SUPPORT MATERIAL

AISSCE, 2024-25

DAV

ODISHA
 SUBJECT-PHYSICS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Sl No Topic Page No.
1. MCQs Chapter wise 1-20
With Answer
2. Assertion-Reason chapter wise 20-36
Questions with Answer
3. Case Study Based chapter wise 37-58
Questions with Answer
Common Errors
4. Competency Based chapter wise 58-119
Questions with Answer
5. 3-Unsolved Sample Papers 120-144
6. CBSE Sample Paper-2024-25 145

MCQ FOR SUPPORT MATERIAL

CH 01:ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELD
1. Two equal negative charges -q are fixed at points (0,-a) and (0,-a) on y-axis. A positive charge Q is
released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will

(A)execute simple harmonic motion about the origin

(B) move to the origin remain at rest

(C) move to infinity

(D) execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion

2. A total charge of 20 C is to be divided into two parts for maximum Columbian repulsion. The charge
should be divided into

(A) 15 C, 5 C (B) 10 C, 10 C (C) 40/3 C, 20/ 3C (D) 12 C, 8 C

3. Two identical point charges are placed at a separation of l. P is a point on the line joining the charges, at
a distance x from any one charge. The field at P is E. E is plotted against x for values of x from close to
zero to slightly less than l. Which of following best represents the resulting curve ?

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4. A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of cube of length L(A BCDEFG H). Another same charge
q is placed at a distance L from O. Then the electric flux through ABCD is
𝑞
(A)4𝜋𝜀 𝐿 (B)zero
0
𝑞 𝑞
(C) (D)
2𝜋𝜀0 𝐿 3𝜋𝜀0 𝐿

5. In a region of space, the electric field is in the x-direction and

proportional to x, i.e.𝐸⃗ = 𝐸0 𝑥𝑖̂ Consider an imaginary cubical
volume of edge a, with its edge parallel to the axis of coordinates.
The charge inside this volume is
1 1
(A)zero (B)𝜖0 𝐸0 𝑎3 (C)𝜖 𝐸0 𝑎3 (D)6 𝐸0 𝑎2
0
6. Two particles A and B having charges 20 µC and -5 µC respectively are held fixed with a separation of
5 cm. At what position a third charged particle should be placed so that it does not experience a net
electric force?

(A) At 5 cm from 20 µC on the left side of system

(B) At 5 cm from – 5 µC on the right side

(C) At 1.25 cm from – 5 µC between two charges

(D) At mid-point between two charges

7. An electron with kinetic energy K1 enters between parallel plates of a capacitor at an angle 'α' with the
plates. It leaves the plates at angle 'β' with kinetic energy K2 Then the ratio of kinetic energies K1 /K2
will be :
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝛽 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽 𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝛽 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽
(A)𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝛼 (B)𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 (C)𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝛼 (D)𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼
8. Charges Q1 and Q1 are at points A and B of a right angle triangle OAB (see figure below). The resultant
electric field at point O is perpendicular to the hypotenuse, then Q1/Q2 is proportional to

𝑥3 𝑥2 𝑥 𝑥
(A)𝑥13 (B)𝑥12 (C)𝑥1 (D)𝑥2
2 2 2 1

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 9. Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as shown in figure. The electric field at point P is

2𝜎 4𝜎 2𝜎 4𝜎
(A) 𝑘̂ (B) 𝑘̂ (C) − 𝜖 𝑘̂ (D) − 𝜖 𝑘̂
𝜖0 𝜖0 0 0
10. A disc of radius a/ 4 having a uniformly distributed charge 6C is placed in the x - y plane with its centre
at (-a/2, 0, 0). A rod of length a carrying a uniformly distributed charge 8C is placed on the x-axis from
x=a/4 to x = 5a/4. Two point charges -7C and 3 Care placed at (a/4, -a/4, 0) and (-За /4, 3а /4, 0),
respectively. Consider a cubical surface formed by six surfaces x=±a/2, y=±a/2, z=±a/2. The electric flux
through this cubical surface is

−2𝐶 2𝐶 10𝐶 12𝐶

(A) (B) (C) (D)
𝜖0 𝜖0 𝜖0 𝜖0

Answers:

1.D 2.B 3.D 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.A

CH 02:ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

1. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) in space is given by V = 4x² volt. The electric field at (1,
0, 2) m in Vm-¹ is
(A) 8, along negative x-axis (B) 8, along positive x-axis
(C) 16, along negative x-axis (D) 16, along positive y-axis.
2. Fig. shows two parallel equipotential surfaces A and B kept at a small distance r from each other in an
electric field E. A point charge -q coulomb is taken from the surface A to B. The amount of work done
is equal to

−𝑞 𝑞
(A) 4𝜋𝜖 (B) 4𝜋𝜖 (C)zero (D)qEr
0𝑟 0𝑟

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3. Charges are placed on the vertices of a square as shown in fig. Let E be the electric field and V the
potential at the centre. If the charges on A and B are interchanged with those on D and C respectively,
then
(A) 𝐸⃗ changes, V remains unchanged
(B) 𝐸⃗ remains unchanged, V changes
(C) both 𝐸⃗ and V change
(D) 𝐸⃗ and V remain unchanged.
4. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = - a and x = + a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is placed
at the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distance
x along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to
(A) x (B) x² (C) x3 (D) 1/x
5. Two capacitors (2µF and 4µF) are connected in parallel across 300 V potential difference. The charge
drawn from the battery is

(A) 50µC (B) 600µC (C) 1800µC (D) 1200µC

6. In the figure shown, C₁ = 10 µF, C₂ = 20 µF, and C3 = 15 µF, the potential difference across C3 is
(A) 25 V (B) 80 V (C) 35 V (D) 40 V
7. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are charged up to 100 volt. A 2 mm thick plate is inserted
between the plates, then to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between the capacitor
plates is increased by 1.6 mm. The dielectric constant of the plate is
(A) 5 (B) 1.25 (C) 4 (D) 2.5
8. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is
uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after the switch is closed is

(A) 2q (B) q/2 (C) q (D) zero

9. A parallel plate capacitor is first charged and disconnected from the battery. Then dielectric slab is
introduced between the plates. The quantity that remains unchanged is
(A) charge Q (B) potential V (C) capacity C (D) energy U

Answers:

1.A 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.A 8.D 9.A

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 CH 03: CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal resistance r₁ and r₂

respectively are connected in series to an external resistor R (see
figure). The value of R, at which the potential difference across the
terminals of the first cell becomes zero is
(A) r1 + r2 (B) (r1 /2)+ r2 (C)(r1 /2)- r2 (D) r1 - r2
2. A 100 W bulb B₁, and two 60 W bulb B₂ and B3, are connected to a 250 V source, as shown below. Now
W₁, W₂ and W3 are the output powers of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3, respectively. Then

(A) W₁> W2=W3 (B) W₁<W2=W3 (C) W₁> W2 > W3 (D) W₁<W2<W3
3. A storage battery is connected to the mains for charging with emf of 12.5 V. The internal resistance of
the storage battery is 1 Ω. When the charging current is 0.5 A, the potential difference across the storage
battery is
(A) 13 V (B) 12.5 V (C) 12 V (D) 11.5 V
4. There are 24 cells. They are grouped in m rows, each containing n cells in series. The value of m and n
for the maximum current in a resistor of 4 Ω (internal resistance of each cell = 1.5 Ω) is
(A) m = 3, n = 8 (B) m = 4, n = 6 (C) m = 2, n = 12 (D) m = 1, n = 24
5. An electric bulb rated for 500 watts at 100 volts is used in a circuit having a 200 volt supply. The
resistance R that must be put in series with the bulb, so that the bulb draws 500 watts, is
(A) 10 Ω (B) 20 Ω (C) 50 Ω (D) 100 Ω
6. Two electric bulbs A and B are designed for the same voltage. Their power ratings are PA and PB
respectively, with PA>PB. If they are joined in series across a V volt supply,
(A) A will draw more power than B
(B) B will draw more power than A
(C) the ratio of powers drawn by them will depend on V
(D) A and B will draw the same power.
7. For which of the following dependence of drift velocity 𝑣𝑑 on electric E is Ohm's law obeyed?
(A)𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝐸 2 (B)𝑣𝑑 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 (C)𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝐸1/2 (D)𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝐸
8. If a steady current I is flowing through a cylindrical element ABC. Choose the correct relationship
(A) VAB = 2V BC

(B) Power across BC is 4 times the power across AB

(C) Current densities in AB and BC are equal
(D) Electric field due to current inside AB and BC are equal
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9. A non-conducting ring of radius R has charge Q distributed unevenly over it. If it rotates with an
angular velocity o, the equivalent current will be
(A) zero (B) Qω (C) Qω /2π (D) Q/2πω

Answers:

1.C 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.B 9.C

CH 04: MOVING CHARGE AND MAGNETISM

1. Two long wires are hanging freely. They are joined first in parallel and then in series, and then
connected with a battery. In both the cases which type of force acts between the two wires?
(A) Attraction force when in parallel and repulsion force when in series.
(B) Repulsion force when in parallel and attraction force when in series.
(C) Repulsion force in both the cases. (D) Attraction force in both the cases.
2. A flat circular coil of n turns and radius r carries a current i. Its magnetic moment is
(A) πr²ni (B) 2πrni (C) µ0(ni/2π) (D) μ0 πr²ni.
3. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry current I1 and I₂ in the same direction. They exert
a force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is increased to two times and its direction is
reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of the force between them is
𝐹 𝐹 2𝐹
(A) − 3 (B) 3 (C) −2𝐹 (D) − 3
4. Deflection in galvanometer falls from 50 divisions to 20 when a 12 Ω shunt is applied. Galvanometer
resistance is
(A) 18 Ω (B) 36 Ω (C) 34 Ω (D) 30 Ω.
5. The magnetic field at a point at a large distance x on the axis of a current-carrying circular coil of small
radius is proportional to
(A)x2 (B)1/x2 (C)x3 (D)1/x3
6. A conductor AB of length l, carrying a current i, is placed perpendicular to
a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, as shown below. The
force on AB will act
(A) upwards (B) downwards
(C) to the right (D) to the left.

7. The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is
independent of its
(A) speed (B) mass (C) charge (D) magnetic induction
8. A conducting loop carrying a current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing into the plane of
the paper as shown below. The loop will have a tendency to
(A) contract
(B) expand
(C) move towards +ve x-axis
(D) move towards -ve x-axis.

9. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying circular loop of radius 3

cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 µT. What will be its value at the
centre of loop?

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 (A) 125 μΤ (B) 150 μΤ (C) 250 μΤ (D) 75 μΤ
10. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present. These two fields are parallel to
each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path of the particle will be a
(A) helix (B) straight line (C) ellipse (D) circle.

Answers:

1.A 2.A 3.D 4.A 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.B 9.C 10.B

CH05:MAGNETISM AND MATTER

1. A magnetic needle lying parallel to the magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it
through 600. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be

√3
(𝐴)√3𝑊 (B) W (C) 𝑊 (D) 2𝑊
2

2. A magnet can be completely demagnetized by

(A) Breaking the magnet into small pieces.
(B) Heating it slightly.
(C) Dropping it into ice cold water.
(D) A reverse field of appropriate strength.
3. Following figure show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet
has magnetic dipole moment 𝑚 ⃗⃗ . Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?

4. Which among the following materials display higher magnetic susceptibility?

(A) Ferromagnetic material
(B) Paramagnetic material
(C) Diamagnetic material
(D) None of these options
5. Susceptibility is positive for
(A) Ferromagnetic material
(B) Paramagnetic material
(C) Diamagnetic material
(D) Option (a) and (b)

ANSWER

1.C 2.D 3.III 4.A 5.D

CH06: - EMI

1. The flux linked with a circuit is given by 𝜑 = 𝑡 3 + 3𝑡 − 7. The graph between time (x- axis)
and induced emf (y – axis) will be :
(A) Straight line with positive intercept.
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 (B) Straight line with negative intercept.
(C) Parabola through the origin.
(D) Parabola not through the origin.
2. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated about
its axis, then :
(A) A current will be induced in the coil.
(B) No current will be induced in the coil.
(C) An emf and a current both will be induced in the coil.
(D) No emf will be induced in the coil.
3. In a coil self inductance is 5H, the rate of change of current is 2A/s . The emf induced in the
coil-
(A) -5V (B) 5V (C) -10V (D) 10V
4. While keeping area of cross section of a solenoid same, the number of turns and length of
solenoid are both doubled. The self inductance of the coil will be –
(A) halved (B) doubled (C) 1/4th of original (D) unaffected
5. Two coils A and B have mutual inductance 0.008H. the current changes in the coil A, according
to the equation 𝐼 = 𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡, where 𝐼𝑚 = 5𝐴 and 𝜔 = 200𝜋 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑠 −1 . The maximum value of
the induced e.m.f. indued in the coil B in volt is

(A) 4π (B) 8π (C) 10π (D) 16π

6. If we apply law of conservation of energy to electromagnetic induction, electrical energy

induced in a conductor comes from
(A)Potential energy (B) kinetic energy
(C) heat energy (D) radiation energy
7. Weber is the unit of
(A)electrical conductance (B) self inductance
(C)magnetic flux (D) magnetic flux density
8. The magnetic flux through a 50 turn coil increases at the rate of 0.05Wb/s. what is the induced
e.m.f. between the ends of the coil ?
(A) 2.5 V (B) 5 V (C) 10 V (D) 25 V
9. Electrical inertia is the measure of
(A) Self-inductance (B) Mutual inductance
(C) Impedance (D) none of these

10. Which of the following factors is the self inductance associated with a coil is independent of?

(A) induced voltage (B) current (C) time (D) coil resistance

ANSWER
1.D 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.C 8.A 9.A 10.D

CH07:- ALTERNATING CURRENT

1. If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5A, the value of the current in amp after (1/300) s
after its value becomes zero is
3
(A) 5√2 (B) 5√2 (C) 5/6 (D) 5/√2

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 2. A capacitor of capacitance C has reactance X. if capacitance and frequency becomes double
then the capacitive reactance will be
(A) 2X (B) 4X (C) X/2 (D) X/4
3. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary is 140 and that in the secondary is 280. If
current in primary is 4A, then that in the secondary is
(A) 4A (B) 2A (C) 6A (D) 10A
4. Alternating current cannot be measured by d.c. ammeter because
(A) a.c. cannot pass through d.c. ammeter
(B) a.c. changes direction
(C) average value of current of complete cycle is zero
(D) a.c. ammeter will get damaged.

5. The ac voltage across a resistance can be measured using a

(A) hot wire voltmeter (B) moving coil galvanometer
(C) potential coil galvanometer (D) moving magnet galvanometer
6. Which of the following circuits exhibits maximum power dissipation?

(A) Pure Inductive Circuit (B)Pure Capacitive Circuit

(C) Pure Resistive Circuit (D) None of the abov

7. When is the current in a circuit wattless?
(A) When the inductance of the circuit is zero.
(B) When the resistance of the circuit is zero.
(C) When the current is alternating.
(D) When both resistance and inductance are zero.
8. The reactance of capacitor at 50 Hz is 5Ω. If the frequency increased to 100 Hz, the new
reactance is
(A) 5 Ω (B) 10 Ω (C) 2.5 Ω (D) 1.25 Ω
9. In Alternating current , the direction and magnitude of current varies
(A)Randomly (B) Periodically (C) exponentially (D) do not vary
10. A d.c. voltmeter is capable of measuring a maximum 300 V. if it is used to measure the
voltage across a device operating at 220 V AC supply, the reading of the voltmeter will be
(A) 0 volt (B) 330 Volt (C) 110 Volt (D) 220 Volt
ANSWER

1.B 2.D 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.A

CH08: ELECTRO MAGNETIC WAVE

1. An EM wave do not transport

(A) charge (B) energy (C) momentum (D) information
2. An EM wave of frequency 3 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with
permittivity 4 then
(A) wavelength doubled & frequency remains same
(B) wavelength doubled & frequency becomes half
(C) wavelength halved & frequency remains same
(D) wavelength & frequency both remain same

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 3. If we want to produce electromagnetic waves of wavelength 500 km by an oscillating charge,
then frequency of oscillating charge must be
(A)600 Hz (B) 500 Hz (C) 167 Hz (D) 15 Hz
4. If E and B represents electric and magnetic field vectors of the electromagnetic waves, the
direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along
(A)𝐸⃗ ⃗
(B) 𝐵 ⃗ × 𝐸⃗
(C) 𝐵 (D) 𝐸⃗ × 𝐵
⃗

5. In electromagnetic waves the phase difference between electric field vector and magnetic field
vector is
(A) Zero (B) π/2 (C) π (D) π/3

6. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves?

(A) Gamma rays (B) Beta rays (C) Heat rays (D) X rays
7. The ratio of the amplitude of the magnetic field to the amplitude of the electric field for
electromagnetic wave propagation in a vacuum is equal to
(A) Unity
(B) Speed of light in vacuum
(C) Reciprocal of the speed of light in vacuum
(D) The ratio of magnetic permeability to electrical susceptibility in a vacuum.
8. In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean square value of the electric field is 6
V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is

(A) 2.83 x 10-8 T (B) 1.51 x 10-8 T (C) 0.80 x 10-8 T (D) 4 x 10-8 T

ANSWER
1.A 2.C 3.A 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.A

CH09:(RAY OPTICS)

1. A point object is placed in air at a distance of 4R on the principal axis of a convex spherical surface of
radius of curvature R separating two mediums, air and glass. As the object is moved towards the
surface, the image formed is :

(A) always real (B) always virtual

(C) first virtual and then real (D) first real and then virtual

2. The magnifying power of a telescope with tube length 60cm is 5. What is the focal length of its
eyepiece?

(A) 30𝑐𝑚 (B) 40𝑐𝑚 (C) 20cm (D) 10cm

3. In a compound microscope an object is placed at a distance of 1.5cm from the objective of focal
length1.25cm.If the eyepiece is has a focal length of 5cm and the final image is formed at near point,
the magnifying power of the microscope is:

(A)−20.8 (B) 10.8 (C) -30.8 (d) 40.8

4. The phenomenon involved in the reflection of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to:

(A) reflections of light by a plane mirror.

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 (B) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage

(C) Dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow.

(D) first real and then virtual.

5. A biconvex lens of glass having refractive index1.47 is immersed in a liquid .It becomes invisible and
behaves as a plane glass plate.The refractive index of the liquid is :

(A) 1.47 (B) 1.62 (C) 1.33 (d) 1.51

6. A biconcave lens of power P vertically splits into two identical plano concave parts. The power of
each part will be :
𝑷 𝑃
(A) 2P (B) 𝟐 . (C) P (d) .
√2

7. The angle of prism is 600.What is the angle of incidence for minimum deviation?(The refractive index
of material of prism is √2)

(A) 450 (B) 600 (C) 300 (d) 750

8. A ray of light incident normally on a prism ABC of refractive index as shown in the figure. After it
strikes face AC it will:

(A) go straight un deviated.

(B) just graze along the face AC

(C) refract and go out of the prism.

(D) undergo total internal reflection.

9. The critical angle for a ray of light passing from glass to water is minimum for

(A) red colour. (B) blue colour

(C) yellow colour (D)violet colour

10. A thin convex lenses L of focal length 10cm and a concave mirrer M of focal length 15cm are placed
coaxially 40 cm apart as shown in the figure. A beam of light coming parallel to the principal axis is
incident on the lens .The final image will be formed at a distance of

(A) 10cm, left of lens

(B) 10cm, right of lens

(C) 20cm, left of lens

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 (D) 20cm,right of lens

ANS: 1- C, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A, 6-B, 7-A, 8-D, 9-D, 10-B

CH10:(WAVE OPTICS)

1. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require the two sources which emit

(A) of nearly the same frequency.

(B) of the same frequency.

(C) of different wave lengths.

(D) of the same frequency and having a definite phase relationship.

2. Two waves have intensity ratio 25:4. What is the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity?
16 25 9 𝟒𝟗
(A) 25 (B) (C) 49 (D)
4 𝟗

3. VThe maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit separation equal to twice the
wavelength in Young’s double slit experiment, is:

(A) three (B) five (C) infinite (d) zero

4. Light of wavelength 550nm falls normally on a slit of width 22.0X10-5 cm.The angular position of the
second minima from the central maximum will be (in radians)
𝜋 𝜋 𝝅 𝜋
(A) 12 (B) (C) (d)
8 𝟔 4

5. Ray optics is valid, when the characteristics dimensions are:

(A) much smaller than the wavelength of light.

(B) much larger than the wavelength of light.

(C) of the same order as the wavelength of light.

(D)its velocity is very large.

6. In a Young’s double slit experiment light of 500nm is used to produce an interference pattern. When
the distance between the slits is 0.05nm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the
distance screen is close to :

(A) 0.170 (B) 1.70 (C) 0.570 (d) 0.070

ANS: 1- D, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C

CH11:DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

1. The waves associated with a moving electron and a moving proton have the same wavelength . It
implies that they have the same :

(A) momentum (B) angular momentum (C) speed (D) energy

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2. Two beams, A and B whose photon energies are 3·3 eV and 11·3 eV respectively, illuminate a
metallic surface (work function 2·3 eV) successively. The ratio of maximum speed of electrons
emitted due to beam A to that due to beam B is :
𝟏 1
(A) 3 (B) 9 (C) (D) 9
𝟑

3. The work function for a photosensitive surface is 3·315 eV. The cut-off wavelength for
photoemission of electrons from this surface is :

(A) 150 nm (B) 200 nm (C) 375 nm (D) 500 nm

4. The quantum nature of light explains the observations on photoelectric effect as

(A) there is minimum frequency of incident radiation below which no electrons are emitted

(B) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends only on the frequency of incident
radiation

(C) when the metal surface is illuminated, electrons are ejected from the surface after sometime.

(D) the photoelectric current is independent of the intensity of incident radiation.

5. The variation of the stopping potential (Vo) with the frequency (v) of the incident radiation for four
metals A, B, C, and D is shown in the figure. For the same frequency of incident radiation producing
photo- electrons in all metals, kinetic energy of photoelectrons will be maximum for metal

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) D

6. In the photoelectric effect, electrons are emitted from a given metal surface when the incident
radiation has a certain minimum value of :

(A) intensity (B) frequency (C) wavelength (D) angle of incidence

7. Which one of the given graphs correctly represents the variation of photoelectric current with the
intensity of incident radiation, keeping other parameters fixed?

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 ANS: 1- A, 2-C, 3-C, 4-A, 5-A, 6-B , 7-C

CH12: ATOM

1 Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for the transition

A) n = 6 to n = 2 B) n = 1to n = 2 C) n= 2 to n = 1 D) n = 2 to n = 6

2 In the α-particle scattering experiment, the shape of the trajectory of the scattered α- particles depend
upon:

A) only on the source of α- particles

B) both impact parameter and source of α-particles

C) impact parameter and the screen material of the detector

D) only on impact parameter

3 The wavelength of radiation emitted is 𝜆0 when an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from 3 rdto 2
ndorbit. If in the hydrogen atom itself, the electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit,
then the wavelength of emitted radiation will be
27 25 20 16
A) 20 𝜆0 B) 16 𝜆0 C) 27 𝜆0 D) 25 𝜆0

4 The ratio of longest wavelength and the shortest wavelength observed in the Balmer series in the
emission spectrum of hydrogen is:

A) 2.8 B) 1.8 C) 3.8 D) 4.8

5 The energy of hydrogen atom in the n𝑡ℎ orbit is E𝑛 , then the energy in the n 𝑡ℎ orbit of single ionised
helium atom is
𝐸𝑛 𝐸𝑛
A) B) 4 E𝑛 C) D) 2E𝑛
4 2

Page | 14
6 When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state,

A) both K.E. and P.E. decrease B) the P.E. increases and K.E. decreases

C) the P.E. decreases and K.E. increases D) both P.E. and P.E. increases

7 A hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited by monochromatic radiation of

λ=975 angstrom. Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be

A) 1 B) 6 C) 3 D) 2

8 If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of
wavelength λ . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of
the photon will be
16 20 20 9
A) 25 𝜆 B) 𝜆 C) 13 𝜆 D) 16 𝜆
7

9 The figure indicates the energy level diagram of an atom and the origin of six spectral lines in
emission (e.g., line no. 5 arises from the transition from level B to A)

Which of the following spectral lines will occur in the absorption spectrum?

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B) 1, 4, 6

C) 1, 2, 3 D) 4, 5, 6

10 The diagram shows the energy level for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown
represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?

A) IV B) III

C) II D) I

ANSWER: 1-C 2-D 3-C 4-B 5-B 6-B 7-B 8-B 9-C 10-B

Page | 15
 CH13: NUCLEI

1 M𝑛 and M𝑝 represent the mass of neutron and proton respectively. An element having mass M
has N neutrons and Z protons, then the correct relation will be

A) M=N[ M𝑛 + M𝑝 ] B) M > [ NM𝑛 + Z - M𝑝 ]

C) M = [ N - M𝑛 + Z - M𝑝 ] D) M < [ N - M𝑛 + Z - M𝑝 ]

2 The radius of 27
13 X nucleus is R. The radius of 125
53 Y nucleus will be

5 13 1/3 5 1/3 13 1/3

A) 3 R B) (53 𝑅) C) (3 R) D) (53) R

3 Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1 : 27. What is the ratio of their nuclear
densities?

A) 1 : 3 B) 1 : 1 C) 1 : 27 D) 1 : 9

4 If M𝑜 is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8 O 17 , M 𝑝 and M 𝑛 are the masses of a proton and
neutron respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is:

A) (8 M𝑝 + 9 M 𝑛 - M 𝑜 ) c 2 B) (M𝑜 - 8 M 𝑝 ) c 2

C) (M𝑜 - 17 M 𝑛 ) c 2 D) (M𝑜 - 8 M 𝑝 - 9 M 𝑛 ) c 2

5 When a hydrogen bomb explodes, which of the following is used?

A) Nuclear Fusion

B) Nuclear Fission

C) Both nuclear fusion and nuclear fission

D) Neither nuclear fission nor nuclear fusion

6 In any nuclear reaction the reactants and the resultants must always be in conformity with the
law of conservation of

A) mass number alone B) energy alone

C) charge number alone D) both charge and mass number

7 The binding energies per nucleon of deuteron1 H 2 and helium ( 2 He 4 )nuclei are 1.1 MeVand
7 MeVrespectively. If two deuterons fuse together to form a helium nucleus, then energy
produced is:

A) 5.9 MeV B) 23.6 MeV C) 26.9 MeV D) 32.4 MeV

Page | 16
8 In an atomic bomb, the energy is released due to

A) chain reaction of neutrons and92 U 236

B) chain reaction of neutrons and92 U 240

C) chain reaction of neutrons and92 U 238

D) chain reaction of neutrons and92 U 235

9 The figure shows the plot of binding energy per nucleon B.E./A against the nuclear mass
number A.

A, B, C, D, E and F correspond to different nuclei. Consider the four nuclear reactions:

1. A + B→ C + Q 2. C→ A+ B + Q

3. D + E→ F+ Q 4. F→ D+ E + Q
where Q is the energy released.

In which reactions is Q positive?

