ANAND AGRICULTURAL

UNIVERSITY

Agricultural Extension Education

Net exam Question Bank

Research methodology in
extension education
Unit-5

Prepared by
Dr. Meena C.Patel,
Assistant Professor
Institute of Distance Education,
AAU
ANAND

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Net exam Syllabus for Research methodology in extension education
1 Social Research –Concept, principles and approach
2. Selection and identification of research problem
3 Method of data collection
Interview
Mail questionnaires
4 Variables
Meaning and Types
Independent
Dependent
Intervening variables
5 Hypothesis
Concepts, characteristics
Types and testing
6 Research design
concept and types
Field studies
Case study
Survey method
7 Measurement
meaning and levels
8 Method of sampling and statistical tests
9 Reliability and validity of tests
Normal distribution
Test of significance
ANOVA
Correlation and regression
Scaling techniques
10 Processing of Data
Coding
Tabulation
Analysis and interpretation

11 Writing Scientific reports

citing references
12 Participatory approaches
PRA
RRA
PLA
PTD

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Net exam Questionnaires for Research methodology in extension education
Unit-5
1. Research in common parlance refers to investigate for sake of (b)
a) Information
b) Knowledge
c) Discovery
d) D) Evaluation
2. The manipulation of things, concepts or symbols for the purpose of (a)
generalizing to extend, correct or verifying knowledge is defined as
research by
a) Encyclopedias of social science
b) Agricultural science
c) Mathematicians
d) Statisticians
3. A scientific undertaking is means of logical and systematized (a)
techniques seeks to discover new facts
a) Social research
b) Innovative techniques
c) Discovery
d) Invention
4. Logical and objective, applying every possible test to verify the data (a)
collected and the procedures employed
a) Research
b) Verification
c) Discovery
D) Invention
5. Places emphasis upon the discovery of general principles and (b)
scientific generalization
a) Adaptive research
b) Fundamental research
c) Applied research
d) Action research
6. Related to progress in the discovery of general laws and theories of (b)
learning though basic research
a) Adaptive research
b) Fundamental research
c) Applied research

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 d) Action research
7. Based on the application of know theories models (c
a) Adaptive research
b) Fundamental research
c) Applied research
d) Action research
8. Research, directly towards the solution of an immediate, specific, (c
practical problem.
a) Adaptive research
b) Fundamental research
c) Applied research
d) Action research
9. Entirely new discovery, the knowledge of which has not existed so far (b)
a) Adaptive research
b) Fundamental research
c) Applied research
d) Action research
10. An organized and scientific effort to acquire further knowledge about (a)
social phenomenon and facts
a) Social research
b) Scientific approach
C) Invention
D) Congregate information
11. Promote welfare of humanity by the result of social investigation. (c
a) Scientific approach
b) Creation
c) Social research
d) Humanity development
12. Find the specific determined sequences; inter relationship of facts and (b)
their social settings in the given universe of discourse.
a) Association
b) Social research
c) Communal resolute
d) Liaison

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13. Social Science Index is published from: (b)
a) Netherlands
b) New York
c ) Singapore
d) Columbia
14. The International Index of Social Science named Social Science (a)
Citation Index is published from:
a) USA
b) Netherland
c) India
d) Nepal
15. Directory of Social Science Research Institutions in India is published (c)
by;
a) NIRD
b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
c) ICSSR
d) UNESCO
16. The Indian Council of Social Science Research is situated at: (b)
a) Mumbai
b) New Delhi
c) Meerut
d) Hissar
17. The book entitled "Scientific Social Survey and Research" is written (b)
by:
a) C R Kothari
b) P V Young(Pauline Vislick Young)
c) P C Tripathi
d) A K Singh
18. The book on research methodology written by Fred, N Kerlinger: (d)
a) Fundamentals of Research Methods
b) Fundamentals of Behavioral Research
c) Foundation of Behavioral Science
d)Foundations of Behavioral Research
19. Measurement in social science is concerned with (b)
a) Objects

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 b) Properties of objects
c) Phenomena
d) Properties of phenomena
20. The most precise expression in quantitative, a mathematical equation (a)
or statistical finding which explains or represent the truth.
a) Precision
b) Verifiable
c) Accurate
d) Reliable
21. The basic approaches to research is (c)
a) Motivation and inspiration
b) Conclusion and decision
c) Quantitative and qualitative
d) Inquiry and invention
22. Social research acts as a science to develop a body of principles for (a)
the understanding and prediction of
a) Human interaction
b) Scientific dealing
c) Analysis of documents
d) Innovative style and work
23. Qualitative approach to research is concerned with subjective (d)
assessment of
a) Effect on other traits
b) Dynamic process
c) Values
d) Attitude
24. The scientific method based on basic postulates is (a)
a) Rely on empirical evidence
b) Collection of data
c) Review of literature
d) Conclusion
25. The significance of research can be understood as (b)
a) Source of livelihood
b) Generalizations of new theory

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 c) Outlet for insights
d) Problem planning

26. Research methods may be understood as (d)

a) Creative work
b) Development of new style
c) Content analysis
d) Techniques for conduction of research
27. Research techniques may be understood as (a)
a) Instruments used in performing research operations
b) Analysis of documents
c) Logical consideration
d) Probabilistic predictions
28. Research process consist of (c)
a) Number of activities
b) Completion of study
c) Series of action
d) Formulation of steps
29. The description, explanation and justification of various methods of (c)
conducting research
a) Research design
b) Research problem
c) Research Methodology
d) Research methods
30. The basic function of a good research design is to: (c)
a) Decrease experimental variance
b) Maximize extraneous variance
c) Minimize error variance
d) Explain metaphysical observation
31. Research design is not essentially a (b)
a) Plan
b) Product
c) Structure
d) Strategy

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32. One of the qualities of good research is (a)
a) Replicable
b) Informative
c) Educational
d) Derivative
33. A scientific undertaking means of logical and systematized techniques (b)
seeks to discover new facts or, verify and test old facts.
a) Invention
b) Research
c) Discovery
d) Innovation
34. A group of academic disciplines that study human aspects of the (a)
world
a) Social science
b) Agriculture science
c) Mathematics
d) Statistics
35. The word science literally means: (a)
a) to make knowledge
b) to undertake survey
c) to do research
d) to understand nature
36. The basic aim of science is (a)
a) Theory
b) Prediction
c) Control
d) None of these
37. The word science had its root in (a)
a) Latin
b) Greek
c) Persian

