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LEA 530 Q AND A - Question and answer

BS Criminology (Metro Manila College)

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B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards

CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE EXAMINATION insurgency and other serious treats to national
============================= security.
=========== C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in
FINAL COACHING insurgency-affected areas.
LAW ENFORCEMENT D. All of these
ADMINISTRATION
5. The procedure which is intended to be used
in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide
and by men in the field operations relative to
1. It refers to the field of management which
reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and
involves planning, and controlling the efforts of
investigation refers to:
a group of individuals toward achieving a
common goal with maximum dispatch and A. Field Procedure
minimum use of administrative resources. B. Standard Operating Procedure
A. Administation C. Problem oriented plan
B. Personnel Management D. Headquarters procedure
C. Organization
D. Police Organization
 Headquarters Procedures - include the procedures to
be followed in the headquarters, usually reflected in
 Organization-a group of persons working together for a the duty manual
common goal or objectives a form of human association  Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) - procedures
for the attainment of a goal or objective. intended for specific operations to ensure uniformity of
 Police Organization- a group of trained personnel in the action
field of public safety administration engaged in the
6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for
achievement of goals and objectives.
a period ______?
 Administration- an organizational process concerned
with the implementation of objectives and plans and A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
internal operating efficiency. B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
 Police Administration- the process involved in ensuring
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and related
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
statutes focuses on the policing process.

2. The national headquarters of the PNP is  Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure

located in Quezon City. It was named after the
1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
Those who have reached the prescribed
A. Antonio Torres maximum tenure corresponding to their position
B. Cesar Nazareno shall be retired from the service
C. Rafael Crame  Chief 4 years
D. Lamberto Javalera  Deputy Chief 4 years
 Director of Staff Services 4 years
 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of the Philippine  Regional Directors 6 years
National Police  Provincial/District Directors 9 years
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief of police of  Other positions higher than
the Manila Police Department in 1935 Provincial Director 6 years
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of police of the
Manila Police Department after the Philippine
Independence from the United States of America in
1946
7. The law that empowered the police
3. Abdul Hakol joined the PNP in 1996. She was commission to conduct entrance and
29 years old then. What year can Eugene promotional examination for police members
retire if he wants to avail the mandatory refers to:
retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032 A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B. 2031 D. 2023 B. RA 157 D. PD 765

 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of Investigation,

 Compulsory – upon reaching the age FIFTY-SIX (56), enacted June 19, 1947 and later reorganized by R.A.
the age of retirement 2678
 Optional – upon completion of TWENTY (20) YEARS  PD 765- otherwise known as the Integration Act of
of active service 1975, enacted on August 8, 1975; established the
Integrated National Police (INP)
4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the  R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to
national security? 8. The theory of police service which states
those police officers are servants of the people
A. The AFP operating through the area commander is the or the community refers to:
one primarily responsible on matters involving A. Old
insurgency and other serious treats to national B. Home rule
security. C. Modern
D. Continental

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C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive

 Continental - policemen are regarded as servants of Ordinance Disposal Team.
the higher authorities D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
o It exist in France, Italy and Spain- countries with a procedure to be followed, after investigating the
decentralized form of government item.
 Old Concept - measurement of police competence is
the increasing number of arrests. 14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is measured by the the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his
decreasing number of crimes equivalent rank in the PNP?

9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector

join the Philippine National Police. What would B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector  Inspector – Captain
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE  Chief Inspector – Major
 Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel
 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, nurses,
engineers, graduates of forensic sciences, graduates of 15. How many Deputy Director General ranks
the PNPA and licensed criminologists are there in the PNP?
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains, members of the bar A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
and doctors of medicine

10. The following are functions in a police Deputy Director General ranks
organization, EXCEPT:
 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)
A. primary functions  DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
B. administrative functions  Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in Command)
C. secondary functions 16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
D. auxiliary functions
A. Four star general C. Director
 Primary or Line Functions- functions that carry out the B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General
major purposes of the organization, Patrolling, traffic
duties, and crime investigation
 Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the rank of
 Staff/Administrative Functions- designed to support
DIRECTOR GENERAL
the line functions and assist in the performance of the
line functions examples of the staff functions of the 17. What is the minimum police-to-population
police are Planning, research, budgeting and legal ratio?
advice
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving the logistical A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
operations of the organization examples are B. 1:500 D. 1:7
communication, maintenance, records management,
supplies and equipment management. Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to-
population ratio)
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon o 1:500 – nationwide average
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
18. What kind of force is needed during armed
A. Conduct a complete search. confrontation?
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made. A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor. B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded
Force
12. He is known as the father of modern
policing system? 19. The largest organic unit within a large
department.
A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell A. Bureau C. Section
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare Lombroso B. Division D. Unit

 August Vollmer - recognized as the Father of Modern

 Division- The primary subdivision of a bureau.
Law Enforcement
 Section- Functional units within a particular division.
This is necessary for specialization.
 Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of Scotland Yard
 Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern Criminology.
 Units- Functional group within a section where further
specialization is needed.
13. When responding to call for police
20. The word “police” was derived from the
assistance due to planted or found explosives,
Greek word _______, which means government
what immediate actions should the patrol officer
of the city.
will do?
A. politia C. politeia
B. polis D. Policy
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further  Polis – Greek word which means “City-State”.
injury to happen.

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 Politia – Roman word which means “condition of the B. Inspector General D. IAS General
state or the Government”.
28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there
21. It is defined as the determination in advance should be how many PLEB for every 500 police
of how the objectives of the organization will be personnel?
attained. A. one (1) C. more than one
A. planning C. B. at least one D. less than one
Advancement
B. police planning D. Development  there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for every five
hundred (500) city or municipal police personnel
 Police Planning - it is an attempt by police
administration to allocate anticipated resources to 29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what
meet anticipated service demands. would be the immediate things to do when
accident occur?
22. It is the premier educational institution for A. Cordon the area
the training, human resource development and B. Go away and call your superior
continuing education of all personnel of the PNP, C. Bring the victim to the nearest
BFP, and BJMP. hospital
A. PPSC C. RTS D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
B. PNPA D. NPC
30. The following are the upgraded general
PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD qualifications for appointment in the Philippine
1184, premier educational institution for future National Police.
officers of the tri-bureaus. a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five
(5) kilos;
23. It is the central receiving entity for any b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or
citizen’s complaint against the police officers. over thirty five (35) years of age;
A. IAS C. PNP c. Applicant must be person of good moral
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably
 NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative control and discharged from military services or civilian
operational supervision over the PNP position in the government; and
 IAS - investigate complaints and gather evidence in e. Applicant must be eligible.
support of an open investigation; conduct summary
hearings on PNP members facing administrative A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
charges; B. b, c, e D. c, d, e

24. The following are the grounds for Patrol 31. All of the following are members of the
officers to execute spot checks. People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
area; and Order Council from among the
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your respected members of the community
superior; B. A bar member chosen by the
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police Integrated Bar of the Philippines
officer; C. Any barangay captain of the
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the
suspect’s prior criminal record; and association of barangay captains
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect D. Any member of the Sangguniang
is carrying a pyrotechnics. Panglunsod
A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d, 32. Two or more persons forming an
e organization must identify first the reason for
establishing such organization. They must
25. The provincial governor shall choose the identify the organization’s _________:
provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s A. strategy C. Goal
recommended by the PNP regional director: B. Tactic D. objective
A. six C. five
B. Three D. four  Strategy – is a broad design, method; a major plan of
action that needs a large amount of resources to attain
 MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE eligible’s a major goal or objectives.
recommended by the PD.  Goal- General Statement of intention normally with
time perspective. It is achievable end state that can be
26. The deployment of officers in a given measured and observed.
community, area or locality to prevent and deter  Tactic – it is a specific design, method or course of
criminal activity and to provide day-to-day action to attain a particular objective in consonance
services to the community.
with strategy.
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol 33. To improve delegation, the following must
be done, EXCEPT:
27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation A. establish objectives and standards
of ____________? B. count the number of supervisors
A. Director General C. Solicitor C. require completed work
General D. define authority and responsibility

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 Director General President

34. The number of subordinates that can be  Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President
supervised directly by one person tends to:  Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP
A. Increase as the physical distance between  PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, PNP
supervisor and subordinate as well as
between individual subordinate increases 40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
B. Decrease with an increase in the
knowledge and experience of the A. Standard operation procedures
subordinate B. Special operation procedures
C. Increase as the level of supervision C. Standard operating procedures
progresses for the first line D. Special operating procedures
supervisory level to the management
level 41. The following are the characteristics of a
D. All of the above good plan, EXCEPT:
A. flexibility C. specific
35. This means controlling the direction and flow B. clear D. expensive
of decisions through unity of command from top
to bottom of organization: 42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is
A. Audit C. Coordination 1200. How many of the annual quota is
B. Monitoring D. Authority allocated for women?
A. 10% C. 120
36. Which of the following statements is TRUE? B. 100 D. 200
A. Performance evaluation measures
credibility of the police  The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT (10%) of its annual
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for recruitment, training and education quota for women
salary increases or promotion
C. Performance evaluation is done once a 43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP
year among police personnel may be waived in the following order:
D. Performance evaluation is
implemented to determine the A. age, height, weight & education
quality of work performance of B. age, weight, height & education
personnel C. height, education, weight & age
D. in any order
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to
the DILG for _______:
 Applicants who possess the least disqualification shall
A. Administrative control take precedence over those who possess more
B. Administration and control disqualification;
C. Operational supervision  The requirement shall be waived in the following order:
D. Policy and program coordination Age, Height, Weight and Education. (AHWE)
38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same 44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the
supervisor. This is the principle of __________: basis provided by law.
A. attrition C.
A. delegation of authority Specialization
B. span of control B. promotion D. retirement
C. unity of command
D. chain of command  Specialization- the assignment of particular personnel
to particular tasks which are highly technical and
 Delegation of Authority- conferring of certain specified require special skills and training
authority by a superior to a subordinate  Retirement - The separation of the police personnel
 Chain of Command- the arrangement of officers from from the service by reason of reaching the age of
top to bottom on the basis of rank or position and retirement provided by law, or upon completion of
authority certain number of years in active service.
 Span of Control- the maximum number of subordinates  Promotion - It is a upgrading of ranks and/or
that a superior can effectively supervise advancement to a position of leadership
 Command Responsibility- dictates that immediate
commanders shall be responsible for the effective 45. The age requirement for new PNP applicants
supervision and control of their personnel and unit must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of
age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP
39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack applicants using the lateral entry program is
T. Khole? ____.
A. President C. Chief, A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
PNP B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
B.CA D. Regional
Director
46. A Field training Program for all PNP
Promoting Authorities: uniformed members is required for permanency
of their appointment. Who among the following
Grade/Rank Promoting is exempted to undergo the Field Training
Authorities Program and issued a permanent appointment?

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A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. Inspector C. Junior Leadership Course
via Lateral entry. D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via
Lateral entry.  SLC- SPOII to SPOIII
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector  JLC – POIII to SPOI
after graduation.  PSBRC – POI to POII
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and First
Place in the Examination. 53. The head of the National Capital Regional
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
 Field Training Program. – All uniformed members of director with the rank of:
the PNP shall undergo a Field Training Program for A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
twelve (12) months involving actual experience and B. Superintendent D.
assignment in patrol, traffic, and investigation as a C/Inspector
requirement for permanency of their appointment.
 Regional Director -with the rank of Chief
47. Planning as a management function is to be Superintendent
done in the various levels of PNP organization.  Provincial Director -with the rank of Senior
Broad policy based from laws directives, policies Superintendent
and needs in general is the responsibility of:  NCR District Director -with the rank of Chief
Superintendent
A. Directorate for Plans  Chief of Police – with the rank of Chief Inspector
B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP 54. Under the waiver program, who among the
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration following PNP applicants is the least priority for
appointment?
48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college
Philippines? B. Renz who is under height
A. Lt. General C. Major General C. Justine who is underweight
B. Brigade General D. General D. Philip who is overage

 Chief Superintendent – Brigade General 55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
 Director – Major General as____________.
 Director General - General
A. Department of Interior and Local Government Act
49. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300 of 1990
new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
quota. Who among the following applicants is Act of 1990
qualified to apply? C. Department of Interior and the Local Government
Act of 1990
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978 D. Department of the Interior and the Local
B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980 Government Act of 1990
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August 10, 1991 56. The following are the component agencies
that compose the Philippine National Police
(Sec. 23, RA 6975).
 For a new applicant, must not be less than twenty-one a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
(21) nor more than thirty (30) years of age b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and
National Police on October 5, 1988. e. National Action Committee on Anti-
Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as Hijacking.
embalmer, he decided to file an optional A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
gratifying PNP which he served with extreme
commitment and loyalty. When does Bruno can 57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00
retire? base pay since he was promoted. After five
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999 years from promotion, what would be his
B. September 5, 2010 D. September monthly base pay after adding his longevity
5, 2008 pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37,
51. Which of the following administrative 690.00
penalties is immediately executory? B. 30, 459.00 D. 31,
A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture 549.00
of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty 58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall
be appealed to the__________:
52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to SPOIV? A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
A. Officers Candidate Course C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
B. Senior Leadership Course D. National Police Commission

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 SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the President upon

 National Appellate Board - shall decide cases on appeal recommendation of the Chief, PNP, subject to
from decisions rendered by the PNP Chief and the IAS. confirmation by the Commission on Appointments
 Regional Appellate Board - shall decide cases on  DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by the President
appeal from decisions rendered by the RD, PD, COP, the from among the senior officers down to the rank of
city or municipal mayor and the PLEB except decision C/Supt, subject to the confirmation of the Commission
on suspension. on Appointments

