SOLUTIONS

TEST SERIES-NEET [(4+1)(4+1)(+10)]

PART TEST - XI/01 TEST CODE : PT - XI/01

PART - I : PHYSICS 6. (3)

1. (3) Heat, Q = mL where, L = latent heat 7. (4)
8. (2) Coefficient of static friction depends on the nature of
Q ML2T -2 surfaces in contact.
\ L= = = M 0 L2 T -2
m M F MLT -2
9. (2) (A) Surface Tension = = = MT–2
Total Displacement x + x l L
2. (3) Average velocity, v = = = Kgs–2
Total time taken t1 + t 2 -2
F MLT
2x æ x x ö (B) Pressure = = = Kgm–1s–2
Þv= çQ t1 = and t 2 = ÷ A L2
x x è v1 v2 ø F MLT -2
+ =
v1 v2 (C) Viscosity =
æ dV ö æ LT -1 ö
Aç ÷ L2 ç ÷
2v1v 2 1 1 2 è dz ø
Þv= Þ + = è L ø
v1 + v 2 v1 v 2 v = ML–1 T–1 = Kg m–1 s–1
3. (2) Co-efficient of friction (m) depends on surface in
contact so, depends on material of object. (D) Impulse = ò Fdt T–2 × T
= MLT
4. (4) The given situation is shown below. = MLT–1 = Kg ms–1
A acceleration B uniform C deceleration D 10. (3) According to the figure shown,
velocity
(m2 + m3) g – T¢ = (m2 + m3) a ...(i)
For motion of car from A to B,
a = 0.5 ms–2 and T¢ – m1g = m1a ...(ii)
5 Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
v = 18 × ms–1 = 5 ms–1
18 æ m + m3 - m1 ö
a =ç 2 g ...(iii)
Time, t1 =
v-u è m 2 + m3 + m1 ÷ø
a
5-0
Þ t1 = = 10s
0.5
For motion of car from B to C,
s = 4 km = 4000 m and v = 5 ms–1 a a
distance 4000 T' T'
t2 = = = 800s
velocity 5
For motion of car from C to D, m1 A B m2
v = 0, u = 5 ms–1 and a = – 0.2 ms–2 (negative sign shows T
deceleration) C m3
v-u 0-5 Between B and C,
Time taken, t 3 = = = 25s
a -0.2
m3g – T = m3a
Total time taken, T = t1 + t2 + t3
Þ T = (10 + 800 + 25) s = 835 s Þ T = m3 (g – a) ...(iv)
5. (2) As the lift moving down with acceleration a, the force On substituting the value of a from Eqs. (iii) to (iv),
exerted by the floor on the man 2m1m3
N = mg – ma = m(g – a) T= ´g
m1 + m 2 + m3
= (60 kg) (9.8 m s–2 – 1.8 m s–2)
2´2´2
= (60 kg) (8.0 m s–2) = 480 N Þ T= ´ 9.8 = 13.3 N
2+ 2+ 2
2 NEET PT - XI/01

