1. ………….

is directly accessed and manipulated by the CPU during program execution

a. RAM b. Cache
c. Primary memory d. Registers
2 ..................... is known as CPU’s working memory
a. Cache b. Primary Memory
c. Register d. secondary memory
3. …………. is referenced by the CPU
without address.
a. RAM b. Primary Memory
c. hard disk d. Registers
4. Which component of computer co-ordinates overall functioning of the computer.
a. ALU b. CU
c. Registers c. North Bridge
5. The primary memory of a computer consists of
a. Only RAM b. Only ROM
c. Both a and b d. Flash drives
6. Which of the following is not a secondary memory
a. Magnetic Tape b. Hard disk
c. Optical Disk d. Cache memory
7. …………. is a large, printed circuit board having many chips, ports, controllers and
otherelectronic components mounted on it
a. Integrated Circuit b. Motherboard
c. Chip set d. Firewire
8. Which among the following are characteristics of motherboard?
a. only form factor b. only Chip set c. Only Processor Socketd. All of these
9. form factor refers to
a. Geometry b. Electrical requirements
c. Dimensions d. All of these
10. …………. characteristic of motherboard should be considered to maximize the
computers upgradability.
a. Form Factor b. Chip set
c. Processor socket d. All from (a) to (c)
11. Which of the following motherboard is old model mother board
a.AT b. ATX
c. XT d. Baby AT
12. Which of the following motherboards has no ports
a.AT b. ATX
c. XT d. Baby AT

13. Pentium-I, Pentium-II and Pentium – MMX processors used in ............. type of
motherboards
a. AT b. ATX
c. XT d. Baby AT
14. Pentium -III Processors are used in................... type of motherboards
a. ET b. ATX
c. XT d. Baby AT
15. Both Pentium III and Pentium IV processors are supported by .................. motherboards
a. XT b. AT
c. Baby AT d. ATX
16. Processors supported by ATX mother board are……….
a. Only Pentium-IV, Dual Core
b. Only Dual Core and Core 2 Duo
c. Quad Core, i3, i5 and i7
d. All the above
17. Which among the following motherboards have slot type and PGA type processor
sockets?
a. ATX motherboard
b. Baby AT motherboard
c. XT motherboard
d. AT motherboard
18. Choose the component not present in Baby AT motherboard
a. Slot type processor sockets and PGA processor sockets
b. SDRAM slots and DDRRAM slots
c. PCI slots and ISA slots
d. AGP slots
19. Which one of the following has 24-pin Power connector?
a.AT motherboard
b. Baby AT motherboard
c. XT motherboard
d. ATX motherboard
20. XT motherboard has............. power pin connectors
a. 24 b. 12 c. 20 d. 20 and 24
21. MPGA processor sockets are found in type of motherboards
a. Baby AT b. ATX c. AT c. XT
22. Choose the very old motherboard model from the following
a.ATX b. XT c. Baby AT d. AT
23. Which of the following motherboard types consists of SATA connectors?
a.AT motherboard
b. Baby AT motherboard
c. ATX motherboard
d. XT motherboard
24. One of the following is the main component of the motherboard
a. BUS b. BIOS c. CMOS d. Processor
25...............is the frequency with which a processor executes instructions.
a. Bus speed b. Clock speed
c. MHz d. GHz
26. The computer’s operating speed is linked to the speed of -------------
a. BUS b. Memory access
c. System Clock d. North Bridge
27. CPU’s performance is measured by the per second
a. Number of instructions de-coded
b. Number of instructions loaded
c. Number of instructions executed
d. Number of programs executed
28. CPU is fabricated on a single IC chip is known as--------------
a. Multiprocessor c. graphic processor
b. Microprocessor d. microcomputer
29. establishes a communication path for movement of data betweenprocessor
and memory
a. Cache b. Bus c. motherboard d. North Bridge
30. Which one of the following is the alternative name for North Bridge
a. Host Bridge b. south chipset
c. North Chipset d. Both (a) and (c) are correct
31. ............... is responsible for control of high speed components like CPU, RAM and
video card
a. South chipset b. south bridge
c. North Chipset d. Both (a) and (b)
32. ............... is responsible for control of slower components.
a. South chipset b. north bridge
c. North Chipset d. Both (a) and (c)
33. The most common motherboard standard for desktop computers
a. AT b. ATX c. XT d. Baby ATX
34. Identify the devices which are not managed by North Bridge
a. RAM b. CPU
c. Video cards d. CD ROM drive
35. chipset manages data communication between low speed components
a. North Bridge b. South Bridge
c. IDE c. SATA

36. Which of the following performs POST

a. CMOS b. BIOS
c. Control unit d. ALU
37. Identify operations which are not part of BIOS
a. Holds instructions to load hardware settings
b. Performing POST
c. Invoking bootstrap loader
d. Storing date and time
38. Invoking bootstrap loader is done by ……….
a. BIOS b. CMOS
c. SMPS d. South Bridge
39. BIOS stand for ……….
a. Basic input output system b. boot input output system
c. basic internal output system d. boot internal output system
39................is a type of memory chip to store the date, time and system setup parameters.
a. BIOS b. CMOS c. RAM d. ROM
40. BIOS and CMOS are powered by battery kept on the motherboard
a. Lithium-Ion b. Sodium Ion c. Magnesium ion d Silicon Ion
41. PC cards are used in computers
a. Desktop b. Mini c. Smart Phones d. Laptop
42. ............. is used to connect modem and input devices
a. ISA b. PCI c. AGP d. PCI Express
43. ............. is used to connect graphic accelerator cards , sound cards, internal modems or
scsi cards
a. ISA b. PCI c. AGP d. PCI Express
43. Disk controller is a circuit that enables communication between CPU and ……….
a. Hard Disk b. Floppy Disk c. Any External disk drive d. All of the above
46............... is a plug and play interface
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. USB d. AGP port
47. The number of devices supported in USB is ……………….
a. 64 b. 127 c. 128 d. 63
48. What is the basic speed of USB ……………..
a. 12 Mbps b. 8 Mbps c.16 Mbps d. 32 Mbps
49 .................. is the interface that directs and controls reading and writing to a computer’s
floppy disk drive(FDD)
a. Hard Disk b)Floppy Disk controller
b. c) Any External disk drive d)All of the above
50 ................. are used to connect external device like printers keyboard or scanners to
computer
a. ISA b. Ports and interfaces c. AGP d. PCI Express
51 .......................are used to connect communication devices.
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. USB d. AGP port
52 ..................... needs a single wire to transmit I bit of data
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. USB d. AGP port
53. ……….are used to connect external input/output devices like…. printers or scanners
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. USB d. AGP port
54. CD-ROM drives or hard disk drives are connected to the motherboard through
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. USB d. IDE port
55. ports are also called as mouse ports
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. PS-2 port d. AGP port
56 ................. port uses synchronous serial signals to communicate between the keyboard
and amouse to the computer
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. PS-2 port d. AGP port
57 ................. is used to connect to graphic card.
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. PS-2 port d. AGP port
58 .................. port is used for adding external devices such as high speed hard disks, high
endscanners CD-ROM drives
a. Serial port b. SCSI c. PS-2 port d. AGP port
59 ........................connects monitor to computers video card
a. VGA b. parallel port c. PS-2 port d. AGP port
60 ................. transfer large amount of data at very fast speed and connects camcorders and
video equipment.
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. firewire port d. AGP port
61 .................... connects PC’s modem to telephone network
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. modem d. AGP port
62 ................. connects to a network and high speed internet and network cable to computer
a. Serial port b. ethernet port c. PS-2 port d. AGP port
63 ................. are used to connect microphone, speakers to sound card.
a. Serial port b. parallel port c. sockets d. AGP port
64. ………. is designed to transmit information between electronic musical
instruments
a. Serial port b. MIDI c. PS-2 port d. AGP port
65. The different components of computer are connected to each other through……….
a. BUS b. CMOS c. BIOS d. South Bridge
66. … connects major computer components like processor, memory and I/O
a. Internal bus b. external bus c. both a and b d. expansion bus
67.................... connects the different external devices , peripherals, slots ports to rest of
computer
a. Internal bus b. external bus c. both a and b d. system bus
68. System bus and expansion bus consists of ……….
a. data bus b. address bus c. control bus d. all of these
69 ................... provides a path to transfer data between CPU and Memory
a. data bus b. address bus c. control bus d. all of these
70 .....................connects CPU and RAM
a. data bus b. address bus c. control bus d. all of these
71 ........................ is used to control the access to and he use of the data and address line
a. data bus b. address bus c. control bus d. all of these
72. ………. is referred to the electronic storing space for instructions and data
a. BIOS b. BUS c. CMOS d. memory
73 .......................includes registers, cache memory and primary memory
a. Internal memory b. secondary memory c. permanent memory d. main
memory
74 ..................... works under the direction of CU to accepts, store and transfer instructions
or dataand performs arithmetic and logical comparisons at high speed.
a. BIOS b. BUS c. Cache d. register
75 .......................is the high speed memory placed in between RAM and CPU
a. Secondary memory b. primary memory c. Cache d. register
76 ...................... stores the data that is used more often, temporarily and makes it available
to CPU at fast rate.
a. Secondary memory b. primary memory c. Cache d. register
77 .......................is also known as main memory
a. Secondary memory b. primary memoryc. Cache d. register
78 ................. has to be refreshed continuously to store information
a. SRAM b. primary memory c. DRAM d. register
79 .................... RAM is synchronized to system clock
a. DDR-DRAM b. SRAM c. DRAM d. SDRAM
80. Access speed of SRAM ranges up to ……….
a. 2 to 10ns b. 100 to 1000ns c. 10 to 100ns d. 10 to 50 ns
81. Access speed of DRAM ranges up to ……….
a. 2 to 10ns b. 50 to 150 ns c. 100 to 1000ns d. 10 to 50 ns
82 ................. is essential for computer to prevent them from failures, breakdowns or
shutdown
a. Power supply b. software c. hardware d. user
83 .......................converts Ac power to Dc power needed by system
a. UPS b. SRAM c. DRAM d. SMPS
84 .......................converts 230v of AC to 5 to 12 v of DC
a. UPS b. SRAM c. DRAM d. SMPS
85 ................. is a power supply that includes a battery to maintain power in the event of
powerfailure.
a. UPS b. SRAM c. DRAM d. SMPS
86 ................. avoids momentary power lapses by continuously providing power from its
owninverter, even when the power line is functioning properly.
a. Offline UPS b. stand by UPS c. Online UPS d. SMPS
87 ............... monitors the power line and switches to battery power as soon as it detects a
problem.
a. Power supply b. stand by UPS
c. Online UPS d. SMPS
88 ..................... is a process of setting up your hardware devices and assigning resources to
themso that they work together without problems
a. Computer configuration b. software
c. hardware d. power supply

29. b. Bus 59. c. Firewire port

30. d. Both (a) and (c) are 60. c. Modem
1. d. Registers correct 61. b. Ethernet port
2. c. Register 31. c. North Chipset 62. c. Sockets
3. d. Registers 32. a. South chipset 63. b. MIDI
4. b. CU 33. b. ATX 64. a. BUS
5. c. Both a and b 34. d. CD ROM drive 65. c. Both a and b
6. d. Cache memory 35. b. South Bridge 66. d. System bus
7. b. Motherboard 36. b. BIOS 67. d. All of these
8. d. All of these 37. d. Storing date and time 68. a. Data bus
9. d. All of these 38. a. BIOS 69. a. Data bus
10. d. All from (a) to (c) 39. a. Basic input output 70. c. Control bus
11. a. AT system 71. d. Memory
12. a. AT 40. b. CMOS 72. a. Internal memory
13. d. Baby AT 41. d. Laptop 73. d. Register
14. b. ATX 42. b. PCI 74. c. Cache
15. d. ATX 43. b. PCI 75. c. Cache
16. d. All the above 44. d. All of the above 76. b. Primary memory
17. a. ATX motherboard 45. c. USB 77. c. DRAM
18. d. AGP slots 46. b. 127 78. d. SDRAM
19. d. ATX motherboard 47. a. 12 Mbps 79. a. 2 to 10ns
20. c. 20 48. b. Floppy Disk controller 80. b. 50 to 150 ns
21. b. ATX 49. b. Ports and interfaces 81. a. Power supply
22. b. XT 50. a. Serial port 82. d. SMPS
23. c. ATX motherboard 51. a. Serial port 83. d. SMPS
24. a. BUS 52. a. Serial port 84. a. UPS
25. b. Clock speed 53. d. IDE port 85. c. Online UPS
26. c. System Clock 54. c. PS-2 port 86. b. Stand by UPS
27. c. Number of 55. c. PS-2 port 87. a. Computer
instructions executed 56. d. AGP port configuration
28. b. Microprocessor 57. b. SCSI
58. a. VGA
 Chapter – 2 Boolean Algebra

