Ph.D.

ADMISSION TEST – 2021

Question Booklet Sl. No.

Date of Exam. : Center’s Name : ________________
Duration : 90 Minutes Roll No. : ________________
Max. Marks : 100 OMR Sheet No. : ________________
Date of Birth : ________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as
they are.
2. There are 100 multiple choice objective type questions. Answer ALL the questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 100.
4. There will be Negative Marking. For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be
deducted.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening any one of the four responses
provided, with Black/blue ball point pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
6. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above shall
be considered wrong answer.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
8. The candidates shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the
details required and in the spaces provide for.
9. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the test booklet along with
candidate’s copy of the OMR, after handing over the original OMR to the invigilator.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his/her
candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may
have to face criminal prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers and calculators etc. are strictly
not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
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1. Each phase of the research process is important. If in the first phase of the process
the problem is identified, what is done after that but before data is collected ?
(a) Determine the solution to the problem, identify relevant information sources and
evaluate data collection methods
(b) Determine what information is needed, identify relevant information sources,
and evaluate data collection methods
(c) Determine the solution to the problem, determine what information is needed,
and identify relevant information sources.
(d) Determine what information is needed, evaluate data collection methods, and
analyze the data

2. Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the “problem
definition” and the “development of an approach to the problem” steps of the research
process ?
(a) analysis of secondary data (b) interviews with industry experts
(c) qualitative research (d) all of these

3. Syndicated services
(a) specialize in one or a few phases of the research project
(b) are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way
(c) are companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve
information needs shared by several clients
(d) offer a wide variety of research services customized to suit a client’s specific
needs

4. __________ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small

samples intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting.
(a) Primary research (b) Qualitative research
(c) Secondary research (d) Quantitative research

5. A conceptual scheme based on foundational statements called axioms, which are

assumed to be true, is
(a) objective evidence (b) a theory
(c) an analytical model (d) none of these

6. Which statement about hypotheses is not true ?

(a) A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or
phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher.
(b) Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.
(c) It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.
(d) An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the
research design.
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7. Ethical issues arise if the process of defining the problem and developing an
approach is compromised by the personal agendas of the client or the researcher.
Which of these statements concerning ethics in research is not true ?
(a) The client has an obligation to be candid and disclose to the researcher all
the relevant information that will enable a proper definition of the research
problem.
(b) The researcher is ethically bound to offer the most expensive set of services to
each client.
(c) The problem definition process is adversely affected when the client has hidden
objectives such as gaining a promotion.
(d) The researcher is ethically bound to define the problem to further the best interest
of the client, rather than the interest of the research firm.

8. Which statement is not true about research design ?

(a) Research design is a framework for conducting the research project.
(b) Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.
(c) Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the
problem.
(d) Research design is undertaken after the research problem is defined.

9. Research designs may be broadly classified as __________ or ___________

(a) exploratory; causal (b) conclusive; causal
(c) exploratory; conclusive (d) conclusive; descriptive

10. Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of

(a) causal research (b) exploratory research
(c) descriptive research (d) none of these

11. Which of the following statements is not true about exploratory research ?
(a) It is flexible.
(b) It is a pre-planned and structured design.
(c) It is versatile.
(d) It is often the front end of total research design.

12. Descriptive research is conducted for all the following reasons except
(a) to describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers, employees,
organizations, or territories
(b) to determine the degree to which research variables are associated
(c) to understand which variables are the cause and which are the effect of a
phenomenon
(d) to determine the citizens’ perceptions of a new regulation

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13. The question, “How did the Indian people rate the performance of Finance Minister
immediately after the demonetization?” would be addressed using a ________.
However, a ________ would be used to address the question, “How did the Indian
people change their view of Finance Minister’s performance over the past three
years ?”
(a) longitudinal design; multiple cross-sectional
(b) cross-sectional design; longitudinal design
(c) longitudinal; cross-sectional design
(d) none of these

14. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data ?

(a) The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may
not be appropriate to the present situation.
(b) Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy.
(c) Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming.
(d) Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable.