11. (3) As we know, the velocity of light in free space is Here n = number of bullets fired per second
given by F 125
1 1 \n = = = 50
\ = c2 mv 10 ´ 10-3 ´ 250
c= m e
mo eo 0 0 16. (3) Speed, V = constant (from question)
1 V2 1
2 2 –1 2 0 2 –2 Centripetal acceleration, a = Þaµ
mo eo = c [m/s] = [LT ] = [M L T ] r r
1
Hence graph (3) correctly describes relation between
12. (1) Least count, L.C. = mm acceleration and radius.
100
Diameter of wire = MSR + CSR × L.C. u2
17. (2) Range, R = sin 2q
Q 1 mm = 0.1 cm g
1 For maximum range, sin (2q) = 1 Þ q = 45°
= 0+ × 52 = 0.52 mm = 0.052 cm 1 2
100 18. (4) From equation of motion, s = ut + gt
13. (1) Planck’s constant, h = E/n [h] = ML2T–1 2
h h 1 2
Angular Momentum, L = mvr [L] = ML2T–1 For first , = gt1 …(i)
2 2 2
momentum, P = mv [P] = MLT–1 For total height h,
Moment of force, t = F ´ r^ Þ [t] = ML2T–2 1
h = g(t1 + t 2 )2 …(ii)
(Here h is Planck's constant, L is angular momentum, P is 2
linear momentum and t is moment of force) 1 t12
Divide equation (ii) by (i) we have =
14. (4) For projectile A, 2 (t1 + t 2 )2
1 t t
uA = 1 ; 1+ 2 = 2
uy = uA cos45º = , H = –400m 2 t1 + t 2 t1
2
t1 1
= Þ t 2 = ( 2 - 1) t1
1 2 æ uA ö 1 t2 2 -1
\ H = uy t – gt Þ – 400 = çè ÷ø t – ×10 t2 19. (4) A = 7 × 5.29 = 37.03 cm2
2 2 2
The result should have three significant figures, so
æ uA ö A = 37.0 cm2
Þ5t2 – çè ÷ t – 400 = 0 r
2ø 20. (1) u = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj Þ ux = 3 and uy = 4
r
a = 0.4iˆ + 0.3 ˆj Þ ax = 0.4 and ay = 0.3
æ u ö
-ç- A ÷ So, Vx = ux + axt = 3 + 0.4 × 10 = 3 + 4 = 7
è 2ø uA
\ Time of flight = t1 + t2 = = ...(i) Vy = uy + ayt = 4 + 0.3 × 10 = 4 + 3 = 7
2´5 10 2 r r
V = 7iˆ + 7 ˆj Þ | V | = 72 + 7 2 = 7 2 units
For projetile B ur ur
21. (3) Resultant of two vector A and B having angle q
uB
uy = uB cos 60º = , H = – 400 m between them R' = A 2 + B 2 + 2AB cos q
2
It is given A = B = R
1 æ uB ö 1
\ H = uy t – gt2 Þ – 400 = çè 2 ÷ø – ×10 × t2 \ R' = R 2 + R 2 + 2R 2 cos q
2 2
æ uB ö q q
= R 2 1 + cos q = 2R 2 cos 2
= 2Rcos
Þ 5t2 – çè ÷ø t – 400 = 0 2 2
2
22. (3) When the inclined surface is accelerated towards the
æ u ö
-ç - A ÷ right, the block experience a pseudo force ma towards left.
è 2 ø uB
\ Time of flight = t1+ t2 = = ...(ii) ma
g cos
2´5 20 N
From equation (i) and (ii) a a
uA u a a
= B \ uA: uB = 1: 2 mg cosa
+ ma sina mg mg sin a
10 2 20
15. (2) Given, mass of each bullets, m = 10g For block to remain stationary, Net force along the incline
Speed of each bullets, v = 250 m/s should be zero.
Force F = n m v mg sin a = ma cos a Þ a = g tan a
NEET PT - XI/01 3

23. (3) A. Distance of the object between t = 0 s to t = 2 s. 26. (1) V = 200 V, DV = 5V

