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is χ at 270C . At what temperature will its 1
𝛘
susceptibility be2?
(a) 540 C (b) 3270 C (c) 2370 C (d) 16000 C
4 The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic field 1
at the centre of the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the
current constant, the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B 2 . the ratio B1 / B 2 is
(a) 2 (b) √3 (c) √2 (d) 1/√2
5 A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires √3 J of work to turn 1
it through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
(a) 2√3 J (b) 3 J (c) √3 J (d) 1.5 J
6 A 25 cm long solenoid has radius 2 cm and 500 total number of turns. It carries a 1
current of 15 A. If it is equivalent to bar magnet of the same size and magnetization M,
(Magnetic moment / volume), then the value of M is
(a) 300 π Am-1 (
b) 3π Am-1 (c) 30000 Am (d) 30000 Am-1
7 The SI unit of magnetic pole strength is 1
(a) ampere/metre2 (b) ampere –meter (c) ampere-meter2 (d) ampere2 /meter
8 The torque acting on a magnet with magnetic dipole moment M at an angle 𝜃 with the 1
magnetic field B is
(a) τ = MBcosθ (b) τ = MB sin θ (c) τ = MB tan θ (d) No torque acting
9 Magnetic lines of force 1
(a) Emanate from N- pole and enter into S- pole
(b) Emanate from S- pole and enter intoN- pole
(c) Emanate from S pole to infinity
(d) Emanate from N pole to infinity
10 The domain formation is a necessary feature of 1
(a) Diamagnetism (b) Paramagnetism (c) ferromagnetism (d) All of these
11 Susceptibility is positive for 1
(a) paramagnetic substances (b) diamagnetic substances
(c) non- magnetic substances (d) all of the above
12 Current flows through uniform, square frames as shown in the figure. In which case is 1
the magnetic field at the centre of the frame not zero?
In the questions 13 to 16 below, two statements are given. One is labelled as

Assertion and the other one is labelled as the Reason. Select the correct option
provided below that applies best for the statements.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True And Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation
of the Assertion.
13 Assertion: When radius of a circular loop carrying current is doubled, its magnetic 1
moment becomes four times.
Reason: Magnetic moment depends on the area of the loop
14 Assertion: Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism. 1
Reason: Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.
15 Assertion: Difference between an electric line and magnetic line of force is that 1
electric lines of force are discontinuous and the magnetic field lines are continuous.
Reason: Electric lines of forces do not exist inside a charged conductor but magnetic
lines exist inside a magnet.
16 Assertion: A diamagnetic specimen would move towards the weaker region of the 1
field.
Reason: A diamagnetic specimen is attracted by a magnet.
17 A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 JT–1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform 2
magnetic field of 0.22 T.
(a) What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet so as
to align its magnetic moment
(i) normal to the field direction?
(ii) opposite to the field direction?
(b) What is the torque on the magnet in cases (i) and (ii)?
18 A uniform magnetic field get modified as shown in below when two specimens X&Y 2
are placed in it. (i) Identify the two specimens X&Y. (ii) State the reason for the
behaviour of the field lines in X&Y.
19 Write two points of differences between diamagnetic paramagnetic and ferromagnetic 2

material.
20 Derive an expression for torque acting on a magnetic dipole placed in a uniform 2
magnetic field.
21 Two similar bars, made from two different materials P and Q, are placed one by one, in 3
a non-uniform magnetic field. It is observed that a) bar P tends to move from the strong
to the weak field region. b) bar Q tends to move from the weak to the strong field
region. Identify the magnetic material used for making these two bars. Show with the
help of diagrams, the behaviour of the field lines, due to an external magnetic field,
near each of these two bars
22 Which of the following substances are diamagnetic : 3
i. Bi, Na, Al , Cu, Ca, and Ni
ii. Does a bar magnet exert a torque on itself due to its own field? Justify your answer.
iii The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 0.9853, identify the type of magnetic
material.
23 (i) A coil of N turns and radius R carries a current I. It is unwound and rewound to 3
𝑅
make another coil of radius 2 , current remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of
the magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil.
(ii) The susceptibility of a magnetic material is - 2.6 × 10 -5. Identify the type of
magnetic material and state its one property.
24 A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.9JT-1 is placed with its axis at 30° to a 3
uniform magnetic field. It experiences a torque of 0.063J. Calculate (i) the magnitude
of the magnetic field (ii) in which orientation the bar magnet will be in stable
equilibrium?
25 i. Define the term magnetic susceptibility and write its relation in terms of relative 3
magnetic permeability.
ii. Two magnetic materials A and B have relative magnetic permeabilities of 0.96 and
500. Identify the magnetic materials A and B.
26 i. What is the name given to the curves, the tangent to which at any point gives the 3
direction of magnetic field at that point?
ii. Can two such curves intersect each other? Justify your answer.
27 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS: 4
These magnetic substances are categorized into two groups. Weak magnetic materials
are called diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials. Strong magnetic materials are
called ferromagnetic materials. According to the modern theory of magnetism, the
magnetic response of any material is due to circulating electrons in the atoms. Each
such electron has a magnetic moment in a direction perpendicular to the plane of
circulation. In magnetic materials all these magnetic moments due to the orbital and
spin motion of all the electrons in any atom, vectorially add upto a resultant magnetic
moment. The magnitude and direction of these resultant magnetic moment is
responsible for the behaviour of the materials. For diamagnetic materials χ is small and
negative and for paramagnetic materialsχ is smalland positive. Ferromagnetic
materials have large χ and are characterised by non-linear relation between B and H.
(i) The universal (or inherent) property among all substances is
(a) diamagnetism (b) paramagnetism
(c) ferromagnetism (d) both (a) & (b)
(ii) When a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the
material of bar is
(a) Diamagnetic (b) ferromagnetic
(c) Paramagnetic (d) anti-ferromagnetic.
(iii) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) decreases with temperature
(b) is not affected by temperature
(c) Increases with temperature
(d) First increases then decreases with temperature.
OR
The maximum value of permeability (µ)- of a material (77% Ni, 16% Fe, 5% Cu,
2% Cr) is 0.126 TmA-1. The maximum relative permeability is
(a) 1.0 × 105 (b) 1.0 × 10-5 (c) 0 (d) 4π × 107
(iv) For a paramagnetic substance, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility χ on
the absolute temperature is given as
(a) χ∝ T (b) χ∝ 1/T2 (c) χ∝ T-1 (d) independent
28 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION: 4
Before nineteenth century, scientists believed that magnetic properties were confined
to a few materials like iron, cobalt and nickel. But in 1846, Curie and Faraday
discovered that all the materials in the universe are magnetic to some extent. These
magnetic substances are categorized into two groups. Weak magnetic materials are
called diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials. Strong magnetic materials are called
ferromagnetic materials. According to the modern theory of magnetism, the magnetic
response of any material is due to circulating electrons in the atoms. Each such
electron has a magnetic moment in a direction perpendicular to the plane of
circulation. In magnetic materials all these magnetic moments due to the orbital and
spin motion of all the electrons in any atom, vectorially add upto a resultant magnetic
moment. The magnitude and direction of these resultant magnetic moment is
responsible for the behaviour of the materials. For diamagnetic materials X is small
and negative and for paramagnetic materials X is small and positive. Ferromagnetic
materials have large X and are characterized by nonlinear relation between B and H.
(i) The universal (or inherent) property among all substances is
(a) Diamagnetism (b) Paramagnetism
(c) Ferromagnetism (d) Both (a) and (b)
(ii) When a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the
material of bar is
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic
(c) Paramagnetic (d) Anti-ferromagnetic
(iii) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) Decreases with temperature
(b) Is not affected by temperature
(c) Increases with temperature
(d) First increases then decreases with temperature
OR
Which of the following is weakly repelled by a magnetic field
(a) Iron (b) Cobalt (c) Steel (d)Copper
(iv) The value of the magnetic susceptibility for a super conductor is
(a) Zero (b) Infinity (c) +1 (d) -1
29 (i) Show that a current-carrying solenoid behaves like a small bar magnet. Obtain the 5
expression for the magnetic field at an external point lying on its axis.
(ii) A steady current of 2 A flows through a circular coil having 5 turns of radius 7 cm.
The coil lies in XY-plane with its centre at the origin. Find the magnitude and
direction of the magnetic dipole moment of the coil.
30 (i) A long solenoid with air core has n turns per unit length and carries a current I. 5
Using Ampere's circuital law, derive an expression for the magnetic field B at an
interior point on its axis. Write an expression for magnetising intensity H in the
interior of the solenoid.
(ii) A (small) bar of material, having magnetic susceptibility χ, is now put along the
axis and near the centre, of the solenoid which is carrying a d.c. current through its
coils. After some time, the bar is taken out and suspended freely with an unspun
thread. Will the bar orient itself in magnetic meridian if (a) χ< 0(b) χ>1000 ?
31 (i) Two magnets of magnetic moments m and √3m are joined to form a cross (+).The 5
combination is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field. In equilibrium
position the magnet of magnetic moment m makes an angle 𝜃 with the field. Find
𝜃.
(ii) A coil of N turns and radius R carries a current I It is unwound and rewound to
𝑅
make another coil of radius 2 , current I remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of
magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil.
32 Explain the following – 5
(i) Why are the field lines repelled when a diamagnetic material is placed in an
external uniform magnetic field?
(ii) Draw the magnetic field lines for a current carrying solenoid, when a rod made of
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium (c) Iron are inserted within the solenoid.
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: Physics Chapter: Magnetism and Matter

1. A 1
2 A 1
3 B 1
4 C 1
5 B 1
6 D 1
7 b) ampere –meter 1
8 b) τ = MB sin θ 1
9 a) Emanate from N- pole and enter into S- pole 1
10 c) ferromagnetism 1
11 a) paramagnetic substances 1
12 c) 1
13 A 1
14 C 1
15 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1
16 (c) A is true but R is false. 1
17 (i) Here m=1.5J/T, 2
B=0.22T
(a) W=−m B(cos θ2−cos θ1)
(i) θ1=0° (along the field)
θ2=90° (perpendicular to the field)
W=−0.33(0−1)J =0.33 J
(ii) θ1=0°, θ2=180°
W=−1.5×0.22(cos180°−cos0°)=0.66 J
b)Torque =mBsinθ
(i) θ=90∘
⟹τ=0.33 Nm
(ii) τ=mBsin180∘
=0Nm θ1=0°
18 i) X is a diamagnetic specimen while Y is a paramagnetic specimen. 2
(ii) When a diamagnetic bar is placed in a magnetic field, the field lines are repelled or
expelled and the field inside the material is reduced.
When a paramagnetic bar is placed in a magnetic field, The field lines get
concentrated inside the material and hence the field is increased
19 Any two difference 2
20 Diagram 2
Derivation τ = MB sin θ
21 a. Diamagnetic 3
b. Paramagnetic
Diagrams
22 I. Bi and Cu are diamagnetic substances 3
II. A bar magnet does not exert a torque on itself due to its own field. This so because
there is no force or torque on an element due to its own field.
III. Given susceptibility χ = 0.9853 since susceptibility χ given is +ve and less than
unity i.e. χ magnetic material is paramagnetic material.
23 (i)If Lis the length of the wire, then L=N×2 πR= N’×2 πR/2 3
Number of turns in new coil, N’ = 2N
Original magnetic moment, M=NIA
New magnetic moment, M’ =N’ IA’ ( A’ = A/4)
M’ /M = 1:2.
(ii)As susceptibility is small and negative the material is diamagnetic.
Properties: they are feebly repelled by magnet.
susceptibility is negative and very small. Or any relevant answer.
24 (i) B= 𝜏 /𝑀𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 0.063 0.9𝑠𝑖𝑛30° =0.14T 3
(ii) When 𝜃 = 0° U= -MBcos 0° = -MB, hence, the potential energy of the bar magnet
will be minimum and it will be in stable equilibrium when it is parallel to the magnetic
field.
25 i. Magnetic Susceptibility: It is defined as the ratio of the magnetisation M to the 3
𝑀
magnetising field intensity H. It is denoted by χ𝑚 and χ𝑚 = 𝐻
Magnetic susceptibility in terms of magnetic permeability. χ𝑚 = 𝜇𝑟 − 1
ii. A is a diamagnetic material, B is a ferromagnetic material
26 i. These curves are magnetic field lines. No two such lines intersect each other. 3
ii. Two such curves never intersect each other, if they do so, then there will be two
directions at the point of intersection, which is not possible.
27 i. a 1
ii. a 1
iii. b 1
ORa
iv. c 1
28 i) (a) Diamagnetism 1
ii) (a)Diamagnetic 1
iii)(b) is not affected by temperature 1
OR(d)Copper
iv) (d) -1 1
29 (a) A solenoid may be regarded as a combination of large number of identical circular 5
current loops in which each turn behaves like a magnetic dipole. Hence, the current-
carrying solenoid will behave like a bar magnet.
Derivation
(b) m = ΝIπa² = 5×2×22×49×10-4
= 154×10-3 = 0.154 Am 2
The direction of m will be perpendicular to xy-plane or parallel to z-axis.
30 (i)Derivation 5
Magnetising field intensity in the interior of the solenoid, H=nI
(ii) (a) Not necessarily.
Reason. As χ<0, the material is diamagnetic. After its removal from the magnetising
field, no magnetisation will remain in the material and hence earth's magnetic field
will not affect it.
(b) Yes.
Reason. As χ>1000, the material is ferromagnetic. It will remain magnetised even
after its removal from the magnetising field of the solenoid and hence it will align
with the magnetic meridian.
31 i. Consider a magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet) SN of length 2l having South Pole at S 5
and North Pole at N. The strength of south and north poles are – 𝑞𝑚 each.
Magnetic moment of magnetic dipole m = 𝑞𝑚 × 2l, its direction is from S to N.
Consider a point P on the axis of magnetic dipole at a distance r from mid-point O of
dipole. The distance of point P from N-pole, 𝑟1 = (r – l).
The distance of point P from S-pole,𝑟2 = (r + l)
Let 𝐵1 and 𝐵2 be the magnetic field intensities at point P due to north and south poles
respectively.
The directions of magnetic field due to North Pole is away from N-pole and due to
South Pole is towards the S-pole.
ii. 𝐵1>𝐵2 and direction of resultant is from N to P and magnitude is given by
B = 𝐵1 - 𝐵2
2πR
ii. If L is the length of the wire L =N × 2𝜋R = N’ × 2
∴ No of turns in the new coil N’ = 2N
Original magnetic moment = M = NIA = NI × 𝜋𝑅 2
𝜋𝑅 2
New magnetic moment M’ = N’ I A’ = 2NI × ( 2 )
M’ 1
∴ =
𝑀 2
32 i. Diamagnetic materials are the materials whose atoms do not possess any permanent 5
magnetic dipole moment due to the presence of electrons that are paired with each
other, called paired electrons. This is the reason why when a diamagnetic material is
placed in an external magnetic field, the magnetic field lines are repelled. On the
application of an external magnetic field, it creates a magnetic field in the
diamagnetic material opposite to the direction of the applied field which causes a
repulsive force. This is the reason why when a diamagnetic material is placed in an
external magnetic field, the magnetic field lines are repelled.
ii. Magnetic field lines of a current carrying solenoid: When current passed through
the solenoid, it acts as bar magnet. One end of the solenoid acts as North Pole and
another end acts as South Pole. The magnetic field starts at North Pole and ends at
South Pole. The magnetic field lines are always parallel.
a. Copper: Copper is a diamagnetic material. The magnetic field produced by the
material is repulsive. Thus, the magnetic field lines diverge outward.
b. Aluminium: Aluminium is a paramagnetic material. The magnetic field is
strengthened around the material. Thus, the magnetic field of lines converges lightly.
c. Iron: Iron is a ferromagnetic material. The magnetic field is far strong around the
material. Thus, the magnetic field of lines converges heavily.
QUESTION BANK
Class: XII Chapter No.: 6
Subject: Physics Chapter: Electro Magnetic Induction
1 A wire of irregular shape in figure A and a circular loop of wire in figure B are placed 1
in different uniform magnetic field as shown in the figure.
The wire in figure A is turning into a circular loop as shown in figure C, and the loop
in figure B is turning into a narrow straight wire as shown in figure D.
The direction of induced current will be

(a) Clockwise in both figure C and figure D
(b) Anticlockwise in both figure C and figure D
(c) Clockwise in figure C and anticlockwise figure D
(d) Anticlockwise in figure C and clockwise figure D
2 A conducting rod PQ of a small resistance is moved at a constant velocity v under the 1
effect of a constant force F through a region of the constant magnetic field as shown.
Assume no energy losses.
If the emf induced across PQ is ε and a force F and power P is used to move the rod,
then which of the following graphs correctly represent ε, F, and P as a function of
speed v respectively?
(a) Graphs 5, 3 and 1 (b) Graphs 2, 4 and 5

(c) Graphs 4, 1 and 3 (d) Graphs 3, 2 and 4
3 Two identical conductors P and Q are placed on two frictionless rails R and S in a 1
uniform magnetic field directed into the plane. If P is moved in the direction as shown
in the figure with a constant speed, then rod Q
(a) will be attracted toward P

(b) will be repelled away from P
(c) will remain stationary
(d) may be repelled away or attracted towards P
4 The following graphs represent emf induced with the rate of change of current for two 1
different inductors
Which of the given options correctly represents the energy stored versus current
through these inductors?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
5 Magnetic flux linked with a stationary loop of resistance R varies with respect to time 1
during the time period T as follows:
Φ = 𝑎t(T - t).The amount of heat generated in the loop during that time is
𝑎𝑇 𝑎2 𝑇 2 𝑎2 𝑇 2 𝑎2 𝑇 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3𝑅 3𝑅 𝑅 3𝑅
6 A small coil of radius r is placed at the centre of a large coil of radius R, where R>>r. 1
The two coils are coplanar. The mutual inductance between the coils is proportional to
𝑟 𝑟2 𝑟2 𝑟
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅2 𝑅2
7 A coil having n turns and resistance having RΩ is connected with a galvanometer of 1

resistance 4R Ω. This combination is moved in time t seconds changing magnetic flux
from w1 weber to w2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
(a) (w1-w2) /5Rnt (b) –n(w2-w1) /5Rt (c) –(w2-w1) /Rnt (d) –n(w2-w1) /Rt
8 The current iin a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced 1
emf with time would be
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
9 A copper rod of length 100cm rotated vertically about one of its ends at angular 1
frequency 5rad/s. If the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 x 10 -
4
T. Then emf developed between the two ends of the rod is
(a) 5µv (b) 50µv (c) 500mv (d) 50mv
10 A rectangular loop with a sliding conductor of length 10 cm is situated in a uniform 1
magnetic field perpendicular to plane of loop. The magnetic induction is 0.1 T and
resistance of connector(R) is 1Ω. The sides AB and CD have resistances 2Ωand 3Ω
respectively. Find the current in the conductor during its motion with constant velocity
1 m/s.
1 1 1 1
(a) 220 A (b) 110 A (c) 440 A (d) 55 A
11 The equivalent inductance of two inductors is 2.4 H .When connected in parallel and 1
10H when connected in series. What is the value of inductances of the individual
inductors?
(a) 8H, 2H (b) 6H, 4H (c) 5H, 5H (d) 7H, 3H
12 A solenoid of length 30cm with 10 turns per centimetre and area of cross-section 40 1
cm2 completely surrounds another co-axial solenoid of same length area of cross-
section 20 cm2with 40 turns per centimetre. The mutual inductance of the system is
(a) 10H (b) 8H (C) 3mH (d) 30mH
statements.
13 Assertion (A): If the current Passing through a circular loop is doubled, then magnetic 1
flux linked with the circular loop will also become two times.
Reason(R): No flux will link through the coil by its own current.
14 Assertion (A): An emf is induced in closed loop where magnetic flux is varied. The 1
induced electric field 𝐸⃗⃗ is non conservative field.
Reason(R): The line integral ofE ⃗⃗⃗⃗ around the closed loop is non-zero.
⃗⃗.dl
15 Assertion: The self-inductance of a long solenoid is proportional to the area of cross 1

section and length of the solenoid
Reason: Self-inductance of a solenoid is independent of the no of turns per unit length.
16 Assertion: When the current in a coil changes, it induces a back emf in the same coil. 1
.Reason: Emf is a measure of the inertia of the coil against the change of current
through it.
17 Given three identical coils P, Q and R placed coaxially as shown. Equal and opposite 2
currents flow through the coils P and R.
(a) Coil P is moved to the right keeping the coils Q and R fixed.
(i) Will the flux linked with coil Q increase or decrease?
(ii) Using Lenz’s law, identify the direction of induced current through coil Q.
(b) Coil P is moved to the left keeping the coils Q and R fixed.
(i) Will the flux linked with coil Q increase or decrease?
(ii) Using Lenz’s law, identify the direction of induced current through coil Q.
18 Part of the wire belonging to the loop PQRS is bent into a semicircle of radius r = 0.2 2
m as shown in the diagram
Initially, the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field B = 0.5 T. Find the
change in the flux linked with the loop PQRS, when the wire PQ is rotated from the
starting position as shown in the figure to the final position attained after half a
rotation.
19 Two conducting circular loops of radii r1 and r2 are placed in the same plane with their 2
centres coinciding. Find the mutual inductance between them assuming r2≪r1.
20 Two identical rectangular loops (1) and (2) , placed on a table along with a straight 2
long current carrying conductor between them shown in this figure
(i) Show the direction of the induced currents in the loops when they are pulled away
from the conductor with same velocity v.
(ii) Will the emf induced in the two loops be equal? Justify your answer.
21 A long and an ideal solenoid of length l, radius R and number of turns N carries a 3
steady current I. Determine the flux linked with a circular surface C of radius r in each
of the following cases:
Fig-1: r > R, Plane of coil ⊥ axis of the solenoid