NOTE: 61. It is known as the Professionalization act of

1966.
 The PLEB decision of the suspension is final and cannot A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
be appealed. B. Act 175 D. Act 183
 The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or Regional
Director is final and executory but subject to appeal to  Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for the
RAB. Organization and Government of an Insular
 Decision of Chief of Police is appealable within 10 days Constabulary”, enacted on July 18, 1901
to Provincial Director, upon receipt of decision.  Act No. 183 - created the Manila Police Department,
 Decision of Provincial Director is appealable within 10 enacted on July 31, 1901
days to Regional Director, upon receipt of decision.  Act No 255 - The act that renamed the Insular
 Decision of Regional Director is appealable within 10 Constabulary into Philippine Constabulary, enacted on
days to Chief, PNP upon receipt of decision. October 3, 1901
 The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are from those cases
concerning internal discipline. 62.________ is given to any PNP member who
 Cases involving internal discipline filed with the Chief, has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry
at the risk of his life above and beyond the call
PNP originally, the decision is appealable to NAB
of duty.
which decision is Final.
 Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed ONCE. A. Promotion by virtue of Position
59. Who shall administer the entrance and B. Meritorious Promotion
promotional examinations for police officers on C. Regular Promotion
the basis of the standards set by the D. On-the-Spot Promotion
Commission as amended by RA 8551?  Regular – promotion granted to police officers
A. PLEB C. CSC meeting the mandatory requirements for promotion
B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM  Promotion by virtue of Position- any PNP personnel
designated to any key position whose rank is lower
than what is required for such position shall, after 6
 Police Entrance Examination – taken by months occupying the same, be entitled to rank
applicants of the PNP adjustment corresponding to position.
 Police Promotional Examinations –
taken by in-service police officers as part of 63. PNP members under the waiver program but is
the mandatory requirements for promotion dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements can
re-apply to the PNP?
NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
Criminologists, no longer need to take the B. Absolutely Yes D.
Police Promotional Examinations as part of the Absolutely No
requirements for promotion. As PRC Board
Passers, they have already complied with the  PNP members under the waiver program but is
eligibility requirement. dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements
can RE-APPLY provided he now have the minimum
60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted, if
requirements.
he is promoted who has the appointing
authority?
64. The reason why police officer appears in
court as a witness has to be in complete uniform
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for the
is to show his respect to the court and to his:
national headquarters personnel attested by the
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
Civil Service Commission.
B. Profession D.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate superiors Comrades
and attested by the Civil Service Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of Chief PNP, 65. One having supervisory responsibilities over
endorsed by the Civil Service and subject to officers to the lower rank, whether temporary or
confirmation by the Commission of Appointment. permanent.
D. President from among the senior officers down to A. None C. Superior
the rank of Chief Superintendent, subject to the officer
confirmation of the Commission on Appointment. B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer

Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel  Sworn Officer- The term referring to personnel of the
police department who has taken oath of office and
 PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the Regional Director possesses the power to arrest.
for regional personnel or by the Chief, PNP for the  Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers having the
national headquarters highest rank or grade according to their date of
 INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the Chief, PNP appointment to that grade

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66. Law that created the Manila Police  physical and/or mental incapacity to perform police
Department, enacted on July 31. functions and duties; or
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183  failure to pass the required entrance examinations
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175 twice and/or finish the required career courses
except for justifiable reasons
 RA 4864- otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization Act of 1966, enacted on September 70. Female detainees shall not be transported in
8, 1966; created the Police Commission (POLCOM); handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and
later POLCOM was renamed in Act No 255 - The act proper escort, preferably aided by a police
that renamed the Insular Constabulary into Philippine woman. The statement is-
Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901 to National A. Partially True C. Wholly True
Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) B. Partially False D. Wholly False
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for the
Organization and Government of an Insular 71. In this theory, management assumes
Constabulary”, enacted on July 18, 1901 employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is
67. The performance evaluation system is believed that employees enjoy their mental and
conducted: physical work duties.
A. thrice a year C. Every 6 A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
months B. X theory D. Y theory
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
 Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity whereby
 January to June Evaluation Report to be submitted 1st subjects improve or modify an aspect of their behavior
week of July being experimentally measured simply in response to
 June to December Evaluation Report to be submitted 1 st the fact that they are being studied, not in response to
week of January of the succeeding year. any particular experimental manipulation.
 X theory - management assumes employees are
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that
physical disability in the performance of his duty they inherently dislike work.
and unable to further perform his duty shall be
entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to: 72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation
created and developed by?
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino
C. 60% of his last salary B. John Edgar Hoover
D. 80% of his last salary C. Henry A. Landsberger
D. Douglas McGregor

Retirement due To Permanent Physical  Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York City Police
Disability officer, who pioneer fighting Organized Crime.
 Henry A. Landsberger – coined the word Hawthorne
PNP uniformed personnel who are Effect
permanently and totally disabled as a result of
 John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the Federal
injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the
Bureau of Investigation; he was instrumental in
performance of his duty shall be entitled to ONE
founding the FBI in 1935.
YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME
PENSION equivalent to EIGHTY PERCENT
73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is needed to be
(80%) of his last salary, in addition to other
promoted to Senior Superintendent.
benefits.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
Should such PNP personnel die within B. Officers Advance Course
FIVE (5) YEARS from his retirement due to C. Officers Basic Course
physical disability, his legal spouse or legitimate D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
children shall be entitled to receive the pension
for the remainder of the five year-period.  MNSA/Allied MA Degree – Chief Superintendent - up.
 OAC – Chief Inspector
69. How many successive annual rating  OBC – Senior Inspector
periods before a police officer may be  BSPS - Inspector
separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance? 74. Who among the following have summary
A. 2 C. 4 dismissal powers?
B.3 D. 1 A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of these
Attrition by other Means
Those who have at least five (5) years of The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional
active service shall be separated based on any Directors have summary dismissal powers in
of the following: any of the following cases:

 inefficiency based on poor performance during the  when the charge is serious and the evidence of
last two (2) successive annual rating periods; guilt is strong
 inefficiency based on poor performance for three (3)  when the respondent is a recidivist or has been
cumulative annual rating periods; repeatedly charged and there are reasonable

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grounds to believe that he is guilty of the charges;  Permanent – when an applicant possesses the
and upgraded general qualifications for appointment in the
 when the respondent is guilty of a serious offense PNP
involving conduct unbecoming of a police officer  Probationary- All PNP members upon entry level,
before appointed to permanent status shall undergo a
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of mandatory 1 Year probationary period.
not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16
days, the citizen’s complaint against erring 80. The institution of a criminal action or
PNP member shall be filed at the complaint against a police officer is
A. A ground for dismissal
A. Office of the chief of police B. Not qualified for promotion
B. PLEB C. Automatically dismiss
C. Mayor’s Office D. Not a bar to promotion
D. any of them
 Pursuant to RA 9708, “ In addition, the institution of
 Chief of Police - for a period not exceeding FIFTEEN (15) a criminal action or complaint against a police officer
DAYS shall not be a bar to promotion
 PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS, or by
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or
DISMISSAL
elements of the PNP for the purpose of
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be protection of lives and properties, enforcement
___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
retired grade in case of 20 years active service prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and
A. 50% C. 10% bringing the offenders to justice
B. 2.5% D. 55% A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D.
 Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY PERCENT (50%) Employment
of the base pay in case of twenty years of active service,
 Deployment- shall mean the orderly and organized
increasing by TWO AND ONE-HALF PERCENT (2.5%) for
physical movement of elements or units of the PNP
every year of active service rendered beyond twenty
within the province, city or municipality for purposes of
years.
employment
77. This type of plan is intended for specific
purpose such as drug crackdown, crime 82. What is the first step in making a plan?
prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up A. Frame of reference
campaign. It concludes when the objective is B. Analyzing the Facts
accomplished or the problem is solved C. Collecting all pertinent data
A. Strategic plan D. Selling the plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan 83. It identify the role of police in the
D. time bound operational plan community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
 Functional Plan- includes the framework for the B. Strategic Plans
operation of the major functional unit in the C. Synoptic Planning
organization Such as patrol and investigation. D. Incremental Planning
 Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which are strategic or
long range in application, it determine the  STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to meet the long-
organization’s original goals and strategy. range, overall goals of the organization.
 SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational comprehensive
78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP approach) – is the dominant tradition in planning. It is
members on routine and field operations and also the point of departure for most other planning
some special operations approaches. It is base on “pure” or “objective”
A. Extra Departmental plan rationality and attempts to assure optimal achievement
B. Tactical Plan of desired goals from a given situation. It relies heavily
C. Operational Plan on the problem identification and analysis phase of
D. policy or procedural plan planning process.
 INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this approach disfavors
 Extra-Departmental Plans - which require actions or the exclusive use of planners who have not direct
assistance from persons or agencies outside of the interest in the problems at hand and favors a sort of
department decentralized political bargaining that involves
 Operational Plan - often called work plan; the work interested parties.
program of the field units
 Tactical Plans - concern methods of action to be taken 84. The organizational structure of the PNP is
at a designated location and under specific __________.
circumstances A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and
79. What kind of appointment when the staf
applicant is under the waiver program due to
weight requirements pending satisfaction of the  Line – oldest and simplest kind; few departments
requirement waived.  Functional – according to functions of the organization
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special

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85. It is the process of developing methods or  Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) - Failure to
procedure or an arrangement of parts intended report for duty without official notice for a period of
to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite THIRTY (30) DAYS
objective.
A. Management C. Functioning 92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____
B. Budgeting D. Planning number of hours of classroom training should be
required for newly promoted supervisory
86. Refers to any offense committed by a personnel
member of the PNP involving and affecting A. 72 hours C. 80
order and discipline within the police hours
organization. B. 75 hours D. 85
hours
A. Breech of Internal Discipline 93. It should be proactive, people oriented,
B. Citizens Complaint based on individual need, and delivered in such
C. Minor Offense a way as to motivate the experienced officer to
D. Any of these a higher degree of
professionalism/professionalization
 Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or omission not A. Recruit Training
involving moral turpitude but affecting the internal B. Specialized training
discipline of the PNP C. In Service
 Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any complaint D. Field Training
initiated by a private citizen or his duly authorized
representative on account of an injury, damage or 94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade
disturbance sustained due to an irregular or illegal act possessing the entire mandatory and other
committed by a member of the PNP. consideration in promotion, is what kind of
promotion?
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
police personnel unit? B. Regular Promotion
A. Preparing policy statements and standard C. Meritorious Promotion
operating Procedures relating to all areas D. Promotion
of the administration of human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other 95. It involves assistance and action by non
line officials regarding personnel matters police agencies such as Local Safety Council for
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile
officers to identify, and subsequently Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans
correct, unsatisfactory working conditions and Civil defense plans
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to A. Management Plans
the exclusive ranks B. Procedural plan
C. Tactical Plans
88. It refers to the process of screening out or D. Extra departmental plan
eliminating undesirable applicants that do not
meet the organization’s selection criteria 96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of
A. Promotion C. Recruitment metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible
B. Transfer D. Selection evidence of an award:
A. Medal C. Awards
 Recruitment – it is the process of attracting B. Decorations D. Ribbons
candidates who have the maximum qualifications to be
eligible for the selection procedure.
 Award — anything tangible granted to an individual in
recognition of acts of gallantry or heroism, meritorious
89. It is recognized as the best method of filing service or skill and proficiency.
A. Pigeon Hole  Decoration — a piece of metal/material representing
B. Retrieval operation an award.
C. Records Management
D. Chain of custody 97. For every _______ letters of commendation, a
medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP
member:
90. It is considered to be the heart of any
A. Six C. Four
identification system; it provides positive
B. Five D. Three
identification of the criminal
A. Arrest and booking report
98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful
B. Miscellaneous Records
exaction, domination, or excessive use of
C. Identification records
authority:
D. Fingerprint Records
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty
B. Incompetency D. Oppression
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed
Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for
 Misconduct generally mans wrongful, improper, or
the heirs is for a maximum of how many
unlawful conduct, motivated by premeditated,
months?
obstinate or intentional purpose. It usually refers to
A. 1 year C. 2 months
transgressions or some established and definite rule of
B. 30 Days D. 12 months
action

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 Incompetency — is the manifest lack of adequate  National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
ability and fitness for the satisfactory performance, of supplemented by investigation of the records and files
police duties. of the following agencies: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau
 Dishonesty — is the concealment or distortion of the of Immigration and Deportation and other agency.
truth in a matter or act relevant to one’s office, or  Local Agency Check- Refers to the investigation of the
connected with the performance of his duties. records and files of agency in the area of principal
residence of the individual being investigated like
99. The operational support unit of the PNP shall Mayor, Police, Fiscal, Judge.
function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit  Background Investigation – a check made on an
to augment police forces for civil disturbance individual usually seeking employment through
control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking, subjects records in the police files, educational
rescue operations and other special operations: institutions, place of residence, and former employers.
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B. SWAT D. SOCO 105. The importance of the firm or installation
with reference to the national economy security.
100. The primary objective of Philippine National A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative
Police: program
A. Law Enforcement C. Peace B. Relative criticality D. Relative
and Order security
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime
Prevention  Relative Vulnerability – is the susceptibility of the
plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms operation due to various hazards.
are not allowed to possess except when there is
an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as 106. Private security agencies have to be
determined by proper authority, but shall not registered with the:
exceed ______ of the total number of security A. SEC C. DTI
guards. B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD
A. 50% C. 20%
B. 30% D. 10%  Trade name of the Security Agencies must be
registered at the Department of Trade and Industry
102. The vault door should be made of steel at
least __________ in thickness? 107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches certain facility what must be constructed.
B. 6 inches D. 20 feet A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
or more B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences

Specifications of Vault  Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence that provides
visual access through the fence.
 Doors should be 6 inches thick made of steel
 Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick 108. A private security Guard who is escorting a
 Floor should be elevated by 4 inches big amount of money or cash outside his area of
 Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
 Vault door must be fire-resistive up to 4 to 6 hours A. Firearms C. Duty Detail
Order
103. An act or condition, which results in a B. Mission Order D. None of These
situation conducive to a breach of the protection
system, or that, could result to loss. 109. What is the duration of the Basic Security
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards Guard Course?
B. Natural Hazards D. Security A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
Hazards B. 72 Hours D. 300
Kinds of Security Hazard Hours

 Human Hazard – is the act or condition affecting Classification and Duration Period of
the safe operation of the facility caused by human training
action.
 Natural Hazard – is the act or situation caused by  Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-Licensing Training
natural phenomenon, like floods, typhoons, Course)- 150 Hours
earthquakes, etc.  Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
 Security Officers Training Course- 300 Hours
104. An inquiry into the character, reputation,  Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an  Security Supervisor Development Course
individual in order to determines person  Other Specialized Training Course
suitability for appointment or access to
classified matter. 110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership
staff:
A. Local Agency check
B. Background Investigation A. Detachment Commander
C. National Agency Check B. Chief Inspector
D. Personnel Security Investigation C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1

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Line Leadership Staff  Security Survey- Is the process of conducting an

 Security Supervisor 3- Detachment Commander- the exhaustive physical examination and thorough
field or area commander of the agency. inspection of all operation system and procedures of a
 Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector- responsible for facility
inspecting the entire area coverage by the detachment.  Security Education - The basic goal is to acquaint all
 Security Supervisor 1- Inspector- responsible for the the employees the justification behind the security
area assigned by the chief inspector or the detachment measures and to insure cooperation at all times.
commander.
115. What is the last phase of Security
111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is Education?
twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 A. Initial Interview C.
point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire Conference
fencing should not be less than ___ high B. Dissemination D. Security
excluding the top guard. promotion
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet

Phases of Security Education

Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)  Initial Interview

 Training Conference
Specifications  Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Standard barbed wire is twisted double strand, 12  Security Promotion
gauge wires, with 4 point barb spaced on equal distant  Special Interview
part.  Debriefing
 Barbed wire fencing should not be less than 7 feet high,
excluding the top guard. 116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
 Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to post not electronic device designed to prevent entry into
more than 6 feet apart. a building, room container, or hiding place, and
 The distance between strands will not exceed 6 inches to prevent the removal of items without the
and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and consent of the owner
midway between posts. A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination
112. Who exercises the power to remove, for Locks
cause, license issued to security guards.
 Padlock- A portable and detachable lock having or
A. Any of these sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring or the
B. Secretary, DILG like and is then made fast or secured.
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM  Code-Operated Locks - They are open by pressing a
D. C/PNP series of numbered buttons in the proper sequence.
 Combination Locks - A lock that requires manipulation
113. What type of alarm is best suited for doors of dials according to a predetermined combination code
and windows? of numbers or letters
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. Vibration 117. A type of protective alarm system where
Detection the protective alarm located outside the
installation.
 Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device - A light beam A. Local Alarm system C. Central
connected by a wire to control station and when an Station System
intruder crosses the beam he breaks the contact with B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
the photoelectric coil which thus activates the alarm.
 Audio Detection Device - It is a supersensitive  Local Alarm by chance System - This is a local alarm in
microphone speaker sensor that is installed in walls, which a siren or bell is sounded with no predicable
ceilings, and floors of the protected area, Any sound Response.
caused by attempted forced entry is detected by file  Auxiliary System - In this system installation circuits are
censor. led into local police or fire department by lease
 Vibration detection device - Any vibration caused by telephone line
attempted force entry is detected by the sensor.  Proprietary System - It is the same as the central
station system except that it is owned by, operated and
114. Is the process of conducting physical located in the facility
examination to determine compliance with
establishment security policies and procedures? 118. In which the badge or pass coded for
A. Security Education C. Security authorization to enter specific areas issued to
Inspection an employees who keeps it in the possession
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey until his authorization is change or until he
terminates.
Security Planning- Is a corporate and A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange
executive responsibility. It involves knowing the system
objectives of the security and the means and B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass
the method to reach those objectives or goal System
must then evolve.

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 Pass Exchange System- Which he exchange one-color 123. One who steals with preconceived plans
coded pass at the entrance to the controlled area is and takes away any or all types of items or
issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession supplies for economic gain?
until his authorization or until he terminates. A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of passes are B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic
issued to an individual with the same photograph. The pilferer
individual exchange his badge for another color or
 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to his inability to
markings at the entrance. Once inside, if he needs to
resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of
enter a restricted area, he exchanges it for another
detection.
color acceptable in that area.
124. The metallic container used for securing
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position
documents or small items in an office or
that tellers may activate the alarm by placing
installation refers to:
the front of their foot to engage the activation
A. Safe C. File room
bar
B. Vault D. None of these
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze
125. Chain link fences must be constructed
Button
in______ material excluding the top guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet
 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency Activation, B. Six feet D. Five feet
when currency is removed from the devices, the alarm
Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)
is activated.
Specifications
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed inside the deck or
teller station so they can be activated by knee or thigh  Must be constructed in 7 feet material excluding the
pressure. top guard
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires pressure on both  Must be of 9 gauge or heavier
side of the device and therefore the probability of  Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 inches
accidental alarm is reduced.
126. The following things are used as barrier,
120. These are wide beam units, used to extend which serves as a deterrent to the possible
the illumination in long, horizontal strips to intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier; A. Human C. Doors
it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to B. Fences D. NONE
30 degrees in the vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C. 127. Vaults are storage devices which are
Floodlights usually designed to be at least _______fire
B. Street Lights D. Search lights resistant.
A. 3 hours C. 6 hours
 Floodlights - projects light in a concentrated beam. Best B. 24 hours D. 12 hours
used in boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight. 128. A lock which is commonly installed in safe
 Searchlights - highly focused incandescent lamps used deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it
in pinpointing potential is operated by utilizing combinations by means
 Street Lights - produced diffused light rather than of a dial.
direction beam. A. None C. Card Operated
Locks
121. The following Firearms are allowed to be B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler
issued to a private security guard under normal locks
condition:
I. Cal .50;  Card-Operated Locks - Coded card notched, embossed
II. Cal .45; or containing an embedded pattern of copper flocks.
III. Cal .38;  Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as wafer tumbler type,
IV. Magnum .22; and has flat metal tumblers with open center fitted into lock
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun. case, commonly used for Automobile Industry which
affords delay up to 7 to 10 minutes.
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V
B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, 129. The maximum number of firearms allowed
IV, V to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___
units.
122. What is the required capital investment for A. 30 C. 500
organization of private security agency? B. 70 D. 1000
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000 Use of Firearms

New applicants to operate shall be required to  Number of firearms shall not exceed one (1) for every
obtain a minimum capitalization of ONE two (2) Security Guard. (1:2)
MILLION (P1, 000, 000.00) pesos with a  For Temporary licensed, one hundred (100) guards,
minimum bank deposit of FIVE an initial of at least 30 licensed firearms.
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00)  For regular licensed two hundred guards (200), at
pesos in order to start its business least 70 pieces of licensed firearms.
operations.

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130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp 134. Security Clearance is a certification by a
emits a blue- green color? responsible authority that the person described
is cleared to access and classify matters at
A. Sodium vapor lamp appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
B. Mercury vapor lamp valid for a period of____ from the date of
C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp issuance.
D. Quartz lamp A. 1 year C. 4 years
 Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of Gaseous Discharge B. 2 years D. 5 years
lamp that emit Yellow Light.
 Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very bright white  Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
light and instant on almost as rapidly as the
135. The term used in England for lock pickers,
incandescent lamp. safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas
 Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very economical to or room.
use but for industrial security it is not acceptable A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
due to long time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5 B. Thug D. Peterpan
minutes to light.
 Incandescent Lamps- These are common light 136. The tenure of a security guard is:
bulbs that are found in every home. They have the A. Six Months
advantage of providing instant illumination B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years
131. What type of security deals with the D. Contractual
industrial plants and business enterprises where
personnel, processes, properties and operations 137. Which among the following is not an
are safeguarded? advantage of a full-view fence, except:
A. Personal security C. Operational A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids
security the intruder in planning
B. industrial security D. bank B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the
security
movements of persons in the installation.
 Personal Security- Involves the protection of top- C. It creates shadows which could prevent
ranking officials of the government, visiting concealment of the intruder.
persons of illustrious standing and foreign D. None of these
dignitaries. Also called VIP security.
 Operational Security- This involves the protection 138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to
give surety bond which shall answer for any
of processes, formulas, and patents, industrial and
valid and legal claims against such agency filed
manufacturing activities from espionage,
by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety
infiltration, loss, compromise or photocopying.
bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
 School Security- Security involving not only A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
facilities but also the students or pupils. B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
132. The following are principles of Physical  Surety Bond
Security, EXCEPT: o Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
A. There is impenetrable Barrier. o Agency with 200-499 guards – P100,000.00
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry. o Agency with 500-799 guards – P150,000.00
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier. o Agency with 800-1000 guards – P200,000.00
D. Intelligence requires continuous security
This bond shall answer for any valid and legal
measures. claims against such agency filed by aggrieved
party.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the
registration fee for each security guard?
139. What type of investigation involves all
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
aspect and details about the circumstances of a
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo
person?
Php
A. partial background investigation
Payment of fees and licenses
B. personnel security investigation
 For Agency C. complete background investigation
 The sum of two thousand pesos (P 2,000.00) as D. national agency check
national license fee payable to the National
Treasurer.  Partial Background Investigation - investigation of the
 The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as payment background of the individual but limited only to some
for registration fee for each security guard of the circumstances of his personal life.
employed.
 For Individual 140. The exposure and the teaching of
 One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per year for employees on security and its relevance to their
work is:
Security Consultant,Security Officer and Private
A. Security Inspection C. Security
Detectives
Education
 Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for Security Guard B. Security Orientation D. Security
payable at the Chief Finance Office, HQ PNP. Survey

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141. It is under physical security which provides B. Background Investigation

sufficient illumination to areas during hours of C. Partial Background Investigation
darkness. D. Complete Background Investigation
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby
Lighting 148. The unobstructed area maintained on both
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and
Lighting interior parallel area to afford better observation
of the installation refers to:
 Standby Lighting- This system is similar to continuous A. Clear zone C .Complimentary
lighting but it is turn on manually or by special device or zone
other automatic means. B. Open zone D. Free zone
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of stationary or
portable, manually operated searchlights. The
searchlights may be lighted continuously during the
hours of darkness nor only as needed, it is just a
supplementary to other protective or security Lighting.
 Emergency Lighting- This standby lighting may be 149. The extension period for a license to
utilized in the event of electric failure, either due to operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the
local equipment or commercial failure. required minimum number of guards is:
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common type consisting A. 1 month C. 6
of series of fixed luminous flood a given area months
continuously with overlap B. 2 years D. 1 year

142. In order to be qualified as a Security 150. Which of the following types of lock is
Consultant, you must have ____ year/s generally used in car doors?
experience in the operation and management of A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
security business. B. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 lock
years
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years 151. Which among the following aspects of
Security is the weakest of them all?
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to A. Physical security
their licensed firearm is needed after operating B. Personnel security
for six months. C. Personal Security
A. 1:3 C. 1:2 D. Document and information security
B. 1:5 D. 1:1
152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is statement is-
useful in areas where insects predominate? A. Partially Correct C. Partially
Wrong
A. Mercury vapor lamp B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely
B. Sodium vapor Lamp Wrong
C. Quartz lamp
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp 153. It refers to any structure or physical device
capable of restriction, deterring or delaying
 Amber color does not attract insects at night. illegal access to an installation.
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier
145. What is an act governing the organization B. Barrier D. Energy
and management of private security agency, Barrier
company guard force and government
security forces?  Perimeter Barrier- A medium or structure which
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587 defines the physical limits of an installation or area to
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487 restrict or impeded access thereto
 Animal Barrier – Animals are used in partially
146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link providing a guarding system like dogs and geese.
or concertina. Chain link are for ______.  Energy Barrier – It is the employment of mechanical,
electrical, electronic energy imposes a deterrent to
A. Solid structure entry by the potential intruder.
B. Permanent structure
C. Least permanent structure 154. It is normally provided at main perimeter
D. Semi- permanent structure entrances to secure areas located out of doors,
and manned by guards on a full time basis.
 Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent) A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
 Concertina Wire Fences (Least Permanent) B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations

147. It is more comprehensive investigation  Tower/Guard Tower – house-like structures

than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough above the perimeter barriers. It gives a
and complete investigation of all or some of the psychological effect to violators.
circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is
conducted? 155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or
uniform member of the PNP honorably
A. Personnel Security Investigation discharged/separated or retired from the service

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are exempted from the requirements of a B. Three D. Four

private detective. The statement is-
A. False C. Absolutely  PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular license to
True operate good for two (2) years
B. Partially True D. Maybe False
162. The removal of the security classification
156. The following are the areas to be lighted: from the classified matter.
a. Parking Areas; A. Segregation C. Declassify
b. Thoroughfare; B. Reclassify D. Exclusion
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
e. Susceptible Areas.
163. The form of security that employs
A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d cryptography to protect information refers to:
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, A. Document and information security
d, e B. Operational security
C. Communication security
157. An additional overhead of barbed wire D. Industrial security
placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing
upwards and outward with a 45* angle with 164. The following are exempted from Pre-
three to four strands of barbed wires spread 6” licensing training.
apart. 1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
A. Top guard C. Fence Top 2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science in
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these Criminology;
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or any PNP
158. When are security guards deputized by the training school;
PNP Chief or local mayor to have police
4. Veterans and retired military/police personnel; and
authority within their assigned area of
5. Honorably discharged military/police personnel.
responsibility?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
A. When there is an employee’s strike
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. When the company is in retrenchment
C. During times of emergency
165. The minimum age requirement for Security
D. When there is a crime committed inside the Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
establishment A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable;
reproduction of this record does not have the  18 years Old- minimum age qualification for SG.
same value as the original.  50 years Old – Maximum age qualification for SG.

A. Vital Documents 166. The following are the categories of

B. Important Documents automatic alarm system, EXCEPT:
C. Useful Documents A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye
D. Non- Essential Documents Device
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps
Types of Documents
167. Which of the following is NOT a false key?
 Class II – Important Documents- This includes records, A. picklock or similar tool .
the reproduction of which will close considerable B. A duplicate key of the owner.
expense and labor, or considerable delay. C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
 Class III – Useful Document- This include records D. Any key other than those intended by the owner.
whose loss might cause inconvenience but could b 168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
readily replaced and which would not in the meantime A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs.
present an insurmountable obstacle B. 1000 lbs. D. 600
 Class IV – Non-essential Documents- These records lbs.
are daily files, routine in nature even if lost or
destroyed, will not affect operation or administration. 169. The minimum number of guards required
for a company security force is:
This class represents the bulk of the records which
A. 1000 C. 30
should not be attempted to protect.
B. 100 D. 200
160. It is the importance of firm with reference
to the national economy and security.  For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred (200) and
maximum of one thousand (1,000).
A. Relative Operation
B. Relative Security 170. It refers to a system use in big installation
C. Relative Vulnerability whereby keys can open a group of locks.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying
D. Relative Criticality of Operation B. Change Key D. Grand Master
Key
161. A new Private security agency that has
been issued a temporary license to operate is
good for how many years?
A. One C. Two

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 Key control- is the management of keys in a plant or  Private Security- A security guard hired by client
business organization to prevent unauthorized belonging to private security agency.
individual access to the keys.  Government Security- A security guard recruited and
 Change key - A key to single lock within a master keyed employed by the government
system.
 Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all the locks
within a particular area or grouping in a given facility.
 Master Key - A special key capable of opening a series 179. What type of controlled area requires
of locks. highest degree of security?
 Grand Master Key - A key that will open everything A. Limited C. Restricted
B. Special D. Exclusive
involving two or more master key groups.

