AIATS PLUS DT-01

Question 1
Consider the following statements for one dimensional motion and choose the correct one.

1)A particle can have zero acceleration but increasing velocity

2)A particle can have non zero acceleration but constant velocity
3)A particle can have zero velocity but non zero acceleration
4)All of these

Question 2
Two particles A and B are moving in x-y plane. Particle A is moving along y-axis with 8 m/s and particle
B is moving with 5 m/s at an angle of 37° with x-axis. The relative velocity of A with respect to B is

1) – 4^i + 5^j m/s

2)4^i – 5^j m/s
3) – 4^i – 5^j m/s
4)4^i + 5^j m/s

Question 3
Statement I : With increase in temperature average collision time between electrons in conductor
decreases.

Statement II : With increase in temperature the resistivity of semiconductor generally decreases.

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct.

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
Question 4
Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (r) with temperature (T) for nichrome

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 5
For the circuit shown below, the terminal potential difference across the cell of emf 2 V is

1)1.75 V
2)2.25 V
3)1.5 V
4)2.50 V

Question 6
Assertion (A) : When a charge particle is projected with speed (v) at angle θ with uniform magnetic
field (B), its speed remain constant.

Reason (R) : The particle will move in uniform circular motion.

In the light of the above statements, the correct option is

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 7
Shear modulus of a cubical object depends on

1)Side of the cube

2)Tangential force applied
3)Material of the cube
4)Both (1) and (2)
Question 8
If a liquid drop contracts, the pressure inside the drop

1)Increases
2)Decreases
3)Remains same
4)Becomes zero

Question 9
An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetizing field of 1200 A m–1. The net magnetic
field inside the bar magnet is

1)1.8 T
2)0.9 T
3)2.7 T
4)27 T

Question 10
The magnetic flux linked with coil (in weber) is given by the equation Φ = 2t2 + t + 4.

If the resistance of coil is 100 Ω, then net charge flow through any cross section of coil from t = 0 to 4 s
is

1)120 mC
2)240 mC
3)360 mC
4)480 mC

Question 11
Statement I : The direction of induced current in a loop is such that it always opposes the increase in
magnetic flux and favours the decrease in magnetic flux through it.

Statement II : Induction furnaces uses eddy currents effect to generate heat.

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct.

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
Question 12
In the circuit shown below, the capacitance C is connected to an ac source. The current flowing, in the
circuit is I = I0 sinωt. The voltage drop (Vc ) across C is

I0
1) cosωt
ωC
2)I0 ωC coswt
–I
3) 0 cosωt
ωC
4)–I0 ωC coswt

Question 13
An inductor having inductance 0.04 H is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source. The inductive
reactance in the circuit is x1. If a 220 V dc source replaces the ac source in the circuit then inductive
reactance in the circuit is x2 . Value of x1 and x2 respectively are [given π2 ≈ 10 ]

1)12.56 Ω, Zero
2)12.56 Ω, infinity
3)6.28 Ω, Zero
4)6.28 Ω, infinity

Question 14
Statement I : Image formation needs regular reflection.

Statement II : Thick lenses gives coloured images of an object due to dispersion.

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct.

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
Question 15
Which of the following is correct for a cyclic thermodynamic process?

1)Net work done by the system is zero

2)Net heat transfer is zero
3)Net change in internal energy is zero
4)None of these

Question 16
Given below are the equations of four waves reaching at any point in a medium.

A. y = a sinωt

B. y = a cos2ωt

C. y = a sin2ωt

D. y = a sin3ωt

Interference can be observed due to the superposition of the following waves:

1)B and C
2)B and D
3)A and D
4)Both (1) and (2)

Question 17
A beam of light having wavelength λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit of 1 mm wide
and resulting diffraction pattern is observed on the screen 2 m away. The distance between first bright
fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is

1)2.4 mm
2)2.4 cm
3)3.6 cm
4)3.6 mm
Question 18
The anode voltage of a photocell kept fixed. The photon intensity (I) of light falling on the cathode is
gradually changed. The saturation current of the photocell with Intensity (I) as follows.

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 19
Some energy levels with their wavelengths of transitions are shown in the figure. Then

1)λ3 > λ2 > λ1

2)λ3 < λ2 < λ1
3)λ2 > λ1 > λ3
4)λ2 > λ3 > λ1

Question 20
In the nuclear reaction given below, the unknown Y in product is
1n
0 + 235 U
92 →Y+ 94 Sr
38 + 210 n
1)142
54 Xe
2)140
50 Xe
3)140
52 Xe
4)140
54 Xe

Question 21
The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10–11 m. The radius of second allowed orbit of
He+ atom is

1)5.3 × 10–11 m
2)1.06 × 10–10 m
3)2.12 × 10–11 m
4)21.2 × 10–11 m
Question 22
Based on V–I characteristics of diode, we can say that diode is a

1)Bi-directional device
2)Ohmic device
3)Non-Ohmic device
4)Both (1) and (3)

Question 23
In the figure shown below, if the diode forward voltage drop is 0.7 V, then V0 is

1)1.3 V
2)2.7 V
3)2.07 V
4)0.27 V

Question 24
If the tension and radius of a sonometer wire of fundamental frequency f0 is doubled then its
fundamental frequency will become

1)f0
2)√2 f0
3)2 f0
f
4) 0
√2
Question 25
For RLC series circuit shown below power factor of the circuit is

1
1)
√2
1
2)
2
3)1
3
4) √
2

Question 26
→ (→
In a space a uniform electric field ( E ) and magnetic field B ) exist along same direction. A
positive test charge (q0) is released in the space. Then it will

1)Move in straight line with uniform speed

2)Move in straight line with uniform acceleration
3)Move in circle with uniform speed
4)Moves is spiral path

Question 27
In an experiment three quantities a, b and c are measured with percentage error 1%, 3% and 2%
a2 b
respectively. A physical quantity x is calculated such that x = . Maximum percentage error in x is
√c

1)8%
2)6%
3)3%
4)4%
Question 28
Number of significant figures in the given measured value of 2.080 m is

1)Three
2)Four
3)Two
4)One
Question 29
Which of the following velocity-time graphs shows one dimensional motion of a particle with uniform
retardation?

