Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.

3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.

5. Section – B : Do any 5 questions out of 10 Questions.

6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-2

(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q1. A person has been using spectacles of power -1.0 dioptre for distant vision and a separate
reading glass of power 2.0 dioptres. What is the least distance of distinct vision for this person?
(A) 30cm (B) 40cm
(C) 50cm (D) 10cm

Q2. Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both have same
charge density . The sphere are then connected by a conducting wire. If the new charge density
'
of the bigger sphere is '. The ratio is :

5 5
(A) (B)
3 6
4 9
(C) (D)
3 4

Q3. Match Column – I with Column – II :

Column-I Column-II
(x-t graphs) (v-t graphs)
x

A. I.

t t
x x0

B. II.

t
t
x

C. III.
t

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x
t

D. IV.

t 0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II (B) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
(C) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (D) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

Q4. A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of power 20mW and duration 300ns. Assuming speed
of light as 3 108 m / s, the momentum of the object becomes equal to :
17 17
(A) 0.5 10 kg m / s (B) 3 10 kg m / s
17 17
(C) 1 10 kg m / s (D) 2 10 kg m / s .

Q5. In a series LR circuit with XL = R, power factor is P1. If a capacitor of capacitance C with XC = XL
is added to the circuit the power factor becomes P2. The ratio of P1 to P2 will be :
(A)1: 2 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 3

Q6. The output waveform of the given logical A

circuit for the following inputs A and B is
shown below, is :
Y
B

t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6

A10

B10
Inputs

t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
1 1
(A) (B)

0 0
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
1 1
(C) (D)
0 0

Q7. The magnetic moments associated with two closely wound circular coils A and B of radius rA =
10cm and rB = 20cm respectively are equal if : (Where NA, IA and NB, IB are number of turn and
current of A and B respectively)
(A) 2NA IA = NB IB (B) NA = 2NB
(C) NA IA = 4NB IB (D) 4NA IA = NB IB

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Q8. A massless square loop, of wire of resistance 10 , supporting a

mass of 1g, hangs vertically with one of its sides in a uniform
magnetic field of 103 G, directed outward in the shaded region. A dc
voltage V is applied to the loop. For what value of V, the magnetic
force will exactly balance the weight of the supporting mass of 1g ?
-2
(If sides of the loop = 10cm, g = 10 ms ) v
(A) 10V (B) 100 V
1
(C) 1 V (D) V
10 m

Q9. The charge flowing in a conductor changes with time as Q t t t2 t 3 . Where , and are
constants. Minimum value of current is :
2 2
3
(A) (B)
3
2 2
(C) (D)
3 3

Q10. As per the given figure, a small ball P slides down the quadrant of a
P
circle and hits the other ball Q of equal mass which is initially at rest.
20cm
Neglecting the effect of friction and assume the collision to be
elastic, the velocity of ball Q after collision will be :
2
(g = m/s )
(A) 0 (B) 0.25 m/s
(C) 4 m/s (D) 2 m/s
Q v ?

Q11. A sinusoidal carrier voltage is amplitude modulated. The resultant amplitude modulated wave has
maximum and minimum amplitude of 120V and 80V respectively. The amplitude of each
sideband is :
(A) 15V (B) 5V
(C) 20V (D) 10V
th
Q12. Speed of an electron in Bohr’s 7 orbit for Hydrogen atom is 3.6 106 m / s. The corresponding
rd
speed of the electron in 3 orbit, in m/s is :
(A) 7.5 106 (B) 8.4 106
(C) 1.8 106 (D) 3.6 106

Q13. The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation
PT 2 constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be :
3
(A) 2 (B) 3T 2
T
3 3
(C) (D) 3
T T

Q14. Choose the correct relationship between poisson ratio , bulk modulus (K) and modulus of
rigidity of a given solid object :
3K 2 6K 2
(A) (B)
6K 2 3K 2
3K 2 6K 2
(C) (D)
6K 2 3K 2

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-5

K
Q15. If the gravitational field in the space is given as . Taking the reference point to be at
r2
r 2cm with gravitational potential V = 10J/kg. Find the gravitational potential at r = 3cm is SI unit
(Given, that K = 6 Jcm/kg)
(A) 9 (B) 12
(C) 10 (D) 11

Aˆ 3 ˆ
Q16. Electric field in a certain region is given by E i j . The SI unit of A and B are :
x2 y3
(A) Nm3C; Nm2C (B) Nm3C 1 ; Nm2 C 1

(C) Nm2C 1 ; Nm3 C 1

(D) Nm2C; Nm3 C

Q17. The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid A
vertically is, 5cm. If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another liquid B of surface tension
and density double the values of liquid A, the height of liquid column raised in liquid B would be
_________m.
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.05 (D) 0.10

