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AATBS Quiz Questions

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56 views14 pages

AATBS Quiz Questions

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DrDan_G
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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For a diagnosis of Transient Tic Disorder, a patient must have:

a. A single motor or vocal tic that has been present for no longer than four weeks.
b. Multiple motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for no longer than four months.
c. One or more motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for no longer than 12 weeks.
d. One or more motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for no longer than 12 months.

Current theories conceptualize the “attention deficits” of Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder


(ADHD) as the consequence of:

a. A marked inability to sustain or focus attention


b. A marked inability to regulate attention
c. Inadequate cognitive flexibility
d. Lower-than-normal levels of task-related motivation

The biological brother of a person who has received a diagnosis of Schizophrenia is ________ times
more likely to develop the disorder than a member of the general population.

a. Two
b. Five
c. Ten
d. Twenty

Tina T., age 29, tells her therapist that, since the death of her aunt seven weeks ago, she has been
feeling sad and irritable every day; has had no appetite; feels tired all of the time and sleeps for more
than nine hours each night; isn’t interested in spending time with her friends; and feels guilty about not
keeping in closer touch with her aunt when she was alive. She also says that, because she’s having
trouble getting to work on time and concentrating when she’s there, she’s afraid she’s going to lose her
job. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis for Tina is:

a. Dysthymic Disorder
b. Major Depressive Disorder
c. Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood
d. Adjustment Disorder with Mixed Anxiety and Depressed Mood

In adulthood, the rate of Major Depressive Disorder for women is about twice the rate for men. This
gender difference:

a. Is the opposite of what is found in prepubertal children


b. Is the same as what is found in prepubertal children
c. Does not become evident until mid-adolescence
d. Does not become evident until early adulthood.
Five weeks after witnessing the murder of her roommate, a young woman developed the following
symptoms – nightmares and flashbacks of the event, feelings of detachment, reduced emotional
responding, and insomnia. She has had these symptoms for five weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. PTSD, Acute
b. PTSD, Delayed Onset
c. Acute Stress Disorder
d. Adjustment Disorder

For a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, a person must exhibit which of the following?

a. Binge eating and purging for at least four months


b. Compulsive eating for at least three months
c. Binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months
d. Binge eating and purging or excessive exercising for at least four months

From the perspective off Gestalt therapy, transference:

a. Represents confusion between fantasy and reality


b. Represents projection of disowned parts of the self
c. Is an attempt to avoid strong feelings
d. Is a manifestation of regression

The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and
maintain the family’s current state of equilibrium is referred to as ______ feedback.

a. External
b. Internal
c. Negative
d. Positive

A family therapist notices that, whenever the mother talks, the father and son contradict what she says
and criticize her. As described by Minuchin, the father and son’s behavior is an example of:

a. Triangulation
b. A stable coaltion
c. Positive feedback
d. Scapegoating

A family therapist whose approach is based on the work of Salvador Minuchin uses which of the
following to identify family structural problems that will become the target of therapy?
a. Eco-map
b. Functional analysis
c. Circular questions
d. Family map

Efficacy studies are:

a. Useful for determining a treatment’s cost-effectiveness


b. Conducted under well-controlled conditions
c. Better than effectiveness studies for evaluating a treatment’s generalizability
d. No longer conducted because of their limited usefulness.

Research on Helm’s White Racial Identity Development Model has found that a white therapist is most
effective when working with clients from culturally-diverse groups when the therapist is in which of the
following stages?

a. Identity integration
b. Internalization
c. Reintegration
d. Autonomy

According to Cross, an African-American adult in which of the following stages of identity development
is likely to say that racial oppression is not a contributor to his problems and that he prefers to see a
white therapist?

a. Disintegration
b. Pre-encounter
c. Emersion
d. Pseudo-independence

As described by Pavolovians, backwards conditioning involves:

a. Presenting the unconditioned stimulus before the conditioned stimulus


b. Presenting the conditioned stimulus before the unconditioned stimulus
c. Applying a reinforce before the target behavior occurs
d. Beginning reinforcement with the last behavior in the behavior chain

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

a. A truck driver stops speeding after receiving her third ticket for driving over the speed limit.
b. A child keeps whining because of the negative attention he receives whenever he does so.
c. A college student cleans is dorm room in order to keep his roommatefrom nagging about how
sloppy he is.
d. A boy stops fighting with his sister because, whenever he fights with her, his parents subtract 50
cents from his weekly allowance.