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 30
Five charges +q, –q, +q, –q and +q are placed at the corners of a regular pentagon. The work done in
bringing a charge q0 very slowly to the centre of the pentagon from infinity is (ε0 permittivity of free
space)

1)Zero
qq
2) o
4πε0 r
– qqo
3)
4πε0 r
5qq
4) o
4πε0 r

Question 31
Two capacitors of 2 μF and 4 μF are charged by 2 V and 4 V batteries respectively. Now batteries are
disconnected and both capacitors are joined such that positive plate of 2 μF capacitor is connected to
positive plate of 4 μF capacitor and vice-versa. The loss of energy when capacitors reached to steady
state is

1)24 μJ
2)2.67 μJ
3)4.67 μJ
4)3.67 μJ

Question 32
x2
A ball is projected from ground and its equation of trajectory is given as y = 2x – . If g = 10 m/s2,
20
then horizontal component of velocity of the ball is

1)20 m/s
2)8 m/s
3)10 m/s
4)16 m/s
Question 33
A cyclist moving at a speed of 36 km/h on a horizontal road takes a circular turn of radius 5 m. The
angle made by the cyclist with vertical is

1)tan–1(0.5)
2)tan–1(3)
3)tan–1(2)
4)tan–1(0.6)

Question 34
Two identical blocks A and B are connected with identical springs and both the springs were initially at
their natural lengths. If block A is allowed to descend slowly and block B is released suddenly, then the
ratio of maximum expansions in the springs for block A to block B will be

1)1 : 1
2)1 : 2
3)2 : 1
4)1 : 4

Question 35
A variable force F = (2x + 3) N acts on a particle. Work done by this force to move the particle from x =
–1m to x = –3m is

1)2 J
2)8 J
3)4 J
4)Zero
Question 36
A car of mass m starts from rest and moves on a straight line. If its engine can deliver constant power
P, then

1)Its velocity remains constant

2)Its acceleration constant
3)Its rate of change of kinetic energy remains constant
4)Both (2) and (3)

Question 37
Three particles are placed as shown. The position vector of centre of mass of the given system is

1^
1) i + 1 ^j
2 3
1^
2) i
2
+ 16 ^j
3) ^i + 23 ^j
3
2
4) ^i + 14 ^j
1
2

Question 38
A solid sphere and a hollow sphere are in pure rotational motion about their respective diametrical axis.
Both of them have equal moment of inertia. If rotational kinetic energy is in the ratio of 1 : 4, then the
ratio of angular momentum is

1)1 : 4
2)1 : 2√2
3)2 : 7
4)1 : 2
Question 39
The escape velocity of a body from the surface of a planet is ve. If the same body is projected from
surface of the planet with √2 ve , then the speed of the body at infinity will be

1)Zero
2)√2 – 1 ve
v
3) e
√2
4)ve

Question 40
A solid sphere of copper subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 8 × 108 Pa. If bulk modulus of copper is
140 GPa, then percentage decrease in volume of the sphere is

1)0.57%
2)1.5%
3)0.93%
4)0.05%

Question 41
A uniform conducting wire of length L and resistance R carrying a current I is wound up as a current
carrying circular coil. The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is

1)πL2I
IL2
2)
4π
πL2 I
3)
4
IL2
4)
2π
Question 42
A bar magnet of length L and magnetic dipole moment M is bent into the form of an arc as shown in
figure. The new dipole moment will be

M
1)
2π
3 3 M
2) √
2 π
3√3 M
3)
4 π
2M
4)
√3 π

Question 43
Hydraulic lift works on the basis of

1)Bernoulli principle
2)Stoke’s law
3)Kirchhoff’s law
4)Pascal’s law

Question 44
Energy required to convert 5 g of ice at –20°C to water at 50°C, is

1)750 cal
2)700 cal @NEET_BROKER_BACKUP
3)600 cal
4)650 cal
Question 45
In the figure shown below what is the equivalent power of the lenses (assuming all the layers are thin)

1)1D
2)–1D
3)2D
4)–2D

Question 46
Consider the following statements:

(A) Specific heat capacity of a gas is process dependent.

(B) For some ideal gases, specific heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp) can be smaller than the
specific heat capacity at constant volume (Cv).

(C) For adiabatic process, specific heat capacity is zero

(D) For any ideal gas Cp – Cv = R

The correct statement(s) is/are

1)Only (A) and (B)

2)Only (A), (C) and (D)
3)Only (B) and (C)
4)All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Question 47
Match the columns and tick the correct option

Column I Column II
3
a. Average speed of gas molecules (i) 2 kB T
3
b. Root mean square speed of gas molecules (ii) 2 RT
3RT
c. Average translational kinetic energy of a molecule (iii)
√M
8RT
d. Average translational kinetic energy of 1 mole of gas (iv) √
πM

1)a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

2)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
3)a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
4)a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

Question 48
Degrees of freedom of a rigid diatomic molecule is

1)3
2)5
3)6
4)7

Question 49
Which of the following functions does not represent simple harmonic motion?

1)sinωt
2)sinωt + √2 cosωt
3)sinωt + sin2ωt
π
4)sinωt +
2
Question 50
A full wave rectifier with an input ac voltage (Vin) is shown.

Choose the correct output voltage (V0)

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 51
Given below are the two statements

Statement I : [Co(H2O)6]3+ is diamagnetic but [CoF6]3–is paramagnetic.

Statement II : Both [Co(H2O)6]3+ and [CoF6]3– are spin paired complexes.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Question 52
In the following reaction

The major product (B) and (C) will be

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 53
Given below are the two statements

Statement I : Aquatic species are more comfortable in warm water rather than in cold water.

Statement II : At 303 K temperature, the Henry’s law constant of N2 is higher than the O2.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 54
Choose the incorrect match

1)Radio waves > X-rays> IR -Wavelength order

2)γrays > UV > microwave - Frequency order
3)rH > rHe+ > rLi2 + − Radius order ( n = 2 )
4)EH > EHe+ > ELi2 + – Energy order ( n = 2 )

Question 55
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-I

IUPAC name IUPAC official name

a. Unnilennium (i) Seaborgium
b. Unnilhexium (ii) Rontgenium
c. Unnilquadium (iii) Meitnerium
d. Unununnium )iv) Rutherfordium

Choose the correct match.

1)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

2)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
3)a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
4)a(ii), b(i), c(iv); d(iii)
Question 56
Which of the following has maximum bond length?