Q18. The figure represents the momentum time (p-t) curve for a particle
P b
moving along an axis under the influence of the force. Identify the
a
regions on the graph where the magnitude of the force is maximum
c
and minimum respectively?
If t 3 t 2 t1
(A) a and b (B) b and c
(C) c and a (D) c and b t1 t2 t3 t

Q19. A ball of mass 200g rests on a vertical post of height 20m. A bullet of mass 10g, traveling in
horizontal direction, hits the centre of the ball. After collision both travels independently. The ball
hits the ground at a distance 30m and the bullet at a distance of 120m from the foot of the post.
2
The value of initial velocity of the bullet will be (if g = 10 m/s ) :
(A) 120 m/s (B) 60 m/s
(C) 400 m/s (D) 360 m/s

Q20. Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.

A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease.
B. Internal energy of the gas will increase.
C. Internal energy of the gas will not change.
D. The gas will do positive work.
E. The gas will do negative work.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A and E only (B) C and D only
(C) C and E only (D) B and D only

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-6

(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

dI I = 2A
Q1. As per the figure, if 1A / s then the value of A
dt L = 6H R = 12
VAB at this instant will be _______V.

B
E = 12V

Q2. In a screw gauge, there are 100 divisions on the circular scale and the main scale moves by
0.5mm on a complete rotation of the circular scale. The zero of circular scale lies 6 divisions
below the line of graduation when two studs are brought in contact with each other. When a wire
th
is placed between the studs, 4 linear scale divisions are clearly visible while 46 division the
circular scale coincide with the reference line, The diameter of the wire is _________ 10 2 mm.

Q3. A horse rider covers half the distance with 5m/s speed. The remaining part of the distance was
traveled with speed 10m/s for half the time and with speed 15m/s for other half of the time. The
x
mean speed of the rider averaged over the whole time of motion is m / s. The value of x is
7
_________.

Q4. The general displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is x A sin t. Let T be its time period.
T
The slope of its potential energy (U) – time (t) curve will be maximum when t . The value of

is _______.

Q5. In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are ‘d’ 1.51 P
distance apart and the separation from slits to screen is D (as S1
shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal 0.1mm
thickenss 0.1mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are d Screen
1.55
introduced in the path of beam ( 4000 A ) from S1 and S2
respectively. The central bright fringe spot will shift by S2
D
________number of fringes.

Q6. A point source of light is placed at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical surface. The source
emits a power of 24 W. The radius of curvature of hemisphere is 10cm and the inner surface is
completely reflecting. The force on the hemisphere due to the light falling on it is
_________ 10 8 N.

Q7. In an experiment for estimating the value of focal length of converging mirror, Image of an object
placed at 40cm from the pole of the mirror is formed at distance 120cm from the pole of the
mirror. These distances are measured with a modified scale in which there are 20 small divisions
1
in 1cm. The value of error in measurement of focal length of the mirror is cm. The value of K is
k
__________.

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Q8. A capacitor of capacitance 900 F is charged by a 100V battery. The capacitor is disconnected
from the battery and connected to another uncharged identical capacitor such that one plate of
uncharged capacitor connected to positive plate and another plate of uncharged capacitor
connected to negative plate of the charged capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is
measured as x 10 2 J. The value of x is _________.

Q9. A thin uniform rod of length 2m, cross sectional area ‘A’ and density ‘d’ is rotated about an axis
passing through the centre and perpendicular to its length with angular velocity . If value of in
E
terms of its rotational kinetic energy E is then value of is________.
Ad

Q10. In the following circuit, the magnitude of current I1, is ________ A. 2 I3

I1
1
2V
I2
1 5V
1 I1
2

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-8

(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q1. What is the correct order of acidity of the protons marked A-D in the given compounds?
HD CO2HC

HA

HB
(A) HC> HD> HA>HB (B) HC>HA>HD>HB
(C) HD>HC>HB>HA (D) HC>HD>HB>HA
Q2. Which of the following is correct order of ligand field strength?
(A) CO en NH3 C2O24 S2 (B) S2 NH3 en CO C2O24

(C) S2 C2O24 NH3 en CO (D) NH3 en CO S2 C2O42

Q3. In the extraction of copper, its sulphide ore is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with
silica to:
(A) remove calcium as CaSiO3
(B) Decrease the temperature needed for roasting of Cu2S
(C) Separate CuO as CuSiO3
(D) Remove FeO as FeSiO3
Q4. The major products ‘A’ and ‘B’, respectively, are
CH3
Cold H2SO4
'A' H3C C CH 2 'B'
H SO 80 °C
2 4