1. In Boolean algebra, the OR operation is performed by which properties?

a. Associative properties b. Commutative properties
c. Distributive properties d. All the Mentioned
2. The expression for Absorption law is given by
a. A + AB = A b. A + AB = B c. AB + AA’ = A d. A + B = B + A
3. The involution of A is equal to
a. A b. A’ c. 1 d. 0
4. A(A + B) =?
a. AB b. 1 c. (1 + AB) d. A
5. (A + B) (A’ * B’) =?
a. 1 b. 0 c. AB d. AB’
6. Complement of the expression A’B + CD’ is
a. (A’ + B) (C’ + D) b. (A + B’)(C’ + D)
c. (A’ + B) (C’ + D) d. (A + B’)(C + D’)
7. Simplify Y = AB’ + (A’ + B) C)
a. AB’ + C b. AB + AC c. A’B + AC’ d. AB + A
8. The Boolean function A + BC is a reduced form of
a. AB + BC b. (A + B) (A + C) c. A’B + AB’C d. (A + C) B
9. The logical sum of two or more logical product terms is called
a. SOP b. POS c. OR operation d. NAND operation
10.The expression Y=AB+BC+AC shows the…. operation.
a. EX-OR b. SOP c. POS d. NOR
11. The expression Y=(A+B) (B+C) (C+A. shows the…. operation.
a. AND b. POS c. SOP d. NAND
12. The canonical sum of product form of the function y(A,B) = A + B is
a. AB + BB + A’A b. AB + AB’ + A’B
c. BA + BA’ + A’B’ d. AB’ + A’B + A’B’
13. A variable on its own or in its complemented form is known as a
a. Product Term b. Literal c. Sum Term d. Word
14.Canonical form is a unique way of representing
a. SOP b. Minterm c. Boolean Expressionsd. POS
15. Boolean algebra is also called
a. switching algebra b. arithmetic algebra c. linear algebra d. Algebra
16. To perform product of max terms Boolean function mustbe brought into
a. AND term b. OR terms c. NOT terms d. NAND terms
17. According to the Boolean algebra absorption law, which of thefollowing is correct?
a. x+xy=x b. (x+y)=xy c. xy+y=x d. x+y=y
18. The expression for Absorption law is given by
a. A + AB = A b. A + AB = B c. AB + AA' = A d. A + B = B + A
19.X*y = y*x is the
a. commutative law b. inverse property
c. associative law d. identity element
20.There are ............. minterms for 3 variables(a,b,c)
a. 0 b. 2 c. 8 d. 1
21. The output of x-nor gate is 1, which input combination is correct.
a. a=1,b=0 b. a=0 b=1 c. a=0, b=0 d. a=0, b=1
22. odd parity of word can be conveniently tested by…..
a. OR GATE b. AND GATE c. NAND GATE d. X-OR GATE
23. determine the values of a,b,c,d that make the sum termA+B+C+D
a. a=1 b=0 c=0 d=0
b . a=1 b=0 c=1 d=0
c. a=0 b=1 c=0 d=0
d. a=1 b=0 c=1 d=1
24. which of the following expressions is in the sum-of- product(sop)form.
a. (a+b).(c+d). b. (a. b(cd)) c. ab(cd). d. ab+cd
25. For the SOP expression , how many 1s are in the truth table'soutput column?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
26. A truth table for the SOP expression has how many inputcombinations?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
27. How many gates would be required to implement the following Booleanexpression
before simplification? XY + X(X + Z) + Y(X + Z)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
28. How many gates would be required to implement the following Boolean expression
after simplification? XY + X(X + Z) + Y(X + Z)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
29. Determine the values of A, B, C, and D that make the product term equal to 1
a. A = 0, B = 1, C = 0, D = 1
b. A = 0, B = 0, C = 0, D = 1
c. A = 1, B = 1, C = 1, D = 1
d. A = 0, B = 0, C = 1, D = 0
30. What is the primary motivation for using Boolean algebra to simplify logicexpressions?
a) It may make it easier to understand the overall function of the circuit.
b) It may reduce the number of gates.
c) It may reduce the number of inputs required)
d) all of the above
31. Use Boolean algebra to find the most simplified SOPexpression for
F = ABD + CD + ACD + ABC + ABCD)
a. F = ABD + ABC + CD b. F = CD + AD c. F = BC + AB d. F = AC + AD
32. In Boolean algebra the word ‘literal’ means
a. a product term b. all the variables in a Boolean expression
c. the inverse function d. a variable or it’s compliment
33. The truth table for sop expression AB+𝐵̅C has how many input combinations?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
34. converting the Boolean expression LM+M(NO+PQ) to sop form , we get
a. LM+ MNOPQ
b. B) L+MNO+MPQ
c. LM+M +NO+MPQ
d. LM+MNO+MPQ
48.................. expression is equal to 0.
a. (0+ 1+ 0)(1+ 0+ 1) b. (1 + 1 + 1)(0 + 0 + 0)
c. (0 + 0 + 0)(1 + 0 + 1) d. (1 + 1 + 0)(1 + 0 + 0)
49. The expression W(X + YZ) can be converted to SOP form by applying which law?
a. associative law b. commutative law c. distributive law d. none of the above
50.Simplification of the Boolean expression AB + ABC + ABCD + ABCDE +ABCDEF
yields which of the following results?
a. ABCDEF b. AB + CD + EF c. A + B + C + D + E + F d. AB
51. Given that F = (A + B'+ C) (D + E), which of the following represents the only correct
expression for F'?
a. F' = A'BC'+ D'+ E' b. F' =AB'C + DE
c. F' = (A'+ B + C')(D'+ E') d. F' = A'BC' + D'E'
52. The product of sum canonical form also known as
a. MAXTERM b. MINTERM c. BOTH A AND B d. NONE OF THE
ABOVE
53 are the alternative form of canonical form.
a. SOP a. POS c. BOTH A AND B d. NONE OF THE
ABOVE
54.The sum of product canonical form also known as
a. MAXTERM b. MINTERM
c. BOTH A AND B d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
55 . One of De Morgan's theorems states that. Simply stated, this means that logicallythere
is no difference between:
a) a NOR and an AND gate with inverted inputs
b) a NAND and an OR gate with inverted inputs.
c) an AND and a NOR gate with inverted inputs.
d) a NOR and a NAND gate with inverted inputs.
Boolean Algebra and Digital Logic
1. d. All the Mentioned 24. d. ab + cd
2. a. A + AB = A 25. c. 3
3. b. A’
4. d. A 26. d. 8
5. b. 0 27. d. 5
6. a. (A’ + B) (C’ + D) 28. b. 2
7. a. AB’ + C 29. c. A = 1, B = 1, C = 1, D = 1
8. b. (A + B) (A + C) 30. d. all of the above
9. a. SOP 31. a. F = ABD + ABC + CD
10. b. SOP 32. d. a variable or its complement
11. b. POS 33. d. 8
12. b. AB + AB’ + A’B 34. d. LM + MNO + MPQ
13. b. Literal 35. b. (1 + 1 + 1)(0 + 0 + 0)
14. c. Boolean Expressions 36. c. distributive law
15. a. Switching algebra 37. d. AB
16. b. OR terms 38. c. F' = (A' + B + C')(D' + E')
17. a. x + xy = x 39. a. MAXTERM
18. a. A + AB = A 40. c. BOTH A AND B
19. a. Commutative law 41. b. MINTERM
20. c. 8 42. a. a NOR and an AND gate with inverted
21. c. a=0, b=0 inputs
22. d. X-OR Gate
23. a. a=1 b=0 c=0 d=0
 Chapter 3
LOGIC GATES
1. Electronic circuits that operate on one or more input signals to producestandard
output
a. series circuits b. parallel circuits c. logic signals d. logic gate
2. logic gates are the building blocks of all circuits in a computer
a, TRUE b. FALSE c. may be both d. No answer given
3. A gate gives the output as 1 only if all the input signals are 1.
a, AND b. OR c. X-OR d. NOR
4. the Boolean expression of an or gate is
a. A. B b. A+B c. AA+B d. AB
5. The gate which is used to reverse the output obtained is
a. NOR b. NAND c. X-OR d. NOT
6. which of the following gate will give a 0 when both of it’s inputs are 1.
a. AND b. OR c. NAND d. X-OR
7. The universal gate that can be used to implement any Boolean expression is ……gate
a. NAND b. X-OR c. OR d. AND
8. The gate which is called as inverter gate
a. NAND b. X-OR c.NOR d. NOT
9. And gate is represented algebraically by……….
a. + b. * c. -- d. %
10.the only gate that has 1 input and 1 output
a. AND b. OR c. NOT d. X-OR
11. The universal gate is
a. NAND b. X-OR c. OR d. AND
12. What combination is a Nand gate
a. NOT, AND b. NOT OR c. NOT NAND d. NOT NOR
13. what combination is a NOR gate
a. NOT, AND b. NOT OR c. NOT NAND d. NOT NOR
14. A NAND gate has inputs and outputs
a. high input and high output b. high input and low output
c. low input and low output d. low input and high output
15. Who invented the idea of logic gates
 a. George Boole b. Barden c. Claude Shannon d. Konrad Zure
16. Which of the following are the arithmetic logic gates?
a. X-ORb. X-NOR c. BOTH A & B d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
17. Which of the following is not a logic gate
a. AND b. OR c. IF d. NOT
18. The following is the truth table for
X 𝐗̅ X +𝐗̅
0 1 1
1 0 1
a. Associative law b. Commutative law
c. complementary law d. None of these
19. The logic symbol which gives the output for NOT gate is
i) ii)
A Y=A

a. Only i is correct b. Only ii is correct

c. Both i and ii are correct d. none of these
20. i) The following is the logic symbol for AND gate
A
B

ii) It produces output as TRUE when any one input is TRUE

a. Only i is correct b. Only ii is correct

b. Both i and ii are correct d. none of these
21.Identify the gate
A
B
is the symbol for
a. NAND b. AND c. NOR d. XOR
22. Identify the gate
A
B is the logic symbol for
a. NAND b. AND c. NOR d. XOR
23. What are the inputs for getting the output of the following gate as 1?
A
B

a. A=1, B=1 b. A=0, B=0 c. A = 0, B= 1 d. A=1, B=04

24. What are the inputs for getting the output of the following gate as 1:
A
B

a. A=1, B=1 b. A=0, B=0 c. A = 0, B= 1 d. A=1, B=0

Here are the answers to your questions:

1. d. logic gate 13. b. NOT OR

2. a. TRUE 14. d. low input and high output
3. a. AND 15. a. George Boole
4. b. A + B 16. c. BOTH A & B
5. d. NOT 17. c. IF
6. c. NAND 18. c. complementary law
7. a. NAND 19. c. Both i and ii are correct
8. d. NOT 20. a. Only i is correct
9. b. * 21. b. AND
10. c. NOT 22. c. NOR
11. a. NAND 23. a. A = 1, B = 1
12. a. NOT, AND 24. d. A = 1, B = 0

