01/12/2019

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-06 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

Topics Covered :

Physics : Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices (90 Question)

Chemistry : Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen; Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life. (90
Question)
Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. Which of the following statements is correct? 3. The wavelength of compton scattered photon is
(1) W ork function of a metal depends on the 
measured at  = 90°. If is to be 1 percent, then
frequency of incident light 
(2) W ork function of a metal depends on the what will wavelength of the incident photons be?
intensity of incident light (m0 = rest mass of electron)

(3) W ork function of a metal depends on the h  h 

temperature of body (1) m C (2) 10  m C 
0  0 
(4) All of these
2. The work function for tungsten is 4.58 eV. Find  h  1  h 
stopping potential if wavelength of incident light is (3)  m C   100 (4) 100  m C 
 0   0 
200 nm.
(1) 0.162 V 4. A thermal neutron in a reactor has kinetic energy
of about 0.01 eV. The de-Broglie wavelength of
(2) 1.62 V neutron is
(3) 16.2 V (1) 2.86 Å (2) 28.6 Å
(4) 0.81 V (3) 0.286 Å (4) 286 Å

(1)
5. The ratio of radii of nucleus of 4He and 108Ag is 13.  decay usually occurs due to
1 1 (1) Deexcitation of atoms
(1) (2)
3 27
(2) Electron capturing
1 1
(3) (4) N
9 3 (3) Deviation from 1
Z
6. The half-life of radium is 1620 y. The disintegrations
per second of 1 g of radium is (approximately) (4) Deexcitation of nucleus
(1) 1 Ci (2) 20 Ci 14. If a radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of
(3) 3 Ci (4) 10 Ci frequency , then the nucleus recoils with kinetic
energy of
7. Assuming average energy of 100 MeV per fission,
the number of fission per second needed for 960 MW
reactor is h 2 2
(1) h (2)
2c 2 M
(1) 6 × 1019 (2) 6 × 1020
(3) 6 × 1021 (4) 6 × 1022 h 2 2 h 2 2
(3) (4)
8. Three light beams have wavelength 1, 2, 3 and 2 cM c 2M
1 >  2 >  3. Light of wavelength 1 can eject
photoelectron from a photosensitive material then, 15. When photons of energy h fall on an aluminum
plate of work function E0, photoelectron of kinetic
(1) 2 will also eject photoelectron
energy k are ejected. If intensity of radiation is
(2) 3 will also eject photoelectron doubled then maximum kinetic energy and
photocurrent respectively will be
(3) 2 & 3 will not eject electron
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) (h – E0), same (2) 2(h – E0), same

9. Find the current in R L resistance as shown in (3) (h – E0), double (4) 2(h – E0), double
diagram.
16. Like angular momentum, which other physical
100  quantity is quantised in Bohr’s model of H-atom?
1k  (1) Momentum (2) Magnetic moment
30 V
10 V RL
(3) Kinetic energy (4) Frequency

(1) 10–3 A (2) 10–2 A 17. When hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state
to an excited state then
(3) 10 A (4) 102 A
(1) Potential energy increases
10. The circuit given below gives which of the following
output (z)? (2) Potential energy decreases
x (3) Potential energy remains same
y
z (4) Kinetic energy increases
x
y 18. Maximum wavelength of emission is obtained for the
(1) (x + y) (2) xy transition

(3) 1 (4) 0 (1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2

11. Voltage gain of an amplifier with 10% positive (3) n = 8 to n = 7 (4) n = 4 to n = 1
feedback is 10. The voltage gain with out feedback is
19. Hydrogen atom is in its second excited state. If its
(1) 5 (2) 0.5 radius is x times the Bohr radius, then x is
(3) 0.05 (4) 50
(1) 4
12. If reverse of 10% of output of CE amplifier is given
(2) 3
as feedback to input, then this arrangement works as
(1) Oscillator (2) Amplifier (3) 9

(3) Transistor switch (4) Both (2) & (3) (4) 6

(2)
20. An npn transistor operates in a common emitter 26. Consider a nuclear reaction
mode as shown in figure. Given that iB = 0.5 mA,
A
VCE = 10 V and  = 100 then RL will be Z X  (AZ 1)Y Y  1e0    Q

If m X and m Y are atomic masses of X and Y

iB = 0.5 mA VCC = 15 V respectively, then Q value of reaction is
(1) (mx – mY – me)c2
(2) (mx – mY)c2
(3) (mx – mY – 2me)c2
(4) (mx – mY + 2me)c2
27. Which of the following is possible in a  decay?
(1) A proton may decay into neutron and a positron
(1) 10  (2) 100 k
(2) A neutron may decay into proton and a positron
(3) 0.1 k (4) 0.01 k
(3) A proton may decay into electron and a positron
21. Sixty percent of radioactive sample disintegrated
within a time t. The percentage of initial sample that (4) A neutron may decay into electron and a
will disintegrate in time 2t is positron