171. PADPAO stands for:

 Restricted Area - It refers to an area in which
A. Philippine Association of Detective and personnel or vehicles are controlled for reasons of
Protective Agency Operators, Inc. security.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective  Limited Area - It is a restricted area in which lesser
Agency Operators, Inc. degree of control is required than in an exclusion area
C. Philippine Association of Detective and but which the security interest would be compromised
Protector Agency Operators, Inc. by uncontrolled movement.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and
Protective Associations Operators, Inc. 180. File room is a cubicle in a building
constructed a little lighter than a vault but
172. It refers to a protection against any type of bigger size. One of the specifications of file
crime to safeguard life and assets by various room should be ___feet high.
methods and device. A. 12 C. 36
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter B. 24 D. 48
Security
B. Operational Security D. Security Specifications of File Room

173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a  Should be 12 feet high
security officer.  Interior cubage should not be more than 10,000
cubic feet
A. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training  Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour
Course.
181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet long
B. Holder of Masters Degree.
and 3 feet diameter.
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
D. Physically or mentally fit.
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet

182. What type of security lighting is focused to

174. These provides access within the perimeter
the intruder while the guard remains in the
barrier and should be locked and guarded.
comparative darkness?
A. Gates and Doors A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Side-Walk Elevator B. Emergency lighting D. Glare-
C. Utilities Opening projection
D. Clear Zones  Controlled Lighting Type- The lighting is focused on
175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant the pile of items, rather than the back ground.
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of
183. What is the system of natural or man-
security, with the corresponding
made barriers placed between the potential
recommendation is:
intruder and the object, person and matter
A. security inspection C. security
being protected?
education
B. security training D. security survey A. Communication security
B. Document security
176. What unit of PNP handles the processing
and issuances of license for private security
C. Physical security
personnel? D. Barrier
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED
184. The following are the purposes of Security
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
Survey, EXCEPT:
A. To ascertain the present economic
177. What is the most common type of human
status
hazard?
B. To determine the protection needed
A. Sabotage C. Pilferage
C. To make recommendations to improve the
B. Theft D. Subversion
overall security
D. None of these
178. What is the security force maintained and
operated by any private company/ corporation
185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License
for its own security requirements?
Certificate document which is issued by
A. GSU C. CSF
____________ authorizing a person to engage in
B. PSA D. PD
employing security guard or detective, or a
Types of Security Guard

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juridical person to establish, engage, direct, 191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after
manage or operate a private detective agency. his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his
A. Secretary of DILG Firearm?
B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
D. President company’s Vault.
B. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
fence is that the distances between strands will D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the
not exceed _______and at least one wire will be guards table.
interlock vertical and midway between posts.
A. 3 inches C. 6 192. Any physical structure whether natural or
inches man-made capable of restricting, deterring or
B. 4 inches D. 7 inches delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier
between the perimeter barrier and structure
within the protected areas. 193. A company owned protective alarm with
A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or unit in a nearest police station of fire
more department.
B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary
or more Alarm
B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier
and exterior structure. (Outside) 194. It is Lighting equipment which produced
diffused light rather than direction beam. They
188. Which among the following statements is are widely used in parking areas
FALSE? A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights
A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that
intruders can be seen, identified or apprehend. 195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for guards to cease to operate, and with ____ days after
identify employees during night time. having been duly notified of such cease
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological fear, which operation order, shall immediately deposit all its
serves as a deterrent. firearms with the FEO.
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the number of A. 7 days C. 21 days
stationary guards. B. 3 days D. 30 days

189. The highest rank in security agency 196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the
organizational structure: sudden rise in temperature will not cause the
safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000
0
A. Security Executive Director F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening
B. Chief Security Director then it has passed the test.
C. Security Staff Director
A. Fire Endurance Test
D. Security Staff Director
B. Fire and Impact Test
Security Management Staf C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard Test
 Security Director (SD)-Agency Manager/Chief Security
officer- responsible for the entire operation and Test for Fire Resistance
administration/management of the security agency
 Security Executive Director (SED) - Assistant agency
 Fire Endurance Test- A safe should not have any
one time a temperature 350 0F.
manager/Assistant chief security officer- automatically
the security executive director, assists the agency
 Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is to determine
the strength of a safe to resist the collapse of a
security director and takes operational and
building during fire.
administrative management when the manager is
absent. 197. Services of any security personnel shall be
 Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff director for terminated on the following grounds:
operation and administration- He is also responsible
for the conduct of investigation and training. 1. Expiration of contract;
2. Revocation of license to exercise profession;
190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
3. Conviction of crime involving moral turpitude;
resistance container usually a part of the
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and
building structure use to keep, and protect cash,
5. Physical and mental disability.
documents and valuables materials.
A. Vault C. Safe
B. File Room D. None of A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
these B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

198. For every security guard the basic load of

their Firearm is-

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A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds 204. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon

B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited reaching the end of the line beat, and before
returning to the point of origin.
 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation
Report
199. The following are the specifications of a B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
Vault:
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
thick;
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size; 205. The ideal police response time is:
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
steel; and B. 7 minutes D. 10
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches. minutes

A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III 206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition

B. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, possessing a high potential for criminal attack
IV or for the creation of problem necessitating a
demand for immediate police service:
200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any A. Hazard C. Opportunity
activities to test its validity. B. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard
A. Practice C. Dry run
B. Rehearsal D. Trial  Hazard – it refers to any person, place, thing,
situation, or condition which, if allowed to exist may
201. A fixed point or location to which an officer induce an accident or cause the commission of a crime.
is assigned for duty:
A. Post C. Beat 207. The most expensive patrol method and
B. Area D. Route gives the greatest opportunity to develop
sources of information is:
 Route - the length of street or streets, designated A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
for patrol purposes also referred to as line beat. B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
 Beat - an area designed for patrol purposes,
whether foot or motorized. 208. Walking closed to the building at night is a
 Sector - an area containing two or more beats, tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less
routes or posts. visible during the night. The primary purpose is:
 District - a geographical subdivision of a city for
patrol purposes, usually with its own station. A. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a
 Area - A section or territorial division of a large city. crime
B. To have sufficient cover
202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or C. To attract less attention
distracter to in order to catch criminals is known D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
as:
A. High visibility patrol 209. The following are included in the cause and
C. Target Oriented patrol effect of team policing.
B. Low visibility patrol
D. Decoy patrol a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
 Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is designed to increase c. Facilitate career development;
the number of apprehension of law violator to engage d. Diminish police morale; and
in certain types of crimes e. Improve police community relation.
 High Visibility – Marked police Car and Poilce inj
Uniform. Primary objective is Crime Prevention. A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
 Target Oriented Patrol - It is patrol strategy which
is directed towards specific persons or places. 210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional
patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol
203. Barangay Tanod is included in what officers perform specific predetermined
component of Integrated Patrol System? preventive functions on a planned systematic
basis:
A. Fixed Component
B. Auxiliary Component A. Target Oriented Patrol
C. Secondary Component B. High-Visibility Patrol
D. Patrol Component C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
 Fixed Components - include the different police
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s
station headquarters, PCP, police visibility points,
area can be best penetrated by the police
and traffic post. through.
 Patrol Components - include the air patrols; the A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
line beat patrols, mobile patrols and detective B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter
repressive patrols. patrol
 Auxiliary Components - include the security guards
deployed in area, the traffic enforcer, barangay 212. Integrated patrol system is the total
tanods, volunteers and NGO’s. system used to accomplish the police visibility

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program of the PNP. The Police officers in Police Inspect the members of the patrol on the
Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with completeness;
prescribed divisions of: Render hourly report of location and
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts situation; and
B. 3 shifts D. every other Resolve conflicts/differences between
day shift. neighbours.

213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV
totally prevent the desire of human being to B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
commit crime.
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired
A. Preventive C. Proactive
upon, except when its occupants pose imminent
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
danger of causing death or injury to the police
 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol personnel in officer or any other person, and that the use of
their respective Area of Responsibility with definite firearm does not create a danger to the public
and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use.
objectives.
In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in patrolling wherein
parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
officers and units drive around their area of
responsibility waiting for something to happen or A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
waiting for a call that they will respond. suspect/s with the police officer and other
persons.
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
of ________________ since they can be operated
harm in certainty the police officer or other
very quietly and without attracting attention.
persons
A. Mobility and wide area coverage. C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
the police officer or other p
B. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing
C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
D. Mobility and stealth

215. What is the most excellent method of 221. When Patrol officer visually observe a
Patrol in San Juanico Bridge? weapon during pat-down search, a more secure
A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol search position may be:
B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
A. Standing position
216. When was the first automobile patrol B. Lying Face down Position
initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief of C. Hands placed against a stationary object,
the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police and feet spread apart.
Department was Isaias Alma Jose? D. All of these
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917 222. All except one are the types of specialized patrol
method:
217. As a Patrol officer, when checking A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
suspicious persons, places, buildings/ B. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol
establishments and vehicles especially during
night-time, be prepared to use your service 223. A uniformed patrol officers work in
firearm and Flashlight should be- generally judged by his-

A.Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a i. Knowledge of all problems in the community
possible target. ii. Residents developed good public relations
B.Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a iii. Ability
possible target. iv. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
adversary. 224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful
D.None of these assemblies?
A. True C. False
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No

225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is

218. What is your priority as a Patrol officer needed in the police department?
when responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals C. Securing A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds
the area B. 30 – 300 MHz
B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money C. Above 30 MHz
D. NONE
219. The following are the duties of Patrol
Supervisors:  Radio waves- The radio or electromagnetic waves
Make a patrol plan; travel as fast as the speed of light at 186, 000 miles per
Designate and select the members of the second or 300, 000 kilometers per second.
patrol team/s;  30 – 300 MHz – intended for short distances
transmission.

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226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about bombs. What do you call the large dog with
patrol? drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest
smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking
A. It is the backbone of the police department purposes?
B. It is the essence of police operation A. German shepherd C.
C. It is the nucleus of the police department Bloodhounds
D. It is the single largest unit in the police B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
department that can be eliminated
 German Shepherd- the most frequently used and
227. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance, high scoring dog for police work
parades and special events.  WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and Video
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot Exploration System) – It is the system of attaching
Patrol miniature camera and transmitter to a search dog
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol which makes the dogs the eyes and ears of his
handler.
 Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when then there is
considerable foot movement such as business and 233. The best method of patrol to be done in
shopping center, family dwellings and the like. sector is:
o Line beat patrol – it is used in securing certain A. Foot C. Automobile
portion of the road. B. Bicycle D. Helicopter
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in checking
residential buildings, business establishments, 234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually
dark alley, and parking lots. computed in terms of number of:
A. Superiors to whom he reports
228. The following are patrol activities, except: B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
A. Arrest of alleged criminals C. Subordinates directly reporting to him
B. Responding to emergency calls D. Any of these
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports 235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police
officer from becoming _______ with people,
229. This type of patrol maintains better hazards, and facilities on his beat.
personal contact with the members of the A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
community ideal in gaining the trust and B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar
confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol 236. The patrol pattern to be followed after the
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?
A. Straightway C. Crisscross
 Automobile Patrol - It separates public from the B. Sector D. Zigzag
Police.
237. The two-man patrol became_________ due
230. The patrol pattern which is usually done at to increase attack of police officer by militant,
the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing dangerous section to be patrolled and many
happened in the area of responsibility of the riots demonstration in the street.
patrol officer is: A. Unnecessary C. Necessary
A. Clockwise pattern B. Voluntary D. Redundant
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern

 Clockwise Patrol Pattern - Rectangular/square size of 238. A police strategy which aims to directly
beat; done in the start of 8 hours tour of duty. involve members of the community in the
 Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern - Done by maintenance of peace and order by police
patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beat officers.
not at random but with definite target location where A. Integrated Police System
he knows his presence is necessary. C. Detective Beat System
 Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol Pattern - Hazard B. Comparative Police System
D. Community Oriented Policing
oriented patrol; Easiest to observe the movement of
System
the patrol officer.
 Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway intersection designed to
Integrated Patrol System
route traffic without interference, by means of a system
of curving ramps from one level to another, in the form  Considered as the best way of immersing
of a Four (4) leaf clover policemen in various activities of a particular area
and to demonstrate to the populace the
231. The following are the advantages of Foot
commitment of the Police to serve and protect the
Patrol. EXCEPT:
community.
A. It involves larger number of personnel
 It is response to the requirement of Police Visibility.
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area Detective Beat System - enhancing the
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
efficiency and effectiveness of the PNP’s
investigation capability
232. Dogs are of great assistance in search and
rescue as well as in smelling out drugs and

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239. Which among the following routine patrol A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct
duties, is the least likely to become completely B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
a function of automobile patrol is the checking C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
of- D. All statements are correct
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages. 248. The basic purpose of patrol is most
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs. effectively implemented by police activity
D. Illegal posting of signs and other which-
advertisement. A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol,
with less emphasis on routine.
240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker
patrolmen in areas where police hazards are aspiration to commit crime.C. Influences
serious is that, it usually- favorable individual and group attitudes in
A. Encourages laxness on the part of routine daily associations with the
Patrolman. police.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted D. Intensifies the potential offender’s
charges. expectation of apprehension.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the
patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick 249. What is the new concept, police strategy
mobilization is needed. which integrates the police and community
interests into a working relationship so as to
241. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief produce the desired organizational objectives of
in the- peacemaking?
A. Opportunity for graft. A. Preventive patrol C. Community
B. Existence of an opportunity to Relation
efectively violate the law. B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use 250. What is the appropriate patrol method that
specialized squads. is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-
and-rescue operations?
242. Team Policing is said to be originated A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
in________: B. Helicopter D. Horse
A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
B. Vienna, Austria D. London, England  Automobile – To carry an Extra equipment by the
Patrol Officers
243. They are considered as the first to utilize
dogs for patrolling: 251. If the external patting of the suspect’s
A. Egyptians C. English clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
B. Chinese D. American the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:

244. Psychology of Omniprescense A. Conduct a complete search.

means______. B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
A. Low Visibility C. High C. No further search may be made.
Visibility D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
B . Reactive D. Proactive
252. During Civil Disturbances, what may be
245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in utilized when demonstrators become unruly and
a 13th floor building. Which of the following aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their
should be the first thing to do by the Patrol secondary positions?
officer who first arrived at the scene? A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
A. Urge no to jump B. Truncheon D. Shield
B. Call nearest relative
C. Clear the area  Tear gas - may be utilized to break up formations or
D. Report immediately to Station groupings of demonstrations who continue to be
aggressive and refused to disperse despite earlier
46. What is the most realistic advantage of the efforts.
motorcycle patrol over the other patrol
253. The factors to be considered in
methods?
A. Low cost C. Visibility determining the number of patrol officers to be
deployed in an area are the following:
B. Speed D. Security
a. Size of the area;
247. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol b. Topography;
officers are different from ordinary Police c. Crime rate and;
Officer. d. Possible problems to be encountered.
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of
Police Organization. A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
determining the quality of justice to be served in
a community. 254. The patrol strategy which is best on
4th Statement- All police function had been populous areas such as markets, malls, and
vested to the patrol division. ports is:

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A. Blending patrol C. Reactive 262. Team members of the decoy may dress
patrol themselves in a manner designed to help them
B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes blend the neighborhood where they are
patrol deployed.
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely
255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching True
every intersection until reaching the point of B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
origin is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag 263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross advantage of:

256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle A. One Man Patrol Car
Patrol: B. Two Man Patrol Car
A. Can report regularly to the command center. C. Foot Patrol
B. Can operate quietly and without attracting D. Canine Patrol
attention.
C. C. It is inexpensive to operate . 264. The least desirable of all police shifts due
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol to lack of activities:
cars. A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
B. Night Shift D. None of these
257. The following are advantages of the use of
Radio in Police Work: 265. Time between the call of the Police to
arrival at the scene of an incident:
I. Simple Installation Process; A. Response Time C. Call Time
II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down; B. Duration Time D. Critical Time
III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;
 Response time - It refers to the running time of the
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission
dispatched patrol car from his position where the
of classified operational information.
assignment was received and the arrival at the scene.
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
266. The percentage of police officers assigned
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
in patrol is:
A. 20% C. 40%
258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after
B. 25% D. 50%
patrol is-
A. To integrate the police and the community  Criminal Investigation – 15%
interest into a working relationship.B. To remind  Traffic Function – 10%
the patrol on the strict observance of the PNP  Vice and Juvenile Related Functions – 10%
Operational Procedures.
 Administrative Function – 10%
C. To assess its conduct and make
 Auxilliary Functions – 5%
necessary corrective measures on defects
noted. 267. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting
D. All of the Above of armed and dangerous person or persons,
aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the power
259. The members of the Patrol teams shall to use all necessary and legal means to
form and assemble at the police unit accomplish such end.
headquarters at least _______ before the start of
their shift for accounting- A. Dragnet Operation
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour B. Hasty Checkpoint
B. 30 minutes D. 15 C. High-Risk Arrest
minutes D. High Risk Stop
 Dragnet Operation - is a police operation
purposely to seal-off the probable exit points of
fleeing suspects from the crime scene to prevent
260. The police must make an effort to ascertain their escape.
and amaze upon the law abiding citizens and  High Risk Arrest - is the actual restraint of armed
would be criminals alike that the police are persons following a high-risk stop.
always existing to respond to any situation at a  Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate response to
moment’s notice and he will just around the block the escape of lawless elements from a crime
corner at all times. This statement refers to: scene, and is also established when nearby
checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit
A. Police Omnipresence operations.
B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion 268. Which among the following activities
during post-patrol or post-deployment phase is
D. Integrated Patrol
not included?
261. A patrol beat refers to a:
A. Formation & Accounting
A. Number of crimes to be solved B. Inspection & recall of Equipment
B. Location of police headquarters C. Debriefing/Report Submission
C. Number of residence to be protected D. Briefing
D. Geographical area to be protected

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269. It refers to a computer that is installed

inside a patrol car which allows patrol officer to 276. Which among the following Patrol Method
have an access from the Headquarters files and is appropriate when responding to quick
other Law Enforcement Agencies which are used emergency call?
in order to expedite their operation. A. Motorcycle Patrol C.
Automobile Patrol
A. Mobile Data Terminal B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan 277. The following are the advantages of
D. CCTV Regular post.

I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly familiar with

 Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a Video Camera
the various post conditions;
which is attached and installed in a patrol car with a
II. Patrol officer takes more pride and interest in
high-resolution and wide angle lens.
improving the conditions on his post resulting in
 High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan – It refers to
better public relations and cooperation from
a heavy duty light that can provide two (2) million
the residents;
candle power of light.
III. Favoritism will be lessened because of
270. The first organized patrol for policing transitory assignments; and
purposes was formed in London. This patrol IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced, since a
pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty steady post is an indication of public acceptance
to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of his work.
of responsibility of the patrol?
A. Straight C. Crisscross A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV
B. Clockwise D. Counter B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV
clockwise
278. Detective Beat System is one of the
271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing the
outer garments of an individual for weapons field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief
only. who introduces this DBS?
A. Frisking C. Search A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down Pena
Search B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene
Sarmiento
 Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief stopping of an
individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on  Dir. Almajose – First Chief of Mobile Patrol in
reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose Manila.
of determining the individual’s identity and resolving
the officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity. 279. The type of Patrol which requires special
skills and training:
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within the A. TV C. Air
perimeter of the beat not at random but with B. Automobile D. Foot
definite target location where he knows his
presence is necessary. 280. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag was initiated on:
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7,
1901
273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17,
following are the advantages of Foot patrol, 1901
EXCEPT:
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for
action taken. 281. In police communication, 10-74 means:
B. It enables patrol officers to cover a A. Negative C. Need
considerable area Assistance
C. Inspire more Public confidence. B. Caution D. Unable to copy
D. The officer can actually get to know the
physical layout of his beat better. Some APCO TEN SIGNALS

274. The word Patrol was derived from the  10 – 0 Caution

French word ________which means to go through  10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
paddles.  10 – 50 Accident
A. Patroulier C. Patroul  10 – 70 Fire Alarm
B. Politeia D. Politia  10 – 78 Need Assistance
 10 – 90 Bank Alarm
275. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. No one should have more than one 282. This patrol tactic would result to
boss. improvement of police omnipresence:
B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can A. Target Oriented Patrol
effectively supervise. B. High-Visibility Patrol
D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and C. Low-Visibility Patrol
responsibilities to subordinates. D. Directed deterrent Patrol

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283. Police Community Precincts are 290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a
mandatorily led by an officer with the rank of crime incident faster but undetected, then the
_______ with a minimum of 30 personnel best patrol method that he should employ is:
including the commander divided into 3 shifts. A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile
patrol
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt.
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt. 291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the
D. C/Insp. To Supt. act of a person that enables another to victimize
him:
284. The smelling sense of dog is up to how A. Instrumentality C.
many times more sensitive than human’s Opportunity
sense of smell? B. Motive D. Capability
A. One thousand times C. One hundred
times  Motive - It is the basis why the people will commit
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten crime or it is what induces the people to act.
million times  Instrumentality - it is the means used in executing the
crime
285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to
another through common medium and channel. 292. The factors to be considered in
A. Information C. determining the number of patrol officers to be
Communication deployed in an area are the following, except:
B. Police Communication D. Radio A. Size of the area
B. Topography
286. Refers to a location where the search, C. Possible problems to be encountered
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is D. Neither of them
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate 293. The patrol strategy which brings the police
purposes. and the people together in a cooperative
A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place manner in order to prevent crime:
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
Area B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol

 Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit) - (also 294. The theory in patrol which states that
termed in the US as fresh pursuit) immediate, recent police officers should conduct overt police
chase or follow-up without material interval for the operations in order to discourage people from
purpose of taking into custody any person wanted by committing crime refers to:
virtue of a warrant, or one suspected to have A. Theory of police omnipresence
committed a recent offense while fleeing from one B. Low police visibility theory
police jurisdictional boundary. C. Low profile theory
 Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or projected D. Maximum deterrence theory
spot where the armed and dangerous person or
persons would pass or likely to pass and so tactically 295. The principle of patrol force organization
located as to gain calculated advantage against said which states that patrol officers should be under
person or persons. the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
287. The advisable cruising speed in automobile B. Unity of command
patrol ranges from: C. Chain of command
A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph D. Command responsibility
B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph

288. It is the primary objective of police patrol Organization Principles

operations:
 Span of Control - refers to the number of officers
A. Crime Prevention or subordinates that a Superior supervises without
B. Preservation of Peace and Order regard to the effectiveness or efficiency of the
C. Law enforcement supervision.
D. All of these  Delegation of Authority - is the assignment of
tasks, duties, and responsibilities to subordinates
 Preservation of peace and order - It is the while at the same time giving them the power or
fundamental obligation of the Police and it is the right to control, command, make decisions, or
most important function performed by the patrol otherwise act in performing the delegated
service responsibilities.
 Chain of Command - the arrangement of officers
289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a
from top to bottom on the basis of rank or position
patrol strategy called:
A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol and authority
B. Preventive Patrol D.  Command Responsibility - dictates that immediate
Proactive Patrol commanders shall be responsible for the effective
supervision and control of their personnel and unit.

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296. The elimination of the opportunity of  Espionage Agent- Agent who clandestinely procure
people to commit crime as a result of patrol. or collect information.
A. Crime prevention  Propagandist- Agents who molds the attitudes,
B. Crime intervention opinions, and actions of an individual group or
C. Crime suppression nation.
D.Crime deterrence  Saboteur- Agents who undertakes positive actions
against an unfriendly power, resulting in the loss of
297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate use temporarily or permanently of an article or
when mobility is needed in small alleys? others.
 Strong Arm- Agent who is made to provide special
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV protection during dangerous phase of clandestine
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol operations.
 Provocateur- Agent who induces an opponent to act
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area to his own detriment

298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the 304. It is a type of Cover which alters the
primary objective of patrol activity is: background that will correspond to the
A. To prevent commission of crime. operation.
B. Integrate the police and the A. Multiple C. Natural
community B. Artificial D. Unusual
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.  Multiple- Includes different cover
 Natural- Actual or True Background.
299. The following are benevolent services
performed by the Patrol officers: 305. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
II. Rendering first aid for accident victims; i. Intelligence Officer can submit his information report
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and any time since it is to processes.
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims; ii. All intelligence information’s are collected by
clandestine method.
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV size police station.
iv. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence
300. All but one are the dogs best suited for information by initiating good public relations.
police work except:
A. Askals C. Chihuahua 306. Wire tapping operations in our country is
B. Rottweiler D. All of these strictly prohibited but it can be done at the
commander’s discretion since it tends to
301. What law provides for the creation of the collect intelligence information.
National Intelligence Coordinating Agency? A. Partly True C. Partly False
A. EO 389 C. EO 1012 B. Wholly True D. Wholly False
B. EO 1040 D. EO 246
307. If information comes with a low reliability
 EO 389- ordered that the Philippine Constabulary be and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
one of the four services of the Armed Forces of the discarded or refused acceptance?
Philippines, enacted on December 23, 1940 A. Maybe Yes C. Yes
 EO 1012- transferred to the city and municipal B. No D. Maybe No
government the operational supervision and direction
over all INP units assigned within their locality; issued 308. In selection and recruitment of informers
on July 10, 1985 the best factor to be considered is:
 EO 1040- transferred the administrative control and A. Age C. Access
supervision of the INP from the Ministry of National B. Educational AttainmentD. Body built
Defense to the National Police Commission
309. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
302. A person who breaks intercepted codes. Wiretapping Act” which prohibits wiretapping in
A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer our country.
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker A. RA 1700 C. RA 4200
B. RA 7610
 Cryptography- It is defined as an art and science of D. CA 616
codes and ciphers.
 Cryptographer- It refers to a person who is highly  RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act
skilled in converting message from clear to  CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and other
unintelligible forms by use of codes and cipher. Offenses against National Security
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children Against
303. Agent who is a member of paramilitary Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act
group organized to harass the enemy in a hot
war situation. 310. Security Clearance is a certification by a
A. Guerilla C. responsible authority that the person described
Propagandist is cleared to access and classify matters at
B. Provocateur D. Strong Arm appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
valid for a period of____ from the date of
Kinds of Action Agent issuance.

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A. 1 year C. 5 years
B. 2 years D. 4 years Types of Agent used in collecting of
Information
 Final Clearance – 5 years
 Agent of Influence- Agent who uses authority to
311. How will you evaluate the intelligence gain information
report of Agent Buanko with an evaluation  Agent in Place- Agent who has been recruited
rating of D2? within a highly sensitive target
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true  Penetration Agent- Agent who have reached to the
information enemy, gather information and able to get back
B. Unreliable source – probably true without being caught.
information
 Double Agent- An enemy agent, who has been
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true
taken into custody, turned around and sent back
information
where he came from as an agent of his captors.
D. Not Usually reliable source – probably
true information
317. It is one of the Functional Classification of
Police Intelligence which refers to the
312. It is a process or method of obtaining
knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes
information from a captured enemy who is and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of
reluctant to divulge information.
criminal offenders.
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Elicitation D. Tactical
B. Public Safety Intelligence
Interrogation C. Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
 Elicitation - The process of extracting information from
a person believes to be in possession of vital  Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT) – refers to the
information without his knowledge or suspicion. knowledge essential to the maintenance of peace and
 Bugging - The use of an equipment or tool to listen and order.
record discreetly conversations of other people.  Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) – refers to the
 Wiretapping - A method of collecting information thru knowledge essential to ensure the protection of lives
interception of telephone conversation. and properties
313. The term of office of the members of the 318. Intelligence is the end product resulting
PLEB is _______ from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
A. 6 years integration, and interpretation of all available
B. 3 years information. What is considered as the core of
C. 6 years without re-appointment intelligence operations?
D. None of the above A. Dissemination C. Analysis
B. Mission D. Planning
319. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized
Military Espionage".
314. He directs the organization in conducting A. Alexander the Great
the clandestine activity. B. Frederick the Great
A. Target C. Sponsor C. Karl Schulmeister
B. Agent D. Support Agent D. Arthur Wellesley
 Target- Person, place or things against which the  Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the "Greatest
clandestine activity is to be conducted. Military Spymaster at All Time".
 Agent- It refers to a person who conducts the  Karl Schulmeister- famous as "Napoleon's Eye". He
clandestine Operations to include Principal Agents, was credited for establishing counter intelligence
Action Agents, and Support Agents. conducted against spies.
315. It refers to an associate of the subject who
 Alexander the great - He was able to identify those
follows him to detect surveillance. disloyal ones by ordering the communication
A. Convoy C. Decoy letters opened and was successful in curtailing the
B. Subjct D. decline of esprit de corps and morale of his men.
Surveillant
320. There are four categories of classified
 Decoy- A person or object used by the subject in matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and
attempt to elude Surveillant restricted. To distinguish one against the other,
 Surveillant – is the plainclothes investigator assigned their folder consists of different colors. What will
be the color of the document which requires the
to make the observation.
highest degree of protection?
 Subject – is who or what is observed. It can be a
A. Red C. Black
person, place, property, and vehicle, group of people,
B. Blue D. Green
organization or object.
 Secret (RED)
316. It is a type of Agent used in collecting
 Confidential (BLUE)
information who leaks false information to the
 Restricted (BLACK)
enemy.
A. Double Agent C. Expendable 321. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes
Agent the biblical indication of the beginning of
B. Agent of Influence D. Penetration Intelligence?
Agent

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A. Number 13:17 C. Number A. C-5 C. B-5

3:17 B. B-3 D. C-3
B. Number 17:13 D. Number
17:3 EVALUATION GUIDE FOR COLLECTED
INFORMATION
322. A certain locality is identified to be a major
source of illicit drugs, to resolve this issue
intelligence officer was deployed to live in the REMINDER: You should LEARN BY
area for a considerable amount of time to find HEART this Evaluation Guide
out the authenticity of such reports.
A. Social assignments 325. It is a form of investigation in which the
B. Work assignments operative assumes a cover in order to obtain
C. Organizational assignments information
D. Residential assignments A. Overt operation C. Undercover
assignment
 Work Assignment – getng employed where the B. Covert operation D. clandestine
investigator can observe the activities of the subject at operation
his place of work.
 Social Assignments – Frequent places of 326. What is evaluation of the intelligence
entertainment and amusement habitually being visited report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which
by the subject. is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true
 Personal Contact Assignment – the investigator information?
required to develop the friendship and trust of the A. D C. C-4
subject. B. C-5 D. D-5
 Multiple Assignment – The investigator is tasked to
327. The following must be observed during
cover two (2) or more of the above specific assignments
surveillance:
simultaneously, it can produce extensive information
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
with minimum expenses but more prone to b. Avoid contact on the subject;
compromise. c. Recognize fellow agent;
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
323. It is a type of intelligence activity which
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
deals with defending the organization against its
criminal enemies? A. a, c, d C. b, d, e
A. Line Intelligence C. Counter- B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical 328. In surveillance, the following are done to
Intelligence alter the appearance of the surveillance vehicle,
EXCEPT:
 Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is the intelligence A. Changing license plates of surveillance
information which directly contributes to the vehicle
accomplishment of specific objectives and B. Putting on and removing hats, coats
immediate in nature. and sunglasses
 Strategic Intelligence - This is intelligence C. Change of seating arrangement within the
information which is not immediate operational surveillance vehicle
but rather long range. D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.