In their revision of the learned helplessness model of depression, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989)
emphasize the role of:

a. Punishment
b. Internal attributions
c. Feelings of hopelessness
d. Genetic predisposition

In Ellis’ A-B-C model, B refers to:

a. Behaviors and emotions that occur in response to a cue or antecedent


b. Beliefs about the cue or antecedent
c. Behaviors or emotions that occur in response to beliefs about the cue or antecedent
d. Biological (physiological) response to a cue or antecedent

The three overlapping stages of Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation training are:

a. Formulation, problem focus, and termination


b. Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement
c. Cognitive modeling, overt instruction, and covert instruction
d. Education, skills acquisition, and application

Thermal biofeedback would be most effective as a treatment for:

a. Hyperventilation
b. Raynaud’s disease
c. Stuttering
d. Gerstmann’s syndrome

Sensory memory:

a. Holds a very small amount of sensory data for a brief period


b. Holds a very small amount of sensory data for a long period.
c. Holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period
d. Holds a large amount of sensory data for a long period

A psychologist is hired to perform a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. The


psychologist discusses the purpose of the evaluation with the defendant who then says he does not
want to cooperate. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (APA, 1991), the
psychologist should:
a. remind the defendant that he has no choice since the evaluation is court-ordered
b. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless he obtains an informed consent from the defendant
c. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless he obtains an informed consent from the either the
defendant or the defendant’s attorney
d. postpone the evaluation and contact the defendant’s attorney

Dr. A.T. Tester, a licensed psychologist, is scheduled to testify on behalf of the prosecution in a criminal
case. He receives a request from the defendant to act as a fact witness. As an ethical psychologist, Dr.
Tester should:

a. explain to the defendant’s attorney that he cannot do so since this would constitute a dual role,
which is prohibited by ethical standards.
b. Agree to do so only if he is able to get permission from the defendant and the plaintiff (or their
attorneys) or from the court.
c. Agree to act as a fact witness only after clarifying his responsibilities with all parties
d. Agree to act as a fact witness since this does not conflict with his other role.

Which of the following best describes requirements regarding the acceptance of contingent fees as
provided in the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (APA, 1991)?

a. Psychologists may provide services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis of contingent
fees only when those services involve testimony as an expert witness
b. Psychologists may provide services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis fo contingent
fees only when the amount of the fees are “reasonable and consistent with current standards.”
c. Psychologists must not provide professional services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis
of contingent fees when those services involve testimony that will be relied upon by the court or
third parties.
d. Psychologists must not provide professional services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis
of contingent fees only when providing those services represents an unacceptable dual
relationship.

Dr. Opt assists with hiring decisions at the mental health clinic where he works. He recommends that an
applicant for a staff psychologist position not be considered because of an unresolved charge of sexual
harassment that has been filed against her with the Ethics Committee. Dr. Opt’s recommendation about
the psychologist is:

a. Consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code


b. A violation of the provisions of the Ethics Code
c. Ethical as long as the psychologist is considered when she is acquitted of the charge
d. Not addressed by the Ethics Code

A licensed psychologist who provides individual and group therapy to adolescents and adults learns that
she is HIV+. In terms of ethical requirements, the psychologist:
a. should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by her
medical condition
b. should obtain supervision to ensure that her medical condition does not impair her ability to
provide effective services to clients
c. should inform her clients of her medical condition “as early as is feasible.”
d. Is not obligated to take any special actions or precautions in this situation

Dr. S. Towne is the only mental health professional in Micropolis, population 912, and the next town is
105 miles away. She finds that some of her clients have problems that are outside her area of training.
Dr. Towne should:

a. See the clients only if they are in a crisis situation


b. Use only interventions that she already has experience using
c. Refuse to see the clients until she receives adequate training
d. Obtain supervision or consultation by telephone

The police arrive at your office with an arrest warrant for one of your clients. They tell you that they
need the client’s most recent address and telephone number. You should:

a. Provide them with the information they request since they have a warrant
b. Make a copy of the warrant for your files before providing them with the information they
request
c. Tell them you will have to get a signed waiver from the client before you can release any
information about him
d. Not give any information about the client

When a research study might cause participants pain, deception:

a. Is prohibited if the pain is physical but not if it is psychological in nature


b. Is ordinarily prohibited whether it is physical or psychological in nature
c. Is acceptable only if no alternative methods for obtaining the data are available
d. Is acceptable only if it is justified by the study’s “prospective value.”