Fig-2: r < R, Plane of coil ⊥ axis of the solenoid
Fig-3: r >R, Normal to the plane of coil subtends an angle 300 with the axis of the
solenoid.
22 A conducting ring of radius 1 m is, placed in a uniform magnetic field B of 0.01 T, 3
oscillating with frequency 100 Hz with its plane at right angle to B. What will be the
induced electric field?
23 A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side 3
L(>>l). The loops are coplanar and they have common centre. Find the mutual
inductance of the system.
24 A simple ac generator having a constant magnetic field is connected to a resistive load. 3
Explain with reasons what will be the effects of doubling its speed of rotation on the
following:
(a) the frequency of rotation
(b) the generated emf and
(c) the mechanical power required to rotate the generator?
25 The magnetic flux through the loop shown in this figure changes according to the 3
relation φB =6t2+7t, where magnetic flux 𝜑 is in milliweber and t is in second.
(a) What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop when t=2.0 s?
(b) What is the direction of the current through R?
26 The figure shows planar loops of different shapes moving out of or into a region of a
magnetic field directed normal to the plane of the loop away from the reader. 3
Determine the direction of induced current in each loop using Lenz’s law
27 PQRS is a square region of side 2a in the plane of the paper. A uniform magnetic field 4
B, directed perpendicular to the plane of the paper and into its plane is confined within
this square region. A square loop of side ‘a’ and made of a conducting wire of
resistance R is moved at a constant velocity 𝑣⃗ from left to right in the plane of the
paper as shown. Obviously, the square loop will enter the magnetic field at some time
and then leave it after some time. During the motion of loop, whenever magnetic flux
through it changes, emf will be induced resulting in induced current. Let the motion of
the square loop be along x-axis i.e. from –ve x to +ve x with origin O, where x is the
distance between centre of two loops.
(i) For x =9a/5, magnitude of induced current and its direction as seen from above
will be,
Bav
(a) Bav , clockwise (b) R , clockwise
Bav
(c) zero (d) R , anticlockwise
(ii) External force required to maintain constant velocity of the loop for x = - 9a/5 will
be,
𝐵2 𝑎2 𝑣 2
(a) B2a2v2 to the right (b) to the right
𝑅
𝐵2 𝑎2 𝑣 2
(c) to the left (d) zero
𝑅
(iii) For x = -a, the magnetic flux through the loop and induced current in the loop are
𝐵𝑎2 𝐵𝑎𝑣
(a) and (b) Ba2 and zero
2 2𝑅
𝐵𝑎2 𝐵𝑎𝑣 𝐵𝑎𝑣
(c) 2 and 𝑅 (d) Ba2 and 4𝑅
(iv) External force required to maintain constant velocity of the loop for x = - a will be,
𝐵2 𝑎2 𝑣 2 𝐵2 𝑎2 𝑣 2 𝐵2 𝑎2 𝑣 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
𝑅 4𝑅 4𝑅 2
OR
At x = 0 the current in the loop is:
(a) 𝜋a2B/R (b) Zero (c) 𝜋a2B/4R (d) Bav/R
28 When a conducting wire ab of length l, resistance r and mass m slides through a

constant magnetic field between a smooth, vertical, thick pair of connected rails (as 4
shown in figure), an emf is induced in the wire, Uniform magnetic field B exists in the
space in the direction perpendicular to the plane of the rails.
(i) Induced emf in the wire at an instant t when the speed of the wire is v , is
(a) Blv/2 (b) Bvl (c) Bv2l (d) Bvl2
(ii) Magnitude of induced current in the wire is
(a) Bvl (b) BRv (c) Bvl/R (d) Bv2R2
(iii) Find the downward acceleration of the wire at the instant t
(a) g+ B2 l2v2/mR (b) g+ B2 l2v2/mv2 (c) g - B2 l2R/mv2 (d) g- B2 l2v/mR
(iv) After sufficient time, if the wire is moving with a constant velocity vm, then find
vm
mgR mgR2 m2 gl2
(a) (b) (c) B2 R2 (d) Zero
B2 l2 B2 l
OR
At steady state rate of production of heat is:
(a) B2 l2v/R (b) B2 l2v2R (c) B2 l2v2/R2 (d) B2 l2v2/R
29 A circular loop of conducting wire is placed in a time-varying magnetic field such that 5
the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The graph below represents
the variation of the magnetic field with time.
(a) In which time interval will the current induced in the coil be in the clockwise
direction? Give reason.
(b) Calculate the induced emf in the coil for the time interval t = 0s to t = 15s, if the
area of the loop is 5 × 10-4 m2.
(c) Graphically represent the induced emf as a function of time.
30 (a) Define the term self-inductance of a solenoid. Obtain an expression for the 5
magnetic energy stored in an inductor of self-inductance L to build up a current I
through it.
(b) A 1 m long conducting rod rotates with an angular frequency of 200 rad/s about an
axis normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in
contact with a circular metallic ring. A constant magnetic field 0.25 T parallel to the
axis exists everywhere. Find an expression for the induced emf between the centre and
the ring and then calculate the value of the induced emf from the given data.
31 (a) Derive an expression for self-inductance of a long solenoid of length ‘l’cross- 5
sectional area A having N number of turns.
(b) Two long coaxial solenoid, each of length ‘l’. The outer solenoid has an area of
cross-section A1 and number of turns per unit length n1. The corresponding values
for the inner solenoid are A2 and n2. Write the expression for self-inductances
L1,and L2 of the two coils and their mutual inductance M. Hence show that M<
√𝐿1 𝐿2 .
32 (a) A metal disc of radius Rrotates with an angular velocity 𝜔 about an axis
perpendicular to its plane passing through its centre in a magnetic field Bacting 5
normal to the plane of the disc. Find the magnitude of induced emf between the
rim and axis of the disc.
(b)
An airplanes with 20 m total wing spread is flying at 250 ms-1straight path parallel
to the earth’s surface. The earth’s magnetic field has a horizontal component
of2x10-5 Wb m-2 and the dip angle is 600 Calculate the induced emf between the
plane tips.
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: Physics Chapter: Electro Magnetic Induction
1 (b) Anticlockwise in both figure C and figure D 1
2 (c) Graphs 4, 1 and 3 1
3 (a) will be attracted towards P 1
4 (b) 1
5 𝑎2 𝑇 3 1
(d) 3𝑅
6 𝑟2 1
(b) 𝑅
7 (b) –n (w2-w1) /5Rt 1
8 (a) 1
9 (b) 50µ𝑣 1
10 1 1
(a) 220 A
11 (B) 6H, 4H 1
12 (C) 3mH 1
13 (c) A is true but R is false 1
14 (a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
15 (c) If assertion is true but reason is false 1
16 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of 1
assertion
17 (a) i) Flux linked with coil Q due to coil P increases. Flux linked with coil Q due to ½
coil R remains the same. So the overall flux linked with the coil Q increases.
ii) Induced current through Q flows in the direction opposite to that in P, which is ½
anti-clockwise direction.
(b) i) Flux linked with coil Q due to coil P decreases. Flux linked with coil Q due to ½
coil R remains the same. Overall flux linked with the coil Q decreases.
ii) Induced current through Q flows in the direction same as that in P, which is ½
clockwise direction.
18 Change in flux, ΔΦ = B.ΔA
Here B = 0.5 T ΔA = [(Area)Rectangle + πr2/2] – [(Area)Rectangle – πr2/2 ] = πr2 1
So change in flux, ΔΦ = 0.5 x π (0.2)2 = 0.2 π Wb 1
19 Let i1 current flow in r1 radius
𝜇0𝐼
Magnetic flux link in r2 radius φ2 =B1A2= 2𝑟 1 (𝜋𝑟22 )…….(1)
1 1
Again as,φ2 =M21I1…………….(2)
From (1) & (2)
𝜇0𝜋𝑟2
2
M21 = 2𝑟1
Similarly
𝜇0𝜋𝑟2
2
M12= 2𝑟1
1
20 (i) Induced current in Loop(1) is anticlockwise whereas induced current in loop (2) is 1
clockwise
(ii) No, rate of change of flux is more in loop (ii) so, E2> E1 1
𝜇 𝜇
21 Fig-1: Flux, Φ= BAcosθ = 0𝑙𝑁𝐼πR2cos0 = 0𝑙𝑁𝐼πR2 1
𝜇0 𝑁𝐼 𝜇0 𝑁𝐼
Fig 2: Φ= BAcosθ = πr2cos0 = πr2
𝑙 𝑙 1
𝜇0 𝑁𝐼 √3𝜇0 𝑁𝐼
Fig 3: Φ= BAcosθ = πR cos30 =
2 0
πR 2
1
𝑙 2𝑙
22 Here f = 100Hz ½
T = 1/100 s
In time T/2 The flux changes from BA to 0 ½
𝐵𝐴 2𝐵𝐴 2 𝑋 0.01 𝑋𝜋𝑋 1 1
Induced emf ξ = 𝑇/2 = 𝑇 = = 4π V
1/100
ξ
Electric Field E = 2𝜋𝑟 = 2 V/m 1
23 Let, current I1 flows through the bigger loop.
The net magnetic field due to I1 at the common centre of the loop's is, ½
(B1)net=4×Bone-side
𝜇0 𝐼
1
=4× 4𝜋𝐿/2(sin450 + sin450) 1
𝜇0 𝐼
= 4√2𝜋𝐿1 , Into the plane of the paper
The net magnetic flux linked with smaller loop is 1
𝜇0 𝐼
Φ = BA = 4√2𝜋𝐿1 l2
Again Φ = MI
𝜇0 ½
M= 4√2𝜋𝐿 l2
24 Eo = NBAω When speed of rotation is doubled, 1

(i) frequency of AC will be doubled 1
(ii) emf gets doubled 1
(iii) Mechanical power required to rotate the generator also gets doubled
25 𝑑∅𝐵
= 12t +7
𝑑𝑡 1
𝑑∅
E = - 𝑑𝑡𝐵 = -(12t + 7)
t=2 1
E = - (12x2 + 7) = - (24 + 7) = - 31mv
magnitude= 31mv 1
(b) The direction is anti-clockwise
26 (i) current induced in irregular shape of the loop is clockwise 1
(ii) current induced of rectangular shape loop is anticlockwise 1
(iii) current induced of triangular shape loop is clockwise 1
27 (i) (c) zero 1
I. (ii) (d) zero 1
𝐵𝑎2 𝐵𝑎𝑣 1
(iii) (c) and
2 𝑅
𝐵2 𝑎2 𝑣 2
(iv) (a) 𝑅 OR (b) Zero 1
28 (i) (b) Bvl 1
(ii) (c) Bvl/R 1
(iii) (d) g- B2 l2v/mR 1
𝑚𝑔𝑅 1
(iv) (a) 𝐵2 𝑙2 OR (d) B2 l2v2/R
29 (a) For the induced current to be clockwise, the magnetic flux associated with the ½
circular coil should decrease.
The flux associated with the coil decreases when the magnetic field associated with
the coil decreases as φ = B.A ½
Hence, in the time interval t=10s to t=15s, the induced current will be clockwise.
𝑑𝜑
(b) Induced emf ξ = - 𝑑𝑡
1
From t = 0s to t = 5 s, dφ = dB x A = (6-2) × 10-3 × 5 × 10-4 = 2 × 10-6Wb
ξ = - 2 ×10-6 /5 = -0.4 ×10-6 V
Induced emf= 0, as from t= 5 s to t = 10s, there is no change in magnetic flux.
From t = 10s to t = 15 s,
1
dφ = (0 - 6) × 10-3 × 5 × 10-4 = - 3 × 10-6Wb
ξ = - dφ/dt = 3 × 10-6 /5 = 0.6 ×10-6 V
(c)
1
30 Definition 1
Derivation of ½LI2 2
Derivation of ξ = ½Bl2ω 1
Putting the values, ξ = 100 V 1
31 (a) As we know ∅ = 𝐿𝐼
Let N = Total no.of turns of the solenoid ∅ = 𝑁𝐵𝐴 2
= 𝑁𝜇0 niA or = 𝜇0 (nl)ni𝜋𝑟 2 or =𝜇0 𝑛2 𝜋𝑟 2l
Comparing (i) and (ii)
L= 𝜇0 𝑛2 𝜋𝑟 2
(b) We know L1 = 𝜇0 𝑛12 A1l, L2 = 𝜇0 𝑛22 𝐴2 𝑙 and M =𝜇0 n1n2A2l
𝑀 𝐴2 𝑟2
=√ =
√𝐿1 𝐿2 𝐴1 𝑟1
as r1>r2
𝑟2 3
<11
𝑟
1
M< √𝐿1 𝐿2
32 𝑟2∅
a) Area in ∅angle area 2
𝐵𝑟 2 ∅ 𝑑∅ 𝐵𝑟 2 𝑑∅
∅= or = 3
2 𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡
1
E=2Br2w
(b) E= 𝐵𝑣 𝑣𝑙
𝐵
as, 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛿 = 𝐵 𝑣
𝐻
𝐵𝑣 = 𝐵𝐻 tan𝛿
E=(𝐵𝐻 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛿) 𝑣𝑙 = 2x 10−5xtan60x20x250 = 0.173v 2
QUESTION BANK
Subject: Physics Chapter Name: Alternating Current
1. Match the column I with column II based on the description of each graphs in column I 1
and then choose the correct option:
Column I Column II
A. (i) Capacitive reactance
B. (ii) Impedence
C. (iii) Inductive reactance
D. (iv) Resistance
(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(c) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (d) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
2. An autotransformer is a special transformer that has a single winding with an iron core. 1
In an autotransformer, portions of the same winding act as both the primary and
secondary. It has two end terminals and one or more terminals at intermediate tap
points. The input voltage is applied across two of the terminals. The output voltage is
taken across two terminals, one terminal of which is usually in common with the input
voltage terminal. They are generally used in home applications with small voltage
conversions. The figure below shows an autotransformer with several 'taps'.
In the transformer shown in the image above, if the number of turns between the points
where the input voltage is connected is 1200 and the maximum output voltage that can
be obtained is 85% of the input voltage, what is the total number of turns in the coil?
(The turns ratio of an autotransformer is calculated with the same formula as two-
winding transformers.)
(a) 920 (b) 960 (c) 1020 (d) 1060

3. 1
The graph at the right hand side shows the frequency response of an LCR circuit when
connected to an AC source.
Which of the following graphs CORRECTLY represents the change in the
frequencyresponse of the LCR circuit if the capacitance and the inductance of the
circuit are decreased andresistance is increased?
4. 1
In an experiement with electrical circuit components, a student sends a current𝑖 =

𝑖0 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 from an alternating current source that is connected across an unknown load.
𝜋
The student recordsthevoltage output across the load as𝑣 = 𝑣0 cos ( 2 − 𝜔𝑡). Then to
maintain the voltage in phase with the current through it, we can
(a) only connecteither inductor or capacitor in series with the load
(b) only connectboth inductor and capacitor in series with the load
(c) only connect a resistor in series with the load
(d) connect eithera resistor, orboth inductor and capacitor, in series with the load
5. 1
In the circuit shown in figure, if both bulb B1and B2 are identical then,
(a) Their brightness will be same
(b) B2 will be brighter than B1
(c) Brightness of B1 will increase if frequency increases
(d) Brightness of B2 will decrease if frequency decreases
6. In a series LCR circuit the current lags the applied ac voltage. The phase lag can be 1
reduced to zero by
(a) Increasing C
(b) Increasing L
(c) Increasing the frequency of ac voltage
(d) Decreasing the frequency of ac voltage
7 An alternating current is given by the equation i = i1𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔𝑡+i2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑡. The rms current 1
is given by
1 1 2 2 1/2 1 1
(a) (i1+i2) (b) (𝑖 +𝑖 ) (c) √2 (i1+i2) (d) √2( 𝑖12 - 𝑖22 )
√2 √2 1 2
1
8 An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the
inductive reactance are both equal to 3Ω , the phase difference between the applied
voltage and the current in the circuit is
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) zero
9 Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by V=10 𝑠𝑖𝑛(50𝜋𝑡 − 𝜋/6) and 1
𝜋
i =4 𝑠𝑖𝑛(50𝜋𝑡 + 4 )
(a) Current leads the voltage by 300 (b) Voltage leads the current by 450
(c) Current leads the voltage by 750 (d) Voltage lags the current by 450
10 In the circuit shown in figure. What will be the reading of the voltmeter? 1
(a) 300 v (b) 900 v (c) 200 v (d) 400 v

11 Which of following graphs represents the correct variation of inductive reactance XL 1
with frequency v
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 A step down transformer converts transmission line voltage from 11000 V to 220 V. 1
The primary of the transformer has 6000 turns and efficiency of the transformer is
60%. If the output power is 9kw, then the input power will be
(a) 11kw (b) 12kw (c) 14kw (d) 15kw
statements.
13 Assertion(A):In a series circuit with an inductor and a light bulb connected to an AC 1
source, the glow of the bulb decreases upon inserting an iron rod into the inductor.
Reason (R):As the iron rod is inserted, the magnetic field inside the coilmagnetizes the
iron decreasing the magnetic field inside it.
14 Assertion (A): In a series circuit with an capacitor and a light bulb connected to an AC 1
source, the glow of the bulb decreases upon reducing the value of capacitance of the
capacitor.
1
Reason (R): With ac source, the capacitor offers capacitive reactance ωC , which
increases upon reducing the value of capacitance of the capacitor.
15 Assertion: In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the current is referred to as 1
wattles current.
Reason: There are no power losses associated with pure capacitances and pure
inductances in an ac circuit.
16 Assertion: Average value of ac over a complete cycle always zero. 1
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined over half cycle.
17 The current through two inductors of self-inductance 12 mH and 30 mH is increasing 2
with time at the same rate. Draw graphs showing the variation of the
(a) Emf induced with the rate of change of current in each inductor.
(b) Energy stored in each inductor with the current flowing through it.
18 2
Keeping the source frequency equal to the resonating frequency of the series LCR-
circuit, if the three element L, C, and R, are arranged in parallel (as shown in figure),
show that the total current in the parallel LCR circuit is minimum at this frequency.
19 When resistor R and an inductor L are connected in the series to the ac source of 2
voltage V = Vo Sin𝜔𝑡. The voltage is found to lead current phase by 𝜋/4. If the
inductor is replaced by a capacitor C, the voltage lags behind the current phase by 𝜋/4.
When L, C and R are connected in series with the same source. Find the:
(i) average power dissipated.
(ii) and the instantaneous current in the circuit
20 What is power factor? On the basis of power dissipation in a.c. circuit, distinguish 2
among resistance, reactance and impedance?
21 3
The voltage – time graph is shown in following figure:

(a) Find the average value of 𝑣 in the time interval from t = 0 to 4 sec.
(b) Find the rms value of voltage in first 2 seconds.
22 Two circuit A and B are shown in figure. 3
(a) Find the ratio of the power factor of circuit A to that of circuit B.
(b) Also calculate the peak current in circuit B [unit for 𝑣 is volt].
23 In an ac circuit, shown in figure, the main supply has constant voltage but variable 3
frequency.
(a) For what frequency will the voltage across the resistance R be maximum?
(b) What will be the voltmeter reading at that frequency?
(c) We cannot have resonance in a RL orRC circuit. Why?
24 A circuit draws a power of 550W from a 220V-50Hz source. The power factor of the 3
circuit is 0.8. A current in the circuit lags behind the voltage.
1
Show that a capacitor about 42𝜋x 10-2F will have to be connected in the circuit to
bring its power factor to unity.
25 (a) Sketch a graph to show how the reactance of (i) a capacitor (ii) an inductor varies as 3
function of frequency.
(b) Give reason that a capacitor blocks dc but allows ac to pass.
26 (i) When an Ac source is connected to an ideal inductor the average power supplied by 3
the source over a complete cycle is zero. Justify.
(ii) A lamp is connected in series with an inductor and AC source. Write the changes
that happens to the brightness of the lamp when the key is plugged in and an iron rod is
inserted the inductor? Justify.
27 Case based questions: Read the case carefully and answer following questions 4
In a small village, the demand for electric power is 1100 kW, operating at 220 V. This
village is located 35 km away from an electric plant. The power plant generates
electricity at 22 kV, which is then increased to 440 kV for transmission through a step-
up transformer ‘A’. After traveling 30 km, the electricity reaches a substation, where it
is reduced to 33 kV using a step-down transformer ‘B’. From there, local transport
lines carry the power for an additional 5 km. Finally, a local transformer ‘C’ adjusts the
power to meet the specific needs of the village. The resistance of wire line carrying
power is 2.4 Ω per km. Each transformer, both the step-up and step-down, has 12000
turns in its primary coil. Loss of power due to eddy current and flux leakage are
ignored here in this case.
(i) Number of turns in secondary coils of transformer B is
(a) 900 (b) 1600 (c) 9000 (d) 16000
(ii) If power station generates exactly the same power as required by that village, the
power loss in the form of heat during transmission of electric power from
transformer A to transformer B would be
(a) 250 W (b) 325 W (c) 450 W (d) 625 W
(iii) Since the power loss due to Joule heating in the 30 km transmission is significantly
lower compared to the main power supply, it can be safely disregarded.
Consequently, the deficiency of power in the village resulting from Joule heating
in the last 5 km transmission segment will be
(a) 11.33 kW (b) 13.33 kW (c) 13.11 kW (d) 11.11 kW
(iv) To reduce the power loss due to heating effect in an inexpensive way, we should
(a) use a very thick wire for long way transmission
(b) shift the substation near to the village
(c) shift the substation near to the power station
(d) use step down transformer to reduce voltage just after power station
OR
The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce
(a) copper loss (b) flux leakage (c) hysteresis loss (d)eddy current loss
28 A series resonant circuit, in which inductance L, capacitance C and resistance R are 4
connected in series and the circuit admits maximum current corresponding to a given
frequency of a.c. In the series LCR circuit, at resonant frequency, inductive reactance
XL is equal to capacitive reactance XC and the impedance is minimum (Z = R).
(i) A series LCR circuit is connected to an a.c. source and is showing resonance, Then
(a) VR = 0 (b) VL= VR (c) VC = VR (d) VL= VC
(ii) The resonant frequency of a LCR circuit depends upon
(a) L and R (b) C and R (c) L and C (d) L,C and R
(iii) In a series resonant LCR circuit , the voltage across R is 100V and the value of
R=1000 Ω. The capacitance of the capacitor is 2x10-6 F, angular frequency of AC
is 200 rad s-1. Then the voltage drop across the inductance coil is
(a) 100V (b) 40V (c) 250V (d) 400V
(iv) In an LCR series resonant circuit ,the capacitance is changed from C to 4C.For the
same resonant frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to
𝐿 𝐿
(a) 2L (b) (c) 4L (d)
2 4
OR
If wattles current flows in the AC circuit, then the circuit is:
(a) purely resistive (b) purely inductive
(c) LCR series (d) RC series circuit only
29 A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source V = V0 sin ωt. The variation of voltage, 5
current and power in one cycle is shown in the following graph:
(a) Identify the device ‘X’.