324. What is the evaluation of an intelligence 329. A _______ is usually for the purpose of
report which is “usually from a reliable source waiting for the anticipated arrival of the suspect
and improbable information”? who is either wanted for investigation or who is
Accuracy of Information expected to commit a crime at a certain
Reliability of CODE: CPPDIT Source of the Information location.
Information A. Stake out C. Rough
CODE: CUFNUR Shadowing
B. Shadowing D. surveillance
A – Completely Reliable 1 – Confirmed By T – Direct Observation by a

Other Sources commander or Unit  Surveillance – is the covert, discreet observation

of people and places for the purpose of obtaining
B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration or information concerning the identities or activities
resident agent of subjects.
 Moving Surveillance or Shadowing or tailing –
C - Fairly Reliable 3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper or simply the act of following a person.
PNP personnel in operation  Rough Shadowing – employed without special
precautions, the subject maybe aware of the
D – Not Usually Reliable 4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a captured surveillance; employed also when the subject is a
enemy or agent material witness and must be protected from
harm or other undesirable influences.
E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable X – Observation by a

government or civilian employee 330. In the Intelligence function, the black list
or official includes ________ forces.
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
F – Reliability Cannot Be 6 – Truth Cannot Be Y – Observation by a member of B. Neutral D.
Judged Judged populace Unfriendly

Z - Documentary
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335. The end product resulting from the

331. They are responsible for foreign collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also interpretation of all available information
referred as Box 850 because of its old post regarding the activities of criminals and other
office box number. law violators for the purpose of affecting their
A. Security Service (MI-5) arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6) to commit crimes.
C. Government Communication
Headquarters A. Police Intelligence
D. Defense Intelligence Staff B. National Intelligence
C. Miltary Intelligence
UK Intelligence Agency D. Departmental Intelligence

•Security Service (MI-5 or Military  National Intelligence- integrated product of intelligence

Intelligence Section 5) – Internal Counter- developed by all government departments concerning
Intelligence and Security agency also the broad aspect of national policy and national
responsible for internal Security of United security.
Kingdom.  Department of Intelligence – the intelligence required
• Government Communications by department or agencies of the government to
Headquarters (GCHQ) - responsible for execute its mission and discharge its responsibilities.
providing signals intelligence (SIGINT) and  Military Intelligence – refers to the knowledge by the
information assurance to the UK government military institution essential in the preparation and
and armed forces. execution of military plans, policies and programs.
•Defense Intelligence Staf (DIS) - is a
collector of intelligence through its Intelligence 336. It is considered as the most secured
Collection Group (ICG) method of disseminating the information to the
user of classified matters is by means of:
332. Known as the Prussia's "King of A. Debriefing C. Conference
Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he studied B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
the use of propaganda and censorship as well as 337. It refers to the combination of all analyzed
utilizing statistical intelligence accounting. data to form a logical picture or theory.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte C. Wilhem A. Integration C. Evaluation
Steiber B. Recording D. Interpretation
B. AKBAR D. Delilah
 Recording – is the reduction of information into
 Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the right place is writing or some other form of graphical
worth 20,000 men in the field". He organized two representation and the arranging of this
Bureau of Interest. information into groups related items.
 Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise master of  Evaluation – is the determination of the
Hindustan employed more than 4,000 agents for the pertinence of the information to the operation,
sole purpose of bringing him the truth that his throne reliability of the source of or agency and the
might rest upon it. accuracy of the information.
 Delilah- A biblical personality who was able to gain
information by using her beauty and charm.  Analysis- This is the stage in which the collected
information is subjected to review in order to
333. If the information or documents are satisfy significant facts and derive conclusion there
procured openly without regard as to whether from.
the subject of the investigation becomes  Interpretation- Process of determining the
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for significance of new information in the possible
which it is being regarded.
alternatives.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
338. It refers to the person who conducts the
 Covert Operation – Information are procured clandestine Operation.
A. Agent C. Support Agent
clandestinely
B. Action Agent D. Principal
334. Investigation of the records and files of Agent
agencies in the area and residence of the
individual being investigated.
 Principal Agent- Leader or management Agent in
A. CBI C. NAC clandestine operation usually undertaken by the
B. PBI D. LAC case officer.
 Support Agent- Agent who is engaged in activities
 National Agency Check- It consists of LAC which supports the clandestine operations and or
supplemented by investigation of the records and files the action agent in his operations
of the following agencies: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau
of Immigration and Deportation and other agency. 339. It is claimed that 99% of information is
 Background Investigation – a check made on an obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of
information is obtained from clandestine
individual usually seeking employment through
sources. Clandestine means.
subjects records in the police files, educational
A. Observable C. Overt
institutions, place of residence, and former employers.
B. Visible
 Complete Background Investigation- it is a type of BI D. Covert
which is more comprehensive, that consist of detailed 340. An E-3 intelligence report means:
information regarding the subject.

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A. The information comes from 350. What specialist group of CIA that was
completely reliable sources and Improbable established to research, create and manage
true. technical collection discipline and equipment.
B. The information comes from A. National Clandestine Service
Unreliable sources and probably true. B. Directorate of Intelligence .
C. The information comes from Fairly C. Directorate of Support
Reliable sources and doubtfully true. D. Directorate of Science and
D. The information comes from Technology
Unreliable sources and possibly true.
341. The following are methods of Surveillance  National clandestine Service (Formerly known as
Detection, EXCEPT: Directorate of Operations)- responsible for
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace collecting intelligence mainly from clandestine
B. Convoy and Watching Procession sources and covert action.
C. Entering Crowded buildings and  Directorate of Intelligence (DI)- Responsible for
concealment to movement providing timely and accurate all source of
D. Retracting the cause and Window intelligence analysis.
Shopping  Directorate of Support- Provides everything that the
343. The process of assigning higher category of CIA needs to accomplish its mission.
document or information according to the
degree of security needed. 351. The persons listed in________ are allowed to
A. Reclassify enter a certain establishment or building.
C. Classify A. Access list C. Black
B. Upgrading List
D. Declassify B. Blue Print D. Silver
list
 Classify – Assigning of Information or material to
one of the four security classification after 352. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or
determining that such information requires damage of equipment, a public service, as by
security as prescribed by PNP regulation 200-012. enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
 Reclassify – The act of changing the assigned A. Subversion C. Sabotage
classification of a document or material. B. Espionage D. None of
 Declassify – The removal of the security these
classification from classified document or material.
 Compartmentation – The granting of access to  Subversion - acts designed to destabilize or
classified document or information only to overthrow the authority of a ruling power.
properly cleared persons when such classified
information is required in the performance of their  Espionage - the secret collection of information, or
official duties, and restricting it to specific physical intelligence, that the source of such information
confines when feasible. wishes to protect from disclosure.

353. In order to secure the intelligence the

345. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is surveillance Operation center, the stationary
to determine if the information is true and- surveillance must _________ before leaving.
A. Reliable C. A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
Accurate B. Conduct Debriefing
B. Correct D. Probably true C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
347. It refers to a place, building or enclosed
area where police undercover men meet for 354. It deals with the demographic and
debriefing or reporting purposes. psychological aspects of groups of people.
A. Safe house C. Log A. Sociological Intelligence
B. Live Drop D. Decoy B. Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
 Log – chronological records of activities that took D. Political Intelligence
place in the establishment under surveillance.
 Live Drop- Refers to a place where agents or informants  Political Intelligence – deals with Domestic and
leave their messages to the other Agents. Foreign affairs and relation of government operations

348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or  Economic Intelligence – deals with the extent and
LAC, which includes some or all of the utilization of Natural and Human resources to the
circumstances. industrial potential of the Nations
A. National Agency Check  Biographical Intelligence – deals with individual
B. Background Investigation personalities who have actual possession of power
C. Complete Background Investigation  Geographical Intelligence – deals with the natural as
D. Personnel Security Investigation well as manmade features of the physical environment
of man considered from the point in view of military
349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is operations
encouraged. The statement is –  Scientific Intelligence – deals with the progress of
A. Yes C. NO the research and development as it affects the
B. Absolutely Correct D. False economic and military potential of a nation.

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355. Which among the following principles of 361. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the
intelligence deemed to be the most important? street of Rome to gather first hand information,
A. Intelligence requires continuous security he is considered as the greatest military
measures strategist.
B. Intelligence and operation are interdependent A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal
C. Intelligence must be available on time B. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
D. Intelligence must be flexible
362. If information comes with a low reliability
356. It is the careful inspection of a place to and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
determine its suitability for a particular discarded or refused acceptance?
operational purpose. A. Yes C. True
A. Casing C. Loose B. No D. False
Tail
B. Close Tail D. Stakeout

 Loose tail – employed where a general

impression of the subject’s habits and associates 363. It is one of the Functional Classification of
is required. Police Intelligence which refers to the
 Close tail – extreme precautions are taken against knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes
losing the subject is employed where constant and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of
surveillance is necessary. criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means B. Criminal Intelligence
that – C. Public Safety Intelligence
A. Termination of Surveillance D. Preventive Intelligence
B. Actual Surveillance
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject 364. If the information or documents are
D. On target Requirements and Instruction procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
358. It refers to the most dangerous type of knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
informant. which it is being regarded.
A. Women C. Double A. Overt Operation C.
Crosser Clandestine
B. False D. Anonymous B. Surveillance D. Covert Operation

 Anonymous-Unidentified or unknown 365. Which of the following is the most common

informants reason why an informer gives information to the
 False Informant- reveals information of police?
no consequences, value or stuff A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
connected within thin air. B. Revenge D. As a good citizen
 Frightened Informants- weakest link in
criminal chain, motivated by anxiety. 366. A method of collecting information thru
 Self-Aggrandizing- moves around the interception of telephone conversation.
center of criminals delight in surprising A. Bugging C. Wire
the police about bits of information. Tapping
 Mercenary- Information for sale needed B. Code name D. NONE
something for exchange of information.
 Double-Crosser- He wants to get more 367. Is the condition, situation, and
information from the police more than he circumstance the enemy’s’ area of
gives. consideration that render the criminal groups
 Legitimate- operators of business susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by
desire to give information for legitimate the police organization.
reasons. A. Conclusion C. Capabilities
B. Vulnerabilities D.
359. It is the transforming of coded message Evaluation
into plain text.
A. Coding C. Encrypting 368. It is the general statement describing the
B. Decoding D. Reclassify current police internal defense, internal
development, psychological operation and
 Coding-It is the changing of message from plain responsibilities of the organization
clear text to unintelligible form also known as A. Area of operation
“Encrypting”. B. Capabilities of organized crime
C. the crime situation
360. After the planning on how intelligence is to D. the mission
be collected, the intelligence officer must have
thorough knowledge of the __________. 369. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted
A. The strength of the area where the information concerning organized crime and
information will be gathered other major police problems.
B. Where they will be collecting the information A. Military Intelligence C. Military
C. Available sources of information Information
D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of B. Police Intelligence D. Police
intelligence Investigation

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370. The term appropriate for someone who B. President D.

gives information in exchange for a reward is: Director-General
A. Informer C. Informant
B. Special informer D. Confidential 383. Integrated product of intelligence
Informant developed by all government departments
concerning the broad aspect of national policy
 Informants- Any person who hand over information and national Security.
to the agents which is relevant to the subject. The A. National Intelligence
informant may openly give the information B. Departmental Intelligence
clandestinely and choose to remain anonymous. C. International Intelligence
D. Social Intelligence
371 Developing security consciousness among
policemen forms part of enhancing _______. 384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means:
A. Line intelligence C. strategic A. Actual Surveillance
intelligence B. Collation of Report and Analysis of
B. counter intelligence D. artificial Significant Observation
intelligence C. Preparation of reports and its submission
D. Observe time

372. It is a type of Support Agent who obtains 385. Factors to be considered in choosing a
money when needed for operational use. “Safe House” EXCEPT:
A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe house A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability
Keeper B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and
B. Communication Agent D. Surveillant location of Police Outpost
C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and
 Surveillant- Agent who observes persons and places of Escape Routes
operations of interest. D. Operational Technical Requirements
 Safe house Keeper- Agents who manages and
maintains a safe house for clandestine operations like
meetings, safe heavens, training, briefing, and 386. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
debriefing. A. Classified information must not be discussed with
 Communication Agent- Agent who is detailed as friends and members of the family.
securing of clandestine communications. B. Classified information should be known only by
one person.
373. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable C. Cabinets with classified documents must be secured
and Possibly true? with padlocks and security measures at all times.
A. C-2 C. E-2 D. All classified documents must be safeguarded.
B. E-3 D. C-3
387. It refers to the person who conducts the
374. Phase of intelligence covering the activity surveillance.
devoted in destroying the effectiveness of A. Surveillant C.
hostile foreign activities and the protection of Subject
information against espionage, subversion and B. Interrogator D. Interviewee
sabotage.
A. Passive Intelligence  Interrogator- person who conduct Interrogation
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Line Intelligence 388. The following are objectives of Casing
D. Demographic Intelligence EXCEPT:
A. Security of an Agent
379 All except one are interrelated to one B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation of
another. Search
A. Fixed Surveillance C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
B. Stakeout Surveillance D. Verification
C. Stationary Surveillance
D. Active Surveillance 389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is
to determine if the information is true and-
380. The agent will gain access to the subject A. Reliable C.
by going to the different hang out places of the Correct
subject. B. Probably true D. Accurate
A. Social Assignment
B. Residential Assignment 390. It refers to those measures, which seek
C. Work Assignment actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain
D. None of these information or engage in espionage, subversion,
and sabotage.
381. A person who informs solely for the A. Counter Intelligence
pecuniary or other material gain he is to B. Passive Counter Intelligence
receive. C. Active Counter Intelligence
A. Gratitude C. Repentance D. Intelligence
B. Remuneration D. Vanity
 Passive CI Measures – protection of classified and
382. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency sensitive information to the unauthorized through
is led by a- secrecy, communication security, and other various
A. Director C. General safeguards.