1)C = C
2)N = O
3)C = O
4)O = O

Question 57
If 0.2 molal aqueous solution of weak monobasic HA undergoes 40% dissociation then the boiling point
of the solution will be (Kb of water = 0.52 K kg mol–1)

1)100.14°C
2)100.11°C
3)100.21°C
4)100.25°C

Question 58
Consider the following statements about O22 – ion
(a) Highest occupied molecular orbital is π* orbital

(b) Bond order is one

(c) Diamagnetic in nature

The correct statement(s) is/are

1)(a) only
2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(a), (b) and (c)
Question 59
Consider the following ions

(a) Co+2

(b) Ba2+

(c) Mn2+

(d) Al3+

In qualitative analysis, Group IV cations are

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(c) and (d) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(b) and (d) only

Question 60
If equilibrium constant for reaction

A2 ( g ) + B2 ( g ) ⇌ 2AB ( g ) ; K1

Then equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature will be
1
2
AB ( g ) ⇌ 14 A2 ( g ) + 14 B2 ( g )
1
1) ( K1 ) 2
1
2) 1
( K1 ) 4
1
3) 1
( K1 ) 2
1
4) ( K1 )4
Question 61
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

Species Oxidation state of central atom

a. C3O2 (i) +6
b. Br3O8 (ii) +1
c. CrO5 (iii) 0
d. H3PO2 (iv) +4

Choose the correct option.

1)a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

2)a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
3)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
4)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

Question 62
How many Faradays required to produce 32 g of oxygen gas from the electrolysis of H2O at anode?

1)8F
2)4F
3)2F
4)6F

Question 63
If 1 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly from 1 L to 4 L at 27°C, then work and
entropy change of the process respectively will be (ln2 = 0.693)

1)–415.8 R and 1.386 R

2)–37.4 R and 1.009 R
3)37.4 R and –1.009 R
4)415.8 R and –1.386 R
Question 64
The correct decreasing order of stability of following carbocations is

1)(iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii)

2)(iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)
3)(ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
4)(ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)

Question 65
Select the incorrect statement about 3d series

1)Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin

2)CrO is basic but Cr2O3 is amphoteric
3)

value for Cu is positive

4)Both cobalt and titanium form mixed oxides
Question 66
Given below are the two statements

Statement I : In thin layer chromatography, amino acids may be detected by spraying the plate with
ninhydrin solution.

Statement II : Distillation under reduced pressure is used to purify liquids having very high boiling
points and those, which decompose above their boiling points.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 67
Choose the incorrect match

Compound Nature of bonds

1. Hexanedial 17σ and 2π
2. Hex-5-yn-1-ene 13σ and 3π
3. 2, 4, 4-trimethylpent-2-ene 23σ and 1π
4. But-3-yn-1-ol 8σ and 2π

Select the correct option

1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)
Question 68
In the following reaction sequence

The product (C) will be

1)o-aminoazobenzene
2)m-aminoazobenzene
3)Biphenyl
4)p-aminoazobenzene

Question 69
In the following reaction

The product (B) and (C) respectively will be

1)Hexachlorobenzene and benzene hexachloride

2)Benzene hexachloride and chlorobenzene
3)Benzene hexachloride and Hexachlorobenzene
4)Hexachlorobenzene and chlorobenzene
Question 70
In the following reaction

The major product (B) will be

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 71
In the following reaction

The major monobromo product (P) in the above reaction will be

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 72
On heating, orthoboric acid above 370 K form (A), which on further heating yields (B). The (A) and (B)
respectively are

1)Boric anhydride and metaboric acid

2)Metaboric acid and boric anhydride
3)Diborane and metaboric acid
4)Borazine and boric anhydride
Question 73
Hinsberg’s reagent is

1)Benzenesulphonic acid
2)Benzoyl chloride
3)Benzenesulphonyl chloride
4)p-aminobenzene sulphonic acid

Question 74
In which of the following reaction, acetaldehyde is not formed
+
1)ArN2 Cl– + CH3 CH2 OH →
( i ) AlH ( i – Bu ) 2
2)CH3 CN →
( ii ) H2 O
PCC
3)CH3 – CH2 – OH →
(i) Alkaline KMnO4
4)CH3 – CH2 – OH →
( ii ) H3 O+

Question 75
Which of the following set of ions act as reducing agent?

1)Eu2+ and Yb2+

2)Ce4+ and Eu2+
3)Ce4+ and Ho3+
4)Ce4+ and Tb4+

Question 76
In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.5 g of an organic compound gave 50 mL of nitrogen
collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the
compound will be (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

1)5.23%
2)20.58%
3)7.22%
4)10.47%
Question 77
Given below are the two statements

Statement I : Single N–N bond is weaker than the single P–P bond.

Statement II : Both Nitrogen and phosphorus form dp–pp bond with oxygen atom

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 78
Choose the incorrect statement among the following

1)Melting point of H2S is lesser than the H2O

2)α-sulphur is stable below 369 K and transforms into b-sulphur above 369 K
3)Formation of ozone from oxygen is an exothermic process
4)Sulphuric acid obtained by contact process is 96-98% pure

Question 79
Choose the incorrect match

1)Kr > Ar > Ne > He – Atomic radius

2)He > Ne > Ar > Kr – Ionisation enthalpy
3)Ar = Kr > Ne > He – Electron gain enthalpy
4)Kr > Ar > Ne > He – Boiling point
Question 80
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens except fluorine.