CH3 CH3 CH3

(A) H3C C CH3 & CH3 C CH C CH3
OSO 3H CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
(B) CH3 CH CH2CH2 CH CH3 & H3C C CH3
OSO 3H
CH3 CH3 CH3
(C) H3C C CH3 & CH3 CH CH2CH2 CH CH3
OSO 3H
CH3 CH3 CH3

(D) CH3 C CH C CH3 & CH3 C CH3

CH3 OSO 3H

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Q5. Benzyl isocyanide can be obtained by:

CH2Br CH2NH2
AgCN (B) CHCl3
(A)
Aq.KOH
CH2 NHCH3 CHCl CH2OTs
3
KCN
(C) Aq.KOH (D)

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(A) only B (B) B and C
(C) A and B (D) A and D
Q6. During the qualitative analysis of SO32 using dilute H2 SO 4 ,SO2 gas is evolved which turns
K2Cr2O7 solution (acidified with dilute H2SO4)
(A) Red (B) Green
(C) Blue (D) Black

Q7. Lithium aluminium hydride can be prepared from the reaction of

(A) LiCl, Al and H2 (B) LiH and Al(OH)3
(C) LiH and Al2Cl6 (D) LiCl and Al2H6

Q8. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
(molecules / ions) (No of lone pairs of e on central atom)
A. IF7 I. Three
B. ICl4 II. One
C. XeF6 III. Two
D. XeF2 IV. Zero
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A- IV, B-I, C-II, D- III (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Q9. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In expensive scientific instruments, silica gel is kept in watch-glasses or in
semipermeable membrane bags.
Reason (R): Silica gel adsorbs moisture from air via adsorption thus protects the instrument from
water corrosion (rusting) and / or prevents malfunctioning.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q10. Match List I with List II

List-I (atomic number) List-II(block of periodic table)
A. 37 I. p-block
B. 78 II. d-block
C. 52 III. f-block
D. 65 IV. s-block
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A- I, B-III, C-IV, D- II (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

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Q11. Caprolactam when heated at high temperature in presence of water, gives

(A) Dacron (B) Nylon 6
(C) Teflon (D) Nylon 6,6

Q12. The alkaline earth metal sulphate(s) which are readily soluble in water is/ are
(A) BeSO4
(B) MgSO4
(C) CaSO4
(D) SrSO4
(E) BaSO4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) B only (B) B and C
(C) A and B (D) A only

Q13. Which of the following compounds would give the following set of qualitatiave analysis?
(i) Fehling’s Test: Positive
(ii) Na fusion extract upon treatment with sodium nitroprusside gives a blood red colour but not
Prussian blue.
N N
(A) CHO (B)
N S CHO
N N
(C) CHO (D) CHO
S O

Q14. In the wet tests for identification of various cations by precipitation, which transition element
cation doesn’t belong to group IV in qualitative inorganic analysis?
(A) Fe3 (B) Co2
2
(C) Zn (D) Ni2

Q15. To inhibit the growth of tumours, identify the compounds used from the following:
A. EDTA
B. Coordination Compounds of Pt
C. D- Penicillamine
D. Cis- Platin
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
(A) A and C only (B) B and D only
(C) C and D only (D) A and B only

Q16. Formation of photochemical smog involves the following reaction in which A, B and C are
respectively.
(i) NO2 hv A B
(ii) B O2 C
(iii) A C NO 2 O2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) N, O2 & O3 (B) NO, O & O3
(C) O, NO & NO3 (D) O, N2O & NO

Q17. Amongst the following compounds, which one is an antacid?

(A) Terfenadine (B) Brompheniramine
(C) Meprobamate (D) Ranitidine

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-11

Q18. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
Cl CH3

A. Na I. Fittig reaction
+ CH3Cl

Cl

B. II. Wurtz Fittig reaction

2Na

N2 Cl Cl

C. Cu2Cl2 III. Finkelstein reaction

+ N2

D. C2H5 Cl NaI C2H5I NaCl IV. Sandmeyer reaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A- II, B-I, C-IV, D- III (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (D) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Q19. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ketoses give Seliwanoff’s test faster than Aldoses.
Reason (R): Ketoses undergo -elimination followed by formation furfural.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q20. For OF2 molecule consider the following:

A. Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2,
o
B. FOF angle is less than 104.5 .
C. Oxidation state of O is -2.
D. Molecule is bent ‘V’ shaped.
D. Molecular geometry is linear.
Correct options are:
(A) A, C, D only (B) A, B, D only
(C) B, E, A only (D) C, D, E only

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-12

(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

Q1. When 2 litre of ideal gas expands isothermally into vacuum to a total volume of 6 litre, the change
in internal energy is _____________J. (Nearest integer)

Q2. The number of electrons involved in the reduction of permagnate to manganese dioxide in acidic
medium is_________.