= Area under v - t graph I = 20 A, DI = 0.2 A
1 V
= ×2×4=4m R=
2 I
B. a = slope of graph Using error analysis
DR DV DI DR 5 0.2 7
0-4 = + Þ = + =
= = -2 m/s 2 R V I R 200 20 200
2-0
DR 7
C. For t = 0 s to t = 4s, \ % error = × 100 = × 100 = 3.5%
R 200
Displacement = Area under v - t curve t = 0 s to t = 2 27. (3)
s + Area under v - t curve mv 2
28. (3) Centripetal force, F = Þ v2 µ r (For same m & F)
(t = 2 s to t = 4 s) r
1 1 v1 r1 3
= ´ 2 ´ 4 + ´ 2 ´ ( -4) Þ = = [Q r1 : r2 = 3 : 4]
2 2 v2 r2 2
= 4 m + (– 4 m) = 0 29. (4) Given : y = ax – bx2
D. For t = 0 s to t = 4 s, 1 gx 2
Comparing it with y = x tan q - , we get
Distance covered = Area under v - t curve 2 u 2 cos 2 q
tan q = a
considering all areas as positive.
i.e., q = tan–1a
= Area under v - t curve For maximum height, maximum value of y
(t = 0 s to t = 2 s) dy d (a x - b x 2 )
=0Þ = 0 Þ a – 2bx = 0
+ Area under v - t curve dx dx
(t = 2 s to t = 4 s) a
\ x=
=4m+4m=8m 2b
24. (1) æ a ö æ a2 ö æ a2 ö æ a2 ö a2
T \ y = ç 2b ÷ - bçç 2 ÷÷ Þ ç
a ÷-ç ÷Þ
è ø è 4b ø ç ÷ ç ÷
30° T è 2b ø è 4b ø 4b
2
T sin 60° a
60° So, Hmax =
F 4b
Hence option (4) is correct answer.
3g
30. (2) For pressure term

é a ù 2
From the free body diagram shown above, [P] = ê 2 ú Þ [a] = [PV ]
ëV û
3g 3 ´10 And volume, [V] = [b]
T sin 60° = 3g \T = =
sin 60° 3 2
Þ T = 20 N [a] [PV 2 ]
\ Dimensions of = = [P]
25. (1) The trajectory of projectile projected. From the [b 2 ] [V 2 ]
ground is given by
31. (3) Let L be the length of escalator.
x2 L
y= x- Speed of man w.r.t escalator = = v1
20 t1
For maximum height, L
Speed of escalator = = v2
dy 2x t2
= 0 Þ1- =0 \ x = 10
dx 20 Time taken when escalator is moving and man is also
Hence, the maximum height attained by the projectile, walking on it
100 L 1 v + v2 1 1 t t
ymax = 10 - = 5m =t= Þ = 1 = + Þt= 1 2
20 v1 + v2 t L t1 t 2 t1 + t 2
4 NEET PT - XI/01

32. (1) The given situation is shown in the diagram. Here vr 1 2

be the velocity of rain drop. 39. (1) Using s = ut + at
2
1
s1 = a(p - 1) 2
2
1 2
s2 = ap [Qu = 0, t1 = (p – 1), t2 = p]
2
1 1
Displacement = s1 + s2 = a[(p – 1)2 + p2] = at2
2 2
\ t = (2p 2 - 2p + 1) s
40. (4) Let a1 be the acceleration when it slide down smooth
When car is moving with speed v,
incline plane.
v
tan 60° = r ...(i) Then, a1 = g sin q = g / 2
v
Let a2 be the acceleration when it slide down rough inclined
When car is moving with speed (1 + b)v, plane
vr g mk g
tan 45° = ...(ii) Then, a2 = g sin q – mkg cos q = –
(b + 1)v 2 2
Dividing (i) by (ii) we get, Let 't1' be the time taken when it slide down smooth surface
and 't2' be the time taken when it slide down rough surface.
3v = (b + 1)v Þ b = 3 - 1 = 0.732.
1 2 1 2
33. (2) Given t2 = nt1 & a1t1 = a 2 t 2
density, r µ Fa Vb Tc 2 2
[ML–3] = [MLT–2]a [LT–1]b [T]c = [MaLa+b T–2a–b+c] 1 g 2 1æ g m gö 1
Þ 2 t1 = ç – k ÷ n 2 t12 Þ m = 1 –
Comparing powers 2 2è 2 2 ø k
n2
a = 1, 41. (4) v2
a + b = –3, Þ b = –4,
– 2a – b + c = 0 Þ –2 + 4 + c = 0 v1
q
Þ c = –2
34. (2) Since, the magnitude and angle between the vectors v2
are unchanged, so the magnitude of the resultant R will v1
be same. However, the direction of R will get changed. (p - q)
|V |
35. (3) Clearly, tan 45° = rm - v1
| Vm |
Þ rmV = V Change in velocity,
m