Reason (R): X–X′ bond in interhalogens is stronger than X–X bond in halogens except F–F bond.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)Both (A) and (R) are false
4)(A) is true but (R) is false

Question 81
Select the incorrect reaction among the following

1)

( i ) SnCl2 + HCl
2)CH3 – CN → CH3 – CHO
( ii ) H3 O⊕
CrO3 – H2 SO4
3)CH3 – ( CH2 ) 8 – CH2 OH → CH3 – (CH2)8 – CHO
4)

Question 82
An organic compound (A) with molecular formula (C7H6O) does not reduce Fehling reagent but reduce
tollens’ reagent. It does not give haloform test. On heating with conc. NaOH it gives compound (B) and
(C). The compound (B) and (C) will be

1)Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate

2)Benzyl alcohol and benzoic acid
3)Benzyl alcohol and benzaldehyde
4)Benzoic acid and benzaldehyde
Question 83
Which of the following does not give 3° alcohol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 84
In the reaction 2SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2SO3 ( g )
When 32 g of SO2 and 32 g of O2 are made to react to completion

(a) SO2 is the limiting reagent

(b) O2 is the limiting reagent

(c) 40 g of SO3 will be produced

(d) 24 g of O2 will be left

The correct statement(s) is/are

1)(a), (c) and (d) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(b) only
Question 85
Arrange the following in their decreasing order of acidic strength

1)(iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)

2)(iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv)
3)(i) > (ii) > (iv) > (iii)
4)(iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)

Question 86
Consider the following statements about glycogen

(a) It is known as animal starch

(b) Its structure is similar to amylopectin and is rather more highly branched

(c) It is found in yeast and fungi

The correct statement(s) is/are

1)(a), (b) and (c)

2)(a) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(b) and (c) only
Question 87
Which of the following is incorrect?

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 88
In the following reaction

The product (A) and (B) respectively are

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 89
1
Which of the following plot represents the variation of lnk versus in accordance with Arrhenius
T
equation?

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 90
Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B

[A] [B] Rate (mol L–1 s–1)

0.2 0.1 4 × 10–2

0.4 0.1 2 × 10–2

0.4 0.2 4 × 10–2

The order of reaction with respect to A and B respectively are:

1)0, 1
2)–1, 1
3)1, 0
4)1, –1

Question 91
Which of the following does not show optical isomerism?

1)cis-[PtCl2(en)2]2+
2)[Cr(C2O4)3]3–
3)trans-[PtCl2(en)2]2+
4)cis-[Cr(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+
Question 92
50.0 g of a calcium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give calcium oxide and 11 g of CO2.
What will be the percentage purity of calcium carbonate in the sample? (At. Wt : Ca = 40 u)

1)20%
2)50%
3)40%
4)60%

Question 93
Heat necessary to raise the temperature of 54.0 g of aluminium from 45°C to 55°C will be (Molar heat
capacity of Al is 24 J mol–1 K–1)

1)0.62 kJ
2)0.31 kJ
3)0.48 kJ
4)0.37 kJ

Question 94
Conductivity of 0.01M acetic acid is 0.016 × 10–2 S cm–1. If Λ°m for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm2 mol–1,
then dissociation constant of acid will be

1)3.2 × 10–8
2)1.6 × 10–8
3)3.2 × 10–6
4)1.6 × 10–5

Question 95
The dissociation constant of 0.01M CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10–5, then the CH3COO– ion concentration in
0.2 M HCl solution will be

1)6 × 10–6 mol/L

2)9 × 10–7 mol/L
3)2 × 10–6 mol/L
4)4.5 × 10–6 mol/L
Question 96
Evolution of brown fumes on heating the salt with concentrated sulphuric acid indicate the presence of

1)Sulphide ion
2)Bromide ion
3)Chloride ion
4)Iodide ion

Question 97
Consider the following statements

(a) AgCl is more covalent than NaCl

(b) Both SO2 and H2O have bent shape with one lone pair on central atom

(c) Dipole moment of HI is greater than the HCl

(d) SCl2 and NH3 follow octet rule

The correct statements are

1)(b) and (c) only

2)(a) and (b) only
3)(c) and (d) only
4)(a) and (d) only

Question 98
Correct order of freezing point of the given aqueous solution is

(i) 0.2 m NaCl (α = 50%)

(ii) 0.2 m Al2(SO4)3 (α = 20%)

(iii) 0.2 m Na3PO4 (α = 40%)

1)(iii) > (i) > (ii)

2)(i) > (ii) > (iii)
3)(iii) > (ii) > (i)
4)(i) > (iii) > (ii)
Question 99
Given below are the two statements

Statement I : (n + l) value for the valence shell of calcium is 4.

Statement II : Two electrons in the valence shell of calcium can be distinguished by magnetic quantum
number.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Question 100
The major product X formed in the following reaction sequence is

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 101
Identify the various layers of tissue which constitute the ground tissue system, by considering the
following features of different zones in a dicot stem. Arrange them in a correct order, i.e., from
periphery to the centre and choose the option accordingly

A. A single layer of compactly arranged cells which contain starch grains.

B. Semilunar patches of sclerenchyma just below the endodermis.

C. Few layers of collenchymatous cells present just below the epidermis providing mechanical strength
to the young stem.

D. Innermost part of the stele

1)B → C → D → A
2)A → C → B → D
3)C → A → B → D
4)C → B → A → D

Question 102
Choose the statement which is true regarding intercalary meristem.

1)It occupies the distant most regions of the stem axis

2)It contributes in the formation of primary plant body
3)It is responsible for producing the secondary tissues
4)It is also known as cylindrical or lateral meristem

Question 103
Which part of the cell envelope in a bacterium provides a strong structural support to prevent it from
bursting or collapsing?

1)Cell wall
2)Capsule
3)Slime layer
4)Plasma membrane
Question 104
Consider the following figure and choose the correct option for the given labels.

1)B – It transfers four protons into the matrix which are reduced by complex I of ETS.
2)C – It possesses the ribosomes having 50S and 30S subunits.
3)D – It is studded with all the complexes involved in ETS.
4)A – It helps in defining the shape of mitochondria and also reduces the surface area.

Question 105
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A : Plasma membrane in prokaryotes is structurally similar to that of eukaryotes.

Statement B : E. coli has thin membranous extensions made of tubulin proteins from their plasma
membrane called flagella.

1)Only statement A is correct

2)Only statement B is correct
3)Both the statements A and B are correct
4)Both the statements A and B are incorrect
Question 106
Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
Jan His experiment involves both aerobic bacteria and
a. (i)
Ingenhousz eukaryotic organism like Cladophora.
T.W He inferred that oxygen evolved by the green plant
b. (ii) comes from H O not from CO
Engelmann 2 2
Joseph He showed that it is only green part of the plants that
c. (iii)
Priestley could release oxygen.
Cornelius van Performed a series of experiments that revealed
d. (iv)
Niel essential role of air in the growth of green plants.

1)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

2)a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
3)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
4)a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

Question 107
Which of the following are directly required for the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis in maize plant
?