(1) 84% (2) 16% 28. A reverse biased diode is

(3) 36% (4) 64% 10 V 0V

(1)
22. A nucleus with atomic number z = 92 emits the
following particles in sequence , –, –, , –, –, –10 V 0V
(2)
, +, +. The atomic number of the end product is
(1) 88 (2) 86 –10 V –20 V
(3)
(3) 92 (4) 90
23. Which of the following figures represents the variation –10 V –20 V
of particle momentum and associated frequency? (4)
p p
29. In LED, visible light is produced by
(1) Gallium phosphide

(1) (2) (2) Gallium Arsenide

f f (3) Germanium phosphide

p p (4) Silicon phosphide

30. The binding energy of an electron in 4th orbit of
hydrogen atom is

(3) (4) (1) 2.4 eV (2) 0.85 eV

f f (3) 13.6 eV (4) 0.5 eV
31. Speed of an electron in hydrogen atom in 1st orbit is
24. Which of the following has minimum binding energy
2 × 106 m/s. The velocity of an electron in 3rd orbit
per nucleon?
of doubly ionized lithium is
(1) 9Be (2) 4He
(1) 5 × 106 m/s (2) 6 × 106 m/s
(3) 12C (4) 62Ni
(3) 4 × 106 m/s (4) 2 × 106 m/s
25. According to Rutherford’s model, atom should emit
32. If K, u, E are kinetic energy, potential energy and
(1) Continuous spectrum total energy of an electron in an orbit in single
electron atom, then
(2) Line spectrum
(3) Band spectrum |u |
(1) K  (2) E = –K
2
(4) Both (2) & (1)
(3) E = 2u (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3)
33. A 238
nucleus at rest is decayed by emitting alpha 40. In a common emitter circuit if Vcc is changed by
92 U
0.2 V, collector current changes by 4 × 10–3 mA.
234 The output resistance will be
particle into 90 Th. The speeds of the alpha particle
and the thorium nucleus are in the approximate ratio (1) 10 k (2) 30 k
(1) 1 : 58 (2) 58 : 1
(3) 50 k (4) 70 k
(3) 90 : 1 (4) 45 : 1
41. Nuclear forces are
34. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectifier is
(1) Central
(1) 100% (2) 40.6%
(2) Same as gravitational force
(3) 81.2% (4) 50% (3) Attractive and repulsive in nature
35. Which of the following ray has highest penetrating
(4) Short ranged
power?
(1)  ray (2)  ray 42. Temperature required for nuclear fusion is of the
order of
(3) + ray (4) – ray
(1) 10–9 K (2) 104 K
36. Rest mass of photon is
h hc (3) 109 K (4) 101 K
(1) (2)
c  43. Frequency of input AC signal is 50 Hz. When it is
(3) Zero (4) Infinite connected to a half-wave rectifier, the number of
output pulses given by rectifier in a second is
37. The ratio of wavelength of an electron revolving in 3rd
orbit to that of revolving in 5th orbit in H atom is (1) 100 (2) 50
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 3 (3) 25 (4) 200
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 5
44. The energy gap of silicon is 1.23 eV. The maximum
38. Which of the following figures represents the variation wavelength at which silicon will begin absorbing
of kinetic energy of particle and associated energy is
wavelength ()?
(1) 1 Å (2) 100 Å
KE KE
(3) 1000 Å (4) 10000 Å
45. Which of the following relations is correct (symbol
(1) (2)
are having usual meaning)?
 
(1) Ib = Ic (2) Ic = Ib
KE KE
(3) Ic  Ib (4) Ic = Ib
46. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction based on
(3) (4) a certain Ga-As-P semiconducting material whose
  energy gap is 1.9 eV. Wavelength of emitted light is