30
2 | Dv | = v12 + v 22 + 2v1 v 2 cos ( p – q )
Þ Vrm = 15 2 ´ = km/hr.. q r r
2 2 = 2vsin (Q| v1 | = | v 2 |) = v
36. (2) In an expression a × 10b 2
1
if a £ 5 then order for the given expression is b = (2 × 10) × sin(30°) = 2 × 10 × = 10 m/s
a > 5 then order for the given expression is b + 1 2
2 -2
displacement é kt ù é kt ù ML T
37. (3) Average velocity = 42. (3) As ê ú = 1 [b ] = ê ú = = MLTT –2
time interval ë bx û ëxû L
A particle moving in a given direction with non-zero [Q [ E ] = [ k BT ]]
velocity cannot have zero speed. [a ]
In general, average speed is not equal to magnitude of Now, [P] = \ [ a] = [ P ][b] = MLT
T–2
[b]
average velocity. However, it can be so if the motion is x 3 y2
along a straight line without change in direction. 43. (1) Q =
z
38. (1) n1u1 = n2u2 The percentage error in the quantity Q is
kg 50g
128 3
= n2 DQ æ Dx Dy Dz ö
m (25 cm)3 ´100 = ç 3 +2 + ÷ ´100
Q è x y z ø
1000 gm 50 gm
Þ 128 ´ = n2 Þ n2 = 40 units
(100 cm) 3
(25 cm)3 = 3 × 1% + 2 × 2% + 4% = 11%
NEET PT - XI/01 5

44. (4) The static friction comes into play, the moment there 49. (1) When block is just about to move up
is an applied force. As the applied force increases, static
F1 = mg sin 45º + mmg cos 45º
friction also increases, remaining equal and opposite to
the applied force upto a certain limit. But if the applied mg
force increases so much, it overcomes the static friction = (1 + m)
2
and the body starts moving.
45. (2) Force = mass × acceleration When block is just about to move down
\ F = (m + m + m) × a F2 = mg sin 45º – mmg cos 45º
F = 3m × a
mg
F 10.2 = (1 - m)
Þa= Þa = m / s2 2
3m 6
As, F1 = 2F2
10.2
\ T2 = ma = 2 ´ = 3.4N mg mg
6 Þ (1 + m) = 2 (1 - m)
2 2
2 kg 2 kg 2 kg
F Þ 1 + m = 2 (1 – m) Þ 1 + m = 2 – 2m
T2
C B A
T2 T1 T1 1
Þ 3m = 1 Þ m = = 0.33
® ® ® ® 3
46. (3) Given | A+ B |=| A- B | ´2 50. (2) Optimum speed,
® ® ® ®
2 2
Þ| A+ B | =| A - B | ´4
v o = gR tan q = 28.1 ms -1
Þ 0 = 3|A|2 + 3|B|2 – |10|A||B| cos q
Þ 0 = 3|A|2 + 3|A|2 – |10|A|2 cos q Þ |10|A|2 cos q = 6 |A|2 gR ( ms + tan15°)
3 and v max =
1 - ms tan15°
Þ cos q =
5
m 9.8 ´ 300 ( 0.2 + 0.27 )
47. (3) Density, r = =
V 1 - 0.2 ( 0.27 )
Dr m Dm Dr Dl = 38.1 ms–1
Þ = = +2 +
r max pr 2l m r l PART-II : CHEMISTRY
0.01 2 ( 0.03) 0.04 51. (1) Atomic mass of oxygen
= + +
0.4 6 8 (99.763 ´ 15.995) + (0.037 ´ 16.999) + (0.200 ´ 17.999 )
=
æ Dr ö æ 1 6 4ö 100
% error in density = çè r ø÷ ´ 100% = çè + + ÷%
0.4 6 8 ø = 15.999 u
= (2.5 + 1 + 0.5) % = 4% 52. (2) Molarity have volume that changes with temperature
1 53. (4) SnCl2 SnCl4
48. (4) Using H = gt 2 Þ 2 H g = t 2 119 : 2 × 35.5 119 : 4 × 35.5
2
9.8 ´ 2 2 Chlorine ratio in both compounds is
Þ =t Þt = 2s = 2 × 35.5 : 4 × 35.5 = 1 : 2
9.8
Hence, follows the Laws of multiple proportions.
For first drop, t = 0; For second drop, t = Dt
54. (2) 2g of H2 means one mole of H2, hence contains
For third drop, t = 2Dt
6.023 × 1023 molecules. Others have less than one mole,
Let h be the distance travelled by second drop when third
drop begins to fall so have less no. of molecules.
1 55. (3) The mass of 1 mole of C-12 atoms = 12g
1
( ) 1
( )
2 2
\ h = g 2 - Dt Þ 0 = g 2 - Dt Þ Dt = 1 mole of C-12 atoms = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
2 2 2
1 æ 1 ö
2
1 1 9.8 12
\ h = gç 2 - The mass of 1 atom of C-12 =
÷ = ´ 9.8 ´ = = 2.45m 6.022 ´ 1023
2 è 2ø 2 2 4
Height of second drop from floor, Þ 1.99 × 10–23g.
56. (3) 1st Method:
H – h = 9.8 – 2.45 = 7.35 m
Given, formula of first oxide is XO2 means one mole of
X = 2 mole of oxygen in the first oxide.
6 NEET PT - XI/01