(b) Which of the curves A, B and C represent the voltage, current and the power
consumed in the circuit? Justify your answer.
(c) Obtain an expression for the current in the circuit and its phase relation with ac
voltage.
30 The output emf of an ac generator is 10sin100πt. The ac generator is connected to the 5
following circuit elements individually:
(a) 100Ω Resistor
(b) 10μF Capacitor
(c) 10mH Inductor.
A. Determine the instantaneous voltage and current through each one of them.
B. Comment about the phase difference between voltage and current in each case.
31 (a) A bulb is connected in series with a capacitor. Predict your observation when this 5
combination is connected in turn across
(i) AC source and capacitance of the capacitor is increased.

(ii) A DC batter and capacitance of the capacitor is decreased.
(b) An inductor (L = 200 mH) is connected to an ac source of peak emf 210V and
frequency 50Hz. Calculate the peak current. What is the instantaneous voltage of
the source when the current is at its peak value?
32 (a) Write the function of a transformer. State its principle of working with the help of 5
a diagram. Mention various energy losses in
this device
(b) The primary coil of an ideal step-up
transformer has 100 turns and transformation
ratio is also 100. The input voltage and power
are respectively 220v and 1100W. Calculate
(i) number of turns in secondary
(ii) current in primary
(iii) voltage across secondary
(iv) power in secondary
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: Physics Chapter Name: Alternating Current

1 (d) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 1
2 (c)1020 1
3 1
4 (d)connect either a resistor, or both inductor and capacitor, in series with the load 1
5 (c)Brightness of B1 will increase if frequency increases 1
6 (d) Decreasing the frequency of ac voltage 1
1 2 2 1/2
7 (b) (𝑖 +𝑖 ) 1
√2 1 2
𝜋
8 (b) 4 1
9 (c) Current leads the voltage by 750 1
10 (c) 200 v 1
11 (b) 1
12 (d) 15kw 1
13 (c) A is true but R is false 1
14 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
15 (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of 1
assertion
16 (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of 1
assertion.
17 𝑑𝐼 1
(a) 𝜀 = −𝐿 𝑑𝑡
1
(b) 𝑈 = 𝐿𝐼 2
2 1
18
0.5
0.5
19 (i) tan ϕ = (XL or XC) / R

Voltage leads the current by π/4
XL = R 1
Voltage lags the current by π/4
XC = R
Therefore, XL=XC and Impedance, Z=R
Phase, ϕ=0 and Average power 1
P =( Vrms)2 /R
ii) Instantaneous current I(t) = Iosinωt
20 Power factor, P=Vrms I rmsCosϕ 0.5
Dissipation is max. in Resistance, zero across reactance and depends on Cosϕ for 1.5
impedance
21 (a)
𝑡
∫0 𝑣𝑑𝑡
𝑉𝑎𝑣 = 〈𝑉〉 = 𝑡 0.5
∫0 𝑑𝑡
2 4 5𝑡
∫0 5𝑑𝑡 + ∫2 (− 2
+ 5)𝑑𝑡
= 1
4
4
5𝑡 2
10 + [− + 5𝑡]
4 2
=
4
10 + [(−20 + 20) − (−5 + 10)]
=
4
5
= 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠 1
4
(b)
2 1/2
∫0 52 𝑑𝑡
𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √〈𝑉 2 〉 = { 2 }
∫0 𝑑𝑡
= 5 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
0.5
𝑅
22 (a) 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 = 𝑃 = 0.5
𝑍
2 82 2𝜋
𝑃𝐴 𝑍𝐵 √3 + [(0.5𝜋 × 𝜋) − (0.5𝜋)]
= =
𝑃𝐵 𝑍𝐴 2 1
√32 + (0.5𝜋 × 8 )
𝜋
𝑃𝐴 3
= 1
𝑃𝐵 5
𝑣 12
(b) 𝑖0 = 𝑍0 = 3 = 4 𝑎𝑚𝑝
𝐵 0.5
23 (a) For voltage across R to be maximum, XL = XC
1 0.5
𝑓=
2𝜋√𝐿𝐶
1
= = 500 𝐻𝑧
1 1 −6
1
2𝜋√𝜋 × 𝜋 × 10
(b) At this frequency voltmeter reading in figure is zero. 0.5
(c) Resonance phenomenon is exhibited by a circuit only if both L and C are present
in the circuit. Only then do the voltages across L and C cancel each other (both
being out of phase) and the current amplitude is Vm/R, the total source voltage 1
appearing across R. This means that we cannot have resonance in a RL or RC
circuit.
24 P=V I Cosφ 1
P 550
I = V COSφ = 220 X 0.8 = 3.125A
R = P/I2= 56.3Ω
ωL 1
Again , tanφ = R
ωL=42
1 1
Again C = 1/ω2 L = = x 10-2 F 1
100π42 42π
25 (a) 1
1
(i) XC=2𝜋𝑛𝐶
1
XC∝ 𝑛
(ii) XL=𝜔L=2𝜋𝑛𝐿
XL∝n
1
1
(b) as XC=2𝜋𝑛𝐶 and in DC n=0 XC=∝,that’s why a capacitor block’s DC
26 (i) As Pav = VrmsIrms𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜑𝜑 = 𝜋/2 1.5

Pav=VrmsIrm𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜋/2
Pav = 0
(ii) Brightness of lamp decreases. It is because when iron rod is inserted inside the
inductor its inductance L increases hence, impedance Z of the circuit will increase and
𝑉
as Irms = 𝑟𝑚𝑠 , so this decrease the current in the circuit and hence the brightness of the 1.5
𝑧
lamp will decrease.
27 (i) (a) 900 1

(ii) (c) 450 W 1
(iii) (b) 13.33 kW 1
(iv) (b) shift the substation near to the village 1
OR (d)eddy current loss
28 (i) (d) VL= VC 1

(ii) (c) L and C 1
(iii) (C) 250V 1
𝐿
(iv) (d) 4 OR (b) purely inductive 1
29 (a)Thedevice Xis acapacitor 1
(b)CurveA is power; CurveBis voltageand CurveC is current 1
In capacitive ac circuit, the current leads the voltage in phase by 𝜋/2 radian 1
(justification)
(a) 𝑉 = 𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉 = 𝐶𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 1
𝑑𝑞 𝑑
𝑖= = [𝐶𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡]
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 1
𝑖 = 𝜔𝐶𝑉0 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑡
𝜋
𝑖 = 𝑖0 sin(𝜔𝑡 + )
2
30 A.
(a) 100 ohm Resistor:
Voltage across R = 10sin100πt
Current i = V/R 1
= 10sin100πt /100
= 0.1 sin100πt
(b) 10μF Capacitor:

Voltage across C = 10sin100πt
Here Xc = 1/Cω = 1000/π ohm
Current through C = i = V/Xc 1
= [10sin(100πt + π/2)]/ (1000/π)
(c) 10mH Inductor :

Voltage across L = 10sin100πt
Inductive reactance, XL = Lω = 10 x 10-3 x 100π = π ohm 1½
Current through an inductor, i = V/XL
[(10/π)sin(100πt - π/2)]
B. ½
(a) across resistor, both current and voltage are in same phase ½
(b) Across capacitor current leads the voltage ½
(c) Across inductor voltage leads the current
31 (a) XC = 1/2πfc if c is increased , XC will decrease hence current will increased , 3
brightness will increased
(b) no change the bulb will not glow because f = 0, XC =∝
E 210
I = 2πnl = 2x3.14x50x200x10−2 = 3.3A
As current lags behind the voltage by 900 so the voltage is 0 2

32 (a) Function ; changing ac in primary coil produces a changing magnetic field which 3
induces a changing ac in secondary coil
Principle : mutual induction
diagram
(b) (i) r = NS/NP
Or, NS = r NP = 100 x100 = 10000 ½
(ii) IP = Pi/VP
Or, IP=1100/220 = 5A
½
(iii) r=VS/VP
Or, VS = r VP = 100 x 220=22000V
(iv) For ideal transformer ½
Power in secondary =Power in primary
PS=1100W ½
QUESTION BANK
Subject: Physics Chapter: E.M. Waves

1. Light with an energy flux of 18W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal 1
incidence. The pressure exerted on the surface is
(a) 2 N/m² (b) 2 × 10-4N/m² (c) 6 N/m² (d) 6× 10-4N/m²
2. Which wavelength of the Sun is used finally as electric energy? 1
(a) radio waves (b) visible light (c) microwaves (d)infrared waves
3. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited to observe a particle of 1
radius 3 × 10-4cm is of the order of
(a) 1012 Hz (b) 1013 Hz (c) 1014 Hz (d) 1015 Hz
4. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components 1
to the intensity of an EM wave is:
(a) c : 1 (b) c2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) √c : 1
5. The electromagnetic waves propagated perpendicular to both electric field E ⃗⃗ and 1
⃗⃗. The electromagnetic waves travel in the direction of
magnetic fieldB
⃗⃗ ∙ B
(a) E ⃗⃗ (b) B⃗⃗ ∙ E
⃗⃗ (c) E⃗⃗ × B
⃗⃗ (d) B⃗⃗ × E
⃗⃗
6. Unit of E.dl is the unit of - 1
(a) charge (b) potential (c) current (d) magnetic flux
7 The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 2μF. The variation of voltage for 1
displacement current of 1Ma in the space between its plate is
(a) 650Vs–1 (b) 525Vs–1 (c) 500Vs–1 (d) 495Vs–1
8 A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 5 MHz travels in free space along the 1
x-direction At a particular point in a space and time E =9.0j v/m Then, B at this
point
(a) 3x108𝑘̂T (b) 3x10–8𝑘̂T (c) 3x10–8𝑖̂T (d) 3x108𝑖̂T
9 An electromagnetic wave of frequency f=3MHz passes from vacuum into a 1
dielectric medium with permittivity =4.0 then
(a) wavelength is 2 times and frequency becomes half
(b) wavelength is half and frequency remains unchanged
(c) wavelength and frequency both remains unchanged
(d) wavelength is half and frequency becomes 2 times
10 A Wavelength of microwave is greater than that of ultraviolet rays 1
B The wavelength of infrared rays is lesser than that of ultraviolet rays
C The wavelength of microwaves is lesser than that of infrared rays
D Gamma rays has shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum
(a) A and B are true (b) B and C are true
(c) C and D are true (d) A and D are true
11 The magnetic field of plane electromagnetic wave is given by 1
By=2x10–7 sin (0.5x103x+ 1.5x1011t)
The electromagnetic wave is
(a) a visible light (b) an infrared wave
(c) a microwave (d) a radio wave
12 The average magnetic energy density of an electromagnetic wave of wavelength 1
travelling in free space is given by
(a) B2/2λ (b) B2/2µ0 (c) 2B2/µ0λ (d) B/µ0λ
the statements.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation of the
Assertion.
13 Assertion: A charge moving in a circular path can produce electromagnetic wave. 1
Reason: The source of electromagnetic wave should be in accelerated motion.
14 Assertion: Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure on the surface. 1
Reason: Electromagnetic waves carry both momentum and energy.
15 Assertion: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a 1
capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change
Reason: The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field is
constant with time
16 Assertion: The basic difference between various types of electromagnetic waves 1
lies in their wavelength or frequencies.
Reason: Electromagnetic waves travel through vacuum with the same speed.
17 Maxwell showed that the speed of an electromagnetic wave depends on the 2
permeability μ and permittivity ε of the medium through which it travels. The speed
1
of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by the equation c 
 0 0
1
.Prove that the unit of is that of velocity, using units of μ and ε
o o.
 0 0
18 Prof. C.V. Raman surprised his students by suspending freely a tiny light ball is a 2
transparent vacuum chamber by shining a laser beam on it. Which property of EM
waves was he exhibiting? Give one more example of this property.
19 Identify the electromagnetic waves whose wavelengths vary as 2
(a) 10–12m<λ<10–9m
(b) 10–3m<λ<10–1m
20 (a) A 2 mW laser beam is pointed on a 1 mm2 area. 2
(i) What is the intensity of the beam in W/m2?
(ii) If a 1 nC static charge is intercepted by this beam, what is the maximum
electric force that the charge experiences?
(b) The figure here gives the electric field of an electromagnetic wave at a certain
point and a certain instant. The wave is transporting energy in the negative z-
direction. What is the direction of the magnetic field of the wave at that point
and instant?
21 Why does a galvanometer show a momentary deflection at the time of charging or 3

discharging a capacitor? Write the necessary expression to explain this observation.
22 ⃗⃗,B
Identify the wave shown in figure. What are the direction of E ⃗⃗ and propagation of 3
the wave shown in figure? Write any two uses of this wave.
23 Write Maxwell's generalization of Ampere's circuital law. Show that in the process 3
of charging of a capacitor, the current produced within the plates of the capacitor is
i = ε where ɸ is the electric flux produced during charging of the capacitor
odEdt E
plates.
24 The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by 3
By=2x10–7sin(0.5x103x+1.5x1011t) T
(a) What is the wavelength and frequency of the wave?
(b) Write an expression for the electric field
25 An electromagnetic radiation has energy of 1kev. To which region of 3
electromagnetic spectrum does it belong? Given h =6.6x10–34js and 1ev=1.6x10–19j
26 Name the constituent radiation of electromagnetic spectrum which 3
(a) is used in satellite communication
(b) is used for studying crystal structure
(c) is similar to the radiations emitted during decay of radioactive nuclei.
(d) has its wavelength range between 390nm and 770nm
(e) is absorbed from sunlight by ozone layer
(f) produces intense heating effect
27 Electromagnetic Radiation is an electric and magnetic disturbance travelling through 4
space at the speed of light (2.998 × 108 m/s). It contains neither mass nor charge but
travels in packets of radiant energy called photons or quanta’s. Examples of EM
radiations include radio waves and microwaves as well as infrared, ultraviolet, gamma
and X-rays. Some sources of EM- radiation include sources in the cosmos (example.
the sun and stars), radioactive elements and manufactured devices. Electromagnetic
waves exhibits a dual wave and particle nature. Classically, electromagnetic radiation
consists of electromagnetic waves, which are synchronized oscillations of electric and
magnetic fields.
(i) In an electromagnetic wave, the average energy density is associated with:
(a) electric field only
(b) magnetic field only
(c) equally with electric and magnetic field
(d) average energy density is zero.
(ii) The speed of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is :
(a) less than the speed of light (b) greater than the speed of light
(c) equal to the speed of light (d) undetermined.
(iii) The nature of e-m wave is:
(a) longitudinal (b) Longitudinal stationary
(c) Transverse stationary (d) Transverse
OR
The waves related to telecommunication are:
(a) visible light (b) micro waves (c) X-ray (d) U-V rays
(iv) Which of the following oscillates in EM waves:
(a) Electric field only (b) Magnetic field only
(c) Both electric and magnetic field (d) Electric and magnetic field does not involve.
28 Maxwell, on the basis of his experiment (whose schematic set up is as shown in the 4
figure argued that “Ampere’s circuital law” is inconsistent only if along with
conduction current, there in an additional current called displacement current. He
formulated that a changing electric field with time give rise to displacement current
which also produces a magnetic field similar to that o conduction current
Maxwell modified Ampere’s circuital law which is known as Ampere-Maxwell’s
circuital law
(i) Which current is produced when changing electric flux is there in the region
between the plates?
(a) Conduction current (b) Convectional current
(c) Displacement current (d) (a) and (c) both
(ii) Identify the expression for Ampere-Maxwell’s circuital law.
   
(a)  .dl =µ0(I -I )
B C D (b)  .dl =µ0(I –I )
B D C
   
(c)  B.dl =µ0(I +I )
C D (d)  B.dl =µ0(I .I )
C D
(iii) The charging current for capacitor is 0.25A .What is the displacement current
across its plates?
(a) 0.5A (b) 0.1 A (c) 0.25 A (d) 0.75A

(iv) A parallel plate capacitor has circular plates each of radius 6 cm. It is charged
such that the electric field in the gap between its plates rises constantly at the
rate of 1010V/cms–1. What is the displacement current?
(a) 0.1A (b) 0.2 A (c) 0.5A (d) 0.3A
OR
A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F is being charged by a voltage
source whose potential is changing at the rate of 3V/s. The conduction current
through the connecting wires and the displacement current through the plates of
the capacitor would be, respectively
(a) zero, zero (b) zero, 60 A (c) 60 A,
60 A (d) 60 A, zero
29 a) Out of microwaves, ultraviolet rays and infrared rays, which radiation will be 5
most effective for emission of electrons from a metallic surface and why?
b) If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is doubled, what will happen
to the energy of the photons?
c) Let the wavelengths of the electromagnetic waves used quite often for (i)
killing germs in household water purifiers (ii) remote sensing (iii) treatment of
cancer be labeled as 1, 2 and 3. Identify the electromagnetic wave
corresponding to 1, 2 and 3and arrange their wavelengths in increasing
order.
30 Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is- 5
E = ( 3.1 N/C) cos[(1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 ×108rad/s)t]i
(a) What is the direction of propagation?
(b) What is the wavelength?
(c) What is the frequency?
(d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave?
(e) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.
31 5
(a) Show that during the charging of a parallel plate capacitor, the rate of change of
charge on each plate equals  0 times the rate of change of electric flux(  E )
d E
linked with it . What is the name given to the term  0  ?
dt
(b) A charge Oscillating at certain frequency produce electromagnetic wave.
Explain.
32 (a) In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidal at 5
frequency of 2.0x10 Hz and amplitude 48Vm
10 -1.
(i) What is the wavelength of the wave?