Which of the following statements is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code
regarding publication credit for publications that are substantially based on a student’s doctoral
dissertation?:

a. Authorship credit must reflect each individual’s relative contribution to the research project.
b. Authorship credit must be “mutually agreed upon” by all individuals who contributed
substantially to the project
c. The student must be listed as the first author except under “exceptional circumstances”
d. The student must always be listed as first author.
The _____________________ technique is particularly difficult to use as a method for evaluating job
performance when there are a large number of employees to evaluate.

a. Forced choice
b. Critical incident
c. Graphic rating scale
d. Paired comparison

In a scatterplot depicting the relationship between a predictor and a criterion, differential validity is
suggested when:

a. The Y-intercept is different from members of different groups


b. The slope of the regression line is different for members of different groups
c. The average score on the predictor is different for members of different groups
d. The average score on the criterion is different for members of different groups

As defined by the EEOC, adverse impact is suggested when:

a. Validity coefficients for different groups differ


b. Selection rates for different groups differ
c. Criterion performance for different groups differ
d. Predictor means for different groups differ

In the 1950s, researchers at Ohio State University developed an influential theory of leadership that
focused on a leader’s:

a. Personality traits
b. Behaviors
c. Attitudes toward subordinates
d. Power

A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes et al. (1999) found that, in terms of job outcomes, the
compressed workweek has the MOST positive impact on:

a. Overall job satisfaction


b. Health outcomes
c. Absenteeism and turnover
d. Objective measures of job performance
The assumption that changes in regional cerebral blood flow correspond to changes in neural activity
underlies the use of all of the following brain imaging techniques except:

a. PET
b. fMRI
c. CT
d. SPECT

The most commonly prescribed drugs for Tourette’s syndrome are drugs that:

a. Increase dopamine levels


b. Block dopamine transmission
c. Increase acetylcholine levels
d. Blok acetylcholine transmission

If you’re in a car accident that causes damage to your cerebellum, you’re most likely to:

a. Have trouble jogging and playing tennis


b. Find it difficult to answer EPPP questions
c. Have trouble recognizing friends and family members
d. Find it difficult to do simple arithmetic calculations

Impaired facial recognition, left-right disorientation, difficulty recognizing familiar objects by touch, and
an inability to perform complex, purposeful movements (apraxia) are most suggestive of damage to the:

a. Parietal lobes
b. Frontal lobes
c. Temporal lobes
d. Occipital lobes

Damage to the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is most likely to result in:

a. Anxiety and depression


b. Indifference or undue cheerfulness
c. Aphasia
d. Increased agitation

A patient with brain damage is unable to recognize his doctor’s face even though he has met with the
doctor several times. The condition is known as:

a. Topographagnosia
b. Prosopagnosia
c. Autotopagnosia
d. Anosognosia
Difficulty in repeating words just spoken by another person and identifying the name of a familiar object
are characteristic symptoms of:

a. Wernicke’s aphasia only


b. Wernicke’s and conduction aphasia only
c. Wernicke’s and Broca’s aphasia only
d. Wernicke’s, Broca’s, and conduction aphasia

Following a closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 55-year-old woman experiences extensive
retrograde amnesia that affects memories for events that occurred up to 10 years prior to the accident.
When her “lost” memories begin to return, she will most likely recall which of the following first:

a. Memories from 10 years before the accident


b. Memories from 6 months before the accident
c. Memories from 1 week before the accident
d. Memories of the accident

When tardive dyskinesia develops as the result of antipsychotic drug use:

a. Its symptoms are nearly always irreversible


b. It signals that a larger dose of the drug is required
c. Its symptoms may decline if the drug is slowly withdrawn
d. Its symptoms may increase temporarily after the drug is slowly withdrawn but thereafter
decline.