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 d) Arabic

38. Science is generally considered as: (d)

a) Accumulative
b) Dynamic
c) Static
d) Both a and b
39. Which among the term is considered as (a)
much broader than the other?
a. Science
b. Common sense
c. Both are equal
d. none of the above
40. Knowledge generation in science is done through (b)
a) Observation
b) Research
c) Survey
d) Case study
41. The superiority of scientific method over other methods of fixing (a)
believes rest on
a) Self correction
b) Self correlation
c) Self control
d) All of the above
42. The basic character of scientific method that emphasis the (a)
views, events, phenomena, and ideas as external or being
affected by researcher is commonly referred as
a. Objectivity
b. Generalizability
c. Verifiability
d. Predictability
43. Pursuit of truth as determined by logical consideration refers to (c)

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 a) Philosophy
b) Principle
c) Scientific method
d) None of the above
44. Science is an activity that contributes systematized information to (b)
the world forms the characterized assumption under:
a. Democratic view
b. Static view
c. Dynamic view
d. Diagnostic view
45. Scientific research does not give a place for (d)

a) Systematic observation
b) Controlled experimentation
c) Empirical testing
d) Metaphysical explanations
46. "A priori" (b)
literally means:

a) Agree without reason

b) Agree with reason
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
47. A series of investigation on a similar topic in which successive studies (d)
are influenced by preceding inquires:
a) Invisible college
b) Research paradigm
c) Research design
d) Research tradition
48. A set of interconnected constructs, definitions and propositions (c)
that present a systematic view of a phenomena by specifying
relations
a. Hypothesis
b. Law
c. Theory
d. Variable

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49. Scientific data must be (d)
a. Objective
b. Measurable
c. Predictable
d. All of the above

50. Which among the following accounts for existing data, predict new (b)
observations and guide further research:
a) Hypothesis
b) Theory
c) Definition
d) method
51. An abstract formed from generalization from particular is called (d)
a) Principle
b) Hypothesis
c) Theory
d) Concept
52. Concepts are powerful tools that make us to think (b)
a) Absurdly
b) Abstractly
c) Positively
d) Negatively
53. Do such and such things in so and so manner is the characteristic (a)
feature of
a) Operational definition
b) Constitutive definition
c) Conceptual definition
d) Observational definition
54. Defining intelligence in terms of verbal reasoning, analytical (b)
ability, and comprehension and numerical capacity forms' the
characteristic feature of
a ) Operational definition
b) Constitutive definition
c) Conceptual definition

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 d) Observational definition
55. The exact procedures used to represent a concept (a)
a) operational definition
b) Constitutive definition
c) Conceptual definition
d) Observational definition
56. Pure research differs from applied research in the sense the former: (a)
a) Illuminates theory
b) Uses highly technical language
c) Shares multipurpose view
d) Concentrate on the "Why" aspect
57. A profession is not dynamic if it does not have (c)
a ) Available resources
b) Technical expertise
c) Continuous research
d) Local initiatives
58. Research which tries to solve an ongoing problem within some (c)
organizational frame work by introducing a planned change and
observing in the process the results of the change:
a) Explorative research
b) Descriptive research
c) Action research
d) Diagnostic research
59. Books that covers only one aspect but in a detailed manner: (c)
a) Abstracts
b) Bulletin
c) Monograph
d) Encyclopedia
60. The summary and conclusion chapter in a research thesis is otherwise (d)
known as:
a) Epilogue
b) Prologue
c) Alpha loge
d) Symatologue

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61. “After this, therefore caused by this” is usually denoted to indicate (a)
a) Ex post facto research design
b) Diagnostic design
c) Descriptive design
d) Experimental design

62. The term ex post facto was first coined (a)

a) Chapin and Greenwood
b) Festinger and Katz
c) Goode and Hatt
d) Campbell and Katona
63. A pilot study to gain more insight into the research problem forms (a)
the characteristic feature of:
a) Explorative design
b) Diagnostic design
c) Descriptive design
d) Experimental design
64. Scientists do not have direct control on independent variables (a)
a) Ex post facto research design
b) Diagnostic design
c) Descriptive design
d) Experimental design
65. A hypothesis is a must in: (a)
a) Experimental design
b) Explorative design
c) Descriptive design
d) Both a and b
66. A research design without hypothesis among the following is: (a)
a) Explorative design
b) Diagnostic design
c) Descriptive design
d) Experimental design
67. Inability to control the changing pattern of independent variable. (c)
a) Explorative design

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 b) Diagnostic design
c) Ex post facto design
d) Experimental design

68. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of a good (b)

research design?
a) High external validity
b) Low external validity
c) High internal validity
d) None of the above
69. Experimenter has the highest control in manipulation of variable in (a)
a) Laboratory method.
b) Library method
c) Simulation method
d) Field experiment
70. To study the effect of independent variable on a single experiment (a)
we go for:
a) Factorial design
b)CRD
c) LSD
d) RBD
71. Opinion polls fall under: (a)
a) Descriptive design
b) Explorative design
c) Diagnostic design
d) Experimental design
72. Experimental and non-experimental research shares in (c)
common which of the following characteristics:
a) Control
b) Manipulation
c) Measurement
d) All of the above

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73. The underlying philosophy of scientific method followed in different (a)
disciplines of science are:
a) Exactly the same
b) Almost same
c) Somewhat the same
d) Entirely different
74. The assignment of numbers to certain characteristics of objects (a)
according to rules
a) Measurement
b) Evaluation
c) Observation
d) Survey
75. Information gained through direct observation and measurement is (a)
called
a) Empirical evidence
b) Experimental variance
c) Observational evidence
d) None of the above
76. The selection of research problem must be based on (c)
a) Controversial subject
b) Vague problems
c) Preceded by a preliminary study
d) Field of comparable inquiry
77. The scope in selecting topic for research depends on (a)
a) The nature of interest of researcher
b) Sake for knowledge
c) To support the evidence
d) To verify the facts
78. Defining of a research problem involves (d)
a) Formulation of problem
b) Broad general terms
c) Precedent reviews
d) The task of laying down boundaries
79. Research that help in developing principles (b)

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 a) Adaptive research
b) Fundamental research
c) Applied research
d) Action research