Data Structures

1 ........... is a specialized format for organizing and storing data

a. data structure b. primitive data structure c. sorting d. merging
2. .............. is a method of storing the data in memory so that it can be used efficiently.
a. Array b. data structure
c. sorting d. merging
3. Which operation is used to remove the data structure from memory space
a. create b. select c. update d. destroys
4. Which is the collection of homogeneous elements under the same name?
a. Array b. data structure c. stack d. queue
5. Which data structure has linear relationship between data elements?
a. nonlinear b. linear c. stack d. queue
6. In which data structure is every data item connected to several other data items?
a. nonlinear b. linear c. stack d. queue
7. Array size should be_
a. negative number b. positive number c. null d. Zero
8. To find the length of array we use
a. L=UB-LB+1 b. L=LB-UB+1 c. L=UB-LB d. L=LB-UB
9. The base address of an array is address of
a. UB b. LB c. UB-LB d. LB-UB
10. The formula to calculate address of an element of an array A is
a. loca. [I])=base(I)+W(I-LB) b. loca. [I])=basea. +W(I-UB)
 c. loca. [I])=base(I)+W(I-UB) d. loca. [I])=basea. +W(I-LB)
11. Example for traversing in a linear array is
a. binary search b. linear search c. to find max element in an array
d. inserting an element at given position in an array
12. Binary search compares the element to be searched with element of an array
a. first element b. middle element
c. last element d. all the element
13. In binary search method if search element is less than mid position then
a. high=mid-1 b. low=mid+1 c. high=mid+1 d. low=mid-1
14. Linear search compares the elements
a. one by one from beginning to end b. dividing array into two parts
c. only first and last position d. from low to mid position
15. In binary search the successful search is when_
a. A[mid]=ele b. A[i]=ele c. ele<A[mid] d. ele>A[mid]
16. for I=N-1 down to Pos is the loop for
a. deleting element in array b. inserting element in an array
c. traversing d. both aand b
17. In…… operation all the elements are shifted into lower order position from the given
position
a. deleting element in array b. inserting element in an array
c. traversing d. binary searching
18. Which is not the sorting method?
a. heap sort b. quick sort c. shell sort d. linear sort
19. The memory address of element A[i][j] in row major order is
a. loc a[i][j])=base a. +W((i-LB)+n(j-LB))
b. loc a[i][j])=base a. +W(n(j-LB)+(i-LB))
c. loc a[j][i])=base a. +W(n(I-LB)+n(j-LB))
d. loc a[i][j])=base a. +W((I-LB)+n(j-LB))
20. The memory address of elements A[i][j] in column major element is
a. loc a[i][j])=base a. +W(I-LB)+m(j-LB))
b. loc a[i][j])=base a. +W(m(j-LB)+(i-LB))
c. loc a[j][i])=base a. +W(n(I-LB)+m(j-LB))
d. loc a[i][j])=base a. +W((I-LB)+m(j-LB))
21. The base address of an array is address of the
a. A[1] b. A[n-1] c. A[0] d. both a and b
22. Which data structure is used to implement queues, trees, graphs
a. stack b. list c. array d. None
23. In which data structure addition and deletion of element takes place from same
position
a. stack b. list c. array d. queue
24. In stack the end is commonly referred as
a. Top b. bottom c. rear d. front
25. In stack the end opposite is known as
a. Top b. base c. rear d. front
26. In the stack which element is removed first
a. element inserted at first b. most recently added element c. middle element
d. second element
27. In which position of the stack element will be in longest time?
a. A[0] b. base c. top d. both a and b
28. Stacks perform the ................... operation
a. last in first out b. last in last out c. last in fast out d. first in first out
29. In which operation stack is not modified
a. push(item) b. pop() c. peek() d. none
30. What is the function of Peek() operation
a. removes top item from stack
b. test stack is empty or not
c. returns the number of items in stack
d. returns top item from stack but does not remove.
31. Push operation in stack is
a) First increases top position and insert element
b) first insert element and then increases top position
c) first decreases top position and insert element
d) first insert element and decrease the top position
32. Which of the following is not an application of stack.
a. rearranging railroad cars b. runtime memory management
c. multiprogramming platform d. conversion of infix expression into postfix and
prefix expression
33. Example for infix expression
a. +ab b. a+b c. ab+ d. none
34. The condition top=-1in stack indicates
a. stack is full b. stack has one element
c. stack overflow d. stack is empty
35. The condition top=n-1 in stack indicates
a. The stack is full b. stack has one element
c. stack underflow d. stack is empty
36. In which data structure the addition of new element and removal of element takes
placeat different end
a. nonlinear b. linear c. stack d. queue
37. In Queue items are inserted at end
a. Top b. front c. rear d. bottom
38. In queue items are removed at end
a. Top b. front c. rear d. bottom
39. In queue we remove the element which is
a. least recently added b. most recently added c. both a and b d. none
40. Queue is also called as
a. last in first out b. first in last out c. first in first out d. first in first in
41. In queue which operation is generally called as push
a. enqueue b. dequeue c. push d. pop
42. Which condition indicates queue is empty
a. front=null b. rear=N c. front=rare d. both a and b
43. Which condition indicates only one element in queue
a. front=null b. rear=N c. front=rare d. rear=N-1
44. Various application software is based on……… data structure
a. linked list b. graph c. stack d. queue
45. In which of the following application queue data structure is used
a. simulation b. type scheduling algorithm c. print server routine d. all ofthese
46. In which data structure element can be inserted and removed in any position
a. simple queue b. circular queue c. priority queue d. double ended queue
47. In which queue addition and deletion takes place at both ends
a. simple queue b. circular queue c. priority queue d. double ended queue
48. The disadvantage of array is
a. static structure b. dynamic structure c. variable d. both a and b
49. In which operation array elements are shifted into higher order positions
a. deletion b. insertion c. searching d. sorting
50. In which operation array elements are shifted into lower order positions
a. deletion b. insertion c. searching d. sorting
51. In the linked list the position start gives the location of node
a. first b. last c. middle d. second
52. In the linked list the pointer start position is also called as
a. NULL b. head c. Tail d. none
53. The link field of last node contains
a. NULL b. head c. Tail d. none
54. In the linked list link field of every node contains
a. data of the node b. data of next node c.
address of last node d. address of next node
55. In the doubly linked list which node points to the address of previous node?
a. info b. frow c. back d. head
56. Which operation is not possible in linked list
a. sorting b. searching c. merging d. inserting
57. Pointer=new type[number_of_elements] is syntax for
a. pointer declaration b. allocate memory for single element
c. allocate memory for block element d. structure.
58. In which data structure each node is connected to several other nodes
a. nonlinear b. linear c. stack d. queue
59. Which data structure represents hierarchical relationship
a. nonlinear b. linear c. stack d. queue
60. Each node in a tree has .............. child node
a. zero b. more c. both a and b d. no
61. Root node in a tree is at position
a. top b. bottom c. middle d. right
62. From……node all the operations commence in tree
a. leaf b. child c. root d. internal
63. The edges in a graph having directions are called…….
a. undirected graph b. arcsc. digraph d. all the above
64. prefix expression of (A+B)*(C+D) is
a. *+AB+CD b. +AB*+CD c. AB+Cd+*d. +*AB+CD
65. Array consists of (10, 20, 25, 35, 30 40), identify which searching technique can be
applied
a. binary search b. linear search c. both a and b d. none
66. Which operation to access each data element exactly once is….
a. traversal b. insertion c. searching d. sorting
67. Stack can be represented using…..
a. array b. linked list c. both a and b d. none
68. In binary search when the element is searched either right half or the left half of an
array is ……
a. element is found b. search element comparison matches
c. comparison does not match d. low position is less than high position
69. In searching if (loc>=0) is ….
a. unsuccessful search b. binary search
c. linear search d. successful search
70. Array with one row or one column is a ….
a. 1D array b. 2d array c. multi-dimensional array d. both a and b
71. Which operation is used to change data in data structure?
a. createb. destroy c. select d. update
72. The study of data structure mainly deals with….
a. implementation of structure on computers
b. mathematical description ofstructure
c. to determine amount of space in memory
d. all of these
73. ............ is a set of vertices and edges
a. tree b. graph c. queue d. stack
74. Which node is farthest node from root node?
a. child node b. top node c. leaf node d. middle node
75. list in linked list contains unused nodes
a. Avail b. head c. null d. start
76. Dynamic memory is allocated using…. operator
a. create b. nullc. new d. pointer
77. In which linked list it is not possible to access preceding nodes is….
a. singlyb. doubly c. circular d. all of these
78. A text can be reversed using ….
a. tree b. graph c. queue d. stack
79. While (j>=1) and a[j]<A[j-1])) is the logic for……..
a. inserting element b. sorting element b. deleting element d. searching element
80.for i=0 to N-1 If a[i]==ele) is logic for….
a. inserting element
b. sorting element
c. deleting element
d. searching element
 81. The method of collecting deleted nodes into free storage is called
a. heap memory
b. free memory
c. garbage collection
d. dynamic collection
82. In queue insertion and deletion performed according to
a. FIFOb. FILO c. LIFO d. all of these
83. Which of the following data structure does not have different types?
a. array b. linked list c. stack d. queue
84. If we try to delete node from the linked list which is empty is called
a. overflow b. underflow c. inserting d. deleting
85 ........... linked list is called as two way list
a. singly b. doubly c. circular d. none
86. As users navigate from web page to web page then the pages are placed on
a. array b. linked list c. stack d. queue
87. The operators in between two operands are called as expression
a. infix b. postfix c. prefix d. arithmetic
88. If an operator precedes two operands it is called as expression
a. infix b. postfix c. prefix d. arithmetic
89. If an operator follows the two operands it is called as expression
a. infix b. postfix c. prefix d. arithmetic
90.(for i=lb to ub) Process a[i]) is logic for
a. inserting element b. sorting elementc. deleting element d. traversing
91. Which data structure directly operates on machine level instructions?
a. int b. array c. string d. trees
92. Which is not the operation on linear data structure?
a. inserting b. sorting c. updating d. traversing
93. What is the statement to copy the top element into variable?
a. s[top]=ele b. ele=s[top] c. s[++top]=ele d. both a and b
94. What is the statement to copy the variable element into rear position in queue?
a. q[rear]=ele b. q[front]=ele c. ele=q[rear] d. ele=q[front]
95.Assertion (A) : A queue is a LIFO data structure. Reason (R): An ordered collection of
items where insertion and deletion take place at different ends.
a. A is correct, R is not correct.
b. A is correct, R is correct.
c. A is not correct and R is correct.
d. A is not correct, and R is not correct
96. Assertion a. : A Stack is a LIFO data structure. Reason (R) : An ordered collection of
items where insertion and deletion take place at different ends.
a. A is correct, R is not correct.
b. A is correct, R is correct.
 c. A is not correct, and R is correct.
d. A is not correct, and R is not correct
97. Assertion a. : A Stack is a LIFO data structure. Reason (R): An ordered collection of
items where insertion and deletion take place at different ends.
a. A is correct, R is not correct.
b. A is correct; R is correct.
c. A is not correct, and R is correct.
d. A is not correct, and R is not correct
98. Assertion a. : A Stack is a LIFO data structure. Reason (R): An ordered collection of
items where insertion and deletion take place at the same end.
a. A is correct, R is not correct.
b. A is correct; R is correct.
c. A is not correct, and R is correct.
d. A is not correct, and R is not correct
99. Assertion a. : A Tree is a nonlinear data structure. Reason (R): A collection of items
where each item is connected to several other data items.
a. A is correct, R is not correct.
b. A is correct; R is correct.
c. A is not correct, and R is correct.
d. A is not correct, and R is not correct
Here are the answers to the questions provided: 42. c. front=rare
43. c. front=rare
44. a. linked list
45. d. all of these
1. a. data structure 46. d. double ended queue
2. b. data structure 47. d. double ended queue
3. d. destroys 48. a. static structure
4. a. Array 49. b. insertion
5. b. linear 50. a. deletion
6. a. nonlinear 51. a. first
7. b. positive number 52. b. head
8. a. L=UB-LB+1 53. a. NULL
9. b. LB 54. d. address of next node
10. a. loca. [I]=base(I)+W(I-LB) 55. c. back
11. b. linear search 56. a. sorting
12. b. middle element 57. c. allocate memory for block element
13. a. high=mid-1 58. a. nonlinear
14. a. one by one from beginning to end 59. a. nonlinear
15. a. A[mid]=ele 60. c. both a and b
16. b. inserting element in an array 61. a. top
17. a. deleting element in array 62. c. root
18. d. linear sort 63. c. digraph
19. b. loca[i][j]=base a. +W(n(j-LB)+(i-LB)) 64. *a. +AB+CD
20. b. loca[i][j]=base a. +W(m(j-LB)+(i-LB)) 65. c. both a and b
21. c. A[0] 66. a. traversal
22. c. array 67. c. both a and b
23. a. stack 68. c. comparison does not match
24. a. Top 69. d. successful search
25. b. base 70. a. 1D array
26. b. most recently added element 71. d. update
27. b. base 72. d. all of these
28. a. last in first out 73. b. graph
29. c. peek() 74. c. leaf node
30. d. returns top item from stack but does 75. a. Avail
not remove 76. c. new
31. a. First increases top position and insert 77. a. singly
element 78. d. stack
32. c. multiprogramming platform 79. b. sorting element
33. b. a+b 80. d. searching element
34. d. stack is empty 81. c. garbage collection
35. a. The stack is full 82. a. FIFO
36. d. queue 83. a. array
37. c. rear 84. b. underflow
38. b. front 85. b. doubly
39. a. least recently added 86. c. stack
40. c. first in first out 87. a. infix
41. a. enqueue 88. c. prefix
89. b. postfix 95. c. A is not correct and R is correct.
90. d. traversing 96. a. A is correct, R is not correct.
91. b. array 97. b. A is correct; R is correct.
92. c. updating 98. b. A is correct; R is correct.
93. b. ele=s[top] 99. b. A is correct; R is correct.
94. a. q[rear]=ele

Chapter 7
Classes and Objects
1. Programming languages that support OOP concept is
(a) C++ and C# (b) java (c) python (d) All
2. Programming languages that does not support oop concept is
(a) C and PASCAL (b) COBOL (c) FORTRAN (d) All
3. The keyword used to create class is
(a) classname (b) class (c) private (d) protected
4. A class declaration specifies the representation of of the class.
(a) Variables (b) objects (c) functions (d) array
5. In a class, member function means
(a) Just a function (b) function which is member of class
(c) Both a and b (d) All the above
6. The data elements of a class are called as
(a) Member Data (b) data (c) private members (d) All the above
7. The data member of a class describes
(a) Just data variables (b) variables
(c) characteristics of class (d) behavior of the class
8. Member functions are the set of operations that are performed on the of the
class.
(a) Variables (b) objects (c) members (d) array
9. The member function of the class defines
(a) Functions of class (b) data functions
(c) characteristics (d) behavior of the class
10. A class combines ............. into single unit.
(a) Data members and member function
(b) Only data members of the class
(c) Only member function of the class
(d) All the above
11. A class definition is the process of
(a) naming the class only
(b) writing interface operations only
(c) Naming the class and defining methods and data members
(d) naming the data variables only
12. A class can contain member functions.
(a) Many
(b) Zero or one
(c) Zero or more
(d) Both b and c
13. In class definition, body ends with the symbol
(a) ; (b) : (c) :: (d) .
14. The body of the class is enclosed in a pair of
(a) ( ) (b) [ ] (c) { } (d) All the above
15. Declaration of the object is
(a) Instance of a class (b) copy of the class
(b) Both a and b (d) None of the above
16. The access specifiers in the class define
(a) Keywords (b) Data members
(c) member functions (d) Scope of the members
17. In a class definition, private access means
(a) members can be accessed only with in the class
(b) members can be accessed only outside the class
(c) members can be accessed both inside and outside the class
(d) all the above
18. The symbol used to define member function outside the class is
a. @ (b) & (c) * (d) : :
19. The default access specifier is
(a) Private (b) protected (c) public (d) All the above
20. The members are accessible only inside the class.
(a) Private (b) protected (c) public (d) both a and b
21. The feature of public access specifier is
(a) Members are accessible only outside the class
(b) Members are accessible both inside and outside the class
(c) Members are accessible only inside the class
(d) All the above
22. One special feature of protected access specifier is
(a) Cannot be inherited from one to another
(b) Can be inherited from one class to another
(c) Can be used outside the class
(d) Can be accessed using . (dot) operator
23. The difference between private and protected is
(a) Private cannot be inherited and protected can be inherited
(b) Protected cannot be inherited and private can be inherited
(c) No difference between both
(d) Both can be accessed outside the class
24. Which operator is member access operator?
(a) . (dot) (b) & (address) (c) || operator (d) ! (not operator)
25. The member can be accessed outside the class using dot(.) operator.
(a) Public (b) protected (c) private (d) friend
26. The class members can be accessed using operator.
(a) :: (scope) (b) . (dot) (c) & (address) (d) * (pointer)
27. Defining a member function inside the class means
(a) Both Declaration and Definition of member function inside the class
(b) Declaration of member function inside the class
(c) definition of member function inside the class
(d) None of these
28. Syntax for member function inside the class definition is …..
(a) return_type_specifier functionname(argument_list)
{
Statements;
…………
}
(b) void classname::function_name()
{
Statements;
…..}
(c) return_type_specifier classname::functionname()
(d) void function_name()
29. An example for member function inside the class definition is …….
(a) Returntype functionname()
(b) void input()
{
cout<<”Enter regno and name”<endl;
cin>regno>>name;
}
(c) both a and b
(d) only a is correct
30. syntax for member function outside class definition is
(a) return_type_specifier classname::functionname(arg_list)
{
statements ;
………….
}
(b) void student::input();
(c) void input()
(d) returntype functionname(arglist);