15. Whenever a new research problem is being addressed, __________research must

be preceded by appropriate ___________research.
(a) qualitative; quantitative
(b) observational; experimental
(c) quantitative; qualitative
(d) experimental; observational

16. The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all
the following except
(a) time order of occurrence of variables
(b) role of evidence
(c) concomitant variation
(d) elimination of other possible factors

17. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of occurrence
of variables ?
(a) In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule
out all other causal factors.
(b) The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect;
it cannot occur afterwards.
(c) An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken
place.
(d) It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect
of the other event.

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18. When considering __________, accumulated evidence from several investigations

increases our confidence that a causal relationship exists.
(a) the time order of occurrence of variables
(b) the role of evidence
(c) concomitant variation
(d) the elimination of other possible factors

19. A ____________ is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from
“strongly disagree” to “strongly agree,” which requires the respondents to indicate
a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related
to the stimulus objects.
(a) semantic differential scale (b) likert scale
(c) continuous rating scale (d) stapel scale

20. ____________ is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated
measurements are made on the characteristic.
(a) Validity (b) Generalizability
(c) Reliability (d) None of these

21. ____________ is a type of validity, sometimes called face validity, that consists of
a subjective but systematic evaluation of the representativeness of the content of
a scale for the measuring task at hand.
(a) Construct validity
(b) Content validity
(c) Criterion validity
(d) Internal consistency validity

22. Which statement is not true regarding the relationship between reliability and
validity ?
(a) If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable.
(b) Unreliability implies invalidity.
(c) If a measure is perfectly reliable, it is perfectly valid.
(d) Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.

23. Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire ?

(a) A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific
questions that the respondents can and will answer.
(b) A questionnaire must be easy to use.
(c) A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become
involved in the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.
(d) A questionnaire should minimize response error.

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24. The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of

(a) precision (b) accuracy
(c) theory (d) consensus

25. A ________ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.

(a) structured question
(b) dichotomous question
(c) double-barreled question
(d) branching question

26. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions ?

(a) Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.
(b) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more
articulate.
(c) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than
structured questions.
(d) Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.

27. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions ?

(a) Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.
(b) Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple-choice questions.
(c) Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased
responses.
(d) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.

28. When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why and
way) are used when
(a) defining the issue
(b) choosing question wording
(c) avoiding generalizations and estimates
(d) determining the content of individual questions

29. Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives ?

(a) Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people
selecting that alternative.
(b) When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives
at the end of the list have a greater chance of being selected.
(c) The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of
alternatives appear.
(d) All of these are correct.

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30. A representation of the elements of the target population consisting of a list or set
of directions for identifying the target population is a .
(a) judgmental sample (b) sample
(c) sampling unit (d) sampling frame

31. __________ is a sampling procedure in which each element of the population has
a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample.
(a) Nonprobability sampling
(b) Probability sampling
(c) Convenience sampling
(d) Judgmental sampling

32. ____________ does not allow direct generalizations to a specific population, usually
because the population is not defined explicitly.
(a) Snowball sampling
(b) Judgmental sampling
(c) Convenience sampling
(d) Simple random sampling

33. All the following statements are true about snowball sampling except
(a) snowball sampling can result in samples that are very large or spread over large
geographic areas, thus increasing the time and cost of data collection.
(b) a major objective of snowball sampling is to estimate characteristics that are
rare in the population.
(c) the major advantage of snowball sampling is that it substantially increases the
likelihood of locating the desired characteristics in the population.
(d) snowball sampling results in relatively low sampling variance and costs.

34. Which of the following is not a data collection method ?

(a) Interview
(b) Research Questions
(c) Postal Survey Questionnaires
(d) Participant Observation

35. A _________ is a summary description of a fixed characteristic or measure of the

target population. It denotes the true value that would be obtained if a census rather
than a sample was undertaken.
(a) statistic (b) precision level
(c) finite population correction (d) parameter

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36. A _________ is a summary description of a characteristic or measure of the sample.