80. Utility of social research is (b)

a) Body of philosophy
b) Social Control
c) Social security
d) Social dignity
81. The science of evolution of human interrelation
a) Sociology (a)
b) Psychology
c) Anthropology
d) Physiology
82. Gathering knowledge that could add betterment of human destiny (b)
a) Basic research
b) Applied research
c) Adaptive research
d) Action research
83. When variables are carefully controlled or manipulated and their (a)
effects are examined upon some other variables
a) Experimental research design
b) Historical research
c) Descriptive research
d) Exploratory field research
84. Attempts to trace an effect which has already occurred to its probable (c)
causes
a) Survey research
b) Field studies
c) Expost facto research
d) Diagnostic studies
85. Studies the whole population with respect to certain psychological and (d)

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 sociological variables
a) Experimental research
b) Descriptive research
c) Exploratory field research
d) Survey research

86. Useful in addressing the evaluation question about the effectiveness (a)
and impact of programmes
a) Experimental Design
b) Ex post facto design
c) Exploratory research
d) Casual research
87. Hypothesized that the outcomes are the result of a given programme (c)
or innovation instead of a function of extraneous variable or events
a) Field studies
b) Historical study
c) Experimental Design
d) Exploratory research
88. Scientists do not have direct control on independent variables as (b)
independent variables are already acted upon
a) Experimental Design
b) Ex post facto design
c) Exploratory research
d) Casual research
89. Corresponds to the fact-finding aspect of clinical practices (b)
a) Experimental Design
b) Diagnostic research
c) Exploratory research
d) Casual research
90. Involves procedure for gaining knowledge by collecting new or fresh (a)
observations under controlled conditions.
a) Experimental research
b) Diagnostic research
c) Exploratory research
d) Casual research

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91. Independent variable can be manipulated as an experimental variable (a)
in order to see the effect on dependent variable
a) Experimental research
b) Diagnostic research
c) Exploratory research
d) Casual research
92. To evaluate the performance of the developmental project and other (d)
economical progammes that have been already implemented
a) Experimental research
b) Diagnostic research
c) Exploratory research
d) Evaluation research
93. A type of secondary data analysis to determine past social attitudes (d)
and community structure
a) Experimental research
b) Diagnostic research
c) Exploratory research
d) Historical research
94. Links sample investigations with population and there by offers an (b)
easy opportunity of studying population behaviour.
a) Experimental research
b) Survey research
c) Exploratory research
d) Historical research
95. Randomization of subjects into control and treatment groups (a)
a) Classic experimental design
b) Factorial design
c) Between-subject designs
d) Randomized block design
96. The values of the dependent variables for one group of participant is (c)
compared with the values of another group of participant
a) Classic experimental design
b) Factorial design
c) Between-subject designs
d) Randomized block design

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97. The design in which the number of notation inform the number of (c)
factors and the number of the levels
a) Between-subject designs
a) Randomized block design
b) Classic experimental design
c) Factorial design
98. The researcher identify a single extraneous factor that might affect (c)
the test unit’s response to the treatment
a) Factorial design
b) Between-subject designs
c) Randomized block design
d) Latin square design
99. The design block out the result of two extraneous factors and (b)
expected that the extraneous factors will offset each other and wash
out.
a) Randomized block design
b) Latin square design
d) Classic experimental design
c) Factorial design
100. Provide repetitive measurements of same kind of events at various (a)
points in time.
a) Time series design(Longitudinal design)
b) Latin square design
c) Factorial design
d) Randomized block design
101. Systematic examination of communications or of current records or (a)
documents
a) Content analysis
b) Case study
c) Field studies
d) Historical study
102. Tends to examine a social unit as a whole (d)
a) Survey research
b) Field studies
c) Diagnostic studies

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 d) Case study
103. The use of informants to study the cultural and social characteristics (a)
of primitive and culturally isolated people
a) Entrographic study
b) Clinical study
c) Field study
d) Case study
104. Which among the following can be thought as natural clinical tests (d)
of the effects of unusual variables?
a) Observational variables
b) Empirical studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case studies
105. The collection of data in research falls under (b)
a) Statistical design
b) Observational design
c) Operational design
d) Sampling design
106. Experimental method of data collection among the following is: (d)
a) Field study
b) Sample survey
c) Library method
d) Field experiment

107. To have an accurate picture of how large segments of the population (c)
feel about current issues
a) Case study
b) Lab Experiment
c) Field Survey
d) None of the above
108. Survey method would most typically used in (b)
a) Clinical assessment
b) Opinion poll
c) Laboratory experiment
d) Psychoanalysis

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109. Survey research employ which of the following techniques: (d)
a) Panel techniques
b) Personal interview
c) Controlled interview
d) All of the above

110. Expressions of the ends towards which efforts are directed (a)
a) Objective
b) Aim
c) Series
d) Direction
111. Broad statements of desired outcomes, or the general intentions of (b)
the research, which 'paint the picture' of research proposal
a) Objective
b) Aim
c) Intension
d) Direction
112. A conjectural statements of the relation between two or more (b)
variables
a) Logical consequence
b) Hypothesis
c) Operationalization
d) Concept
113. Clarifies the issue as well as explains the investigators, respondents (d)
and other readers of the research report specifically and pointedly
a) Logical consequence
b) Hypothesis
c) Operationalization
d) Concept
114. To get to know the reader, with earlier work done on the subjects (c
a) Perception
b) Hypothesis
c) Review of literature
d) Concept

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115. Identification of areas of research already covered in a particular field (c
of science
a) Perception
b) Hypothesis
c) Review of literature
d) Concept

116. The finding or observations recorded by the past researchers with (c

regard to a particular field of science
a) Perception
b) Hypothesis
c) Review of literature
d) Concept
117. Basis of aspect such as bibliography, indexes textbooks, research (b)
journals, thesis, annul reports, magazines, news papers, abstracts,
and encyclopedia etcs.
a) Awareness
b) Source of information
c) Conception
d) Notion
118. It advances scientific knowledge by helping the investigator theory to (d)
conform or reject the theory
a) Exploratory work
b) Operationalization
c) Perception
d) Hypothesis
119. A tentative explanation that accounts for a set of facts and can be
tested by further investigation.
a) Exploratory work
b) Operationalization
c) Perception
d) Hypothesis
120. A succinct way to express the testing of obtained data against chance (a)
expectations
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Operational hypothesis