A) (ii) and (iii) B) (i) and (iii)

C) (i) and (iv) D) (ii) and (iv)

10 Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure.

W, X, Y, Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is

A) Y→ 2 Z B) W→ 2 Y

C) W→ X + Z D) W→ Y+ Z

ANSWER: 1-D 2-A 3-A 4-A 5-C 6-D 7-B 8-D 9-C 10-B

Page | 17
 CH14: SEMICONDUCTOR
Which of the following p - n junction is forward biased?
1

A) B)

C) D)

2 An n - type Ge is obtained on doping the Ge - crystal with

A) phosphorus B) gold

C) aluminum D) boron

3 In a reverse-biased p - n junction, when the applied bias voltage is equal to the breakdown voltage

A) current remains constant while voltage increases sharply

B) voltage remains constant while current increases sharply

C) current and voltage decrease

D) current and voltage increase

4 In the case of forward biasing of p - n junction, which one of the following figures correctly depic
direction of flow of carriers?

A) B)

C) D)

5 In an unbiased p -n junction, holes diffuse from the p -region to n - region because:

A) all of these

B) they move across the junction by the potential difference

C) hole concentration in p - region is more as compared to n - region

D) free electrons in the n - region attract them

6 The depletion layer in the p-n junction is caused due to

A) drift of electrons B) migration of impurity ions

C) diffusion of carrier ions D) drift of holes

Page | 18
 7 At equilibrium, in a p - n junction diode the net current is

A) due to drift of minority charge carriers

B) due to diffusion of majority charge carriers

C) zero as diffusion and drift currents are equal and opposite

D) zero as no charge carriers across the junction

8 It is given electron density is 7× 1011 per m3 and hole density is 5×1012 per m3.The
semiconductor is
A) n - type B) p - type C) insulator D) intrinsic

9 In the given circuit, the potential difference between A and B is

A) 10 volt B) 0 C) 15 volt D) 5 volt

10 In the energy band diagram of a material as given below, the open circles and filled circles
denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is a/an

A) insulator B) metal C) p - type D) n - type

ANSWER: 1-C 2-A 3-B 4-D 5-C 6-C 7-C 8-B 9-A 10-C

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Electric charge and Field

1. Assertion : A positively charged particle always moves along an electric line of force.

Reason : Force on a charged particle is tangential to electric line of force.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)


2. Assertion : If the electric field intensity E is zero at a point, then electric potential should be
necessarily zero at that point (assuming potential is zero at infinity)

Reason : Electric field is zero at a point exactly midway between two equal and similar charge.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Page | 19
3. Assertion : Electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a charged conductor.

Reason : Electric potential is constant on the surface of conductor.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

4. Assertion : Work done by the electrostatic field on charge moving on circular or elliptical path will be
zero.

Reason : electrostatic field is a conservative field.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

5. Assertion : Electric lines of forces are perpendicular to equipotential surface.

Reason : Work done by electric field on moving a positive charge on equipotential surface is always
zero.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

6. Assertion : The whole charge of a body can be transferred to another body.

Reason : Charge can not be transferred partially.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Answer Keys:-

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a)

6. (c)

Potential & Capacitance

1. Assertion : The capacitance of a capacitor depends on the shape, size and geometrical
placing of the conductors and its medium between them.

Reason : When a charge q passes through a battery of emf E from the negative terminal to
an positive terminal, an amount qE of work is done by the battery.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

2. Assertion : When charges are shared between any two bodies, some charge is lost, and
some loss of energy does occur.

Reason : Some energy disappears in the form of heat, sparking etc.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

3. Assertion : A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an isolated charged

capacitor. The charge on the capacitor will remain the same.

Page | 20
 Reason : Charge on a isolated system is conserved.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

4. Assertion : Capacity of a parallel plate condenser increases on introducing a conducting

or insulating slab between the plates.

Reason : In both the cases, electric field intensity between the plates reduces.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

5. Assertion : A bird perches on a high power line and nothing happens to the bird.

Reason : The level of bird is very high from the ground.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

6. Assertion : Electrons move away from a low potential to high potential region.

Reason : Because electrons has negative charge

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Answer Keys:-

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (a)

Current Electricity

1. Assertion: The resistance of a copper wire varies directly as the length and diameter.

Reason : Because the resistance varies directly the area of cross-section.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

2. Assertion : When cells are connected in parallel to the external load, the effective e.m.f
increases.

Reason : Because effective internal resistance of cells decreases.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

3. Assertion : The total resistance in series combination of resistors increases and in parallel
combination of resistors decreases.

Reason : In series combination of resistors, the effective length of resistors increases and in
parallel combination of resistors, the area of cross-section of the resistors increases.
Page | 21
(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

4. Assertion : In parallel combination of electrical appliance, total power consumption is

equal to the sum of the powers of the individual appliances.

Reason : In parallel combination, the voltage across each appliance is the same, as required for
the proper working of electrical appliance.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

5. Assertion : In series combination of electrical bulbs of lower power emits more light than
that of higher power bulb.

Reason : The lower power bulb in series gets more current than the higher power bulb.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

6. Assertion: A voltmeter must be connected in parallel in a circuit and it should have a high
resistance.

Reason: The introduction of the voltmeter in the circuit must not effect the P.D. it is to measure.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

7. Assertion: Electric field outside the wire due to steady current carrying wire is zero.

Reason: Net charge present on current carrying wire is zero.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

8. Assertion: Kirchhoff's voltage law indicates that electro static field is conservative.

Reason: Potential difference between two points in a circuit does not depends on path.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

9. Assertion: Terminal potential difference of a cell is always less than its emf.

Reason: Potential drop on internal resistance of cell increases terminal potential difference.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

ANSWER KEYS:-

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d)

Moving charges and Magnetism

1. Assertion: An electron and a proton is projected with equal momentum in uniform

transverse magnetic field, then curvature of their paths is equal.

Reason: Mass of proton too much then mass of electron.

Page | 22
(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

2. Assertion: A current carrying wire is placed in magnetic field, then magnetic force acts on
it. Reason: Free electrons and positive ions are in motion inside any current carrying wire.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

3. Assertion: If a charged particle is moving in perpendicular uniform magnetic field, its

kinetic energy does not change.

Reason: Velocity of charge particle is not changing in magnetic field.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

4. Assertion: Unlike charges are projected in opposite direction in transverse magnetic field,
then they are deflected mutually opposite directions.

Reason: Maximum magnetic force acts on them mutually opposite directions.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

5. Assertion: The trajectory of neutron when it is projected perpendicular to an electric field

is parabola.

Reason: A moving charge entering parallel to the magnetic field lines moves in a circular path.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

6. Assertion: If two long parallel wires, hanging freely are connected to a battery in series,
they come closer to each other.

Reason: When two wires carry currents in opposite direction, they attract each other.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

7. Assertion: In high latitudes one sees colourful curtains of light hanging down from high
altitudes.

Reason: The high energy charged particles from the sun are deflected to polar regions by the
magnetic field of the earth.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

8. Assertion: Work done by magnetic field on a moving charge is zero.

Reason: Force experienced by a moving charge in a magnetic field is may be zero.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

9. Assertion: If a unit north pole rotates around a current carrying wire then work has to be
done. Reason: Magnetic field produced by current is always non-conservative in nature.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Page | 23
Answer Keys:-

1. 3.
2. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
(b) (c)

6. 9. 10.
7. (a) 8. (b)
(a) (a) (c,d)

Magnetism & Matter

1. Assertion: Ferromagnetic substances attracts the external magnetic field lines.

Reason: Permeability of ferromagnetic substance is very high.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

2. Assertion: Gauss theorem is not applicable in magnetism.

Reason: Mono magnetic pole does not exist

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

3. Assertion: We cannot think of a magnetic field configuration with three poles.

Reason: A bar magnet does exerts a torque on itself due to its own field.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

4. Assertion: A moving charge is a source of magnetic field.

Reason: A current element is a source of magnetic field.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

5. Assertion: In a wire, free electrons keep on moving but no magnetic force acts on a wire in
a magnetic field.

Reason: In a wire, the average thermal velocity of electrons is zero. Hence no current flows
through the wire.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

6. Assertion: A linear solenoid carrying current is equivalent to a bar magnet.

Reason: The magnetic field lines due to current carrying solenoid resemble exactly with those of
a bar magnet.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

7. Assertion: Magnetic field of an atom is due to both, the orbital motion and spin motion of
electron.

Reason: A moving charge particle produces magnetic field.

Page | 24
(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Answer Keys:-

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a)

6. (a) 7. (a)

EMI

Q.1 Assertion : A thin aluminium disc, spinning freely about a central pivot, is quickly
brought to rest when placed between the poles of a strong U-shaped magnet.

Reason : A current induced in a disc rotating in a magnetic field produces a force which
tends to oppose the motion of the disc.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.2 Assertion : When we consider mutual induction of two coils, their self induction is taken
as zero.

Reason : Self induction and mutual induction are effective simultaneously.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.3 Assertion : An inductor can not have zero resistance.

Reason : This is because inductor has to be made up of some material, which must have
some resistance.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.4 Assertion : Whenever magnetic flux linked with the coil changes with respect to time, then
an emf is induced in it.

Reason : According to lenz law, the direction of induced current in any coil in such a way
that it always opposes the cause by which it is produced.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.5 Assertion : When a bar magnet moves along the axis of conducting coil, then its kinetic
energy and a part of magnetic energy of bar magnet is converted into electrical energy of coil.

Reason : Lenz law is based on conservation of energy.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.6 Assertion : The mutual inductance M between two coils of self inductances L1 and L2 is
L1L 2
given by M .

Page | 25
 Reason : The energy density (i.e. energy per unit volume) at an point, where the magnetic
B2
2µ 0
field B is given by .

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Answer Keys:-

3.
1. (a) 2. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
(a)

6. (b)

Alternating current

1. Assertion : Power loss in ideal choke coil is zero.

Reason : Ideal choke coil has zero resistance.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.2 Assertion : Average of sinusoidal A.C. can never be zero for half cycle.

Reason : Impedance given by inductance does not depends on frequency.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.3 Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f. by a phase angle of pi/2, when
A.C. flows through an inductor.

Reason : The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of A.C. source decreases.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.4 Assertion : Capacitor serves as a block for D.C. and offers an easy path to A.C.

Reason : Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.5 Assertion : At resonance, LCR circuit have a minimum current.

Reason : At resonance, in LCR circuit, the current and e.m.f. are in phase with each
other.

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Q.6 Assertion : When A.C. circuit contain resistor only, its power is minimum.

Reason : Power of a circuit is independent of phase angle.

Page | 26
 (a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

Answer Keys:-

1. 3.
2. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
(a) (c)

6.
(d)

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

1. Assertion (A) : Short wave band is used for transmission of radiowaves to large distances.

Reason (R) : Short waves are reflected by earth’s ionosphere.

2. Assertion (A) : Light can travel in vacuum but sound cannot.

Reason (R) : Light is an electromagnetic wave but sound is a mechanical wave.

3. Assertion (A) : If earth’s atmosphere disappears the average surface temperature will increase.

Reason (R) : Without an atmosphere to trap Earth’s heat, the temperature will increase.

4. Assertion (A) : Gamma rays are more energetic than X-rays.

Reason (R) : Gamma rays are of nuclear origin while X-rays originate from heavy atoms.

5. Assertion (A) : The speed of electromagnetic waves in free space is maximum for gamma rays
and minimum for radiowaves.

Reason (R) : For waves with same wavelengths this just means that the speed will be equal to c.

6. Assertion (A) : In an electromagnetic wave, electric field vector and magnetic field vector are
mutually perpendicular.

Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves are transverse.

7. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic wave is produced by accelerated charge.

Reason (R) : An accelerated charge produces both electric and magnetic fields and also radiates
them.

8. Assertion (A) : Microwaves are better carriers of signals than optical waves.

Reason (R) : Microwaves move faster than optical waves.

9. Assertion (A) : UV radiation causes photo dissociation of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing
damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.

Reason (R) : Ozone hole is resulting in global warming and climate change.

Page | 27
10. Assertion (A) : When a charged particle moves in a circular path, it produces electromagnetic
wave.

Reason (R) : Charged particle has acceleration.

1. 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. D

6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A

RAY OPTICS

1. Assertion (A) : Diamond glitters brilliantly.

Reason (R) : Diamond reflects sunlight strongly.

2. Assertion (A) : A convex mirror cannot form real images.

Reason (R) : Convex mirror converges the parallel rays that are incident on it.

3. Assertion (A) : In a telescope, objective lens has greater focal length than eye piece but in a
microscope objective has smaller focal length than eye piece. By inverting a telescope, a
microscope cannot be formed.

Reason (R) : The difference in focal lengths of objective and eye lens in telescope is much larger
than in microscope.

4. Assertion (A) : A convex lens of focal length 30 cm can’t be used as a simple microscope in

normal setting.

Reason (R) : For normal setting, the angular magnification of simple microscope is M = D/f .

5. Assertion (A) : For observing traffic at back, the driver mirror is convex mirror.

Reason (R) : A convex mirror has much larger field of view than a plane mirror.

6. Assertion (A) : In astronomical telescope, the objective lens is of large aperture.

Reason (R) : Larger is the aperture, smaller is the magnifying power.

7. Assertion (A) : The speed of light in glass depends on colour of light.

𝑪
Reason (R) : The speed of light in glass 𝒗𝒈 = 𝒏 , the refractive index (𝒏𝒈 ) of glass is different for
𝒈

different colours.

8. Assertion (A) : A ray of light is incident from outside on a glass sphere surrounded by air. This
ray may suffer total internal reflection at second interface.

Reason (R) : If a ray of light goes from denser to rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.

9. Assertion (A) : In compound microscope, the objective lens is taken of small focal length.

Reason (R) : This increases the magnifying power of microscope.

Page | 28
10. Assertion (A) : If a convex lens is kept in water, its convergence power decreases.

Reason (R) : The refractive index of convex lens relative to water is less than that relative to air.

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A

6. C 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A

WAVE OPTICS

1. Assertion (A) : It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two violins.

Reason (R) : For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must remain
constant.

2. Assertion (A) : The phase difference between any two points on a wavefront is zero.

Reason (R) : Corresponding to a beam of parallel rays of light, the wavefronts are planes parallel
to one another.

3. Assertion (A) : For identical coherent waves, the maximum intensity is four times the intensity
due to each wave.

Reason (R) : Intensity is proportional to the square of amplitude.

4. Assertion (A) : Corpuscular theory fails in explaining the velocities of light in air and water.

Reason (R) : According to corpuscular theory, light should travel faster in denser media than in
rarer media.

5. Assertion (A) : In Young’s double slit experiment all frings are of equal width.

Reason (R) : The fringe width depends upon wavelength of light (λ) used, distane of screen from
plane of slits (D) and slits separation (d).

6. Assertion (A) : Light added to light can produce darkness.

Reason (R) : When two coherent light waves interfere, there is darkness at position of destructive
interference.

7. Assertion (A) : When the apparatus of Young’s double-slit experiment is brought in a liquid from
air, the fringe width decrease.

Reason (R) : The wavelength of light decreases in the liquid.

8. Assertion (A) : The phase difference between any two points on a wavefront is zero.

Reason (R) : All points on a wavefront are at the same distance from the source and thus oscillate
in the same phase.

9. Assertion (A) : Colours are seen in thin layers of oil on the surface of water.

Reason (R) : White light is composed of several colours.

10. Assertion (A) : Coloured spectrum is seen when we look through a muslin cloth.
Page | 29
 Reason (R) : Coloured spectrum is due to diffraction of white light passing through fine slits
made by fine threads in the muslin cloth.

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A

6. A 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A

DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATION

1. Assertion (A) : Matter has wave-particle nature.

Reason (R) : Light has dual nature.

2. Assertion (A) : In the process of photoelectric emission, all emitted electrons have the same
kinetic energy.

Reason (R) : According to Einstein’s equation Ek = hν + φ0.

3. Assertion (A) : Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.

Reason (R) : The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the velocity of incident light.

4. Assertion (A) : Photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle nature of light.

Reason (R) : Photoelectric current is proportional to intensity of incident radiation for

frequencies more than the threshold frequency.

5. Assertion (A) : On increasing the intensity of light the photocurrent increases.

Reason (R) : The photocurrent increases with increase of frequency of light.

6. Assertion (A) : Photoelectric process is instantaneous process.

Reason (R) : When photons of energy (hν) greater than work function of metal (φ0) are incident
on a metal, the electrons from metal are emitted with no time lag.

7. Assertion (A) : Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.

Reason (R) : The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.

8. Assertion (A) : If intensity of incident light is doubled, the kinetic energy of photoelectron is also
doubled.

Reason (R) : The kinetic energy of photoelectron is directly proportional to intensity of incident
light.

9. Assertion (A) : An electron and a photon possessing same wavelength, will have the same
momentum.

Reason (R) : Momentum of both particle is same by de-Broglie hypothesis.

10. Assertion (A) : An electron microscope is based on de-Broglie hypothesis.

Reason (R) : A beam of electrons behaves as a wave which can be converged by electric and
magnetic lenses.
Page | 30
 1. B 2. 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C

7. A 8. 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. A

ATOMS

1. Assertion (A) : Paschen series lies in the infrared region.

𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Reason (R) : Paschen series corresponds to the wavelength given by 𝝀 = 𝑹(𝟑𝟐 − 𝒏𝟐 ), where n=4, 5,
6, ..., ∞.

2. Assertion (A) : The electrons have orbital angular momentum.

Reason (R) : Electrons have well-defined quantum states.

3. Assertion (A) : Large angle of scattering of a-particles led to the discovery of atomic nucleus.

Reason (R) : Entire positive charge of atom is concentrated in the central core.

4. Assertion (A) : Bohr’s postulate states that the electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus
do not radiate.

Reason (R) : According to classical physics, all moving electrons radiate.

5. Assertion (A) : In the Bohr model of the hydrogen, atom, v and E represent the speed of the
electron and the total energy of the electron respectively. Then v/E is proportional to the
quantum number n of the electron.

Reason (R) : v ∝ n and E ∝ n–2

6. Assertion (A) : When a hydrogen atom emits a photon in transiting for n = 4 to n = 1, its recoil
speed is about 4 m/s.
𝟏
𝑷 𝑬 𝟏𝟑.𝟔×(𝟏− )𝐞𝐯
𝟏𝟔
Reason (R) : 𝒗 = 𝒎 = 𝒎𝒄 = 𝟏.𝟔𝟕×𝟏𝟎−𝟐𝟕 𝐤𝐠×𝟑×𝟏𝟎𝟖 𝐦/𝐬

7. Assertion (A) : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces.

Reason (R) : The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is
balanced by the centrifugal force.

8. Assertion (A) : Bohr’s postulate states that the stationary orbits are those for which the angular
𝒉
momentum is some integral multiple of 𝟐𝝅 .

Reason (R) : Linear momentum of the electron in the atom is quantised.

9. Assertion (A) : The total energy of an electron revolving in any stationary orbit is negative.

Reason (R) : Energy can have positive or negative values.

10. Assertion (A) : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission spectrum has many
lines.

Page | 31
 Reason (R) : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom whereas
in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. C

6. C 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. B

NUCLEI

1. Assertion (A) : The nucleus 𝟕𝟑𝑿 is more stable than the nucleus 𝟒𝟑𝒀.

Reason (R) : 𝟕𝟑𝑿 contains more number of protons.

2. Assertion (A) : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to proton.

Reason (R) : Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.

3. Assertion (A) : Energy is released in nuclear fission.

Reason (R) : Total binding energy of fission fragments is larger than the total binding energy of
the parent nucleus.

4. Assertion (A) : Forces acting between proton-proton (fpp), proton-neutron (fpn) and neutron-
neutron

(fnn) are such that fpp < fpn = fnn.

Reason (R) : Electrostatic force of repulsion between two protons reduces net nuclear forces
between them.
5. Assertion (A) : The elements produced in the fission are radioactive.
Reason (R) : The fragments have abnormally high proton to neutron ratio.
6. Assertion (A) : The fusion process occurs at extremely high temperatures.
Reason (R) : For fusion of two nuclei, enormously high kinetic energy is required.
7. Assertion (A) : A neutrino is chargeless and has a spin.
Reason (R) : Neutrino exists inside the nucleus.
8. Assertion (A) : Mass is not conserved, but mass and energy are conserved as a single entity called
mass-energy.
Reason (R) : Mass and energy are inter-convertible in accordance with Einstein’s relation, E =
mc2.
9. Assertion (A) : Thermonuclear fusion reactions may become the source of unlimited power for
the mankind.

Reason (R) : A single fusion event involving isotopes of hydrogen produces more energy than
energy from nuclear fission of 235U 93 .

10. Assertion (A) : The large angle scattering of a-particle is only due to nuclei.

Reason (R) : Nucleus is very heavy as compared to electrons.

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 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C

6. A 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B

ELECTRONIC DEVICES

1. Assertion (A) : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance.

Reason (R) : On raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released, conductance
increases and resistance decreases.

2. Assertion (A) : In ‘n’ type semiconductor, number density of electrons is greater than the
number density of holes but the crystal maintains an overall charge neutrality.

Reason (R) : The charge of electrons donated by donor atoms is just equal and opposite to that of
the ionised donor.

3. Assertion (A) : The forbidden energy gap between the valence and conduction bands is greater in
silicon than in germanium.

Reason (R) : Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in germanium.

4. Assertion (A) : When the temperature of a semiconductor is increased, then its resistance
decreases.

Reason (R) : The energy gap between valence and conduction bands is very small for
semiconductors.

5. Assertion (A) : The electrical conductivity of n-type semiconductor is higher than that of p-type
semiconductor at a given temperature and voltage applied.

Reason (R) : The mobility of electron is higher than that of hole.

6. Assertion (A) : A p-type semiconductor has negative charge on it.

Reason (R) : p-type impurity atom has positive charge carrier (electrons) in it.

7. Assertion (A) : The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is greater in
silicon than in germanium.

Reason (R) : Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in germanium.

8. Assertion (A) : The temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals and negative for p-
type semiconductors.

Reason (R) : The effective charge carriers in metals are negatively charged electrons, whereas in
p-type semiconductors, they are positively charged.

9. Assertion (A) : Diamond behaves such as an insulator.

Reason (R) : There is a large energy gap between valence band and conduction bond of diamond.

10. Assertion (A) : At a fixed temperature, silicon will have a minimum conductivity when it has a
smaller acceptor doping.
Page | 33
Reason (R) : The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is slightly higher than that of a
lightly doped p-type.

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A

6. D 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. A

Page | 34
 CASE BASED QUESTIONS

ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

1. The figure shows four

pairs of parallel
identical conducting
plates, separated by the
same distance 2.0cm and
arranged perpendicular
to x-axis. The electric potential of each plate is mentioned. The electric field between a
pair of [plates is uniform and normal to the plates.

(i) For which pairs of the plates is electric field ⃗𝑬 𝒂𝒍𝒐𝒏𝒈 𝒊̂?

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

(ii) An electron is released midway between the plates of the pairs IV. It will:

(a) Move along 𝒊̂ at constant speed

(b) Move along −𝒊̂ at constant speed

(c) Accelerated along 𝒊̂

(d) Accelerated along −𝒊̂

(iii) Let 𝑽𝟎 be the potential at the left plate of any set, taken to be at x=0 m. Then
potential V at any point (0 ≤ 𝒙 ≤ 𝟐 𝒄𝒎) between the plates of that set can be
expressed as:

(a) V=𝑽𝟎 + 𝒂𝒙 (b) V = 𝑽𝟎 + 𝒂 𝒙𝟐 (c) V = 𝑽𝟎 + 𝒂 𝒙𝟏/𝟐 (d) V = 𝑽𝟎 +

𝒂 𝒙𝟑/𝟐

(iv) Let 𝑬𝟏 , 𝑬𝟐 , 𝑬𝟑 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑬𝟒 be the magnitudes of the electric field between the pairs of
plates, I, II, III and IV respectively. Then,

(a) 𝑬𝟏 > 𝑬𝟐 > 𝑬𝟑 > 𝑬𝟒

(b) 𝑬𝟑 > 𝑬𝟒 > 𝑬𝟏 > 𝑬𝟐

(c) 𝑬𝟒 > 𝑬𝟑 > 𝑬𝟐 > 𝑬𝟏

(d) 𝑬𝟐 > 𝑬𝟑 > 𝑬𝟒 > 𝑬𝟏

OR

An electron is projected from the right plate of SET I directly towards its left plate. It just comes
to rest at the plate. The speed with which it was projected is about: (take (e/m)=1.76
× 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟏 𝑪/𝒌𝒈)

(a) 1.3 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓 m/s (b) 2.6× 𝟏𝟎𝟔 m/s (iii) 6.5× 𝟏𝟎𝟓 m/s (d) 5.2× 𝟏𝟎𝟕 m/s

Page | 35
 2. It is a closed surface in three-dimensional space through which the flux of vectors is
calculated; usually the gravitational field, the electric field, or magnetic field. Gaussian
surfaces are usually carefully chosen to exploit symmetries of a situation to simplify the
calculation of the surface integral. It is an arbitrary closed surface used in conjunction
with Gauss’s law for the corresponding field.

(i) The electric flux through a Gaussian surface enclosing an electric dipole is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) min (d) max

(ii) Law stated as flux 1/ε0 times the total charges

(a) Ohm ‘slaw (b) Newton’s law (c) gauss ‘slaw (d) coulomb ‘slaw

(iii)Gauss’s law is valid for

(a) any closed surface (b) only regular closed surfaces

(c) any open surface (d) only irregular open surfaces

(iv) Which quantity is a vector quantity among the following?

(a) electric flux (b) electric charge (c) electric field (d) electric potential

OR

Four charges +8C, -3C, +5C and -10C are kept inside a closed surface. What will be the outgoing
flux through the surface?

(a) 26Vm (b) 0 Vm (c) 10Vm (d) 8 Vm

ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

3. A beam of electrons moving horizontally with

a velocity of 3 × 𝟏𝟎𝟕 m/s enters a region
between two plates as shown in the figure. A
suitable potential difference is applied
difference is applied across the plates such
that the electron beam just strikes the edge of the lower plate.

Answer the following questions based on the above:

(i) Time taken by electron to strike the edge
-9
(a)10 s (b)2×10-9s (c) 10-8s (b)2×10-8s
(ii) The shape of the path followed by the electron
(a) Sphere (b)parabola (c)straight line (d)ellipse
(iii)The potential difference applied is
(a)562V (b)231V (c)32V (d)infinite

(iv) Which of the following is not the property of an equipotential surface?

Page | 36
(a) They do not cross each other.

(b) The work done in carrying a charge from one point to another on an equipotential surface is
zero.

(c ) For a uniform electric field, they are concentric spheres.

(d) They can be imaginary spheres.