For second Oxide,

40% of (X), we have 60% of oxygen i.e., N 2 + 3H 2 ¾¾® 2NH 3
1 mole 3 mole
For 40% of (X). We have 2 ´ 60% of oxygen. 28 g 6g
\ For 100% of (X) (i.e., one mole) we have, \ For 56 g of N2, 12 g of H2 is required and thus, here, H2
is limiting reagent.
2 ´ 60 62. (3)
= 3 moles of oxygen.
40
Element % Relative no. Simplest ratio
\ Formula of second oxide is = XO3 of atoms of atoms
2nd Method:
C 49.3 49.3/2 = 4.1 4.1/2.74 = 1.5
In XO2, X : O : : 50 : 50
1.5 ´ 2 = 3
Mass of oxygen = 2 ´ 16 = 32 g
H 6.84 6.84/1 = 6.84 6.84/2.74 = 2.5
Hence, mass of X = 32 g
2.5 ´ 2 = 5
In XOn, X : O : : 40 : 60
O 43.86 43.86/16 = 2.74 2.74/2.74 = 2.5
Mass of X, in this case also remains = 32 g
1´2=2
40% º 32 g
\ Empirical formula = C3H5O2
32 Empirical formula mass
60% º ´ 60 = 48 g
40 = (3 × 12) + (5 × 1) + (2 × 16) = 36 + 5 + 32 = 73
Mass of oxygen = 48 g molecular mass
n= = 146/73 = 2
48 empirical formula mass
Þ n= =3
16 Molecular formula = Empirical formula × 2
Formula of oxide = XO3 = (C3H5O2) × 2 = C6H10O4
57. (1) Both statement I and II are correct. 63. (1) Microwaves have the lowest energy with the
58. (2) CaCO3 + 2HCl —® CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O wavelength of 6 × 106 Å. X-rays have the highest energy
100 g/mol 36.5 g/mol with the wavelength of nearly 0.1 Å.
Considering a complete reaction, 64. (2) KE = hv – hv0
100g of CaCO3 reacts with 2 × 36.5 g of HCl Kinetic energy of ejected electron,
65. (3) The correct SI unit of frequency (n) , wavelength (l)
2 ´ 36.5 ´ 200
\ 200g of CaCO3 reacts with and wave number ( n ) is Hz, m, m–1 respectively..
100
= 146 g of HCl 66. (1) Number of electrons in Li+ = Number of electrons in
\ 146 g of HCl is available from 50% (w/w) HCl solution helium = 2.
67. (4) As we know
100
= ´ 146 = 292g of solution h é 1 ù
50 l= êQ E = mv 2 ú
59. (3) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q) mv ë 2 û
Moles of A needed to react completely with 1 mole of B = h h
l1 = ; l2 =
2 2mKE 4 mKE
(Hence B is limiting reagent)
3 l1 4m 2
= =
2 4 l2 2m 1
Moles of A left unreacted = 2 - =
3 3 The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength is 2 :1 .
1 2 68. (2) Among the given statements, statement (2) is
Moles of X formed = ; Mole of Y formed =
3 3 incorrectly described. The correct form is electron will
220 ´ 10 -3
move from a lower stationary state to a higher stationary
60. (2) Mole of 220 mg of CO2 = state when required amount of energy is absorbed.
44 69. (3) For multielectron atoms, the energy of the orbitals
= 5 × 10–3 moles;
increases with an increase in their (n + l) value.
6 ´ 1020 Thus, the order will be : 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d
Moles of CO2 removed are = = 10–3 moles 70. (2) Two angular nodes are found in d-orbital.
6 ´ 1023
Remaining moles of CO2 = [5 × 10–3 – 10–3] Number of radial nodes = (n – l – 1)
= 4 × 10–3 moles for 3d : n = 3, l = 2
61. (1) According to the stoichiometry of balanced equation \ Number of angular nodes = l = 2
28 g N2 react with 6 g H2. Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1 = 3 – 2 – 1 = 0
NEET PT - XI/01 7