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 c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Working Hypothesis
121. If the test statistic is greater than the upper critical value or less than (a)
the lower critical value, the null hypothesis is
a) Rejected
b) Accepted
c) Established
d) Recognized
122. A statistical hypothesis, used to determine whether the results of an (a)
experiment are statistically significant.
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Operational hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Working Hypothesis
123. “No relationship” between two variables or “no difference” between (a)
two groups.
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Operational hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Working Hypothesis
124. States the opposite of what the experimenter would expect or predict (a)
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Operational hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Working Hypothesis
125. Suggests a potential outcome that the researcher may expect (c)
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Operational hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Working Hypothesis
126. Provisionally adopted to explain the relationship between some (d)
observed facts for guiding a researcher in the investigation of a
problem.
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Operational hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis

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 d) Working Hypothesis
127. Needs to be structured before the data-gathering and interpretation (a)
phase of the research
a) Hypothesis
b) Variable
c) Interpretation
d) Prediction

128. A Statement constitutes a trail, is to be tested and conformed, (d)

modifies or even discarded as the investigation proceeds
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Operational hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Working Hypothesis
129. Predicting functional relationships between variables (a)
a) Hypothesis
b) Variable
c) correlation
d) prediction
130. Gives direction to the collection and interpretation of data (a)
a) Hypothesis
b) Elucidation
c) Explanation
d) prediction
131. A formal statement that presents the expected relationship between (a)
an independent and dependent variable
a) Hypothesis
b) Association
c) Explanation
d) prediction
132. The maximum probability at which one would like to reject null (b)
hypothesis, when it is true
a) Level of assumption
b) Level of significance

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 c) Level of attitude
d) Level of approach
133. Rejection of a true null hypothesis is called (a)
a) Type I Error
b) Type II Error
c) Sampling error
d) Interviewing error

134. Stastical error occurs when H0 is accepted (b)

a) Type I Error
b) Type II Error
c) Sampling error
d) Interviewing error
135. Retention of false null hypothesis is called (b)
a) Type I Error
b) Type II Error
c) Sampling error
d) Interviewing error
136. Probability of rejecting null hypothesis ,when it is true is kept at fix (a)
level
a) Level of significance
b) Level of association
c) Explanation
d) prediction
137. Attributes of objects, events, things and being, which vary and can be (c)
measured
a) Traits
b) Characteristics
c) Variables
d) Behaviour
138. An object, event, idea, feeling, time period, or any other type of (c
category you are trying to measure.
a) Quality
b) Class

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 c) Variables
d) Behaviour
139. A symbol to which numerals or values are assigned (c)
a) Mean
b) Mode
c) Variable
d) Median

140. Variables are essentially a (d)

a) Property
b) symbol
c) Constructs
d) All of the above
141. A quantity which can vary from one individual to another individual (c)
is called
a) Mean
h) Mode
c) Variable
d) Median
142. An object, event, idea, feeling, time period, or any other type of (c)
category which are trying to measure
a) Skill
b) Attitude
c) Variable
d) Ability
143. The condition under investigation that act as potential cause of (b)
some change in behavior
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Intervening variable
d) None of the above
144. Any entity that can take on different values (c)
a) Skill

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 b) Attitude
c) Variable
d) Creature
145. Independent variables are all but not (b)
a) Presumed cause
b) Predicted to
c) Manipulated
d) Antecedent

146. The manipulated variable in an experiment is: (d)

a) Independent variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Active variable
d) Both a and c
147. The variable that reflects changes in the independent variable is: (a)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Extraneous variable
d) None of the above
148. In an experiment measuring the effect of temperature on dilation of (d)
blood vessels, the level of temperature is the:
a) Control variable
b) Antecedent variable
c) Dependent variable
d) Independent variable
149. Variable is one that can take on a countable number of different (c)
values
a) Continuous variable
b) Confounding variable
c) Discrete variable
d) Control variable
150. Variable is one that takes on infinite number of different values (a)
a) Continuous variable
b) Confounding variable

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 c) Discrete variable
d) Control variable
151. Which one of the following is not a dependent variable: (a)
a) Chronological age
b) Rate of response
c) REM rebound
d) Reaction time

152. The classification of variable into independent and (a)

dependent is based on:
a) Uses
b) Kinds
c) Form
d) Both a and c
153. The rule of correspondent between a dependent variable and (a)
an independent variable:
a) Function
b) Equation
c) Argument
d) Premise
154. A variable selected to prevent alteration of the relationship (d)
between primary independent variable with the dependent
variable:
a) Active variable
b) Intervening variable
c) Attribute variable
d) Moderator variable
155. All variables that can be measured in the smallest degree of (a)
fineness are called:
a) Continuous variable
b) Discrete variable
c) Qualitative variable
d) Moderator variable
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156. Age is classified under: (c)
a) Dichotonimous variable
b) Discrete variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Intervening variable
157. When neither variable is the cause of the other, the relationship is (a)
called:
a) Symmetrical
b) Reciprocal
c) Asymmetrical
d) None of the above
158. Sex falls under which of the following type of variable (a)
a ) Dichotonimous variable
b) Polynomials variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Qualitative variables
159. A true Dichotonimous variable among the following is: (a)
a) Male < female
b) Literate - illiterate
c) Intelligent - unintelligent
d) Introvert - extrovert
160. An example for quantitative variable from among the following is (b)
a) Sex
b) Age
c) Race
d) Religion
161. An example for discrete variable from among the following is: (b)
a) Age
b) Sex
c) Intelligence
d) Height
162. A variance produced in the dependent variable by the manipulation (a)
of the active variable by the experimenter:
a) Experimental variance

29
 b) Extraneous variance
c) Error variance
d) None of the above
163. The variance that reflects the systematic differences between (a)
groups of measures.
a) Experimental variance
b) Extraneous variance
c) Error variance
d) None of the above

164. The most ubiquitous kind of variance in research (c)

a) Experimental variance
b) Extraneous variance
c) Error variance
d) None of the above
165. Variables which have only two values (d)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Dichotomous variable
166. The phenomenon or characteristics hypothesized to be the outcome, (a)
effect.
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Discrete variable
167. Countable number of different values (d)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Discrete variable
168. An infinite number of possible values (c)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable

30
 c) Continuous variable
d) Discrete variable
169. A variable whose attributes are separate from one another. (d)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Discrete variable
170. A variable whose attributes form a steady progression (c)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Discrete variable
171. Variable is the presumed cause (b)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Discrete variable
172. Variable is the presumed effect (a)
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) Discrete variable
173. Have an impact on the relationship between the independent and (a)
dependent variables
a) Extraneous variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Independent variable
d) Continuous variable
174. The process of strictly defining variables into measurable factors (b)
a) Exploratory work
b) Operationalization
c) Discernment
d) Hypothesis
175. Gives direction to the collection and interpretation of data (d)
a) Judgment
b) Path