OR

A parrot comes and sits on a bare high-power line. It will

(a) experience a mild shock (b) experience a strong shock

(c) get killed instantaneously (d) not be affected practically

4. Faraday Cage:

A Faraday cage or Faraday shield is an enclosure made of

a conducting material. The fields within a conductor
cancel out with any external fields, so the electric field
within the enclosure is zero. These Faraday cages act as
big hollow conductors you can put things in to shield
them from electrical fields. Any electrical shocks the cage
receives, pass harmlessly around the outside of the cage.

(i) Which of the following material can be used to make a

Faraday cage?

a) Plastic
b) Glass
c) Copper
d) Wood

(ii) Example of a real-world Faraday cage is

a) car
b) plastic box
c) lightning rod
d) metal rod
(iii) What is the electrical force inside a Faraday cage when it is struck by lightning?
a) The same as the lightning
b) Half that of the lightning
c) Zero
d) A quarter of the lightning
(iv) An isolated point charge +q is placed inside the Faraday cage. Its inner surface must have
charge equal to-
a) Zero b) +q c) –q d) +2q
OR

A point charge of 2C is placed at centre of Faraday cage in the shape of cube with surface of 9
cm edge. The number of electric field lines passing through the cube normally will be-
Page | 37
a) 1.9×105 Nm2/C entering the surface b) 1.9×105 Nm2/C leaving the surface

c ) 2.0×105 Nm2/C leaving the surface d) 2.0×105 Nm2/C entering the surface

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

5. A battery is a combination of two or more

cells. In the following figure, a single battery
is represented in which two cells of emf
𝜺𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝜺𝟐 and internal resistance 𝒓𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒓𝟐
respectively are connected.

(i) The equivalent emf of this combination is:

𝜺𝟏 𝒓𝟏 +𝜺𝟐 𝒓𝟐 𝜺𝟏 𝒓𝟏 −𝜺𝟐 𝒓𝟐 𝜺𝟏 𝒓𝟐 −𝜺𝟐 𝒓𝟏
(a) (b) (c) (d) 𝜺𝟏 − 𝜺𝟐
𝒓𝟏 + 𝒓𝟐 𝒓𝟏 + 𝒓𝟐 𝒓𝟏 + 𝒓𝟐

(ii) For terminal B to be negative:

(a) 𝜺𝟏 𝒓𝟐 > 𝜺𝟐 𝒓𝟏 (b) 𝜺𝟏 𝒓𝟐 < 𝜺𝟐 𝒓𝟏 (c) 𝜺𝟏 𝒓𝟏 > 𝜺𝟐 𝒓𝟐 (d) 𝜺𝟐 𝒓𝟐 = 𝜺𝟏 𝒓𝟏

(iii) The current in the internal circuit is:

𝜺𝟏 + 𝜺𝟐 𝜺 −𝜺 𝜺 𝜺 𝜺 𝜺
(a) (b) 𝒓𝟏+ 𝒓𝟐 (c) 𝒓𝟏 − 𝒓𝟐 (d) 𝒓𝟏 − 𝒓𝟐
𝒓𝟏 + 𝒓𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟐 𝟏

(iv) The equivalent internal resistance of the combination is:

𝒓𝟏 + 𝒓𝟐 𝒓 𝒓
(a) (b) 𝒓𝟏 + 𝒓𝟐 (c) 𝒓 𝟏+ 𝒓𝟐 (d) 𝒓𝟏 − 𝒓𝟐
𝒓𝟏 𝒓𝟐 𝟏 𝟐

OR

The emf and internal resistance of a cell are E and r respectively. It is connected across an
external resistance R=2r, The potential drop across the terminals of the cell will be:
𝑬 𝑬 𝟐 𝑬
(a) (b) 𝟐 (c) 𝟑 𝑬 (d) 𝟑
𝟒

6. Cable faults in telephones can be located by telephone companies by making use of

Wheatstone bridge.A Wheatstone bridge is a device
which is used to find the unknown resistance. It
consists of four resistors in the four arms of the
bridge used to determine the value of unknown
resistance in terms of others. A galvanometer is
connected between their junctions. A battery is
connected between the other two junctions. When
no current flows through the galvanometer, then the bridge is said to be balanced.

(i) Wheatstone bridge is a

(a) a.c.bridge (b) d.c.bridge (c) high voltage bridge (d)power dissipation bridge
(ii) Wheatstone bridge consists of
(a) 4 resistive arms (b) 2 resistive arms (c) 6 resistive arms (d) 8 resistive arms

(iii)When the condition R1/ R2= R3/ R4 is satisfied, the current in the galvanometer of
Wheatstone bridge is
Page | 38
 (a)1 A (b) 0 (c) min (d)max

(iv) Wheatstone bridge works on the principle of -

(a) full deflection (b) partial deflection (c) null deflection (d) none of these

OR

Which of the following devices works on the principle of balanced condition of Wheatstone
bridge?

(a)meter bridge (b)potentiometer (c)galvanometer (d)transformer

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

7. A solenoid switch is an electrical switch that is often used

where a high current circuit, such as a starter motor circuit, is
brought into operation by a low current switch. When the key
switch is turned to Start, and the gearshift is in neutral, the
circuit between the battery and the solenoid switch is
complete. The solenoid switch activates a heavy-duty switch
that connects the vehicle's battery to the starter motor. When the ignition key is in the
Start position, a solenoid switch engages the starter's drive pinion.

(i) A solenoid has 1000 turns per meter length. If a current of 5A is flowing through it,
then magnetic field inside the solenoid is
(a) 2𝝅 ×10-3T (b) 2𝝅 ×10-5T
(c) 4𝝅 ×10-3T (d) 4𝝅 ×10-5T
(ii) Inside a solenoid of N no. of turns per unit length the strength of a magnetic field is
(a) µNI (b) µI/N (c) Zero (d) none of the above
(iii)The current in a solenoid is 30A, the number of turns per unit length is 500 turns per
meter. Calculate the magnetic field if the core is air.
(a) 18.84T (b) 18.84mT (c) 1.84T (d) 1.84mT
(iv) What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the length of the solenoid
increases?
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) becomes zero
OR

Solenoid switch has a core of

(a) copper (b) silver (c) aluminium (d) iron

8. A galvanometer is an electromechanical measuring instrument for electric current. Early

galvanometers were uncalibrated, but improved versions, called ammeters, were
calibrated and could measure the flow of current more precisely. Galvanometers work by
deflecting a pointer in response to an electric current flowing through a coil in a
constant magnetic field. The mechanism is also used as an actuator in applications such
as hard disks.
Page | 39
 (i) If in a moving coil galvanometer, a current I in its coil produces a deflection θ , then

(a) I ∝ θ (b) I ∝ 𝜽𝟐

(c) I ∝ √𝜽 (d) I ∝tan𝜽

(ii) The ratio of voltage sensitivity (𝑽𝑺 ) and current sensitivity (𝑰𝑺 ) of a moving coil
galvanometerIs

(a) (a) 1/G (b) 1/𝑮𝟐 (C) G (d) 𝑮𝟐

(iii) Two moving coil galvanometer G1 and G2 have the following particular respectively:

N1=30, A1=3.6× 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝒎𝟐 , 𝑩𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓𝑻

N2= 42, A1=1.8× 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝒎𝟐 , 𝑩𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟎𝑻

The spring constant is same for the galvanometers. The ratio of current sensitivities of G1 and G2
is:

(a) 5:7 (b) 7:5 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:1

(iv) To convert a moving coil galvanometer into on ammeter of given range, we must
connect:

(a) A suitable low resistance in series (b) A suitable low resistance in parallel

(c) A suitable high resistance in parallel (d) A suitable high resistance in series

OR

Current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by decreasing :

(a) Magnetic field B (b) number of turns N

(c) Torsional constant K (d) Area A

MAGNETISM AND MATTER

9. Magnetic substances are materials that are attracted to magnets and can be easily
magnetized to make magnets. Some examples of magnetic substances include: iron, steel,
cobalt, and nickel.

Substances that are not attracted to magnets are called non-magnetic substances. Some examples
of non-magnetic substances include: Wood, Copper, Plastic, Rubber, and Modern minted coins.

The way a magnetic substance interacts with a magnet depends on its permeability, which is the
substance's ability to absorb and transmit magnetic fields.

(i) Above Curie temperature, a

(a) ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(b) ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.
Page | 40
 (c) paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic.
(d) paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic .
(ii) If the magnetizing field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, its permeability

(a)decreases (b)increases (c) remains unchanged

(d) first decreases and then increases

(iii) The domain formation is a necessary feature of

(a)diamagnetism (b) paramagnetism

(c) ferromagnetism (d) all of these

(iv) The relative permeability of a substance X is slightly less than unity and that of substance
Y is slightly more than unity, then

(a) X is paramagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic (b) X is diamagnetic and Y is

ferromagnetic

(c) X and Y both are paramagnetic (d) X is diamagnetic and Y is

paramagnetic

OR

Which is following is a diamagnetic substance?

(a)Gadolinium (b) Sodium (c) Copper chloride (d) Sodium chloride

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

10. A conducting wheel each spoke of length l is rotating

with angular velocity 𝜔 in a given magnetic field
shown in figure. Due to flux cutting each metal
spoke becomes the identical cell of emf e, all such
identical cells connected in parallel fashion enet= e
(emf of single cell). Thus, we are able to produce
induced emf by moving a conductor instead of varying
the magnetic field, that is by changing the magnetic flux enclosed by the circuit.

(i) When the conducting wheel is rotating in given magnetic field, induced emf is also
called

(a) potential difference (b) motional emf (c) accelerator (d) cycle wheel emf

(ii) A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long is rotated with the speed of 120 rev/min
in a plane normal to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field HE at a place.
If HE = 0.4G at the place, what is the induced emf between the axle andthe rim of the
wheel?

(a) 6.28×10-5V (b) 6.28× 10-9V (c) 2.68×10-5V (d) d.2.68×10-9V

Page | 41
 (iii)The emf induced in a conductor of length l moving with velocity v perpendicular to field
Bis
(a) Bvl (b) Bl2v (c) B2l2v/R (d) B2v2l2
(iv) What is the expression of Lorentz force
(a) F =qE (b) F = q(E+v×B) (c) F =q(v×B) (d) None of these
OR
What is the relationship between charge (∆𝑄) flow through the circuit and the change in
magnetic flux (∆∅B) (r is resistance)?
(a)∆𝑄=∆∅B/r (b) ∆∅B=∆𝑄/r (c) ∆𝑄=r∆∅B (d) r=∆𝑄∆∅B

ALTERNATING CURRENT

11. In a series RLC circuit there becomes a frequency point where the inductive reactance of
the inductor becomes equal in value to the capacitive reactance of the capacitor. In other
words, XL = XC. The point at which this occurs is called the Resonant Frequency point, (
ƒr ) of the circuit, and as we are analyzing a series RLC circuit this resonance frequency
produces a Resonance. Series Resonance circuits are one of the most important circuits
used in electrical and electronic circuits. They can be found in various forms such as in
AC mains filters, noise filters and also in radio and television tuning circuits producing a
very selective tuning circuit for the receiving of the different frequency’s channels.
Consider the simple series RLC circuit below.

(i) In a series LRC circuit if maximum potential across L is 200V, across C is 200V and
across R is 300V then the maximum applied voltage is

(a) 700V (b)√1700V (c) 300V (d) 400V

(ii) Resonance occurs in a tuning (LRC) circuit when the

natural frequency of the circuit is

(a) less than the frequency of the signal available at the receiving
antenna.
(b) greater than the frequency of the signal available at the receiving antenna.
(c) equal to the frequency of the signal available at the receiving antenna.
(d) none of theabove

(iii) In the above circuit inductance of the inductor, L=5.0H, capacitance of the
capacitor, C=80µF and resistance of the resistor, R= 40Ω are connected to an ac
source of 230V and variable frequency. The source frequency which drives the
circuit in resonance is

(a) 50rad/s (b) 60rad/s (c) 100rad/s (d) 100πrad/s

(iv) A radio can be tuned over two signals of frequencies f1 and f2 where f1 < f2. In its
tuning circuit L is constant but C is variable then one can switch over from signal
one (f1) to signal two(f2)

(a) by decreasing the separation between the plates

(b) by increasing the separation between the plates
(c) by keeping the plate separation same
Page | 42
 (d) none of the above
OR

If Vs is the applied voltage and I is the current in a series LCR circuit where XL > XC then
which of the above graph(s) gives the correct explanation.

(a) only fig1 (b) only fig2 (c) only fig3 (d) both fig 1 & fig3

Fig 1 Fig 2 Fig 3

12. A transformer is electrical static equipment designed to

convert alternating current from one voltage to another. It can
be designed to ‘step up’ or ‘step down’ voltages and works on
the magnetic induction principle. It consists, in its simplest
form, of two or more coils of insulated wire wound on a
laminated metallic core. When voltage is introduced to one coil,
called the primary, it magnetizes the core. The change of voltage level between the
primary and secondary depends on the ratio of the two coils.

(i) Which of the following materials is used as a transformer core?

(a) copper (b) aluminium (c) soft iron (d)

silver

(ii) Thick copper wire is taken to prevent energy loss due to

(a) hysteresis (b) high resistance (c) flux leakage (d) eddy
current

(iii) Household ac stabilizer works on which principle

(a) self-induction (b)mutual induction (c) Joule’s heat

(d) electrostatic induction

(iv) If input ac voltage across primary coil of an ideal transformer is 200V and voltage
obtained across the secondary coil is 1000V, then the ratio of input current to output
current is

(a) 1/5 (b) 5/1 (c) 1/25 (d) 25/1

OR

Page | 43
 If NP and NS are the number of turns in primary and secondary respectively, then in a step-up
transformer

(a) NP =NS (b) NP >NS (c) NP <NS (d) NP =2NS

RAY OPTICS

13. A convex or converging lens is thicker at the centre than at the edges. It converges

a beam of light on refraction through it. It has a real focus. Convex lens is of three types: Double
convex lens, Plano convex lens and Concavo-convex lens.

Concave lens is thinner at the centre than at the edges. It diverges a beam of light on refraction
through it. It has a virtual focus. Concave lenses are of three types: Double concave lens, Plano
concave lens and Convexo-concave lens.

(i) Two thin lenses are kept coaxially in contact with each other and the focal
length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one lens is 20 cm,
the focal length of the other would be

(a) -26.7cm (b) 60cm (c) 80cm (d) 30cm

(ii) A spherical air bubble is embedded in a piece of glass. For a ray of light

passing through the bubble, it behaves like a

(a) converging lens (b) diverging lens

(c) mirror (d) thin plane sheet of glass

(iii)Lens generally used in magnifying glass is

(a) single concave lens

(b) single convex lens

(c) combination of convex lens of lower power and concave lens of lower focal

length

(d) Planoconcave lens

(iv) The magnification of an image by a convex lens is positive only when the

object is placed

(a) at its focus F (b) between F and 2F

(c) at 2F (d) between F and optical centre

OR
A convex lens of 20 cm focal length forms a real image which is three times magnified. The
distance of the object from the lens is

(a) 13.33 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 26.66 cm (d) 25 cm

Page | 44
 MIRAGE IN DESERTS

To a distant observer, the light appears to be

coming from somewhere below the ground. The
observer naturally assumes that light is being
reflected from the ground, say, by a pool of water
near the tall object.

Such inverted images of distant tall objects cause an

optical illusion to the observer. This phenomenon is called mirage. This type of mirage is
especially common in hot deserts.

Based on the above facts, answer the following questions:

(i) Which of the following phenomena is prominently involved in the formation of mirage in deserts?

(a) Refraction, Total internal Reflection (b) Dispersion and Refraction

(c) Dispersion and scattering of light (d) Total internal Reflection and
diffraction.

(ii) A diver at a depth 12 m inside water sees the sky in a cone of semi- vertical angle

𝟒 𝟒 𝟑
(a)𝒔𝒊𝒏−𝟏 𝟑 (b) 𝒕𝒂𝒏−𝟏 𝟑 (c) 𝒔𝒊𝒏−𝟏 𝟒 (d) 900

(iii) In an optical fibre, if n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of the core and cladding, then which
among the following, would be a correct equation?

(a) n1 < n2 (b) n1 = n2 (c) n1 << n2 (d) n1 > n2

(iv) A diamond is immersed in such a liquid which has its refractive index with respect to air as greater
than the refractive index of water with respect to air. Then the critical angle of diamond-liquid
interface as compared to critical angle of diamond -water interface will

(a) depend on the nature of the liquid only (b)decrease

(c) remain the same (d) increase.

OR

The following figure shows a cross-section of a ‘light pipe’ made of a glass fiber of refractive
index 1.68. The outer covering of the pipe is made of a material of refractive index 1.44. What is
the range of the angles of the incident rays with the axis of the pipe for the following phenomena
to occur.

(a) 0 < 𝑖 < 90°

(b) 0 < 𝑖 < 60°

(c) 0 < 𝑖 < 45°

(d) 0 < 𝑖 < 30°

Page | 45
 14. Sparking Brilliance of Diamond:

The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds to create a sparking
brilliance. By polishing the diamond with specific cuts, it
is adjusted the most of the light rays approaching the
surface are incident with an angle of incidence more than
critical angle. Hence, they suffer multiple reflections and
ultimately come out of diamond from the top. This gives
the diamond a sparking brilliance.

(i) Light cannot easily escape a diamond without

multiple internal reflections. This is because:

a) Its critical angle with reference to air is too large

b) Its critical angle with reference to air is too small

c) The diamond is transparent

d) Rays always enter at angle greater than critical angle

(ii) The critical angle for a diamond is 24.40. Then its

refractive index is-

a) 2.42 b) 0.413 c) 1 d) 1.413

(iii) The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond is that

a) It has low refractive index b) It has high transparency

c) It has high refractive index d) It is very hard

(iv) A diamond is immersed in a liquid with a refractive index greater than water. Then the
critical angle for total internal reflection will

a) will depend on the nature of the liquid b) decrease

c) remains the same d) increase

OR

The following diagram shows same diamond cut in two different shapes.

The brilliance of diamond in the second diamond will be:

a) less than the first b) greater than first

c) same as first d) will depend on the intensity of light

Page | 46
WAVE OPTICS

15. Diffraction and interference are closely related phenomena that occur together.
Diffraction is phenomena of bending of light around the edges of the obstacle, while
interference is the combination of waves that results in a new wave pattern. In order to get
interference, there must be at least two wavs that are diffracting. So while diffraction can
occur without interference, interference cannot occur without diffraction.

Two slits of width 2𝝁𝒎 each In an opaque material are separated by a distance of 6 𝝁𝒎.
Monochromatic light of wavelength 450 nm is incident normally on the slits. One finds a
combined interference and diffraction pattern on the screen.

(i) The number of peaks of the interference fringes formed within the central peak of
the envelope of the diffraction patter will be:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
(ii) The number of peaks of the interference formed if the slit width is doubled while
keeping the distance between the slits same will be:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(iii) The number of bright fringes formed due to interference on 1m of screen placed at
𝟒
m away from the slits is:
𝟑
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 10
(iv) If instead of 450 nm light, another light of wavelength 680nm is used, number
peaks of the interference formed in the central peal of the envelope of the
diffraction pattern will be:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 9

OR

Consider the diffraction of light by a single slit described in this case study. The first
minimum falls at an angle 𝜽 equal to:

(a) 𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 (𝟎. 𝟏𝟐) (b) 𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 (𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝟓) (c) 𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 (𝟎. 𝟑𝟐) (d)
𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 (𝟎. 𝟒𝟓)

16. The British physicist Thomas Young explained the interference of light using the principle
of superposition of waves. He observed the interference pattern on the screen, in his
experimental set up, known now as Young’s double slit experiment. The two slits
𝑺𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑺𝟐 were illuminated by light from a slit S. The interference pattern consists of
dark and bright bands of light. Such bands are called fringes. The distance between two
consecutive bright and dark fringes is called fringe width.

(i) If the screen is moved closer to the plane of slits 𝑺𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑺𝟐 , then the fringe width:

a) Will decrease, but the intensity of bright fringe remains the same.
b) Will increase, but the intensity of bright fringe decreases.
c) Will decrease, but the intensity of bright fringe increases.
d) And the intensity both remains the same.

Page | 47
 (ii) What will happen to the pattern on the screen, when the two slits 𝑺𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑺𝟐 are
replaced by two independent but identical sources?

a) The intensity of pattern will increase (b)The intensity of

pattern will decrease

(c)The number fringes will become double (d)No pattern will be observed on the
screen

(iii)Two sources of light are said to be coherent, when both emit light waves of:

a) Same amplitude and have a varying phase difference.

b) Same wavelength and a constant phase difference.
c) Different wavelengths and same intensity.
d) Different wavelengths and a constant phase difference.

(iv) The fringe width in a Young’s double slit experiment is 𝜷. If the whole set up is
immersed in a liquid of refractive index ‘𝝁′, then the new fringe width will be:
𝜷 𝜷
a) 𝜷 (b)𝜷𝝁 (c)𝝁 (d)𝝁𝟐

OR

The total path of difference between two waves meeting at points 𝑷𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑷𝟐 on the screen are
𝟑𝝀
( 𝟐 ) and 2𝝀 respectively. Then:

a) Bright fringes are formed at both points.

b) Dark fringes are formed at both points.
c) A bright fringe is formed at 𝑷𝟏 and a dark fringe is formed at𝑷𝟐 .
d) A bright fringe is formed at 𝑷𝟐 and a dark fringe is formed at𝑷𝟏 .
DUAL NATURE

17. The light source for this experiment is a halogen lamp, having wavelength, λ = 550nm.
Light from the lamp passes through a grating monochromator. The light then passes
through a chopper that is connected to a lock-in amplifier so that the photocurrent
produced by the light will have a known frequency that can be distinguished from
background noise. The light is then focused on an evacuated commercial phototube.

The phototube contains a potassium photocathode and a loop of platinum wire for the anode.
Potassium is used because of its low work function and platinum because of its high work
function and high melting point.

By applying forward and reverse bias in the circuit and eventually we can force the current to
zero by making the anode sufficiently negative with respect to the cathode. The value V0for
which the photocurrent vanishes is such that the kinetic energy of an electron when it reaches the
anode is zero. Therefore: hν– w =eVo.

(i) In photoelectric effect, photocurrent

Page | 48
(a) increases with increase infrequency (b) decreases with increase infrequency

(c) doesn’t depend upon frequency (d) Depends on both intensity and frequency of
incident radiation

(ii) Which of the following wave can produce photo electric effect?

(a) ultrasound (b) infrared (c) radio waves (d) X-rays

(iii) The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28eV, 2.3eV and 6.35eV respectively. Their respective
Threshold frequency would be

(a) Pt > Al >K (b) Al > Pt >K (c) K > Al>Pt (d) Al > K >Pt

(iv) Photo electric effect is an example of

(a) elastic collision (b) in elastic collision

(c) two-dimensional collision (d) oblique collision

OR

If light of wavelength 4000A0is incident on a sodium surface for which threshold wavelength of
the photo electrons is 5420A0, then work function of sodium is-

(a) 4.58eV (b) 1.14eV (c) 2.29eV (d) 0.57Ev

18. de-Broglie conceived the idea from “Nature loves symmetry” according to which the two
fundamental forms of matter and energy, in which nature manifests itself must be
mutually symmetrical. This is shown by Einstein in his famous Mass- Energy Equivalence.

de-Broglie asserted that these waves are generated in the motion of any body, whether a planet, a
stone, a particle of dust or an electron. Like electromagnetic waves these waves are capable of
propagation in vacuum and hence they are not mechanical waves. But they are produced in the
motion of all bodies including those not charged electrically and hence they are not
electromagnetic waves. As de Broglie waves do not belong to either class, we are not able to
detectthem.

(i) Dual nature of light is exhibited by

(a) diffraction and photoelectric effect (b) photoelectric effect

Page | 49
(c) refraction and interference (d) reflection

(ii) If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of wave having same wavelength,
it implies that they have same

(a) energy (b) momentum (c) velocity (d) angular momentum

(iii) Moving with same velocity which one of the following have the longest de-Broglie
wavelength-

(a) alpha particle (b) beta particle (c) Proton (d) neutron

(iv) The wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential

difference of 100V is of the order of

(a) 1000 A0 (b) 100A0 (c) 10.5A0 (d) 1.2 A0

OR

Dual nature of matter says that

(a) light have transverse nature (b) particle at rest shows wave behaviour

(c) particles in motion exhibit wave nature (d) light have longitudinal nature

ATOM

19. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, 4 MeV α- particle scatter of gold nuclei (which
contains 79 protons and 118 neutrons). Assume a particular α- particle moves directly
towards the gold nucleus and scatters backward at 180° and that the gold nucleus remains
fixed throughout the process. Some of the α- particles pass straight through the gold foil
and very few α- particles get deflected through 90°

(i) The existence of positively charged nucleus in an atom was first established by

(a) Bohr’s Theory of Hydrogen Atom (b) positive rays’ analysis

(c) α- scattering experiment (d) Thomson’s model of atom
(ii) The thickness of gold foil used in Geiger-Marsden experiment of α- scattering
experiment was the order of
(a) 10-9m (b) 10-3m (c) 10-7m (d) 10-5m
(iii) According to Rutherford’s atomic model, the electrons inside an atom are
(a) stationary (b) centralized (c) non-stationary (d) none of these
(iv) Some of the α- particles passes through the gold foil because
(a) α-particles are positively charged (b) most space within the atom is empty
(c) α-particles are much massive than electrons (d) α-particles move with very high velocity
OR
An α-particle retraces its path, because
a) Coulombic repulsion of α-particle and nucleus of gold atom
b) the mass of the nucleus is very heavy.
c) the mass of the α-particle is very large.
d) the kinetic energy of the α-particle is low.

Page | 50
 BOHR’S ATOMIC MODEL

In the solar system, planet- planet gravitational forces are very small as compared to
gravitational force of sun on each planet, as the mass of sun is very large. In an atomic model, the
electron-electron force interaction is comparable in magnitude to the electron nucleus electrical
force, because the charge and distances are of the same order magnitude. That may be the reason
why Bohr’s model with its planet-like electron is not applicable to many electron atoms.

(i) Bohr’s atom model assumes

(a) the nucleus of infinite mass and at rest
(b) electrons in quantized orbit and no radiation of energy
(c) mass of electron remains constant
(d) all of the above
(ii) Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom did not explain fully
(a) fine structure of even hydrogen spectrum (b) emission spectra
(c) ionization energy (d) diameter of H-atom
(iii) Bohr’s orbits are called stationary states because
(a) electrons in them are stationary (b) their orbits have fixed radii
(c) the electrons in them have fixed energy (d) the protons remain in nuclei and are
stationary
(iv) Which of the following statements is correct in Bohr’s atomic model if the mass of an
electron becomes 10 times its original mass?
(a) the wavelength of electron will remains the same
(b) the velocity of electrons increases by 10times
(c) the radius of the orbit decreases by 10times
(d) the energy of the electron increases by 10times

OR

Which of the following are limitations of Bohr’s model?