39. Calculate the current I in the following circuit, if all (1) 950 nm (2) 700 nm
the diodes are ideal. All resistances are of 200 . (3) 650 nm (4) 800 nm
47. Majority carriers diffuse across the junction produce a
(1) Diffusion current
(2) Drift current
(3) Diffusion and drift current
(4) Majority carrier does not form any current
48. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the force on the
I electron depends on the principal quantum number
200 V
accordingly
(1) Zero (2) 1 A
(1) F  n–3 (2) F  n–2
(3) 2 A (4) 4 A
(3) F  n–4 (4) F  n0
(4)
49. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron is same as
ln 2 0.693
that of photon of wavelength . If mass of electron is (1) s (2) s
2 2
m, then its kinetic energy is
h2m 2mh2 ln
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) Both (1) & (2)
  4
h2 h22 56. Figure shows the curve for binding energy per
(3) (4)
2m 2 4m nucleon E versus mass number A. Three isotopes
50. Which of the following statements is correct for are indicated. Which isotope requires greatest energy
diode? to remove nucleon from isotopes?
(1) Heavily doped PN junction E
2
(2) Used for rectification
3
(3) Breakdown takes place through multiplication of 1
breaking of covalent bonds
(4) All of these
A
51. Radioactive decay is an exponential decay process.
Assume that the half life of a radioactive decay is (1) 1 (2) 3
2 years. The time interval between 20% decay to (3) 2 (4) All of these
80% decay of such nuclei will be
57. Relative density of nucleus is
(1) 2 years (2) 4 years
(1) 2 × 1014 (2) 4 × 1014
(3) 6 years (4) 8 years
52. Current in resistance of 10  is (3) 3 × 1014 (4) 5 × 1014
R = 10  58. Pure Si has equal electron and hole concentration of
2 × 1016 per m3. If dopping by indium increases hole
concentration to 4 × 1016 per cm 3 then electron
5V 15 V
concentration in the doped silicon is
(1) 108 per m3 (2) 1010 per m3
(1) 2 A (2) 1 A
(3) 1012 per m3 (4) 1016 per m3
(3) 3 A (4) Zero
59. If barrier potential of diode is 0.3 V, then current in
53. Two radioactive substances A and B have half lives 10 k resistance is
2 years and 8 years respectively. Initially 80 g of A
and 20 g of B is taken. The time after which they will D 10 k
have same remaining quantity is
(1) 5 years (2) 5.33 years
(3) 6 years (4) 6.33 years
54. If modulation index (n > 1) then
(1) There will be distortion of resultant signal of AM 10.3 V
waves (1) 1 mA (2) 2 mA
(2) There will not be distortion of resultant signal of (3) 0.5 mA (4) 10 mA
AM waves 60. It is measured that mass defect of 3Li7 is 0.042 u.
(3) Amplitude of message signal > amplitude of Binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus is
carrier wave (1 u = 931 MeV)
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) 39.102 MeV (2) 5.586 MeV
55. What is the half life of radionuclide according to
graph as shown in figure? (3) 931 MeV (4) –39.102 MeV

61. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength  is incident

ln R (R in const/s)

500
on a hydrogen atom in ground state. Hydrogen atom
absorbs a fraction of light and emits six different
wavelength. Value of  is

100 (1) 970 Å (2) 1000 Å

(3) 1970 Å (4) 5500 Å

100 s 300 s
t (5)
62. For the Bohr’s first orbit, radius is r. The de-Broglie 70. The process of superimposing signal frequency on
wavelength of revolving electron is the carrier wave is known as
(1) Transmission (2) Reception
1
(1) r (2) (3) Modulation (4) Detection
2r
71. If frequency of incident radiations is doubled in
(3) 2r (4) 4r
photoelectric ef f ect then maximum KE of
63. After how much average life radioactive sample photoelectron
remains 5% of the origin amount? (1) Is doubled
(1) 2 (2) 1 (2) Decreases
(3) 5 (4) 3 (3) Remains unchanged
64. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of (4) Becomes more than double
frequency f and the nucleus recoils. The recoil 72. Absorption spectrum of H-atom consists of
energy is
(1) Lyman Series only
h2 f 2 (2) Balmer Series only
(1) 2 (2) Zero
2MC (3) Both Lyman and Balmer Series
(4) Pfund Series
(3) hf (4) MC2 – hf
65. In a transistor, the base is 73. The time period of revolution of electron Tn in nth orbit
of H-atom is proportional to
(1) Conductor with high conductivity
1
(2) An insulator (1) Tn  n3 (2) Tn 
n3
(3) Extrinsic semiconductor
1
(4) Intrinsic semiconductor (3) Tn  (4) Tn  n
n2
66. Given logic gates are equivalent to 74. Let the potential energy of hydrogen atom in ground
A state be zero. Then its energy in the first excited
Y
B state will be
(1) AND gate (2) OR gate
(1) 10.2 eV (2) 13.6 eV
(3) NOT gate (4) NAND gate
(3) 23.8 eV (4) 27.2 eV
67. Current in 6  resistance in given circuit, if diodes
75. What approximate percentage of original radioactive
are ideal, is
atoms is left after five half lives?
2 4
(1) 20% (2) 10%
20 V 10 V (3) 5% (4) 3%
6
A B
76. What is the probability that an atom will decay
4 2 during the time equal to half life?
(1) 2 A (2) 1 A 1 1
(1) (2)
(3) Zero (4) 3 A 4 8
68. If a p-n photodiode is f abricated f rom a 1 1
(3) (4)
semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV, then it 2 6
detects a wavelengths of 77. A proton, -particle and a neutron are projected
(1)  < 6000 Å (2)  > 6000 Å towards a target nucleus. Which particle is more
(3)  = 6000 Å (4) All of these likely to be absorbed by nucleus?