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391. All EXCEPT one should be considered in A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa I.
conducting stationary surveillance. Mitra
A. Preparation B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
B. Financial Requirement D. None of these
C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and Security
D. Coverage of Operation  SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non-
Commissioned officer in a UN integral Mission
392. Undercover operation is also known as;  P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First Commissioned officer in
A. Roping C. Bait UN Integral Mission
B. Clandestine D. Loose
403. New York Police Department (NYPD) have
393. It is defined as an art and science of codes limited jurisdiction on _______:
and ciphers. A. USA C. New York
A. Cryptography C. B. None of these D. Los
Cryptanalysis Angeles
B. Decipher D. Coding
405. In the etymology of the word police the
394. The protection resulting from the ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person
application of various measures which prevent who_____?
or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy
gaining information through communication. B. Guarding a City D.
A. Communication Security Citizenship
B. Physical Security
C. Document Security 406. During the middle ages, there were two
D. Internal Security guard officer of the kingdom of France with
police responsibilities those are the Marshal of
397. It is a certification by a responsible France and ________:
authority that the person described is cleared to A. Constable of France C. Queens Royal
access and classify matters at appropriate Guard
levels. B. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
A. Security Clearance
B. Document Clearance 408. The typical number of Detectives roughly
C. Interim Clearance ________ of police service personnel:
D. Nome of these A. 75% C. 5 to 10%
B. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10%
398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or
eminent threat to the life, limb, or right of the 409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over
person claiming self-defense. federal crimes or those with an interstate
A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful components. The statement is:
Aggression A. Correct C. Partially
B. Just Cause D. None of these Correct
B. False D. partly False
399. The police officer may stop an individual
for the purpose of conducting a spot 410. This pertains to all those forms of policing
check/accosting only when- that, in some sense transgress national borders:
A. Probable Cause Exist A. International Policing
B . Notion to commit crime B. Global Policing
C. Rational Grounds C. National Policing
D. Reasonable Suspicion D. Transnational Policing

399. X evaluates the information as usually 411. In US, he introduced police reforms to
reliable and probably true. include educational requirement for police
A. C-4 C. B-3 officer:
B. B-2 D. C-5 A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir Robert
Peel
400. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency B. August Volmer D. O.W.
of _____________. Wilson
A. Russia C. Philippines
B. Israel D. Pakistan  Robert Peel – Father of Modern policing System
 O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing corruption
 Russia - Federal Security Service of Russian Federation and introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas
 Philippines- National Intelligence Coordinating Agency and Chicago Police Department
 Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence
412. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
A. Law and Order
401. Law enforcement in China was carried out B. Knowledge is Safety
by _______ which developed in both chu and jin C. Serve and Protect
kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period. D. We serve with pride and Care
A. Watch man C. Prefect
B. Gendemarie D. Constabulary 413. Where do you can find the so called Police
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization
402. First Female Filipino commissioned officer for police officer whose are changed of
in a UN integral mission. committing any form of misconduct:

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A. Northern Ireland C. England 425. The police rank in Japan that is called
B. China D. Japan Keishi:
A. Policeman C. Chief
414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank Superintendent
structured of police force is identical up to the B. Superintendent D. Senior
rank of? Superintendent
A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector
B. Chief Superintendent D. Inspector 426. It is the counterpart of Police Community
Precinct in Japan:
415. In USA, what state are among the first to A. Keishi C. Koban
hire women and minorities as police officer. B. Omerta D. Keiban
A. Massachusetts C. California
B. New York D. 427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it
Washington is the highest position in Japan Police
Organization:
416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the A. Commissioner Secretariat
comparable rank to inspector or sub-lieutenant? B. Commissioner
A. Police Rank 4 C. Chairman
B. Police Supervisor Rank 4 D. Commissioner General
C. Police Officer Rank 1
D. Police Supervisor Rank 1 428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed
by a Commissioner General who is appointed
417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is by:
the lowest possible rank of its police personnel? A. Japans Emperor
A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer Rank B. Prime Minister
1 C. National Public Safety Commission
B. Investigator 1 D. Constable D. Japan Commission

418. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau 429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s A. Junsa C. Constable
Finest” police force and in having, set up the B. Sergeant D. Police
foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong Officer
and has won a good reputation as one of the 430. Irish Police are called:
safety cities in the world. A. Militsiya C.
A. Philippine National Police Constable
B. Hong Kong Police Force B. Police Force D. Garda Socha
C. Japan Police Department
D. National Police Agency 431. The following are the language of
communication used by the Gen. Secretariat:
419. It is the highest possible rank in Australia a. French;
Police Force: b. Mandarin;
A. Commissioner General C. Director c. English;
General d. Arabic; and
B. Commissioner D. Director e. Spanish.

 Director General – Philippine National Police A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e

 Director – BJMP and BFP B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
 Commissioner General - highest position in Japan
Police Organization 432. It States that the yardstick of police
proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
420. The code of secrecy of Mafia: A. Home rule C. Continental
A. Omerta C. Morse B. Old police service D. Modern police
B. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra service

421. INTERPOL stands for: 433. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald K.
A. International Police Noble
B. International Organization of Police B. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen
C. International criminal Organization Scotland
D. International Criminal Police Organization
Johann Schober - The first president of the
422. The supreme governing body of the Interpol
INTERPOL is the:
A. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly 435. Group of highly specialized armed men
B. National Assembly D. General who inflict fear and uses violence to accomplish
Assembly their objectives with a usual international scope
of activity.
423. The general Secretariat office of the A. Organized Crime
INTERPOL is run by the: B. Transnational Crime
A. Director General C. Supervisor C. Transnational Organized crime
B. Inspector General D. Secretary D. Terrorist
General

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 Organized Crime - Group activities of three or  Website – a portolio of a person / organization /

more persons, with hierarchical links or personal entity / company which is posted on the Internet
relationships, which permits their leaders to earn for accessibility worldwide.
profits or control territories or markets, internal or
foreign, by means of violence, intimidation or 440. It is the act of illegally accessing the
corruption, both in furtherance of criminal activity computer system or network of an individual,
and to infiltrate the legitimate economy. group or business enterprise without the
 Transnational Crime - a continuing illegal activity of consent of the party’s system:
group of person which is primarily concerned with A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking
B. Cracking D. Theft
the generation of profits, irrespective of national
boundaries as a result of globalization.  Hacking - is the act of illegally accessing the
 Transnational Organized crime - is a crime computer system/network of an individual, group
perpetuated by organized criminal group which the or business enterprise without the consent or
aim of commitng one or more serious crimes or approval of the owner of the system.
offenses in order to obtain directly or indirectly, a  Cracking - is a higher form of hacking in which the
financial or other material benefits committed unauthorized access culminates with the process of
through crossing of borders or jurisdictions defeating the security system for the purpose of
acquiring money or information and/or availing of
436 Is the terrorist group which was founded by
free services
Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad 441. It refers to a Code written with the
B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra intention of replicating itself.
A. Trojan Horse
 Mafia – is a term used to describe a number of
C. Worm
criminal organizations around the world. B. Logic Bomb
 Jihad - refers to the holy war by members of the D. Computer Virus
Islamic religion against the Jews
 Worm spread itself to other computers without
438. It is the category of terrorist organization needing to be transferred as part of a host.
which is aimed in achieving political autonomy  Trojan horse - is a file that appears harmless until
or religious freedom.
executed. Trojan horses do not insert their code
A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
into other computer files
B. Ethnocentric D. Political
 Logic bomb - a set of instructions secretly inserted
 Ethnocentric - is the category of terrorist into a program that is designed to execute if a
organization which is aimed at establishing a particular program is satisfied.
dominant or superior race that will be looked upon
by the entire populace in the world. 442. It is a center created by Executive Order
 Revolutionary - is the category of terrorist group No. 62 to establish a shared database among
concerned agencies for information on
which is dedicated to overthrow an established
criminals, methodologies, arrests and
order and replacing it with a new political or social
convictions on transnational crime
structure.
 Political - is the category of terrorist group which A. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
aims in restructuring the society. B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
 Nationalistic - those who commit acts of violence C. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
due to their loyalty or devotion to their country. D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
439. It is the anchor of the investigation of all 443. An order strengthening the operational,
crimes committed via the internet: administrative and information support system
A. Dynamic IP Address of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall
B. Internet Protocol Address exercise general supervision and control over
C. Static IP Address NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
A. EO 100 C. EO 465
D. Website B. EO 465 D. EO 789
 ISP – stands for Internet Service Provider. It 444. Considered as the major concerns of the
provides internet service to internet users. PCTC, EXCEPT:
 IP Address – series of numbers assigned by an
Internet Service Provider to an internet user when A. Information Exchange
it connects to the Internet B. Strategic studies and capacity building
 Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP Address that C. Law enforcement coordination
changes every time the internet user accesses his D. none of these
Internet Service Provider. It is usually assigned to
dial-up or base speed broadband service 445. A decree codifying the law on
subscribers Illegal/unlawful Possession, manufacture,
 Static IP Address – a type of IP Address that is Dealing in, acquisition or disposition of firearms,
constant regardless of the time or number of ammunitions or explosions
attempts the internet user accesses the internet. It A. RA 9165 C. RA
is usually assigned to High-Speed Internet Users. 9372
B. RA 8294 D. RA
8792

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 RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act C. Guardia Civil

 R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act D. Metropolitan Police Force
of 2002
 RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007 454. What is the appropriate training course for
 PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 - Illegal POIII to SPOI?
Possession of Firearms and Explosive A. Officers Senior Executive Course
 RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009 B. Officer Basic Course
 RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video Voyeurism Act of C. Senior Leadership Course
2009 D. Junior Leadership Course
 RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009
455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of
 RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of 2010
deputation of local chief executives as
representative of the NAPOLCOM:
446. What is the highest rank of police officer in
I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
Japan?
II. Abuse of authority;
A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI SO
III. Habitual tardiness;
B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and
known to be the “Father of Texas”.
A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I
A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon
B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV,
Knell
V
B. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
449. The following have summary dismissal
456. Planning for emergencies of a specific
powers over errant police members.
nature at known locations.
a. District Director;
A. Functional Plan C. Time Specific
b. Chief of Police;
Plans
c. Regional Director;
B. Tactical Plans D.
d. Chief, PNP;
Operational Plans
e. PLEB; and
f. NAPOLCOM.
457. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get
the lump sum of his retirement benefits for the
A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f
period of the first _____.
B. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f
A. 10 years C. 5 years
B. 6 years D. 2 years
450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She
was 29 years old then. What year will Amado
458. Specific Qualifications may be waived like
will retire?
Age, Height, Weight and Education, only when
A. 2016 C. 2023
the number of qualified applicants falls below
B. 2012 D. 2031
the minimum annual quota. Appointment status
under a waiver program is ________.
451. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP
A. Temporary C. Probationary
commissioned and non-commissioned officer
B. Permanent D. Regular
may retire and be paid separation benefits
corresponding to a position two ranks higher
459. No officer who has retired or is retirable
than his/her rank:
within _______ from his compulsory retirement
A. Retirement in the next higher grade
age be appointed as chief of the PNP.
B. Compulsory retirement
A. Three months C. Six months
C. Early retirement program
B. One year D. Two years
D. Optional Retirement
460. __________ is given to any PNP member who
452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an
has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry
independence from the PNP. It has an
at the risk of his life above and beyond the call
investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP
of duty.
members.
A. Meritorious Promotion
A. Internal Afairs Service
B. Special Promotion
B. National Police Commission
C. Regular Promotion
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
D. National Appellate Board
461. Which among the following has no
453. In police operational planning the use of
promotional authority over the members of the
the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line
PNP?
would be probable used for:
A. Deputy Director General
A. Arm confrontation C. Relief Operation
B. Director General
B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security
C. President of the Philippines
D. Regional Director
453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of
carrying the regulations of the Department of
462. The establishment of a formal structure of
State; this was armed and considered as the
authority through which works and divisions are
mounted police.
arranged, defined and coordinated refers to:
A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica
A. Planning C.
B. Guadrilleros
Organizing
B. Staffing D. Directing

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 High Risk Stop - actual stopping of armed and

463. In regard to the police planning function, it dangerous persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot,
may be said that: including the power to use all necessary and legal
A. Planning is essentially order giving. means to accomplish such end.
B. Planning is essentially decision making
in advance of action. 470. Maximum period wherein a police officer
C. Policemen must plan carefully than their may be suspended from service by the Chief
supervisors. PNP:
D. The higher the job in the organization, the A. 180 days C. 60 days
shorter the time-lag between planning B. 90 days D. 30 days
and execution.
Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of
464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was Internal Discipline
patterned by the Federal Bureau Investigation, it
was organized by R.A. 157. What law  Chief of Police- NOT EXCEEDING FIFTEEN (15)
reorganized the NBI? DAYS
A. R.A 9708 C. R.A  Provincial Directors- NOT EXCEEDING THIRTY (30)
6040 DAYS
B. R.A. 2678 D. R.A.  Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING SIXTY (60)
9262 DAYS

465. The IAS can recommend promotion of the 471. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
personnel to any key position. The statement is: personnel to any key position. The statement is-
A. Partly True C. Partly False A. YES C. NO
B. Absolutely True D. B. Wholly Correct D. Wholly
Absolutely False False