(ii) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
(iii) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average
energy density of the B field (C=3x108ms–1)
(b) Consider a radiation whose magnetic field component is given by
B = 10-3cos(4×1010πx+12π×1018t) Wbm–2.
What will be the mass of a particle whose momentum is the same as that of the
photon of this radiation and whose speed is 1000 times smaller than that of the
photon? (h=6.626×10–34Js)
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: Physics Chapter: E.M. Waves
1 (d) 6 x 10-4 N/m² 1
2 (d) infrared waves 1
14
3 (c) 10 Hz 1
4 (c) 1 : 1 1
5 (c) ⃗E⃗ × ⃗B⃗ 1
6 (b) potential 1
7 (c) 500Vs -1
1
–8
8 (b) 3x10 kT 1
9 (b) wavelength is half and frequency remains unchanged 1
10 (d) A and D are true 1
11 (c) a microwave 1
12 (b) B2/2µ0 1
assertion
assertion
15 (d) If both assertion and reason are false 1
16 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation of 1
the Assertion.
17 1 1 2
[ ]= 2
=ms-1
√μo εo √ 𝑁2 𝐶2
𝐴 𝑚 𝑁
18 EM wave exerts radiation pressures. 1
The tails of the comets are due to radiation pressure.(Any correct example) 1
19 (a) (0.01A to 100A ):-x ray, it is used in crystallography.
0 0
1
(b) (0.1cm to 10cm):-Microwave , it is used in microwave oven for cooking purpose 1
20 (a) (i) Intensity of the em beam I = Power/area = 2 x 10-3 / 10-6 = 2000 W/m2 ½
(ii) Intensity I of the em beam is also given as = ½ c∈oEo2 ( = ½ of electric field ½
energy density x c)
2I
E0  , Solving E0  1.22 103 N / C
c 0
F = qE0 = 1.22 x 10–6N
(b) Positive direction of x 1
21 The momentary deflection is due to the transient current flowing through the circuit 2
when the capacitor is being charged or discharged. The deflection would be zero,
when the capacitor gets fully charged/discharge.
1
  d E
 B.dl = μ0ic+ μ0ε0 dt
22 A charge oscillating with some frequency, produces an oscillating electric field in 2
space, which in turn produces an oscillating magnetic field perpendicular to the
electric field, this process repeats, producing EM. waves in space perpendicular to
both the fields.
23 Maxwell generalized equation is

 
 B.dl = μ0 ic+ μ0id 1
  d E
 .dl = μ0ic+ μ0ε0 dt
B
During the process of charging of capacitor, electric flux between the plates of
capacitor changes with time. It produces the current within the plates of capacitor. This 2
d E
current is proportional to
dt
24 (a) 𝞴=2/(0.5x10 )=1.26m& n=1.5x10 /2=23.9GHz
3 11 2
(b)60sin(0.5x10 x+1.5x10 t) Vm
3 11 -1 1
25 𝞴=hc/E=(6.6X10 X3X10 )/(10 X1.6X10 )=11.12A ,
-34 8 3 -19 0 2
The corresponds to X ray region 1
26 (a)Microwaves ½
(b) X rays ½
(c) Gamma rays ½
(d) visible light ½
(e) ultraviolet radiation ½
(f) Infrared rays ½
27 (i) (c) equally with electric and magnetic field. 1
(ii) (c) equals than the speed of light 1
(iii) (d) Transverse Or (b) micro waves 1
(iv) (c) Both electric and magnetic field 1
28 (i) (c) Displacement current 1
 
(ii) (c)  B.dl =µ0(I +I ) C D
1
(iii) (c) 0.25 A
1
(iv) (a) 0.1A OR (c) 60 A, 60 A 1
29 a) Ultraviolet rays as it has highest frequency and hence most energetic amongst the
three E.M. waves. 1½
hc 1
b) Energy of a photon E  h  , hence E
  1½
If wavelength is doubled, energy of the photons is halved.
c) (i) Ultraviolet radiation (  1) ½
(ii) Microwaves (  2) ½
(iii) Gamma rays (  3) ½
(  3) < (  1) < (  2) ½
30 (a) Along negative y direction 1
(b) 3.490 m 1
(c) 8.48 x108 Hz 1
(d) 1.03x10-8T 1
(e) B = (1.03 10-8 N/C) cos[(1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 ×108rad/s)t]𝒌 ̂. 1
31 (a) Proof 3
dq d
  0 E , displacement current
dt dt
(b) an oscillating or accelerated charge supposed to source of an electromagnetic 2
wave. An oscillating charge produces an oscillating electric field in space which
further produces an oscillating magnetic field which in turn is a source of electric
field. These oscillating electric and magnetic field hence, keep on regenerating
each other and an electromagnetic wave is produced, The frequency of em
wave=frequency of oscillating charge
32 c 3 108
(i)    1.5 10– 2 m ½
 2 10 10
(ii) C=E0/B0
½
Or, B0=E0/C=48/(3x108)=16 x10–8T
1
(iii) Electric energy density =  0 E 2 ……….(1) 1
2
1
As we know that C 2  ……………….(2)
0 0
By simplifying (1) &(2) we can show
B2
Magnetic energy density =
20
b) The momentum (p) of a photon is given by the equation: p = E/c 3
Where, E = energy of the photon and c = speed of light
The energy of a photon is related to its frequency (f) by the equation: E = h
Thus, p = h/c
mv = h/c
mc/1010 = h/c
m = 1010h/c2
Solving we have,  = 6 × 1018 Hz
m = 4.42 × 10-29 kg
QUESTION BANK
Class: XII Chapter no: 9
Subject: Physics Chapter: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Q.No Question Marks

1. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both surfaces of the same radius of 1
curvature R. On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.65, it will behave as a
(a) convergent lens of focal length 3.3 R (b) convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(c) divergent lens of focal length 3.3 R (d) divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
2. Figure shows a lens of refractive index = 1.5. C1 and C2 are the centres of curvature of the 1
two faces of the lens of radii of curvature 5 cm and 10 cm respectively
The lens behaves as a

(a) converging lens of focal length 60 cm (b) converging lens of focal length 20 cm
(c) diverging lens of focal length 60 cm (d) converging lens of focal length 20 cm
3. Two convex lenses of focal lengths f and f are separated coaxially by a distance d. The 1
power of the combination will be zero if
𝑓 +𝑓 𝑓 −𝑓
(a) d = 1 2 (b) d = 1 2 (c) d = 𝑓1 + 𝑓2 (d) d = √𝑓1 𝑓2
2 2
4. A ray of light travelling in air is incident at an angle i on a plane glass surface. Then there 1
will be
(a) only a refracted ray but no reflected ray
(b) only a reflected ray but no refracted ray
(c) both a reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between them would be greater
than ( 180° – 2i)
(d) both a reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between them would be less
than (180° – 2i)
5. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 45°, then 1
velocity of light in the medium is
(a) 3.12 x108 m/s (b) 2.12 x108 m/s (c) 1.5 x108 m/s (d) 1.12 x108 m/s
6. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface at an angle i. It emerges finally 1
parallel to the surface of water as shown in the fig. The value of 𝜇𝑔 would be
4 1 2
(a) sin i (b) (c) (d) 1.5
3 sin 𝑖 √3 sin 𝑖
7 An equiconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is cut into two halves as shown in figure. Find 1
the focal length of each part?
Principal axis
(a) -30cm (b) -20cm (c) 30cm (d) -15cm

8 1
A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a thin planoconvex lens of focal

length 15 cm. The plane surface of the lens is now silvered. The image created by the
system is at
(a) 60 cm to the left of the system. (b) 60 cm to the right of the system.
(c) 12 cm to the left of the system. (d) 12 cm to the right of the system.
9 If the refractive index from air to glass is 3/2 and that from air to water is 4/3, find the 1
ratio of the focal lengths of a glass lens in water and in air.
(a) 4:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
10 An observer can see through a pin hole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as 1
shown in the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When the beaker is filled
with a liquid up to a height 2h, he can see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive
index of the liquid is
(a) 5/2 (b) √𝟓/𝟐 (c) √𝟑/𝟐 (d) 3/2

11 1
Shown in the figure here is a convergent lens placed inside a cell filled with a liquid. The
lens has focal length + 20 cm when in air and its material has refractive index 1.50. If the
liquid has refractive index 1.60, the focal length of the system is
(a) + 80 cm (b) - 80 cm (c) - 24 cm (d) -100 cm
12 How much intensity of the image is increased if the diameter of the objective of a 1
telescope is doubled?
(a) Two times (b) Four times (c) Eight times (d) Sixteen times
statements.
13 Assertion (A) : The focal length of the lens does not change, when red light is replaced by 1
blue light.
Reason (R) : The focal length of the lens does not depend on colour of the light
14 Assertion (A):A ray of light is incident from outside on a glass sphere surrounded by the 1
air. This ray may suffer total internal reflection at the second interface.
Reason (R): If a ray of light goes from denser to rarer medium, it bends away from the
normal.
15 Assertion : In optical fibre, the diameter of the core is kept small 1
Reason : The smaller diameter of the core ensures that the fibres should have incident
angle more than the critical angle required for total internal reflection.
16 Assertion : A double convex air bubble is formed within a glass slab. The air bubble 1
behaves like a converging lens.
Reason : Refractive index of glass is more that the refractive index of air.
17. A spherical convex surface of radius of curvature 20 cm, made of glass ( n = 1.5) is placed 2
in air. Find the position of the image formed, if a point object is placed at 30 cm in front
of the convex surface on the principal axis.
18 A glass lens of refractive index 1.5 behaves as a converging lens in water ( µ = 1.33) 2
while it behaves as a diverging lens in water ( µ = 1.33) while it behaves as a diverging
lens in carbon disulphide ( µ= 1.65). Why ?
19 The line AB in the ray diagram represents a lens. State whether the lens is convex or 2
concave with reason ?
20 You are given the following three lenses. Which two lenses will you use as an eyepiece 2
and as an objective to construct an astronomical telescope? Give reason.
21. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the 3
coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the
light travelling in the liquid ?
22 Figure shows an object AB placed in front of two thin co-axial lenses 1 and 2 with focal 3
lengths 24 cm and 9 cm, respectively. The object is 6.0 cm from the lens 1 and the lens
separation is L = 10 cm. Where does the system of two lenses produce an image of an
object AB ?
23. Show that the angle of minimum deviation produced by a thin prism is reduced to one 3
fourth (with respect to air) when it is immersed in water. Given a𝜇𝑔 = 3/2 and a𝜇𝑤 = 4/3.
24 3
i) Trace the path of the ray through the prism.

ii) What will be the effect on the path of the ray if the refractive index of the prism is
1.4?
25 3
i) Write two necessary conditions for total internal reflection.

ii) Three rays of different colours fall normally on one of the sides of an isosceles right
angled prism as shown. The refractive indices of prism for these rays(1,2,3) are
1.39,1.47, 1.52 respectively.
Find which of these rays get internally reflected and which get only refracted from
AC. Trace the paths of rays. Justify your answer.
26 i) If the focal length of a plane convex lens is 0.3m and the refractive index of the 3
material of the lens is 1.5, find the radius of curvature of the convex surface of a
plane convex lens.
ii) A magician during a show makes a glass lens µ=1.5 disappears in a trough of liquid.
What is the refractive index of the liquid? Is the liquid water?
27. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow: 4
The lens maker's formula relates the focal length of a lens to the refractive index of the
lens material and the radii of curvature of its two surfaces. This formula is called so
because it is used by manufacturers to design lenses ofrequired focal length from a glass
of given refractive index. If the object is placed at infinity, the image will be formed at
focus for both double convex lens and double concave lens
1 1 1
Therefore, lens maker's formula is 𝑓= [μ2−μ1] [𝑅 - 𝑅 ]
1 2
When lens is placed in air, μ1 = 1 and 𝜇 2 = 𝜇
1 1 1
The lens maker’s formula takes the form 𝑓= [μ−1] [𝑅 - 𝑅 ]
1 2
(i) A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive
index of the lens. Then its focal length will
(a) become zero (b) become infinite
(c) become small, but non-zero (d) remain unchanged.
(ii) When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it
acts as a plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index
(a) equal to that of glass (b) less than one
(c) greater than that of glass (d) less than that of glass
(iii) The radius of curvature of each face of biconcave lens with refractive index 1.5 is 30
cm. The focal length of the lens in air is
(a) 12 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm
(iv) An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly even in absolutely clear water
because of
(a) absorption oflight in water (b) scattering of light in water
(c) reduction of speed of light in water (d) change in the focal length of eye-lens
OR
An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, it should
(a) behave as a perfect reflector
(b) absorb all light falling on it
(c) have refractive index one
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid.
28 In many optical instruments, two or more lenses are used either in contact or with a gap 4
between them. When lenses are used in combination, each lens magnifies the image
formed by the preceding lens. Hence the total magnification is equal to the product of the
magnifications produced by the individual lenses. Equivalent power is given by the
hollowing equation
P=P1+ P2+ P3+……+Pn
(i) We combine two lenses, one is convex and another is concave having focal lengths
f1 and f2 and their combined focal length is F. Combination of the lenses will behave
like concave lens, if
(a) f1> f2 (b) f1= f2 (c) f1< f2 (d) f1≤ f2
(ii) Two identical glass (µg=3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f are kept in contact.
The space between the two lenses is filled with water (µw=4/3). The focal length of
the combination is
(a) f (b) f/2 (c) 4f/3 (d) 3f/4
(iii) The power of a lens( biconvex) is 1.25 m-1 in particular medium. Refractive index of
the lens is 1.5 and radii of curvature are 20 cm and 40 cm respectively. The
refractive index of the surrounding will be
(a) 1.0 (b) 9/7 (c) 3/2 (d) 4/3
(iv) Two lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and -40 cm are held in contact. If an object lies at
infinity, the image formed by the lens combination will be at
(a) infinity (b) 20 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 60 cm
OR
Two lenses of power 3D and -1D are kept in contact. What is focal length and nature
of the combined lens
(a) 50 cm, convex (b) 200cm, convex
(c) 50 cm, concave (d) 200cm, concave
29. (a) Prove the relation 5
𝜇 𝜇 𝜇 𝜇
− 𝑢1 + 𝑣2 = 2 𝑅− 1
when refraction occurs from rarer to denser medium at convex spherical refracting
surface and image formed is real.
Here 𝜇1 and 𝜇2 are the refractive indices of rarer and denser medium.
(b) Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass having µ = 1.5 andR = 0.2
m. The image is formed at a distance of 100 cm from the glass surface in the
direction of incident light. Calculate the object distance from the centre of curvature
of spherical surface.
30. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope. Deduce an 5
expression for the total magnification when the final image is formed at the near
point.
(b) In a compound microscope, an object is placed at a distance of 1.5 cm from the
objective of the focal length 1.25 cm. If the eye piece has a focal length of 5 cm and
final image is formed at the near point, estimate the magnifying power of
microscope.
31 Draw a graph to show the variation of the angle of deviation with that of angle of 5
incidence for a monochromatic ray of light passing through a glass prism of refracting
angle A. Hence derive the prism formula.
32 (a) Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope. 5
Obtain expression for total magnification when the image is formed at infinity.
(b) A ray of light passing from air through an equilateral glass prism undergoes
minimum deviation when the angle of incidence is 3/4th of the angle prism.
Calculate the speed of light in the prism
MARKING SCHEME
Class: XII Chapter no: 9
Subject: Physics Chapter: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

1. (a) convergent lens of focal length 3.3 R 1
2. (b) converging lens of focal length 20 cm 1
3. (c) d = f1 + f2 1
4. (c) both a reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between them would be 1
greater than ( 180° – 2i)
5. (b) 2.12 x108 m/s 1
6. 1 1
(b)
sin 𝑖
7 (c) 30cm 1
8 (c) 12 cm to the left of the system. 1
9 (a) 4:1 1
10. (b) √5/2 1
11 (d) -100 cm 1
12 (b) Four times 1
13 (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false. 1
14 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of 1
Assertion.
15 (c) If the Assertion is true but Reason is false. 1
16 (d) If the Assertion is false but Reason is true. 1
17 𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2 − 𝑛1
- =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑅 1
1.5 1.0 1.5−1.0
- −30 =
𝑣 20
1
Solving, v = -180.0 cm
𝑎𝜇𝑔
18 Refractive index of glass w.r.t. water is wµg = 𝑎
𝜇𝑤
w 1.5
Or, µg = 1.33> 1 ½
Also refractive index of glass w.r.t carbon disulphide is
c 1.5
µg= 1.65< 1
½
1 1 1
We know 𝑓 = ( µ - 1 ) (𝑅 − )
1 𝑅2
Since 𝜇 for CS2 of glass lens is < 1, (µ − 1) is -ve and it behaves as a lens with
negative focal length i.e., the diverging lens. 1
19. (i) Convex lens, Reason : refracted ray is bending towards the principal axis 1
(ii) Concave lens, Reason : refracted ray is bending away from the principal axis 1
20. Objective lens : Lens L1 & Eye piece : Lens L3 1
For higher magnification & brighter image, objective should have large aperture and
large focal length & eye piece should have small aperture and small focal length 1
21
1 1 𝑂𝐵
𝜇𝑙 = sin 𝑖 = 𝐴𝐵/𝑂𝐵 = 𝐴𝐵
𝑐
𝑂𝐵 √32 + 42 5 2
or, 𝐴𝐵 = =3
3
𝑐
∴ vl = 𝜇
𝑙
3 𝑥 108
= = 1.8 x 108 m/s
5/3
22
1 1 1
For lens 1 : 𝑓 = 𝑣 - 𝑢 [ Given µ1 = - 6 cm, fi = 24 cm]
1 1 1
v1 = -8 cm , image formed by lens 1 acts an object lens 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
For lens 2 : 𝑣 - 𝑢 = 𝑓 or 𝑣 = 𝑓 + 𝑢 ,
2 1 2 2 2 2 2
u2 = - | v1 + L | = - | 8 + 10 | = - 18 cm
∴ v2 = 18 cm.
23. 𝛿 = A (𝜇 – 1)
When prism is placed in air, 𝛿 1 = (𝑎𝜇𝑔 – 1)A 1
3 1
= (2 − 1)A = 2A
When prism is placed in water, 𝛿 2 = (𝑤𝜇𝑔 – 1)A
𝑎𝜇𝑔 1
= (𝑎 − 1)A
𝜇𝑤
3/2 9 1
= (4/3 − 1)A = (8 − 1)A = 8 A
𝛿2 1/8𝐴 1 2 1
∴ = = x = 1
𝛿1 1/2𝐴 8 1 4
24 µ>√2, i< ic, ray will suffer total internal reflection as shown in below
As µ=1.4 <√2, i<ic. The ray sufferrefraction and will bend towards normal. 1
25.
1
i<ic
sin i< sin ic
1
sin 450<𝜇, µ>√2
µ1`< µ; µ2& µ3 both are less than µ 1
therefore only ray 1 will total internal reflection.
26 (i) Given that, 𝜇 = 1.5, ƒ= 0.3m

For plane convex lens, R₂ = – ∞ and let R₁ = R
Substituting these values in the formula for focal length,
1/ƒ = (1𝜇2 – 1) (1/R₁ – 1/R₂) 2
⇒1/0.3 = (1.5-1) (1/R + 1/∞ )
⇒(1/R) 0.5 =10.3
⇒ R = 0.15m
Thus, the radius of curvature is R = 0.15m.
(ii) If, 𝜇1 = 𝜇2 then 1/f=0, f = infinity
No, the liquid is not water. 1
27 i) (b) become infinite 1

(ii) (a) equal to that of glass 1
(iii) (d) - 30 cm 1
(iv) (d) change in the focal length of eye-lens 1
(iv) OR (d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid
28. i) (a) f1> f2 1

ii) (d) 3f/4 1
iii) (b) 9/7 1
iv) (c) 40 cm 1
(iv) OR (a) 50 cm, convex
𝜇1 𝜇2 𝜇2 − 𝜇1
29. (a) Proof of − + = 3
𝑢 𝑣 𝑅
(𝑏)𝜇1 = 1, µ2 = 1.5, R = 0.2 m = 20 cm

V = + 100 cm, u = ?
Since the refraction occurs from rarer to denser medium then-
𝜇1 𝜇2 𝜇2 − 𝜇1
+ =
−𝑢 𝑣 𝑅
2
∴ u = - 100 cm
Thus distance of object from the pole of spherical surface is 100 cm.
The distance of the object from the centre of the spherical surface = 100 + 20 = 120
cm.
30. (a) Ray diagram 3
𝐿 𝐷
To derive m = - 𝑓 ( 1 + 𝑓 )
𝑜 𝑒
(b) f0 = 1.25 cm, fe = 5 cm, u0 = - 1.5 cm, ve = - D = - 25 cm
1 1 1
- 𝑢 +𝑣 =𝑓
0 0 0
375
∴ v0 = 50 = 7.5 cm 2
∴ Magnifying power of compound microscope
𝑣 𝐷 7.5 25
m = 𝑢0 (1 + ) = - 1.5 (1 + )
0 𝑓
𝑒 5
= - 5 x 6 = - 30
31.
When angle of incidence increases angle of deviation decreases.

At 𝛿𝑚, i=e and r1=r2= r 1
After minimum deviation, angle of deviation increases with angle of incidence.
32. a) Ray diagram of a compound microscope : A schematic diagram of a compound

microscope is shown in the figure. The lens nearest the object, called the
objective, forms a real, inverted, magnified image of the object. This serves as
the object for the second lens, the eyepiece, which functions essentially like a
simple microscope or magnifier, produces the final image, which is enlarged and
virtual. The first inverted image is thus near (at or within) the focal plane of the
eyepiece, at a distance appropriate for final image formation at infinity, or a little
closer for image formation at the near point. Clearly, the final image is inverted
with respect to the original object.
Magnification due to a compound microscope.