(a) it couldn’t explain the intensities or the fine spectrum of the spectral line.
(b) no justification was given for the principle of quantization of angular
momentum.
(c) it couldn’t be applied to multi-electron atoms.
(d) all of the above

Page | 51
 NUCLEI

20. MASS DEFECT & BINDINGENERGY:

A car's mass is constituted by each part of it (i.e. total mass of car will be equal to mass of body +
engine etc.). In the same way the mass of nucleus should be the sum total of the mass of the
particles the nucleus contains, i.e. mass of nucleus = mass of protons+ mass of neutrons. But in
reality, it is not true for a nucleus. There is a difference between the rest mass of a nucleus &the
sum of the rest masses of its constituent nucleons & this difference is known as ‘Mass Defect’.

(i) Which of the following can be used to explain the mass defect of a nucleus?
(a) Soddy-Fazan’s Displacement Law (b) Law of Radioactive Disintegration
(c) Einstein’s Mass-Energy equivalence (d) Nuclear Fission Reaction
(ii) Which of the following statements is not true about the Packing Fraction (Mass Defects/
Mass Number) of a nucleus?

(a) P.F. is positive for nuclei with mass number more than200.
(b) P.F. is positive for nuclei with mass number less than20.
(c) P.F. can be negative.
(d) P.F. is the same for all the radioactive nuclei.
(iii) If the mass defect for a 𝑪𝒂𝟒𝟎𝟐𝟎 nucleus is about 0.36amu, what will be its Binding

Energy?

(a) 335.16 MeV (b) 335.16 Joule (c) 3.24 × 1016 Joule (d) none of these

(iv) WWhat is the significance of the graph drawn between binding energy per nucleon &

the mass number?

(a) it can explain the cause behind nuclear fission.
(b) it can explain the cause behind nuclear fusion.
(c) it can help to identify a particular nucleus as stable or radioactive.
(d) all of these
OR
The binding energy per nucleon gives a measure of
(a) nuclear force inside the nucleus (b) mass of a nucleus
(c) density of a nucleus (d) all of these
SEMICONDUCTOR

21. A semiconductor diode is basically a pn junction with metallic contacts provided at the
ends for the application of an external voltage. It is a two terminal device. When an
external voltage is applied across a semiconductor diode such that p-side is connected to
the positive terminal of the battery and n-side to the negative terminal, it is said to be
forward biased. When an external voltage is applied across the diode such that n-side is
positive and p-side is negative, it is said to be reverse biased. An ideal diode is one whose
resistance in forward biasing is zero and the resistance is infinite in reverse biasing. When
the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage called knee voltage,
the conductivity is very high. When the biasing voltage is more than the knee voltage the
potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with increase in forward
voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very small

Page | 52
 current about a few microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small
current is reverse saturation current.

(i) In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external

resistance R = 100 Ώ and an emf of 3.5 V. If the barrier
potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the
circuit will be:
(a) 40 mA (b) 20 mA (c) 35 mA (d) 30 mA
(ii) In which of the following figures, the pn diode is reverse biased?

(iii) The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure.

The ratio of the resistance of the diode at I = 15 mA to
the resistance at V = -10 V is

(a) 100 (b) 𝟏𝟎𝟔 (c) 10 (d) 𝟏𝟎−𝟔

(iv) Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as

(a) bilateral device (b) ohmic device (c) non-ohmic device (d) passive element

OR

Two
identical
PN junctions can be connected in series by three different methods as shown in the figure. If the
potential difference in the junctions is the same, then the correct connections will be

(a) in the circuits (1) and (2) (b) in the circuits (2) and (3)

(c) in the circuits (1) and (3) (d) only in the circuit (1)

ANSWERS
1. (i) d (ii) d (iii) a (iv) c OR (iv) b
2. (i) a (ii) c (iii) a (iv) c OR (iv) b
3. (i) a (ii) b (iii) a (iv) c OR (iv) d
4. (i) c (ii) a (iii) c (iv) a OR (iv) b

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 5. (i) c (ii) b (iii) a (iv) c OR (iv) c
6. (i) b (ii) a (iii) b (iv) c OR (iv) a
7. (i) a (ii) a (iii) b (iv) b OR (iv) a
8. (i) a (ii) a (iii) a (iv) b OR (iv) c
9. (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d OR (iv) c
10. (i) b (ii) a (iii) a (iv) b OR (iv) a
11. (i) c (ii) c (iii) a (iv) b OR (iv) c
12. (i) c (ii) d (iii) b (iv) b OR (iv) c
13. (i) a (ii) b (iii) b (iv) d OR (iv) c
14. (i) a (ii) c (iii) d (iv) d OR (iv) b
15. (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d OR (iv) d
16. (i) d (ii) c (iii) d (iv) a OR (iv) b
17. (i) a (ii) d (iii) b (iv) c OR (iv) d
18. (i) c (ii) d (iii) a (iv) b OR (iv) c
19. (i) a (ii) b (iii) b (iv)d OR (iv) c
20. (i) c (ii) c (iii) c (iv) b OR (iv) a
21. (i) d (ii) b (iii) c (iv) c OR (iv) d
22. (i) c (ii) d (iii) a (iv) d OR (iv) a
23. (i) d (ii) c (iii) d (iv) c OR (iv) b

Common Mistakes To Be Avoided:

1. Not keeping a check on the answer word limit

The answers should be in accordance with the marks allotted. For example, a question of

2 marks should not be answered in a whole page. Students should stick to the important

points to gain full marks in the question. This will also help to have sufficient time to

complete the paper.

2. Skipping the formula

Sometimes, even good students forget to write down the formula when working on

numerical. Students should note that few marks are allotted for the formula and this will

result in not scoring the full mark for the numerical.

3. Confusion in numerator and denominator

Students should learn the formula thoroughly to avoid confusion in the examination.

Often students get confused and flip the numerator and denominator in the formulae.

This results in the entire numerical to be incorrect and no marks are awarded for the
Page | 54
answer.

4. Error in parallel resistors/ capacitance/focal length Formula

A common mistake students make in the formula of parallel resistors and focal lengths

i.e in taking the reciprocal.

5. Diagram labelling

For diagram questions, it is a must that students label the diagram. To make the paper

more presentable, students should mark these labels in a pencil or with a colour pen.

6. 1 mark questions that ask for “Yes” or “No” answers should be written along with its

reason to achieve full marks in this question. ½ mark is allotted for each part.

7. Missing out parts of question

In most of the questions have parts in it. Each part is allotted a specific mark and often

students overlook these small parts asked and results in losing marks in the question

either ½ a mark or 3 marks for the same.

8. Writing wrong question number

Students should avoid making question mistakes for the answer they are writing. Marks

will not be allotted for incorrect question numbers.

9. Duplicity

When a student wants to rewrite a certain question that has already been answered, they

MUST make sure that the incorrect answer is struck out. If a student fails to strike out the

incorrect answer, as per the CBSE guidelines, the examiner will take the first attempt as

the answer to the question and ignore the second.

10. Skipping the units of physical quantities

11. Signs conventions error

Signs conventions need to be taken care of especially while solving questions of optics. Also use

mirror formula, 1/v + 1/u = 1/f and lens formula 1/v – 1/u = 1/f properly. You can remember

these formulas M of mirror for maximum hence it has positive while L of lens for lowest hence

it has negative sign.

Page | 55
 Competency based question

ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELD

1. An indefinitely long positively charged wire has a linear charge density λcm−1. An electron is revolving
around the wire as its center with a constant velocity in a circular plane perpendicular to the wire.
Deduce the expression for KE of electron. Plot a graph of K.E as a function of charge density λ.
(3)

2. In the figure there are three infinite long thin sheets having
surface charge density +2σ,−2σ and +σ respectively. Find
the magnitude and direction of electric field at a point to
the left of sheet of charge density +2σ and to the right of
sheet of charge density +σ. (2)

3. Two thin concentric and coplanar spherical shells of radii

‘a’ and ‘b’ (b>a) carry charges q and Q respectively. Find
the magnitude of the electric field, at a point distance x,
from their common centre for
(i) 0<x<a (ii) 𝑎 ≤ 𝑥 < 𝑏 (iii) 𝑏 ≤ 𝑥 < ∞ (3)

4. Two point charges q1= −4μC and q2= 8μC are lying on the y-
axis. They are equidistant from the point P, which lies on the
x-axis. A small object of charge q0=8μC and mass m = 12 g is
placed at P. When it is released, what is its acceleration
in ms−2? (Neglect the effect of gravity)
(3)

5. A system has two charges qA= 2.5×10−7C and qB=

−2.5×10−7C located at points A (0,0, -15cm) and B (0,0, +15cm), respectively. Find
(i) electric dipole moment of the system
(ii) the magnitude of the torque acting on it, when it is placed in a uniform electric field 5 x 104
N/C, making an angle of 300, with the z axis.(2)

6. A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q

on its surface. A point charge Q/2 is placed at the centre C and
another charge +2Q is placed outside the shell at A at a
distance x from the centre as shown in the figure.
(i) Find the electric flux through the shell.
(ii) Find the force on the charges at the centre C of the
shell and at the point A.
(2)

7. Two metal spheres, one of the radius R and the other of radius 2R both have same surface
charge density σ. They are brought in contact and separated. Calculate the new surface charge
densities on them. (5)

Page | 56
8. (i) Given the electric field in the region 𝐸⃗ = 2x𝑖̂, find the net
electric flux through the cube and the charge enclosed by it.
(2)

(ii)Four charges equal to – Q are placed at the four corners of a

square and a charge q is at its centre. If the system is in
equilibrium find the value of q. (3)

ANSWER (ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELD)

1. The electrostatic force exerted by the infinitely long line charge provides the necessary
centripetal force to the revolving electron.
∴eE=mv2/r
But E=λ/2π∈0r
e λ/2π∈0r =mv2/r
or v2=e λ/2π∈0m
KE=1/2mv2 = eλ/4π∈0
As KE ∝λ

2.

Page | 57
 3.

4.

Page | 58
5. (i)

(ii) τ = PE sin 30=1.88 x 10-3 Nm

6. (i) flux= Q/2εo

(ii) FA= (K 2Q 3Q/2)/x2 FC=0

7.

Page | 59
Page | 60
 8. (i)

(ii)

ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

1. A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q, is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow

spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the
outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of –4Q, find the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces. (2)
Page | 61
2. Find the charge on the capacitor as shown in the circuit.
(2)

3. Show that the force of attraction between the plates of a parallel

plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of separation between the plates d, with a potential
difference V between the plates is CV2/2d. (2)

4. Two charges -q and +q are located at points (0, 0, -a) and (0, 0, a). Find the electrostatic potential at the
points (0, 0, z), (0, 0 ,-z) and (x,y,0). (3)

5. Three concentric metallic spherical shells A, B and C of radii, a, b

and c (a < b < c) have surface charge densities +σ, -σ and +σ
respectively as shown.
(i) Find the potential of three shells A, B and C.
(ii) If shells A and C are at the same potential, obtain the relation
between radii a, b and c. (3)

6. Two metallic spheres of radii R and 2R are charged, so that both of

these have same surface charge density σ. If they are connected to
each other with a conducting wire, in which direction will the charge flow and why?
(3)

7. (a) The electric potential V as a function of distance x is shown in

the figure.

Draw the graph of the magnitude of electric field intensity

E as a function of x. (2)

(b) N spherical droplets, each of radius r, have been charged

to have a potential V each. If all these droplets were to coalesce to form a single large drop, what would
be the potential of this large drop? (It is given that the capacitance of a sphere of radius x
equals 4πε0Kx.) (3)

8. (a) A capacitor is charged with a battery and then its plate separation is increased without disconnecting
the battery. What will be the change in
(i) charge stored in the capacitor?
(ii) energy stored in the capacitor?
(iii) potential difference across the plates of the capacitor?
(iv) electric field between the plates of the capacitor? (2)

Page | 62
 (b) The electric field in a region is given by 𝐸⃗ = (10x +4) 𝑖̂ where, x is in metre and E is in N/C.
Calculate the amount of work done in taking a unit charge from (i) (5m,0) to (10m, 0) (ii)
(5m,0) to (5m, 10m) (3)

ANSWER (ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE)

1. Ans: Va – Vb = k{(Q/a) – (Q/b)}

Va’ = kQ/a + k(-4Q)/b
Vb’ = kQ/b + k(-4Q)/b
Va’- Vb’ = kQ/a – kQ/b = Va– Vb = V

2.

3.

Page | 63
4. For coordinate (0,0,-z) (0,0,z) it axial point
For coordinate (x, y, 0) it is equatorial point

5.

6.

Page | 64
 Thus VB>VA
If the two spheres are connected to each other with a conducting wire , then charge will flow from
higher potential to lower potential . As VB>VA, hence charge must flow from sphere B to sphere A ,
till they acquire the same potential.

7. (a)

(b)

8. (a) (i) decreases

(ii) decreases
(iii) remains unchanged
(iv) decreases

(b) (i)

Page | 65
 (ii) W= zero , as E is perpendicular to displacement.

Current Electricity

1. Figure shows the current vs. voltage graphs for a given metallic wires at two
different temperatures T1 and T2. Which one of the conditions is correct?(i) T1>
T2 (ii) T1<T2
Explain with mathematical support.
[2 marks]

ANS.
ΔI 1
From the graph, Slope=tan 𝛳 = ΔV = 𝑅
1 1
⇒𝑆𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒 = 𝑅 = 𝑇
On observing the given graph, tan θ2>tan θ1
Thus, R2<R1⇒T1>T2

2. Resistivity of the material of a conductor of uniform cross-section varies along its length as 𝜌 =
𝜌0 (1 + 𝛼𝑥). Find its resistance if its length is L and area of cross-section is A.
[2 marks]

ANS.
Resistance of the material of a conductor of length dx at distance x from one end is
𝜌𝑑𝑥 𝜌0 (1 + 𝛼𝑥)𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑅 = =
𝐴 𝐴
[Given,𝜌 = 𝜌0 + 𝛼𝑥)]
(1
The resistance of the material of conductor of length L is

𝐿
𝜌0 (1 + 𝛼𝑥)𝑑𝑥
𝑅=∫
0 𝐴
Page | 66
 1
𝜌0 (𝐿 + 2 𝛼𝐿2 )
𝑅=
𝐴

3. The galvanometer, in each of the two given

circuits does not show any deflection. Find the
ratio of the resistors R1 and R2 used in these two
circuits. [2 marks]

ANS
In circuit 1, the Wheatstone bridge is in balanced
state.
4 6
= 𝑅1 = 6𝛺
𝑅1 9

In circuit 2, the positions of galvanometer and battery are interchanged but the galvanometer
shows no deflection, means the bridge is in balanced state.
6 𝑅2 𝑅1
= 𝑅2 = 4 𝛺 = 3: 2
12 8 𝑅2

4. The lengths and radii of three wires of same metal are in the ratios 2:3:4 and 3:4:5 respectively.
They are joined in parallel and included in a circuit having 5 A current. Find current in each wire.
[3 marks]
ANS:
𝜌𝑙 4𝜌𝑙
Resistance 𝑅 = 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑑2
As lengths are in ratio 2:3:4 and diameters are in ratio 3:4:5.
2 3 4
So the resistances are in ratio : :
9 16 25
By ohm's law, current is inversely proportional to the resistance, so current is
9 16 25
in ratio : : = 54: 64: 75
2 3 4

5 5 5
𝐼1 = × 54 = 1.40𝐴 𝐼2 = × 64 = 1.66𝐴 𝐼3 = × 75 = 1.94𝐴
193 193 193
5. AB, BC, CD and DA are resistors of 1Ω, 1Ω, 2Ω and 2Ω respectively connected in series.
Between A and C is a 1 volt cell of resistance 2Ω A being positive. Between B and D is a 2V cell
of 1Ω resistance B being positive. Find the current in each branch of the circuit. [3
marks]
ANS

Page | 67
 Applying Kirchhoff’ second law to loop BADB, BCDB and ADCEFA respectively we get
Solving equation (1), (2) and (3) we get,

I1=0.8A I2=0.2A I3=0.5A

IAB=0.2A IBC=0.6A ICD=0.3A
IAD=0.5A IEF=0.3A

6. (a) Write the nature of path of free electrons in a

conductor in the
(i) presence of electric field (ii) absence of electric field.
(b) Between two successive collisions each free electron acquires a velocity from 0 to 𝑣
𝑒𝐸𝜏
where 𝑣 = . What is the average velocity of a free electron in the presence of an electric
𝑚
field? Do all electrons have the same average velocity?
(c) How does this average velocity of the free electrons, in the presence of an electric field vary
with temperature? [3 marks]

ANS
(a) (i) In the presence of electric field, the paths of free electrons in a metal conductor are curved.
(ii) In the absence of electric field, the paths of free electrons in a metal conductor are straight
lines between two successive collisions.

(b) Average velocity of a free electron in the presence of electric field is

𝑒𝐸𝜏
𝑣= .
𝑚
No. There is a variation in the velocity for individual electrons.

(c) As the temperature of a conductor increases, the thermal speed of the electrons increases and
also the amplitude of vibration of the metal ions increase. The free electrons collide more
frequently with the positive ions of metal. As a result of it, the value of relaxation
time τ decreases. Since average velocity 𝑣 ∝ τ , it decreases.

7. (a) With necessary diagram derive relation between electric current and drift velocity.
(b) Using that relation Deduce Ohm’s law.
(c) Also find the expression for resistivity in terms of number density of free electrons and
relaxation time. [5 Marks]

ANS

Page | 68
 (a) Let n=No. of free electrons per volume of the conductor.
V=Volume of conductor=Al
No .of free electrons = 𝑁 = 𝑛𝐴𝑙
If e is the magnitude of charge on each electron, then total
charge in the conductor, 𝑄 = 𝑁𝑒 = 𝑛𝐴𝑙𝑒
The time taken by the charge to cross the conductor
𝑙
length is given by 𝑡 = 𝑣 , where 𝑣𝑑 is drift velocity of
𝑑
electrons
According to the definition of electric current,

𝑄 𝑛𝐴𝑙𝑒
𝐼= = = 𝑛𝐴𝑒𝑣𝑑
𝑡 𝑙
𝑣𝑑
𝑒𝐸𝜏 𝑒𝑉𝜏 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏𝐴𝑉
(b) 𝐼 = 𝑛𝐴𝑒𝑣𝑑 = 𝑛𝐴𝑒 = 𝑛𝐴𝑒 =
𝑚 𝑚𝑙 𝑚𝑙

𝑉 𝑚𝑙
= 2 = 𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 = 𝑅
𝐼 𝑛𝑒 𝜏𝐴
This proves Ohm’s law

𝜌𝑙 𝑚𝑙
(c) 𝑅 = = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏𝐴
𝐴

𝑚
𝜌=
𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏

8. (a)Two cells of different emfs and internal resistances are connected in parallel with one
another. Find the expressions for equivalent internal resistance of the combination.

(b) Two identical cells of emf 1·5 V and internal resistance r each connected in parallel providing
a supply to an external circuit consisting of two resistances of each joined in parallel.
A very high resistance voltmeter reads the terminal voltage of the cell to be 1·4 V. Calculate
the internal resistance of each cell.

ANS

Page | 69
 𝛦1 − 𝑉 𝛦2 − 𝑉 𝛦1 𝛦2 1 1
𝐼 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 = + = ( + )−𝑉( + )
𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟1 𝑟2

𝑟1 + 𝑟2 𝛦1 𝑟2 + 𝛦2 𝑟1
𝑉( )= −𝐼
𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟1 𝑟2

𝛦1 𝑟2 + 𝛦2 𝑟1 𝑟1 𝑟2
𝑉= −𝐼
𝑟1 +𝑟2 𝑟1 +𝑟2

𝑉 = 𝐸𝑒𝑞 − 𝐼𝑟𝑒𝑞

𝛦1 𝑟2 + 𝛦2 𝑟1 𝑟1 𝑟2
𝐸𝑒𝑞 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟𝑒𝑞 =
𝑟1 +𝑟2 𝑟1 +𝑟2

(b)

V=1.4Volt
17
𝑅𝑒𝑞 = = 8.5𝛺
2
𝐸𝑒𝑞 = 1.5 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡

1.4 𝑟
𝑉 = 𝐸𝑒𝑞 − 𝐼𝑟𝑒𝑞 = 1.5 − ( )
8.5 2

r=1.21Ω

Magnetic effects of current and Magnetism

Competency based question

1. A straight wire of length L is bent into a semi-circular loop. Use Biot-Savart's law to deduce an
expression for the magnetic field at its centre due to the current passing through it.
(2)
2. An element ∆l = ∆xî is placed at the origin (as shown in figure) and carries a current I = 10A

Page | 70
 Find out the magnetic field at point P on the Y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m due to the element
∆x = 1 cm. Also, give the direction of the field produced. (2)

3. A voltmeter of resistance RV and an ammeter of resistance RA are connected in a

circuit to measure, a resistance R as shown in Fig. The ratio of the meter readings
gives an apparent resistance R'. Show that R and R' are related by the relation

(1/R) =(1/R') -(1/RV) (2)

4. (i) State Ampere's circuital law expressing it in the integral form.

(ii) Two long co-axial insulated solenoids S1 and S2 of equal length are wound one over
the other as shown in the figure. A steady current I1 flows through the inner solenoid S1
to the other end B which is connected to the outer solenoid through which some current
I2 flows in the opposite direction so, as to come out at end A. If n1 and n2 are the number
of turns per unit length, find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at a
point. (3)

(a) In side on the axis and

(b) Outside the combined system

5. Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii 16 cm

and 10 cm respectively lie in the same vertical plane
containing the north-south direction. Coil X has 20 turns and carries a current of 16 A;
coil Y has 25 turns and carries a current of 18 A. The sense of the current in X is
anticlockwise, and in Y clockwise, for an observer looking at the coils facing west.
Give the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field due to the coils at their
centre. (3)

Page | 71
6. P and Q are two identical charged particles of mass 4 x 10 -26 kg and charge 4.8 x 10-19 C, each
moving with the same speed of 2.4 x 105 m/s as shown in the figure. The two particles are
equidistant from the vertical y-axis. At some instant, a magnetic field B is switched on so that
the two particles undergo head-on collision.
Find (a) the direction of the magnetic field and
(b) the magnitude of the magnetic field applied in the region (3)

7. A charged particle ‘+q’ moving with a velocity ‘v’ enters region I of crossed electric and
magnetic field as shown below. Represent the various paths that can be described by the particle
in the region I. Also obtain the condition under which it describes each path. ( Neglect the effect
of gravity acting on the particle)
(5)

8(a) A steady current (I1) flows through a long straight wire. Another wire carrying steady current
(I2) in the same direction is kept close and parallel to the first wire. Show with the help of a diagram

Page | 72
 how the magnetic field due to the current I1 exerts a magnetic force on the second wire. Write the
expression for this force.

(b)The magnitude F of the force between two straight parallel current carrying conductors kept at a
distance d apart in air is given by F = µ0I1I2/2Πd Where I1 and I2 are the currents flowing through
the two wires. Use this expression and the sign convention that the: “Force of attraction is assigned
a negative sign and Force of repulsion is assigned a positive sign”. Draw graphs showing
dependence of F on (i) I1 I2 when d is kept constant (ii) d when the product I1 I2 is maintained at a
constant positive value. (5)

ANSWERS

1. As shown in fig. consider a wire of length L bent into a semicular loop of radius R (R=L/π). Let
a current I flows through it. To calculate magnetic field at centre O of the loop, Let us consider a
small current Idl. Then as per Biot-Savart’s law
(2 )

2. Applying Biot- Savart's law, (2)

dB=(μ0/4π)Idlsinθ/r2 ........(1)
Here, dl=Δx=10−2 m; I=10 A
r=0.5 m; θ=90∘
Putting the values in eq. (1)
dB=10−7×10×10−2sin90∘/25×10−2
dB=4×10−8 T
For direction of dB,
∴dB=4×10−8 T k̂

3. Apparent Resistance = R’ = V/I (2)

Total Resistance = Req=RA + RRv/ (R+Rv)

According to Ohms Law E/I = Req = RA+ V/I = RA+ R’

RA = RRv/ (R+Rv)

R’ = RRv/ (R+Rv)

Or

1/R = 1/R’ – 1/Rv

Page | 73
 4. i Statement of Ampere’s Circuital Law (3)
ii (a) Net B = B2 – B1 = µ0 I (n2 – n1)
The direction is from B to A
(b) Magnetic field due to S1 is confined only inside S1 and there is no magnetic field
outside S1. Similarly no magnetic field outside S2. So net magnetic field is zero.

5.

So, the magnetic field due to coil X at the centre is given by

Bx=μ0nxi1/2rx
Bx=(4π×10−7)×20×16/2×(16×10−2)
Bx=4π×10−4 T (Towards east)

Similarly, the magnetic field at common centre due to coil Y,

By=μ0nyi2/2ry
By=(4π×10−7)×25×18/2×(10×10−2)
By=9π×10−4 T (Towards west)
So, net magnetic field at the common centre is
Bnet=By−Bx (∵By>Bx)
Bnet=(9π×10−4)−(4π×10−4)
Bnet=5π×10−4 T (Towards west)

6. (a) Perpendicular and into the page. (3)

(b) For a head-on collision to take place, the radius of the path of each ion should be equal to
0.5 m.
Solving for B = 0.04 T

Page | 74
Page | 75
 7. The particle experiences a force due to an electric field along the + y direction
and magnetic force along the - y direction. (5)
FE = qE
FB = qvB
The various paths described by the particle depend on the relation between FE and FB
Case 1: FE > FB

Case 2: FE < FB

Case 3: FE = FB

8. (a) Derive the expression for force with diagram(5)

(b) We know that F is an attractive (–ve) force when the currents I1 and I2 are ‘like’ currents i.e. when
the product I1 I2 is positive. Similarly F is a repulsive (+ve) force when the currents I1 and I2 are
‘unlike’ currents, i.e. when the product I1 I2 is negative. Now F∝ (I1I2), when d is kept constant and
F∝1/d when I1I2 is kept constant. The required graphs, therefore, have the forms shown below

Page | 76
 Magnetism & Matter

1. Three identical specimens of magnetic materials nickel, antimony and aluminium are kept in a non-uniform
magnetic field. Draw the modifications in the field lines in each case. Justify your answer.
[3 marks]

ANS

The modifications in field lines are as shown in figure. This

is because, Nickel is ferromagnetic, Antimony is diamagnetic
and Aluminium is paramagnetic.

2. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic

moments 1.0Am2 each, placed at a separation of 2m with their axis
perpendicular to each other. Calculate the resultant magnetic
field at a point midway between the dipoles. [3 marks]

ANS
𝜇0 2𝑚
𝐵1 = . = 2 × 10−7 𝑇 𝑖𝑛 ℎ𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
4𝜋 𝑟 3
𝜇0 𝑚
𝐵2 = . = 10−7 𝑇 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
4𝜋 𝑟 3
𝐵𝑅 = √(𝐵1 2 + 𝐵2 2 ) = √5 × 10−7 𝑇
𝐵2
tan 𝛳 = = 0.5
𝐵1
𝛳 =26.570

Page | 77
3. The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation versus
the applied magnetic field intensity, H, for two magnetic
materials A and B:
(a) Identify the materials A and B.
(b) For material A, plot the variation of intensity of
magnetization versus temperature. [3 marks]

ANS
𝐼
(a)Slope of I-H graph gives susceptibility 𝜒𝑚 = 𝐻 of the material
For material A, the slope is positive and smaller, it is likely to be paramagnetic.
For material B, the slope is positive and larger; it is likely to be ferromagnetic.
(b)

T
4. A bar magnet of length 10cm has a pole strength of 10Am. Calculate the magnetic field at a distance
of 0⋅2m from its centre at a point on its
(i) axial line (ii) equatorial line. [2 marks]

ANS
2𝑙 = 10 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑙 = 5 𝑐𝑚 = 0.05𝑚 , 𝑞𝑚 = 10𝐴𝑚 , 𝑟 = 0.2𝑚
𝑚 = 𝑞𝑚 × 2𝑙 = 1𝐴𝑚2

𝜇0 2𝑚𝑟
𝐵𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑎𝑙 = . 2 = 2.84 × 10−5 𝑇
4𝜋 (𝑟 − 𝑙 2 )2

𝜇0 𝑚
𝐵𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎 = . 3 = 1.14 × 10−5 𝑇
4𝜋
(𝑟 2 + 𝑙 2 )2
5. Out of the two magnetic materials. 'A' has relative permeability slightly greater than unity while 'B' has
less than unity. Identify the nature of materials 'A' and 'B'. Will their susceptibilities be positive or negative?
[2 marks]

ANS
For material A, 𝜇𝑟 > 1. Therefore, 'A' must be paramagnetic.
For material B, 𝜇𝑟 < 1. Therefore, 'B' must be diamagnetic.
As 𝜒𝑚 = 𝜇𝑟 − 1
∴ Susceptibility of 'A' is positive and susceptibility of 'B' is negative.

6. M and √3M are the magnetic dipole moments of the two magnets, which are joined to form a cross (+). Find
the inclination of the system with the field, if their combination, is suspended freely in a uniform external magnetic
field B. [2 marks]

Page | 78
 ANS

𝑚𝐵 sin 𝛳 = √3 𝑚𝐵 sin(900 − 𝛳)

sin 𝛳 = √3 cos 𝛳

tan 𝛳 = √3

𝛳 = 600

Chapter: Electromagnetic Induction

Question 1: 2marks
A square loop of side 10 cm is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field that increases at a constant rate from
0 T to 0.2 T in 5 seconds. Calculate the magnitude of the induced EMF in the loop.
Question 2: 2marks
A coil is placed near a long straight wire carrying a current I. Describe the direction of the induced current in the coil
when:
(i) The current in the wire increases.
(ii) The current in the wire decreases.
Justify your answer using Lenz's Law.
Question 3: 2marks
A solenoid has 500 turns, a length of 0.5 m, and a cross sectional area of 10−4 𝑚2 . If the current through the solenoid
changes from 2 A to 4 A in 0.1 seconds, calculate the self-induced EMF in the solenoid. The self-inductance of the
solenoid is 2mH.
Question 4: 3marks
A circular loop of radius 5 cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T, with the plane of the loop initially
perpendicular to the field. The loop is rotated by 90° about its diameter in 0.2 seconds. Calculate the magnitude
of the average induced EMF during the rotation.
Question 5: 3marks
A transformer is used to light up a 60 W, 220 V bulb from a 110 V AC source. The primary coil has 100 turns.
(i) Calculate the number of turns in the secondary coil.
(ii) If the efficiency of the transformer is 90%, determine the current in the primary coil.
Question 6: 3marks
Two coils, A and B, are placed close to each other. Coil A is connected to a battery and a switch, while coil B is
connected to a galvanometer.
(i) What will be observed in the galvanometer connected to coil B when the switch in coil A is:
a. Closed suddenly.
b. Opened suddenly.
Page | 79
(ii) Explain the cause of these observations.

Question 7: (3+2)
(a) Derive an expression for the EMF induced in a conducting rod of length l moving with velocity v perpendicular
to a uniform magnetic field B.
(b) A rod of length 0.5m is moving with a velocity of 10m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.2T. Calculate the
induced EMF.

Question 8: (3+2)
(a) Derive the formula for the self-inductance L of a long solenoid of length l, number of turns N, and area of cross-
section A.
(b) A solenoid of length 0.5m, cross-sectional area 4 × 10−4 𝑚2, and 1000 turns carries a current that changes at the
rate of 2A/s. Calculate the induced EMF if 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 𝐻/𝑚.

Question 9: (3+2)
(a) Derive the relation between the number of turns and voltages in the primary and secondary coils of an ideal
transformer:
(b) A transformer has 200 turns in its primary coil and 1000 turns in its secondary coil. If the input voltage is 220V,
calculate the output voltage.

Answers
Answer 1:

Answer2:
Using Lenz's Law:
(i) When the current in the wire increases:
The magnetic field around the wire strengthens. The coil opposes this increase by inducing a current that produces a

Page | 80
magnetic field opposite to the wire's magnetic field. The induced current will be clockwise when viewed from
above.
(ii) When the current in the wire decreases:
The magnetic field around the wire weakens. The coil tries to oppose this decrease by inducing a current that
supports the existing magnetic field. The induced current will be anticlockwise when viewed from above.
Answer 3:

Answer 4:

Answer 5:

Page | 81
Answer 6:
1. Observations in the galvanometer:
a. When the switch is closed suddenly:

The galvanometer shows a momentary deflection as current starts flowing in coil A, inducing a changing
magnetic flux in coil B.

b. When the switch is opened suddenly:

The galvanometer again shows a momentary deflection in the opposite direction as the current in coil A
stops suddenly, causing the magnetic flux to decrease.
2. Cause of observations:
➢ According to Faraday’s Law, a change in magnetic flux through coil B induces an EMF in it.
➢ The momentary deflections occur because the magnetic flux through coil B changes abruptly when
the current in coil A changes.
➢ The direction of the deflection follows Lenz’s Law, which opposes the change in flux.
Answer 7:
(a) When a conducting rod of length l moves with velocity v perpendicular to a magnetic field B, an EMF
is induced due to the magnetic force acting on the free charges in the rod.
1. The magnetic force on a charge q is given by: F=qvB

2. This force causes charges to accumulate at the ends of the rod, creating a potential difference (EMF).
3. The induced EMF (E) is: E=Blv

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 Thus, the induced EMF depends on the magnetic field (B), the length of the rod (l), and the velocity of the rod
(v).
(b)

Answer 8:
(a)

Page | 83
(b)

Answer 9:
(a)

(b)

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Chapter: Alternating Current
Question 1:
The peak value of an alternating voltage is 220√2 𝑉 . What is its RMS value? Why is the RMS value of voltage
used instead of the peak value for AC calculations?
2marks

Question 2:
An LCR circuit has a resistance R=10Ω, inductance L=0.1H, and capacitance C=100μF. The circuit is connected to
an AC source of 50Hz. Calculate: (i) The inductive reactance (𝑋𝐿 ). (ii) The capacitive reactance (𝑋𝐶 ).
2marks

Question 3:
An AC circuit has a power factor of 0.8 and a current of 5A. What does the power factor represent in this circuit? If
the voltage across the circuit is 220V, calculate the average power consumed by the circuit.
2marks

Question 4:
In a series LCR circuit, the inductive reactance (𝑋𝐿 ) is 50Ω, the capacitive reactance (𝑋𝐶 ) is 30Ω, and the resistance
(R) is 40Ω.
(i) Calculate the impedance of the circuit.
(ii) Is the circuit inductive or capacitive? Explain.
(iii)What happens to the impedance when resonance is achieved? 3marks

Question 5:
A device operates on an AC voltage of 230V and draws a current of 4A with a power factor of 0.8.
(i) What is the apparent power of the device?
(ii) Calculate the real power consumed by the device.
(iii) What is the role of the power factor in determining the efficiency of an AC circuit?
3marks

Question 6:
An AC generator produces an alternating EMF of peak value E0=240V at a frequency of 50Hz. The generator is
connected to a circuit with a resistor of 100Ω and a capacitor of 50μF in series.
(i) Calculate the capacitive reactance (𝑋𝐶 ) of the circuit.
(ii) Determine the RMS value of the current in the circuit.
(iii)What happens to the current if the capacitance is doubled? 3marks

Question 7: (3+2)
(a) Derive an expression for the average power in an AC circuit in terms of the RMS values of voltage and current
and the power factor.
(b) An AC circuit has a voltage of 220V (RMS), a current of 5A(RMS), and a power factor of 0.9. Calculate the
average power consumed by the circuit.

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Question 8: (3+2)
(a) Explain the working principle of a transformer and derive the relationship between the number of turns and the
voltage in the primary and secondary coils.
(b) A step-down transformer reduces 220V to 22V. If the primary coil has 500 turns, calculate the number of turns in
the secondary coil. Also, determine the
current in the primary coil if the current in the secondary coil is 5A, assuming an ideal transformer.

Question 9: (3+2)
(a) Derive an expression for the impedance in an LCR series circuit connected to an AC source. Explain how
resonance occurs in the circuit. (3 marks)

(b) An LCR series circuit has a resistance of 50Ω, an inductance of 0.5H, and a capacitance of 20μF. It is connected
to an AC source of frequency 50Hz. Calculate the impedance of the circuit. (2
marks)
Answer
Answer 1:

Peak voltage (V0) = 220√2

RMS Value Calculation:
The RMS value of alternating voltage is:
𝑉
Vrms = 𝑜 =220V
√2

RMS voltage = 220V.

Why RMS value is used:
The RMS value represents the equivalent steady DC value that produces the same heating effect in a resistive load.
It is more practical for calculations in AC circuits as it relates directly to power.

Answer 2.

Page | 86
 Answer 3.
Given:
Power factor (cosϕ) = 0.8, current (I) = 5A, voltage (V) = 220V.
1. What the power factor represents:
The power factor (cosϕ) represents the ratio of real power to apparent power in an AC circuit. It indicates
how efficiently the circuit converts electrical power into useful work.
2. Average Power Calculation:
The average power is given by:
P=VI cosϕ P=(220)(5)(0.8)=880W.
Answer: The average power consumed by the circuit is 880W.

Answer 4.

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Answer 5.

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Answer 6.

Page | 89
Answer 7.

(a)

(b)

Answer 8.
(a)
Working principle of a transformer:
A transformer works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When an alternating current flows
through the primary coil, it produces a varying magnetic flux in the core. This flux links with the
secondary coil and induces an EMF according to Faraday's law.

Page | 90
 Relation between turns and voltage:
The induced EMF in the primary and secondary coils is proportional to their number of turns:
Vs/Vp =Ns/Np
where:
➢ Vs,Vp = voltages in the secondary and primary coils,
➢ Ns,Np = number of turns in the secondary and primary coils.
(b)

Answer 9.
(a)

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(b)

CH-8 ELCTROMAGNETIC WAVE

2- MARKS-

1) A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about the directions of
its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?

2) How are electromagnetic waves produced? What is the source of energy of these waves? Write mathematical
expressions for electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave propagating along the z-axis. Write
any two important properties of electromagnetic waves.

3) Name the electromagnetic waves used quite often for

(i) killing germs in household water purifiers,
(ii) remote sensing
(iii) treatment of cancer
Write their wavelengths in increasing order.

4) Considering the case of a parallel plate capacitor being charged, show how one is required to generalize
Ampere’s circuital law to include the term due to displacement current.

5) Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is

E = {(3.1 N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 × 106 rad/s) t]}𝑖̂.
(a) What is the direction of propagation?
(b) What is the wavelength λ?
(c) What is the frequency 𝜈?
(d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave?

Page | 92
 3- MARKS-

6) Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is

(a) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
(b) used to treat muscular strain.
(c) used as a diagnostic tool in medicine.
Write in brief, how these waves can be produced.
7) The given figure shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of
radius 12 cm, and separated by 5.0 cm. The capacitor is being charged by
an external source (not shown in the figure). The charging current is
constant and equal to 0.15A.
(a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of change of potential
difference between the plates.
(b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates.
(c) Is Kirchhoff’s first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor? Explain.
8) A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates each of radius R = 6.0 cm has a capacitance C = 100 pF.
The capacitor is connected to a 230 V ac supply with a (angular) frequency of 300 rad s–1.
(a) What is the rms value of the conduction current?
(b) Is the conduction current equal to the displacement current?
(c) Determine the amplitude of B at a point 3.0 cm from the axis between the plates.
9) Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E0 = 120 N/C and that its frequency
is ν = 50.0 M Hz.
(a) Determine, B0 ,ω, k, and λ.
(b) Find expressions for E and B.

ANSWERS
2) EM waves are produced by oscillating charged particle.
Mathematical expression for electromagnetic waves travelling along z-axis:
Ex =E0 sin (kz – wt) and [For electric field] By =B0 sin (kz – wt) [For magnetic field]
Properties
(i) Electromagnetic waves have oscillating electric and magnetic fields along mutually perpendicular directions.
(ii) They have transverse nature.
3) (i) UV radiation (λ1), (ii) Microwaves (λ2), (iii) γ-rays (λ3)
The increasing order of wavelength is λ3 < λ1 < λ2.

4) According to the Ampere’s circuital law, the magnitude of magnetic field at a point P outside the capacitor is

We notice that on applying Ampere’s circuital law to the surfaces having same perimeter, we have a contradiction.
The concept of displacement current (iD) removes this contradiction, and Ampere’s circuital law modifies to

Page | 93
5) (a) The direction of the propagation of the plane wave is in ( −j )direction.
(b) λ= 2π k = 3.49 m
(c) 𝜈= ω/ 2π = 8.6× 10 7 Hz
(d) B 0 = E 0 c = 1.03× 10 −7 T

3 MARKS-

6)(a) Microwaves
Production: Klystron/magnetron/Gunn diode
(b) Infrared radiations
Production: Hot bodies/vibrations of atoms and molecules
(c) X-rays
Production: Bombarding high energy electrons on metal target/X-ray tube/Inner shell electrons
7) (a) d=5 cm=0.05m, r= 0.12 m , A=3.14(0.12)2=0.045216m2
C=ϵ0A/d= =8.85×10−12×0.04521/0.05
C=8.0032×10−12 F
I= dq/dt=CdV/dt
dV/dt = I/C = 0.15/8.0032×10−12 = 1.87×1010V/s

(b) Id=dq/dt = conduction current =0.15A

(c) Kirchhoff’s first rule is valid at each plate of the capacitor provided that we consider the current to be the sum of
both conduction and displacement currents.

8) (a) I=V/XC here, Xc = Capacitive reactance

Xc=1/ωC
⇒I=V× ωC
I= 230×300×100×10−12 , I=6.9×10−6A , I=6.9μA

(b) conduction current is equal to displacement current.

(c) B0=μ0rI0/2πR2 = 4π×10−7×0.03×9.7566×10−6 / 2π×0.062 = 1.63 × 10-11 T

CH-9-RAY OPTICS

(TWO MARKS)

1. Using the data given below, state which two of the given lenses will be preferred to construct a (i) telescope, and
(ii) microscope. Also indicate which is to be used as objective and as eyepiece in each case.

2. A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam 12cm from P. At
what point does the beam converge if the lens is (a) a convex lens of focal length 20cm, and (b) a concave lens
of focal length 16cm?
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3. (i) State the conditions under which a large magnification and large light gathering power can be achieved in an
astronomical telescope.
(ii) Give two reasons to explain why a reflecting telescope is preferred over a refracting telescope
4. A ray of light incident on one of the faces of a glass prism of angle A has angle of incidence 2A. The refracted
ray in the prism strikes the opposite face which is silvered, the reflected ray from it retracing its path. Trace the
ray diagram and find the relation between the refractive index of the material of the prism and the angle of the
prism.
5. The refractive indices of the material of the prism for red, green and blue
wavelengths are respectively 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47. Trace the paths of these rays
reasoning out the difference in their behaviour.

THREE MARKS
1. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80cm. What is the area of the
surface of water through which light from the bulb can emerge out? Refractive index of water is 1.33.
(Consider the bulb to be a point source.)
2. A convex lens of focal length 20cm made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn, in (i) a
medium of refractive index 1.6 (ii) a medium of refractive index 4/3 (a) Will it behave as a converging or a
diverging lens in the two cases? (b) How will its focal length change in the two media?

3. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of focal length
6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far from the objective should an object be placed in order to
obtain the final image at (i) the least distance of distinct vision (D = 25 cm) and (ii) infinity? What is the
magnifying power of the microscope in each case ?
4. One face of a prism with a refracting angle of 30° is coated with silver. A ray incident on another face at an
angle of 45° is refracted and reflected from the silver coated face and retraces its path. Find the refractive
index of the material of the prism.
5. A convex lens of focal length f1 is kept in contact with a concave lens of focal length f2.
(a) Find the focal length of the combination. If both of the lenses have same focal length
(b) Then what will be the nature of the combination.
6. A screen is placed “D” from an object. The image of the object on the screen is formed by a convex lens at
two different locations separated by “d” . Determine the focal length of the lens.

FIVE MARKS

1. (a)With the help of a ray diagram, show the formation of image of a point object due to refraction of light at
a spherical surface separating two media of refractive indices n1 and n2 (n2 > n1) respectively. Using this
diagram, derive the relation

(b)Write the sign conventions used. What happens to the focal length of convex lens when it is immersed in
water?

2. (a) A thin convex lens having two surfaces of radii of curvature R1 and R2 is made of a material of refractive
index μ2. It is kept in a medium of refractive index μ1. Derive, with the help of a ray diagram, the lens

Page | 95
 maker’s formula when a point object placed on the principal axis in front of the radius of curvature R1
produces an image I on the other side of the lens.
(b) Hence use it to derive thin lens formula.
(c) for an equiconvex lens of μ =15, show that R = f.

3. Draw the labelled ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. Derive an expression
for its total magnification (or magnifying power), when the final image is formed at the near point.
Why both objective and eyepiece of a compound microscope must have short focal lengths?

ANSWERS
RAY OPTICS
TWO MARKS
1. Ans: (i) For a telescope: L2 and L3 Lens L2 is chosen as an objective because its power is least (or focal
length is maximum) and aperture is large. Lens L3 is chosen as an eyepiece because its focal length is small.
(ii) For a microscope: L1 and L3 Lens L3 is chosen as objective because its focal length is small, and L1 as an
eyepiece because its focal length is not large
2. Ans: (a) 7.5cm (b) 48 cm
3. Ans: (i) (a) for large magnification f o >> fe
(b) large aperture
(ii) Reflecting telescope is preferred over refracting telescope because
(a) No chromatic aberration, because mirror is used. (b) Spherical aberration can be removed by using a
parabolic mirror. (c) Image is bright because no loss of energy due to reflection. (d) Large mirror can
provide easier mechanical support.
4. Ans:

5. Ans:

Page | 96
 THREE MARKS

1. Ans: 2.6 m2

2. Ans: By using lens maker formula , In case (i) focal length becomes -160cm so behaves as diverging type (ii)
focal length becomes + 80 cm so behaves as converging type.

3.

4. Ans: √2

5. (a)

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 (b) It will be behaved as a glass sheet.

6. Ans:( 𝐷2 -𝑑2 )/4D

FIVE MARKS
1.(a)Derivation

(b) When convex lens is immersed in water, refractive index n decreases and hence focal length will
increase i.e., the focal length of a convex lens increases when it is immersed in water.

2. direct derivation

3. Ans: ray diagram

Fig (b)

Fig (a)

Page | 98
 CH-10 WAVE OPTICS

2 MARKS

1. Find the ratio of intensities of two points P and Q on a screen in Young’s double slit experiment when waves
from sources S1 and S2 have phase difference of (i) 0°, and (ii) π/2 respectively.

2. How will the interference pattern in Young’s double slit experiment get affected, when
(i) distance between the slits S1 and S2 is reduced, and (ii) the entire set-up is immersed in water?
Justify your answer in each case.
3. Sketch of a graph showing the variation of fringe width versus the distance of the screen from the plane
of the slits (keeping other parameters same) in Young’s double slit experiment. What information
can one obtain from the slope of this graph?
4. Two wavelengths of sodium light of 590 nm and 596 nm are used in turn to study the diffraction taking
place at a single slit of aperture 2 × 10–6 m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m.
Calculate the separation between the positions of first maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained in
the two cases.
5. In Young’s experiment the width of the fringes obtained with light of wavelength 6000 A0 is 2mm. What will
be the fringe width if the apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 4/3?
6. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original width. How does this
affect the size and intensity of central diffraction band? Explain. Draw a graph showing variation of intensity
with angle in single slit diffraction.
7. Draw the wavefront for a beam of light (i) coming from a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus
(ii) divergent radially from a point source.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

8. State Huygens principle. For reflection of plane wavefront at a plane reflecting surface, construct the
corresponding reflected wavefront. Using this diagram prove that angle of incidence is equal to angle of
reflection.
9. Two independent sources of light cannot be coherent. Why? Two coherent sources have intensities in the ratio
25:16. Find the ratios of the intensities of maxima to minima after interference.
10. State Huygen's principle, Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave front incident at the
interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from a rarer to a denser medium. Hence verify Snell's
law of refraction.
11. Why is the interference pattern not detected, when two coherent sources are far apart and infinitely close to each other?
What changes in the interference pattern in Young's double slit experiment will be observed when (i) light of
smaller frequency is used? (ii) the apparatus is immersed in water?
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 12. How will the angular separation and visibility of fringes in Young’s double slit experiment change when
i screen is moved away from the plane of the slits and
ii width of the source slit is increased?

13. Two coherent light waves of intensity each super-impose and produce the interference
𝝀
pattern on a screen. At a point where the path difference between the waves is 𝟔 , being wavelength of the
wave, find the (a) phase difference between the waves. (b) resultant intensity at the point. (c) resultant intensity
in terms of the intensity at the maximum.

14. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 800nm and 600nm is used to obtain the interference fringes in a
Young's double slit experiment on a screen place 1.4m away. If the two slits are separated by 0.28mm, Calculate the
least distance from the central bright maximum where the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincidence.

15. In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.5mm and the screen is placed 1.0m away from the slit.
It is found that the 5th bright fringe is at a distance of 4.13 mm from the 2nd dark fringe. Find the wavelength of light
used.

5 MARKS

16. Two monochromatic waves emanating from two coherent sources have the displacements represented by y1 =
a cos ωt and y2 = a cos (ωt + ϕ) where ϕ is the phase difference between the two displacements. Show that the
resultant intensity at a point due to their superposition is given by I = 4 I0 cos2 ϕ/2 where I0 α a2.. Hence obtain
the conditions for constructive and destructive interference.

17. Describe Young's double slit interference experiment and derive conditions for occurrence of dark and bright
fringes on the screen. Define fringe width and write formula for it.

18. Use Huygene's principle to explain the formation of diffraction pattern due to a single slit illuminated by a
monochromatic source of light. Plot the variation of intensity with angle and state the reason for reduction in
intensity of secondary maxima compared to central maxima.
When the width of slit is made double the original width, how this affect the size and intensity of the central
diffraction band?

ANSWERS
1. (i} When rays are out of phase by 0°, we get constructive interference and hence we will obtain maximum
intensity.

2.

Page | 100
3.

Knowing the value of d and the slope of the graph, the wavelength of light used can be calculated.

4.

5.

6. i. size reduced to half

ii. intensity increases 4 times

Page | 101
7. Figure from ncert book.
8.
A wavefront is the locus of all points oscillating in same phase.
A figure showing reflection of a plane wavefront using Huygen’s construction is given below. In the figure AB is

incident wavefront and CD is reflected wavefront. If v is speed of the

wave in the medium and t is the time taken by the wavefront to cover distance BC, then

9. Ratio = 81:1
10. Answer from Ncert
11. (i) increases
(ii)decreases

12. (i) Angular separation θ = β/D = λ/d It is independent of D; therefore, angular separation remains unchanged if
screen is moved away from the slits. But the actual separation between fringes β = λD/d increases, so visibility of
fringes increases .
(ii) When width of source slit is increased, then the angular fringe width remains unchanged but fringes becomes
less and less sharp; so visibility of fringes decreases. If the condition s/S < λ/d is not satisfied, the interference
pattern disappears.
13.

Page | 102
14.

15.

CH-11- DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

2MARKS
1. In the study of a photoelectric effect the graph between the stopping potential V and frequency n of the incident
radiation on two different metals P and Q is shown:
Page | 103
 (i)Which one of the two metals has higher threshold frequency? (ii) Determine the work function of the metal which
has greater value. (iii) Find the maximum kinetic energy of electron emitted by light of frequency 8 × 1014 Hz for
this metal.

2. A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has smaller de Broglie wavelength and why?
3. Two lines A and B shown in the graph represent the de Broglie wavelength (λ ) as a function of 1/√ V (V is the
accelerating potential) for two particles having the same charge. Which of the two represents the particle of smaller
mass?

1/ √V

4. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential. Which one of the two has (i) greater
value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and (ii) less kinetic energy. Give reasons to justify your answer.
5. An electron and a photon have the same de Broglie wavelength. Which one possesses more kinetic energy?
6. Find out work function of the metal, if the kinetic energies of the photoelectrons are E1 and E2, with wavelengths
of incident light λ1 and λ2.
7. An α-particle when accelerated through a potential difference of V volt has a wavelength λ associated with it. In
order to have the same wavelength, by what potential difference a proton must be accelerated ?
8.
The graph between frequency (v0) of the incident light and maximum kinetic energy (Ek) of emitted photoelectrons
is given. Find the values of (i) threshold frequency, and (ii) work function from the graph.

3 MARKS
9. The given graphs show the variation of the stopping potential V0 with the frequency ν of the incident
radiations for two different photosensitive materials m1 and m2.

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 m1
m2

V0

ν01 ν 02
ν
(i) What are the values of work function for m1 and m2
(ii) The values of the stopping potential for m1 and m2 for a frequency ν3 (> ν02).
If the stopping potential of the incident radiations are V1 and V2 respectively, show that the slope of the line
𝑉 −𝑉
= 𝜈 1 −𝜈2
02 01
10. Sketch a graph between frequency of incident radiation and stopping potential for given photosensitive
material. What information can we obtain from the value of the intercept on the potential axis? A Source
of light of frequency greater than threshold frequency is placed at a distance of 1 m from the cathode of a
photocell. The stopping potential is found to be V. if the distance of the light source from the cathode is
reduced, explain giving reason, what change will you observe in the (i) photoelectric current (ii) stopping
potential.

11. Light of intensity I and frequency v incident on a photosensitive surface and causes photoelectric emission. What
be the effect on anode current when (i) the intensity of light is gradually increased,
(ii) the frequency of incident radiation is increased, and (iii) the anode potential is increased?
In each case, all other factors remain the same. Explain, giving justification in each case.
12. The following graph shows the variation of stopping potential V0 with the frequency ν of the incident
radiation for two photosensitive metals X and Y:

(i)Which of the metals has larger threshold wavelength? Give reason.

(ii) Explain, giving reason, which metal gives out electrons, having larger kinetic energy, for the same waveleng
the incident radiation.
(iii) If the distance between the light source and metal X is halved, how will the kinetic energy of electrons emit
from it change? Give reason.

13.

14. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having velocities v1 and v2 respectively. F
the ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of the two particles.

Page | 105
15. A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive surface. Answer the following questions giving
reasons:
(a) Do the emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy?
(b) Does the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depend on the intensity of incident radiation?
(c) On what factors does the number of emitted photoelectrons depend?

ANSWERS

1. 2.5 eV. 0.83 eV

2.

3. Hint: Slope of graph = h/√2mq 1/√m

4.

5.

6.

Page | 106
7.

8. (i) Threshold frequency (v0) = 10 × 1014 Hz

(ii) Work function = 4 eV
9. From book
10. From ncert

11.

12.

Page | 107
 13.

14.

15.

(i) Saturation current remains same. Saturation current depends upon intensity of incident radiation.

Page | 108
 (ii) Stopping potential remains same. It depends upon the frequency of incident radiation.

(iii) At constant frequency and accelerating potential, photoelectric current is directly proportional to the
intensity of light.
It is so because photoelectric current is directly proportional to the number of photoelectrons emitted per second.

CH-12 ATOMS

TWO MARKS

1. A single electron orbits around a stationary nucleus of charge +Ze, where Z is a constant and e is the
magnitude of electronic charge. It requires 68.0eV to excite the electron from the second to the third
Bohr orbit. Find the value of Z.
2. Find the relation between the three wavelengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy level diagram shown
below.

3. A 12.75 eV beam of electrons is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Up to which
energy level the hydrogen atoms would be excited. Show all possible transitions by drawing energy
levels.

Page | 109
 4. Write the expression of speed of electron in H- atom in its nth orbit in terms of speed of light “C”. hence
find the ratio of de- Broglie wave length of electron in ground state and 4th excited state.

THREE MARKS

1. The total energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is about –13.6 eV.
(a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron in the first excited state?
(b) What is the potential energy of the electron in this state?
(c) Which of the answers above would change if the choice of the zero of potential energy is changed?
2. (a) Write its expression of distance of closest approach for target nuclei of atomic number Z and kinetic
energy of projected ∝ particle Kα.
(b)What is the important conclusion was drawn from it.
(c) Determine the ratio of distance of closest approach of a proton and an alpha particle incident on a thin gold
foil, if they have same kinetic energy.
3. Find the ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength of radiation emitted by an electron in the ground state of
Bohr’s hydrogen atom.
4. (a)Using postulates of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, show that
(i) the radii of orbits increases as n2, and
(ii) the total energy of the electron increases as 1/n2, where n is the principal quantum number of the atom.
(b) Calculate the wavelength of Hα line in Balmer series of hydrogen atom, given Rydberg’s constant R = 1.0947
× 107 m–1.

ATOM (ANSWERS)
1. Z = 6
2. ans:
Ans

3. Ans: Ground state energy of H-atom is given by -13,6eV.

It will reach at an energy level of energy = - 13.6+12.75= -0.85 eV

This implies that it will excite up to 4th energy level and there are 6 spectral lines.
𝑪
4. (a) V= 𝟏𝟑𝟕𝒏
(b)λ1/ λ5 = 1:5

THREE MARKS

1. (a) first excited state n=2

E2 = –13.6 eV/4 =-3.4 eV
Page | 110
 KE= 3.4 eV
(b) PE = -6.8eV
(c ) potential energy will change but kinetic energy will not change.
2. (a)Distance of closest approach ro =( 2KZe2)/Kα
(b)Size of the nucleus was determined
1
(c) 2

3. Ans:

4. Ans: (i) by using postulates

This implies that

(ii) En =

This implies that En α 1/n2

(b)

CH-13-

NUCLEI

TWO MARKS-
1. A heavy nucleus X of mass number 240 and binding energy per nucleon 7.6 MeV is split into two fragments Y
and Z of mass numbers 110 and 130. The binding energy of nucleons in Y and Z is 8.5 MeV per nucleon.
Calculate the energy Q released per fission in MeV.
2. Draw a plot of potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. Mark the regions
where potential energy is (i) positive and (ii) negative
3. Draw binding energy curve and show the regions from which fusion and fission can be explained.
Page | 111
4. State two characteristics of nuclear force. Why does the binding energy per nucleon decrease with increase in
mass number for heavy nuclei like 235U?
5. How scientists thought off that beside protons, neutrons are also present in an atom.
6. Calculate the height of the potential barrier for a head on collision of two deuterons. (Assume that they can be
taken as hard spheres of radius 2.0 fm.)

THREE MARKS
239 235
1. The fission properties of 94𝑃𝑢 and 92𝑈 are very similar. The average energy released per fission 239
94𝑃𝑢
239
is 180 MeV. How much energy in MeV, is released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure 94𝑃𝑢undergo fission?
2. How is the size of a nucleus experimentally determined? Write the relation between the radius and mass
number of the nucleus. Show that the density of nucleus is independent of its mass number.
3. What are the two clues drawn by Chadwick in his experiments to discover neutron led to him to say that
the neutral radiation emitted was neutrons.

NUCLEI(ANSWERS)
TWO MARKS
1. Ans: 240 × (8.5-7.6) =216MeV
2.

3.

4. Ans: The following are the two characteristics of

nuclear forces:
(i) Nuclear forces are the strongest forces in nature.
(ii) Nuclear forces depend on spin or angular
momentum of nuclei.
B.E. per nucleon decreases with increase in mass
number as electrostatic repulsion increases due to
increase in number of protons and nucleus becomes less stable.
5. Ans: Since the nuclei of deuterium and tritium are isotopes of hydrogen, they must contain only one
proton each. But the masses of the nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are in the ratio of 1:2:3.

Page | 112
 Therefore, the nuclei of deuterium and tritium must contain, in addition to a proton, some neutral matter.
Chadwick named that was neutron.
6. Ans: 360KeV

THREE MARKS
239
1. Ans: The average energy released per fission of 94𝑃𝑢 is 180 MeV and the amount of 239
94𝑃𝑢 is 1 kg. 239 g
23
of P 94 239 u contains 6.023× 10 atoms.
Let N be the number of atoms present in 1 kg of 239 94𝑃𝑢
239
The number of atoms contain by 1 kg of 94𝑃𝑢 is given by,
N= 6.023× 10 23×1000÷ 𝟐𝟑𝟗 = 2.52× 10 24 atoms
Let E t be the total energy released in the fission.
E =E×N
Where, the average energy released per fission of 239 94𝑃𝑢 is E.
By substituting the given values in above equation, we get.
E =180×2.52× 10 24 =4.536× 10 26 MeV
Thus, the energy released by the fission of 1 kgof 23994𝑃𝑢 is 4.536× 10
26 MeV.

2. ANS:

3. Ans: James Chadwick who observed emission of neutral radiation when beryllium nuclei were bombarded
with alpha-particles.
Clue (1) It was found that this neutral radiation could knock out protons from light nuclei such as those of
helium, carbon and nitrogen.
Clue (2) The only neutral radiation known at that time was photons (electromagnetic radiation). Application of
the principles of conservation of energy and momentum showed that if the neutral radiation consisted of
photons, the energy of photons would have to be much higher than is available from the bombardment of
beryllium nuclei with α-particles. These clues to this puzzle, which Chadwick satisfactorily solved, was to
assume that the neutral radiation consists of a new type of neutral particles called neutrons.

Page | 113
 CH-14 SEMICONDUCTORS

2-MARKS-

1. In the following diagram ‘S’ is a semiconductor. Would you increase or

decrease the value of R to keep the reading of the ammeter A constant when
S is heated? Give reason for your answer.
2. Draw energy band diagrams of an n-type and p-type semiconductor at
temperature T > 0 K. Mark the donor and acceptor energy levels with their
energies.

3. In the following diagram, which bulb out of B1 and B2 will glow and why?
4. Distinguish between an intrinsic semiconductor and a p-type semiconductor. Give reason why a p-type
semiconductor crystal is electrically neutral, although nh >> ne.
5. A semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentration of 2×108 / m3 . On doping with a certain
impurity, the hole concentration increases to 4×1010 / m3 . (i) What type of semiconductor is obtained on
doping? (ii) Calculate the new electron and hole concentration of the semiconductor. (iii) How does the
energy gap vary with doping?
6. Explain how the width of depletion layer in a p-n junction diode changes when the junction is (i) forward
biased (ii) reverse biased.
7. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a forward
resistance of 50 Ω and infinite backward resistance. Calculate the current in the
100 Ω resistance.

3 MARKS-
8. If each diode in figure has a forward bias resistance of 25 Ω and infinite resistance in
reverse bias, what will be the values of current I1, I2, I3 and I4?
9. Name the important process that occurs during the formation of a p-n junction.
Explain briefly, with the help of a suitable diagram, how a p-n junction is formed.
Define the term ‘barrier potential’.
10. Draw V – I characteristics of a p–n junction diode. Answer the following questions, giving reasons: (i) Why
is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential up to a critical voltage? (ii) Why
does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?
11. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a half-wave rectifier.
12. State the principle of working of p-n diode as a rectifier. Explain with the help of a circuit diagram, the use of
p-n junction diode as a full wave rectifier. Draw a sketch of the input and output waveforms.

ANSWERS

1. On heating the S, the resistance of semiconductor decreases. So to compensate the value of resistance in the
circuit R is increased.
2.

Page | 114
3. Diode D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased. Thus B1 will glow and B2 will not glow.
4. Intrinsic semiconductor P-type semiconductor
(i) It is a semiconductor in pure form. (i) It is a semiconductor doped with p-type (like Al, In)
impurity.
(ii) Intrinsic charge carriers are electrons (ii) Majority charge carriers are holes and minority charge
carriers are electrons and holes with
equal concentration .
(iii) Current due to charge carriers is feeble (iii) Current due to charge carriers is significant (of the
order of mA). P-type semiconductor is electrically neutral
because every atom, whether it is of pure semiconductor (Ge
or Si) or of impurity (Al) is electrically neutral.
5.

6. (i) Forward biased : Potential drop across the junction decreases and diffusion of holes and electrons across
the junction increases. It makes the width of the depletion layer smaller./
(ii) Reverse biased : Potential drop across the junction increases and diffusion of holes and electrons across
the junction decreases. It makes the width of the depletion layer larger.
7. D1→F.B(forward bias) , D2→R.B(reverse bias)
So D1 can be considered as a resistance of 50 Ω and D2 as open device.

From ohms law

I=V/R =6/300 =0.02 A

8. Let R be the effective resistance of the circuit, then

R=(RAB∣∣REF)+25
RAB=125+25=150Ω;
∴R=150/2+25
=100Ω
Since diode in the branch CD is reverse biased,
I3=0.
Current, I1=5/100
=0.05A

Page | 115
 According to Kirchhoff’s, current rule,
I1=I2+I3+I4
Or I2+I4=I1=0.05A
∵RAB=REF, so, I4=I2
2I4= I1;
I4=I1/2 =0.05/2
=0.025A= I2
9. Two important processes take place during the formation of a p-n Junction:
1. Diffusion
2. Drift
In an n-type semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is more than that of
holes. On the other hand, in a p-type semiconductor, the concentration of holes is
more than that of electrons. When a p-n junction is being formed, holes diffuse
from the p-side to the n-side (p→n) while electrons diffuse from the n-side to the
p-side (n→p). This happens due to the concentration gradient across p and n
sides. This gives rise to a diffusion current across the junction.
When the diffusion starts, the diffusion current is large and the drift current is very small. As diffusion
continues, the space-charge regions on either side of the junction start extending. This strengthens the electric
field and eventually the drift current. The process continues till diffusion current = drift current. This is how a p-n
junction is formed.
A difference of potential develops across the junction of the two regions due to the loss of electrons by the n-
region and the subsequent gain by the p-region. The polarity of the potential opposes the further flow of carriers
to maintain the state of equilibrium. This is the Barrier Potential.
10. (i) In the reverse biasing, the current of order of 𝜇A is due to
movement/drifting of minority charge carriers from one region to another
through the junction. A small applied voltage is sufficient to sweep the minority
charge carriers through the junction. So reverse current is almost independent of
critical voltage.
(ii) At critical voltage enormous covalent bond breaks. As a result large
number charge carrier increases and hence current increases.
11.

Working : During the positive half cycle of the input a.c., the p-n junction is forward biased i.e., the forward
current flows from p to n. In the forward biasing, the diode provides a very low resistance and allows the
current to flow. Thus, we get output across load.
During the negative half cycle of the input a.c., the p-n junction is reversed biased. In the reverse biasing, the
diode provides a high resistance and hence a very small amount of current will flow through the diode which
is of negligible amount. Thus no output is obtained across the load. During the next half cycle, output is
again obtained as the junction diode gets forward biased. Thus, a half wave rectifier gives discontinuous and
pulsating d.c. output across the load resistance.

Page | 116
 The waveform for input and output voltage is shown below :

12.

Suppose the input voltage at A with respect to the centre tap at any instant is positive. It is clear that, at that
instant, voltage at B being out of phase will be negative. So, diode D1 gets forward biased and conducts
(while D2 being reversed biased is not conducting). Hence, during this positive half cycle we get an output
current (and a output voltage across the load resistor RL ). In the course of the ac cycle when the voltage at A
becomes negative with respect to centre tap, the voltage at B would be positive. In this part of the diode D1
would not conduct but diode D2 would, giving an output current and output voltage (across RL ) during the
negative half cycle of the input ac. Thus, we get output voltage during both the positive as well as negative
half cycle.

Page | 117
 SAMPLE PAPER 1

XII PHYSICS THEORY(042)

SECTION – A

1. An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 × 10-2T. If
the value of e/m is 1.76 x 10¹¹C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the electronis

(a) 62.8 MHz (c) 1 GHz (b) 6.28 MHz (d) 100 MHz

2. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is – 4.2 × 10-6. Name the type of magnetic materials it represents.

(a) diamagnetic material only (b) paramagnetic material only

(c) ferromagnetic material only (d) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials

3. The r.m.s. voltage of the wave form shown is

(a) 10 V (b)7 V (c) 6.37 V (d) 12 V

4. One requires 11eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide

molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms. The minimum
frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic radiation to achieve
the dissociation lies in

(a) visible region. (b) infrared region.

(c) ultraviolet region. (d) microwave region.

5. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the
objective and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are

(a) 18cm,2cm (b)11cm,9cm (c) 10cm,10cm (d)15cm,5cm

6. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the source is white light. One of the holes is covered by a red filter and
another by a blue filter. In this case

(a) there shall be alternate interference patterns of red and blue.

(b) there shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for blue

(c) there shall be no interference fringes.

(d) there shall be an interference pattern for red mixing with one for blue.

7. The diagram shows the electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) components of an electromagnetic wave at a
certain time and location.The direction of the propagation of the
electromagnetic wave is

(a) perpendicular to E and B and out of plane of the paper

(b) perpendicular to E and B and into the plane of the paper

Page | 118
(c) parallel and in the same direction as E

(d) parallel and in the same direction as B

8. Consider the diffraction pattern for a small pinhole. As the size of the hole is increased

(a) the size decreases. (b) the intensity increases.

(c) the size increases. (d) the intensity decreases.

9. A proton and α-particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their de-Broglie
wavelength will be

(a) 1:1 (b)1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 2√2:1

125
10. If radius of the 27
13Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi then the radius 52Te nucleus be nearly

(a) 8fermi (b)6fermi (c) 5fermi (d) 4fermi

11. The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.3 grams. The amount of energy liberated in kilowatt
hours is

(a) 1.5x106 (b) 2.5x106 (c) 3x106 (d) 7.5x106

12. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series combination of a resistor R

and an ideal diode D as shown in the figure.

The potential difference across R will be

(a) 2V when diode is forward biased (b) zero when diode is forward

(c) V when diode is reverse biased (d)V when diode is forward biased

For Questions 13 to 16, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

13. Assertion (A):When a convex lens (ng=3/2) of focal length f is dipped in water (nw=4/3), its
focal length becomes 4f.

Reason (R) :The focal length of convex lens is always half of its radius of curvature.

14. Assertion (A): Interference pattern is made by using yellow light instead of red light, the fringes becomes
narrower.

Page | 119
Reason (R) :In YDSE, fringe width is given by β=λD/d

15. Assertion (A): Consider two identical charges placed distance 2d

apart, along x-axis.The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed at the
point O midway between them is stable for displacements along the x-
axis.

Reason (R) :Force on test charge is zero.

16. Assertion (A): Thin film such as soap bubble or a thin layer of oil on water show beautiful colours when
illuminated by white light.

Reason (R) :It happens due to the interference of light reflected from upper and lower face of the thin film.

SECTION – B

17. Show that the force on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has a magnitude equal to (½) QE, where Q is
the charge on the capacitor, and E is the magnitude of electric field between the plates. Explain the origin of
the factor ½.

18. Draw a plot of α-particle scattering by a thin foil of gold to show the variation of the number of scattered
particles with scattering angle. Write two important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of
nuclear forces.

19. (i) Depict the equipotential surfaces for a system of two identical positive point charges placed a distance d
apart. (ii) Derive the general relation between electric field and potential?

20. Calculate the angle of emergence (e) of the ray of light incident
normally on the face AC of a glass prism ABC of refractive index √3. How
will the angle of emergence change qualitatively, if the ray of light emerges
from the prism into a liquid of refractive index 1.3 instead of air?

21. When an alternating voltage of 220 V is applied across a device X, a

current of 0.5 A flows through the circuit and is in phase with the applied
voltage. When the same voltage is applied across another device Y, the same current again flows through the
circuit but it leads the applied voltage by 𝜋/2 radian.

(a) Name the devices X and Y.

(b) Calculate the impedance of the circuit when same voltage is applied across the series combination of X and Y.

Page | 120
OR

The graphs (i) and (ii) represent the variation of the opposition offered by the
circuit element to the flow of alternating current with frequency of the
applied emf. Identify the circuit element and write the expression for current
corresponding to each graph.

SECTION – C

22. Draw V-I Characteristics of a p-n junction diode. Answer the following questions, giving reasons

(i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential upto a critical voltage?

(ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?

23. The given figure shows a long straight wire of a circular

cross-section (radius a) carrying steady current I. The current I is
uniformly distributed across this cross section. Calculate the
magnetic field in the region r < a and r > a.Draw the variation of
magnetic field (B) vs r graph.

24. Two cells of e.m.f1.5V and 2V and internal resistances

1ohm and

2ohm respectively are connected in parallel so as to send current in the same direction through an external resistance of
5ohm.

(i) Draw the circuit diagram.

(ii) Using Kirchhoff's laws calculate (a)Current through each branch of the circuit (b) Potential difference
across the 5ohm resistance.

25. Define relaxation time of the free electrons drifting in a conductor. How is it related to the drift velocity of
free electrons? Use this relation to deduce the expression for the electrical resistivity of the material.

26. How will the interference pattern in Young’s double slit experiment gets affected when the entire set up is
immersed in water. The intensity at the central maxima in Young’s double slit experimental setup is I0.Show
that the intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/3,is I0/4

27. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about –3.4 eV.

(a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state?

(b) What is the potential energy of the electron in this state?

(c) Which of the answers above would change if the choice of the zero of potential energy is changed?

OR

A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to separate all the neutrons and
protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is entirely made of 63
29Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u). Given
mp=1.007825u and mn = 1.008665u.

Page | 121
 28. Draw a circuit diagram of a full-wave rectifier. Explain its working and draw input and output waveforms.

SECTION – D

Case Study Based Questions

29. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

When a high frequency electromagnetic radiation is incident on a metallic surface, electrons are emitted from the surface.
Energy of emitted photoelectrons depends only on the frequency of incident electromagnetic radiation and the number of
emitted electrons depends only on the intensity of incident light.

Einstein's photoelectric equation [𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎ𝑣 − 𝜑] correctly explains the PE, where

v= frequency of incident light and 𝜑=work function.

(i) The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when the light incident on the metal has wavelength λ. To
double the kinetic energy, the incident light must have wavelength:
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 λ ℎλ ℎ𝑐 λ
(a)𝐸λ−hc (b)𝐸λ+hc (c)𝐸λ+hc (c)𝐸λ−hc

(ii) The maximum kinetic energy (Emax ) of photoelectrons emitted in a photoelectric cell varies with
frequency (v) as shown in the graph. The slope of the graph is equal to

(a) charge of the electron (b)e/m of the electron

(c) work function of the emitter (d) Plank's constant

(iii) In a photoelectric effect experiment, for radiation with frequency v0 with hv0 = 8eV, electrons
are emitted with energy 2eV. What is the energy of the electrons emitted for incoming radiation of frequency 1.25 v0 ?

(a) leV (b) 3.25 eV (c) 4eV (d) 9.25 eV

OR

Radiations of two photon's energy, twice and ten times the work function of metal are incident on the metal surface
successively. The ratio of maximum velocities of photoelectrons emitted in two cases is

(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:1

(iv) For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off frequency is v. If radiation of frequency 2v impinges on the
metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass)

(a) √ℎ𝑣/𝑚 (b)√2ℎ𝑣/𝑚 (c) 2√ℎ𝑣/𝑚 (d) √ℎ𝑣/2𝑚

30. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

A rectangular loop carrying a steady current I and placed in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque. It does not
experience a net force.In a uniform magnetic field, torque is given by

𝜏=𝑚 ⃗
⃗⃗ × 𝐵

If the loop has N closely wound turns, the expression for torque, still holds, with m=NIA

Page | 122
 (i) A rigid circular loop has a radius of 0.20 m and is in the x-y plane. A clockwise current I is carried by the
loop, as shown. The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the loop is 0.75 A-m². A uniform external
magnetic field, B=0.20T in the positive x-direction, is present

The magnitude of the magnetic torque exerted on the loop

(a) 0.15 Nm (b) 0.30 Nm (c) 0.45 Nm (c) 0.60 Nm

(ii) In figure, an external torque changes the orientation of loop from one of lowest
potential energy to one of highest potential energy. Find the work done by the external
torque.

(a) 0.3 J (b) 0.6J (c) 0.9J (d) 1.2J

(iii) Current I is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns is N, then find the magnetic moment of the coil.

(a) NIA2 (b) NIA3 (c) NIA4 (d) NIA

OR

A circular loop of area 0.02 m² carrying a current of 10A, is held with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field induction
0.2 T. Calculate the torque acting on the loop is.

(a) 0.02 Nm (b) 0.04 Nm (c) 0.08 Nm (d) 0.12 Nm

(iv) If m is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic field, then the torque is given by

(a) 𝑚 ⃗
⃗⃗ . 𝐵 (b) 𝑚 ⃗
⃗⃗ /𝐵 (c) 𝑚 ⃗
⃗⃗ × 𝐵 (d) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗|
|𝑚|. |𝐵

SECTION – D

31. (i) Use Gauss’ law to derive the expression for the electric field (E) due to a straight uniformly charged
infinite line of charge density λ C/m. Draw a graph to show the variation of E with perpendicular distance r
from the line of charge.

(ii) What will be the total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge q is placed at

(a) A: a corner of the cube.

(b) B: mid-point of an edge of the cube.

(c) C: centre of a face of the cube.

(d) D: mid-point of B and C.

OR

Page | 123
(i)A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V by a battery. Q is the charge stored on the
capacitor. Without disconnecting the battery, the plates of the capacitor are pulled apart to a larger distance of separation.
What changes will occur in each of the following quantities? Give an explanation in each case.

(a) Capacitance (b) Charge (c) Potential difference

(ii)Find the charge on the capacitor as Shown in the circuit.

32. (i) State Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction and explain the energy
conservation in Lenz law.

(ii) The given figure shows an inductor L and resistor R connected in parallel to
a battery B through a switch S. the resistance of R is same as that of the coil that
makes L. Two identical bulbs P and Q are put in arm of the circuit as shown in
the figure. When S is closed, which of the two bulbs will light up earlier?
Justify your answer.

OR

(i) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long coaxial solenoids. State the factors on which
mutual inductance depends.

(ii) The given figure shows an arrangement by which current flows through the bulb (X) connected with coil B,
when a.c. is passed through coil A.

Explain the following observations:

(a) Bulb gets dimmer if the coil 'B' is moved upwards.

(b) If a copper sheet is inserted in the gap between the coils how the
brightness of the bulb would change?

33. (i) Using the relation for refraction at a single spherical refracting surface, derive the lens maker’s formula.

(ii)Three lenses of focal lengths +10 cm, –10 cm and +30 cm are arranged

coaxially as in the figureFind the position of the final image formed by the combination.

OR

(i) Draw a 1abeled ray diagram of compound microscope, when final image forms at the least distance of
distinct vision. Derive an expression for magnifying power of compound microscope.
Page | 124
 (ii) A compound microscope has an eye piece of focal length 10 cm and an objective of focal length 4 cm.
Calculate the magnification, if an object is kept at a distance of 5 cm from the objective so that final
image is formed at the least distance vision (20 cm).

SAMPLE PAPER 2

XII PHYSICS THEORY (042)

SECTION A

1. An infinite non-conducting sheet has a surface charge density  = 0.10 C/m2 on one side. How
far apart are equipotential surfaces whose potentials differ by 50 V?

(i) 8.85 m (ii) 8.85 cm

(iii)8.85 mm (iv)88.5 mm

2. An arc of radius r carries charge. The linear density of charge is  and the arc subtends a angle

3 at the centre. What is electric potential at the centre

 
4 0 8 0
(i) (ii)

 
12 0 16 0
(iii) (iv)

3. A potential divider is used to give outputs of 4 V and 8 V from a 12 V source. Which combination
of resistances, (R1, R2, R3) gives the correct voltages? R1 : R2 : R3

+12V R3
+8V
(i) 2:1:2 R2
+4V
(ii) 1:1:1 R1
0 Volt

(iii)2 : 2 : 1

(iv)1 : 1 : 2

4. Which of the following has low value in Ferrites?

(i) Conductivity

(ii) Magnetic Susceptibility

(iii)Permeability
Page | 125
 (iv) All the above

5. Two conductors are made of the same material and have the same length. Conductor A is a solid
wire of diameter 1.0 mm. Conductor B is a hollow tube of outside diameter 2.0 mm and inside
diameter 1.0 mm. The resistance ratio RA/RB will be

(i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii)3 (iv)4

6. The square loop ABCD, carrying a current i, is placed in uniform magnetic field B, as shown. The
loop can rotate about the axis XX'. The plane of the loop makes and angle  ( < 90°) with the
direction of B. Through what angle will the loop rotate by itself before the torque on it becomes
zero
X C B
 Z
B

(i)  D
A X

(ii) 90°– 

(iii)90° + 

(iv)180°– 

7. If the momentum of an electron is changed by p, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with
it changes by 0.50%. The initial momentum of the electron will be
p p
(i) 200 (ii) 199

(iii) 199 p (iv)400 p

8. If light of wavelength 1 is allowed to fall on a metal, then kinetic energy of photoelectrons

emitted is E1 . If wavelength of light changes to 2 then kinetic energy of electrons changes to E2
.
Then work function of the metal is

E1 E2 (1 − 2 ) E11 − E2 2
12 (1 − 2 )
(i) (ii)

E1 1 − E 2 2 12 E1 E2
(2 − 1 )
(iii) (iv) (2 − 1 )

9. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the phase difference between the light

waves reaching the third bright fringe from the central fringe S1 will be (λ=6000
Å)
S2

i. Zero P
Screen
Slit
ii. 2π

iii. 4π

Page | 126
 iv. 6π

10. U 2 38 decaysinto Th 234 by the emission of an  − particle. There follows a chain of further
radioactive decays, either by  − decay or by  - decay. Eventually a stable nuclide is reached and
after that, no further radioactive decay is possible. Which of the following stable nuclides is the
and product of the U 2 38 radioactive decay chain

i. Pb 206

ii. Pb 207

iii. Pb 208

iv. Pb 209

11. Three lenses L1, L2, L3 are placed co-axially as shown in figure. Focal length's of lenses are given
30 cm, 10 cm and 5 cm respectively. If a parallel beam of light falling on lens L1, emerging L3 as a
convergent beam such that it converges at the focus of L3. Distance between L1 and L2 will be

(i) 40 cm L1 L2 L3

(ii) 30 cm

(iii)20 cm

(iv)10 cm d

12. When a silicon PN junction is in forward biased condition with series resistance, it has knee
voltage of 0.6 V. Current flow in it is 5 mA, when PN junction is connected with 2.6V battery, the
value of series resistance is

(i) 100  (ii) 200 

(iii)400  (iv)500 

Given two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) in question

from 13 to 16

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)A is true but R is false.