69. For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain is (1) Proton

(1) Constant for all frequencies (2) -particle

(2) High at high and low frequencies (3) Neutron
(3) Low at high and low frequencies (4) All particles are absorbed
(4) All of these
(6)
78. Barrier potential of a junction is not a function of (1) 0.01 (2) 0.1
(1) Diode design (2) Temperature (3) 1.0 (4) 10
(3) Forward bias (4) Doping density 86. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles
79. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the of masses m1 and m2 having non-zero velocities.
phenomenon of The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths 1 and 2 of
the particles will be
(1) Collision (2) Doping
(3) Ionization (4) Recombination m1 m2
(1) (2)
m2 m1
80. Radioactive substances X and Y have half lives
10 hr and 20 hr respectively. Initially, they contain m2
equal number of radioactive atoms. After 20 hr, their (3) 1 : 1 (4)
m1
rates of disintegration are in ratio
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 87. When a point source of light is at a distance of
50 cm from a photoelectric cell, the stopping voltage
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
is found to be V0. If the same source is placed at
81. Maximum and minimum amplitude of an AM wave is a distance of 1 m from the cell, the stopping voltage
found to be 15 V and 3 V respectively. Modulation will be
index is
(1) 2V0 (2) V0
3 1
(1) (2) V0 V0
2 2 (3) (4)
2 4
2 1 88. A zener diode of power rating 1 W is to be used as
(3) (4) a voltage regulator. If zener has a breakdown of 5 V
3 3
and it has to regulate voltage which varies from 3 V
82. Which of the following frequencies of carrier wave is to 7 V, then value of RS is
typical of FM transmission? RS
(1) 10 kHz (2) 100 MHz
(3) 10 MHz (4) 1 GHz Input Regulated
Voltage Voltage
83. A beam of white light is incident normally on a plane
surface absorbing 70% of light and reflecting the
(1) 10  (2) 20 
rest. If power of incident light is P, then force exerted
by it on the surface is (C : speed of light) (3) 5  (4) 40 
89. If A, B and C is 1 then output Y is
10P 13P
(1) (2)
C 10C A Y
B
P 10P
(3) (4) C
C 13C
(1) 0 (2) 10
84. W hich of the f ollowing p-n junction diode is (3) 1 (4) All of these
unbiased?
90. Acceleration of electron when it moves in second
(1) Photodiode (2) LED orbit of H-atom is

(3) Solar cell (4) Zener diode h2 h3

(1) (2)
2 m 2 r 3 mr 3
85. In a silicon transistor, the base current is changed
by 20 A. This results in a change of 2 mA in the h2 m 2h2
(3) (4)
collector current. If the input resistance and load m2 r 3 r 3
resistance of an amplifier are 1 k and 5 k
respectively, magnitude of transconductance of the
transistor will be

(7)
 CHEMISTRY
91. Which of the following is not optically active? 99. Polymer used in paints is
(1) Valine (2) Alanine (1) Neoprene (2) Glyptal
(3) Glycine (4) Phenylalanine (3) Nylon (4) Teflon

92. The reagent which converts glucose into osazone is 100. At pH-4 glycine exists as

(1) Tollen’s reagent (1) NH2CH2COOH (2) H 3NCH 2COO –

(2) Schiff’s reagent (3) H3NCH2COO– (4) H3NCH2COOH

(3) Phenylhydrazine 101. Number of optical isomers possible for D-glucose is

(1) 4 (2) 8
(4) 2,4-DNP
(3) 12 (4) 16
93. Find the correct match.
102. Ring structure of glucose results due to hemiacetal
(1) Terylene : co-polymer of terephthalic acid and formation between
ethylene glycol
(1) C6 and C1 of same molecules
(2) Buna-N : co-polymer of acrylonitrile and Buta- (2) C6 and C1 of two molecules
1,3-diene
(3) C5 and C1 of same molecules
(3) Neoprene : polymer of chloroprene
(4) C5 and C1 of two molecules
(4) All of these 103. Correct statements about isoelectric point of amino
94. The process done for increasing elasticity and acids are
strength of natural rubber is known as (a) Amino acid exist in form of zwitter ion
(1) Polymerisation (b) Amino acid is electrically neutral
(2) Isomerisation (c) At pH higher than this point amino acid moves
(3) Vulcanisation towards anode
(4) Condensation (1) (a) & (b) only (2) (a) & (c) only

95. Bakelite is a polymer of formaldehyde and (3) (b) & (c) only (4) (a), (b) & (c)

(1) Chlorobenzene 104. Identify incorrect statement(s)