A. NADPH

B. Light

C. Chlorophyll

D. CO2

E. ATP

The correct ones are

1)B, C and D only

2)A, D and E only
3)A and E only
4)A, C and E only
Question 108
Select the statement which is not true for the first law of inheritance that is based on the series of
experiments performed by Mendel?

1)Characters are controlled by the discrete units called factors.

2)
This law used to explain the expression of only one of the parental characters in a
monohybrid cross.
3)
Alleles of a pair segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors.
4)It explains the proportion of 3:1 obtained at the F2 generation.

Question 109
How many types of gametes in the diploid organism are formed if it is heterozygous for 3 loci and
homozygous for 2 loci?

1)Six
2)Thirty two
3)Eight
4)Sixteen

Question 110
How many nuclei are involved in double fertilisation ‘the event which is unique to flowering plants’?

1)Three
2)Five
3)Two
4)Six
Question 111
The color of wing in a species of butterfly is controlled by an autosomal gene having three alleles W, wB
(blue) and wY (yellow) in the population. wB and wY are codominantly expressed, i.e., wB wY genotype,
results in a green phenotype. The allele W is dominant over both the other alleles and results in the red
phenotype.

Two butterflies are crossed and offspring are produced in the following ratio.

2 Red: 1 Blue: 1 Green

What could be the possible genotypes for the parent butterflies?

1)W wB and W wY
2)WwB and w B wY
3)W wY and WwY
4)w B wY and WwY

Question 112
Select the plant in which its stem is modified into flattened structure and carries out photosynthesis?

1)Euphorbia
2)Opuntia
3)Chrysanthemum
4)Eichhornia

Question 113
Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option w.r.t. lac operon.

Column
Column II
I
a. Gene i (i) It encodes transacetylase
It codes for an enzyme, which increases permeability of the
b. Gene a (ii)
cell to β galactosides
c. Gene z (iii) It codes for the repressor
It codes for an enzyme which is primarily responsible for the
d. Gene y (iv)
hydrolysis of the disaccharides

1)a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

2)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
3)a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
4)a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Question 114
Choose the correct option for Variable Number of Tandem Repeats.

1)It belongs to class of satellite DNA referred to as micro satellite.

2)Its size varies from 1 to 20 bp.
3)Its probe is used in the hybridisation process of DNA fingerprinting.
4)Its higher number will ensure enhanced amount of protein synthesis in a cell.

Question 115
The following is a list of events in the synthesis of protein from a DNA template in eukaryotes.

i. Ribosome attaches to the mRNA.

ii. The amino acid is attached to the growing polypeptide through peptide bond.

iii. mRNA migrates from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

iv. An aminoacyl tRNA binds to its specific codon on mRNA.

v. mRNA is transcribed from its DNA template.

Identify the correct sequence from the following options.

1)v – ii – i – iii – iv
2)iii – v – iv – ii – i
3)iii – v – i – ii – iv
4)v – iii – i – iv – ii

Question 116
In the given ecosystem, if the NPP of grass is

400 (kcal m–2) yr–1, then what would be the secondary productivity at third trophic level in the given
food chain?

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake

1)4000 (kcal m–2) yr–1

2)40 (kcal m–2) yr–1
3)4 (kcal m–2) yr–1
4)0.4 (kcal m–2) yr–1
Question 117
Select the incorrect match w.r.t. number of species found in the Amazonian rainforest in South
America.

1)Species of birds - 1300

2)Species of mammals - 378
3)Species of amphibians - 427
4)Species of fishes – 3,000

Question 118
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) and chose the correct option

Assertion (A) : Biologists are not sure about how many prokaryotic species there might be.

Reason (R) : Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying the species of
prokaryotes in nature and many of the species of prokaryotes are non culturable under laboratory
conditions.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3)Both (A) and (R) are false
4)(A) is true but (R) is false

Question 119
Choose the incorrect statement for the prokaryotic organism involves in the production of curd from
the milk.

1)They play very beneficial role in checking the disease causing microbes in human stomach.
2)They improve the nutritional quality of the milk by increasing the Vitamin B12 content in it.
3)They produce some basic compounds that coagulate and completely digests the milk proteins.
4)
Under compound microscope, they appear as rod shaped, and they can perform anaerobic
respiration
Question 120
Match the list I with List II.

List II ( Name of the

List I (interacting species)
interaction)
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango
a. (i) Parasitism
branch
Flamingoes in South American lakes and
b. (ii) Mutualism
resident fishes
c. Marine fishes and copepods (iii) Commensalism
Relationship between a fungus and
d. photosynthetic algae or cyanobacteria in (iv) Competition
lichens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

2)a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
3)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
4)a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

Question 121
Which among the following is not observed in the parasites as an adaptive measure?

1)Loss of unnecessary sense organs

2)Loss of digestive system
3)Presence of adhesive organs
4)Low reproductive capacity

Question 122
Select the incorrect match among the following.

1)Homo sapiens – The only organism who is aware of himself

2)Worker bees –Reproduction and cellular organisation are their characteristic feature
3)Planaria - Undergoes true regeneration
4)Unicellular organism – Reproduction is synonymous with growth
Question 123
Which among the following features is not common between the members of Ascomycetes and
Basidiomycetes?

1)Mycelium is septate and branched

2)Sexual spores are produced endogenously
3)Some of their members are edible
4)During sexual reproduction, an intervening dikaryotic stage is found

Question 124
Select the statement which is incorrect regarding the experiments on Pisum sativum by Gregor
Mendel?

1)
He conducted hybridisation experiments on garden pea for seven years (1856-1863) and proposed
the laws of inheritance in the living organisms.
2)
His experiment had a small sampling size, which gave more credibility to the data that he collected.
3)
He selected fourteen true breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar except for one
character with contrasting traits.
4)He conducted cross pollination experiments by using several true breeding pea lines.

Question 125
Which feature is not true for the members of Chrysophytes?

1)Diatoms are chief producer in the oceans

2)They are found in both fresh and marine environment
3)They show autotrophic mode of nutrition
4)They all are devoid of cell wall

Question 126
Select the pair of algae in which the first alga has dominance of chlorophyll a and b and the second
alga stores food in the form of mannitol or laminarin.