31
 c) Direction
d) Hypothesis
176. Statements expressing the relation or difference between two or more (d)
measurable variables
a) Association
b) Correlation
c) Expression
d) Hypothesis

177. A tentative proposition suggested as a solution to a problem or as an (c)

explanation of some phenomenon
a) Correlation
b) Justification
c) Hypothesis
d) Proposition
178. The word hypothesis literally means: (a)
a)Less than generally held view
b)More than generally held view
c) Same as generally held view
d) None of the above
179. A hypothesis is essentially a: (c)
a) Interrogative statement
b) Empirical statement
c) Relational proposition
d) Generally held view
180. Which among the following is the testable form in a scientific (b)
research?
a) Research problem
b) Research hypothesis
c) Research variable
d) All of the above
181. The hypothesis type stated for the purpose of rejection (a)
a) Null hypothesis
b) Alternate hypothesis

32
 c) Parallel hypothesis
d) Both b and c
182. A hypothesis when tested true becomes a: (b)
a) Principle
b) Theory
c)Philosophy
d)Law
183. Hypothesis that states the negation of the assertion is commonly (a)
called as:
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Parallel hypothesis
c) Alternate hypothesis
d) Both b and c
184. The bridge between theory and empirical enquiry is connected (b)
through:
a) Research principle
b) Research hypothesis
c) Research problem
d) Research output
185. Whether a test is one tailed or two tailed depends on: (a)
a) Alternate hypothesis
b) Null hypothesis
c) Composite hypothesis
d) Simple hypothesis
186. A tentative explanation that accounts for a set of facts and can be (c)
tested by further investigation.
a) Correlation
b) Explanation
c) Hypothesis
d) Proposition
187. Provisionally adopted to explain the relationship between some (a)
observed facts in the investigation of a problem.
a) Working Hypothesis
b) Null Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Operational Hypothesis
188. Posits that there is “no relationship” between two variables, or “no (b)

33
 difference” between two groups.
a) Working Hypothesis
b) Null Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Operational Hypothesis
189. Hypothesis is “supported,” if the results are statistically non- (b)
significant
a) Working Hypothesis
b) Null Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Operational Hypothesis

190. Hypothesis that suggests a potential outcome (c)

a) Working Hypothesis
b) Null Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Operational Hypothesis
191. Established only when a null hypothesis is rejected (c)
a) Working Hypothesis
b) Null Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Operational Hypothesis
192. Indicates no order or distance relationship and has no arithmetic (a)
origin.
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
193. Simply describes difference between things by assigning them into (a)
categories
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
D) Ratio
194. Counting of numbers in each group is the only possible arithmetic (a)
operation
34
 a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
195. Mode as the measure of central tendency can only be used (a)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
196. Median can be used as the central tendency. (b)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
197. The most eliminatory level of measurement is: (a)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
198. Likert scale for measurement of attitude falls under (c)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c)Interval
d)Ratio
199. Transitivity postulate find its application right from: (b)
a) Nominal level
b) Ordinal level
c) Interval level
d) Ratio level
200. The lowest level of measurement having an arbitrary zero is: (c)
a) Nominal level
b) Ordinal level
c) Interval level
d) Ratio level
201. The level of measurements that goes smooth with non-parametric (a)
statistics is:
a) Nominal-Ordinal
35
 b) Ordinal - Interval
c) Nominal-Interval
d) Ordinal-Ratio
202. Intelligence, aptitude and personality measures strictly speaking (b)
falls under:
a) Nominal level
b) Ordinal level
c) Interval level
d) Ratio level
203. Index numbers used in social science measure are having: (a)
a) Arbitrary zero point
b) Absolute zero point
c) Natural zero point
d) Both a and c
204. The level of measurement attached to categorical variable is: (a)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
205. The measurement of temperature falls under (c)
a) Nominal level
b) Ordinal level
c) Interval level
d) Ratio level
206. The lowest level of measurement that facilitate us to go for addition (c)
and subtraction is:
a) Nominal level
b) Ordinal level
c) Interval level
d) Ratio level
207. Reflective, transitive and symmetrical relationship is the (a)
characteristic feature oft
a) Nominal level
b) Ordinal level
c) Interval level
d) Ratio level

36
208. Height and weight are obvious examples for: (d)
a) Nominal level
b) Ordinal level
c) Interval level
d) Ratio level

209. Permits the ranking of items from highest to lowest but the real, (b)
difference between adjacent ranks may not be equal
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
210. Implies a statement of greater than or less than without being able to (b)
state how much greater or less.
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
D) Ratio
211. Numbers are assigned to objects or events which can be categorized, (c)
ordered and assumed to have an equal distance between scale
values.
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
212. Has an arbitrary zero, but it lacks true zero or absolute zero. (c)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
213. All statistical techniques are usable. (d)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval

37
 d) Ratio

214. There is always an absolute zero that is meaningful (d)

a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
215. When repeated measurements of same things give constant (b)
results.
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Predictability
d) Certainty
216. The same test is given to a group of subjects on at least two (b)
separate occasions
a) Split half method
b) Test retest method
c) Simple random method
d) Stratified random method
217. Refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same individuals (b)
when reexamined with test on different occasions
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Predictability
d) Certainty
218. Measuring what ‘it’ is supposed to matter of degree (a)
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Predictability
d) Certainty
219. Specific to a particular purpose (a)
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Predictability

38
 d) Certainty
220. Single form of test is administered twice on the same sample with a (b)
reasonable time gap
a) Split half method
b) Test retest method
c) Simple random method
d) Stratified random method
221. Reliability coefficient as temporal stability coefficient. (b)
a) Split half method
b) Test retest method
c) Simple random method
d) Stratified random method

222. A single administration of the two sets of items to a sample of (a)

respondents
a) Split half method
b) Test retest method
c) Simple random method
d) Stratified random method
223. Reliability coefficient as internal stability coefficient. (a)
a) Split half method
b) Test retest method
c) Simple random method
d) Stratified random method
224. Draw an inference form test scores to a psychological construct (b)
a) Content validity
b) Construct validity
c) Consequences validity
d) Criterion validity
225. Usually established by content experts (a)
a) Content validity
b) Construct validity
c) Consequences validity
d) Criterion validity