(2) Phenol (1) Vitamin B-12 contains Hg2+

(2) In haemoglobin iron is present as Fe+1
(3) Adipic acid
(3) In photosynthesis CO2 is reduced to glucose
(4) Glycine
(4) Both (1) & (2)
96. The linear chains in nylon are held together by
105. Incorrect match is
(1) Van der Waal’s forces
hydrolysis
(2) Hydrogen bonds (1) Sucrose   glucose fructose
D(  ) D (  )
(3) Covalent bonds
hydrolysis
(4) Ionic bonds (2) Lactose 
 galactose glucose
D(  ) D (  )
97. Polymer of isoprene is
hydrolysis
(3) Maltose   glucose glucose
(1) Neoprene D (  ) D(  )
(2) Can show geometrical isomerism (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Elastomer 106. Aspirin is a/an
(4) Both (2) & (3) are correct (1) Analgesic (2) Narcotic
98. Semi synthetic polymer is (3) Antibiotic (4) Tranquilizer
(1) Gun cotton (2) Cellulose 107. Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide is a common
(3) Teflon (4) Starch (1) Non-ionic detergent (2) Cationic detergent
(3) Anionic detergent (4) Antioxidant
(8)
108. Which of the following is/are use as antacids? O
(1) NaHCO3 (2) Na2CO3 (2) Y is CH3 – CH2 – C – NH2
(3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Z is CH3CH2CH2OH
109. Which of the following is used in local anaesthesia?
(4) Z gives Iodoform test
(1) Chloramphenicol (2) Procaine
115. Identify incorrect reactions
(3) Diazepam (4) Penicillin
+ –
110. Chloramine-T is a/an N2 Cl OH
(1) Antiseptic (2) Antipyretic H3PO2/Cu2Cl2
(1)
(3) Analgesic (4) Food preservative
111. Identify incorrect statement(s).
+ –
N2 Cl F
(1) Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic
(2) Streptomycin is used in treatment of tuberculosis HBF4
(2)

(3) Penicillin is a narrow spectrum antibiotic
(4) All antibiotics are chemical substances used to + –
kill microorganisms N2 Cl F

112. Aniline on acetylation followed by treatment with (3) 1. HBF4

nitrating mixture gives a product which on hydrolysis 2. NaNO2, 
gives compound ‘X’. X is
NH2 (4) Both (1) & (3)
NHCOCH3
116. The increasing order of basic strength of given
(1) (2) compounds is

O
SO3H
CH3 – C – NH2 CH3 – CH2 – NH2
NO2 NHCOCH3 (a) (b)

NH
(3) (4)
CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH3 NH2 – C – CH3
NH2 NO2 (c) (d)

(1) a > d > b > c (2) d > a > c > d

113. On reaction with HNO2 which of the following amines
yield yellow oily product? (3) c > b > a > d (4) d > c > b > a

N(CH3)2 O
PCl3 NH3 OBr
NHCH3 117. CH3 – CH2 – C – OH  product
(1) (2)
product is
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2NH2
CH2NH2 NH2
(3) CH3 – CH – COOH (4) CH3 – CONHBr
(3) (4) Br
118. The major product of the following reaction is
114. In the following reaction sequence O NH2
+
KCN H2O, H LiAlH4 C – Cl Br2/Fe
CH3CH2I alc. X excess Y Z. + X Z (major)
(major)
(1) X is CH3CH2NC CH3

(9)
 O
C3H N CH3
C – NH
(1) NH2
Br CH3
NaNO2
122. +HCl
A B
O (0 – 5°C)
C – NH
(2)
Br (1) H 3CNH N=N NHCH 3

O
C – NH CH3
(2) N=N N
(3) CH3
CH3
Br
(3) H 3C N=N NH3
O
C – NH CH3
(4) (4) NH N
CH3
Br CH3

HNO2 1. PI3 NaOH O

119. CH3CH2CH2NH2 A B products
2. AgNO2 S NH – C2H5
123. A + B
3. HNO2 (Nitrogen
containing (C) O
compound) NaOH
Identify the correct statement(s).
(1) A is CH3CH2CH2OH
For the above reaction the, correct statement(s) is/are
(2) B is nitrolic acid
(1) The sequence represents Hinsberg test
(3) B gives blue colour with alkali
(2) ‘B’ is benzenesulfonyl chloride
(4) All of these
(3) A is 1° amine
120. Which of the following will not give isocynide test?
(4) All of these
(1) CH3CH2NH2
124. Identify the product(s) of the following reaction
(2) C6H5NH2

(3) CH 3 – CH – CH3 + CH2 – CH2 – CH3

N OH, heat
NH2 CH3 product(s)

(4) (CH3)3N
121. W hich of the giv en reagents can conv ert
nitrobenzene into phenylhydroxylamine?
N – CH3
(1) CH3 – CH2 = CH2 (2)
(1) LiAlH4 (2) Sn + HCl
(3) Zn + NH4Cl(aq.) (4) H2, Pd
(3) H2O (4) All of these
125. The number of amine possible for molecular formula
C3H9N are
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
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126. In which of the following compounds additional 131. Which of the following will yield only primary amine?
resonance with ring is not possible? (1) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(2) Hoffmann bromamide degradation
NHCOCH3 NH2
(3) Complete reduction of isocyanide
(1) (2) (4) Both (1) & (2)
NH2
1. Br2, water
132. product
2. NaNO2 /HCl
+
CONH2 NH3 3. H3PO2 (aq.)