31. How many types are there to define the member function?
(a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) a and b
32. How are member functions defined in a class?
(a) outside the class only
(b) inside the class only
(c) Both inside and outside the class
(d) All the above
33. The members of the class can be
(a) Only private
(b) Only protected
(c) Only public
(d) Private , protected or public
34. Syntax for creating objects is
(a) Classname objectname1,objectname2,…;
(b) Student obj1,obj2;
(c) Class classname objectname1, objectname2;
(d) Both a and c
35. The array of object is
(a) An array having classtype elements
(b) Array as a member of the class
(c) Array stores many values of same type
(d) All the above
36. The is an example for creating the objects
(a) Student obj1,obj2;
(b) Class student obj1,obj2;
(c) Both a and b
(d) Only b
37. How many methods are there to pass objects as argument to member function?
a. 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4
38. A class is of an object
(a) Blueprint or prototype
(b) Defined using classname
(c) A group of students
(d) Member
39. A class is collection of objects having
(a) Similar characteristics and behavior
(b) Only character
(c) Only behavior
(d) All of the above
40. Is it possible to access the data outside the class?
(a) Yes , if it is under public
(b) No , if it is under private
 (c) Both a and b
(d) Not possible
41. Set of interface operations that are performed on objects are called
(a) Member variable (b) class function
(b) Member function (d) class variable
42. The protected members of the class can be accessed by
(a) Member function of class but only inside the class
(b) Member function of the derived class
(c) Friend functions of the class
(d) All the above
43. What is the use of scope resolution operator?
(a) Link between class and member function
(b) To write member function definition outside the class
(c) Both a and b
(d) Only a
44. An Example for array of object is …………
(a) Student obj[10];
(b) Class student stu_obj[50];
(c) Employee emp[];
(d) All the above
45. Example to pass object as function argument can be
(a) void total(Exam puc, Exam cet)
{
P=puc.p+cet.p; C=puc.c+cet.c; M=puc.m+cet.m;
}
(b) Returntype functionname(classname obj, classnae obj)
(c) Both and b
(d) All the above
46. The other names for member functions of a class are
(a) Methods and Interfaces
(b) Only methods
(c) Only set of interface operations
(d) All of the above
47. The member functions can be defined .................... of a class
(a) Inside or outside
(b) Only outside
(c) Only inside
(d) All of the above

48. Identify the errors in the following program segment Class Employee
{
int code; public:
void input();
};
i) In keyword Class
ii) In class name Employee
iii) No access specifier defined for data member
iv) No errors in the program segment
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
49. Identify the errors in the following program segment class marks
{
int marks; public;
void input();
};
v) In keyword Class
vi) In class name marks
vii) In public;
viii) No errors in the program segment
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)

50. ........................members can be accessed inside or outside of class definition.

a. Public (b) private (c) protected (d) all the above
1. (d) All
2. (d) All
3. (b) class
4. (b) objects
5. (b) function which is a member of class
6. (a) Member Data
7. (c) characteristics of class
8. (b) objects
9. (d) behavior of the class
10. (a) Data members and member function
11. (c) Naming the class and defining methods and data members
12. (c) Zero or more
13. (a) ;
14. (c) { }
15. (a) Instance of a class
16. (d) Scope of the members
17. (a) members can be accessed only within the class
18. (d) ::
19. (a) Private
20. (a) Private
21. (b) Members are accessible both inside and outside the class
22. (b) Can be inherited from one class to another
23. (a) Private cannot be inherited and protected can be inherited
24. (a) . (dot)
25. (a) Public
26. (b) . (dot)
27. (a) Both Declaration and Definition of member function inside the class
28. (a) return_type_specifier functionname(argument_list) { statements; … }
29. (c) both a and b
30. (a) return_type_specifier classname::functionname(arg_list) { statements; … }
31. (a) Two
32. (c) Both inside and outside the class
33. (d) Private, protected, or public
34. (d) Both a and c
35. (a) An array having classtype elements
36. (c) Both a and b
37. (a) 2
38. (a) Blueprint or prototype
39. (a) Similar characteristics and behavior
40. (c) Both a and b
41. (b) Member function
42. (d) All the above
43. (c) Both a and b
44. (d) All the above
45. (d) All the above
46. (a) Methods and Interfaces
47. (a) Inside or outside
48. (c) (iii) No access specifier defined for data member
49. (c) (iii) In public;
50. (a) Public
 Chapter 8
Function Overloading
1. Function cannot be overloaded when-
(a) Function names are same
(b) The number of parameters are different
(c) The number of parameters and data types are the same
(d) Data types of parameters are different
2. Function can be overloaded when
a) Function names are same
b) The number of parameters aredifferent
c) The data types of parameters aredifferent
d) All the above
3. Friend function is a
a) Nonmember function of a class
b) Can access both private and protected members
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
4. C++ Implements polymorphism through
a) Inline function
b) Friend function
c) Function overloading and operator overloading
d) Both a and b
5. Need for function overloading is
(a) Code maintenance is easy
(b) Easy to understand the flow of information and debug
(c) Easier interface between program and real world objects
(d) All the above
6. The Restrictions on overloaded functions are
(a) Each function in a set of overloaded function must have different argument list
(b) If ‘typedef’ is used for naming functions then the function is not considered as
different type
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
7. The selection of overloaded function depends on matching arguments at the time of
(a) Passing arguments
(b) compilation
(c) writing the program
 (d) All the above
8. The inline function means
(a) The compiler replaces function call with function code
(b) Very long function
 (c) Function with complex code (d) Both a and b
9. The inline function can be
(a) A long function
(b) Very short function
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
10. The advantages of inline functions are
(a) Inline functions are compact function
(b) The size of object code is reduced
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
11. The compiler replaces the function call statement with thefunction code is
(a) Friend function b) Inline function c) Function overloading d) Both a and b
12. The two or more functions have the same name but different in numberof argument
list and their data type is called
a) Function overloading (b)Inline function
(c) Friend function (d) All the above
13. The inline function cannot include the ….
a) goto statement (b) looping
c) Recursive function body (d) all the above
14. The keyword to create the inline function is
(a) Friend (b) private (c) Class (d) inline
15. The friend function means
(a) A short function
(b) run little faster
(c) can access private and protected members outside the class.
(d) Both a and b
16. Using friend function, members of a class can be accessed using syntax
a) Objectname.membername
b) Only object name
c) Only membername
d) All the above
17. While defining friend function it does not use either keyword operator.
a) & or . (b) friend or ::
(c) objectname.membername or objectname (d) all theabove
18. C++ allows the common function to be shared between the two classes by making the
common function as to both the classes.
(a) Inline function
(b) Friend function
(c) Overloaded function
(d) All the above
19. The friend function can be declared in access specifier.
(a) public
(b) private
(c) Protected
(d) (d) Any of the above
20. A friend function is a of a class
(a) Nonmember function
(b) Private function
(c) Inline function
(d) Public function of a class
21. Friend functions are with special access privileges.
(a) Special member functions
(b) Normal internal functions
(c) Normal external functions
(d) Special internal functions
22. Function overloading is not possible when
(a) Function names are same
(b) The number of arguments is different
(c) Number and data types or arguments are the same
(d) Data types of argument are different
23.Function overloading is possible on
(a) Ordinary functions
(b) Member functions
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
24. What is the disadvantage of inline functions?
(a) The size of the executable file increases and more memory is needed.
(c) The body of inline function is substituted in place of function call
(d) Both a and b
(e) None of the above
25. The friend function definition must be written..without the prefix friend or :: operator.
(a) Outside the class
(b) Inside the class only
(c) Can be written both inside and outside
(d) All the above
26. Statement A) The inline function is a compact function.
Statement B) Inline function run little slower than normal function.
Statement C) Very efficient code can be generated.

(a) Both A and C are correct B is incorrect.

(b) Both A and B are correct, C is incorrect.
 (c) Both B and C are correct A is incorrect.
(d) A, B and C are correct.
27. Statement A) The friend function is a non-member function of a class.
Statement B) Friend function can access data members of a class directly
Statement C) Friend function should be declared and defined inside the class.
(a) Both A and C are correct, B is incorrect.
(b) only B is correct, A and C are incorrect.
(c) Both B and C are correct, A is incorrect.
(d) only A is correct, B and C are not correct.
28. Statement A) function can be overloaded when parameters are different.
Statement B) A function can be overloaded with different types of parameters
Statement C) A function cannot be overloaded with same number of parameters.

(a) Both A and B are correct, C is incorrect.

(b) Only B is correct, A and C are incorrect.
(c) Both B and C are correct, A is incorrect.
(d) Only A is correct, B and C are not correct.

29. Statement A) The inline function is a compact function.

Statement B) Inline function run little faster than normal function.
Statement C) Inline function may not work if it contains recursion.

(a) Both A and C are correct.

(b) Both A and B are correct.
(c) Both B and C are correct.
(d) A, B and C are correct.
30. The function overloading allows the user to create new
(a) Data types
(b) Variables
(c) Abstract data types
(d) Function types
31. Function overloading is also known as
(a) Runtime polymorphism
(b) Compile time polymorphism
(c) Program time polymorphism
(d) Interpreter time polymorphism
32. The disadvantage of inline function is
(a) Size of object code increases
(b) Size of object code decreases
(c) Less memory is needed
(d) None of these
 33. The friend function is declared within a class with the prefix
(a) Friends
(b) FRIENDS
(c) friend
(d) Friend
34. The inline function should be defined all functions that call it.
(a) Inside
(b) Outside
(c) Before
(d) After
35. Friend functions must be declared and defined a class.
(a) Inside
(b) Outside
(c) Inside or outside
(d) None of these

1. (c) The number of parameters and data types are the same
2. (d) All the above
3. (c) Both a and b
4. (c) Function overloading and operator overloading
5. (d) All the above
6. (c) Both a and b
7. (b) Compilation
8. (a) The compiler replaces function call with function code
9. (b) Very short function
10. (c) Both a and b
11. (b) Inline function
12. (a) Function overloading
13. (d) All the above
14. (d) inline
15. (c) Can access private and protected members outside the class.
16. (a) Objectname.membername
17. (b) friend or ::
18. (b) Friend function
19. (d) Any of the above
20. (a) Nonmember function
21. (c) Normal external functions
22. (c) Number and data types of arguments are the same
23. (c) Both a and b
24. (d) Both a and b
25. (a) Outside the class
26. (a) Both A and C are correct, B is incorrect.
27. (b) Only B is correct, A and C are incorrect.
28. (a) Both A and B are correct, C is incorrect.
29. (d) A, B, and C are correct.
30. (d) Function types
31. (b) Compile time polymorphism
32. (a) Size of object code increases
 33. (c) friend
34. (c) Before
35. (b) Outside