It is used as an estimate of the population parameter.
(a) statistic (b) precision level
(c) finite population correction (d) parameter

37. Suppose a simple random sample of five hospitals is to be drawn from a population
of 20 hospitals. There are 15,504 different samples of size 5 that can be drawn. The
relative frequency distribution of the values of the mean of these 15,504 different
samples would specify the ________ of the mean.
(a) sampling distribution (b) normal distribution
(c) confidence interval (d) confidence level

38. The ________ is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean or
proportion.
(a) standard error (b) standardized variate
(c) variance (d) standard deviation

39. ____________ are appropriate when there is a single measurement of each element
in the sample, or there are several measurements of each element but each variable
is analyzed in isolation.
(a) Interdependence techniques (b) Dependence techniques
(c) Multivariate techniques (d) Univariate techniques

40. ___________ are statistical techniques that attempt to group data based on underlying
similarity, and thus allow for interpretation of the data structures. No distinction is
made as to which variables are dependent and which are independent.
(a) Interdependence techniques (b) Dependence techniques
(c) Multivariate techniques (d) Univariate techniques

41. A frequency distribution helps

(a) determine how close a sample comes to the null hypothesis
(b) us to understand how one variable, X, relates to another variable, Y
(c) determine if a systematic association exists between two variables
(d) determine the shape of the empirical distribution of the variable

42. A measure of central tendency given as the value above which half of the values
fall and below which half of the values fall is the
(a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) range

43. A statistic that indicates the distribution’s dispersion is a

(a) measure of variability (b) measure of shape
(c) measure of occasion (d) measure of location

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44. Which statement is not correct about the null hypothesis ?

(a) It is always the hypothesis tested.
(b) Accepting the null hypothesis will lead to some changes in opinions or action.
(c) It can never be accepted based on a single statistical test.
(d) In research, the null hypothesis is formulated in such a way that rejection leads
to the acceptance of the desired conclusion.

45. Also known as beta error, ____________ occurs when the sample results lead to
the nonrejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact false.
(a) type I error (b) two-tailed error
(c) type II error (d) one-tailed error

46. The ____________ is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in
fact false and should be rejected.
(a) type I error
(b) level of significance
(c) type II error
(d) power of a test

47. ____________ are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables
of interest are measured on at least an interval scale.
(a) Parameter tests (b) Parametric tests
(c) Nonparametric tests (d) None of these

48. A statistical technique for examining the differences among means for two or more
populations is called
(a) chi-square
(b) analysis of variance (ANOVA)
(c) cross-tabulation
(d) independent samples t test

49. The null hypothesis for ANOVA typically is that all

(a) proportions are equal
(b) means are unequal
(c) proportions are unequal
(d) means are equal

50. ____________ is a state of very high intercorrelations among independent

variables.
(a) Hypercollinearity (b) Partial collinearity
(c) Multicollinearity (d) Variable collinearity

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51. Trade combinations are exempted under Section 27 of the Contract Act, 1872 on
the ground that
(a) No exemption is provided to such combinations.
(b) The primary purpose of such combinations is to regulate business and not to
restrict it.
(c) The exemption is provided statutorily by section 27.
(d) None of the above

52. Select the most appropriate statement that applies to impossibility of performance
or doctrine of frustration
(a) Dissolution of contract occurs on the ground of breach.
(b) Frustration should be due to the act or election of the party.
(c) Rights of the parties are existed under section 65 of the Contract Act, 1872.
(d) Rights of the parties are adjusted under section 65 of the Contract Act, 1872.

53. Legal consequences of possession include the following

(a) Possession is prima facie evidence of title of ownership.
(b) Long adverse possession confers title even over a property which originally
belonged to another.
(c) Res nullius is a good title of right.
(d) All of the above

54. The practice of instant triple talaq was declared illegal and void under which of the
legislation ?
(a) The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939
(b) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
(c) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019
(d) The Special Marriage Act, 1954

55. The Bill of exchange must contain the following

(a) An order to pay money at all events
(b) Unconditional order to pay
(c) Order to pay money and money only
(d) All of the above

56. Which instrument is not a core international human rights instrument ?

(a) Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1990
(b) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1976
(c) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women,
1979
(d) Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide,
1948
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57. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(a) Precedents overlook the fundamental rule of natural justice that law must be
known before it is actually enforced.
(b) Bentham has recognized precedent as law as it does not lack binding force of
the State.
(c) Fredric Pollock says that the law based on case-law is incomplete because the
judges take into consideration only those facts which are involved in the cases
before them.
(d) All of the above are incorrect

58. The following is true about partnership firms

(a) A new partner can be admitted in a partnership firm with the consent of all
partners.
(b) A minor is incompetent to contract but his share in the property and profits is
liable for the acts of the firm.
(c) A person may be held liable as a partner under the doctrine of holding out.
(d) All of the above statements are true

59. The following categories of persons are ineligible to be appointed as arbitrators

(a) Arbitrator has a significant financial interest in one of the parties or the outcome
of the case.
(b) Arbitrator has within the past three years received more than three appointments
by the same counsel or the same law firm.
(c) Close family member of the arbitrator has a significant financial interest in the
outcome of the dispute.
(d) Arbitrator regularly advises the appointing party or an affiliate of the appointing
party even though neither the arbitrator nor his or her firm derives a significant
financial income therefrom.