39
226. The degree to which content on a test (predictor) correlates with (d)
performance on relevant criterion measures
a) Content validity
b) Construct validity
c) Consequences validity
d) Criterion validity
227. An approach where scale is developed on ad hoc basis and is (a)
designed largely through the researcher’s own subjective selection
of items
a) Arbitrary approach
b) Consensus approach
c) Item analysis approach
d) Factor scale approach

228. To estimate the magnitude of a characteristic or quality that an (b)

object possesses.
a) Ranking
b) Rating
c) Sorting
d) Choice
229. The respondent grade order a small number of objects in overall (a)
performance on the basis of some characteristics or stimulus.
a) Ranking
b) Rating
c) Sorting
d) Choice
230. Several concepts typed on cards and require arranging the cards into (c)
number of piles or otherwise classifying the concepts.
a) Ranking
b) Rating
c) Sorting
d) Choice
231. Option between two or more alternatives (d)
a) Ranking

40
 b) Rating
c) Sorting
d) Choice
232. An instrument which measures subjective variables (a)
a) A scale
b) Data
c) Tool
d) Measurement
233. A type of composite measure that is composed of several items that (a)
have a logical or empirical structure among them
a) A scale
b) Device
c) Tool
d) Measurement
234. An enduring disposition to consistently respond in a given matter (a)
a) Attitude
b) Attribute
c) Knowledge
d) Skill
235. Method of summated ratting (a)
a) The Likert scale
b) Thurstone scale
c) Semantic Differential Scale
d) Guttmann scale
236. Equal-Appearing Interval Scaling (b)
a) The Likert scale
b) Thurstone scale
c) Semantic Differential Scale
d) Guttmann scale
237. Select between two opposite positions using qualifiers to bridge the (c)
gap between them.
a) The Likert scale
b) Thurstone scale
c) Semantic Differential Scale

41
 d) Guttmann scale
238. The totality of a particular characteristic for any specify group of (d)
individuals or objects.
a) Sample
b) Sampling
c) Variable
d) Population
239. A characteristic of a sample (a)
a) Static
b) Parameter
c) Data
d) Mean

240. A characteristic of a population (a)

a) Parameter
b) Data
c) Mean
d) Static
241. A list or other representation of elements in a population from which (c)
sample is selected
a) Sampling error
b) Sampling
c) Sampling frame
d) Population
242. Samples are virtually never identical to their parent populations (c)
a) Sampling frame
b) Population
c) Sampling error
d) Sampling
243. A master list of the population (total or partial) from which the sample (c)
will be drawn
a) Sampling error
b) Sampling

42
 c) Sampling frame
d) Population
244. The degree to which the sample frame fails to account for all of the (a)
defined units in the population
a) Sample frame error
b) Sampling
c) Sampling frame
d) Population
245. A representative part of the population selected for study. (d)
a) Sample frame error
b) Sampling
c) Sampling frame
d) Sample

246. To get maximum information about the population with limited time, (b)
cost and resources
a) Sample frame error
b) Sampling
c) Sampling frame
d) Sample
247. The difference between sample and its population (a)
a) Sampling error
b) Sampling
c) Sampling frame
d) Population
248. The difference between parameter value and the sample estimate of a (c)
character which occurs when sampling is done from a population
a) Sampling frame
b) Population
c) Sampling error
d) Sampling
249. The magnitude of sampling error depends upon the nature of (d)
a) Sample
b) Sampling

43
 c) Sampling frame
d) Population
250. The more homogeneous population, the smaller is the (a)
a) Sampling error
b) Sampling frame
c) Sample
d) Sampling
251. Population (N) is 3000 and Sampling list is1800, the sample frame (a)
error (in %) will be.
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 30%
d) 20%

252. A relative frequency of an event occurring, usually reported as (b)

fraction or a percentage
a) Proportion
b) Probability
c) Mean
d) Average
253. Probability of 0.05 means that out of every 100 times outcomes an (b)
event is likely to occur
a) 100 times
b) 5 times
c) 1 time
d) 0.5 time
254. To select a set of 10 subjects at random from a population, (a)
A population numbered
a) 1 to 99
b) 1 to 11
c) 11 to 99
d) 1 to 100
255. The size of parent population from which the sample is to be drawn (a)
must be known to investigator in
a) Probability Sampling
b) Non Probability Sampling

44
 c) Purposive Sampling
d) Deliberate Sampling
256. To select proportional random sample of 100 units from Population (N) (a)
2200 units, where strata n1= 880, n2 = 770, and n4=550. The sample
from each strata will be respectively
a) 40,35 and 25
b) 30,50 and 20
c) 20,25 and 55
d) 45,30 and 25
257. The number units will be selected by systematical sampling method (b)
nd
if, N=50 and n=10 and starting with 6 unit
a) 10
b) 09
c) 11
d) 05
258. Sampling method in which each elements in the population has an (d)
equal and independent chance of being selected
a) Stratified random sampling
b) Cluster Sampling
c) Non Probability Sampling
d) Simple random sampling
259. A sampling strategy where the population of interest is divided into (b)
representative "bunch" of individuals, among whom a random
selection of subjects is drawn
a) Stratified random sampling
b) Cluster Sampling
c) Non Probability Sampling
d) Simple random sampling
260. Heterogeneous population is first divided into homogeneous two or (b)
more subclass
a) Cluster Sampling
b) Stratified random sampling
c) Non Probability Sampling
d) Simple random sampling
261. There should be great homogeneity within each stratum and great (b)
difference between the strata
a) Cluster Sampling

45
 b) Stratified random sampling
c) Non Probability Sampling
d) Simple random sampling
262. Samples are drawn from each stratum with certain fixed quantity or (c)
sampling ratio.
a) Cluster Sampling
b) Stratified random sampling
c) Probability proportional Sampling
d) Simple random sampling
263. Sampling units are not individual elements of the universe, but are in (a)
groups of elements
a) Cluster Sampling
b) Stratified random sampling
c) Non Probability Sampling
d) Simple random sampling
264. Items for sampling are selected deliberately (b)
a) Probability Sampling
b) Non Probability Sampling
c) cluster sampling
d) Stratified random sampling
265. People tend to make the selection at familiar locations and to choose (d)
respondents who are like themselves
c) Probability Sampling
d) Convenience Sampling
c) judgment sampling
d) Quota Sampling
266. The science of collecting and analyzing numerical data (b)
a) Research
b) Statistics
c) Geometric compilation
d) Scientific scrutiny
267. Parameter estimated when proportion of products which are closed to (a)
the norm
a) Central tendency
b) Probability
c) Variability

