Choose the best answer

1. Which command used to make a port trunk port ?

A) switchport mode trunk.

B) port mode trunk.

C) switchport enable trunk.

D) switchport enable mode trunk.

Ans. A

2. Which command used to remove the trunk mode of a port ?

A) switchport no mode trunk.

B) switchport delete mode trunk.

C) switchport rem mode access.

D) switchport mode access.

Ans. B

3. What command is used to enable the voice vlan feature on a port ?

A) switchport mode voice vlan.

B) switchport voice vlan.

C) switchport change voice vlan.

D) None of the above.

Ans.B

4. Which IEEE standard frames used to carry voice traffic of IP phone for a specified voice VLAN ?

A) 802.1p.

B) 802.1D.

C) 802.1W.

D) 802.1Q.

Ans.D
5. What IEEE standard is used for priority tagging for voice traffic in a VLAN ?

A) 802.1p.

B) 802.1Q.

C) 802.1D.

D) 802.1W.

Ans.A

6. How switches identify which frames belong to which VLANs ?

A) Frame filtering.

B) Mac filtering.

C) Frame tagging.

D) None of the above.

Ans.C

7. What is the default VTP mode ?

A) Client.

B) Server.

C) Transparent.

D) None of the above.

Ans.B

8. In which mode only you can change VTP information on a switch ?

A) Client.

B) Server.

C) Transparent.

D) None of the above.

Ans.B
 9. Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?
• A. Switch#show ip interface brief
• B. Switch#show interface vlan 20
• C. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20
• D. Switch#show vlan id 20
Ans. D

10. Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
a. A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
b. B. Switch(config)#interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
c. C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
d. D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
e. E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Ans. A

11. What is the default VLAN on an access port?

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 10
• D. 1024
Ans. B

12. Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

• A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default
• B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default
• C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
• D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons
Ans. A

13. Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
• A. IEEE 802.1w
• B. IEEE 802.1D
• C. IEEE 802.1Q
• D. IEEE 802.1p
Ans. C
 14. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device

A. 6Router
B. Bridge
C. Modem
D. Repeater

Ans. B

15. Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same time?

a. Contention
b. Collision
c. Synchronous
d. Asynchronous
e. None of the above

Ans. B

A) The research and development department at your office has been experimenting with different
technologies to help improve the performance of the network. One group has been examining the use of
a broadband network versus a based band network. Select the correct statement about broadband and
baseband.

A. Broadband networks carry several channels on a single cable, whereas in a baseband network several
cables carry one channel.
B. Baseband networks carry a single channel on a single cable, whereas broadband networks carry several
channels on a single cable.
C. Baseband refers to local area networks, and broadband refers to wide area networks.
D. Baseband operates at a standard bit rate, whereas broadband may operate at different rates as needed.
E. Broadband and baseband refer to the different frequencies at which infrared operates then transmitting
signals in certain conditions

Ans. B

B) An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted is known as

A. Frame check sequence

B. Error detecting code
C. Checksum
D. flow control
None of the above

Ans. A

• What are the key functions of encapsulation?

A) allows modification of the original data before transmission;

B) identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication ;
C) enables consistent network paths for communication;
D) enables the reassembly of complete messages;

ans. B

• What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
A) supports error detection;
B) ensures ordered arrival of data;
C) provides delivery to correct destination;
D) identifies the devices on the local network;
E) assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection.

Ans. A

• Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer?

A. Network;
B. Transport;
C. Physical ;
D. Session .

Ans. C

• Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

A) A LAN is usually in a single geographical area;

B) The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection;
C) The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider;
D) A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common
organization;

Ans. A
 • What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
A) the destination device on the local media;
B) the destination host address;
C) the bits that will be transferred over the media;
D) the source application or process creating the data.

Ans. B

• Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

A) physical;
B) data link;
C) network ;
D) transport.

Ans. C

•
• What protocol operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
A) ARP;
B) DNS;
C) PPP;
D) ICMP.

Ans. B
 • Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?

A) DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts;

B) POP delivers email from the client to the server email server;
C) SMTP supports file sharing;
D) Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access.

Ans. D

• What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

A) HTTP;
B) SSH;
C) FQDN;
D) DNS ;
E) SMTP ;

Ans. D

• What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a
server?
A. HTML;
B. HTTP;
C. FTP;
D. Telnet.

Ans. C

• 19. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a
SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

A. Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2;
B. Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2;
C. Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2;
D. Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1;
E. Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

Ans. F

• What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?

A) flow control;
B) low overhead;
 C) connection-oriented;
D) sequence and acknowledgement.

Ans. B

• Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network.
What step can the network administrator take to resolve this problem?

A. Replace S2 with a router;

B. Place all servers on S1;
C. Disable TCP/IP broadcasts;
D. Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

Ans. A

• Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks?

A) hub;
B) switch;
C) firewall;
D) access point;
E) bridge.

Ans. C

• 15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many
broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

A. 3;
B. 4;
C. 5;
D. 7;
E. 8;
F. 11.

Ans. B
• What is the purpose of a default gateway?
A) physically connects a computer to a network;
B) provides a permanent address to a computer;
C) identifies the network to which a computer is connected;
D) identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the
network;
E) identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other
networks.

Ans. E

• Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses?

A. 172.16.4.127 /26;
B. 172.16.4.155 /26 ;
D. 172.16.4.95 /27 ;
E. 172.16.4.159 /27 ;

Ans. B

• What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were
possible to have up to 254 hosts?
A. 255.255.0.0;
B. 255.255.255.0 ;
C. 255.255.254.0 ;
D. 255.255.248.0 .

Ans. B

• Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address
and subnet mask?
A. binary adding;
B. hexadecimal anding;
C. binary division;
D. binary multiplication;
E. binary ANDing .

ans. E

• Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range
of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new
building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is
the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address
and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered
into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?

A. IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39;

B. IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33;
C. IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33;
D. IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31;
E. IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1 .

Ans. C

• Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet
connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the
server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

A. The router has an incorrect gateway;

B. Host A has an overlapping network address;
C. Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured;
D. Host A has an incorrect subnet mask;
E. NAT is required for the host A network.

Ans. E