466. The following are the offenses for which a 472. Who has the disciplinary authority in
member of the PNP may be charged citizen’s complaint when the penalty imposed
administratively: is not exceeding fifteen (15) days?
I. Oppression; A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of Police
II. Misconduct; B. Provincial Director D. PLEB
III. Neglect of Duty;
IV. Violation of law; and  City/Municipality Mayors- not less than SIXTEEN
V. Incompetence. but not exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS
 People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)-
A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
B. V, II, III, I D. IV, III,
IV, I, II 473. The law that governs the Code of Conduct
and Ethical Standards for officials and
467. The police function in which patrol belong employees of the Government – National or
is: Local.
A. Line function C. Administrative A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610
function B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263
B. Staff function D. Auxiliary
function  RA 7160 – Local Government Code
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children against
468. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination
and other high ranking PNP officials is known as:  RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act
A. Broad external policy planning of 2004
B. Incremental planning
C. Internal policy planning 474. How vacancy filled up in the commission,
D. Radical planning except through expirations of term?
A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only
469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed with the capacity for regular appointment
persons following a high-risk stop. for another full term.
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty B. It shall be filed up for the unexpired
Checkpoint term only without re appointment.
B. High -Risk Arrest D. High Risk C. It shall be filed up by another person with full
Stop term
D. None of these

 Dragnet Operation - police operation intentionally

to seal-off the probable exit points of fleeing
suspects from the crime scene to prevent their 475. Under the police reform and reorganization
escape. law, a Field training Program for all PNP
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate response to uniformed members is required for permanency
block the escape of lawless elements from a crime of their appointment consisting of 12 months.
scene, and is also established when nearby Basic areas of actual experience and
checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit assignment during this period shall be on:
operations. A. Patrol, traffic and investigation
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence

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C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary services A. Blue Notice

D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence C. Red Notice
B. Black Notice
476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the D. Purple Notice
following are the factors considered in
promotion: Types of Notice by INTERPOL
a. Educational Attainment;  Yellow Notice- To help locate missing
b. Personality traits; persons, often minors, or to help identify
c. Potential; persons who are unable to identify
d. Service reputation; and themselves.
e. Physical Fitness.  Blue Notice- To locate, identify or obtain
information on a person of interest in a
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a criminal investigation.
B. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e  Black Notice- To seek information on
unidentified bodies.
477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is  Green Notice- To warn about a person's
due to be promoted. Who has the authority to criminal activities if that person is
promote him to his next rank? considered to be a possible threat to
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC public safety.
B. Secretary, DILG D. President  Orange Notice- To warn of an event, a
person, an object or a process
478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December representing an imminent threat and
11, 1964; He opted to join the Philippine danger to persons or property.
National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified to  Purple Notice- To provide information
join the PNP? on modi operandi, objects, devices and
A. Yes C. Wholly True concealment methods used by criminals.
B. No D. Wholly False
484. What is the name of the acclaimed first
479. In times of war or other national formally organized modern police force in the
emergency declared by the Congress the world?
President may extend such term of office from A. Interpol C. Scotland
__________________depending on the gravity of Yard
the situation. B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers
A. Six months to one year
B. One year to two years 485. The following are the law enforcement
C. One to six months principles enunciated by the Father of Modern
D. Five months to one year Policing System, except:
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the
480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19, police
870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After B. The police must have full respect of the
five years from promotion, what would be his citizenry
monthly base pay after adding his longevity C. The police are the public and the public are
pay? the police
A. 21, 857.00 C. 19, D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by
970.00 final judgment
B. 24, 870.00 D. 31, E. None of the above
549.00
487. The period of time elapsed since the oath
481. If the police plan of Municipality X can of office was administered is termed
carry out the purpose or goal of the police A. Tour of duty C. Term of office
station then the plan is considered_______. B. On duty D. Length of
A. Feasible C. Acceptable service
B. Suitable D. Adaptable
488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or
482. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed modify personnel disciplinary actions involving
by a police officer with the rank of __________ demotion or dismissal from the service imposed
and a designation as Inspector-General. upon members of the PNP by the Chief PNP
A. Deputy Director General C. General through the:
B. Director D. A.PLEB C. RAB
C/Superintendent B. NAB D. C/PNP

483. The shift that receives most of the call of 489. Promotion by virtue of position shall be
the public which are directly related to police granted after:
function, it is considered as the busiest among A. 6 months C. 2 years
them all. B. 1 year D. 18 months
A. Afternoon shift C.
Day shift 490. Breach of internal discipline committed by
B. Midnight shifts D. Night Shift any member of the PNP shall be brought to the
office of the Chief of Police or equivalent
 Night Shift – Least Desirable shift supervisor if the penalty imposed covers the
period of:
484. If we are seeking for an arrest of wanted A. Not exceeding 15 days
person with a view to extradition. B. Not exceeding 60 days

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C. Not exceeding 30 days 500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally
D. Dismissal means-
A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base
491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah
immediately from the service after due notice
and summary hearings if it was proven that he  Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic Congregation
went on AWOL for a continuous period of:  Al Qaeda – The Base
A. 30 days or more C. 15 days  Hezbollah – Party of God
or more  Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present commander
B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more of Al Qaeda

492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop 501. PNP in-service training programs are under
an integrated community public safety plan the responsibility of the;
pursuant to: A. PNP Directorate for Plans
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903 B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource
B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551 and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
493. The Statute of Winchester introduced the Management
system known as: D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew It is the total number of police officers assigned
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of in patrol duties.
the peace
502. Who is responsible in determining whether
494. Which of the following is a characteristic of there is a permit for the holding of the public
effective plan? assembly?
A. give police department a clear direction A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
B. increase personnel involvement Commander
C. clearly define objectives and goals B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
D. contain a degree of flexibility for the
unforeseen 503. The following are the things to be done
after armed confrontation, EXCEPT:
495. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot A. Check whether the situation still poses
during day time should walk ____ the curb: imminent danger
A. Outside C. Inside B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP
B. Near D. Far operatives
C. Submit the fact-finding report
496. The following are the duties and D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest
responsibilities of Patrol officers: hospital
a. Conduct home visitations when a E. None of these
circumstance warrants, dialogues with the
residents in their beat; 504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio of
b. Report occurrences and conditions which the following cases:
relate to crime, public peace, order and safety;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings, I. incidents where a police personnel discharges a
prevent disorders and disperse unlawful firearm;
assemblies; II. incidents where death, serious physical injury, or
d. Assist personnel of responsible agencies/unit any violation of human rights occurred in the
in facilitating the flow of traffic at busy conduct of a police operation;
intersections/roads within his Area of III. incidents where evidence was compromised,
Responsibility (AOR) and; tampered with, obliterated, or lost while in the
e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various
custody of police personnel;
places of business establishments and other
IV. incidents where a suspect in the custody of the
installation and remove hazards to public safety.
police was seriously injured; and
A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b V. Incidents where the established rules of
B. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e engagement have been violated.

497. Which among the following is not included A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV, and
in a Patrol Plan? V
A. Organization Detail of Personnel B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV
C. Stand-by points and V
B. Spot Report 497. The nature of which, the police officer is
D. Area Coverage free from specific routine duty is the definition
of
498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is formerly A. “on duty” C. “Active
included in what terrorist group? Service”
A. MILF C. MNLF B. “Length of Service” D. “of duty”
B. Al Qaeda D. NPA
 Length of Service- The period of time elapsed since the
499. The Koban policing system is adopted in: oath of office was administered.
A. Japan C. Malaysia  Active Service- shall refer to services rendered as an
B. Korea D. Thailand officer and non-officer, cadet, trainee or draftee in the
PNP

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498. The first step a dispatcher must take when 504. Police officers are required to give the
a felony-in-progress call has been received suspect Miranda Warning, during Spot checks
through telephone or by direct alarm signal is and pat down searches. The statement is-
to? A. Partially C. Correct
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
witness
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast 505. The following are the circumstances which
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene may justify pat-down search, EXCEPT:
D. sends augmentation force A. The appearance and demeanor of the
suspect
499. How many years of non-promotion before B. The time of the day and the location
a PNP Member can be attrited? where the pat-down search took
A. 5 years C. 2 years C. Where the police officer handles several
B. 10 years D. 18 Months suspects
 Attrition by Relief - Those who have been relieved for
D. None of these
just cause and have not been given an assignment 506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches
within TWO (2) YEARS after such relief shall be retired should be conducted by-
or separated
 Attrition by Demotion in Position or Rank - who shall A. Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise
not be assigned to a position commensurate to his or attack.
her grade within EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS after such B. At least two police officers, one to
demotion shall be retired or separated perform the search while the other
provides protective cover.
500. What is the main purpose why police car or
police officers are not allowed to be sent in the
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness
during the search.
scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation 507. Which of the following is not included in
c. To avoid any indication that police have the patrol function?
been informed of the KFR incident A. Respon.se for citizen calls for assistance
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the KFR B. Investigation of crimes after this is reported to the
activities inside the warehouse investigation section
C. Routine preventive patrol
501.Which among the following, is not a D. Inspection of identified hazards
applicable legal parameter during rallies,
strikes, demonstrations or other public 508. During police intervention operations, the
assemblies, under the pertinent provisions of duty to issue a warning is not absolute before
the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas he could use force against an offender.
Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the A. Correct C. Partially
Philippines, as amended and other applicable Correct
laws. B. Wrong D. Partially Wrong

A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance

B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or participant
shall be made during the public assembly, unless
he violates any pertinent law as evidence warrants. 509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if
C. In case of unlawful aggression, only reasonable transported by a patrol jeep, the subject must
force may be employed to prevent or repel it. be-
D. Directly employment of tear gas and water
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit
cannons.
at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
502. Which of the following is considered as the B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall
most important factor in formulating an sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
effective patrol strategy? C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit
A. training of station commander at the rear on the left side facing the subject
B. rank of the patrol commander D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall
C. adequacy of resources of police station sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
D. salary rates of police personnel
510. Which among the following should be
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be observed during the patrol operations?
stationed in the picket line (or confrontation A. Render after-patrol report
line) but should be stationed in such manner B. Buddy System
that their presence may deter the commission C. Kabit System
of criminal acts or any untoward incident from D. Render Hourly Report
either side. The members of the peace-keeping
detail shall stay outside a _______ radius from 511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or
the picket line. other public assemblies, employment of tear
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter gas and water cannons shall be made under the
B. 100 feet D. 100 meter control and supervision of the-

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A. Ground Commander C. Incident positioned where they can best provide security
Commander to the Checkpoint team including themselves.
B. Immediate Commander D. Superior Officer A. Security Sub-Team C. Search
Sub-Team
512. What should be the action of patrol B. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B
officers, when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance, except? 518. As much as practicable, who shall lead the
PNP contingent detailed to assist the Sheriff
A. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene. during the demolition activity.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
C. Determine the crime committed. Commander
D. None of these B. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police

513. Where should the patrol officer turnover 519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a
the information and pieces of evidence gathered complaint or report or information that a child
at the crime scene? has been or is being abused, maltreated,
A. SOCO team C. Immediate discriminated, exploited, neglected, or
Supervisor abandoned, or is under imminent danger of
B. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer being abused or exploited, shall take immediate
action thereon, but under no circumstance shall
514. Request for police assistance in the be beyond____?
implementation of final decisions or orders of A. 12 hours C. 36 hours
the court in civil cases and of administrative B. 24 hours D. 48
bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction hours
shall be acted upon by the appropriate police
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to 520. In designating a “safe” assembly area,
the actual implementation. well away from the threatened structure, out of
A. 3 days C. 10 days line-of-sight of the building and well clear of
B. 5 days D. 15 days windows. A minimum distance of is
recommended.
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein a A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
suspect dies, the Team Leader of the operating B. 150 meters D. 300 meters
unit shall?
521. Provides for methods of apprehending a
A. He shall immediately undertake the necessary criminal by an act of the complainant shout to
investigation and processing of the scene of the call all male residents to assemble and arrest
encounter. the suspect.
B. After the Investigation, He shall immediately A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
request the SOCO team to conduct Crime Scene B. Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star
Processing. Chamber
C. He shall submit the incident for inquest before
 Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) - The room set-up
the duty Inquest Prosecutor prior to the removal
is formed in a shape of a star and judges were given
of the body from the scene.
great powers such as the power to force testimony
D. He shall report immediately to his superior for the
from a defendant leading to a great abuse of power or
proper undertakings to be done.
brutality on the part of the judges.
516. PNP personnel who will point/profile  Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the beginning of
suspected vehicle subject for checkpoint: the curfew hours, which demanded the closing of the
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team gates of London during sundown.
B. Spotter D. Investigation Sub-  Tun Policing System - A system of policing emerged
team during the Anglo-Saxon period whereby all male
residents were required to guard the town
 Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take responsibility in
the conduct of checkpoint preferably an officer with 522. Refers to a location where the search,
the rank of at least Police Inspector; which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
 Spokesperson - TL or member who is solely in charge conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
of communicating with the motorists subject for crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate
checkpoint; purposes.
 Investigation Sub-team - in charge of investigation and A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined
documentation of possible incidents in the checkpoint
Area
to include issuance of Traffic Citation Ticket (TCT) or
Traffic Violation Report (TVR);
523. Electronic blotter is a computerized
 Search/Arresting Sub-Team - designated to conduct system, which was accepted by the courts,
search, seizure and arrest, if necessary; prosecutors’ office and the public in general.
 Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide security in the What police office is using this kind of blotter?
checkpoint area; and A. Makati C. Cebu
 Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team tasked to B. Baguio D. Davao
block/pursue fleeing suspects/vehicle.
524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the
517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is
display high-powered firearms and are standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is

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not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but

the ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
A. Ambition C. Intention
B. Motive D. Opportunity

525. Police personnel whose rank at the time of

his retirement is Superintendent shall retire with
the rank of __________:
A. Superintendent C.
C/Superintendent
B. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector

526. Which among the following terms is not

related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright
Pursuit

527. General rules on media relations, No

information regarding the incident shall be
released without clearance from the_________:
A. Chief of police C. Ground
Commander
B. Incident Commander D. Immediate
Superior

528. Which of the following is not true about

patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the police department

B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police
department that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police department
529. The low informers and unreliable
renegades of value chiefly in spreading
false information to the enemy.
A. Common Spies C. Double Spies
B. Spies of Consequences D. None

530. Refers to utilization of units or elements of

the PNP for purpose of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of
peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of
criminal offenders and etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B. Service D. Employment

Deployment- shall mean the orderly and

organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province, city
or municipality for purposes of employment

-END-

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