60. Pick the true statement from the following

(a) Unreasonable contract clauses are construed strictly.
(b) Contra proferentum is applied in case ambiguity exists in contract clauses.
(c) Rule of construction is one of the methods of ascertaining parties’ intention.
(d) All of the above are true

61. Pick the most inappropriate statement from the following

(a) It is for the defendant to plead and prove justification and not for the plaintiff to
show that the defendant’s conduct was unreasonable in cases of trespass to
person.
(b) Damage is not an essential element and need not be proved by the plaintiff in
cases of trespass to person.
(c) The intention as well as the act makes an assault and the actual contact is
necessary.
(d) If the wrongful act falls short of actual physical contact, but causes a reasonable
apprehension that the party threatening intends immediately to offer violence,
it will be an assault.
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62. Jus cogens norm indicates

(a) A resolution of the UN General Assembly on an issue concerning human rights.
(b) Decision rendered by an international tribunal including the International Court
of Justice.
(c) Peremptory norms of international law which cannot be derogated from even
with the consent of the States.
(d) International law rule agreed to between parties to a multilateral treaty.

63. If a cricketer wants to start a company for selling his own range of clothes, what
type of intellectual property protection would you suggest him to use to indicate that
the clothes are made by his company ?
(a) Patents (b) Copyright
(c) Trademark (d) Geographical indication

64. Irretrievable Breakdown of Marriage should be a ground for divorce was recommended
in which Report of Law Commission of India ?
(a) 205 (b) 99 (c) 79 (d) 217

65. The following is not correct about ‘misrepresentation’ in a contract

(a) Misrepresentation should be of a fact material to the contract.
(b) Unwarranted statement does not cause misrepresentation.
(c) Unwarranted statement which is believed to be true by the person making it
causes misrepresentation.
(d) Inducing mistake as to the substance of the thing is misrepresentation.

66. Which human rights are often understood as the third-generation rights ?
(a) Cultural rights (b) Collective rights
(c) Digital rights (d) Economic rights

67. The following is not true about ‘promoter’

(a) A promoter is not an agent or trustee of the company because the company
before incorporation is a non-entity but he is in a situation akin to that of agent
or trustee of company.
(b) A promoter may also be a director of his company.
(c) A promoter is required to make contribution in public issues of his company
towards the amount that is being raised through the public issue.
(d) All of the above are true

68. The duration of protection provided for designs registered under the Designs Act,
2000 is
(a) Twenty years
(b) Twenty years, extendable once for another ten years
(c) Ten years, but extendable any number of times by ten years at each time
(d) Ten years, extendable once for another five years
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69. The 2019 amendment to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 introduced the
Arbitration Council of India. Who is not a member of the Council ?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) eminent arbitration practitioner having substantial knowledge and experience
in institutional arbitration, both domestic and international
(c) eminent academician having experience in research and teaching in the field
of arbitration and alternative dispute resolution laws
(d) Secretary, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, Government of
India

70. Following is true about the rights of a pawnee

(a) Pawnee has a right of retainer.
(b) Right of retainer is in the nature of a general lien with the pawnee.
(c) Pawnee’s right of receiving extraordinary expenditure depends upon the terms
of pledge.
(d) Pawnee has an absolute right to sell the property pledged with him.