Q3. A solution containing 2 g of a non- volatile solute in 20 g of water boils at 373.52K. The molecular
1
mass of the solute is __________ g mol .(Nearest integer)
1
Given, water boils at 373K, Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol

Q4. Consider the cell

Pt(s) | H2 (g,1atm) | H (aq.1M) || Fe3(aq) ,Fe2(aq) || Pt (s)
When the potential of the cell is 0.712 V at 298 K, the ratio Fe2 / Fe3 is________.
(Nearest integer)
Given: Fe3 e Fe2 ,E0Fe3 ,Fe2 | Pt 0.771
2.303RT
0.06V
F
3 1
Q5. If compound A reacts with B following first order kinetics with rate constant 2.011 10 s . The
time taken by A (in seconds) to reduce from 7 g to 2 g will be _________.
(Nearest integer)
[log5 0.698,log7 845,log2 0.301]

Q6. Some amount of dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) is added to 671.141 mL of chloroform (CHCl3) to

3
prepare 2.6 10 M solution of CH2Cl2(DCM). The concentration of DCM is __________ppm (by
mass)
Given:
Atomic mass : C = 12
H=1
Cl = 35.5
3
Density of CHCl3 = 1.49 g cm

Q7. A trisubstituted compound ‘A’ C10H12O2 gives neutral FeCl3 test positive. Treatment of compound
‘A’ with NaOH and CH3Br gives C11H14O2, with hydroidic acid gives methyl iodide and with hot
conc. NaOH gives a compound B C10H12O2. Compound ‘A’ also decolorizes alkaline KMnO4.
The number of bond/s present in the compound ‘A’ is__________.
12 1
Q8. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of frequency 2 10 Hz in J mol is __________
(Nearest integer)
34 23 1
[Given ; h= 6.626 10 Js NA = 6.022 10 mol ]

Q9. A 300 mL bottle of soft drink has 0.2 M CO2 dissolved in it. Assuming CO2 behaves as an ideal
gas, the volume of the dissolved CO2 at STP is________ mL (Nearest integer)
1
Given: At STP molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.7 L mol

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Q10. 600mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400mL of 0.01 M H2SO4. The pH of the mixture is ________
2.
10 (Nearest integer)
[Given log 2 = 0.30
log 3 = 0.48
log 5= 0.69
log7 = 0.84
log 11 = 1.04]

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-14

(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q1. If an unbiased die, marked with 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3 on its faces, is thrown five times, then the
probability that the product of the outcomes is positive, is :
881 27
(A) (B)
2592 288
521 440
(C) (D)
2592 2592

Q2. The minimum number of elements that must be added to the relation R a,b , b,c on the set
a,b,c so that it becomes symmetric and transitive is :
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 3

Q3. Let a unit vector OP make angles , , with the positive directions of the co-ordinate axes OX,

OY, OZ respectively, where 0, . If OP is perpendicular to the plane through points

2
1,2,3 , 2,3,4 and 1,5,7 , then which one of the following is true?

(A) , and , (B) 0, and ,

2 2 2 2

(C) , and 0, (D) 0, and 0,

2 2 2 2

1 1 1
Q4. If tan150 tan1950 2a , then the value of a is :
tan750 tan1050 a
(A) 2 (B) 4 2 3
3
(C) 5 3 (D) 4
2

Q5. Let the solution curve y y x of the differential equation

dy 3x 5 tan 1
x3 x3 tan 1 x3
3 /2
y 2x exp. pass through the origin. Then y 1 is equal to :
dx 1 x6 1 x6

1 4
(A) exp (B) exp
4 2 4 2
4 4
(C) exp (D) exp
4 2 4 2

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-15

Q6. Let the system of linear equations

x y kz 2
2x 3y z 1
3x 4y 2z k
have infinitely many solutions. Then the system
k 1 x 2k 1 y 7
2k 1 x k 5 y 10
has :
(A) unique solution satisfying x y 1 (B) unique solution satisfying x y 1
(C) no solution (D) infinitely many solutions

Q7. If a, b, c are three non-zero vectors and n̂ is a unit vector perpendicular to c such that
a ˆ
b n, 0 and b c 12 , then c a b is equal to :
(A) 9 (B) 12
(C) 6 (D) 15