The ray diagram shows that the (linear) magnification due to the objective,
h L
namely h’/h, equals m0   ………….. (i)
h f0
Here h’ is the size of the first image, the object size being h and f0 being the focal
length of the objective. The first image is formed near the focal point of the
eyepiece. The distance L, i.e., the distance between the second focal point of the
objective and the first focal point of the eyepiece (focal length fe) is called the
tube length of the compound microscope.
As the first inverted image is near the focal point of the eyepiece, we use for the
simple microscope to obtain the (angular) magnification me due to it when the
D 2
final image is formed at the near point, is me  1  ………….. (ii)
fe
When the final image is formed at infinity, the angular magnification due to the
D
eyepiece, me me  ………….. (iii)
fe
Thus, the total magnification from equation (i) and (iii), when the image is
 L D
formed at infinity, is m  m0 me    
 f0 fe 
2
QUESTION BANK
Class: Chapter no: 10
Subject: Physics Chapter: Wave Optics
Q. No Question Marks
1. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the light has a frequency of 6x1014 Hz and 1
distance between the centres of adjacent fringes is 0.75 mm. If the screen is 1 m away,
the distance between the slits is
(a) 0.67 mm (b) 0.47 mm (c) 0.37 mm (d) 0.57 mm
2. At two points P and Q on screen in Young’s double slit experiment, waves from slits S1 1
and S2 have a path difference of 0 and ⋋/6 respectively. The ratio of intensities at P and
Q will be
(a) 4: 3 (b) 1:3 (c) 2: 3 (d) 5:3
3. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance d as shown. The 1
fringes obtained on the screen will be
(a) circular (b) points (c) straight lines (d) semi-circles

4. In Young’s double slit experiment, a monochromatic light of wavelength 5400 𝐴̇ 1
produces a fringe width of 3 mm. If this source is replaced by another source of
monochromatic light of wavelength 6300𝐴̇ and the separation between the slits is
doubled, then fringe width is
(a) 1.80 mm (b) 1.50 mm (c) 1.75 mm (d) 2.50 mm
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, 10 fringes are observed to be formed in a certain 1
region of the screen when light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If the light of wavelength
400 nm is used, the number of fringes observed in the same region of the screen will be
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 15
6. A slit of width 0.1 mm is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wavelength 5000Å 1
and diffraction bands are observed on a screen 1m away from the slit. The distance of
the fifth dark band from the central bright band is
(a) 5 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm
7. In the figure CP represents a wavefront and AO and BP, the corresponding two rays. 1
Find the condition on 𝜃for constructive interference at P between the ray BP and the
reflected ray OP
3λ λ
(a) cos𝜃 = (b) cos𝜃 =
2𝑑 4𝑑
λ 4λ
(c) sec𝜃-cos𝜃 = (d) sec𝜃-cos𝜃 =
𝑑 𝑑
8 A single slit of width b is illuminated by coherent monochromatic light of wavelength 1

λ. If the second and fourth minima in the diffraction pattern at a distance 1 m from the
slit are at 3 cm and 6 cm, respectively from the central maximum, what is the width of
the central maximum? (i.e. the distance between the first minimum on either side of the
central maximum)
(a) 6.0 cm (b) 1.5 cm (c) 4.5 cm (d) 3.0 cm
9. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel glass-slab at a point A as shown in 1
fig. It undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At each reflection 25% of incident
energy is reflected. The rays AB and A'B' undergo interference. The ratio Imax/Imin is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 (c) 7 : 1 (d) 49 : 1
10. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam of red light. What will happen, if the 1
red light is replaced by the blue light?
(a) bands disappear
(b) bands become broader and farther apart.
(c) No change will take place.
(d) diffraction bands become narrower and crowded together
11. A monochromatic beam of light falls on YDSE apparatus at some angle (say 𝜃) as 1
shown in figure. A thin sheet of glass is inserted in front of the lower slit S2. The central
bright fringe (path difference = 0) will be obtained
(a) At O (b) Above O (c) Below O

(d) Anywhere depending on angle 𝜃, thickness of plate t and refractive index of glass
m
12. A Young's double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of the 1
interference fringes formed on a screen is
(a) Straight line (b) Parabola (c) Hyperbola (d) Circle
statements.
13. Assertion (A): At an infinite distance from a point source located in a homogeneous 1
medium, the wavefront is a plane wavefront.
⋋
Reason (R) : When the path difference between two points is (2n + 1) 2 , then the phase
difference between those two points is ( 2n + 1) 𝜋.
14 Assertion (A ):The wavelength of light coming from a sodium source is 589 nm. Its 1
589
wavelength in water is 1.33 nm.
Reason (R): Frequency of light remains unchanged as light travels from one medium to
another medium.
15 Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using yellow light instead of red light, the 1
fringes becomes narrower.
Reason : In YDSE, fringe width is given by β=λD/d
16. Assertion : According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is possible. 1
Reason : Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ is the
angle between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of secondary
wavelet.
17. Two coherent light waves of intensity 5 x10-2 Wm-2 each superimpose and produce the 2
interference pattern on a screen. At a point where the path difference between the waves
is ⋋/6, find the resultant intensity at that point.
18. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit, how will the angular width of central 2
maximum change, if
(i) orange light is used in place of green light and
(ii) the screen is moved closer to the slit?
Justify your answer in each case.
19. Draw a diagram to show refraction of a plane wave front incident in a convex lens and 2
hence draw the refracted wave front.
20. Arun and Shyam are doing young’s double slit experiment. Arun has kept the 2
separation between the slits and screen D but Shyam has kept double of that. How does
the fringe width change for their experimental setup?
21. (a) If one of the two identical slits producing interference in Young’s experiment is 3
covered with glass, so that the light intensity passing through it is reduced to 50%,
find the ratio of the maximum and minimum intensity of the fringe in the
interference pattern.
(b) What kind of fringes do you expect to observe if white light is used instead of
monochromatic light?
22. The intensity at the central maxima O in a Young’s double slit experiment is I0. If the 3
distance OP equals one-third of the fringe width of the pattern. Show that the intensity
𝐼
at point P would be 40
23. What is the effect on the interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment due to 3
each of the following operations? Justify your answers.
(i) two coherent sources are infinitely close to each other
(ii) light of smaller frequency is used
(iii) the apparatus is immersed in water?
24. In young’s double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is halved, what 3
change in the fringe width will take place?
25. Draw the curve depicting variation of intensity in the interference pattern in young’s 3
double slit experiment. State conditions for obtaining sustained interference of light?
26. What is the shape of the wave front in each of the following cases: 3
(a) Light diverging from a point source.
(b) Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus.
(c) The portion of the wave front of light from a distant star intercepted by the Earth.
27. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow. 4
Interference is based on the superposition principle. According to this principle, at a
particular point in the medium, the resultant displacement produced by a number of
waves is the vector sum of the displacements produced by each of the waves. If two
sodium lamps illuminate two pinholes S1 and S2, the intensities will add up and no
interference fringes will be observed on the screen. Here the source undergoes abrupt
phase change in times of the order of 10-10 seconds.
(i) Two coherent sources of intensity 10 W/m2 and 25 W/m2 interfere to form
fringes. The ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity is
(a) 15.54 (b) 16.78 (c) 19.72 (d) 18.39
(ii) Which of the following does not show interference?
(a) Soap bubble (b) Excessively thin film
(c) A thick film (d) Wedge shaped film
(iii) In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To maintain
the same fringe spacing on the screen, the screen-to- slit distance D must be
changed to
(a) 2 D (b) 4 D (c) D/2 (d) D /4
(iv) The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit separation equal
to twice the wavelength in Young's double-slit experiment, is
(a) infinite (b) five (c) three (d) zero
OR
The resultant amplitude of a vibrating particle by the superposition of the two
wavesy1= a sin [ωt+π/3] and y2= a sinωt is
(a) a (b) √2 a (c) 2 a (d) √3𝑎
28. YDSE can be used to determine the wavelength of a monochromatic light. The
interference pattern is obtained in the focal plane of a micrometer eyepiece and with its
help fring width β is measured. By measuring the distance d between the two coherent
sources and their distance D from the eyepiece the value of λ can be calculated. The
resultant intensity at a point is maximum, called constructive interference. The resultant
intensity at a point is minimum, called destructive interference.
(i) A YDSE uses monochromatic source. The shape of interference fringes formed on a
screen is
(a) hyperbola (b) circle (c) straight line (d) parabola
(ii) In YDSE, the intensity at a point where path difference is λ/6 is I1. If I0 denotes
the maximum intensity, then I1/ I0 isequal to
1 √3
(a) ¾ (b) (c) 2 (d) ½
√2
(iii) The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit separation equal to
twice wavelength in YDSE is
(a) infinite (b) five (c) three (d) zero
(iv) Ratio of intensities of two waves are given by 4:1. Then the ratio of the
amplitudes of the two waves is
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 4:1 (d) 1:4
OR
YDSE is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found
that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5 th dark lies in air. The refractive
index of the medium is nearly
(a) 1.25 (b) 1.59 (c) 1.69 (d) 1.78
29 (a) There are two sets of apparatus of Young’s double slit experiment. In set A, the 5
phase difference between the two waves emanating from the slits does not change
with time whereas in set B, the phase difference between the two waves from the
slit changes rapidly with time. What difference will be observed on the screen in
the two set ups?
(b) Deduce the expression for the resultant intensity in both the mentioned set ups (A
and B). Assuming that the waves emanating from the two slits have the same
amplitude and same wavelength.
30. (a) Write two points of differences between an interference pattern and a diffraction 5
pattern.
(b) A slit of width d is illuminated by white light. For what values of d is the first
minimum for red ight of wavelength 𝜆= 650 nm, located at point P at 300. For
what values of wavelength of light will the first diffraction maxima also fall at
point P?
31 a) In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is reduced to half its 5
original width. How would this affect the size and intensity of the central
maximum?
b) i) State one feature by which the phenomenon of interference can be
distinguished from that of diffraction.
ii) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit
of width ‘a’. If the distance between the slits and the screen is 0.8 m and the
distance of 2nd order maximum from the centre of the screen is. 15 mm,
calculate the width of the slit.
32 (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, derive the condition for 5
(i) constructive interference and
(ii) destructive interference at a point on the screen.
(b) A beam of light consisting of two wavelenths, 800 nm and 600 nm is used to
obtain the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment on a screen
placed 1.4 m away. If the two slits are separated by 0.28 mm, calculate the least
distance from the central bright maximum where the bright fringes of the two
wavelengths coincide.
MARKING SCHEME
Class: XII Chapter no:10
Subject: Physics Chapter Name: Wave Optics

1. (a) 0.67 mm 1
2. ( a) 4:3 1
3. (a) circular 1
4. (c) 1.75 mm 1
5. (d) 15 1
6. (c) 25 mm 1
7 λ
(b) cos𝜃 = 4𝑑
8 (b) 1.5 cm
9 d) 49 : 1
10 d) diffraction bands become narrower and crowded together
11 d) Anywhere depending on angle 𝜃, thickness of plate t and refractive index of glassm
12 c) Hyperbola
13 (b) ) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of 1
Assertion.
14 (b) ) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of 1
Assertion.
15. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the 1
Assertion.
16. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not correct explanation of 1
the Assertion.
17 2𝜋 2
Phase diff. = 𝜑 = ⋋ 𝑥 ⋋/6 = 𝜋/3
I = 2 I0 ( 1 + cos 𝜑 ) =3I0 = 15 x 10-2 Wm-2
18 2⋋ 2
Angular width , 𝜃= 𝑎
(i) ⋋𝑂 >⋋𝐺
𝜃𝑂 >𝜃𝐺
Angular width increases
(ii) Angular width is independent of the distance between slit and screen, so it remains
unchanged.
19. 2
20. If the distance between slits and screen (D) is doubled, the fringe width in double will 2
D
become double as x  or, x  D
2d
3
21. 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑎1 + 𝑎2 )2
(a) = (𝑎1 −𝑎2 )2
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
According to question, I2 = 50% of I1

I2 = 0.5 I1 ; 𝑎22 = 0.5 𝑎12 ( ∵ I ∝ 𝑎2 )
𝑎
a2 = 1
√2
Hence,
2 2 2
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑎1 + 𝑎1 /√2) (𝑎1 + 𝑎1 /√2) √2 +1
= 2 = 2 =( ) = 34
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 (𝑎1 −𝑎2 /√2) (𝑎1 −𝑎2 /√2) √2−1
(b) The central fringe is white. On the either side of the central white fringe the
coloured bands (few coloured maxima and minima) will appear. This is because
fringes of different colours overlap
22. 𝐷⋋ 3
𝛽=
𝑑
𝛽 𝐷⋋
y = 3 = 3𝑑
𝑦𝑑 ⋋
Path diff = =3
𝐷
2𝜋
Phase diff = ∆𝜑 = 3
I0 = 4I
∆𝜑 𝐼
IP = 4 I cos2 ( 2 ) = 4𝑂
23. 𝐷⋋ 𝐷𝑐 3
Fringe width = 𝛽 = 𝑑 =𝑑𝜈
(i) Fringe width becomes very large. Even a single fringe may occupy the entire
screen. The interference pattern is not observable.
(ii) Fringe width increases
(iii) Wavelength of light in water decreases, so fringe width also decreases.
24 D 3

d
d
When d   ,    2 
2
25. 3
Correct conditions
3
26
The portion of the wavefront of light from a distant star intercepted by the Earth is
aplane.
27 (i) (c) 19.72 1
(ii) (b) Excessively thin film 1
(iii) (a) 2 D 1
(iv) (b) five OR (d) √3𝑎 1
28 i. a) hyperbola 1
ii. a) ¾ 1
iii. b) five 1
iv. a) 2:1 OR (d) 1.78 1
29. a) 1. In Set A, Interference pattern will be stable but in Set B it is not stable. 5
2. In Set A, The positions of maxima and minima will not change with respect to
time but in Set B, the positions will change quickly with time. Mean uniform intensity
distribution is observed on screen.
(b) Set A
The displacement produced by slit S1 and S2
y1 = a cos 𝜔𝑡
y2 = a cos (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙)
Resultant displacement,
y = y1 + y2
= a[cos 𝜔𝑡 + cos (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙)]
𝜙 𝜙
= 2a cos 2 cos (𝜔𝑡 + 2 )
The amplitude of resultant displacement is given by
2a cos( 𝜙/2) so the intensity is given by,
I = 4I0 cos2( 𝜙/2)
As 𝜙is zero so intensity,
I = 4I0
Set B
The mean intensity is given by,
Iav = 4 I0 (cos2𝜙/2)av
i.e. I = 2I0
30 a) Two differences – 5
(b) Here 𝜆 = 650 nm = 650 x 10-9 m
n= 1, 𝜃 = 300
For first minima in diffraction pattern
dsin𝜃 = n𝜆
𝑛𝜆 1 𝑥 650 1 𝑥 650
d = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛300 = 0.5 = 1300 nm
For the first maxima to lie at point P, we have
𝜆′ 3𝜆′
d sin𝜃 = (2n + 1) 2 = 2
2 2 1
𝜆′ = dsin𝜃 = x 1300 x
3 3 2
= 433.3 nm
31. D 5

d
 D 2 D
    2
d d
d
As width reduces to half, i.e. d  
2
Size becomes twice and intensity I = a2
2
a 1 1
 I      a2  I
2 4 4
(i) In interference all the maxima are of equal intensity.
In diffraction pattern central fringe is of maximum intensity while intensity of
secondary maxima falls rapidly.
(ii) Given  = 600 nm = 6 x 10–7 m,
D = 0.8 m, 2 = 15 x 10–3 m
To calculate : width of the slit ‘d’
5 D
Calculations :  2  
2 d
5 6c10  0.8
–7
d  
2 15  10 –3
 Distance, d = 8 x 10–5 = 80 µm
32. (a) For constructive interference : We will have constructive interference resulting in a 5
bright fringe when path difference is equal to nλ.
xd n D
 n x
D d
n D
 xn  Where [n = 0,  1,  2 …]
d
Since the separation between the centres of two consecutive bright fringes is called
fringe width. It is denoted by β
Hence all bright and dark fringes are of equal width.
Observations :
(i) Fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light i.e. p X.
(ii) Fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between two sources
(iii) Fringe width is directly proportional to the distance between screen and two
sources i.e. β∝1d.
Suppose at any distance x from the central maximum,
Hence all bright and dark fringes are of equal width.

Observations :
(i) Fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light i.e. p X.
(ii) Fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between two sources
(iii) Fringe width is directly proportional to the distance between screen and two
sources i.e. β∝1d.
D = 1.4 m
Suppose at any distance x from the central maximum,
QUESTION BANK
Subject: Physics Chapter: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Q. No. Section A Marks
1 Green light when incident on a metal plate causes photoelectric emission but 1
withorange light no emission takes place.Then, will there photoelectric emission when
an EM wave belonging to IR region is incident on the metal?
(a) Yes, because IR rays are highly energetic.
(b) No, because IR rays cannot cause photoelectric emission.
(c) Yes, because IR rays have a higher frequency than orange light.
(d) No, because IR rays have a longer wavelength than orange light.
2 Calculate the ratio of de Broglie wave-length of thermal neutrons at 0°C to electrons 1
at 273°C
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:30 (c) 30:1 (d) 1:60
3 The work function of a metal is independent of : 1
(i) nature of the surface of the metal
(ii) volume of the metal
(iii) properties of the metal
(iv) plentiful of the metal
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
4 Which of the following will have the least value of q/m 1
(a) Electron (b) Proton (c) α-particle (d) ß-particle
5 If maximum velocity with which an electron can be emitted from a metal surface is 1
2x106m/sec, the stopping potential is (mass of electron = 9 x 10-31 kg)
(a) 11.25V (b) 22.50V (c) 22.50eV (d) 45 V
6 What is the ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of proton and an alpha particle, 1
whensame magnetic field applied and the radius of the path of alpha particle twice
than proton?(assuming the field induction vector B is perpendicular to the velocity
vectors of the α – particle and the proton)
(a) 4: 1 (b) 2:1 (c) 3√2: 1 (d) 2√2: 1
7 For photoelectric emission, Tungsten requires light of wavelength 2300 Å. If light of 1
wavelength 1800 Å is incident, then emission.
(a) Takes place (b) Does not take place
(c) may or may not take place (d) depends upon frequency.
8 The correct curve between the stopping potential(Vo) and intensity of incident light(I) 1
is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 A photocell, connected in an electrical circuit, is placed at a distance d from a source 1

of light. As a result current I flow in the circuit and plate emits electrons having
stopping potential Vo. What will be the current(I') and stopping potential (Vo')when
the distance is reduce to d/2?
(a) I & 2Vo (b)2l & Vo(c)4I & Vo(d)I & 4Vo
10 Two particles of different masses are given. Out of the following options in which 1
case de Broglie wavelength of the particle having heavy mass will have smaller
wavelength? Cases are as follows.
i) when two particles are falling freely from same height
ii) when two particles have same kinetic energy
iii) When two particles have same linear momentum.
iv) When two particles have same speed.
(a) (i), (ii)&(iii) are correct. (b) (ii), (iii)&(iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii)&(iv) are correct (d) all four options are correct.
11 If E1and E2 ( E1>E2 ) are the maximum kinetic energy of ejected photo electrons of a 1
metal plates due to the incident radiation of frequency ν1 and ν2 respectively then
value of Planck’s constant (h) and work function (𝑊) are
E −E E ν −E ν E −E E ν −E ν
(a) h = ν1 −ν 2 andW = 1 ν1 −ν 2 2 (b) h = ν1 −ν 2 and W = 1 ν2 −ν 2 1
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
E1 +E2 E1 ν1 +E2 ν2 E1 +E2 E1 ν2 +E2 ν1

(c) h = and W = (d) h = and W =
ν1 +ν2 ν1 +ν2 ν1 +ν2 ν1 +ν2
12 Radiations of two photon energies three and five times the work function of metal are 1
incident successively on the photosensitive metal surface. The ratio of the maximum
velocity of the photoelectrons emitted in the two cases will be
(a) 3/5 (b) √3/√5 (c) ½ (d) 1/ √2
statements.
13 Assertion:The energy of X-ray photon is greater than that of light (visible) photon 1
Reason:X-ray photon in vacuum travels faster than light photon.
14 Assertion:If the work function of a material increases, it requires greater energy to 1
excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason: A plot of stopping potential (Vs) versus frequency (ʋ) for a different
materials has greater slope for a metals with greater work functions.
15 Assertion: A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency ʋ 1
>ʋo. On doubling the frequency of incident light (ʋ), both the maximum kinetic
energy(Kmax) and stopping potential (Vo) are also doubled.
Reason:The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential of photoelectrons
emitted from a surface are independent of the frequency of incident light.
16 Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength of a certain charged particle is λ. If the 1
accelerating potential (V) applied on a charged particle is doubled, then the associated
de-Broglie wavelength becomes √2 λ.
Reason: de-Broglie wavelength is λ ∝ √ V.
17 2
Figure shows the plot of 1/√ V (V is an accelerating potential) versus the de Broglie
wavelength λ for two particles having the same charge. Which the two lines A or B
represents a particle of larger mass? Explain.
18 The following data gives the values of work functions for photosensitive metals. 2
Metal Work function (eV)

Li 2.3
Ca 2.7
Al 4.2
If each of these metals is exposed to radiations of wavelength 330nm, which of these
will not exit photoelectrons and why?
19 Find the de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated with an electron in an accelerating 2
potential (V). Show on a graph the variation of de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated
with an electron, with the square root of accelerating potential (V).
20 Explain work function in terms of wavelength. 2
A metal plate with work function 4.2 eV is exposed to radiation with photon energy
5.7 eV.
What happens to kinetic energy of ejected electrons if intensity of radiation is
doubled?
21 Draw the graphs, showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of 3
incident radiations for two photosensitive materials A and B having threshold
frequencies ʋA>ʋB, respectively.
(i) Which of the two metals, A or B has higher work function?
(ii) What information do you get from the slope of the graphs?
(iii) What does the value of the intercept of graph 'A' on the potential-axis represents?
22 3
The graph shows the variation of photo- current for a photosensitive metal:
(a) Identify the variable X on the horizontal axis.
(b) What does the point A on the horizontal axis represent?
(c) Draw this graph for three different values of frequencies of incident radiation
v1,v2and v3 (v1<v2<v3) for same intensity.
(d) Draw this graph for three different values of intensities of incident radiationI1, I2
andI3(I1<I2< I3) having same frequency.
23 Explain how does (i) photoelectric current and(ii) kinetic energy of the photoelectrons 3
emitted in aphotocell vary if the frequency of incident radiation is doubled, but
keeping the intensity same ? Show the graphical variation in the above two cases.
24 Define de Broglie wavelength. 3
In the nth orbit of hydrogen atom, find the ratio of the radius of the orbital electron
and de Broglie wavelength associated with it.
25 Radiations of frequencies 𝝼1 and 𝝼2are made to fall in turn, on a photo sensitive 3
surface. The stopping potential required to stop the most energetic photo electrons in
the two cases are given V1 and V2 respectively. Obtain a formula for determining
Planck’s constant and threshold frequency in terms of these parameters.
26 Sketch the graphs showing variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident 3
radiations for two photosensitive materials A and B having threshold frequencies
𝝼A>𝝼B
(i) In which case is the stopping potential more and why?
(ii) Does the slope of the graph depend on the nature of the material used? Explain.
27 Case Study Based Question: 4
The phenomenon of emission of electrons from a photosensitive metal surface, when
em radiations of sufficiently high frequency are incident on it, is called photoelectric
emission. The generated electrons are called photoelectrons. The wave theory of e.m.
radiation fails to explain some experimentally observed facts on photoelectric effect
such as its instantaneous nature, independence of the maximum K.E of photoelectrons
from intensity of incident radiation, and the existence of threshold frequency for
everyphoto emitter.
According to the photo electric emission, the radiation behaves as if it consists of
quanta or small packets of energy, each of energy hʋ.
The Einstein’s photoelectric equations: Kmax = eVo =hʋ-W.
(i) Which one of the following statements is not true about photoelectric emission?
(a) For a given suitable frequency, the number of photoelectrons emitted per
second is proportional to the intensity of incident light
(b) For every photosensitive material there is a definite threshold frequency
below which no electrons are emitted, no matter what the intensity of light is.
(c) Above the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of incident light.
(d) The saturation value of the photoelectric current is independent of the
intensity of incident light.
(ii) When photons of energy hv are incident on the surface photo cell of work
function hvo, then
(a) The kinetic energy of all emitted electrons is hʋo
(b) The kinetic energy of all emitted protons is h(ʋ-ʋo)
(c) The kinetic energy of all fastest electrons ish(ʋ-ʋo)
(d) The kinetic energy of all emitted electrons ish ʋ
(iii) Following graphs show the variation of photoelectric current with anode
potential for two light beams of same frequency but of different intensities.
Then
(a) I1> I2 (b) I1=I2
(c) I1<I2 (d) No relation between I1 and I2
(iv) The graph ofkinetic energy of emitted electron with frequency of incident
radiation is plotted as shown in the figure.
The slope of curve is