71. Pick the correct statement.

(a) Rules imposed by society upon its members and enforced by public censure
fall under the law of positive morality.
(b) Legal justice and natural justice do not represent intersecting circles.
(c) International law is a conventional law.
(d) None of the above is correct

72. Which proposition most appropriately captures the notion of strong cultural relativism
approach to human rights ?
(a) culture is the sole source of the validity of human right or rule
(b) human rights apply to all without any exception or restriction
(c) understanding and application of human rights is contingent of the laws made
in each jurisdiction
(d) culture is the principal source of the validity of a moral right or rule

73. A party is said to be discharged from his liability when

(a) His liability on the instrument comes to an end.
(b) He endorses the bill in favour of any other person.
(c) The holder discharges the maker.
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct

74. In contravention of the condition of Section 5(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act,1955, {the
bridegroom has completed the age of twenty-one years and the bride the age of
eighteen years at the time of marriage} the marriage is
(a) Valid (b) Voidable
(c) Void (d) Valid but punishable

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75. In India, Geographical Indications can be registered for

(a) Goods (b) Services
(c) Both goods and services (d) None of the above

76. Pick the incorrect statement.

(a) A partner in possession of more information about the affairs and assets of the
firm should not disclose to his co-partners.
(b) Every partner should indemnify the firm for any loss caused to it due to his
fraud.
(c) A retired partner is not liable for acts of the firm done before his retirement.
(d) Every partner should use the property of the firm for firm’s purposes only.

77. Pick the incorrect statement from the following.

(a) Marginal notes to the sections of a statute and the titles of its chapters cannot
take away the effect of the provisions contained in the Act so as to render those
provisions legislatively incompetent.
(b) The marginal notes or captions are part of legislative exercise and the language
employed therein provides the key to the legislative intent.
(c) A term or expression defined under a particular statute has scope but no
limits.
(d) When a statute is carefully punctuated and there is doubt about its meaning, a
weight should undoubtedly be given to the punctuation.

78. Following is/are the requisites for a valid custom

(a) Reasonableness
(b) Certainty and inconsistency
(c) Conformity with international law
(d) All of the above are requisites for a valid custom

79. Berne Convention of 1886 deals with

(a) Patents (b) Geographical Indications
(c) Plant varieties (d) Copyright

80. Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India case deals with which law ?
(a) adoption (b) marriage
(c) guardianship (d) maintenance

81. Select the correct statement from the following.

(a) The law takes no cognizance of carelessness in the abstract.
(b) It concerns itself with carelessness only where there is a duty to take care and
where failure in that duty has caused damage.
(c) The law of negligence is really the application of common morality and common
sense to the activities of the common man.
(d) All of the above are correct

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82. Following is not true about the sale and exchange

(a) A transfer of property by exchange can be made in the same manner as is
applicable to sale.
(b) Exchange is a natural incident of property, there is no need to enter into a
contract for that purpose.
(c) Money may be added to anything which is exchanged to equalise the values of
properties in exchange.
(d) Each party has similar rights and liabilities as that of a seller and a buyer.

83. Indian Patent system allows

(a) Pre-grant opposition (b) Post-grant opposition
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

84. Appointment of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is done
by a committee, members of which include
(a) President, Prime Minister, Speaker of the House of the People, Leader of the
Opposition
(b) President, Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India, Speaker of the House of the
People
(c) Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India, Speaker of the House of the People,
Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister, Speaker of the House of the People, Leader of the Opposition
in the House of People, Leader of the Opposition in the Council of States

85. Which of the following is not a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(a) The imprisonment for seven or more years
(b) Adultery
(c) Cruelty
(d) Venereal disease in a communicable form

86. The concept of Seat in an arbitration indicates to

(a) venue where arbitration happens
(b) jurisdiction in which arbitration is situated
(c) courts capable of enforcing an arbitral award
(d) nationality of arbitrators

87. Which of the following is not true ?

(a) According to Cooley, interpretation differs from construction in that the former
is the art of finding out the true sense of any form of words.
(b) According to White, J, in common usage interpretation and construction are
usually understood as having the same significance.
(c) According to Lord Greene, common sense construction rule should never be
resorted to in case of an ambiguity.
(d) According to Dias, although there is some distinction between them, they are
so hard to disentangle that they cannot afford a suitable basis for discussion.
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88. An arbitral award may be set aside under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
on the grounds of
(a) improperly constituted arbitral tribunal
(b) subject matter not being capable of settlement by arbitration
(c) party being under an incapacity
(d) all of the above

89. A Muslim can adopt a child under which Law ?

(a) The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act,1956
(b) Guardianship and Wards Act,1890
(c) The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
(d) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

90. Following is incorrect

(a) Every session court is presided by a Judge appointed by the High Court.
(b) Where office of any Session Judge is vacant, the High Court may make
arrangements for disposal of urgent cases by additional judges, assistant
session judges or chief judicial magistrate.
(c) In every district, as many chief judicial magistrates of first class and second
class may be appointed as the State government in consultation with the High
Court may notify.
(d) The district magistrate prepares a list of persons fit to be appointed as public
prosecutors or assistant public prosecutors.