(iv) A is false and R is also false.

Page | 127
 13. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work function is small.
Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold frequency.

14. Assertion The 200-watt bulb glow with more brightness than 100 watt bulb.

Reason 100-watt bulb has more resistance than a 200 watt bulb.

15. Assertion : If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens, the lens must be concave.
Reason : The convex lens always give converging rays.

16. Assertion : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the p-side to the n-side.
Reason : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when the
junction is in forward biased.

SECTION B

17. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the second excited state to the ground state, how
would the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron change? Justify your answer.

18. Write two possible causes of energy loss in a transformer? How are these minimised?

OR

Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy stored in an ideal inductor of self-inductance L when a current I
pass through it.

19. Plot the graphs of the energy of a capacitor varying with its capacitance when (a) charge is
constant, and (b) potential difference is constant

20. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12H ,C = 480nF & R = 23𝛀 is connected to a 230V variable
frequency supply

(i) What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum? Obtain this maximum
value.

(ii) What is the source frequency for which average power absorbed by the circuit is maximum?
Obtain the value of maximum power.

21. (i) Draw a graph to show the variation of intensity distribution of fringes with phase angle due to
the diffraction due to the single slit.

(ii) What should be the width of each slit to obtain n maxima of double slit pattern within the central maxima of
single slit pattern?

SECTION C

22. Derive the expression for force per unit length between two long straight parallel current
carrying conductors. Hence define one ampere.

Page | 128
 ⃗ . Show that the torque on the
23. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform external electric field𝑬
⃗ = 𝑷
dipole is given by 𝜻 ⃗⃗ × 𝑬
⃗ , where 𝑷
⃗⃗ is the dipole moment of the dipole. What is the net force
experienced by the dipole?

24. X and Y are two parallel plate capacitors having same plate area and same separation between
the plates are connected in series with a potential difference of 12V. X has air between the plates
and Y contains a dielectric medium of 𝜺𝒓 = 4.

(i) Calculate the capacitance of each capacitor if equivalent capacitance of the combination is 4𝝁F.

(ii) What is the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and Y?

25. The figure shows an inductor L & a resistor R connected in parallel to a battery through a
switch. The resistance of R is same as that of the coil that makes L. Two identical bulbs are put in
each arm of the circuit

(i) Which of the two bulbs will light up bright when the switch is closed?

(ii) Will the two bulbs be equally bright after some time?

Give reason for your answer

OR

The figure given below shows an arrangement by which current flows through the bulb X connected with coil B,
when a.c is passed through coil A.

Explain the following observations

a) Bulb lights up

b) Bulb gets dimmer if coil ‘B’ is moved upwards

c) If a copper sheet is inserted in the gap between the coils, how the brightness of the bulb will change?

26.

Page | 129
 (a) Using Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum show that the
circumference of the electron in the n th orbital state in hydrogen atom is n times the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it.

(b) The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the maximum number of
spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves to the ground state?

27. A proton & an 𝜶 particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Determine the ratio of (i) their
accelerating potentials (ii) their speeds

28. Trace the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism (ABC) as shown in the figure. If the
refractive of glass is√𝟑, find out the value of the angle of emergence from the prism.

SECTION D

29. CASE STUDY

GAUSSIAN SURFACE

(i) The Gaussian surface is an arbitrarily closed surface in three-dimensional space that is used to
determine the flux of vector fields. A magnetic field, gravitational field, or electric field could be
referred to as their vector field. In the examples below, an electric field is typically treated as a
vector field.
𝒒
(ii) The electric flux through a cubical Gaussian surface enclosing a net charge q is ∈ , what is the
𝟎
electric flux through one face of the cube?
𝒒 𝟒𝒒 𝒒 𝒒
𝒂) b) 𝟔∈ c) 𝒅)
𝟔∈𝟎 𝟎 ∈𝟎 𝟐∈𝟎

(iii) Write the dimensional formula for electric flux.

𝒂) [M𝑳𝟑 𝑻−𝟑 𝑨𝟏 ] b) [M𝑳𝟑 𝑻𝟑 𝑨−𝟏 ]

c) [M𝑳𝟑 𝑻−𝟑 𝑨−𝟏 ] 𝒅) [M𝑳−𝟑 𝑻−𝟑 𝑨−𝟏 ]

OR

SI unit of electric flux is _______.

𝑽
𝒂) 𝒎 b)Vm c) 𝑵𝒎 𝒅) 𝑵𝑪/𝒎

(iv) What is the electric flux of a flat square having an area of 10m2 placed in a uniform electric field of
8000N/C passing perpendicular to it?

Page | 130
 𝑵𝒎𝟐
a) 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑪

𝑵𝒎𝟐
b) 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑪

𝑵𝒎𝟐
c) 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑪

d) 𝟖 × 𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑵𝒎𝟐 /𝑪

(v) If the electric flux entering & leaving an enclosed surface respectively is respectively is 𝝋𝟏 &𝝋𝟐 .
What will be the electric charge inside the surface?
𝝋
a. 𝝐𝟎 (𝝋𝟏 + 𝝋𝟐 ) 𝐛. 𝝐𝟎 (𝝋𝟏 . 𝝋𝟐 ) 𝒄. 𝝐𝟎 (𝝋𝟏 ) 𝒅. 𝝐𝟎 (𝝋𝟏 − 𝝋𝟐 )
𝟐

30. CASE STUDY

ASTRONOMICAL TELESCOPE

An astronomical telescope is an instrument that works on the principle of optics used to view the enlarged image of
heavenly bodies like stars and galaxies. The end image formed by an astronomical telescope is always virtual,
inverted, and magnified. It was used for both terrestrial applications & astronomy. We are able to see the object
‘bigger using a telescope because the image of the object formed by the telescope subtends a larger visual angle at
our eye.

(i) What is the length of the telescope in normal

adjustment?

a) Fo/fe b) fe/fo c) fe+fo d) 1+ D/fo

OR

You are provided with four lenses of focal length 3 cm,10 cm , 20cm & 100 cm, Which two would you prefer for a
telescope?

a) 3 cm,100 cm

b) 3cm, 10 cm

c) 20 cm,100 cm

d) 10cm , 20 cm

(ii) If an astronomical telescope having magnifying power of 5 in normal adjustment consist of two
lenses 24 cm apart, what is the focal length of eye lens?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 c) 2

(iii) Which type of mirror/lens is used in objective of reflecting type telescope?

Page | 131
a) convex mirror b) concave mirror c) convex lens d) concave lens

(iv) The radius of curvature of a reflecting telescope is 100cm, & focal length of eyepiece is 1cm, what is
its magnifying power?

a)100 b) 50 c)25 d) 5

SECTION E

31. a) A plane wavefront in a medium of refractive index n1 is incident on a plane surface making an
angle of incidence ‘i’ as shown. It enters into a medium of refractive index n2 (n2 >n1). Use
Huygens construction of secondary wavelets to trace the propagation of refracted wavefront.
Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction.

b) What is the shape of wavefront on earth for sunlight?

OR

a) What is diffraction of light? Draw a graph showing the variation of intensity with angle in a single slit
diffraction experiment. Write one feature which distinguishes the observed pattern from the double
slit interference pattern.

b) How would the diffraction of a single slit be affected when

(i) The width of the slit is decreased.

(ii) The monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light.

32. a) Explain with a suitable diagram the two processes which occur during the formation of a p-n
junction diode. Hence define the terms (i) depletion region & (ii) potential barrier.

b) Draw a circuit diagram of a p-n junction diode under forward bias & explain the working.

OR

a) Distinguish between conductors, insulators & in terms of energy band diagrams. Draw the diagrams

Why do we get a small currents (𝝁𝑨) through a p-n junction diode under reverse biased condition? In which
direction does this current flow through this direction?

33. (a) Obtain the expression for the average power dissipated in a series LCR circuit driven by an a.c
source of voltage 𝑽 = 𝑽𝒎 𝐬𝐢𝐧 (𝝎𝒕) supplying a current 𝒊 = 𝒊𝒎 𝐬𝐢𝐧 ( 𝝎𝒕-𝝋)

(b) The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c. circuit are given by i = 10 sin 314 t A and v = 50 sin 314 t V.
What is the power dissipation in the circuit?
Page | 132
OR

a. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source. Using the phasor diagram, derive the expression
for the impedance of the circuit and phase difference between current and voltage.

b. Plot a graph to show the variation of current with frequency of the ac source, explaining the nature of
its variation for two different resistances R1 and R2 (R1< R2) at resonance

SAMPLE PAPER 3
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70

SECTION A

1. What is the angle between electric field and equipotential surface? (i)900always
(ii) 00 always (iii) 00 𝑡𝑜 900 (iv) 00 𝑡𝑜 1800
2. Two point charges A and B having charges +𝒒 and −𝒒 respectively, are placed at certain distance apart
and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges
becomes: [1]
(i) F (ii) 𝟗𝑭 (ii) 𝟏𝟔𝑭 (iii) 𝟒𝑭
𝟑 𝟑
𝟏𝟔

3. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across an external resistor R. The graph showing
variation of P.D. across R versus R is:

a b c d
(i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d
4. The capacitance of a capacitor becomes 7 times its original value if a dielectric slab of thickness 𝑡 =
6

2
𝑑 is introduced in between plates, where d is the separation between the plates. The dielectric
3
Page | 133
 11
constant of the slab is : (i) 14
(ii)
14
11

(iii) 7 (iv) 11
11 7

5. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should have

(i)High relative permeability & High susceptibility
(ii) High relative permeability & Low susceptibility
(iii) Low relative permeability & High susceptibility
(iv) Low relative permeability & Low susceptibility
6. An ammeter reads up to 1A. Its internal resistance is 0.81Ω. To increase the range to 10A, the value of
the required shunt is :
(i) 0.03Ω (ii)0.3Ω (iii) 0.9Ω (iv) 0.09Ω
7. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10V each. If the
capacitance is short circuited the voltage across the inductance will be:
(i)10V (ii)10√2 (iii) 10⁄ (iv) 20V
√2
8. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. Electricfield is induced: [1]
(i) in AB, but not in BD
(ii) in BD, but not in AB
(iii) neither in AC nor in BD
(iv) in both AC and CD

Page | 134
 9. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in free
space along x- direction. The electric field component of the wave
at a particular point of space and time is 𝐸 = 6 𝑉𝑚−1 along y-
direction. Its magnetic field component B at this point would be:
(i) 2 × 10−8 𝑇 along z-direction (ii) 6 × 10−8 𝑇 along x-direction
(iii) 2 × 10−8 𝑇 along y-direction (iv) 6 × 10−8 𝑇 along z-direction

10. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is:

(i) virtual, erect and magnified (ii) real, erect and magnified
(iii) real, inverted and magnified (iv) virtual, erect and reduced
11. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment with slit width of 0.6
mm. If yellow light is replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will reveal:
(i) that the central maximum is narrower. (ii) more number of fringes.
(iii) less number of fringes (iv) no diffraction pattern
12. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a
distance ‘u’ from the lens and measuring the distance ‘v’ of the image pin. The
graph between ‘u’ and ‘v’ plotted by the student should look like:

(
i
)
(ii)

(iii) (iv)

Page | 135
 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false
13. Assertion (A):An electric bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on.
Reason(R) :Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large.
14. Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason (R) : The number of photoelectron is proportional to the frequency of light.
15. Assertion (A):The displacement current satisfies the property of continuity.
Reason (R): The sum of displacement and conduction currents remains constant along a
closed path.
16. Assertion: Energy is released in nuclear fission as well as nuclear fusion.
Reason : In both processes the total binding energy of daughter nuclei is larger
than the total binding energy of parent nucleus.
SECTION B
17. Derive the expression for the torque acting on a magnetic dipole placed in a uniform
magnetic field.
OR
What is Curies law of magnetism? Why diamagnetic materials do not affected by
temperature?
18. A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz
ac supply. Find the maximum current in the coil?
19. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism such that the angle of incidence is
equal to angle
emergence and each of these angles is equal to 𝟑 of angle of prism. What is the value of angle of
𝟒
deviation?
20. The energy levels of an atom are given below in the diagram. Which of
the transitions belongs to Lyman and Balmer series ? Calculate the ratio
of shortest wavelengths of the Lyman and the Balmer series of the
spectra. [2]

Page | 136
 21. Explain how the width of the depletion layer in a p-n junction diode changes when
the junction is
(i) forward biased (ii) reverse biased.

SECTION C

22. Two capacitors of capacitance 10 𝜇𝐹 and 20𝜇𝐹 are connected in series with a 6V
battery. After the capacitors are fully charged, a slab of dielectric constant(K) is
inserted between the plates of the two capacitors. How will the following be
affected after the slab is introduced?
(a) the charges on the two capacitors
(b) the electric filed energy stored in the capacitors
(c) the potential difference between the
plates of the capacitors Justify your
answer.
23. Derive the expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms of its material parameters.
OR

Using Kirchhoff's laws obtain the relation between the resistances of a balanced
Wheatstone bridge.
24. (i)A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a single
slit of width 0.2 mm to produce a diffraction pattern. Find the angular width of the
central maximum obtained on the screen. (ii)Estimate the number of fringes
obtained in Young's double slit experiment with slit separation 0.5mm, which can
be accommodated within the region of total angular spread of the central maximum
due to single slit.
25. Define the terms (i) cut-off voltage (ii) threshold frequency in relation to the
phenomenon of photoelectric effect. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation
show how the cut-off voltage and threshold frequency for a given photosensitive
material can be determined with the help of a suitable graph.
OR
(a) Define the term intensity of radiation in photon picture.
(b) Plot a graph showing the variation of photo current vs collector potential for three different
intensities
𝑰𝟏 > 𝑰𝟐 > 𝑰𝟑 , two of which (I1 and I2) have the same frequency 1 = 2 = ν and the third has
frequency 1>v.

Page | 137
 (c) Explain the nature of the curves on the basis of Einstein's equation.
26. Obtain the binding energy of a nitrogen nucleus 7 (14𝑁) from the
following data in MeV. Given 𝑚𝐻 = 1.00783 𝑢 , 𝑚𝑛 = 1.00867 𝑢
, 𝑚𝑁 = 14.00307 𝑢
27. (a) A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of
focal length 15m. If an eyepiece of focal length 1.0cm is used, what is the
angular magnification of the telescope?
(b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of
the moon formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 106m,
and the radius of lunar orbit is 3.8 × 108m.
28. (a) What is the wavelength of light waves if their frequency is 5.0×1014 Hz?
(b) How does oscillating charge produce electromagnetic waves?
(c) Sketch a schematic diagram depicting oscillating electric and magnetic
fields of an em wave propagating along + z. direction.

SECTION D

29. Case Study: Total Internal Reflection

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

If light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, then at the interface,
the light is partly reflected back into the denser medium and partly refracted to the rarer
medium. This reflection is called internal reflection. As the angle of incidence i
increases, the angle of refraction r also increases. At a certain value of i, the angle of
refraction becomes 90°. This angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the
angle of refraction in the rarer medium is 90° is called the critical angle of the denser
medium (ic). If i is increased beyond ic, no refraction is possible, and the incident ray is
totally reflected. This phenomenon is known as total internal reflection. Multiple internal
reflections in diamond (ic =24.4°), totally reflecting prisms and mirage, are some
examples of total internal reflection. Optical fibres consist of glass fibres coated with a
thin layer of material of lower refractive index. Light incident at an angle at one end
comes out at the other, after multiple internal reflections, even if the fibre is bent.
(i) If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum
is 30, the velocity of light in the medium is
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 1.5 × 108 m/s (c) 0.5 × 108 m/s (d) 0.2 × 108 m/s
(ii) The phenomena involved in the reflection of radio waves by ionosphere is similar
to
(a) reflection of light by plane mirror
(b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
(c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow
(d) scattering of light by the particles of air
(iii) The bending of light in U-shape and the formation of Mirage is due to the
phenomenon of
(a) refraction of light only (b) total internal reflection of light only
(c) refraction and total internal reflection of light (d) dispersion of light only

Page | 138
 (iv) A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed
in wate
r ( µ = 4/3 ) . A light beam incident normally on the face AB is
totally reflected to reach on the face BC if
8
(a) Sin 𝜃 ≥
9
8
(b) 2 < sin θ <
3 9
8
(c) sin θ ≤
9
2
(d) sin θ ≤
3
30. Magnet in a wire loop A wire in the form of a loop in connected to a sensitive
current meter or galvanometer as shown in above figure. When a bar magnet is
pushed through the loop , the needle in the galvanometer will move , indicating an
induced current . However we stop the motion of the bar magnet, the current
returns to zero. The field from the magnet will only induce a current when it is
increasing or decreasing.

(i) Due to which phenomenon, the current is induced in the wire loop ,
when a bar magnet is pushed through the loop.
a. Electromagnetic induction b. Magnetic effect of current
c.
Electrostatic shielding d. Biot savart’s law
(ii) The total no. of magnetic lines of force crossing the surface of wire loop normally
is called
a. Magnetic field b. Magnetic flux c.
Induced current d. Magnetic lines
(iii) If we pull the bar magnet back out from the wire loop , the needle of galvanometer
deflects in
a. Same direction b. Opposite direction c.
Remains constant d. Needle points at zero
(iv) If the bar magnet remains stationary inside the wire loop, then
a. Current flows through galvanometer
Page | 139
 b. No current flows through galvanometer
c. Galvanometer shows out of deflection
d. Bar magnet will be charged
31. (a) State Gauss’s theorem in electrostatics. Using this theorem, derive an expression
for the electric field intensity due to an infinitely long, straight wire of linear charge
density λ C/m.
(b) Two parallel uniformly charged infinite plane sheets, ‘1’ and ‘2’, have
charge densities +𝜎 and −2𝜎 respectively. Give the magnitude and direction of the net
electric field at a point (i) in between the two sheets and (ii) outside and near the sheet
‘1’.
OR
(a) Deduce an expression for the electric field at a
point on the equatorial plane of an electric dipole of
length 2a.
(b) Two small identical electrical dipoles AB and CD,
each of dipole moment ‘p’ are kept at an angle of 1200
as shown in the figure. What is the resultant dipole
moment of this combination? If this system is subjected
to electric field ( 𝐸 ) directed along +𝑋 direction, what
will be the magnitude and direction of the torque acting
on this?
32. (a) Use Biot-Savart law to derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a
circular coil of radius R having N turns at a point on the axis at a distance 'x' from its
centre.
(b) Two identical coils P and Q each of radius ‘R’ are lying in perpendicular planes
such that they have a common centre. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic
field at the common centre of the two coils, if they carry currents equals to 𝐼 and √3 𝐼
respectively.
OR
(a)With the help of a diagram, explain the principle and working of a moving coil
galvanometer.
(b) A voltmeter of a certain range is constructed by connecting a resistance of 𝟗𝟖𝟎 𝛀 in series
with a galvanometer. When the resistance of 𝟒𝟕𝟎 𝛀 is connected in series after
removing 980 Ω , the range get halved. Find the resistance of the galvanometer.

33. (a) Draw the energy band diagrams for the conductor and intrinsic
semiconductor. Write any two distinguishing features between them on the basis
of energy band diagrams.
(b)The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5×1028. This is doped simultaneously with 5×1022
atoms
per m3 of arsenic and 5×1020 per m3 atoms of indium. Calculate the number of
electrons
and h
oles. Given that ni=1.5×1016 /m3.

Page | 140
 OR
(a) State and explain the processes
involved in the formation of p-n junction
mentioning how the depletion layer is
formed.
(b) If each diode in figure has a forward
bias resistance of 25Ω and infinite
resistance in reverse bias, what will be
the values of current I1, I2, I3 and I4 ?

Common Mistakes To Be Avoided:

1. Not keeping a check on the answer word limit

The answers should be in accordance with the marks allotted. For example, a question of 2
marks should not be answered in a whole page. Students should stick to the important
points to gain full marks in the question. This will also help to have sufficient time to
complete the paper.

2. Skipping the formula

Sometimes, even good students forget to write down the formula when working on
numerical. Students should note that few marks are allotted for the formula and this will
result in not scoring the full mark for the numerical.

3. Confusion in numerator and denominator

Students should learn the formula thoroughly to avoid confusion in the examination. Often
students get confused and flip the numerator and denominator in the formulae. This
results in the entire numerical to be incorrect and no marks are awarded for the answer.

4. Error in parallel resistors/ capacitance/focal length Formula

A common mistake students make in the formula of parallel resistors and focal lengths i.e
in taking the reciprocal.

5. Diagram labelling

For diagram questions, it is a must that students label the diagram. To make the paper
more presentable, students should mark these labels in a pencil or with a colour pen.

6. 1 mark questions that ask for “Yes” or “No” answers should be written along with
its reason to achieve full marks in this question. ½ mark is allotted for each part.

7. Missing out parts of question

In most of the questions have parts in it. Each part is allotted a specific mark and often
students overlook these small parts asked and results in losing marks in the question either
½ a mark or 3 marks for the same.

Page | 141
 8. Writing wrong question number

Students should avoid making question mistakes for the answer they are writing. Marks
will not be allotted for incorrect question numbers.

9. Duplicity

When a student wants to rewrite a certain question that has already been answered, they
MUST make sure that the incorrect answer is struck out. If a student fails to strike out the
incorrect answer, as per the CBSE guidelines, the examiner will take the first attempt as
the answer to the question and ignore the second.

10. Skipping the units of physical quantities

11. Signs conventions error

Signs conventions need to be taken care of especially while solving questions of optics. Also
use mirror formula, 1/v + 1/u = 1/f and lens formula 1/v – 1/u = 1/f properly. You can
remember these formulas M of mirror for maximum hence it has positive while L of lens
for lowest hence it has negative sign.

Page | 142
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
PHYSICS
Subject Code – 042
CLASS – XII
Academic Session 2024 – 25

Maximum Marks: 70 Time Allowed: 3 hours

General Instructions

(1) There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
(3) All the sections are compulsory.
(4) Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark
each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of
three marks each, Section D contains two case study-based questions of four marks each and
Section E contains three long answer questions of five marks each.
(5) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section
B, one question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in
Section E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(6) Use of calculators is not allowed.
(7) You may use the following values of physical constants where ever necessary
i. c = 3 x 108 m/s
ii. me = 9.1 x10-31 kg
iii. mp = 1.7 x10-27 kg

iv. e = 1.6 x 10-19 C

v. µ0 = 4π x 10-7 T m 𝑨−𝟏
vi. h = 6.63 x10-34 J s
vii. ε0 = 8.854 x10-12 𝑪𝟐 𝑵−𝟏 𝒎−𝟐
viii. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 per gram mole
 [SECTION – A] (16x1=16 marks)

Q1. A uniform electric field pointing in positive X-direction exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B be the
point on the X-axis at x = +1 cm and C be the point on the Y-axis at y = +1 cm. Then the potential at
points A, B and C satisfy.

(A) VA < VB (B) VA > VB. (C) VA < VC (D) VA > VC

Q2. A conducting wire connects two charged conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 such that they attain
equilibrium with respect to each other. The distance of separation between the two spheres is very large
as compared to either of their radii.

The ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the surfaces of the spheres of radii r1 and r2 is
𝑟 𝑟2 𝑟2 2 𝑟1 2
(A) 𝑟1 (B) (C) (D)
2 𝑟1 𝑟1 2 𝑟2 2

Q3. A long straight wire of circular cross section of radius ҅a᾿ carries a steady current I. The current is
uniformly distributed across its cross section. The ratio of magnitudes of the magnetic field at a point
a/2 above the surface of wire to that of a point a/2 below its surface is
(A) 4:1 (B) 1:1 (C) 4: 3 (D) 3 :4

Q4. The diffraction effect can be observed in

(A) sound waves only (B) light waves only
(C) ultrasonic waves only (D) sound waves as well as light waves

Q5. A capacitor consists of two parallel plates, with an area of cross-section of 0.001 m2, separated by a
distance of 0.0001 m. If the voltage across the plates varies at the rate of 108 V/s, then the value of
displacement current through the capacitor is

(A) 8.85 × 10−3 𝐴 (B) 8.85 × 10−4 𝐴 (C) 7.85 × 10−3 𝐴 (D) 9.85 × 10−3 𝐴

Q6. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If
the capacitance is short circuited the voltage across the inductance will be

(A) 10 V (B) 10√2 V (C) 10/√2 V (D) 20 V

Q7. Correct match of column I with column II is

C-l (waves) C-ll (Production)

(1) Infra-red P . Rapid vibration of electrons in aerials

(2) Radio Q . Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from higher to
lower energy level.

(3) Light R . Klystron valve

(4) Microwave S . Vibration of atoms and molecules

(A) 1-P, 2-R, 3-S, 4-Q (B) 1-S, 2-P, 3-O, 4-R

(C) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R (D) 1-S. 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

Q8. The distance of closest approach of an alpha particle is d when it moves with a speed V towards a
nucleus.
Another alpha particle is projected with higher energy such that the new distance of the closest
approach is d/2. What is the speed of projection of the alpha particle in this case?

(A) V /2 (B) √2 V (C) 2 V (D) 4 V

Q9. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The
distance of virtual image from the surface of the sphere is

(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 12 cm

Q10. Colours observed on a CD (Compact Disk) is due to

(A) Reflection (B) Diffraction (C) Dispersion (D) Absorption

Q11. The number of electrons made available for conduction by dopant atoms depends strongly upon
(A) doping level (B) increase in ambient temperature
(C) energy gap (D) options (A) and (B) both

Q12. If copper wire is stretched to make its radius decrease by 0.1%, then the percentage change in its
resistance is approximately
 (A) –0.4% (B) +0.8% (C) +0.4% (D) +0.2%

For Questions 13 to 16, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.