(a) h / v (b) h (c) hc (d) h / c
OR
Time taken by a photoelectron to come out of a metal surface after the photon
strikes it is approximately:
(a) 10-16 s (b) 10-1 s (c) 10-4 s (d) 10-10 s
28 Case study based questions. 4
Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of a
metal when a light of suitable frequency is incident on it. The emitted electrons are
called photoelectrons. For every metal, there is a certain minimum frequency of the
incident light (called threshold frequency) for which there is a just emission of
photoelectrons from the surface of metal without any kinetic energy. The energy of the
incident photon of threshold frequency (v0) is equal to work function (W0) of metal. So,
hv0, where h is a Planck's constant. For photoelectric emission, the visible light is used
for alkali metals and ultraviolet light is used for alkaline metals. The work function of
every metal is constant and does not change with the change in intensity of the incident
light. The increase in the intensity of incident light on a photosensitive surface increases
the photoelectric current and increase in the frequency of the incident light increases the
maximum KE of the emitted photoelectrons which is given by Einstein's photoelectric
equation as, (KE) max = hv - W0
Lower is the work function of a metal larger is the maximum KE of the emitted
photoelectrons and vice versa. A minimum negative potential (Vo) given to anode
w.r.t., cathode in the photocell for which the photoelectric current becomes zero is
called cut off potential or stopping potential Vo. i.e. KEmax = ½ mv2max = eV0
The value of cut off potential depends upon the frequency of incident light and nature
of the metal surface but is independent of intensity of incident light.
Answer the following questions.
(i) Photo editing effect shows which nature of the particle?
(a) Wave nature
(b) particle nature
(c) both wave and particle nature
(d) neither wave nature nor particle nature
(ii) Maximum kinetic energy of ejected electron depends on the frequency of
incident photon when frequency of incident photons is
(a) equal to the threshold frequency
(b) half of threshold frequency
(c) greater than threshold frequency
(d) 1/3 of threshold frequency
(iii) The slope of curve between stopping potential and frequency of incident ray for
a given surface will be
(a) h (b) h/e (c) eh (d) e
(iv) Which of the following has maximum stopping potential when metal is
illuminated by visible light?
(a) red (b) yellow (c) blue (d) violet
OR
Red and orange light of same intensities eject electrons from a metal X with
maximum kinetic energy ER and EO respectively. Then
(a) ER = 2 EO (b) ER = EO (c) ER > EO (d) ER< EO
29 (a) Write twoobserved features of photoelectric effect which cannot be explained by 5
wave theory of light.
(b) The graphs, drawn here,are for the phenomenon of photoelectric effect.
(i) Identify which of the two characteristics (intensity/frequency) of incident light,
is being kept constant in each case.
(ii) Name the quantity, corresponding to the, mark, in each case.
(iii) Justify the existence of a 'threshold frequency for a given photosensitive surface.
30 (i) Two monochromatic beams A and B of equal intensity I hit a screen. The 5
number of photons hitting the screen by beam A is twice that by beam B. What
inference can you make about their frequencies?
(ii) The work function of a metal is 2.31eV. Photoelectric emission occurs when
light of frequency 6.4 x1014 Hz is incident on the metal surface. Calculate
(a)energy of the incident radiation.
(b)the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons.
(c)stopping potential of the surface.
31 (a) Give a brief description of the basic elementary process involved in the photo 5
electric emission in Einstein's picture.
(b) When a photosensitive material is irradiated with the light of frequency v, draw a
graph between the maximum speed of electrons and incident frequency.
Use Einstein's photoelectric equation to find the expressions for (i) Planck's
constant and (ii) work function of the given photosensitive material in terms of
the parameters ‘l’, ‘n’ and the mass ‘m’ of the electron.
(c) How is threshold frequency determined from the plot?
32 Describe an experimental arrangement to study photoelectric effect. 5
Explain the effect of (i) intensity of light on photoelectric current, (ii) potential on
photoelectric current for different intensity of light and (iii) frequency of incident
radiation on stopping potential.
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: Physics Chapter: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
1 d) 1
2 b) 1/2mv = (3/2)KT, m v = 3KTm, p =√3KTm
2 2 2
1
3 d) 1
4 c) 1
5 a) 1
6 a) r=mv/qB, mv=qB, λ=h/qBr 1
7 a) 1
8 b) 1
9 c)4I&Vo 1
10 c) (i), (ii) & (iv) arecorrect 1
11 𝐸 −𝐸 𝐸1 𝜈2 −𝐸2 𝜈1 1
b) ℎ = 𝜈1 −𝜈2 and 𝑊 =
1 2 𝜈1 −𝜈2
12 d)1/√2 1
13 C 1
14 C 1
15 d)Bothassertionandreasonarefalse. 1
16 d)Both assertion and reason are false. 1
17 λ =h/√ (2mqV) slope = (1/√ V) / λ =√( 2mq)/V. Slope ∝ √m 1
Hence the line A with greater slope represents the particle of larger mass. 1
18 That material will not emit photoelectrons whose work function is greater than the 0.5
energyof the incident radiation. 1
E =hν=hc/λ =3.76 eV
Hence work function of Al is (4.2eV) which is greater than the energy of the incident 0.5
radiation (= 3.76 eV)
19 ℎ 1
Derive 𝜆 = √2𝑚𝑒𝑉
20 Definition 1
Kinetic energy of the ejected will be same as it is independent of intensity of incident 1
radiation.
21 1
(i) Metal A has a higher work function because vó> vo. 0.5
(ii) As eV0 = hv - W0 or V0 = (h/e)v – (W0/e) 0.5
Slope of Vo - v graph h / e
(iii) Intercept of graph A on the potential-axis = W’0/e
It depends on the work function of the material. 1
22 a. X: Anode potential 0.5
b. A: Stopping potential 0.5
c. Graph 1
d. Graph 1
23 (i)The increase in frequency of incident radiation has no effect on photoelectric 0.5
current. This is because of incident photon of increased energy cannot eject more than
one electron from the metal surface.
and Graph 1
(ii)The K.E. of the photoelectron becomes more than double of its original energy. As 0.5
the work function of the metal is fixed, so incident photon of higher frequency will
impart more energy to the photoelectron.
and Graph 1
24 Definition 1
For nth orbit mvnrn=nh/2𝝿 2
ℎ 2πr 𝑟𝑛 𝑛
Vn=(nh/2𝝿mrn) , λ = 𝑚𝑣 = 𝑛 n , =
𝑛 λ 2𝜋
25 eV0=h𝝼 - W0=h(𝝼 – 𝝼0)
ℎ 1
V0=𝑒 (𝝼 – 𝝼0)
ℎ
For frequency𝝼1, V1=𝑒 (𝝼1 – 𝝼0)-------------------------1
ℎ
For frequency𝝼1, V2=𝑒 (𝝼2 – 𝝼0)-------------------------2
(𝑉1−𝑉2)𝑒 𝜈1 𝑉2 −𝜈2 𝑉1 2
From Eq (1) & Eq (2),ℎ = and 𝜈0 =
ν1 −ν2 𝑉2 −𝑉1
26 1
As eV0= hv - W0=h(v – v0)

Then V0= h/e(v – v0). For the same value of v, stopping potential is more for metal B.
ii) No, slope of the graph =h/e= constant and same for all metals
It is independent of nature of material.
27 i) d ii) c iii) c iv) b OR d) 1x 4=4
28 i) b. Particle nature 1x4 =4
ii) c. Greater than threshold frequency.
iii) b. h/e iv) d. violet or d) ER< EO
29 (a)Wave theory of light fails to explain the
following features of photoelectric effect ( Any two relevant points)-
(i) The photoelectric emission is an instantaneousprocess.
(ii) Existence of a threshold frequency for every metal.
(iii) The maximum K.E. of photoelectrons is independent of the intensity of incident
radiation.
(b) (i) In graph 1, intensity is kept constant. Ingraph 2, frequency is kept constant. 3
(ii) Saturationcurrent in graph 1 and stopping potential ingraph 2.
(iii) For photoelectric emission to occur,
Energy of incident photon ≥ Work function
or hv≥ W0 orv≥ W0/h
Therefore v0= W0/h
30 (i)Let nA = number of photons falling per second of beam A 1
nB = number of photons falling per second of beam B
Energy of beam A=hνA, Energy of beam B=hνB
Then according to the question, 1
Intensity I = nAhνA = nBhνB
Or, 𝑛𝐴 / 𝑛𝐵= ν𝐴 / ν𝐵
Or, νB = 2νA
Hence frequency of beam B is twice that of A. 1
(ii) (a) Energy of incident radiation, E= hν = 6.63x10-34 x6.4 x1014 J= 2.65 eV
(b) Maximum kinetic energy, Kmax = (2.65- 2.31) eV= 0.342 eV 1
(c) Stopping potential Vo = Kmax / 𝑒 = 0.342 𝑒𝑉 / 𝑒 = 0.342 V 1
31 Write any three main points 112
a) Einstein photoelectric equation can be used to determine the plank's constant 'h'.
2
thus, we have
We know, the slope of the graph is,
plank's constant is
(b) From the graph, (intercept on the vertical axis)

1
Hence, the work function will be;-
(c) The threshold frequency is the intercept on horizontal. Therefore, ½
32 Explanation of experiment on photoelectric effect with a suitable diagram 2
 Because when intensity of incident light increases, it means that number of
photons increases in incident light. If number of incident photons increases, 1
then number of emitted photo electrons also increases, consequently the photo
electric current increases.


QUESTION BANK
Class: XII Chapter no.: -12
Subject: PHYSICS Chapter: Atoms
Q. Question Marks
No.
1 What is the ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in the Balmer series of 1
hydrogen atom?
(a) 5:9 (b) 5:36 (c) 1:4 (d) 3:4
2 What is the energy required to ionize an H-atom from the second excited state, if 1
ground state ionization energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV?
(a) 1.5 eV (b) 3.4 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 12.1 eV
3 In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, which of the following is quantized? 1
(a) linear velocity of electron (b) angular velocity of electron
(c) linear momentum of electron (d) angular momentum of electron.
4 An electron orbiting in H atom has energy level -3.4eV. Its angular momentum will be 1
(a) 2.1x 10-34 Js (b) 2.1x 10-20 Js (c) 4x 10-20 Js (d) 4x10-34 Js
5 What is the minimum energy that must be given to a H atom in ground state so that it 1
can emit an (𝐻𝛾), line in Balmer series. If the angular momentum of the system is
conserved?
(a) 12.4eV (b) 10.2eV (c) 13.06eV (d) 13.6eV
6 Using Bohr model, calculate the electric current created by the electron when the H- 1
atom is in the ground state. (v=speed of electron and r= radius of the orbit in ground
state)
(a) ev/2πr (b) 2πr/ev (c) ev/2r (d) Zero
7 The graph which depicts the results of Rutherford gold foil experiment with α particles 1
(where θ= scattering angle, Y= no. of scattered α particles detected)
8 1
The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which
transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
9 Consider the spectral line resulting from the transition n=2→n=1 in the atoms and ions 1
given below. The shortest wavelength is produced by
(a) Hydrogen atom (b) Deuterium atom
(c) Singly ionized Helium (d) Doubly ionized Lithium
10 In the Bohr model of a hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is furnished by the 1
coulomb attraction between the proton and the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground
state orbit, m is the mass, e is the charge of the electron and ε0is the vacuum
permittivity, the speed of the electron is
𝑒 𝑒 𝑒
(a) 0 (b) 4𝜋𝑚𝜀 𝑎 (c) 𝑚𝑎 𝜖 (d) 2𝑚𝑎 𝜖
√ 0 0 0 0 0 0
11 An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from first excited state to ground 1
state. The equivalent current due to circulating electron-
(a) increases 2 times (b) increases 4 times
(c) increases 8 times (d) remains the same
12 The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to lose energy because 1
(a) They jump on the nucleus (b) They move randomly
(c) Radiate electromagnetic waves (d) Escape from the atom
the statements.
13 Assertion: In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and maximum wavelength is 3/4 1
Reason: Lyman series constitute spectral lines corresponding to transition from higher
energy to ground state of hydrogen atom.
14 Assertion: Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in stationary orbits around the 1
nucleus do not radiate.
Reason: According to classical physics all moving electrons radiate.
15 Assertion: In n = 2, energy of electron in hydrogen like atoms is more compared to n = 1
1.
Reason: Electrostatic potential energy in n = 2 is more.
16 Assertion: Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission spectrum has 1
many lines.
Reason: Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom
whereas in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.
17 The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 1011 𝑚. What 2
are the radii of n = 2 and n = 4 orbits?
18 In accordance with the Bohr's model, find the quantum number that characterizes the 2
earth's revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5 x 1011 m with orbital speed 3
x 104m/s. (Mass of earth 6.0 x 1024kg.)
19 i) In hydrogen atom, an electron undergoes transition from third excited state to the 2
second excited state and then to the first excited state. Identify the spectral series
to which these transitions belong.
ii) Find out the ratio of the wavelengths of the emitted radiations in the two cases.
20 Find the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the ground state 2
of doubly ionized Li atom (Z=3)
21 (a) Derive an expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when a 3
hydrogenatomde-excites from level n to level (n – 1).
(b) Also show that for large values of n, this frequency equals to classical frequency
of revolution of an electron.
22 (a) In a Geiger-Marsden experiment, calculate the distance of the closest approach to 3
the nucleus of Z= 80, when an α-particle of 8 MeV energy impinges on it before
it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction.
(b) How will the distance of the closest approach be affected when the kinetic energy
of the𝛼-particle is doubled?
23 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. 3
(i) What are the potential energy and K.E. of electron is 2nd excited state
(ii) (ii) If the electron jumped to the ground state form the third excited state,
calculate the frequency of photon emitted.
24 a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown below. Which of them will result in 3
the transition of a photon of wavelength 275 nm?
b) Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum wavelength?

25 The trajectories traced by different α particles, in Geiger-Marsden experiment were 3
observed as shown in figure.
a) What names are given to the symbol b and θ shown here?

b) What can we say about the values of b for θ=00 and θ≅ π rad
26 The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom is known to be expressible in the form 3
13.6
En= - 𝑛2 eV, n= 1, 2, 3…...
Use this expression
(a) to show that the electron in the hydrogen atom cannot have energy of -6.8 eV.
(b) to find within what limits should the energy of the bombarding electrons be, so
that when excited by these electrons, the hydrogen spectrum may have only one
spectral line.
27 Case study-based questions 4
Rutherford gives Rutherford's model of the atom after performing an Alpha particle
scattering experiment.
This model is a modification of the earlier Rutherford Model. According to this model,
an atom consists of a small, positively-charged nucleus and negatively-charged
electrons orbiting around it in an orbital. These orbitals can have different sizes,
energy, etc. And the energy of the orbit is also related to its size. The lowest energy is
found in the smallest orbit. So, if the electron is orbiting
in nth orbit then we will study about its Velocity in nth orbital, Radius of nth orbital,
Energy of electron in nth orbit, etc. Energy is also emitted due to the transition of
electrons from one orbit to another orbit. This energy is emitted in the form of photons
with different wavelengths. This wavelength is given by the Rydberg formula. When
electrons make transitions between two energies
levels in an atom various spectral lines are obtained. The emission spectrum of the
hydrogen atom has been divided into various spectral series like Lyman series, Balmer
series, Paschen series etc.
(i) The formula which gives the wavelength of emitted photon when electron jumps
from higher energy state to lower was given by
(a) Balmer (b) Paschen (c) Lyman (d) Rydberg
(ii) What is true about Bohr’s atomic Model?
(a) His model was unique totally different from other
(b) His model is a modification of Rutherford atomic model.
(c) His model is a modification of Thomson atomic model.
(d) None of the above
(iii) Bohr’s atomic model is applicable for
(a) All types of atoms (b) Only for hydrogen atom
(c) For hydrogen like atoms (d) For H2 gas.
OR
Which of the following statements best explains the stability of electron orbits in
Bohr’s atomic model?
(a) Electrons emit continuous spectra as they orbit the nucleus.
(b) Electrons in stationary orbits do not radiate energy.
(c) Electrons emit energy only when moving to a higher energy level.
(d) Electrons are held in orbit by magnetic forces.
(iv) The cause of rejection of Rutherford atomic model was
(a) It was totally wrong (b) It could not justify its stability
(c) Rutherford was unable to explain it (d) none of the above.
28 Accepting the Rutherford nucleus model of an atom as well as Planck quantum theory, 4
Bohr proposed an atomic model to explain the spectra emitted by hydrogen atoms.
Bohr atomic model so called planetary model of the atom is based on few postulates.
To keep the electron in its orbit, the centripetal force on the electron must be equal to
the electrostatic attraction.
(i) According to Bohr model of hydrogen atom, an electron can revolve round the
proton indefinitely, if its path is
(a) a perfect circle of any radius (b) a circle continuously decreasing radius
(c) a circle of an Allowed radius (d) an ellipse
(ii) When hydrogen atom is in first excited level, its radius is
(a) same (b) half (c) twice (d) four times
(iii) The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. What is the potential energy
of the electron in this state?
(a) 0 eV (b) -27.2 eV (c) 1 eV (d) 2 eV
OR
2
An alpha nucleus of energy ½mv bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze.
Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
1 1 1
(a) (b) v2 (c) (d) 𝑣4
𝑍𝑒 2 𝑚
(iv) The hydrogen atom can give spectral lines in the Lyman, Balmer and Paschen
series. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Lyman series is in the infra-red region
(b) Balmer series is in the visible region (partly)
(c) Paschen series is in the visible region
(d) Balmer series is(solely) in the ultraviolet region.
29 The energy of the electron, in the hydrogen atom, is known to be expressible in the 5
form En = - (13.6eV)/(n2), n = 1, 2, 3 ...
(i) Draw different energy levels corresponding to n=1,2,3,4, …. ∞ and calculate their
energy.
(ii) Use this expression to show that the spacing between the lines (consecutive energy
levels) with in the given set of the observed hydrogen spectrum decreases as n
increases.
(iii) Find the ionization energy of hydrogen atom
30 For scattering by an inverse square law field (such as that produced by a charged 5
nucleus in Rutherford's model), the relation between impact parameter b and the
scattering angle θ is given by
(a) What is the impact parameter at which the scattering angle is 90° for Z=25 and
initial energy=10MeV?
(b) What is the scattering angle for b=0?
(c) For a given energy of the projectile, does the scattering angle increase or decrease
withdecrease in impact parameter?
31 (i) Using Bohr’s postulates, obtain the expression for the total energy of the electron 5
in the stationary states of the hydrogen atom.
(ii) Hence draw the energy level diagram showing how the line spectra corresponding
toBalmer series occur due to transition between energy levels.
32 (i) State Bohr’s quantization condition for defining stationary orbits. How does de- 5
Broglie hypothesis explain the stationary orbits?
(ii) Find the relation between the three wave-lengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy
level diagram shown below:
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: PHYSICS Chapter Name: Atoms
1 Option (a) 1
The equation of wave length
1 1 1
= 𝑅𝐻 ( 2 − 2 )
𝜆 𝑛1 𝑛2
shortest wavelength
n1=2
n2=∞
1 1
= 𝑅 ( 2 − 0)
𝜆 2
λ1=4/R
Largest wavelength
n1=2
n2=3
1 1 1
= 𝑅 ( 2 − 2)
𝜆 2 3
λ2=5/36R
Ratio=5/9
2 Option (a) 1
Energy equation in nth orbit
𝑧2
𝐸𝑛 = −13 ⋅ 6 2
𝑛
−13⋅6
𝐸1 = = −13 ⋅ 6 eV
12
−13 ⋅ 6
𝐸3 = = −1 ⋅ 51𝑒𝑉
32
Ionization energy Eion= (ionization energy from 2nd excited state) = 0-(-1.51) =1.51Ev
3 option (d) 1
2
4 𝑧 1
𝑜𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛(𝑎)𝐸𝑛 = −13 ⋅ 6
𝑛2
𝑧=1
−13.6
= −3 ⋅ 4
𝑛2
n= 2
By Bohr's postulate of angular momentum quantization
𝑛ℎ
𝐿= = 2 ⋅ 1 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠
2𝜋
5 Option (c) 1
2
𝑧
𝐸𝑛 = −13 ⋅ 6
𝑛2
Hγ in Balmer series corresponds to transition n = 5 to n = 2. So, the electron in ground
state n = 1 must first be put in state n = 5. Energy required = E5 – E1 = 13.6 – 0.54 =
13.06 eV
6 Option (a) 1
Let for an electron of H atom speed in ground state orbit = 𝑣 𝑚/𝑠
Radius of ground state orbit = r
So the number of revolutions per second (f)=𝜈/2𝜋r
∵𝐼= 𝑒𝑣/2𝜋 r
7 1
8 c) III 1
9 d) Doubly ionized Lithium 1
𝑒
10 b) 1
√4𝜋𝑚𝜀0 𝑎0
11 c) increases 8 times 1
12 c) Radiate electromagnetic waves 1
13 Option (b) 1
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
14 Option (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 1
15 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not correct explanation of the 1
Assertion.
16 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not correct explanation of the 1
Assertion.
17 𝑟0 = 5 ⋅ 3 × 10−11 𝑚
For n=2
𝑟1 = 𝑛2 𝑟0 = 4 × 5.3 × 10−11 = 2 ⋅ 12 × 10−10 𝑚 1
for n=4
𝑟2 = 𝑛2 𝑟1 = 16 × 5 ⋅ 3 × 10−11 = 8.4 × 10−10 𝑚 1
18 In accordance with the Bohr's model, 1