46
 d) Mean
268. Parameter estimated when range of sizes occurring (c)
a) Central tendency
b) Probability
c) Variability
d) Mean
269. Parameter estimated when the proportion of accepted products (b)
produced
a) Central tendency
b) Probability
c) Variability
d) Mean
270. The characteristic which cannot be measured numerically (b)
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Continuous
d) Discrete
271. The characteristic which can be measured in terms of magnitude (a)
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Continuous
d) Discrete
272. The character which takes only integer values or whole value and a (d)
definite gap between two values
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Continuous
d) Discrete
273. The quantity which can take only any numerical value within a certain (c)
range
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Continuous
d) Discrete
274. Data tend to be in the dichotomous form (a)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal

47
 c) Interval
d) Ratio
275. Data can be displayed in the form of set of steps (b)
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
276. Data is collected from background reading, access to written records, (b)
audio disks, CD, video, computer sources, letters and drawing so on.
a) Primary Data
b) Secondary Data
c) Qualitative Data
d) Quantitative Data

277. Data collected from survey, observation and interview (a)

a) Primary Data
b) Secondary Data
c) Qualitative Data
d) Quantitative Data
278. A series of written questions a researcher supplies to subjects, (b)
requesting their response
a) Interview
b) Questionnaire
c) Telephone
d) Mail
279. Two-way systematic conversation between an investigator and an (a)
informant
a) Interview
b) Questionnaire
c) Telephone
d) Mail
280. Obtain detailed information about personal feelings, perceptions and (a)
opinions
a) Interview
b) Questionnaire
c) Telephone
d) Mail

48
281. The most commonly used method in a social survey is (b)
a) Observation
b) Interview
c) Questionnaire
d)Case study
282. Interview is the widely used technique in
a) Local studies
b) Public studies
c) Empirical studies
d) Non-scientific studies
283. The Interview type where conversation are informal and the
interviewee determines the subjects for discussion
a) Direct observation
b) Project test
c) Unstructured Interview
d) Structured Interview
284. Which among the following is the main disadvantage of mailed a)
questionnaire
a) Dishonest response
b) Low return rate
c) Time consuming and costly
d) Postal lose
285. Built around an already prepared interview schedule (a)
a) Structured interview
b) Semi-structured interview
c) In-depth interview, and
d) Focused group discussion

286. Indirect methods of Interviewing (a)

a) Projective Techniques
b) Mail Survey
c) Panel Method
D) Questionnaire

287. An enquiry into the composition, activities and living conditions of a (b)
group of people

49
 a) Field survey
b) Social survey
c) Experiment
d) Interview
288. The same sample is interviewed two or more times from the (a)
population
a) Panel study
b) Cross sectional study
c) Field study
d) Trend study
289. Two or more different samples of people are drawn at a different (d)
times from the same population
a) Panel study
b) Cross sectional study
c) Field study
d) Trend study
290. The method of collecting data involves using a schedule coupled with (a)
personal
d) Interview
e) Questioner
f) Telephone
g) Mail
291. Emphasis detail contextual analysis of a limited number of events or (b)
conditions and their relationship.
a) Field Study
b) Case Study
c) Panel Study
Social Survey
292. Methods involve in-depth, longitudinal examination of a single (b)
instance or event
a) Field Study
b) Case Study
c) Panel Study
d) Social Survey
293. Describe a domain, use one or two instance to analyse the situation (a)
a) Illustrative case studies

50
 b) Exploratory case studies
c) Critical instance case studies
d) Prospective case studies
294. Involves the examination of a situation of a unique interest, with little (c)
or no interest in generalizability
a) Illustrative case studies
b) Exploratory case studies
c) Critical instance case studies
d) Prospective case studies
295. Collecting information across studies done in the past, or a (b)
perspective outlook, structuring a series of investigations for different
times in the future.
a) Exploratory case study
b) Prospective case study
c) Cumulative case study
d) Embedded case study
296. Means to what extent the tool selected measures correctly and what it (b)
is supposed to measure.
a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Authenticity
d) Accuracy
297. Means to what extent the tool is accurate and stable in measuring a (a)
given variable
a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Authenticity
d) Accuracy
298. a research tool used to determine the presence of certain words or (b)
concepts within texts or sets of texts
a) Scale measurement
b) Content analysis
c) Item analysis
d) Level measurement
299. a research technique for the objective, systematic, and quantitative (a)
description of manifest content of communications
51
 a) Bernard Berelson
b) A.D. Bowley
c) Boddington
d) Kerlinger
300. A process of analyzing, understanding ,appreciating and consolidating (b)
the findings and project the meaningful and logical view of the
phenomenon studied
a) Research articles
b) Report writing
c) Summary report
d) Conclusion
301. Focus on major finding, their elucidation in simple and clear language. (c)
a) Research articles
b) Report writing
c) Summary report
d) Conclusion
302. An effort to narrate the total research process and experience. (c)
a) Research articles
b) Summary
c) Research report
d) Conclusion
303. different facets of a research problem in a more detailed fashion (a)
emphasizing the methodology adopted related to the specific
objectives
a) Research articles
b) Report writing
c) Summary report
d) Conclusion
304. a planning of scientific information systematically, organizing skillfully (b)
and putting it in a logical sequence
a) Research articles
b) Scientific report writing
c) Presentation
d) Conclusion
305. contains relevant, adequate and logically arranged scientific (b)

52
 information presented in a specific format
a) Research articles
b) Scientific Report
c) Presentation
Conclusion
306. All published and unpublished documents referred to in the report (b)
a) Review of literature
b) Bibliography
c) Source of documents
d) Publication
307. The details regarding the different methods, procedures, statistical (a)
techniques of analysis and design used for the study
a) Methods
a) Methodology
b) Material
c) Tools
308. A statement of facts based on the systematically analyzed and (a)
tabulated data statement of facts based on the systematically
analyzed and tabulated data
a) Result
b) Summary
c) Conclusion
d) Interpretation
309. an explanation or justification to the outcome obtained on the basis of (c)
experiences and past research
a) Conclusion
b) Summary
c) Discussion
d)Interpretation
310. The significant findings of the study, indicate probable usefulness for (a)
planning future work related to the study
a) Implication
b) Interpretation
c) Introduction
d) Explanation