1)Ectocarpus, Fucus
2)Volvox, Fucus
3)Dictyota , Laminaria
4)Porphyra, Ulothrix
Question 127
Roots can be differentiated from stem as

1)The former have axillary buds from which root hairs are formed
2)The latter cannot act as organs of perennation
3)The latter can modify itself to store the food
4)The former do not have nodes and internodes

Question 128
How many among the following features is/are true for Solanum nigrum?

(a) Both calyx and corolla shows valvate aestivation.

(b) Stamens are attached to the sepals of the flower.

(c) More than one carpel are present and they are free.

(d) Flower shows bilateral symmetry.

(e) Flowers are hypogynous.

Select the correct option

1)Three
2)Four
3)Two
4)One

Question 129
Given below are two statements.

Statement A - Insertion or deletion of three or multiple of three bases changes the reading frame from
the point of insertion or deletion.

Statement B- Terminalisation of translation occurs when a release factor binds to stop codon and
releases the complete polypeptide from the ribosome.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1)Both statement A and statement B are false

2)Both statement A and statement B are true
3)Only statement A is true.
4)Only statement B is true.
Question 130
Consider the following stages of cell cycle

A. Synthesis phase

B. karyokinesis

C. Gap I phase

D. Cytokinesis

E. Gap II phase

Choose the correct sequence of stages of cell cycle from the options given below

1)E→C→A→B→D
2)C→A→E→D→B
3)E→A→C→B→D
4)C→A→E→B→D

Question 131
Choose the option which is true for substage of prophase I of meiosis that is marked by terminalisation
of chiasmata?

1)
At this stage recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalent tend to separate from each
other except at the sites of crossovers
2)
The chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the
homologous chromosomes for separation.
3)
The microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attaches to the kinetochore of homologous
chromosomes.
4)
During this phase, the four chromatids of each bivalent chromosomes becomes distinct and clearly
appear as tetrads.

Question 132
All of the following are significance of mitosis, except

1)It helps in the growth of multicellular organisms.

2)It helps to restore nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio when cell grows.
3)It helps in continuous growth of the plants throughout their life.
4)It increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms.
Question 133
Choose the correct match w.r.t. ETS of mitochondria

1)Complex I – Transfers its electrons to Complex II

2)Complex III – Receives electrons from two different complexes
3)Complex IV – It receives electrons from ubiquinone
4)Complex V – Transfers protons from matrix to intermembrane space

Question 134
Select the most suitable option for arithematic growth.

1)It can be expressed by the equation W1=W0 ert

2)This pattern is not observed when root elongation is at a constant rate
3)It occurs at the constant rate
4)It has three distinct phases

Question 135

Identify the above figure and choose the correct option for labels A and B.

1)A – It has irregularly shaped organelle discovered by Robert Hooke

2)B – It undergoes asymmetric mitosis to give rise to two male gametes
3)A – It has abundant food reserve
4)B-In most of the angiosperms it does not divide to form male gametes
Question 136
Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
Back
a. Cross of F1 progeny with recessive parent (i)
cross
b. Number of sets of chromosomes (ii) Allele
c. Two or more alternative forms of a gene in the population (iii) Test cross
Cross of F1 progeny with male or female parent type
d. (iv) Ploidy
individuals

1)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

2)a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
3)a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
4)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

Question 137
For the codon 5′ UAC 3′, what could be the sequence of anticodon on tRNA?

1)5′ ATG 3′
2)5′ GTA 3′
3)5′ AUG 3′
4)5′ GUA 3′

Question 138
Which among the following is not a salient feature of human genome?

1)
The repeated sequence in the stretch of DNA have direct coding functions and they shed light on
the chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution.
2)
The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly, with the largest known human
gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
3)Chromosome 1 has the most genes and Y has the fewest.
4)Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
Question 139
Which of the following is correct for humus?

1)It undergoes decomposition at very higher rates

2)It cannot be further degraded
3)It serves as the reservoir of nutrients
4)It is a light coloured amorphous substance

Question 140
Biofertilisers are

1)Comprised of prokaryotic organisms only

2)Involved in enriching the nutrient quality of the soil
3)Useful to get rid of butterfly caterpillars
4)Widely distributed in terrestrial environment only

Question 141
Two species of birds are competing for the seeds of a species of plant in a garden. To survive and
coexist, they may avoid competition by

1)Attacking each other

2)Predating on each other rather than on seeds
3)Feeding at the same time
4)Choosing different foraging patterns

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)Both ( A) and (R) are false
Question 143
Gymnosperms lack

1)Archegonia
2)Pollen grains
3)Ovary
4)Microsporophylls

Question 144
Read the following statements:

Statement A: In plants like mint and jasmine, a slender lateral branch arises from the base of the main
axis and after growing aerially for same time arch downwards to touch the ground.

Statement B : In aquatic plant, like Pistia, the lateral branch has long internodes and each node bears
rosette of leaves and tuft of roots.

In the light of above statements choose the correct option

1)Both statements A and B are correct

2)Both statements A and B are incorrect
3)Only statement A is correct
4)Only statement B is correct

Question 145
Which among the following is true w.r.t. G1 phase of cell cycle?

1)Cell is metabolically active

2)Replication of DNA takes place
3)It is the interval between synthesis phase and G2 phase
4)It involves duplication of centriole in cytoplasm

Question 146
All of the following can be considered as respiratory substrates, except

1)Minerals
2)Fats
3)Carbohydrates
4)Proteins
Question 147
Leaves of rice seedlings remain above the water due to

1)Cytokinin because it induces rapid elongation of internodes of stem

2)Ethylene where it promotes rapid growth of internode and petiole
3)Gibberellic acid as it induces development of adventitious roots
4)Ethylene as it is responsible for apical hook formation

Question 148
Which among the following wall layers of anther is involved in providing the nourishment to the
developing pollen grains?

1)Epidermis
2)Middle layers
3)Tapetum
4)Endothecium

Question 149
Dorsiventral leaf differs from isobilateral leaf as in the former

1)Vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of starch sheath

2)Abaxial epidermis has less stomata than the adaxial epidermis
3)Spongy parenchyma is situated below the palisade parenchyma
4)Abaxial epidermal cells modify themselves to minimise water loss.

Question 150
Select the structures which are absent in prokaryotes.

a. Food vacuole b. Chromatophores

c. Gas vacuole d. Contractile vacuole

The correct one(s) is/are

1)b only
2)c only
3)a and d only
4)c and d only
Question 151
Select the odd one w.r.t. marine organisms.