CONSTRUCTORS AND DESTRUCTORS

1. Automatic initialization of object is carried out using a special member functioncalled
a) constructors b) destructors c) friend functions d) inlinefunctions.
2. Constructor function is called automatically when
a) member function is created b) object is created
c) class is created d) constructor iscreated
3. The the values of the data members of the class are initialised.
a) input function b) constructors c) data member d) member function
4. Constructors name is same as name.
a) class b) member function c)object d)member data
5. Constructors should be declared in
a) protected section b)private section c) public section d)anywhere inside class
6. There is no for constructors.
a) arguments b)parameters c) return-type d) object
7. makes an implicit call to the operator ‘new’ when memoryallocation is
required.
a) class b)object c)constructors d)member function
8. Default constructor is also called as
a) zero parameterized constructor b) copy constructors
c)parameterized constructor d)None of these
9. Which of the following is not a type of constructors?
a. default constructors b)parameterized constructors c) copy constructorsd)destructors
10 .................. are useful when the object needs to be created without having to store initial
values.
a)copy constructors b)default constructors
c)parameterized constructors d) destructors
11. It is not possible to refer to the of the constructors..
a) Data b)object c)address d)interface
12. All objects of a class are initialized to same set of values by
a) copy constructors b)default constructors
c) parameterized constructors d)destructors
13. A value would not make sense for constructors.
a) calculated b) default c) parameterized d)return
14.Declaring constructors with argument it hides constructors.
a) defaultb)parameterized c)copy d)argument
15. It is not possible to initialize different with different initial values using default
constructors.
 a) objects b) class c) variables d)functions
16. A constructors that take one or more arguments are called constructors
a) copy b)default c)parameterized d)zero argument
17. Using ............. constructors it is possible to initialize different object with different
values
a) copy b) parameterized c) default d)zero argument
18 .............. constructors are invoked automatically when objects with arguments are
created.
a) copy b)default c)zero parameterized d)parameterized
19................ constructors cannot be overloaded.
a) parameterized b) many parameterized c)one parameterized
d) zero parameterized
20................. constructors can have default arguments and default values.
a) defaultb) zero argument c)parameterized d) zero parameterized
21.Parameterized constructors can be invoked through
a) explicit call b) implicit call
c)using = operator d) all of the above
22. Choose the correct option showing an explicit call method of invoking parameterized
constructor.
a) classx obj =classx(arguments); b) classx obj =obj(arguments);
c) classx obj = classx(); d) none of the above
23. In...............method, declaration of an object is followed by an argument list enclosed in
parenthesis.
a) explicit call b) implicit call
c) using =operator d) none of the above
24. The .............. method is used for invoking constructor with exactly one argument.
a) explicit call b) implicit call
c)using = operator d) destructors
25. In ………. Method, declaration is followed by assignment operator and value to be
initialized
a) explicit call b) implicit call
c)initialization at the time of declaration with =operator d) none of the above
26. The copy constructors are used to copy values of one object to .
a) another different class b) another similar class
c) another different object d) another similar object
27 ................ constructors are used to initialize an object with values of already existing
objects
a) copy b)default c)zero parameterized d)parameterized
28. Copy constructors are used to return as function values
a) copied values b)data values c)object d)class
29. Copy constructor can accept a single argument of reference to same type.
a) object b)function c)class d) argument
30.Copy constructor is invoked when an object a value.
a) assigns b) returns c)calculated d)created
 31 ................ is called automatically when the object is destroyed.
a) destructors b)default constructors
c)copy constructor d)parameterized constructor
32. Which operator is used with destructors?
a) :: b)& c)~ d) *
33. ………. is used to de-allocate
memory that was allocated for the object by theconstructors.
a) classb)interface c) destructors d)constructors
34. ………. takes no arguments
a) parameterized constructors b)copy constructors
c)default constructors d)destructors
35. When we overload a constructor in a class, then it is the job of the programmer to define
too.
a) parameterized constructors b)copy constructors
c)default constructors d) class

1. (a) constructors
2. (b) object is created
3. (b) constructors
4. (a) class
5. (c) public section
6. (c) return-type
7. (c) constructors
8. (a) zero parameterized constructor
9. (d) destructors
10. (b) default constructors
11. (c) address
12. (b) default constructors
13. (d) return
14. (a) default
15. (a) objects
16. (c) parameterized
17. (b) parameterized
18. (d) parameterized
19. (a) parameterized
20. (c) parameterized
21. (a) explicit call
22. (a) classx obj =classx(arguments);
23. (a) explicit call
24. (a) explicit call
25. (c) initialization at the time of declaration with =operator
26. (d) another similar object
27. (a) copy
28. (c) object
29. (a) object
30. (a) assigns
31. (a) destructors
32. (c) ~
33. (c) destructors
34. (c) default constructors
35. (b) copy constructors

INHERITANCE

1. ………. provides the concept of Reusability

a) procedural programming b)inheritance c)class
d)functions
2 ...................allows the user to create a new class from an already existing class
a) inheritance b)class c)polymorphism d)binding
3 ....................... is the capability of one class to inherit properties from another class.
a) polymorphism b)binding c)overloading d)inheritance
4. ……….is a class whose properties are inherited by another class
a)sub class b)base class c) derived class d)virtual class
5 ..................... is a class that inherits properties from base class
a) sub class b)base class c)super class d)virtual class
6. Base class is also called as ……….
a) sub class b)derived class c)virtual class d)super class
7. Derived class is also called as ……….
a) super class b)abstract class c)base class d)sub class
8. Which of the following is the advantage of inheritance?
a) reusing existing code b) faster development time
c)memory utilization d)all of these
9. If no visibility mode is specified, then by default the visibility mode is considered as
a) private b)protected c)public d)explicit
10. All the members of the class except ................members are inherited.
a) private b)protected c)public d)explicit
11. ................. operator shows the derivation from the base class in inheritance.
a) :: b)& c): d) *
12. ………. specifies the features of base class are privately derived or publicly
derived or protected derived
a) visibility mode b) derivation c)inheritance d)polymorphism
13. ................. controls the access specifiers to be for inheritable member of base class inthe
derived class
a) overloading b) visibility mode c)inheritance d)polymorphism
14. In private inheritance the public members of base class become ............... members of
derived class.
a) private b)protected c)public d)not inherited
15. In private inheritance the protected members of base class become…....…members of
derived class.
 a) protected b)private c)public d) not inherited
16. In protected inheritance the public members of base class become ………. members of
derived class.
a) private b)protected c)public d)not inherited
17. In protected inheritance the protected members of base class become .................members
of derived class.
a) protected b)private c)public d)not inherited

18. In public inheritance the public members of base class become .............. members of
derived class.
a) protected b)private c)public d)not inherited
19. In public inheritance the protected members of base class become …… members of
derived class.
a) protected b)private c)public d)not inherited
20. In public inheritance the private members of base class become .............. members of
derived class.
a) protected b)private c)public d)not inherited
21. If a class is derived from single base class it is ..............inheritance
a) single level b)multilevel c)multiple d)hybrid
22. If a class is derived from an already derived class then it is............... inheritance
a) single level b)multilevel c)multiple d)hybrid
23. If class is derived from more than one base class then it is ................inheritance
a) single level b)multilevel c)multiple d)hybrid
24. If more than one class is derived from a single base class is called ……inheritance
a) single level b)multilevel c)multiple d)hierarchical
25. ............... inheritance is a combination of hierarchical and multilevel inheritance
a) single level b)multilevel c)multiple d)hybrid
26. We can prevent multiple copies of base class being present in an object, from those
objects by declaring the base class as ……….
a) virtual b) abstract c) derived d)private
27. .................. class is one that is not used to create an object.
a) virtual b) abstract c) derived d)sub
28. When it is mandatory to have constructors in derived class?
a) no base class constructors take any arguments
b) base class having constructors with one are more arguments
c) if there are default constructors in base class
d) if there are no constructors in base class
29. ................... takes the responsibility of supplying initial values to its base class
a) super class b) virtual class c)derived class d)abstract class
Here are the answers to the questions

1. (b) inheritance
2. (a) inheritance
3. (d) inheritance
4. (b) base class
5. (c) derived class
6. (d) super class
7. (d) sub class
8. (d) all of these
9. (c) public
10. (a) private
11. (a) ::
12. (a) visibility mode
13. (b) visibility mode
14. (a) private
15. (b) private
16. (b) protected
17. (a) protected
18. (c) public
19. (a) protected
20. (d) not inherited
21. (a) single level
22. (b) multilevel
23. (c) multiple
24. (d) hierarchical
25. (d) hybrid
26. (a) virtual
27. (b) abstract
28. (b) base class having constructors with one or more arguments
29. (c) derived class
 POINTERS
1. Which of the following is the correct way to declare a pointer?
a) int *ptr b) int ptr
c) int &ptr d)all of the above
2. Allocating sufficient memory for data and instructions during compilation is called …..
a) dynamic memory b) static memory
c) heap memory d) stack memory
3. Which of the following is the pointer operator?
a) * b) & c) % d) all the above
4. Which of the following is the pointer address operator?
a) * b) & c) ^ d) all the above
5.....................operator returns the value located at the memory address specified by its
operand.
a) * b) & c) ^ d) new
6. Static memory allocation is done at ..............................
a) compile time b) dynamic time
c) run time d) execution time
7. How do you declare a pointer?
a ) datatatype *pointer_variable; b) pointer_variable=&variable_name;
c) datatype &pointer_variable; d) datatype variable_name;
8....................operator is used to allocate memory for objects during run time
a) new b) & c) delete d) *
9. Which of the following is not possible in the pointers?
a) adding an integer value to pointers
b) subtracting an integer value from pointer
c) addition of two pointers
d) incrementing and decrementing of pointer
10. Which operator returns the value located at the address specified by its operand
a) pointer operand b) delete operand
c) new operand c) address operand
11. A pointer is a variable which stores...................... of another variable.
a) name b) value
c) address d) all of the above
12. Which of the following is not an advantage of pointer?
 a) Accessing array elements is faster
b) support dynamically allocated memory
c) it reduces program complexity
d) it decreases program execution speed
13. Pointer initialization is the process of assigning address of a variable to a pointer variable
a) true b) false c) may be d) can’t say
14. Which of the following is dereferencing operator?
a) & b) # c) * d) ^
15. Which of the following operators also known as value at address operator?
a) * b) ^ c) & d) ::
16. & and * are two pointer operators which are
a) binary b) ternary
c) unary d) logical
17. The size of pointer variable is same for all types of pointers but the memory that will be
accessed while dereferencing is different.
a) true b) false c) may be d) all the above
18. Pointer arithmetic is somewhat different from ordinary arithmetic
a) true b) false c) may be d) all of the above
19. Which of the following types of address stored in pointer variable?
a) character b) float c) integer d) none of
these
20................. operator can be applied to pointer variable.
a) divisionb) multiplication c) logical d) casting
21. Which of the following is initialization of pointers (or) assignment of pointers
a) datatatype *pointer_variable;
b) datatype &pointer_variable;
c) pointer_variable = &variable_name;
d) pointer_variable=*variable_name;
22. A string is a............... array
a) float b) integer c) character d) none of these
23. pointer is used to store ...................
a) memory address b) valuec) data d) information
24. Which of the following is used to initialize pointer?
a) * b) & c) = d) ~
25. Memory allocated during runtime is ..................... memory allocation.
a) compile time b) dynamic c) static d) none of the above
26. New operator is used to create memory during ……….
a) compile time b) runtime
c) static time d) none of the above
27. ...............operator is used to delete memory created during runtime.
a) new b) delete c) NOT d) AND
28 .................... is the collection of addresses.
a) array of objects b) array of pointers
c) array of elements d) array of variables
29 ................. is the built in pointer that holds the address of the object defined for a class.
a) this pointer b) new
c) delete d) AND
30. Pointers pointing to object of a class is called ……….
a) array of pointers b) class pointers
c) object pointer d) this pointer
31................. is the structure that includes an element that points to another structure of
same type.
a) memory heap b) self-referential structure c) structure d) memory pool
32. Dynamically allocated memory which is not deleted remains occupied called ……….
a) orphaned memory b) memory leak c) stream d) structure
33. pool of unallocated memory used for dynamic memory allocation is ……….
a) orphaned memory b) free store
c) allocated memory d) none of the above
34. Which of the following is not possible in pointers?
a) adding an integer to pointer
b) adding two pointers
c) comparing two pointers of same type
d) subtracting an integer from the pointer
35. An example for array of pointer declaration is ……….
a) int a[10] b) int *a[10] c) both a and b d) none of the above
36. The following operation that cannot be performed over pointer:
a) Addition of two pointers
b) Multiplication of two pointers
c) Division of two pointers
d) All the above
37. Every object in C++ has access to its own address through an important pointer
called.............
a) this pointer
b) free pointer
c) object pointer
d) all the above
Here are the answers to the 11. (c) address 23. (a) memory address
questions on pointers: 12. (d) it decreases 24. (c) =
program execution 25. (b) dynamic
1. *(a) int ptr speed 26. (b) runtime
2. (b) static memory 13. (a) true 27. (b) delete
3. **(a) *** 14. **(c) *** 28. (b) array of pointers
4. (b) & 15. **(a) *** 29. (a) this pointer
5. **(a) *** 16. (c) unary 30. (c) object pointer
6. (a) compile time 17. (a) true 31. (b) self-referential
7. *(a) datatype 18. (a) true structure
pointer_variable; 19. (d) none of these 32. (b) memory leak
8. (a) new 20. (b) multiplication 33. (b) free store
9. (c) addition of two 21. (c) pointer_variable = 34. (b) adding two
pointers &variable_name; pointers
10. (a) pointer operand 22. (c) character 35. *(b) int a[10]
 36. (d) All the above 37. (a) this pointer