𝑛ℎ
𝑚𝑣𝑟 =
2𝜋
2𝜋 2.7×1040 ×2𝜋 1
𝑛 = 𝑚𝑣𝑟 × = ≈ 1074
ℎ 6⋅62×10−34
19
1
20 For Li-atom, Z=3. Doubly ionized Li-atom (Li++) is hydrogen like-atom. Therefore, 2
minimum energy (ionization energy) required to remove an electron from ground state
of Li++ atom will be Z2 times the ionization energy for hydrogen atom i.e., 32× 13.6 =
122.4eV
21 From Bohr’s theory frequency of the radiation emitted when an electron de- excites 1
from
level n2 to level n1 is
given as
22 At closest approach, all K.E. of 𝛼-particles is completely converted into the P.E. of 𝛼- 1
particle.
𝐾. 𝐸. = 8𝑀𝑒𝑉 = 8 × 106 ×1.6× 10−19𝐽.
K.E. (K) is converted into P.E.
1 (𝑍𝑒)(2𝑒)
K= 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟
1 (𝑍𝑒)(2𝑒)
1
r = 4𝜋𝜀0 𝐾
9×109 ×2×80×(1.6×10−19 ).2
r= 8×106 ×(1.6×10−19 )
−14
= 2.88× 10 m
As distance of closest approach is inversely proportional to K.E
1
𝑟∝
𝐾
If kinetic energy (K) of a-particle is doubled, the distance of 1
closest approach will become half.
23 Here, E1=−13.6eV
for 2nd excited state, n=3 1
∴E3=−13.6/9=−1.51eV
∴K.E.=−E3= 1.51eV
P.E.=−2(K.E.)=−2(1.51) eV=−3.02eV
Energy emitted,
E4 = −13.6/16 = −0.85eV
K. E = -E4 = 0.85 eV 1
ΔE=E4−E1
hv = −0.85−(−13.6) eV=12.75 eV
Frequency 1
v= (12.75×1.6×10−19) / 6.6×10−34 =3×1015Hz
24 ℎ𝑐 1
a) E= 𝜆
putting the values of h, c, 𝜆
1
E= 4.5 eV
ℎ𝑐
b) E= 𝜆
𝜆 is maximum for Emin 1
Transition A
25 b= impact parameter, θ= scattering angle 1
θ=00, b=large and α particles passes almost undeflected 1
θ≅ π rad, b=0 α particles reversed back along its own path 1
26 13.6
(a) En= - 𝑛2 eV
1
Putting n= 1,2,3…. We get
E1 = -13.6eV, E2 = -3.4eV, E3 = -1.51eV, ……. E∞ = 0eV
½
Clearly -6.8 eV cannot be possible.
(b) The energy required to excite the hydrogen atom to the first excited state,
13.6 −13.6
𝐸1 = − 2 − ( 2 ) = 10.2𝑒𝑉
2 1 1
The energy required to excite the hydrogen atom to the second excited state.
13.6 −13.6
𝐸2 = − 2 − ( 2 ) = 12.1𝑒𝑉
3 1
It follows that hydrogen spectrum will have only one spectral line, if energy (E) of
the bombarding electrons is within the limits
10.2𝑒𝑉 ≤ 𝐸 < 12.1𝑒𝑉
½
27 (i) (d) Rydberg 1

(ii) (b) His model is a modification of Rutherford atomic model. 1
(iii) (c) For hydrogen like atoms 1
OR
(iii) (b) Electrons in stationary orbits do not radiate energy.
(iv) (b) It could not justify its stability 1
28 i. c) a circle of an Allowed radius 1

ii. d) four times 1
iii. b) -27.2 eV 1
OR
1
iii. c) 𝑚
iv.b) Balmer series is in the visible region (partly) 1
29 (i) Energy of electron in nth orbit of Hydrogen atom is given by En = −13.6/n2 2
So, energy of electron in n=1, 2, 3 respectively are
E1 = -13.6 eV
E2 = -3.4 eV
E3 = - 1.5 eV
E∞ = 0 eV
(ii) The equation of energy level is

En= −(13.6/n2) eV
As the value of n increase, energy diff. between two consecutive energy level decreases
as shown in the diagram. 2
(iii) Ionization energy of hydrogen atom is

Eion =E∞−E1
Eion= 0 − (−13.6) = 13.6 eV 1
30 (a) Here, θ=90∘, Z=25
E=1/2mv2=10MeV =1.6×10−12 joule. 2
b=?
As b=(Ze2cotθ/2) / 4π∈0(1/2mv2)
∴b = (9×109×25(1.6×10−19)2 cot45∘)/1.6×10−12
= 9×25×1.6×10−17
= 3.5×10−15 m
(b) The given relation in Rutherford atom model is
When b= 0, cot θ/2=0

(∵ all other quantities are finite)
∴θ/2=90∘ or θ=180∘
i.e., Alpha particle is scattered through 180∘, when impact parameter is zero.
(c) For a given energy E=1/2mv2, fixed. The decrease in impact parameter b, 2
cot θ/2 should decrease. Hence θ increase with decrease in impact parameter.
31 1
1
32 1
2
QUESTION BANK
Class: XII Chapter no.: - 13
Subject: Physics Chapter Name : NUCLEI
1 Which of the following statements correctly explains the concept of mass defection 1
nuclear physics?
(a) The difference between the mass of a nucleus and the sum of the masses of its
individual protons and neutrons is due to the binding energy of the nucleus.
(b) The mass defect refers to the discrepancy between the mass of a nucleus and the
total mass of electrons in the atom.
(c) The mass defect is the additional mass gained by a nucleus after it undergoes
radioactive decay.
(d) The mass defect is the mass of neutrinos emitted during a nuclear reaction.
2 The proton-proton chain reaction is one of the processes by which stars like the Sun 1
produce energy. Which of the following best describes the net result of the proton-
proton chain reaction?
(a) Four hydrogen nuclei are fused to form one helium-4 nucleus, with the release of
energy.
(b) Two helium-4 nuclei are fused to form one beryllium-8 nucleus, with the release
of energy.
(c) One hydrogen nucleus is fused with one helium-3 nucleus to form onelithium-4
nucleus, with the release of energy.
(d) Two deuterium nuclei are fused to form one helium-3 nucleus, with the release of
energy.
3 Which of the following statement is not true regarding Einstein’s mass energy 1
relation?
(a) Mass disappears to reappear as energy.
(b) Energy disappears to reappear as mass.
(c) Mass and energy are two different forms of the same entity.
(d) Mass and energy can never be related to each other.
4 Which amongst the following is a correct graph of potential energy U of a pair of 1
nucleons as a function of their separation r?
5 𝐹𝑝𝑝, 𝐹𝑛𝑛𝑎𝑛𝑑𝐹𝑛𝑝 are the nuclear forces between proton-proton, neutron-neutron and 1
neutron-proton, respectively. Then, relation between them is
(a) 𝐹𝑝𝑝 = 𝐹𝑛𝑛 ≠ 𝐹𝑛𝑝 (b) 𝐹𝑝𝑝 ≠ 𝐹𝑛𝑛𝐹𝑛𝑝
(c) 𝐹𝑝𝑝 = 𝐹𝑛𝑛 = 𝐹𝑛𝑝 (d) 𝐹𝑝𝑝 ≠ 𝐹𝑛𝑛 ≠ 𝐹𝑛
6 On bombardment of U235 by slow neutrons, 200MeV energy is released. If power 1
output of atomic reactors is 1.6MW, then rate of fission will be
(a) 5 × 1016 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 (b) 10 × 1016 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑
(c) 15 × 1016 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 (d) 20 × 1016 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑
7 Mpdenotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding 1
energy B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M (N, Z)of the nucleus is
given by:
(a) M (N, Z) =NMn+ZMp−Bc2 (b) M (N, Z) = NMn+ ZMp+B/c2
(c) M (N, Z) =NMn+ZMp−B/c2 (d) M (N, Z) =NMn+ZMp+B/c2
8 The mass of proton is 1.0073 uand that of neutron is 1.0087 u(u=atomic mass unit). 1
The binding energy of 2He4 is:(mass of 2He4 nucleus is 4.0015u)
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 30.4 MeV (c) 0.0305 J (d) 0.0305 erg
9 The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron (1H ) and helium nucleus (2He4) is 1.1
2
1
MeV and 7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium
nucleus, then the energy released is
(a) 13.9 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV (c) 23.6 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV
10 Let mp be the mass of proton, mn the mass of a neutron, M1 the mass of a 10Ne20 1
nucleus and M2 the mass of a 20Ca40 nucleus. Then
(a) M2= 2M1 (b) M2> 2M1 (c) M2< 2M1 (d) M1> (mn + mp)
27 125
11 If radius of the Al13 is taken to be RAl, then radius of Te 53 nucleus is nearly: 1
(a) 3RAl/5 (b) (13/53)1/3(RAl) (c) (53/13)1/3(RAl) (d) 5RAl/3.
12 Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number for stable nuclei is shown in 1
figure. Which curve is correct?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

statements.
13 Assertion: It is not possible to use 35Cl as the fuel for fusion energy. 1
Reason: The binding energy of 35Cl is too small.
14 Assertion: A free neutron decays to a proton but a free proton does not decay to a 1
neutron.
Reason: Neutron has larger rest mass than the proton.
15 Assertion: Nuclei having mass number about 60 are most stable. 1
Reason: When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus, then the
binding energy per nucleon will increase.
16 Assertion: The nucleus 3X7 is more stable than the nucleus 3Y4 1
7
Reason: 3X contains a greater number of protons.
17 Describe the conditions necessary for nuclear fusion to occur. Explain why these 2
conditions are challenging to achieve on Earth compared to stars like the Sun.
18 (a) Write one balanced equation for each of the following. 2
(i) Nuclear fission
(ii) Nuclear fusion
(b) In which process more, energy released?
19 Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1: 2. What is the ratio of their nuclear 2
densities?
20 The mass of a nucleus in its ground state is always less than the total mass of its 2
constituents – neutrons and protons. Why?
21 How long can an electric lamp of 100W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0kg 3
deuterium? Take the fusion reaction as
1 H + 1H → 2He + n + 3.27MeV
2 2 3
22 Identify the particle emitted in the following nuclear reactions: 3

a) (i) 20884 Po →20482 Pb + …
(ii) 3215P →3216S + …
b) Write the basic process involved in nuclei responsible for
(i) 𝛽 − decay
(ii) 𝛽 + decay.
23 a) Show the graphical representation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a 3
function of their separation.
b) Write two important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of
nuclear forces.
c) The binding energy per nucleon graph peaks at iron-56. Explain the significance of
this peak and how it relates to the processes of nuclear fission and fusion.
24 (i) Why heavy nuclei must have neutron-proton ratio greater than unity for being 3
stable?
(ii) How nucleus defects in mass? How is it related to binding energy of nucleus?
25 Calculate and compare the energy released by 3
(a) Fusion of 1.0kg of hydrogen deep within sun and
(b) The fission of 1.0kg of U235 in a fission reactor.
26 Suppose, we think of fusion of a 26Fe56 nucleus into two equal fragments,13Al28. Is the 3
fission energetically possible? Argue by working out Q of the process.
Given: m (26Fe56) = 55.93494u and m (13Al28) = 27.98191u.
27 Apsara is the oldest of India's research reactors. The reactor was designed by the 4
Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC) and built with assistance from the United
Kingdom. A nuclear reactor, formerly known as an atomic pile, is a device used to
initiate and control a self-sustained nuclear chain reaction. Nuclear reactors are used at
nuclear power plants for electricity generation and in nuclear marine propulsion. Heat
from nuclear fission is passed to a working fluid (water or gas), which in turn runs
through steam turbines.
(i) In nuclear reactions, there is a conservation of
(a) Energy only (b) Mass only
(c) Mass, energy and momentum (d) Momentum only
(ii) During an atomic explosion, the energy released is due to
(a) Conversion of protons to neutrons
(b) Conversion of chemical energy into heat energy
(c) Conversion of mechanical energy into nuclear energy
(d) Conversion of mass into energy
(iii) Which isotope of Uranium has the capacity to sustain the chain reaction?
(a) U-230 (b) U-235 (c) U-245 (d) U-225
OR
In a nuclear fission reaction, why is the control of neutron economy crucialfor
sustaining a chain reaction?
(a) To ensure that each fission event triggers exactly one more fission event.
(b) To prevent the reactor from overheating.
(c) To avoid the production of radioactive waste.
(d) To increase the binding energy of the fission products.
(iv) In a nuclear fission reaction of uranium-235, which of the following pairs of
nuclei could be possible fission products?
(a) Helium-4 and Carbon-12 (b) Hydrogen-2 and Helium-3.
(c) Thorium-234 and Protactinium-231 (d) Krypton-92 and Barium-141
28 In his special theory of relativity, Einstein showed that E=mC2. This equation 4
expresses equivalence between mass and energy. It is found that mass of a stable
nucleus is always less than the sum of masses of the constituent protons and neutrons
in their free state.
The difference between the rest mass of a nucleus and the sum of their rest masses of
its constituent nucleons is called its mass defect.
(i) Consider the nuclear fission Ne202He4 + C12
Given that binding energy /nucleon of Ne20, He4and C12 are respectively 8.03
MeV, 7.07 MeV, 7.86 MeV. Identify the correct statement.
(a) 8.03 MeV energy will be released
(b) energy of 12.4 MeV will be supplied
(c) energy of 9.72 MeV will be supplied
(d) energy of 3.6 MeV will be released
(ii) Binding energy per nucleon for 50Sn120 is (mass of proton = 1.00783 u, mass of
neutron = 1.00867 u and mass of 50Sn120 nucleus =119.902199 u, 1u = 931MeV)
(a) 8.5 MeV (b) 7.5 MeV (c) 8 MeV (d) 9 MeV
(iii) Which of the following statements is true for nuclear forces?
(a) they obey the inverse square law of distance.
(b) they obey the inverse third power law of distance.
(c) they are short ranged force
(d) they are equal in strength to the electromagnetic forces.
OR
The mass of alpha particle is
(a) less than the sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons.
(b) equal to mass of four protons.
(c) equal to mass of four neutrons.
(d) equal to the sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons.
(iv) In the reaction 1H2+1H32He4+0n1, if the binding energies of 1H2, 1H3, 2He4 are
respectively a, b and c (in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this
reaction is
(a) a+b+c (b) a +b-c (c) c-a-b (d) c+a-b
29 Show in graphical representation the variation of binding energy per nucleon with the 5
mass number for a large number of nuclei 2< A < 240. What are the main
inferences from the graph?
(a) What are the main inferences from the graph?
(b) How do you explain the constancy of binding energy in the range 30 < A < 170
using the property that the nuclear force is short ranged?
(c) Explain with the help of this plot the release of energy in the processes of
nuclear fission and fusion.
30 (a) A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be 5
required to separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity
assume that the coin is entirely made of 29Cu63 atoms (of mass 62.92960 u)
(b) Neutrons produced in fission can be slowed down even by using ordinary water.
Then, why is heavy water used for this purpose?
(c) Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 27: 125. What is the ratio of their
nuclear radii?
31 (i) An electron and alpha particle have the same de- Broglie wavelength associated 5
with them. How are their kinetic energies related to each other?
(ii) A nucleus with mass number A= 240 and BE/A =7.6 MeV breaks into two
fragments each of A =120 with BE/A = 8.5 MeV. Calculate the released energy.
32 Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve is as shown. ZSA, Z1WA1, 5
A2 A3
Z2X , Z3Y are four nuclei indicated on the curve.
Based on the graph:

(i) Arrange X, W and S in the increasing order of stability.
(ii) Write the relation between the relevant A and Z values for the following nuclear
reaction.
S X+W
(iii) Explain why binding energy for heavy nuclei is low.
MARKING SCHEME
Subject: Physics Chapter : NUCLEI
1 a) 1
2 a) 1
3 d) 1
4 b) 1
5 c) 1
6 a) 1
7 c) M (N, Z) =NMn+ZMp−B/c2 1
8 a) 28.4 MeV 1
9 c) 23.6 MeV 1
10 c) M2< 2M1 1
11 d) 5RAl/3 1
12 c) C 1
13 c) Assertion is true and reason is false 1
14 a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of 1
assertion.
15 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not correct explanation of 1
the Assertion.
16 (c) If the Assertion is true but Reason is false. 1
17 Nuclear fusion requires extremely high temperatures (on the order of millions of 1
degrees) to overcome the electrostatic repulsion between positively charged nuclei. It
also requires high pressure and sufficient confinement time to ensure that nuclei
collide frequently. These conditions are challenging to achieve on Earth because
maintaining such high temperatures and pressures, unlike in stars where gravitational 1
force naturally create these conditions in high temperature.
18 a) Balanced Nuclear fission reaction: ½
(i) 10n + 235U92 → 144Ba56 + 89Kr36 + 3 0n1
(ii) Balanced nuclear fusion reaction: ½
41H1 → 2He4 + 21e0
b) In nuclear fusion, more energy is released because the process involves the merging
of light atomic nuclei, such as hydrogen isotopes, to form a heavier nucleus. This
fusion results in a mass loss, which according to Einstein's equation (E=mc2), is
converted into a significant amount of energy. Fusion releases more energy than
nuclear fission (splitting of heavy nuclei) because the binding energy per nucleon is
greater for elements around iron in the periodic table. 1
19 2
20 When nucleons approach each other to form a nucleus, they strongly attract each 2
other. Their potential energy decreases and becomes negative. It is this potential
energy which holds the nucleons together in the nucleus. The decrease in’ potential
energy results in the decrease in the mass of the nucleons inside the nucleus.
21 No of deuterium nuclei in 2.0kg deuterium,
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝐻 2 1
𝑛= × 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟
𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑐 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓𝐻 2
2000
= × 6.02 × 1023 = 6.02 × 1026
2
The energy released per fusion reaction = 3.27MeV.
In a fusion reaction, two deuterium nuclei are involved.
3.27
∴ Energy released per deuterium nucleus = 2 = 1.635𝑀𝑒𝑉
Hence energy released on fusion of 2.0kg deuterium
𝐸 = 1.635 × 6.02 × 1026 = 9.843 × 1026 𝑀𝑒𝑉 = 1.575 × 1014 𝐽 1
Therefore time,
𝐸 1.575 × 1014
𝑡= = sec = 5.0 × 104 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
𝑃 100 1
22 1
1
23 Two important conclusions:
(i) Nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their distance is more 1
than a few femtometers. This explains constancy of the binding energy per nucleon for
large-size nucleus.
(ii) Graph explains that force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8 fmand repulsive
for distances less than 0.8 fm. 1
(iii) The peak at iron-56 on the binding energy per nucleon graph indicates that iron-
56 has one of the most stable nuclei with the highest binding energy per nucleon.
This means that both lighter nuclei (through fusion) and heavier nuclei (through
fission) tend to move towards this peak to become more stable. 1
In fusion, light nuclei combine to form a more stable nucleus with higher binding
energy per nucleon, releasing energy.
In fission, heavy nuclei split into smaller nuclei with higher binding energy per
nucleon, also releasing energy.
24 (i) Between two neutrons and a neutron and a proton there is no disruptive 1
electrical repulsion, but between two protons there is electrical repulsion in
addition to nuclear attractive force. So, addition of neutron gives the
nucleus more stability
(ii) Free nucleons are having more mass than when they are inside the nucleus. 1
Thus, mass of a nucleus is found to be lesser than the constituent nucleons.
That is nucleus defects in mass.
Energy equivalent to this mass, holds the nucleons within a small space 1
i.e., inside nucleus.
25 (a) In the interior of sun, four 1H1 nuclei combine to form one 2He4 nucleus and
release about 26MeV energy per event. 1½
Energy released in fusion of 1kg of hydrogen,
6.023 × 1023 × 26
𝐸= × 103 = 39.14 × 1026 𝑀𝑒𝑉
4
(b) Energy released in fission of 1kg of U235,
6.023 × 1023 × 200
𝐸= × 103 = 5.1 × 1026 𝑀𝑒𝑉 1½
235
The energy released in fusion of 1kg of hydrogen is about 8 times that of
energy released in fission of 1kg of U235.
26 Fusion reaction is
56 28 28
26Fe →13Al + 13Al + Q ½
𝑄 = [𝑚(26Fe56) – 2m (13Al28)]× 931.5𝑀𝑒𝑉 ½
𝑄 = [55.93494 - 2× (27.98191)]× 931.5𝑀𝑒𝑉 1
Q = (- 0.0289) × 931.5MeV
Q = -26.90 MeV
As Q value is negative, the fission is energetically not possible. 1
27 (i). d) 1
(ii). d) 1
(iii). b) 1
OR
(iii). a)
(iv). d) 1
28 (i). c) energy of 9.72 MeV will be supplied 1
(ii). a) 8.5 MeV 1
(iii). c) they are short ranged force 1
OR
(iii). a) less than the sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons.
(iv). c) c-a-b 1
29
Inferences from graph