Product is
(3) (4)
OH
Br Br
Br Br
127. The final product of the given reaction sequence is (1) (2)
NaNO2 H2 NaNO2 Br
Aniline A
CuCN
B C Br
HCl Ni HCl
OH
Br
(1) Phenylhydroxylamine Br
(2) N-methylaniline (3) (4)
Br
(3) Benzylamine Br
133. Which of the following does not give Friedel-Craft’s
(4) Benzyl alcohol reaction?
128. Incorrect statement about C2H5CN is/are (1) Nitrobenzene (2) Aniline
(1) On reaction with CH 3 MgBr f ollowed by (3) Chlorobenzene (4) Both (1) & (2)
hydrolysis it gives propanal
COCl +
134. NH 2 Final product
(2) Its IUPAC name is ethanenitrile (excess)

(3) It can be hydrolysed only in acidic medium Final product is

(4) All of these O

(1) C – NH
HNO2 H3PO2 KMnO4,
129. p-toluidine X Y +
Z
H2O H O
In the given sequence; C–N
(2)
(1) Z is benzoic acid

(2) Z is benzaldehyde
O
(3) Z is toluene C–N
(4) Z is 4-aminobenzoic acid
(3) C=O
130. The compound with lowest boiling point is

(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2NH2

(4) Mixture of (1), (2), (3)
(2) CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH2CH3
135. In carbylamine test the reaction intermediate formed
(3) CH 3 – CH – NH – CH 3 is
(1) Carbocation
CH3
(2) Carbanion
(4) CH 3 – CH 2 – N – CH 3 (3) Free radical
CH 3 (4) Carbene

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136. Change in optical rotation of aqueous solution of 144. Total number of optical isomers of glucose are
sugar on acidic hydrolysis is known as
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) Mutarotation
(3) 8 (4) 16
(2) Inversion
(3) Anomerization 145. Correct statements about D-glucose from the
following are
(4) Racemization
(a) It forms osazone on reaction with excess of
137. –D–glucose and –D–glucose are phenylhydrazine
(1) Structural isomers
(b) It gives saccharic acid on reaction with Br2/H2O
(2) Non-superimposable mirror images
(c) It shows epimeric relation with galactose
(3) Anomers
(d) It is dextrorotatory
(4) Metamers
138. Isoelectric point of following zwitter ion (1) (a), (b) & (c) only (2) (b), (c) & (d) only
(3) (a), (c) & (d) only (4) All of these
NH3 CH COOH
pKa = 9.6 pKa = 4.2 146. Of the given sugars, reducing ones are :
CH3
Fructose, Glucose, Sucrose
(1) 5.9 (2) 4.9
(1) Fructose & Glucose
(3) 4.3 (4) 6.9
139. Copolymer of buta-1,3-diene and styrene is (2) Glucose & Sucrose
(1) BuNa-S (2) Buna-N (3) Fructose & Sucrose
(3) Neoprane (4) Polystyrene (4) All of these
140. Gutta percha is 147. Essential amino acids are
(1) A polymer of isoprene
(1) Leucine, lysine, tryptophan
(2) Isomer of natural rubber
(2) Leucine, proline, glycine
(3) Addition polymer
(3) Alanine, tryptophan, cystine
(4) All of these
141. Find the correct match: (4) Alanine, glutamine, lysine
148. Identify correct statement(s).
(1) Neoprene : CH2 – CH = CH – CH2
(1) Cellulose is a linear polymer of -(D)glucose
CH3 n
(2) Starch is a polymer of -(D)glucose
O
(3) Amylose is water soluble whereas amylopectin
(2) Nylon 6,6 : HN ( CH2)6 C n is water insoluble

O O (4) All of these

(3) Dacron : O – CH2 – CH2 OC C n

149. Incorrect match is

(4) All of these (1) P-dichlorometaxylenol : Body deodorant

142. Carbohydrates are stored in human body as : (2) Bithionol : Medicated soaps
(1) Starch (2) Glucose (3) Thymol : Antiseptic
(3) Glycogen (4) Cellulose (4) Phenol (0.2%) : Antiseptic
143. Which of the following functional group is present at
150. Morphine is an
C-1 carbon of -(D)-glucose in sucrose?
(1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone (1) Antiseptic (2) Antibiotic