91. Following is untrue about a lease

(a) There should be a transfer of a right to enjoy an immovable property for a certain
term or in perpetuity.
(b) The transfer should be in consideration of a premium or rent.
(c) The lessee is not required to be competent to contract.
(d) The transfer should be a bilateral transaction, the transferee accepting the terms
of transfer.

92. The following is not true about offences

(a) When an offence is committed by means of several acts, whoever intentionally
co-operates in the commission of that offence by doing any one of those acts,
either singly or jointly with any other person, commits that offence.
(b) Where several persons are engaged or concerned in the commission of a
criminal act, they may be guilty of different offences by means of that act.
(c) In sections 141, 176, 177, 178, 201, 202, 212, 214, 216 and 441, the word
“offence” has the same meaning when the thing punishable under the special
or local law is punishable under such law with imprisonment for a term of six
months or upwards, whether with or without fine.
(d) All of the above
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93. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court has held that the daughter being
a coparcener has a right in the coparcenary property by birth irrespective of whether
the father was alive or not at the time of 2005 amendment ?
(a) Prakash v. Phulavati
(b) S. R. Batra v. Rakesh Sharma
(c) Danamma@Suman Surpur v. Amar
(d) Vineet Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma

94. Pick the incorrect statement about arrest by police without warrant.
(a) A person may be arrested if he commits, in the presence of a police officer, a
cognizable offence.
(b) A person may be arrested if against him a reasonable complaint has been made,
or credible information has been received, or a reasonable suspicion exists that
he has committed a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for a
term which may be less than seven years or which may extend to seven years
subject to fulfilment of certain conditions.
(c) A person may be arrested if he has been proclaimed as an offender.
(d) A person in whose possession anything stolen is found and he may not have
committed any offence in relation to that thing.

95. Which of the following is not an attribute of fast-track arbitration ?

(a) No interim measure will be granted by arbitral tribunal
(b) Arbitral tribunal shall make the award within three months
(c) Arbitral tribunal shall be required to hold an oral hearing in all situations
(d) All of the above

96. Pick the incorrect statement.

(a) Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a
mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law not in good faith believes
himself to be, bound by law to do it.
(b) Nothing is an offence which is done by a Judge when acting judicially in the
exercise of any power which is, or which in good faith he believes to be, given
to him by law.
(c) Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or
who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in
good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing it.
(d) All of the above are incorrect

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97. Which of the following is correct ?

(a) Where the construction of any taxing entry is changed, the burden of proof to
justify the change lies on the department.
(b) Although equity and taxation are quite strangers, but a construction which
results in equity rather than in injustice, should be preferred to the literal
construction.
(c) Where the literal interpretation leads to absurd or unintended results, the
language of the statute can be modified to accord with the legislative intention
and to avoid absurdity also applies in interpreting a taxing statute.
(d) All of the above

98. Following is true about a warrant

(a) A warrant may be executed in any part of India.
(b) A warrant directed in the name of one officer may be executed by any other
officer.
(c) A chief metropolitan magistrate may issue warrant to any officer in his local
jurisdiction for arrest.
(d) All of the above

99. ‘A is accused of murdering B’. The following facts may not be in issue in his trial
(a) That A caused B’s death.
(b) That A may not have intended to cause B’s death.
(c) That A received sudden and grave provocation from B.
(d) That A at the time of doing the act that caused B’s death may not be aware of
the nature of it due to unsoundness of his mind.

100. ‘A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Z, unless Z gives him money.’
The following is true about this statement
(a) A induces Z to give him money and commits an offence known as extortion.
(b) A has only induced Z but has committed no offence.
(c) Threat of publishing a defamatory libel cannot constitute extortion.
(d) None of the above is true

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Space for rough work

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