Which of the following drugs is considered a first-line treatment for neuropathic pain?

a. Carbamazepine
b. Clozapine
c. Amitriptyline
d. Naltrexone

Prescribing methylphenidate for a child who is believed to have ADHD:

a. Would help confirm the diagnosis because only children with this disorder display its paradoxical
effects
b. Would not help confirm the diagnosis because children without this disorder also display its
paradoxical effects
c. Would be contraindicated because it can produce ADHD-like symptoms in children who do not
have the disorder
d. Would be contraindicated because of the high risk for physical and psychological dependence on
the drug
M. Rutter (1979) identified several high-risk factors (“Rutter’s indicators) for the development of
psychopathology in children. These factors include:

a. physical disabilities, small family size, and racial/ethnic minority


b. low IQ, large family size, and chronic physical illness
c. parental marital discord, high socioeconomic status, and parental psychiatric disorder
d. Parental marital discord, large family size, and paternal criminality

As defined by Piaget, a child is exhibiting “horizontal decalage” when he/she:

a. Reasons from one particular event to another particular event


b. Can perform a task with assistance but not alone
c. Gradually makes finer and finer distinctions between stimuli over time
d. Manifests inconsistency in exhibiting a particular type of ability

Babbling ordinarily begins at about 4 to 5 months of age and initially includes:

a. Phones from all languages


b. Phonemes from the child’s native language only
c. Morphemes from all languages
d. Morphemes that the child has heard most frequently

In Ainsworth’s Strange Situation, a one-year-old child shows little distress when her mother leaves the
room and ignores her when she returns. Most likely, this mother is:

a. Neglectful or physically abusive


b. Depressed
c. Impatient or overstimulating
d. A single parent

Self-conscious emotions (e.g., jealousy and embarrassment) are first evident in the:

a. Second half of the first year of life


b. Middle of the second year of life
c. Beginning of the third year of life
d. Beginning of the fourth year of life

As described by Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of moral development believes that:

a. Rule violations will be punished


b. Rules can be changed by consensus
c. Rules can be changed by authorities only
d. Rules are made to be broken
Research by Hetherington (1993) and others investigating the effects of remarriage on the adjustment
of children indicates that children ages ________ have a particularly difficult time adjust to a stepparent.

a. Three to five
b. Six to ten
c. Thirteen to fifteen
d. Seventeen to nineteen

The best predictor of a child’s level of adjustment following the divorce of his/her parents is:

a. The degree of open conflict between the parents


b. The frequency of contact with the noncustodial parent
c. Whether the child lives with the same- or opposite-sex parent
d. Whether one or both parents remarry soon after the divorce

“Sampling error” is due to:

a. The unreliability of the test


b. The invalidity of the test
c. Random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample
d. Non-random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample

To increase power, you would:

a. Reduce alpha
b. Increase beta
c. Reduce sample size
d. Increase sample size

An investigator wants to test the hypothesis that the average number of aggressive acts that children
exhibit in an unfamiliar situation is related to gender and sociability (“sociable” or “shy”). He obtains a
sample of 30 boys and 30 girls who have been rated as either sociable or shy and then has observers
count the number of aggressive acts each child exhibits in an unfamiliar situation during a 30-minute
play period. The best statistical test to analyze the data the investigator collects in this study is which of
the following:

a. T-test for independent samples


b. Chi-square test
c. One-way ANOVA
d. Two-way ANOVA
A researcher uses a factorial ANOVA to statistically analyze the effects of four types of training strategies
and three levels of self-efficacy on a measure of job performance. The results indicate that there are
significant main effects of each independent variable and a significant interaction. The researcher will
conclude that:

a. Training is effective regardless of level of self-efficacy


b. Each type of training is equally effective for each level of self-efficacy
c. The most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy
d. Overall, training is effective only for people with a certain level of self-efficacy