DATABASE CONCEPTS

1. Which of the following is collection of facts, figures, statistics which can be processed
to produce meaningful information?
a) Data b) Information
c) Database d) DBMS
2. Which of the following is processed data with some definite meaning?
a) Data b) Information
c) Database d) DBMS
3. Which of the following represents facts, figures, or statistics, which have proper
meaning?
a) Data b) Information
c) Database d) DBMS
4. Which of the following is a series of actions or operations from the input data to
generate outputs?
a) Data input b) Data output
c) Data processing d) Memory
5. Which of the following is a collection of logically related data organized in a way that
data can be easily accessed, managed and updated?
a) Data b) Information
c) Database d) DBMS
6. Which of the following is a collection of data elements organized in terms of rows and
columns?
a) Data b) Information
c) Table d) Database
7. A single entry in a table is:
a) Record b) Column
c) Entity d) Field
8. A single entry in a table is:
a) Tuple b) Column
c) Entity d) Field
9. A single entry in a table is:
a) Row b) Column
c) Entity d) Field
10. Records are also called:
a) Row b) Column a Bharathi
c) Entity d) Field
11. Records are also called:
a) Tuple b) Column
c) Entity d) Field
12. Each Column is identified by a distinct header:
a) Tuple b) Field
c) Entity d) Name
13. Each Column is identified by a distinct header:
a) Tuple b) Attribute
c) Entity d) Name
14. Set of values for an attribute in that column:
a) Tuple b) Attribute
c) Entity d) Domain
15. Which of the following is a set of an object such as a table or form an entity
relationship is how each table link to each other is:
a) Tuple b) Attribute
c) Entity d) Domain
16. Which of the following is used to store relevant information along with the
documents?
a) Index field b) Memo data type
c) Text field d) Logical data type
17. Which of the following is Store data that has only two values true or false?
a) Index field b) Memo data type
c) Text field d) Logical data type
18. Which of the following is allows creation, definition and manipulation of database?
a) Data b) Information
c) Database d) DBMS
19. Following is an example for the DBMS software:
a) MySq1 b) MS Word
c) MS Excel d) MS-PowerPoint
20. The following is an example for the DBMS software:
a) Mysql b) Oracle
c) Microsoft Access d) All of the above
21. DBMS is a:
a) Centralized data management b) Single data management
c) Single user data management d) None of the above
22. Which of the following eliminates replicating(duplication)the data item indifferent
files?
a) Controlled data redundancy b) Data integrity
c) Data sharing d) All of the above
23. The following is the features of database system:
a) Controlled data redundancy b) Data integrity
c) Data sharing d) All of the above
24. Which of the following refers to validity of data and it can be compromised in several
ways?
a) Controlled data redundancy b) Data integrity
c) Data sharing d) All of the above
25. Which of the following describes how data in the database is viewed by the users?
a) DBMS architecture b) ER diagram
c) Database d) SQL
26. Which of the following data abstractions that deal with the physical representation of
the database on the computer?
a) Physical level (Internal level) b) Logical level (Conceptual level)
c) View level (External level) d) All of the above
27. Which of the following data abstractions that deal with how the data is physically
stored and organized on the storage medium?
a) Internal level b) Logical level
c) External level d) All of the above
28. Which of the following deals with the logical structure of the entire database?
a) Physical level (Internal level) b) Logical level (Conceptual level)
c) View level (External level) d) All of the above
29. Which of the following views is the overall view of the database and it includes all the
information that is going to be represented in the database?
a) Physical view (Internal view) b) Logical view(Conceptual view)
c) View level (External view) d) All of the above
30. Which of the following is describes what data is stored in the database, the relationships
among the data and complete view of the user's requirements without any concern for
the physical implementation?
a) Physical level (Internal level) b) Logical level (Conceptual level)
c) View level (External level) d) All of the above
31. Which of the following is the highest level of abstraction that deals with the user's view
of the database?
a) Physical level (Internal level) b) Logical level (Conceptual level)
c) View level (External level) d) All of the above
32. Which of the following is a DBMS user?
a) Application programmer b) End user
c) Database Administrator (DBA) d) All of the above
33. Which of the following DBMS users determines the requirement of end users,
a) Application programmers and system analysts b) End user
c) Database Administrator (DBA) d) Database designers
34. Which of the following is responsible for authorization of access to the database for
coordinating and monitoring its use?
a) Application programmers and system analysts
b) End user
 c) Database Administrator (DBA)
d) Database designers
35. ................... is responsible for identifying the data to be stored in the database for
choosing appropriate structures to represent and store the data?
a) Application programmers and system analysts
b) End user
c) Database Administrator (DBA)
d) Database designers

36. An ability of a database to modify a schema definition at one level without affecting a
schema in the next higher level?
a) Data abstraction b) Data Independence
c) Data manipulation d) Data modification
37. An ability to change the conceptual schema without affecting the external schemas or
application programs?
a) Data abstraction b) Data Independence
c) Data manipulation d) Data modification
38. In which file organization, records are arranged one after another and in no particular
order?
a) Serial File Organization
b) Sequential File organization
c) Random/Direct Access File Organization
d) Indexed Sequential Access Method(ISAM)
39. In which file organization, records are arranged in chronological order?
a) Serial File Organization
b) Sequential File organization
c) Random/Direct Access File Organization
d) Indexed Sequential Access Method(ISAM)
40. In which file organization records are stored one after another in an ascending or
descending order determined by the key field of the records?
a) Serial File Organization
b) Sequential File organization
c) Random/Direct Access File Organization
d) Indexed Sequential Access Method(ISAM)
41. In which file organization, records are stored and retrieved using a relative record
number, which gives the position of the record in the file?
a) Serial File Organization
b) Sequential File organization
c) Random/Direct Access File Organization
d) Indexed Sequential Access Method(ISAM)
42. Which file organization allows immediate direct access to individual records on the
file?
a) Serial File Organization
b) Sequential File organization
c) Random Access File Organization
d) Indexed Sequential Access Method(ISAM)
43. In which file organization, records are stored on disk by using a hashing algorithm?
a) Serial File Organization
b) Sequential File organization
c) Random/Direct Access File Organization (Random access method)
d) Indexed Sequential Access Method(ISAM)
44. Which of the following is the hybrid between sequential and direct access file
organization?
a) Serial File Organization
b) Sequential File organization
c) Random/Direct Access File Organization
d) Indexed Sequential Access Method(ISAM)
45. Which architecture is used for user interface programs and application programs that
run on client side?
a) One-tier architecture b) Two-tier architecture
c) Three-tier architecture d) Four-tier architecture
46. Which architecture is commonly used architecture for web applications?
a) One-tier architecture b) Two-tier architecture
c) Three-tier architecture d) Four-tier architecture
47. Which of the following is describe show the data is represented and used?
a) Database architecture b) Data model
c) Normalization d) Key
48. Which of the following defines the logical design of data?
a) Database architecture b) Data model
c) Normalization d) Key
49. The process of applying a data model theory to create a data model instance is:
a) Database architecture b) Data modelling
c) Normalization d) Key
50. Which of the following is the database model?
a)Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
51. database model is the oldest type of data model, developed by IBM?
a) Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
52. Which of the following database model is presented by Conference on Data Systems
Languages (CODASYL)?
a) Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
56. Which of the following database model is developed by E. F. Codd?
a) Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
57. In which data model, data is organized in tree-like structure?
a) Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
58. In which data model, is the data organized in the form of graphs?
a) Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
59. In which data model, is the data organized in the form of table?
a) Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
60. In which data model, there are no physical links between the data?
a) Hierarchical Model b) Network Model
c) Relational Model d) All of the above
61. Which of the following is the process of organizing data in a database?
a) Database architecture b) Data model
c) Normalization d) Key
62. Which of the following is based on the concept of a determinant?
a) First Normal Form b) Second Normal Form
c) Third Normal Form d) BCNF
63. Which of the following is visual representation of data that describes how data is
related to each other?
a) Database architecture b) Data model
c) Normalization d) ER-Diagram
64. The following is the component of ER-diagram.
a) Entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) All of the above
65. The following is not a component of ER-diagram.
a) Entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
66. represented using rectangle in ER-diagram?
a) Entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
67. Which of the following is represented using double rectangle in ER-diagram?
a) Weak entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
68. Which of the following is represented using eclipse in ER-diagram?
a) Weak entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
69. Which of the following is represented using eclipse with underlying lines in ER
diagram?
a) Weak entity b) Key Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
70. Which of the following is represented using diamond symbol in ER-diagram?
a) Weak entity b) Key Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
71. Which of the following is an entity that depends on another entity?
a) Weak entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
72. Which of the following describes a property or characteristic of an entity?
a) Weak entity b) Attribute
c) Relationship d) Row
73. Which of the following is an attribute can also have their own attributes?
a) Weak entity b) Key Attribute
c) Composite attribute d) Relationship
74. Which of the following describes relations between entities?
a) Weak entity b) Key Attribute
c) Composite attribute d) Relationship
75. Which of the following is the relation between two entities?
a) Binary relationship b) Recursive relationship
c) Ternary relationship d) Relative relationship
76. In which of the following, entity is related with itself
a) Binary relationship b) Recursive relationship
c) Ternary relationship d) Relative relationship
77. Which of the following is a set of one or more columns whose combined values are
unique among all occurrences in a given table?
a) Table b)Entity
c) Tuple d) Key
78. uniquely identify each record in a table.
a) Primary key b)Foreign key
c) Alternate key d) Super Key
79. Which of the following is a field in a relational table that matches the primary key
column of another table?
a) Candidate key b)Foreign key
c) Alternate key d) Super Key
 80. Which of the following is any set of one or more columns whose combined values are
unique among all occurrences?
a) Candidate key b)Foreign key
c) Alternate key d) Super Key

81. Which of the following is not currently selected as the primary key?
a) Candidate key b)Foreign key
c) Alternate key(Secondary key) d) Super Key
82. Which of the following is all sets of columns for which no two rows share the same
values for those sets?
a) Candidate key b)Foreign key
c) Alternate key(Secondary key) d) Super Key
83. Which of the following is consists of two or more attributes that uniquely identify an
entity occurrence?
a) Primary key b)Foreign key
c) Candidate key d) Composite key
84. Which of the following specifies how many instances of an entity related to one
instance of another entity?
a) Normalization b) Cardinality
c) Ordinality d) Aggregation
85. Which of the following describes the relationship as either mandatory or optional?
a) Normalization b) Cardinality
c) Ordinality d) Aggregation
86. Which of the following is a bottom-up approach in which two lower level entities
combine to form a higher level entity?
a) Normalization b)Generalization
c) Specialization d) Aggregation
87. Which of the following is a top-down approach in which one higher level entity can be
broken down into two lower-level entities?
a) Normalization b) Generalization
c) Specialization d) Aggregation
88. .............. a process when relation between two entities is treated as a single entity?
a) Normalization b) Generalization
c) Specialization d) Aggregation
89. Which of the following is the formal description of how a relational database operates?
a) Normalization b) Generalization
c) Specialization d) Relational Algebra
90. Which of the following is a repository of an organization's electronically stored data?
a) Normalization b) Generalization
c) Data warehouse d) Data Mining
 91. Which of the following is an analysis and picking out relevant information?
a) Normalization b) Generalization
c) Data warehouse d) Data Mining
92. Which of the following is data about data?
a) Metadata b) Generalization
c) Data warehouse d) Data Mining
93. Which of the following is several fundamental stages evolved in data warehouse?
a) Offline operational database b) Offline data warehouse
c) Real Time data warehouse d) All of the above
94. Which of the following is component of data warehouse?
a) Data Source b)Data transformation
c) Metadata d) All of the above
95. Which of the following is an operator which works on two sets?
a) Cartesian product b)Re1ationa1 SELECT
c) Relational PROJECT d) Set operation
96. Which of the following combines the tuples of one relation with all the tuples of the
other relation?
a) Cartesian product b)Re1ationa1 SELECT
c) Relational PROJECT d) Set operation
97. Which of the following is used to combine related tuples from two relations?
a) Cartesian product b)Re1ationa1 SELECT
c) Relational PROJECT d) Join operation
102. DBMS stands for:
a) Data Base Management System b) Dual Base Management System
c) Double Base Management System d) Data Basement Management System
103. RDBMS stands for:
a) Relational Data Base Management System
b)Relational Dual Base Management System
c) Relational Double Base Management System
d) Relational Data Basement Management System
104. ISAM stands for:
a) Indexed Sequential Access Method
b) Indexed Serial Access Method
c) Indexed Sequential Access Management
d) Indexed Serial Access Management
105. BCNF stands for:
a) Boyce and Codd Normal Form b)Boyce and Code Normal Form
c) Basic and Codd Normal Form d) Basic and Code Normal Form
106. CODASYL stands for:
a) Conference on Data Systems Languages
b) Computer on Data Systems Languages
 c) Code on Languages
Data
Systems 107. ODBC stands for:
Languages a) Open Database Connectivity b)Open
d) Computer Database Computer
on Double c) Open Data Connectivity d) Open Data
Systems Computer
Here are the answers to the questions: 42. c) Random Access File Organization
43. c) Random/Direct Access File
1. a) Data Organization (Random access
2. b) Information method)
3. b) Information 44. d) Indexed Sequential Access
4. c) Data processing Method(ISAM)
5. c) Database 45. b) Two-tier architecture
6. c) Table 46. c) Three-tier architecture
7. a) Record 47. b) Data model
8. a) Tuple 48. b) Data model
9. a) Row 49. b) Data modelling
10. a) Row 50. d) All of the above
11. a) Tuple 51. a) Hierarchical Model
12. d) Name 52. b) Network Model
13. b) Attribute 53. c) Relational Model
14. d) Domain 54. a) Hierarchical Model
15. c) Entity 55. b) Network Model
16. a) Index field 56. c) Relational Model
17. d) Logical data type 57. c) Relational Model
18. d) DBMS 58. c) Normalization
19. a) MySQL 59. b) Second Normal Form
20. d) All of the above 60. d) ER-Diagram
21. a) Centralized data management 61. d) All of the above
22. a) Controlled data redundancy 62. d) Row
23. d) All of the above 63. a) Entity
24. b) Data integrity 64. a) Weak entity
25. a) DBMS architecture 65. b) Attribute
26. a) Physical level (Internal level) 66. b) Key Attribute
27. a) Internal level 67. c) Relationship
28. b) Logical level (Conceptual level) 68. a) Weak entity
29. b) Logical view (Conceptual view) 69. b) Attribute
30. b) Logical level (Conceptual level) 70. c) Composite attribute
31. c) View level (External level) 71. d) Relationship
32. d) All of the above 72. a) Binary relationship
33. a) Application programmers and 73. b) Recursive relationship
system analysts 74. d) Key
34. c) Database Administrator (DBA) 75. a) Primary key
35. d) Database designers 76. b) Foreign key
36. b) Data Independence 77. a) Candidate key
37. b) Data Independence 78. c) Alternate key(Secondary key)
38. a) Serial File Organization 79. a) Candidate key
39. b) Sequential File organization 80. d) Composite key
40. b) Sequential File organization 81. b) Cardinality
41. c) Random/Direct Access File 82. c) Ordinality
Organization 83. b) Generalization
84. c) Specialization 94. d) Join operation
85. d) Aggregation 95. a) Data Base Management System
86. d) Relational Algebra 96. a) Relational Data Base Management
87. c) Data warehouse System
88. d) Data Mining 97. a) Indexed Sequential Access Method
89. a) Metadata 98. a) Boyce and Codd Normal Form
90. d) All of the above 99. a) Conference on Data Systems
91. d) All of the above Languages
92. d) Set operation 100. a) Open Database
93. a) Cartesian product Connectivity