1. The nuclei having mass number below 20 and above 180 have relatively small
binding energy and hence they are unstable.
2
2. The nuclei having mass number 56 and about 56 have maximum binding energy
5.8 MeV and so they are most stable.
3. Some nuclei have peaks, e.g., 2He4, 6C12, 8O16; this indicates that these nuclei are
relatively more stable than their neighbours.
b) Explanation of constancy of binding energy: nuclear force is short-ranged, so

1
every nucleon interacts with their neighbours only, therefore binding energy per
nucleon remains constant.
c) Explanation of Nuclear Fission: When a heavy nucleus (A + 235 say) breaks into
two lighter nuclei (nuclear fission), the binding energy per nucleon increases i.e.,
½
nucleons get more tightly bound. This implies that energy would be released in
nuclear fission.
Explanation of Nuclear Fusion: When two very light nuclei (A ,10) join to form a
½
heavy nucleus, the binding is energy per nucleon of fused heavier nucleus more than
the binding energy per nucleon of lighter nuclei, so again energy would be released
in nuclear fusion.
30 6.023×1023×3 2
(a) Number of atoms in a 3g coin= =2.868×1022
63
Each copper atom has 29 protons and 34 neutrons.
Thus, the mass defect of each atom
is 29×1.00783+34×1.00867−62.92960=0.59225u.
Total mass defect of all atoms = 0.59225u×2.868×1022
=1. 6985×1022u.
Thus, the nuclear energy required=1.6985×1022×931MeV=1.58×1025MeV.
(b) Neutrons produced during fission get slowed if they collide with a nucleus
of the same mass. As ordinary water contains hydrogen atoms (of mass 2
nearly that of neutrons), so it can be used as a moderator. But it absorbs
neutrons at a fast rate via the reaction:
n+ p →d + 𝛾
Here d is deuteron. To overcome this difficulty, heavy water is used asa moderator
which has negligible cross-section for neutron absorption.
(c)
31 (i) 3
(ii)
2
32 i)Larger is the B.E per nucleon, more stable is the nucleus. 1

In the increasing order of stability
S< W< X
ii)Mass conservation A= A1+ A2 2
Charge conservation Z= Z1+Z2
iii) The binding energy per nucleon for nuclei with large mass numbers is low due
to the large Coulomb repulsion between the large number of protons present in 2
these nuclei.
QUESTIONS
Subject: Physics Chapter: Semiconductor
1. Band structure of a particular semiconductor is shown in the given figure. If electrons 1
are more tightly bound to the atoms of the semiconductor, then choose the correct
option from the following (Where Ec is conduction bandwidth, Eg is band gap and Ev is
valence bandwidth)
(a) Ec decreases (b) EV decreases (c) Eg increases (d) All of these

2. In figure given below, assuming the diodes to be ideal. Choose the correct option from 1
the following options.
(a) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows from A to
B.
(b) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B
to A and vice-versa.
(c) D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(d) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B.
3. V-I characteristics of a diode are shown in the figure. The ratio of forward current and 1
reverse bias current at breakdown voltage, in the order of
(a) 10 (b) 10-1 (c) 103 (d) 10-3

4. The output of the given circuit in figure given below 1
(a) would be like that of a half wave rectifier.

(b) would be like a half wave rectifier with positive cycles in output.
(c) would be like a half wave rectifier with negative cycles in output.
(d) would be like that of a full wave rectifier.
5. In the middle of the depletion layer of reverse biased p-n junction, the 1
(a) electric field is zero (b) potential is zero
(c) potential is maximum (d) electric field is maximum.
6. In an unbiased p-n junction- 1
(a) high potential at n side and low potential at p side
(b) high potential at p side and low potential at n side
(c) p and n both are at same potential
(d) undetermined.
7. Read the statements about forward biasing of a p-n junction diode and choose the 1
correct option from choices:
1. Within the junction diode the current is due to both types of majority charge
carriers but in external circuit it is due to the electrons only.
2. The current is due to diffusion of majority charge carriers through the junction and is
of the order of milliamperes.
3. The width of the depletion layer is large.
(a) All statements are correct (b) Only 1 is correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 2 are correct
8. If 𝐼𝑒 is the current due to electrons and 𝐼ℎ is the current due to holes, then under the 1
influence of external electric field total current in the semiconductor is-
(a) 𝐼𝑒 + 𝐼ℎ (𝑏) 𝐼𝑒 - 𝐼ℎ (𝑐)𝐼𝑒 . 𝐼ℎ (𝑑) 𝐼𝑒 / 𝐼ℎ
9. Choose the only false statement from the following. 1
a) in conductors the valence and conduction bands may overlap.
b) Substances with energy gap of the order of 5 eV are insulators.
c) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
d) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
10. Observe the diagram given here under and answer the question followed: 1
Above is the energy band diagram of a material, the open circles and filled circles
denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is:
(a) P-type semiconductor (b) N-type semiconductor
(c) Conductor (d) Insulator
11. Choose the incorrect statement from the options given below: 1
a) In p-type semi conductors the charge carriers are holes.
b) In p-type semi conductors , the acceptor level lies near the top of the valence band.
c) In n-type semi conductors, the charge carriers are electrons.
d) In n-type semi conductors, the donor level lies near the top of conduction band.
12. Observe the diagram and answer the question given below: 1
Which among the following statement is correct in relevance with the above diagram
(a) Diagram (a) represents insulators
(b) Diagram (b) represents conductors
(c) Diagram ( c ) represents semiconductors
(d) Diagram (a) represents both conductors and insulators
statements.
13. Assertion: The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is greater in 1
silicon than in germanium.
Reason: Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in
germanium.
14. 1
Assertion: The value of current through p-n junction in the given figure will be in the
order of mA.
Reason: In the given figure, p-side is at higher potential than n side of the
semiconductor.
15. Assertion(A): In a full wave rectifier, Complete cycle of AC is converted in to DC. 1
Reason(R): Two p-n junction diodes are used in full wave rectifier.
16. Assertion(A): P end of diode is connected to negativeterminal of battery and N end is 1
connected Positive terminal of battery.
Reason (R): Diode is in forward biased.
17. The graph shown in the figure represents a plot of current versus voltage for a given 2
semiconductor. Identify the regions, if any, over which the semiconductor has a
negative and positive resistance.
18. In the following diagram 'S' is a semiconductor. Would you increase or decrease the 2
value of ‘R’ to keep the reading of the ammeter, ‘A’, constant when S is heated? Give
reason for your answer.
19. Write two points of difference between Intrinsic and extrinsic semi-conductors. 2
20. Give the classification of semiconductors. Mention two examples of organic 2
semiconductors.
21. Write the two processes that take place in the formation of a p-n junction. Explain with 3
the help of a diagram, the formation of depletion region and barrier potential in a p-n
junction.
22. Carbon (Diamond form), silicon and germanium, all have tetravalent bond. Why is 3
carbon insulator while silicon and germanium intrinsic semiconductors?
23. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and explain its working. Also give the 3
input and output waveforms.
24. A student wants to make a converter which can convert AC to DC for a half cycle of 3
AC input only using p-n junction diode. Draw the labelled circuit diagram she would
use and give the principle of its working. Show the input and output waveform.
25. Electric current is the flow of charge in a definite direction and takes through the 3
metals as well as the semiconductors.
i) Mention the charge carriers in conductors and semiconductors.
ii) Write the conductivity and resistivity of conductors and semiconductors
iii) What will happen to the conductivity and resistivity of semiconductors if it is
heated?
26. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Compound semiconductors are preferred over elemental semiconductors. 3
(b) In forward bias, p-n junction diodes allow more current through them.
(c) Diodes can be used as switches in electronic devices.
27. CASESTUDY BASED QUESTION: 4
Rectifier is a device which is used for converting alternating current or voltage into
direct current or voltage. Its working is based on the fact that the resistance of p-n
junction becomes low in forward biased and becomes high in when reverse biased
condition.
(i) How many diodes are used by a half wave rectifier circuit for the transformation?
(a) No diodes used (b) One (c) Two (d) Four
(ii) In a full wave rectifier, the diode conducts for:
(a) One half cycle (b) Full cycle
(c) Alternate half cycle (d) None of these
(iii) If input frequency is 50Hz for a full wave rectifier, the ripple frequency of it would
be
(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 0 (d) infinity
OR
If input frequency is 50Hz for a half wave rectifier, the ripple frequency of it
would be
(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 0 (d) infinity
(iv) The equivalent DC output voltage of a full wave rectifier is __ the equivalent DC
output voltage of a half wave rectifier
(a) equal (b) not related (c) half (d) double
28. CASESTUDY BASED QUESTIONS: 4
If an alternating voltage is applied across a diode in series with a load and a pulsating
voltage will appear across the load only during the half cycles of the ac input during
which the diode is forward biased. Such rectifier circuit is called a half-wave rectifier.
The reverse saturation current of a diode is negligible and can be considered equal to
zero for practical purposes.
A full wave rectifier is defined as a rectifier that converts the complete cycle of
alternating current into pulsating DC. Unlike halfwave rectifiers that utilize only the
halfwave of the input AC cycle, full wave rectifiers utilize the full cycle.
(i) If input frequency of signal in half wave rectifier is ‘f’ then the output frequency
will be
(a) f/2 (b) f (c) 2f (d) Uncertain
(ii) The reverse saturation current of diode in reverse bias can be considered to be: -
(a) Less than zero (b) Greater thanzero
(c) Equal to zero (d) Any of the above
(iii) Rectifier converts-
(a) AC to DC (b) DC to AC
(c) AC to AC of different waveform (d) All of these
OR
In a full wave rectifer:-
(a) One diode is used in forward bias
(b) Two dides are used in forward bias
(c) Two diodes are used in reverse bias
(d) One diode is used in forward bias and other diode is used in reverse bias.
(iv) Full wave rectifier can be used over half wave rectifier because full wave rectifier
is-
(a) More energy efficient (b) More energy consuming
(c) More handy to use (d) More cost effective to manufacture
29. (a) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential 5
up to a critical voltage?
(b) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?
30. A student performed an experiment using diode and necessary electrical components. 5
He recorded two sets of readings of current corresponding applied voltage across the
diode by changing the polarity of battery used in the circuit.
V-I characteristic of a semiconductor diode is shown in the given figure.
(a) Draw the circuit diagrams by which this graph could be obtained.
(b) Briefly explain with relevant circuit diagram and output waveform how this diode
can be used half wave rectifier.
31. (a) Why dopants for elemental semiconductors like Silicon or Germanium are 5
trivalent or pentavalent? Give reasons.
(b) Suppose a pure Si crystal has 5 × 1022 atoms 𝑚−3. It is doped by 1 ppm
concentration of pentavalent As. Calculate the number of electrons and holes.
Given that 𝑛𝑖 =1.5 × 1016 𝑚−3.
(c) “P-N Junction diode are made by using p-type semiconductors and n-type
semiconductors”. How it is done? Explain with the help of diagram.
32. a) What do you mean by a Half-wave rectifier. Construct its schematic 5
diagram and show its input and out wave form.
b) How can we convert a half wave rectifier into a full wave rectifier?
c) Mention the name of four appliances/devices in which Full wave
rectifiers are used.
QUESTIONS
Subject: Physics Chapter: Semiconductor
1. d) All of these 1
2. b) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to 1
A and vice-versa.
3. c) 103 1
4. c) would be like a half wave rectifier with negative cycles in output. 1
5. a) electric field is zero 1
6. a) high potential at n side and low potential at p side 1
7. d)1 and 2 are correct 1
8. 𝑎) 𝐼𝑒 + 𝐼ℎ 1
9. c) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature. 1
10 a)P-type semiconductor 1
11 d) In n-type semiconductors, the donor level lies near the top of conduction band. 1
12 c) Diagram C represents semiconductor 1
13 b) 1
14 a) 1
15 a) 1
16 a) 1
17 Part BC shows negative resistance 2
Part AB shows positive resistance
18 When a semiconductor is heated, the resistance of semiconductor will decrease. On 2
making current fixed, the resistance in the circuit needs to be increased to keep the
reading of ammeter A constant.
19 Properties Intrinsic Semiconductors Extrinsic semiconductors 2
conductivity The electrical conductivity The extrinsic semiconductors have high
of intrinsic semiconductors electrical conductivity.
is low.
Dependency The conductivity of The conductivity of extrinsic semi-
of intrinsic semiconductor is conductor is dependent on temperature as
conductivity dependent on temperature well as amount of impurity added.
only.
20 Classification: Elemental Semiconductors 2
Compound Semiconductors
Examples of Organic Semiconductors: Organic: anthracene, doped polyacetylene etc
21 Two important processes involved during the formation of p-n junction are diffusion 1
and drift.
1
1
When the holes start to move towards the electrons then there is formation of the layer
of electrons on the p-type and a layer of holes in the n-type side which forms a region
known as depletion layer, this depletion layer is the cause of the formation potential
barrier.
22 The energy required to take out an electron from these atoms will be least for Ge, 3
followed by Si and highest for C. Hence, number of free electrons for conduction in Ge
and Si are significant but negligibly small for C.
23
1
The diode D1 is forward biased during one half cycle and current flows through the
resistor, but diode D₂ is reverse biased and no current flows through it. During the 1
other half of the signal, D1 get reverse biased and no current passes through it, D₂ gets
forward biased and current flows through it. In both half cycles, current through the
resistor, flows in the same direction.
24 Draw proper circuit diagram. 1x3

Write appropriate working principle.
Show the proper waveform.
25 i)Conductors- electrons 1
Semiconductors – electrons and holes
ii) Metals: They possess very low resistivity (or high conductivity).
r ~ 10–2 – 10–8 W m
s ~ 102 – 108 S m–1 1
Semiconductors: They have resistivity or conductivity intermediate to metals and
insulators.
r ~ 10–5 – 10–6 W m
s ~ 105 – 106 S m–1
iii)Resistance decrease and conductivity increases 1
26 a) Electrons move faster in compound semiconductors compared to silicon. This
translates to: Faster Switching Speeds: This is crucial for high-frequency 1
electronics devices.
b) P-N junctions are produced by connecting n-type and p-type semiconductor
materials. Electrons diffuse from the n-type side to the p-type side because the n- 1
type has a high electron concentration and the p-type has a high hole
concentration. A diode (PN junction) permits the current to flow more freely in
one direction than the other. When a voltage is applied to a diode that permits
current to flow freely is termed forward biasing, whereas reverse biasing is when a
voltage is applied in the opposite direction to a diode. An electric current will flow
in the forward-bias direction due to the majority of carriers' migration over the p-n
junction, which is known as forwarding current. When forward biased, the p-n
junction has a low resistance to current flow.
c) Whenever a specified voltage is exceeded, the diode resistance gets increased,
making the diode reverse biased and it acts as an open switch. Whenever the 1
voltage applied is below the reference voltage, the diode resistance gets decreased,
making the diode forward biased, and it acts as a closed switch
27. (i) (b) One 1
(ii) (c) Alternate half cycle 1
(iii) (b) 100 Hz Or (a) 50 Hz 1
(iv) (d) double 1
28 (i) (b) f 1
(ii) (c) equal to zero 1
(iii) (a) AC to DC 1
OR (d)One diode is used in forward bias and other diode is used in reverse bias.
(iv) (a) More energy efficient 1
29 (a)Under the reverse bias condition, the holes of p-side are attracted towards the 1
negative terminal of the battery and the electrons of the n-side are attracted towards the 2
2
positive terminal of the battery. This increases the depletion layer and the potential
barrier. However, the minority charge carriers are drifted across the junction producing
a small current. At any temperature, the number of minority carriers is constant and
very small so there is the small current at any applied potential. This is the reason for
the current under reverse bias to be almost independent of applied potential. At the
critical voltage, avalanche break down takes place which results in a sudden flow of
large current.
(b)At the critical voltage, the holes in the n-side and conduction electrons in the p-side 1
2
are accelerated due to the reverse-bias voltage. These minority carriers acquire 2
sufficient kinetic energy from the electric field and collide with valence electrons.
Thus, the bond is finally broken and the valence electrons move into the conduction
band resulting in enormous flow of electrons and thus result in formation of hole-
electron pairs. Thus, there is a sudden increase in the current at the critical voltage.
30 (a) 5
(b)Working: When an input ac voltage is applied across the primary coil, a potential
difference is developed across the ends of the secondary coil. In half cycle of input a.c.
signal, the diode is in forward bias and we get output across the ends of the load
resistance.
31 a) The reason behind using these dopants is to have similar-sized atoms as the pure 5
semiconductor. Both Silicon and Germanium atoms belong to the fourth group in the
periodic table. Hence, the choice of dopants from the third and fifth group is more
viable. This ensures that the size of the atoms is not very different from the fourth
group. Therefore, the trivalent and pentavalent choices. These dopants give rise to two
types of semiconductors as follows:
 n-type semiconductors
 p-type semiconductors
b) We know that thermally generated electrons (ni~1016 𝑚−3) are negligibly small as
compared to those produced by doping.
Therefore, ne » ND.
Since ne.nh= 𝑛𝑖2
The number of holes
nh= (2.25 × 1032 )/(5 ×1022 )
~ 4.5 × 109 m
c) As we know, if we use different semiconductor materials to make a P-N junction,
there will be a boundary formation called depletion layer that would inhibit the
movement of electrons from one side to the other by scattering the electrons and holes
and thus, we use the process of doping. We will understand the process of doping with
the help of this example. Let us consider a thin p-type silicon semiconductor sheet. If
we add a small amount of pentavalent impurity to this, a part of the p-type Si will get
converted to n-type silicon. This sheet will now contain both the p-type region and the
n-type region and a junction between these two regions. The processes that follow after
forming a P-N junction are of two types – diffusion and drift. There is a difference in
the concentration of holes and electrons at the two sides of a junction. The holes from
the p-side diffuse to the n-side, and the electrons from the n-side diffuse to the p-side.
These give rise to a diffusion current across the junction.
32 a)A half-wave rectifier converts an AC signal to DC by passing either the 5

negative or positive half-cycle of the waveform and blocking the other.
b)Half wave rectifier can be converted into a full wave rectifier by using two
p-n junction diodes for providing output for both half cycles of pulsating AC
voltage
c) Mobile phones, laptops, charger circuits, Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
circuits to convert AC to DC, our home inverters convert AC to DC. etc

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D.A.V.

Q. No. Question Marks

(a) The electric field at point A is stronger than at point B.

Identify the correct statement.

(a) zero (b) along the diagonal AC

(a) q/8𝜀 0 (b) q/4𝜀 0 (c) q/2𝜀 0 (d) q/𝜀 0

(i) Electric field lines are curved

Show graphically plot of E(r) with r.

Q. No. Value Points Marks

Using Gauss’s theorem :

(a) 8q1 (b) 6q1 (c) 8q2 (d) 6q2

(a) +4, +2, -4 (b) -6, 2, +6 (c) +4, 0, -4 (d) -4, 0, +4

(a) 1µF (b) 2 µF (c) 3 µF (d) 1/4µF

In the above figure if a positive charge is moved from A to B ,

(b) What would be the answer if dielectric is replaced by conducting plates.

(i) Calculate the ratio of potential energy stored in C1 and C2.

24 A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The 3

25 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential difference V. It 3

(i) The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend on:

28 The capacitance of a capacitor is a constant and depends on geometric factors, such as 4

A set of equipotential surfaces

30 Obtain an expression for potential energy stored inside a capacitor. 5

In the graph r is the distance from the centre of the dipole.

What is the potential difference between the capacitor plates?

20 When switch S is closed, the charge of the two capacitors q1 = q2 = 2 F x 5V = 10 C.

Dividing, tanθ = qE/mg E = mg tanθ/q

Q. No. Question Marks

(a) +9 V (b) -9 V (c) +3 V (d) +6 V

(a) equal to 5 Ω (b) greater than 5 Ω

(a) 1A (b) 10 A (c) 7.5 A (d) 5 A

(a) r1 - r2 (b) r1 + r2 (c) (r1/2) + r2 (d) (r1/2) - r2

(a) 4.87 mA (b) 4.87 µA (c) 2.44 µA (d) 2.44mA

20 The image below shows two circuits (I and II) 2

23 Find the emf and internal resistance of a single 3

24 The image below shows a three-way bulb that

26 In an electric circuit shown, a network of 3

(a) 4.275v (b) -4.275v (c) 4.527v (d) -4.527v

Q. No. Value Points Marks

19 Applying Kirchhoff’s rule (in clockwise direction):

Applying KVL in loop ADCBA 1

The equivalent emf of all cell is (6 – 3) V or 3 V

24 Case (i) - when switch S1 is closed, only the 75 W filament glows. ½

So, 4𝑅 = 9𝑅′. After Solving R= 50/4Ω, 1

GIVEN, resistivity of medium = ρ

as, relaxation time is inversely proportional to resistivity

Q. No. Question Marks

μ0I μ0I μ0I μ0I

30. (i) graph, At center

In the questions 13 to 16 below, two statements are given. One is labelled as

19 Write two points of differences between diamagnetic paramagnetic and ferromagnetic 2

Q. No. Value Points Marks

The direction of induced current will be

(a) Graphs 5, 3 and 1 (b) Graphs 2, 4 and 5

(a) will be attracted toward P

7 A coil having n turns and resistance having RΩ is connected with a galvanometer of 1

15 Assertion: The self-inductance of a long solenoid is proportional to the area of cross 1

Fig-1: r > R, Plane of coil ⊥ axis of the solenoid

28 When a conducting wire ab of length l, resistance r and mass m slides through a

24 Eo = NBAω When speed of rotation is doubled, 1

C. (iii) Inductive reactance