1)Spongilla
2)Saccoglossus
3)Ctenoplana
4)Sycon

Question 152
The type of epithelium that lines the fallopian tubes is characterised by presence of

1)Cells with irregular boundaries

2)Cube-like cells with cilia
3)Multi-layered cells
4)Ciliated Cells with basal nuclei

Question 153
All of the following are true w.r.t. frogs, except

1)Moist and glandular skin

2)Protruding spherical eyes
3)Muscular hind limbs
4)Webbed digits in forelimbs

Question 154
Select the type of contraception that protects the users from contracting STIs.

1)Nirodh
2)Cervical caps
3)Vaults
4)Diaphragms
Question 155
'X'
Sucrose → Glucose + Fructose
For the given reaction, the enzyme ‘X’ used can be named by the EC number beginning with

1)4
2)3
3)2
4)1

Question 156
If in a tube containing peroxidase and some substrate, haem is removed from the active site of the
enzyme, it will lead to _____ in the rate of reaction.

Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

1)Increase
2)Decrease
3)No effect
4)First increase and then decrease

Question 157
Assertion (A): In an enzyme catalysed reaction, the presence of malonate decreases the catalytic
activity of succinate.

Reason (R): Due to the structural similarity of malonate with the substrate, it competes with the
substrate for the binding site of the enzyme.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 158
A yoga instructor asks a man to breathe in the maximum volume of air as he can do after a forced
expiration. This respiratory capacity inspired by man can be represented by all the below given
equations, except

1)ERV + TV + IRV
2)IC + ERV
3)TLC – RV
4)VC + RV

Question 159
In humans, under normal physiological conditions, about what percentage of total CO2 is carried by
blood plasma?

1)7%
2)77%
3)20-25%
4)70%

Question 160
A healthy adult man underwent a blood test to determine his total leucocyte count. The leucocytes that
should be present in the most abundant amount (per mm3 of blood) in his blood sample are

1)Phagocytic granulocytes
2)Agranulocyte with bean-shaped nucleus
3)Granulocytes with bi-lobed nucleus that participates in inflammatory reactions
4)Phagocytic agranulocytes

Question 161
Select the incorrect statement.

1)In an adult Hyla, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs and skin.
2)In Aptenodytes, the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood.
3)In Clarias, the heart pumps out oxygenated blood.
4)In Hemidactylus, the ventricle pumps out mixed blood.
Question 162
Read the given statements :

Statement A : If we dissect Pinctada and spongilla along the central axis of their body in only one
plane, their body will get divided into identical left and right halves.

Statement B : All organisms possessing mesoglea are radially symmetrical but radial symmetry is not
found in any other acoelomates.

Choose the correct option.

1)Both statements A and B are incorrect

2)Both statements A and B are correct
3)Only statement A is incorrect
4)Only statement B is incorrect

Question 163
All of the following can increase blood pressure, except

1)ADH
2)Renin
3)Aldosterone
4)ANF

Question 164
A person feeling uneasy underwent a checkup and it was found that insoluble mass of oxalates has
formed within his kidney. This indicates that he is most probably suffering from

1)Glomerulonephritis
2)Renal calculi
3)Uremia
4)Renal failure

Question 165
Select the unpaired facial bone.

1)Ethmoid
2)Mandible
3)Lacrimal
4)Zygomatic
Question 166
Select the correct equation w.r.t. number of bones in an adult man.

1)Carpals + Patella → Bones of lower limbs

2)Tarsals + Patella bones = Carpals
3)Metacarpals + Metatarsals = Phallanges
4)Girdle bones + Tarsals = Metatarsals

Question 167
Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option w.r.t. a nerve fibre in humans

Depolarization : Influx of Na+ :: Repolarization :_________

1)Efflux of Na+ into ECF

2)Influx of K+ in axoplasm
3)Efflux of K+ in ECF
4)Influx of Na+ into ECF

Question 168
Assertion (A) : The impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that
across a chemical synapse.

Reason (R) : Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across electrical
synapse whereas neurotransmitters are required for transmission of impulses across a chemical
synapse that leads to synaptic delay.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option w.r.t. humans.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true and (R) is false
4)Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 169
Match Column I with Column II w.r.t hormones and their actions in humans.

Column I Column II
a. CCK (i) Stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ion
b. GIP (ii) Inhibits gastric secretion and motility
c. Secretin (iii) Stimulates secretion of HCl and pepsinogen
d. Gastrin (iv) Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes

Choose the correct option.

1)a(iv); b(ii); c(iii); d(i)

2)a(i); b(iii); c(ii); d(iv)
3)a(ii); b(i); c(iii); d(iv)
4)a(iv); b(ii); c(i); d(iii)

Question 170
If by some means, the β-cells of pancreas get damaged, then the person may become/show

(a) Hypoglycemic

(b) Increased glycogenesis in hepatocytes

(c) Hyperglycemic

(d) Decreased gluconeogenesis in hepatic cells

Select the correct option.

1)(a) only
2)(a) and (b)
3)(c) only
4)(c) and (d)

Question 171
Select the correct set of hormones that act via second messengers.

1)Iodothyronines ; ACTH
2)Estrogen ; FSH
3)Glucagon ; PRL
4)GH; Testosterone
Question 172
Select the odd one w.r.t. human male sex accessory ducts.

1)Vasa efferentia
2)Epididymis
3)Rete testis
4)Seminiferous tubules

Question 173
The layer of the uterine wall that undergoes wild contractions is ‘X’. Whereas, the wall of uterus that
undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle is ‘Y’.

Choose the correct option w.r.t. ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

1)‘Y’ is a fibrous layer formed by collagen fibres only

2)A hormone synthesized by the neurohypophysis acts on ‘X’ that leads to wild contractions
3)Progesterone is responsible for the maintenance of the non-glandular layer ‘Y’
4)‘X’ is characterised by presence of unbranched muscle fibres

Question 174
All of the following are true w.r.t Periplaneta, except

1)it is an hexapod animal

2)Lower anterior end of head bears mouth
3)Tegmina cover the metathoracic wings when at rest
4)10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure that represents sexual dimorphism

Question 175
Choose the incorrect match w.r.t IUDs.