Chapter 14 SQL ] COMMANDS

1. SQL is ………
a) Theoretical Language b) Procedural Language
c) Structured Language d) Unstructured Language
2. Which of the following defines the conceptual schema providing a link between the
logical and the physical structures of the database?
a) Data Definition Language(DDL) b) Data Manipulation Language(DML)
c) Data Control Language(DCL) d) Data Query Language(DQL)
3. Which of the following defines the physical characteristics of each record?
a) Data Definition Language(DDL) b) Data Manipulation
Language(DML)
c) Data Control Language(DCL) d) Data Query Language(DQL)
4. Which of the following describes the schema and subschema?
a) Data Definition Language(DDL) b) Data Manipulation
Language(DML)
c) Data Control Language(DCL) d) Data Query Language(DQL)
5. Which of the following provides the data manipulation techniques like selection,
insertion, deletion, update, modification, replacement, retrieval, sorting and display of
data or records?
a) Data Definition Language(DDL) b) Data Manipulation Language(DML)
c) Data Control Language(DCL) d) Data Query Language(DQL)
6. Following is a DDL command:
a) Create b) Alter
c) Drop d)All of the above
7. The following is not a DDL command:
a) Create b) Alter
c) Drop d)De1ete
8. The following is a DML command:
a) Insert b) Update
c) Delete d)All of the above
9. The following is not a DML command:
a) Insert b) Update
c) Delete d) Create
10. Following is a DCL command:
a) Grant b) Revoke
c) Both a and b d)None of the above
11. Following is not a DCL command:
a) Grant b) Revoke
c) Both a and b d) Insert
12. Following is a DQL command:
a) Create b) Insert
c) Grant d) Select
13. Which of the following commands is used to create a new table (database) in SQL?
a) Create b) Insert
c) Modify d) Alter
14. Which of the following commands is used to modify an existing database object, such as
a table in SQL?
a) Update b) Change
c) Modify d) Alter
15. Which of the following command is used to delete an entire table (database) in SQL?
a) Insert b) Delete
c) Drop d) Alter
16. Which of the following commands is used to create a record(add a new record or row)
in SQL?
a) Insert b) Create
c) Drop d) Alter
17. Which of the following commands is used to modify the record in SQL?
a) Update b) Change
c) Modify d) Alter
18. Which of the following command is used to delete the record in SQL?
a) Insert b) Delete
c) Drop d) Alter
19. Which of the following command is used to give the privilege to user in SQL?
a) Insert b) Create
c) Grant d)Revoke
20. Which of the following commands is used to take back privileges from user in SQL?
a) Insert b) Create
c) Grant d) Revoke
21. Which of the following commands is used to retrieve certain records from one or more
tables in SQL?
a) Insert b) Select
c) Grant d) Revoke

22. Which of the following command is used to fetch the data from a database table in SQL?
a) Insert b) Select
c) Grant d) Revoke
23. Which is a fixed length non-Unicode character in SQL?
a) Char b) Varchar
c) String d) Number
24. Which of the following is a variable length non-Unicode data in SQL?
a) Char b) Varchar
c) String d) Number
25. The following is a logical operator in SQL:
a) Any b) Between
c) Exists d) All of the above
26.Following is not a logical operator in SQL:
a) Any b) Between
c) Exists d) Exit
27. Which of the following operators is used to compare a value to all values in another
value set in SQL?
a) All b) Any
c) Between d)And
28. Which of the following operators allows the existence of multiple conditions in an SQL
statement WHERE clause?
a) All b) Any
c) AND d)0R
29. Which of the following operator is used to combine multiple conditions in an SQL
statement WHERE clause.? a) All b) Any
c) AND d) OR
30. Which of the following operators is used to search for values that are within a set of
values, given the minimum value and the maximum value?
a) All b) Any
c) Between d)And
31. Which of the following operator is used to search for the presence of a row in a specified
table that meets certain criteria?
a) All b) Any
c) Between d) Exists
32. Which of the following operator is used to compare a value to a list of literal values that
have been specified?
a) All b) Any
c) Between d) Exists
33. Which of the following operators is used to compare values to similar values using
wildcard operators?
a) All b) In
c) Between d)Like
34. Which of the following is used to fetch the data based on matching single value in SQL?
a) Boolean expression b) Numeric expression
c) Date expression d) Relational expression
35. Which of the following is used to perform any mathematical operation in any Query?
a) Boolean expression b) Numeric expression
c) Date expression d) Relational expression
36. Which of the following is used to return current system date and time value in SQL?
a) Boolean expression b) Numeric expression
c) Date expression d) Relational expression
37. Which of the following are the rules enforced on data columns on table in SQL?
a) Expressions b) Operators c) Functions d) Constraints
38. Which of the following defines a column or combination of columns which uniquely
identifies each row in the table in SQL?
a) Primary key b) Foreign Key
c) Not Null d) Unique
39. Which of the following identifies any column referencing the primary key in another
table in SQL?
a) Primary key b) Foreign Key
c) Not Null d) Unique
40. Which of the following is referential integrity in SQL?
a) Primary key b) Foreign Key
c) Not Null d) Unique
41. Which of the following ensures that a column or a group of columns in each row have a
distinct value in SQL?
a) Primary key b) Foreign Key
c) Not Null d) Unique
42. Which of the following defines a business rule on a column in SQL?
a) Primary key b) Foreign Key
c) Check d) Unique
43. Which of the following is used to sort the data in ascending or descending order, based
on one or more columns in SQL?
a) Order by b) Group by
c) Where d) Arrange
44. Which is used to use in collaboration with the select statement to arrange identical data
into groups?
a) Order by b) Group by
c) Where d) Arrange
45. Which of the following is group function in SQL?
a) Count( ) b) Max( )
c) Min( ) d) All of the above
46. Which of the following eliminates all the duplicate records and fetching only unique
records in SQL?
a) Primary key b) Foreign Key
c) Distinct d) Unique
 47. Which of the following is used to represent a missing value in SQL?
a) Primary key b) Null
c) Distinct d) Unique
48. Which of the following command is the transactional command used to save changes
invoked by a transaction to the database?
a) Create b) Insert
c) Revoke d) Commit
49. Which of the following is used to enforce database security in a multiple user database
environment?
a) DDL b) DML
c) DCL d) DQL
50. Which of the following defines the access rights provided to a user on a database Object
in SQL?
a) Privilege b) Insert
c) Revoke d) Commit
51. Following is a scalar function in SQL.
a) Single row function b) Single column function
c) Single table function d)Group function
52. Which of the following functions that accept character input and can return both
character and number values?
a) Numeric function b) Character or Text function
c) Conversion function d) Date function
53. Which of the following is a single row and single column dummy table provided by
oracle?
a) Single table b) Dual Table
c) Complete table d) All of the above
54. Which of the following is used to perform mathematical calculations without using a
table
a) Single table b) Dual Table
c) Complete table d)All of the above

Here are the question numbers, options, and answers:

1. c) Structured Language
2. a) Data Definition Language (DDL)
3. a) Data Definition Language (DDL)
4. a) Data Definition Language (DDL)
5. b) Data Manipulation Language (DML)
6. d) All of the above
7. d) Delete
8. d) All of the above
9. d) Create
10. c) Both a and b
11. d) Insert
12. d) Select
13. a) Create
14. d) Alter
15. c) Drop
16. a) Insert
17. a) Update
18. b) Delete
19. c) Grant
20. d) Revoke
21. b) Select
22. b) Select
23. a) Char
24. b) Varchar
25. d) All of the above
26. d) Exit
27. a) All
28. c) AND
29. c) AND
30. c) Between
31. d) Exists
32. b) Any
33. d) Like
34. d) Relational expression
35. b) Numeric expression
36. c) Date expression
37. d) Constraints
38. a) Primary key
39. b) Foreign Key
40. b) Foreign Key
41. a) Primary key
42. c) Check
43. a) Order by
44. b) Group by
45. d) All of the above
46. c) Distinct
47. b) Null
48. d) Commit
49. c) DCL
50. a) Privilege
51. a) Single row function
52. b) Character or Text function
53. b) Dual Table
54. b) Dual Table
 OMPUTER NETWORKS
1) The full form of OSI is…………
a. Operating System interface
b. Optical System interconnection
c. Operating System Internet
d. Open system interconnection
2) What is a HUB?
a. Software
b. Computing device
c. Network device
d. Calculating device
3) What do a set of rules define?
a. SMTP
b. FTP
c. IMAP
d. Protocol
4) Identify among the following which is mainly used to host web site.
a. Mail server
b. Webserver
c. Database server
d. None
5) Identify the full form of HTTP?
a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
b. Hypertext Transfer Package
c. Hyper Transfer Text Package
d. Hyper Transfer Text Practice
6) Identify the protocol primarily used for browsing data.
a. FTP
b. TCP
c. TFTP
d. HTTP
7) Identify the first network which was based on TCP/IP protocol.
a. ARPANET
b. HUB
c. Ethernet Card
d. Router
8) What does TCP/IP stand for?
a. Telephone control protocol / Internet Protocol
b. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol
c. Transmission control protocol/International protocol d. None
9) The collection of hyperlinked documents on the internet known as?
a. HTML
b. Email
c. WWW
d. Internet
10) The location of a resource on the internet given by
a. Email
b. IP
c. Protocol
d. URL
11) Identify the incorrect network topology,
a. Bus
b. Star
c. P2P
d. Ring
12) What is the protocol used when the main server sends mail to another mail server?
a. FTP
b. SMTP
c. TCP/IP
d. MIME
13) Identify among the following network device used to connect two dis-similar types of
networks.
a. Switch
b. Hub
c. Bridge
d. Gateway
14) Identify the device used to boost up a weak signal.
a. Modem
b. Repeater
c. Switch
d. Router
15) The arrangement where all data pass through a central computer is known as
a. Ring topology
b. Mesh topology
c. Star topology
d. Bus topology
16) The device used in the network layer?
a. Application gateway
b. Switch
c. Router
d. Repeaters
 17) Which of the following topology arrangements is a point-to-point line configuration?
a. Ring
b. Mesh
c. Star
d. All the above
18) Identify the device which links two homogeneous packed broadcast local networks.
a. Hub
b. Router
c. Bridge
d. Gateway
19) What does LAN stand for?
a. Local Array Network
b. Local Area Network
c. Local Area Net
d. None
20) Identify the switching method in which the message is divided into small packets.
a. Virtual switching
b. Packet switching
c. Message switching
d. None
21) Identify among the following servers which allow LAN users to share data.
a. Communication server
b. Point server
c. Data server
d. File server
22) The location of a resource on the internet is given by its ………….
a. Protocol
b. URL
c. E-mail address
d. ICQ

23) Which software prevents external access to a system

a. Firewall
b. Gateway
c. Router
d. Virus checker
24) Which one of the following is the most common internet protocol?
a. HTML
b. NetBEUI
c. TCP/IP
d. IPX/SPX
25) The term FTP stands for.
a. File transfer program
b. File transmission protocol
c. File transfer protocol
d. File transfer protection
26) Which one of the following is not a network topology?
a. Star
b. Ring
c. Bus
d. Peer to Peer
27) The term WAN stands for
a. Wide Area Net
b. Wide Access Network
c. Wide Area Network
d. Wide Access Net
28) The term MAN stands for.
a. Metropolitan Area Net
b. Metropolitan Area Network
c. Metropolitan Array Network
d. Metropolitan Array Net
29) Which of the through share the data of two computers?
a. Library
b. Network
c. Grouping
d. Integrated system
30) It is a computer program deliberately created to damage data and hamper the
performance of the computer
a. System software
b. Application software
c. Utility software
d. Virus
31) Virus spread very fast through network and infected
a. Mind
b. Pen drives
c. Keyboard
d. Mouse
32) It infects program files as these have simple format t which virus can be attached
a. Program virus
b. Boot virus
c. Multipartite virus
d. None of these
33) The virus that affects the boot sector of the hard disk and infects the operating system
which make the hard disk completely useless
a. Program virus
b. Boot virus
c. Stealth virus
d. None of these
34) Which of these are harmful effects of virus
a. Damages data files
b. Increasing the size of files
c. Slowing down processing speed
d. All the above
35) Computer software used to identify and remove computer viruses
a. Anti-virus
b. Computer virus
c. Trojan horse
d. Worms
36) Quickheal, Norton, Smartdog, Mcaffee are the examples of
a. Computer Virus
b. Worms
c. Antivirus
d. Trojan horse
37) Abbreviation of SIM
a. Subscriber identity module
b. Supplier information management
c. Singular information management
d. Sources interlink media
38) How many forms are the twisted pair cable?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. None
39) The following are the types in twisted pair cable.
a. Shielded twisted pair
b. Unshielded twisted pair
c. Both a and b
d. Twisted pair cable
40) UTP stands for…
a. unshielded transport pair cable
` b. unshielded twisted pair cable
c. unshielded transmission pair cable
d. unshielded twisted pair control
40) STP stands for…
a. shielded twisted pair cable
b. shielded twisted pair connectors
c. shielded transport pair cable
d. shielded transport pair connectors
41) How many types of coaxial cable?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
43) Which of the following are coaxial cable types?
a. thinnet
b. thicknet
c. copper
d. A and B both
44) Thicknet can carry signal for………meters.
a. 500m
b. 1000m
c. 100m
d. 200m
45) The maximum segment length of Thinnet coaxial cable is
a. 500 meters
b. 185 meters
c. 4 meters
d. None of the above
46) The main source in fiber optic communication?
a. light source
b. transmission medium
c. detector
d. all of the above
47) The core of an optical fiber is .
a. glass
b. plastic
c. metal
d. A and B
48) Which of the following isn’t a type of transmission mode?
a. physical
b. simplex
c. full duplex
d. half duplex
 49) In the… ........ transmission mode, communication is unidirectional
a. Simplex
b. half duplex
c. full duplex
d. semi-duplex
50) A transmission mode that can transmit data in both directions but only one direction at a
time.
a. simplex
b. half duplex
c. full duplex
d. semi-duplex