(3) Hemiacetal (4) Acetal (3) Analgesic (4) Anaesthetic

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151. Identify correct statement. 159. Which of the following is the most reactive for
diazocoupling reaction?
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate is a biodegradable
detergent
+ +
N2 Cl N2 Cl
(2) Alitame is sweetening agent
(3) Aspartame, a sweetening agent is unstable at (1) (2)
cooking temperature
(4) All of these OCH3
152. Which of the following is an anti-fertility drug?
+ +
(1) Chloramphenicol (2) Norethindrone N2 Cl N2 Cl
(3) Tetracycline (4) Sulphanilamide
(3) (4)
153. Which of the following are tranquilizers?
(1) Equanil (2) Barbituric acid NO2 NHCH3
(3) Serotonin (4) All of these
154. Phenacetin is an/a CH3
NaNO2 + HCl H2O
(1) Analgesic (2) Antipyretic 160. CH3 – C – CH2NH2 0 – 5°C
A B
(major
(3) Antimalarial (4) Antihistamines CH3 product)

155. Identify a food preservative from the following.

CH3 CH3
(1) Saccharin + –
(1) CH 3 – C – CH = CH 2 (2) CH3 – C – CH2N2 Cl
(2) NaHCO3 CH3
(3) Omeprazole
(4) Sodium benzoate CH3 CH3
156. A drug which can be used as antipyretic as well as (3) CH3 – C – CH2OH (4) CH3 – C – OH
analgesic is CH3 CH2CH3
(1) Chloroquine (2) Penicillin 161. The intermediate of curtius reaction is
(3) Paracetamol (4) Dettol
(1) Carbene
NH2 (2) Nitrene
1. Conc. H2SO4 (3) Carbocation
157. 2. 
X . X is
(4) Carbanion

(1) Aniline hydrogen sulphate 162. Most basic of the given compounds is
(2) m-amino benzene sulphonic acid (1) Benzylamine
(3) Benzene sulphonic acid (2) N-methyl phenylamine
(4) Sulphanilic acid (3) N,N-dimethylphenylamine
158. Identify the product ‘Z’. (4) Aniline
Na  C H OH
2 5 2 HNO Cu 2 H /Pt
CH3 CN   X  Y Z 163. CH3 CH2NC ?

573 K
(1) CH3CHO The following reaction

(2) CH3CONH2 (1) Gives CH3CH2OH and CH3NH2

(3) CH3COOH (2) Gives CH3COOH and CH3NH2

(4) CH – C – CH2 – CH3 (3) Gives CH3CH2NH2 and HCOONa+

O (4) CH3CH2NHCH3
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164. Which of the following reaction gives major product 169. Which of the following reactions are not correct?
as 2° amine?
NO2 NH2
4 LiAlH
(1) CH3NC   LiAlH4
(1)

O
LiAlH4 NO2 NHOH
(2) CH 3 – C – NH – CH 3
Zn + NH4Cl(aq.)
(2)
O
CH3 – C – Cl
(3) CH 3NH 2
NO2 NH2
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Electrolysis
165. Ethylamine and diethylamine can be distinguished
by
(4) All of these
SO2Cl 170. Arrange in increasing order of boiling point
(a) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (b) CH3CH2NHCH3
(1) (2) HNO2
(c) CH 3 – N – NH 3 (d) CH3CH2CH2OH

(3) CHCl3 + KOH (4) All of these CH3

(1) a < b < c < d (2) d < a < b < c
CH2NHCH3 (3) a > b > c > d (4) d > a > b > c

166. Nitroso amine is formed when is 171. p-bromoaniline as major product can be prepared by
NH2
treated with Br2/H2O
(1)
(1) Nitrous acid
(2) Nitric acid NH2
(3) Nitromethane Br2, FeBr3
(2)
(4) Nitrobenzene Dark

NO2 NH2 N2 Cl
+ –
Br
NH2

A B C Br2/CH3COOH
167. (3)
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
NH2
In this reaction sequence :
1. (CH3CO)2O
(1) A is Sn + HCl, B is NaNO2 + HCl, C is Cu + HBr (4) 2. Br2
3. H2O
(2) A is Fe + HCl, B is HNO2, C is CuBr + HBr
172. W hich of the following contains most acidic
(3) A is LiAlH4, B is HNO2, C is Cu + HBr hydrogen?
(4) A is (NH4)2 S, B is NaNO2 + HCl, C is CuBr + HBr (1) CH3CH2NO2 (2) CH3 – CH2CHO
(3) CH 3 – C – CH 3 (4) CH3CH2CH3
1. C2 H5Br (3 moles)
168. CH3 – CH2 – CH2NH2 2. AgOH O
3.  HNO NaOH
2
173. CH3 CH2 CH2NO 2   X 
Y .
One of the final product is
The final solution is
(1) Ethene (2) Triethylamine (1) Colourless (2) Red
(3) Propene (4) C2H5OH (3) Blue (4) Yellow