An organizational psychologist is hired by a company to help identify job applicants who should be
considered for managerial level positions. In this situation, the psychologist wants to develop a selection
test battery that will provide the following information: “Which group (manager or non-manager) does a
job applicant most closely resemble?” Which of the following methods for combining selection test
scores will be most useful for answering this question?

a. Multiple regression
b. Discriminant function analysis
c. Factor analysis
d. Canonical correlation

A linear structural relations analysis (LISREL) is useful for:

a. Developing a causal model for the relationships among a set of variables


b. Testing the veracity of a causal model for the relationships among a set of observed variables
only
c. Testing the veracity of a causal model of the relationships among a set of observed and latent
variables
d. Identifying the linear combination of two sets of variables that produces the highest correlation
coefficient

External validity is likely to be a problem when:

a. The results of a research study indicate that a test’s validity coefficient differs for members of
different groups
b. An investigator uses a nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data she collected in a
research study
c. The research study conducted by an investigator does not include a no-treatment control
(comparison) group
d. The research design used by an investigator involves sequentially administering the different
levels of the IV to the same group of participants

When using an ABAB design, you are:

a. Administering two different treatments at two different times


b. Administering one treatment at two different times
c. Administering one treatment to two different groups
d. Administering one treatment to two different behaviors

Matilda obtains a score of 90 on a test that has a mean of 100, standard deviation of 10, and standard
error of measurement of 6. The 95% confidence interval for Matilda’s score is:

a. 80 to 100
b. 70 to 110
c. 84 to 96
d. 78 to 102

In a factor matrix, a test’s ______ indicates the proportion of the test’s total variance that is accounted
for by the identified factors.

a. Factor loading
b. Principal component
c. Critical value
d. Communality

The relationship between reliability and validity is such that:

a. A test’s validity coefficient cannot exceed its reliability coefficient


b. A test’s validity coefficient cannot exceed the square root of its reliability coefficient
c. A test’s validity coefficient cannot exceed the square of its reliability coefficient
d. A test’s reliability coefficient cannot exceed its validity coefficient

Cleo and Cleopatra obtain percentile ranks, respectively, of 48 and 92 on a math test. If four points is
subtracted from each of their raw scores (due to scoring error) but not from the scores of other
examinees, you would expect:

a. Cleo’s percentile rank will decrease more than Cleopatra’s


b. Cleo’s percentile rank will decrease less than Cleopatra’s
c. Cleo and Cleopatra’s percentile rank will decrease by the same amount
d. Cleo and Cleopatra’s percentile ranks will not change.

The distribution of percentile ranks is:

a. The same shape as the distribution of raw scores


b. Always “normal” in shape
c. Always “flat” in shape
d. Leptokurtic relative to the distribution of raw scores.
Research on gender and crowding has found that, in laboratory (experimental) settings:

a. Males are more stressed than females by crowded conditions


b. Females are more stressed than males by crowded conditions
c. Males and females do not differ consistently with regard to response to crowded conditions
d. Males are more stressed than females by crowded conditions when the crowd consists only of
other males but not when it consists of males and females

The approach-avoidance conflict model predicts that as you get closer to a goal:

a. The positive aspects of the goal continue to increase, while the negative aspects decrease
b. The negative aspects of the goal continue to increase, while the positive aspects decrease
c. The positive and negative aspects of the goal both increase, but the negative aspects increase
more
d. The positive and negative aspects of the goal both increase, but the positive aspects increase
more

A child with ADHD is likely to get the lowest scores on which of the following WISC-IV subtests?

a. Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, and Picture Concepts


b. Picture Concepts, Picture Completion, and Similarities
c. Comprehension, Symbol Search, and Coding
d. Cancellation, Arithmetic, and Coding

Research on Raven’s Progressive Matrices has confirmed that it is a measure of:

a. Nonverbal memory
b. Spearman’s “g.”
c. Psychomotor ability
d. Sequential processing

A “conversion V” pattern on the MMPI-2 occurs when an examinee’s scale 2 score is significantly lower
than his/her scores on scales 1 and 3 and is associated with:

a. Passive-aggressive behavior
b. An attempt to present oneself in a favorable light
c. The presence of psychotic symptoms
d. A tendency to somaticize psychological problems

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