71. (2) Magnetic quantum no. represents the orientation of 84. (3) In isoelectronic species
atomic orbitals in an atom. For example px, py & pz have Greater the charge on cation smaller is the size of cation.
orientation along X-axis, Y-axis & Z-axis respectively. Hence, Si4+ has the smaller size.
72. (4) Magnetic quantum number determines the 85. (1) Acidic character of oxide µ Non-metallic nature of
orientation of the orbital. element.
73. (1) The possible quantum numbers for 4f electron are Non-metallic character increases along the period. Hence
1 order of acidic character is
n = 4, l = 3, m = – 3, –2 –1, 0, 1 , 2 , 3 and s = ±
2 Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10.
Of various possiblities only option (1) is possible. 86. (1) Electronegativity of H (2.2) » P(2.1), Be (1.57) » Al
74. (1) For principal quantum number n (1.61), N (3.0) » Cl (3.1)
l = 0 to (n – 1) and m = – l to l including zero. 28
75. (2) A– (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) 87. (4) (A) : 28g of He = = 7 mol
4
(A) For nodes: | y2 | is zero because | y2 | represents the
46
region where probability of electron finding is zero. (B) : 46g of Na = = 2 mol
(B) Subsidiary quantum number: It is also called 23
azimuthal quantum number (l). The values of (l) gives 60
(C) : 60g of Ca = = 1.5 mol
three dimensional shapes of orbitals. 40
(C) White light: When white light is passed through a 27
prism which causes dispersion of light and gives (D) : 27g of Al = = 1 mol
27
continuous spectrum. When energy waves are so close 88. (1) The I.E. increases from left to right as the radius of
to each other they appear as continuous spectrum. the atoms gradually decreases along a period. Li, Be, B, N
(D) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle: Significant only are in 2nd period. Since, Be has the completely filled 2s
for motion of microscopic objects, because, according to orbital, it’s first I.E. is higher than B.
this principle, it is impossible to determine simultaneously, 89. (3) In a period, the value of ionisation potential increases
the exact position and exact momentum (or velocity) of an from left to right with breaks where the atoms have
electron. somewhat stable configuration. In this case, N has half-
76. (1) The electronic configuration of Rubidium (Rb = 37) filled stable orbitals. Hence, it has highest ionisation
is energy. Thus, the correct order is :
1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p6 3d 10 4s 2 4 p 6 5s1 B< C<O <N
90. (4) According to Bohr’s atomic model
Since last electron enters in 5s orbital
1 n2
Hence n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = ± rµ 3rd orbit of Li2+ n1 = 3
2 z
77. (4) The electron can move only in those circular orbits z1 = 3
where the angular momentum of a electron is whole Þ 2nd orbit of He+ n2 = 2
h z2 = 2
number multiple of or it is quantised.
2p (r3 ) n12 z2
Li +2 = ´
78. (4) y µ n2 (r2 ) n22 z1
He +
For 1st orbit y = 1
(r3 ) (3) 2 2
2 Li +2
For 3rd orbit = y µ 3 = 9 =
2
´
105.8 pm (2) 3
So it will be 9y.
79. (3) As we move down the group, the addition of shells (r3 )Li +2 = 158.7 pm
causes an increase in the covalent radii of the group 14
elements. 91. (4) Correct emprical formula is C2H4O.
Thus, Si < Ge < Sn. 92. (2) Ionic radii of isoelectronic ions decreases with
80. (1) Both statement I and II are correct. increase in the magnitude of nuclear charge. If the species
81. (1) There are five successive ionization energies means is positively charged, then it has less ionic radii. Therefore;
5 electrons are successively removed. Therefore, the the correct order of ionic radii is K+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+.
atomic no. of the element is 5. Also, the 4th ionization 93. (1) Li Be B
Na ] Mg ] Al Diagonal relationship
enerty is very high.
\ The element is ‘B’. 94. (4) Strongly electropositive metals form strongly basic
82. (1) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q) oxides that dissolve in water to give alkalis.
83. (4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect. Na2O has strongly electropositive Na-metal that forms
The correct form of Statement I is : In a period, 2nd NaOH in water which is a strong base.
ionisation energy of alkali metal is maximum.
8 NEET PT - XI/01