1)Multiload 375 – Suppresses sperm motility

2)Lippes loop – Prevents ovulation and implantation
3)Progestasert – Makes the cervix hostile to sperms
4)CuT – Reduces the fertilising capacity of sperms
Question 176
Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita represent all, except

1)Divergent evolution
2)Common ancestry
3)Convergent evolution
4)Homology

Question 177
Consider the following w.r.t. industrial melanism.

(a) Represents directional natural selection

(b) Represents evolution due to anthropogenic actions

(c) Shows that in a mixed population with different varieties, those that can adapt better will contribute
more in the gene pool

(d) One of the variants got completely wiped out

How many of them is/are correct?

1)One
2)Two
3)Three
4)Four

Question 178
If one receives the vaccine for the SARS – Covid virus, it will induce

1)Artificial passive immunity

2)Natural active immunity
3)Artificial active immunity
4)Natural passive immunity
Question 179
Benign tumours differ from malignant tumours as

1)Former are more invasive than latter

2)Neoplastic transformation occurs in latter
3)Former lose the property of contact inhibition
4)Latter exhibit metastasis

Question 180
Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option w.r.t. isolation of DNA.

Erythroxylum coca : Cellulase : : Epidermophyton: _____

1)DNase
2)Chitinase
3)Lysozyme
4)Cellulase

Question 181
Select the direct method of introduction of the gene of interest in cells of Macaca.

1)Biolistics
2)Gene gun
3)Disarmed retrovirus mediated
4)Micro-injection

Question 182
Select the correct statement w.r.t. PCR.

1)Taq polymerase used in reaction is thermolabile and DNA dependent DNA polymerase.
2)The extension step requires only dNTPs.
3)Hydrogen bonds get broken during the denaturation step.
4)Primers bind to the 5C end of each anti-sense strand.
Question 183
Select the correct option w.r.t. RNAi.

1)Takes place in all prokaryotes as a method of cellular defense

2)
Nematode – specific genes are introduced in the host plants to produce sense and anti-sense RNAs
3)Only ssRNA initiates it in nematodes
4)Post-translational process is responsible for silencing specific mRNA

Question 184
If a plant is infested with corn borers, which of the following genes can be introduced in plants to
prevent the infestation?

1)cryIAc and cryIIAb

2)cryIAb only
3)cryIAc and cryIAb
4)cryIIAc only

Question 185
Genetically modified plants are useful as they

1)Reduce post harvest losses

2)Decrease efficiency of mineral usage
3)Increase reliance on chemical pesticides
4)Reduce nutritional value of food

Question 186
How many organisms given in the box below are monoecious and show internal fertilisation with
indirect development?

Euspongia, Ctenoplana, Planaria, Taenia, Ancylostoma, Antedon

Select the correct option.

1)Four
2)Two
3)Three
4)Five
Question 187
Which of the following characteristics can be used to differentiate between male and female frogs?

1)Nictitating membrane
2)Copulatory pad
3)Division of body
4)Tympanum membrane

Question 188

Observe the graph given above and choose the correct option w.r.t. it.

1)Represents an endothermic reaction

2)‘X’ represents a lower energy state than energy level of the substrate
3)Difference between the energy content of ‘P’ and ‘X’ is called activation energy
4)In the presence of enzyme, the activation energy of the reaction is represented by ‘Z’

Question 189
The artery that carries deoxygenated blood to lungs for pulmonary circulation has pO2 which is
equivalent to

1)pCO2 in vena cava

2)pO2 in aorta
3)pCO2 in systemic artery
4)pCO2 in right atrium
Question 190
If an individual has a blood type in which no antigens are present on RBCs, he/she can receive blood
from an individual with

1)No antibodies in plasma

2)‘A’ and ‘B’ antigens on RBCs
3)Anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma
4)‘A’ antigens on RBCs

Question 191
For micturition in humans

1)Involuntary signal is given by PNS

2)Stretch receptors present on ureters send signals
3)Contraction occurs in skeletal muscles of bladder
4)Relaxation of urethral sphincter occurs

Question 192
Read the given statements:

(a) The number of cervical vertebrae are seven in all mammals.

(b) Each vertebra of human has a central solid portion called the neural canal.

(c) Humans and frogs have dicondylic skull.

(d) Sternum is a triangular flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax.

How many of them is/are correct?

1)Four
2)Three
3)Two
4)One
Question 193
In a resting neuron of humans

1)Axoplasm contains high concentration of Na+

2)The outer surface of axonal membrane possesses a positive charge
3)Axonal membrane is permeable to negatively charged proteins
4)Axonal membrane is more permeable to Na+ than K+

Question 194
Both catecholamines and glucocorticoids show

(a) Gluconeogenesis

(b) Lipolysis

(c) Proteolysis

(d) Piloerection

Choose the correct option.

1)(a), (b), (c) and (d)

2)Only (c) and (d)
3)Only (a), (b), and (c)
4)Only (b) and (d)

Question 195
Select the correct statement w.r.t. reproductive system of humans.

1)Prostate gland is paired accessory gland in males.

2)Hymen is not a part of external genitalia of females.
3)Spermatozoa are released into the lumen of seminiferous tubules.
4)
The hormone that is mainly responsible for formation of alveoli in mammary gland, peaks before the
luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
Question 196
Select the odd one w.r.t. contraceptives that prevent both ovulation and implantation.

1)Steroidal oral pills

2)Implants
3)Contraceptive injections
4)Saheli

Question 197
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement A : Life appeared 500 million years after the formation of Earth.

Statement B : S.L. Miller observed the formation of amino acid while performing the simulated
experiment based on the conditions of primitive Earth.

1)Both statements A and B are correct

2)Both statements A and B are incorrect
3)Only statement A is incorrect
4)Only statement B is incorrect

Question 198
All of the following are true w.r.t. HIV, except

1)Contains two molecules of ssRNA in its genome

2)Enveloped virus
3)Manages to escape the immune system
4)Replicates in macrophages and TH cells and destroys both immediately

Question 199
How many DNA fragments will be obtained after 6 PCR cycles, if a dsDNA is used as a template?

1)32
2)24
3)16
4)64
Question 200
Assertion (A) : For recovery of healthy plants from a virus infected plant, meristem culture can be
performed.

Reason (R) : Meristematic cells divide faster than the viruses can multiply, hence meristems remain
virus free.

In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)Both (A) and (R) are false