Q8. Let y x 2, 4y 3x 6 and 3y 4x 1 be three tangent lines to the circle

2 2
x h y k r 2 . Then h k is equal to :
(A) 6 (B) 5 2
(C) 5 1 2 (D) 5

15
15 3 1 15
Q9. If the coefficient of x in the expansion of ax is equal to the coefficient of x in the
bx1/ 3
15
1
expansion of ax1/ 3 , where a and b are positive real numbers, then for each such
bx3
ordered pair a,b :
(A) a = b (B) a = 3b
(C) ab = 3 (D) ab = 1

2
Q10. If an , then a1 a2 .... a25 is equal to :
4n2 16n 15
49 50
(A) (B)
138 141
52 51
(C) (D)
147 144

Q11. Among the statements :

S1 p q r p r
S2 p q r p r q r
(A) neither S1 nor S2 is a tautology
(B) only S2 is a tautology
(C) both S1 and S2 are tautologies
(D) only S1 is a tautology

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-16

Q12. If P h,k be a point on the parabola x 4y 2 , which is nearest to the point Q 0, 33 , then the
distance of P from the directrix of the parabola y 2 4 x y is equal to :
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 6

2
3 e 1 x x3
Q13. If t denotes the greatest integer t , then the value of x2e dx is :
e 1

(A) e8 e (B) e8 1
(C) e7 1 (D) e9 e

Q14. The number of points on the curve y 54x5 135x 4 70x 3 180x 2 210x at which the normal
lines are parallel to x 90y 2 0 is :
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 4

Q15. The line 1 passes through the point 2,6,2 and is perpendicular to the plane 2x y 2z 10 .
x 1 y 4 z
Then the shortest distance between the line 1 and the line is :
2 3 2
19
(A) (B) 7
3
13
(C) 9 (D)
3

500 499 498

Q16. The coefficient of x 301 in 1 x x 1 x x2 1 x .... x 500 is :
500 501
(A) C301 (B) C302
500 501
(C) C300 (D) C200

Q17. Suppose f : R 0, be a differentiable function such that 5f x y f x f y , x, y R . If

5
f 3 320 , then f n is equal to :
n 0

(A) 6825 (B) 6525

(C) 6875 (D) 6575

1
Q18. If the solution of the equation logcos x cot x 4logsin x tan x 1, x 0, , is sin , where
2 2
, are integers, then is equal to :
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 5

m n
Q19. Let A , d A 0 and A d Adj A 0 . Then
p q
2
(A) 1 d2 m2 q2 (B) 1 d2 m q
2 2 2
(C) 1 d m2 q2 (D) 1 d m q

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 JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-17

Q20. A straight line cuts off the intercepts OA a and OB b on the positive directions of x-axis and

y-axis respectively. If the perpendicular from origin O to this line makes an angle of with
6
98
positive direction of y-axis and the area of OAB is 3 , then a2 b2 is equal to :
3
392
(A) 196 (B)
3
196
(C) (D) 98
3

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (30th January-First Shift)-PCM-18

(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

Q1. Number of 4-digit numbers (the repeation of digits is allowed) which are made using the digits 1,
2, 3 and 5 and are divisible by 15, is equal to……..

Q2. The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If one observation 14 is
omitted and a and b are respectively mean and variance of remaining 6 observation, then
a 3b 5 is equal to…….

Q3. If the equation of the plane passing through the point 1, 1, 2 and perpendicular to the line
x 3y 2z 1 0 4x y z is Ax By Cz 1, then 140 C B A is equal to………

3x 2 3
Q4. Let f 1 x ,x R
2x 3 2
For n 2 , define f n x f 1o f n 1
x .
ax b
If f 5 x , gcd a,b 1 , then a + b is equal to…..
bx a

n3 2n ! 2n 1 n! b 1
Q5. Let ae c , where a,b,c Z and e . Then a2 b c is
n 0 n! 2n ! e n 0 n!

equal to……

Q6. Let be the area of the larger region bounded by the curve y 2 8x and the lines y x and x =
2, which lies in the first quadrant. Then the value of 3 is equal to…….

1 iz 12
Q7. Let z 1 i and z1 . Then arg z1 is equal to……..
1
z 1 z
z

Q8. If 1 2 are two values of such that the angle between the planes P1 : r 3iˆ 5ˆj kˆ 7 and

ˆi ˆj 3kˆ 1 2 6
P2 : r 9 is sin , then the square of the length of perpendicular from the
5
point 38 1, 10 2 , 2 to the plane P1 is……..

Q9. Let S 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 . Then the number of one-one functions f : S P S , where P S denote

the power set of S, such that f n f m where n m is…….

x
48 t3
Q10. lim 4 6
dt is equal to……
x 0 x t 1
0

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