95. (2) On moving left to right in a period, the size of atom 119. (1) In basidiomycetes, karyogamy and meiosis takes
decreases and tendency to lose electrons will decrease place in basidium.
due to which metallic character also decreases. 120. (4)
96. (1) Enthalpy change accompanying when an electron is 121. (2) Diagram (A), (B) and (C) represents coccus, bacillus,
added to a gaseous atom in its ground state to convert it and tobacco mosaic virus respectively. Coccus is any
into a negative ion is called electron gain enthalpy. bacterium or archae that has a spherical, ovoid, or generally
It is a direct measure of the ease with which an atom round shape.
attracts an electron to form anion. Bacillus is a rod-shaped or cylindrical bacterium of the
X (g) + e– ¾® X– (g); genus Bacillus, comprising spore-producing bacteria.
97. (2) Due to small size of F atom, it has lower electron gain Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) is the most serious pathogen
enthalpy than that of Cl atom causing mosaic on tobacco leaves and is transmitted by
Order of increasing electron gain enthalpy artificial inoculation.
N < P < F < Cl 122. (4) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (3)
98. (2) Ability of an atom to attract the shared pair of 126. (2) The fungus, commonly known as bread mould is
electrons towards itself, is called electronegativity. Rhizopus.
Due to small size and seven electrons in its outermost 127. (1)
shell. Fluorine (F) shows highest electronegativity. 128. (3) Mycorrhiza represents mutualistic symbiosis
Hence, option (2) is the correct. between fungus and roots of higher plants. Fungus helps
99. (2) Oxides of B, P = acidic in absorption of minerals and water more efficiently and
Oxides of Be, Al = amphoteric protect plant roots from infection. Fungus also gets food
Oxides of Ca, Na = basic from plants.
100. (1) Energy of orbitals depend on the value of (n + l). In 129. (4) 130. (4)
case, this value is same then orbitals having higher n 131. (3) With respect to fungal sexual cycle, the correct
value must have more energy. i.e. A > C > B > D sequence of events is Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and
Meiosis.
PART-III : BOTANY 132. (4) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (4)
101. (3) 102. (4) 136. (4)
103. (3) Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more scientific 137. (2) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
basis of classification. 138. (3) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
104. (3) 139. (1) 140. (1)
105. (3) Among 5-Kingdom classification, eukaryotes are 141. (4) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
placed in 4 kingdom (except monera). 142. (3)
106. (1) 143. (4)
107. (3) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV In lichens, the algal component is called phycobiont and
108. (1) fungal component is known as mycobiont, which are
109. (1) Common features of Amoeba, Euglena, Paramecium autotrophic and heterotrophic respectively.
and Trypanosoma is being eukaryotic (all are unicellular Viroids contains RNA of low molecular weight and no