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174. Gabriel is phathalimide synthesis can be used to 177. Which of the following reaction(s) give alkane?
prepare
(1) CH3CH2MgBr + CH3NH2
(1) Only 1° aliphatic amines
(2) CH3CH2CH2MgCl + CH3OH
(2) Both1° aliphatic and aromatic amines
(3) Both 1° and 2° aliphatic amines (3) CH3CH2CH2MgCl + H2O

(4) 1°, 2° and 3° amines (4) All of these

175. Phenyl cyanide can be prepare by which of the given +
[Ag(NH3)2]
reactions? 178. X Silver mirror . X can be
O
+ –
P2O5 O
N2 Cl C –NH2 NHOH
 C–H
(1) CuCN (2) (1) (2)

CH = NOH CH2NO2

P2O5, 
(3) (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) (4) All of these

1. C2H5MgBr 1. CH3MgBr
176. Identify the correct reaction and name 179. CH3CH2C  N + A B
2. H2O, H 2. H2O
O
C
(1) CH3– CH – C – NH – CH3
Hoffmann
CH3 CH3 – C C – CH2 – CH3
bromamide
degradation
CH3 – CH – NH – CH3 Identify correct statement(s)
CH3
(1) A is 2-pentanone
CH3– CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3 (2) B is a tertiary alcohol
(2)
NH2 Carbylamine
reaction (3) C is HgSO4, H2SO4, H2O
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3
(4) Both (1) & (2)
NC
180. The number of metamers possible for CH3NHCH2CH3
(3) CH3– CH2– NH – CH3 is

O Hinsberg test (1) Zero

CH3– CH2– N – S (2) Three
CH3 O (3) Four
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) Five



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 01/12/2019
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MM : 720 Practice Test-06 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (4) 74. (3) 111. (4) 147. (1)
2. (2) 38. (3) 75. (4) 112. (3) 148. (4)
3. (3) 39. (2) 76. (3) 113. (1) 149. (3)
4. (1) 40. (3) 77. (3) 114. (3) 150. (3)
5. (1) 41. (4) 78. (3) 115. (4) 151. (4)
6. (1) 42. (3) 79. (4) 116. (4) 152. (2)
7. (1) 43. (2) 80. (2) 117. (2) 153. (4)
8. (4) 44. (4) 81. (3) 118. (1) 154. (2)
9. (2) 45. (4) 82. (2) 119. (3) 155. (4)
10. (1) 46. (3) 83. (2)
120. (4) 156. (3)
11. (1) 47. (1) 84. (3)
121. (3) 157. (4)
12. (1) 48. (3) 85. (2)
122. (2) 158. (1)
49. (3) 86. (3)
13. (3) 123. (4) 159. (3)
50. (4) 87. (2)
14. (2) 124. (4) 160. (4)
51. (2) 88. (1)
15. (3) 125. (4) 161. (2)
52. (2) 89. (1)
16. (2) 126. (4) 162. (1)
53. (2) 90. (1)
17. (1) 127. (4) 163. (4)
54. (4) 91. (3)
18. (3) 128. (4) 164. (4)
55. (4) 92. (3)
19. (3) 129. (1) 165. (4)
56. (3) 93. (4)
20. (3) 130. (4) 166. (1)
57. (1) 94. (3)
21. (1) 58. (2) 131. (4) 167. (4)
95. (2)
22. (1) 59. (1) 132. (2) 168. (1)
96. (2)
23. (1) 60. (2) 133. (4) 169. (1)
97. (4)
24. (1) 61. (1) 134. (1) 170. (4)
98. (1)
25. (1) 62. (3) 135. (4) 171. (4)
99. (2)
26. (3) 63. (4) 136. (2) 172. (1)
100. (4)
27. (1) 64. (1) 137. (3) 173. (2)
101. (4)
28. (4) 65. (3) 138. (4) 174. (1)
102. (3)
29. (2) 66. (1) 139. (1) 175. (4)
103. (4)
30. (2) 67. (2) 140. (4) 176. (4)
104. (4)
31. (4) 68. (1) 141. (3) 177. (4)
105. (3)
32. (4) 69. (3) 142. (3) 178. (4)
106. (1)
33. (2) 70. (3) 143. (4) 179. (2)
71. (4) 107. (2)
34. (3) 144. (4) 180. (1)
72. (1) 108. (4)
35. (1) 145. (3)
73. (1) 109. (2)
36. (3) 146. (1)
110. (1)
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