53
311. Provides a place for material that is complimentary to the text. tables (a)
with too many details for text presentation, forms and questionnaires
used for data collection
a) Appendix
b) Questioner
c) Result
d) Material and methods
312. Coefficient of variation cannot find a place in interval level of
measurement because of the problem in:
a) Standard Deviation
b) Mean
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
313. The first psychological test constructed was:
a) Binet-Simon intelligence scale
b) Army Alpha test
c) Thorndike Handwriting scale
d) Woodworths scale
314. The chance for guessing from a two alternative item is: (c)

a) 100 per cent b) 75 per cent

c) 50 per cent d) 25 per cent

315. A branch of applied mathematics and is concerned with observational (a)
data
a) Statistics
b) Applied study
c) Research
d) Mathematics
316. Does not study individual (a)
a) Statistics
b) Applied study
c) Research
d) Mathematics
317. It is a study of population, variation and the methods for reduction of (a)
the data
a) R.A. Fisher
b) A.D. Bowley
c) Boddington
54
 d) Kerlinger
318. Qualitative characteristics of an individual which shows variability (b)
a) Variable
b) Attribute
c) Consistency
d) Insistency
319. Intelligence test by judging candidates interview (a)
a) Ranking or scoring
b) Rating
c) Judging
d) Finding
320. A measure of central value (a)
a) Median
b) Standard deviation
c) Mean deviation
d) Quartile deviation
321. If a constant value 50 is subtracted from each observation of a set, (b)
the mean of the series is
a) Increased by 50
b) Decreased by 50
c) Is not affected
d) Zero
322. The average of the sum of squares of the deviations about mean is (a)
called
a) Variance
b) Absolute deviation
c) Standard deviation
d) Mean deviation
323. Which of the following is unit less measure of dispersion? (c)
a) Standard deviation
b) Mean deviation
c) Coefficient of Variation
d) Range
324. The value of coefficient of correlation varies from (b)
a) 0.0to 1.0

55
 b) -1.0 to +1.0
c) 1.0 to 10.0
d) 10.0 to 100.0
325. Who is considered as father of statistics? (a)
(a) R. A. Fisher
(b) Pearson
(c) AL Bowley
(d) Boddington

326. The hypothesis of no difference is known as : (b)

a) Simple hypothesis
b) Null hypothesis
c) Composite hypothesis
d) Alternative hypothesis

327. The R rank correlation was suggested by: (c)

(a) James Bernoulli
(b) SD Poisson
(c) C Spearman
(d) Laplace and Gauss

328. To conduct an experiment on a long strip of land, the design preferred (d)
is.
(a) RBD
(b) CRD
(c) SPD
(d) LSD
329. The full form of PRA is:
(a) Participatory revolution in agriculture (c)
(b) Predicting rural agriculture
(c ) Participatory rural appraisal
(d) None of these
330. Data can be produced by closed questions (a)
a) Structured
56
 b) Unstructured
c) Qualitative
d) Quantitative
331. Data can be produced by open questions (b)
a) Structured
b) Unstructured
c) Qualitative
d) Quantitative
332. A technique from statistical interference that allows us to deal with (a)
several populations.
a) ANOVA
b) Mean
c) Standard deviation
d) Average
333. The test allows us to consider the parameters of several populations (a)
at once,
a) ANOVA
b) Mean
c) Standard deviation
d) Average
334. Allows breaking up the group according to the grade and then seeing (a)
if performance is different across these grades.
a) ANOVA
b) Mean
c) Standard deviation
d) Average
335. ANOVA is available for score or interval data as (a)
a) Parametric
b) Non-parametric
c) Categorical
d) Chi-square
336. Is used when you have rank or ordered data (b)
a) Parametric
b) Non-parametric
c) Categorical
d) Chi-square
337. Is about interaction rather than about differences between groups. (d)
a) Parametric

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 b) Non-parametric
c) Categorical
d) Chi-square
338. Provides a mechanism for making quantitative decisions about a (d)
process or processes.
a) Mathematics test
b) Aptitude test
c) Skill test
d) statistical test
339. The end goal is simply to find a number that expresses the relation (a)
between the variables
a) Correlation
b) Regression
c) Path analysis
d) “t” test

340. The end goal is use the measure of relation to predict values of the (b)
random variable based on values of the fixed variable
a) Correlation
b) Regression
c) Path analysis
d)“t” test
341. The term is used when both variables are random variables (a)
a) Correlation
b) Regression
c) Path analysis
d)“t” test
342. The term is used when one of the variables is a fixed variable (b)
a) Correlation
b) Regression
c) Path analysis
d)“t” test
343 Scientific reports that use qualitative research methods may be (b)
that the form outlined above.
a) Less formally Structured

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 b) More formally Structured
c) Both A & B
d) None of the Above
344 It consists of a series of techniques for "quick and dirty" research that (a)
are claimed to generate results of less apparent precision, but greater
evidential value, than classic quantitative survey techniques.
a) Rapid Rural Appraisal
b) Participatory rural appraisal
c) Participatory learning appraisal
d) Participatory technical appraisal.
345 PRA approach was developed (c)
a) in early 1970s
b) in early 1980s
c) in early 1990s
d) in late 1990s
346 It combines an ever-growing toolkit of participatory and visual (d)
methods with natural interviewing techniques and is intended to
facilitate a process of collective analysis and learning.
a) PRA
b) RRA
c) PTA
d) PLA
347 RRA is a social science approach that emerged (a)
a) in late 1970s
b) in early 1980s
c) in early 1990s
d) in late 1990s
348 PRA villagers and local officials in the process. (a)
a) closely involve
b) less involve
c) make conflict among
d) make dominancy
349 It is an approach for learning about and engaging with communities. (d)
a) PRA
b) RRA

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 c) PTA
d) PLA
350 In fact, PRA is a shift from - (b)
a) Experience sharing by local people to extractive survey
questionnaires,
b) Extractive survey questionnaires to experience
sharing by local people,
c) Extractive survey questionnaires to direct interviewing
the local people,
d) Extractive survey questionnaires to experience sharing
by village leaders,

351 The purpose of the data analysis and interpretation phase is to (d)
transform the data collected into about the
development of the intervention and its performance.
a) satisfying evidence
b) valid evidence
c) no credible evidence
d) credible evidence
352 The use of evaluative adjectives render as a powerful tool to (d)
measure attitudes in terms of the favourable-unfavourable dimension-
a) Likert scale.
b) Thurstone scale.
c) Guttmann Scale.
d) Semantic Differentials

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