protists). protein coat.
110. (3) A virus contains either RNA or DNA.
111. (4) Viruses are obligatory parasites.
112. (2) Locomotory organs, parapodia is not found in 144. (1) Yeast produce ascospores, bacteria reproduces
protozoans. mostly by fission.
113. (1) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I 145. (4) Instead of the cell wall, euglenoids have a protein
114. (2) 115. (4) rich layer called pellicle which makes their body flexible.
116. (3) The given diagram is of bacteriophage (viruses that 146. (1) 147. (1)
infect the bacteria). They have tadpole-like structure, i.e., 148. (3) A – III; B – I; C –IV; D – II
with head and tail. Nucleic acid generally DNA is present 149. (1) Redwood tree Sequoia is the tallest gymnospermic
inside the head. Tail is having hollow core end is plant.
surrounded by tail sheath. At the end of tail, end plate is 150. (1)
present to which tail fibres are attached. PART-IV : ZOOLOGY
117. (3) Reproduction is not a defining property of any living
organisms. 151. (4) 152. (3)
118. (1) Statement A, C and E are correct. 153. (3) Frog’s heart is 3 chambered (2 auricles and single
Sphagnum is a moss and not a liverwort. Mosses are of ventricle).
great ecological importance. 154. (2) Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana are Ctenophores.
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155. (3) Statement B and C are incorrect. Each compound 176. (4) An external skeleton is not found in the phylum
eye of cockroach consists of about 2000 hexagonal Chordata.
ommatidia. Cockroaches are dioecious. 177. (4) 178. (2)
156. (2) 179. (2) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
157. (2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II 180. (3) Statocysts are present in the arthropods.
158. (1) 181. (4) 182. (4)
159. (3) In frogs, vasa efferentia are 10 - 12 in number that 183. (4) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
arise from testes. 184. (2)
160. (1) 185. (3) The bone marrow in some bones is the site of
161. (1) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II production of blood cells.
162. (2) 163. (4) 186. (1) 187. (3)
164. (3) Choanocytes (collar cells) are present in the members 188. (4) All the given statements are correct.
of porifera. 189. (1) A triangular structure that joins the right atrium is
165. (4) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III called sinus venosus and receives blood from vena cava.
166. (4) 190. (1) 191. (3)
167. (3) In frog there are 10 pairs of cranial nerves that arise 192. (2) Planaria possess high regeneration capacity.
from the brain. 193. (2)
168. (3) 169. (4) 194. (1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
170. (4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III 195. (4) 196. (3)
171. (4) 197. (1) Only statement D is false.
172. (3) In arthropods, excretion takes place through 198. (3) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
malpighian tubules. 199. (1)
173. (2) 200. (1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
174. (4) A feature absent in annelids is pseudocoelom.
175. (2)