Here are the question numbers, options, and answers:

1. d) Open system interconnection

2. c) Network device
3. d) Protocol
4. b) Webserver
5. a) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
6. d) HTTP
7. a) ARPANET
8. b) Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol
9. c) WWW
10. d) URL
11. c) P2P
12. b) SMTP
13. d) Gateway
14. b) Repeater
15. c) Star topology
16. c) Router
17. b) Mesh
18. c) Bridge
19. b) Local Area Network
20. b) Packet switching
21. d) File server
22. b) URL
23. a) Firewall
24. c) TCP/IP
25. c) File transfer protocol
26. d) Peer to Peer
27. c) Wide Area Network
28. b) Metropolitan Area Network
29. b) Network
30. d) Virus
31. b) Pen drives
32. a) Program virus
33. b) Boot virus
34. d) All the above
35. a) Anti-virus
36. c) Antivirus
 37. a) Subscriber identity module
38. a) 2
39. c) Both a and b
40. b) unshielded twisted pair cable
41. a) shielded twisted pair cable
42. b) 3
43. d) A and B both
44. b) 1000m
45. b) 185 meters
46. a) light source
47. d) A and B
48. a) physical
49. a) Simplex
50. b) half duplex

INTERNET AND OPEN-SOURCE CONCEPTS

l . Which of the following software whose source code is available to customers, and it can
be modified and redistributed without any limitations?
a) Open-source software (OSS) b) Free software
c) Freeware d) Proprietary Software
2. Which of the following software is freely accessible and can be freely used, changed,
improved, copied and distributed?
a) Open-source software (OSS) b) Free software
c) Freeware d) Proprietary Software
3. Which of the following software, which is available free of cost and which allows
copying and further distribution, but not modification and whose source code is not
available?
a) Open-source software (OSS) b) Free software
c) Freeware d) Proprietary Software
4. Which of the following software is both free software as well as open source software?
a) Free Libre and Open-Source Software(FLOSS) b) Free software
c) Freeware d) Proprietary Software
5. Which of the following software is neither open nor freely available?
a) Open-source software (OSS) b) Free software
c) Freeware d) Proprietary Software
6. Which of the following software is made available with the right to redistribute copies?
a) Open-source software (OSS) b) Shareware
c) Freeware d) Proprietary Software
7. Shareware software is one in which:
a) Source code is not available b)Modifications to the software allowed
c) Both a and b d) It is free
8. Which of the following is criteria of open-source software (OSS)?
a) Free redistribution b) Source Code
c) Derived works d) All of the above
9. Which of the following is a non-profit organization created for the purpose of supporting
free software movement?
a) Free Software Foundation(FSF) b) IPR
c) OSI d) WIPO
10. Who founded the Free Software Foundation(FSF)?
a) Richard Stallman b) E F Codd
c) George Boole d) Erics Raymond
I l. Which of the following is an organization dedicated to cause of promoting open source
software?
a) Free Software Foundation b) IPR
c) Open-Source Initiative(OSI) d) WIPO
12. Who founded the Open-Source Initiative(OSI)?
a) Richard Stallman b) E F Codd
c) George Boole d) Bruce Preens and Erics Raymond
13. Which of the following is an older internet utility that lets you log on to remote
computer systems?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) WWW (World Wide web) d) Telnet
14. Which of the following is a set protocol that allows you to access any document on the
net through a naming system based on URLs?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) WWW (World Wide web) d) Telnet
15. Which of the following is responsible for producing the software standards for world
wide web (WWW)?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) W3C d) W2C
16. Which of the following is a WWW client that navigates through the World Wide Web
and displays web pages?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) WWW (World Wide web) d) Telnet
17. Which of the following responds to the requests made by web browsers?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) WWW (World Wide web) d) Telnet
18. Which of the following is the documents residing on web sites?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) Web page d) Telnet
19. Which of the following is a unique address of web sites?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) Web page d) Uniform Resource Locator (URL)
20. Which of the following is the top-level web page of a web site?
a) Web browser b) Web server
c) Web page d) Home page
21. Which of the following is a web site, which hosts other web sites?
a) Web portal b) Web server
c) Web page d) Home page
22. Which of the following is not a web browser?
a) Google Chrome b) Internet explorer
c) Gmail d) Mozilla Firefox
23. Following is a syntax of URL……….
a) type://address/path b) path://address/ type
c) address://address/ path d) type://address/ type
24. Which of the following is used to identify one or more IP addresses?
a) Web portal b) Web server
c) Domain name d) URL
25. Which of the following is a sophisticated combination of technologies and consumer-
based services integrated to form a new paradigm in business transaction processing?
a) Web portal b) Web server
c) E-commerce d) URL
26. Which of the following is the trade of goods and services with the help of
telecommunications and computers?
a) Web portal b) Web server
c) E-commerce d) URL
27. Which of the following technologies and services are used in e-commerce?
a) e-mail b) Electronic Funds transfer(EFT)
c) Electronic Benefits transfer(EBT) d) All of the above
28. Which of the following is not a type of E-commerce?
a) B2B b) B2C c) C2C d) B2E
29. Which of the following is the exchange of services, information and/or products from
one business to another Business partners?
a) Business-to-Business(B2B) b) Business-to Consumer(B2C)
c) Consumer-to-Business(C2B) d) Consumer-to-Consumer(C2C)
30. Which of the following is the exchange of services, information and/or product from a
business to a consumer?
a) Business-to-Business(B2B) b) Business-to Consumer(B2C)
c) Consumer-to-Business(C2B) d) Consumer-to-Consumer(C2C)
31. Which of the following is an advantage of electronic commerce?
a) Easier entry into new markets, especially geographically remote markets
b) Global participation
c) Optimization of resource
d) All the above
32. Which of the following is related issues in India like patents, trademarks, copyrights,
designs and geographical indications are governed by the Patents Act?
a) FSF b) IPR
c) OSI d) WIPO
33. OSS stands for
a) Open-Source Software
b) Open System Software
c) On Source Software
d) Off Source Software
 34. FOSS stands for
a) Free Libre(Livre) and Open-Source Software
b) Free Libre(Livre) and Open System Software
c) Free Libre(Livre) and On Source Software
d) Free Libre(Livre) and Off Source Software
35. URL stands for
a) Uniform Resource Locator b) Universal Resource Locator
c) Uniform Read Locator d) Universal Read Locator
36. WWW stands for
a) Word Wide Web b) World Wide Website
c) World Wide Web d) World Web Wide

Here are the question numbers, options, and answers:

1. a) Open-source software (OSS)

2. b) Free software
3. c) Freeware
4. a) Free Libre and Open-Source Software (FLOSS)
5. d) Proprietary Software
6. a) Open-source software (OSS)
7. c) Both a and b
8. d) All of the above
9. a) Free Software Foundation (FSF)
10. a) Richard Stallman
11. c) Open-Source Initiative (OSI)
12. d) Bruce Perens and Eric Raymond
13. d) Telnet
14. c) WWW (World Wide Web)
15. c) W3C
16. a) Web browser
17. b) Web server
18. c) Web page
19. d) Uniform Resource Locator (URL)
20. d) Home page
21. a) Web portal
22. c) Gmail
23. a) type://address/path
24. c) Domain name
25. c) E-commerce
26. c) E-commerce
27. d) All of the above
28. d) B2E
29. a) Business-to-Business (B2B)
30. b) Business-to-Consumer (B2C)
31. d) All the above
32. b) IPR
33. a) Open-Source Software
34. a) Free Libre (Livre) and Open-Source Software
35. a) Uniform Resource Locator
36. c) World Wide Web

1. HTML was invented by:

a) Tim Berners Lee b) Ken Thomson
c) E F Codd d) None of the above
2. Which of the following makes it possible to present information on the internet?
a) SQL b) Browser
b) HTML d) All of these
3. Which of the following is for documents containing structured information?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c)XML d) All of the above
4. Which of the following is a text-based markup language that is fast becoming the
standard for data interchange on the web?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c) XML d) All of the above
5. Which of the following documents is always constrained to be well formed?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c) XML d) All of the above
6. Which of the following refers to web content that changes each time it is viewed?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c) XML d) All of the above
7. Which of the following is an object-oriented view of a Web page and its elements?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c) XML d) None of these
8. Which of the following contains dynamic fonts?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c) XML d) None of these
9. Which of the following is not a case sensitive?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c) Both a and b d) None of these
11. Which of the following is a case sensitive?
a) HTML b) DHTML
c) Both a and b d) None '
12. Knowledge Which of the following is hosting web-server application on a computer
system through which electronic content on the Internet is readily available to any
web-browser client?
a) Web Hosting b) Web scripting
c) Domain Registration d) All of the above
13. is the process of creating and embedding scripts in a web page?
a) Web Hosting b) Web scripting
c) Domain Registration d) All of the above
14. Which of the following enables interaction within a web page?
a) Web Hosting b) Client-Side scripting
c) Server-side scripting d) All of the above
15. Which of the following enables the completion or carrying out a task at the server
end and then sending the result to the client end?
a) Web Hosting b) Client-Side scripting
c) Server-side scripting d) All of the above
16. Which of the following is available with many prominent sites that offer to host some
web pages for no cost?
a) Free Hosting b) Virtual or Shared Hosting
c) Dedicated Hosting d) Collocation Hosting
17. Which of the following is provided under one's own domain name?
a) Free Hosting b) Virtual or Shared Hosting
c) Dedicated Hosting d) Collocation Hosting
18. In which type of hosting the company rents an entire server from the hosting
company?
a) Free Hosting b) Virtual or Shared Hosting
c) Dedicated Hosting d) Collocation Hosting
19. Which of the following ensures optimal performance of your website irrespective of
what platform it is built on?
a) Web Hosting b) Web scripting
c) Domain Registration d) All of the above
20. Which of the following is a webpage which allows the user to enter information?
a) Table b) Form
c) Image d) All of the above
21. Which of the following is a text resizing tag?
a) <big> b) <small>
c) <hl> d) All of the above
22. Which of the following is not a text resizing tag? KNOWLEDGE
a) <big> b) <small>
c) <hl> d) All of the above
23. ...................... tag encloses an entire html document.
a) <html> b) <head>
c) <body> d) All of the above
24. Which of the following tag having heading information?
a) <html> b) <head>
c) <body> d) All of the above

25. Which of the following tag is used to insert the title?

a) <html> b) <head>
c) <body> d) < title>
 26. Which of the following tag is used for hyperlink?
a) <a> or anchor b) <img>
c) <li> d) <body>
27. Which of the following tag is used to insert a table?
a) <table> b) <img>
c) <li> d) <body>
28. Which of the following tag which is used to create the table row?
a) <tr> b) <td>
c) <th> d) <br>
29. Which of the following tag display the bullets?
a) <ul> b) <ol>
c) <li> d) < dl>
30. HTML stands for
a) Hyper Text Markup Language b) Hyper Test Markup Language
c) Hyper Test Main Language d) Hyper Table Markup Language
31. DHTML stands for
a) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup Language
b) Dynamic Hyper Test Markup Language
c) Dynamic Hyper Test Main Language
d) Dynamic Table Markup Language
32. XML stands for
a) extensible(eXtended)Markup Language
b) Extensible Main Language
c) eXtra Markup Language
d) d) eXtra Main Language
1. a) Tim Berners Lee 18. c) Dedicated Hosting
2. c) HTML 19. a) Web Hosting
3. c) XML 20. b) Form
4. c) XML 21. a) <big>
5. c) XML 22. c) <hl>
6. b) DHTML 23. a) <html>
7. b) DHTML 24. b) <head>
8. b) DHTML 25. d) <title>
9. a) HTML 26. a) <a> or anchor
10. c) Both a and b 27. a) <table>
11. b) DHTML 28. a) <tr>
12. a) Web Hosting 29. a) <ul>
13. b) Web scripting 30. a) Hyper Text Markup Language
14. b) Client-Side scripting 31. a) Dynamic Hyper Text Markup
15. c) Server-side scripting Language
16. a) Free Hosting 32. a) extensible (eXtended) Markup
17. c) Dedicated Hosting Language