A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Q13. Assertion (A): On increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by increasing the number of
turns may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.
Reason(R) : The resistance of the coil of the galvanometer increases on increasing the number of
turns.

Q14. Assertion (A): In a hydrogen atom there is only one electron but its emission spectrum shows many
lines.
Reason (R): In a given sample of hydrogen there are many atoms each containing one electron;
hence many electrons in different atoms may be in different orbits so many transitions from higher
to lower orbits are possible.

Q15. Assertion (A): Nuclei having mass number about 60 are least stable..
Reason (R): When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus then the binding
energy per nucleon will decrease.

Q16. Assertion (A): de Broglie's wavelength of a freely falling body keeps decreasing with time.
Reason (R): The momentum of the freely falling body increases with time.

[SECTION – B] (05x2=10 marks)

Q17. A platinum surface having work function 5.63 eV is illuminated by a monochromatic source of 1.6
x 10 15 Hz. What will be the minimum wavelength associated with the ejected electron.
 Q18. (I) A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 4000 Å and 6000 Å, is used to obtain
interference fringes in a Young’s double-slit experiment. What is the least distance from the
central maximum where the dark fringe is obtained?

OR
(II) In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensities
of two sources are I. What is the intensity of light at a point where path difference between
wavefronts is λ/4?

Q19. P and Q are two identical charged particles each of mass 4 × 10–26 kg and charge 4.8 × 10–19 C,
each moving with the same speed of 2.4 × 105 m/s as shown in the figure. The two particles are
equidistant (0.5 m) from the vertical Y -axis. At some instant, a magnetic field B is switched on so
that the two particles undergo head-on collision.

Find –
(I) the direction of the magnetic field and
(II) the magnitude of the magnetic field applied in the region.

(for VI candidates)

A proton is moving with speed of 2 x 105 m s–1 enters a uniform magnetic field B = 1.5 T. At the
entry velocity vector makes an angle of 30° to the direction of the magnetic field. Calculate
(a) the pitch of helical path described by the charge
(b) Kinetic energy after completing half of the circle.

Q.20. Binding energy per nucleon vs mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and Z
are four nuclei indicated on the curve. Identify which of the following nuclei is most likely to undergo
(i) Nuclear Fission
 (ii) Nuclear Fusion.
Justify your answer.

(for V.I. Candidates)

Binding energy per nucleon and mass number of the following nuclei are given in the below table

Nuclei Binding energy per nucleon (MeV) Mass number

W 7.5 190
X 8.0 90
Y 8.5 60
Z 5.0 30
Identify which of the following nuclei is most likely to undergo
(i) Nuclear Fission
(ii) Nuclear Fusion.
Justify your answer.

Q21. A cylindrical conductor of length l and cross-section area A is connected to a DC source. Under the
influence of electric field set up due to source, the free electrons begin to drift in the opposite direction
of the electric field.
(I) Draw the curve showing the dependency of drift velocity on relaxation time.
 (II) If the DC source is replaced by a source whose current changes its magnitude with time such
that I = Io sin 2πνt , where ν is the frequency of variation of current, then determine the average drift
velocity of the free electrons over one complete cycle.
[SECTION – C ] (07x3=21 marks)

Q22. (I) Identify the circuit elements X and Y as shown in the given block diagram and draw the output
waveforms of X and Y.

(II) If the centre tapping is shifted towards Diode D1 as shown in the diagram, draw the output
waveform of the given circuit.

(for V.I. candidates)

Which device is used to convert AC into DC. State it’s underlying principle and explain its working. If
the frequency of input AC to this device is 60 Hz, then what will be frequency of the output of this
device.

Q23. Find the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation
d when (I) a dielectric slab of thickness t and (II) a metallic slab of thickness t, where (t < d) are
introduced one by one between the plates of the capacitor. In which case would the capacitance be
more and why?

Q24. (I) Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image by a Cassegrain telescope.
(II)Why these types of telescopes are preferred over refracting type telescopes. (Write 2 points)
(for V.I. Candidates)
A Cassegrain telescope is built with an arrangement of two mirrors placing them 20 mm apart. If the radius
of curvature of the large mirror is 200mm and the small mirror is 150mm, where will the final image of an
object at infinity be?

Q25. (I) Draw the energy band diagram for P-type semiconductor at (i) T=0K and (ii) room temperature.
(II)In the given diagram considering an ideal diode, in which condition will the bulb glow
(a) when the switch is open
(b) when the switch is closed
Justify your answer.

(for V.I. Candidates)

Explain briefly how

(i) barrier potential is formed in p-n junction diode.

(ii) Width of depletion region of the diode is affected when it is (a) forward biased, (b) reverse
biased.

Q26. A boy is holding a smooth, hollow and non-conducting pipe vertically with charged spherical ball of
mass 10 g carrying a charge of +10 mC inside it which is free to move along the axis of the pipe.
The boy is moving the pipe from East to West direction in the presence of magnetic field of 2T. With
what minimum velocity, should the boy move the pipe such that the ball does not move along the
axis. Also determine the direction of the magnetic field.

Q27. A light ray entering a right-angled prism undergoes refraction at the face AC as shown in Fig. 1.

(I) What is the refractive index of the material of the prism in

Fig. 1?
 2
(II) (a) If the side AC of the above prism is now surrounded by a liquid of refractive index , as
3
shown in Fig. 2, determine if the light ray continues to graze along the interface AC or undergoes
total internal reflection or undergoes refraction into the liquid.

(b) Draw the ray diagram to represent the path followed by the incident ray with the corresponding
angle values.
√2
(Given, 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 ( ) = 54.6° )
√3

(for V.I. candidates)

A ray of light is incident on an equilateral prism at an angle 3/4 th of the angle of the prism. If the ray
passes symmetrically through the prism, find the (a) angle of minimum deviation, and (b) refractive index
of the material of the prism.

Q28. (I) State Gauss᾿s theorem in electrostatics. Using this theorem, derive an expression for the electric
field due to an infinitely long straight wire of linear charge density .
OR

(II) (a) Define electric flux and write its SI unit.

(b) Use Gauss᾿s law to obtain the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet of charge.

[SECTION D] (02x4=08 marks)

Q29. Case Study Based Question: Motion of Charge in Magnetic Field

An electron with speed vo << c moves in a circle of radius ro in a uniform magnetic field. This
electron is able to traverse a circular path as the magnetic force acting on the electron is
 perpendicular to both vo and B ,as shown in the figure. This force continuously deflects the
particle sideways without changing its speed and the particle will move along a circle
perpendicular to the field. The time required for one revolution of the electron is To

(i) If the speed of the electron is now doubled to 2vo. The radius of the circle will change to

(A) 4ro (B) 2 ro (C) ro (D) ro/2

(ii) If v = 2vo, then the time required for one revolution of the electron (To ) will change to

(A) 4 To (B) 2 To (C) To (D) To/2

(iii) A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field B = (2 i + 4 j) X 102 T . The acceleration of the
particle is found to be a = ( x i + 2 j ) m/s2 . Find the value of x.

(A) 4 ms-2 (B) -4 ms-2 (C) -2 ms-2 (D) 2 ms-2

(iv) If the given electron has a velocity not perpendicular to B, then trajectory of the electron is

(A) straight line (B) circular (C) helical (D) zig-zag

OR

If this electron of charge (e) is moving parallel to uniform magnetic field with constant velocity v, the
force acting on the electron is

(A) Bev (B) Be/v (C) B/ev (D) Zero

Q30. Case Study Based Question: Photoelectric effect

It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metallic surface when light of a suitable frequency
is incident on it. The emitted electrons are called photoelectrons.
 Nearly all metals exhibit this effect with ultraviolet light but alkali metals like lithium, sodium,
potassium, cesium etc. show this effect even with visible light. It is an instantaneous process i.e.
photoelectrons are emitted as soon as the light is incident on the metal surface. The number of
photoelectrons emitted per second is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation. The
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a given metal surface is independent of
the intensity of the incident light and depends only on the frequency of the incident light. For a given
metal surface there is a certain minimum value of the frequency of the incident light below which
emission of photoelectrons does not occur.

(I) In a photoelectric experiment plate current is plotted against anode potential.

(A) A and B will have same intensities while B and C will have different frequencies
(B) B and C will have different intensities while A and B will have different frequencies
(C) A and B will have different intensities while B and C will have equal frequencies
(D) B and C will have equal intensities while A and B will have same frequencies.

(II) Photoelectrons are emitted when a zinc plate is

(A) Heated (B) hammered

(C) Irradiated by ultraviolet light (D) subjected to a high pressure

(III) The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodium corresponds to a wavelength of 500 nm.
Its work function is about

(A) 4x10−19 J (B) 1 J (C) 2x10−19 J (D) 3x10−19 J

(IV) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy 6 eV
fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential is

(A) 2 V (B) 4 V (C) 6 V (D) 10 V

 OR

The minimum energy required to remove an electron from a substance is called its

(A) work function (B) kinetic energy (C) stopping potential (D) potential energy

[SECTION E] (03X5=15)

Q31. (I) a) Write two limitations of ohm’s law. Plot their I-V characteristics.

b) A heating element connected across a battery of 100 V having an internal resistance of 1 Ω

draws an initial current of 10 A at room temperature 20.0 °C which settles after a few seconds to a
steady value. What is the power consumed by battery itself after the steady temperature of 320.0 °C
is attained? Temperature coefficient of resistance averaged over the temperature range involved is
3.70 × 10–4 °C–1.

OR

(II) a) Using Kirchhoff'᾿s laws obtain the equation of the balanced state in Wheatstone bridge.

b) A wire of uniform cross-section and resistance of 12 ohm is bent in the shape of circle as
shown in the figure. A resistance of 10 ohms is connected to diametrically opposite ends C
and D. A battery of emf 8V is connected between A and B. Determine the current flowing
through arm AD.

(for V.I. Candidates)

(II) a) Using Kirchhoff'᾿s laws obtain the equation of the balanced state in Wheatstone bridge.
 b) What do you understand by ‘sensitivity of Wheatstone bridge’ ? How the sensitivity of wheatstone
bridge can be increased?

Q32. (I) Explain briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the basic principle of the working of an a.c.
generator. In an a.c. generator, coil of N turns and area A is rotated at an angular velocity ω in a
uniform magnetic field B. Derive an expression for the instantaneous value of the emf induced
in coil. What is the source of energy generation in this device?

OR

(II) a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principle of a device which changes a low ac voltage
into a high voltage . Deduce the expression for the ratio of secondary voltage to the primary
voltage in terms of the ratio of the number of turns of primary and secondary winding. For an
ideal transformer, obtain the ratio of primary and secondary currents in terms of the ratio of
the voltages in the secondary and primary coils.

b) Write any two sources of the energy losses which occur in actual transformers.

c) A step-up transformer converts a low input voltage into a high output voltage. Does it violate
law of conservation of energy? Explain.

Q33. (I) a) A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an
eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is angular magnification of the telescope in
normal adjustment?

b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon formed
by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 106 m, and the radius of lunar orbit
is 3.8 × 108 m.

OR

(II) A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of
focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far from the objective should an object
be placed in order to obtain the final image at

a) the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm) and

b) infinity? What is the magnifying power of the microscope in each case?
 MARKING SCHEME
PHYSICS
Subject Code – 042
CLASS – XII
Academic Session 2024 – 25

Maximum Marks:70 Time Allowed: 3hours

[SECTION – A]
Ans.1- (B) (1 mark)

VA> VB [VA = VC]

In the direction of electric field, the electric potential decreases.

Ans.2- (B) In the state of equilibrium, (1 mark)

The potential on the surface of bigger sphere = the potential at the surface of the smaller sphere
kq1 kq2 q r
=  1 = 1
r1 r2 q2 r2

E1 q1 r22 r1 r22 r2
 = =  =
E 2 q2 r12 r2 r12 r1

Ans.3 - (C) (1 mark)

0 I  I
AtP2, B2 = = 0
  3a
3 a
2  
 2 
0 (I 4) 0 I
AtP1, B1 = =
2 ( a 2 ) 4a

 0 I 
B2  3a  B 4
 =  2 =
B1  0 I  B1 3
 4a 
 

Ans.4 - (D)Sound waves as well as light waves (1 mark)

Ans.5 -(A) (1 mark)

Ans.6 - (C)When all the given components are connected(1 mark)

 IR = IXC = IXL = 10V
XC = XL = R
Z= R 2 + (X C − X L )2

Z= R 2 + (R − R)2
Z=R
VS = IZ = IR = 10 V
So, the source voltage is also 10 V
When the capacitor is short circuited then

Z= R 2 + (X L )2

= √𝑅 2 + 𝑅 2 = 𝑅√2
10
VL = I XL = R =5 2 V
2R

Ans.7 - (B)(1 mark)

Ans.8 - (B) The distance of closest approach(1 mark)

const
d= ...(1)
V12
d const
= ...(2)
2 V22
From equations (1) and (2),
V22
2= V2 = 2 V1
V12

 V2 = 2V Given, (V1 = V)

Ans.9 - (C)(1 mark)

𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2 − 𝑛1
− =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑅
1 3 [1 − 3 2]
− =
v 2[−6] −6
1 −3 1 −2 −1
= + = =
v 12 12 12 6
𝑣 = –6 cm
Ans.10 - (B)Diffraction (1 mark)
Ans.11- (A)doping level (1 mark)
Ans.12- (C)+0.4% (1 mark)
Ans.13- (A) (1 mark)
Ans.14- (A)(1 mark)
Ans.15- (D)(1 mark)
Ans.16- (A)(1 mark)

[SECTION – B]

Ans.17–
Given ∅𝟎 = 𝟓. 𝟔𝟑𝒆𝑽 = 𝟓. 𝟔𝟑 × 𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 𝑱
𝝂 = 𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟓 𝑯𝒛

𝒉𝒄
𝑲. 𝑬. = 𝒉𝝂 − ∅𝟎 = 𝝀
½

𝒉𝒄
𝝀= ½
𝒉𝝂−∅𝟎

𝟔.𝟔𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟒 ×𝟑 ×𝟏𝟎𝟖

= 𝟔.𝟔𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟒 ×𝟏.𝟔×𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟓 − 𝟓.𝟔𝟑 ×𝟏.𝟔×𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗
½

𝟏𝟗. 𝟖𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐𝟔
=
𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 (𝟔. 𝟔𝟑 − 𝟓. 𝟔𝟑)

𝟏𝟗.𝟖𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐𝟔
= 𝟏.𝟔×𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟓
= 𝟏𝟐. 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟕 𝒎 ½

Ans.18 - 𝜆1 = 4 × 10−7 𝑚𝜆2 = 6 × 10−7 𝑚

1 𝜆𝐷
Distance at which dark fringe is observed 𝑥 = (𝑛 + 2) 𝑑
½
1 4×10−7
First Dark fringe for 𝜆1 𝑑1 = 2 10−2
𝑚 = 2 × 10−5 𝑚 ½
 1 6×10−7
First Dark fringe for 𝜆2 𝑑2 = 𝑚 = 3 × 10−5 𝑚
2 10−2

First dark fringe will be the distance where both dark fringes will coincide i.e LCM of 𝑑1 &𝑑1 ½
i.e. 2 × 10−5 𝑚 × 3 × 10−5 𝑚
= 6 × 10−5 𝑚 ½

OR

(II) 𝑁𝑒𝑡 𝐼 = 𝐼 1 + 𝐼2 + 2√𝐼1 √𝐼2cosФ 0.5 M

Since, 𝐼 1 = 𝐼2 = 𝐼
Net I = I + I + 2 I cosФ
= 2I (1 + cosФ)
∅
= 2I (2 cos2 ) 0.5 M
2

For path difference λ/4 , phase difference is π/2 0.5 M

𝜋
Net I = 4 I cos24
Net I = 2 I 0.5 M

(2 Marks)
Ans.19 - (I)The direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular and inward into the plane of thepaper 0.5M
(II) For a head-on collision to take place, the radius of the path of each ion should be equal to 0.5
m.
mv
r= = 0.5 m 0.5M
qB

mv 4  10−26  2.4  105

B= = 0.5M
qr 4.8  10−19  0.5
B = 0.04 T 0.5M

For VI Candidate
2Л𝑚𝑣 𝑐𝑜𝑠Ɵ
(a) As Pitch (p)= 0.5M
𝑞𝐵
2 𝑋 3.14 𝑋 1.7𝑋10−27 𝑋 2 𝑋105 𝐶𝑜𝑠 300
Or, p= m
1.6 𝑋10−19 𝑋1.5
Or, P=7.7X10-3m 0.5M
(b)As, done by magnetic field is always zero K.E=1/2mv20.5M
KE=3.4 X 10-17J 0.5M
Ans.20 –(i) Nuclear fission –W
0.5M
Reason: As W has binding energy per nucleon less then Y and X and nucleus is larger
in size.
0.5M
 (ii) Nuclear fusion-Z 0.5M
Reason: As Z has binding energy per nucleon more then Y and X and nucleus is smaller
in size. 0.5M
𝟏
Ans. 21 - (I) 𝑫𝒓𝒊𝒇𝒕 𝒗𝒆𝒍𝒐𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒚 ∝ 𝑹𝒆𝒍𝒂𝒙𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆

1M

(II) Alternating current changes direction every half cycle. 0.5 M

So average drift velocity is zero 0.5 M
[SECTION – C]

(3 Marks)
Ans.22 -(I) X = Full wave rectifier½
Y = Filter½

(Output Waveform for X) ½

(Output Waveform for Y) ½

(ii) 1
For VI Candidates
Rectifier 0.5M
Underlying principle of Rectifier
The basic principle of the rectifiers is the transformation of current by changing the frequency of the
input signal, and diodes are used to do this.
0.5M

Working
In rectifier, one end of terminal which is connected to PN junction diode will never have negative
potential, as it allows current in forward biasing only. Hence potential difference across load resistor
will always be Positive or zero.
1M

For 60 Hz input of AC, output of

Half wave rectifier will be 60Hz 0.5M
Full wave rectifier will be 120 Hz 0.5M

Ans.23 - (I)The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with dielectric slab (t < d)

(3 Marks)

0.5M

+q, –q = the charges on the capacitor plates

+qi, – qi = Induced charges on the faces of the dielectric slab
E0 → electric field intensity in air between the plates
E → the reduced value of electric field intensityinside the dielectric slab.
When a dielectric slab of thickness t<d is introduced between the two plates of the capacitor the electric
field reduces to E due to the polarisation of the dielectric. The potential difference between the two plates is
given by
V = V1 + Vt + V2
V = E0d1 + Et + E0d2 … (1)0.5M
Here E is the reduced value of electric field intensity
 E = E0 + Ei . Here Ei is the electric field due to the induced charges [+qi and – qi]

E = E02 + Ei2 + 2 E0 Ei cos180

( E0 − Ei )
2
=
E = E0 – Ei0.5M
Also the dielectric constant K is given by
E0
K= … (2)
E
 q
E0 = = … (3)
0 A0
From equations (1), (2) and (3)
𝐸0
𝑉 = 𝐸0 [𝑑1 + 𝑑2 ] + 𝐾
𝑡
𝑞 𝑡
𝑉 = 𝐴𝜀 [𝑑 − 𝑡 + 𝐾] … (4)
0

The capacitance of the capacitor on the introduction of the dielectric slab is

q
C= … (5)
V
From (4) and (5)
𝜀0 𝐴
𝐶= 𝑡 0.5M
𝑑−𝑡+
𝐾
0 A 0 A
If t = d, then C = K ⇒ C = KC0 Here C0 =
d d
Since K >1 therefore C > C0
𝜀0 𝐴
(II) For a metallic slab K is infinitely large, therefore 𝐶= 1M
𝑑−𝑡

(3 Marks)
Ans.24 -(i)
2

(ii) 1
• It has mirror objective, which is free from chromatic and spherical aberrations.
• It can gather more light as objectives can be made larger, hence images can be brighter.
Any other two equivalent examples can be accepted.

For V.I Candidates

 Objective mirror,
Radius of curvature, R1=200mm
Focal Length, f1=R1/2=100mm 0.5M
Secondary Mirror,
Radius of curvature, R1=150mm
Focal Length, f1=R1/2=75mm 0.5M

Distance between two mirror, x=20mm

For object at infinity, image is formed by objective lens will act as virtual object for secondary mirror
U2=(100-20)mm=80mm 0.5M
Applying, mirror formula for secondary mirror
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
+ = 0.5M
𝒗𝟐 𝒖𝟐 𝒇𝟐
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Or, = -
𝒗𝟐 𝒇𝟐 𝒖𝟐
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
= - = 0.5M
𝟕𝟓 𝟖𝟎 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟎
V2=1200mm 0.5M

Ans.25 -

(a). T = 0 K

1M

(b) T = Room Temperature

1M

(ii) Answer will be (a) when switch is open 0.5M

as when switch is closed diode will be forward biased and current will by-pass the bulb. 0.5M
For V.I. Candidate
(i) A potential barrier is formed in a p-n junction due to the depletion layer, which is a layer of
unmovable positive and negative charges that develops on either side of the junction. The depletion
layer is created when holes move towards electrons, causing a layer of electrons on the p-type side
and a layer of holes on the n-type side. The potential difference across this region is called the barrier
potential 2M
(ii)(a) In forward biasing width of depletion region decreases. 0.5M
(b) In reverse biasing width of depletion region increases. 0.5M

Ans.26 - (3 Marks)
Given
𝐵 = 2 𝑇 , 𝑞 = 10𝑚𝐶 , 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑙𝑙 = 10−2kg , 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚⁄ 2
𝑠

Magnetic force (𝑞𝑣𝐵 sin 𝜃) = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 (𝑚𝑔)

𝑚𝑔
𝑣= ½
𝑞𝐵 sin 𝜃

For min. velocity sin 𝜃 = 1

𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔
𝑣= 𝑞𝐵 sin 𝜃
= 𝑣= 𝑞𝐵
½

10−2 × 9.8
= m/s ½
10−2 × 2

=4.9m/s

𝑣 = 4.9 𝑚⁄ 2 ½
𝑠

As force is in upward direction so from Fleming’s Left-hand rule, magnetic field will be along North to
South. 1

(3 Marks)
Ans.27 - (I)Since the light ray enters perpendicular to the face AB, the angle of incidence onface AC will
be45° . 0.5M
So,
1
sin C =
n
1 1
𝑠𝑖𝑛 45° = 𝑛 = So, n = 2 0.5M
√2
𝑛𝑔 √2 √3
(II)In fig.2, the face AC of the prism is surrounded by a liquid so𝑛 = = 2 =
𝑛𝑙 ( ) √2
√3
 1 2 √2
sin C = = 𝜃𝐶 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 ( 3) = 54.6°
n 3 √

Since the angle of incidence on the surface AC is 45° , which is less than the critical angle for the
pair of media (glass and the liquid), the ray neither undergoes grazing along surface AC, nor does
it suffer total internal reflection 1M

Instead it passes through the surface AC and undergoes refraction into the liquid.
For refracting interface AC, n1 sin i = n2 sin r
2
𝑛1 . 𝑠𝑖𝑛45° = ( ) 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟
√3
√3
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟 = ⸫ 𝑟 = 60° .
2

1M

(3 Marks)
For V.I. candidates
(a) Let the angle of incidence of light at prism, I = x
So, angle of emergence as per question, e = x
4
Angle of prism, A = 𝑥
3
0.5M
Since prism Is equilateral
3A=1800
0.5M
Or, A= 600
Or, X=450
From prism formulaeδ
δ= i+e-A
0.5M
or, δ=45+45-60=300 0.5M

𝒔𝒊𝒏𝑨+𝜹𝒎
𝟐
(b)𝝁 = 0.5M
𝒔𝒊𝒏𝑨
𝟐
𝟔𝟎+𝟑𝟎
𝒔𝒊𝒏
𝟐
Or,𝝁= 𝟔𝟎
𝒔𝒊𝒏
𝟐
Or, 𝝁=√𝟐 0.5M
1
Ans.28– (I)Gauss’stheorem: The flux of electric field through any closed surface is times the total
0
charge enclosed by the closed surface.
q
= … (1)
0
By definition, the total electric flux through the closed surface is given by
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝜙 = ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠 … (2)
∴ From (1) and (2), Gauss’s theorem may be expressed as follows
𝑞
𝜙 = ∮ 𝐸⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑠 = 𝜀
0

1
∴ The surface integral of electric field over a closed surface is equal to times the total charge enclosed
0
by the surface. 1M

Application of Gauss’s theorem

To find electric field due to a line charge let us consider an infinitely long line charge placed along XX’ axis
with linear charge density λ. Our aim is to find electric field intensity at a point P distantr from the line
charge. We draw a cylindrical surface of radius r and length l coaxial with the line charge. The net flux
through the cylindrical gaussian surface i.e.

0.5M
⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ∫ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
𝜙 = ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ∫ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ∫ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
⃗⃗⃗⃗ 0.5M
𝐿𝐶𝐹 𝐶𝑆 𝑅𝐶𝐹
= ∫𝐿𝐶𝐹 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 9 0° + ∫𝐶𝑆 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 0 ° + ∫𝑅𝐶𝐹 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 9 0°0.5M
ϕ = ∫𝐶𝑆 𝐸𝑑𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 0 ° = 𝐸. 2𝜋𝑟𝑙 … (1)
The charge enclosed by the gaussian surface is q = λl… (2)
Using Gauss’s theorem from equations(1) and (2)
l 
E ( 2rl ) = ⇒E = 0.5M
0 2 0 r
OR

(II) (a) Definition of electric flux and its SI unit 1M

(b)Electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge.
Let us consider an infinite thin plane sheet of positive charge having a uniform surface charge density .
Let P be the point where electric field E is to be found. Let us imagine a cylindrical gaussian surface
of length 2r and containing P as shown. The net flux through the cylindrical gaussian surface.

0.5M
  = ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝐴
=  E  dA +  E  dA +  E  dA 0.5M
RCF LCF CS

=  EdA cos 0 +  EdA cos 0 +  EdA cos90 0.5M

RCF LCF CS

= E A + EA + 0
 = 2 EA ...(1)
Here A is the area of cross-section of each circular facei.e. LCF and RCF.
The total charge enclosed by the gaussian cylinder
= A ...(2)0.5M
Using Gauss’s theorem, from (1) and (2),
A
2 EA =
ε0

E=
2ε 0

Ans.29 -I(B) II(C) III(B) IV (C) 0R IV (D) (4X1=4)

Ans.30 - I(D) II(C) III (A) IV(B) 0R IV (A) (4X1=4)

(5 Marks)
Ans.31–(I) (a) Kirchhoff’s I Law :The algebraic sum of all the currents meeting at a point in an electrical
circuit is always equal to zero.1M

[+I1] + [+I2] + [–I3] +[–I4] + [– I5] = 0

Or I1 + I2 = I3 + I4 + I5
Kirchhoff’s II Law :The algebraic sum of the changes in potential around any closed resistor loop must be
zero.1M

For closed mesh ABCFA

[+E1] [– I1R1] + [–E2] + [+I2R] = 0 … (1)

For closed mesh FCDEF

[+E2] + [-(I1+I2)]R3 + [–I2R2] = 0 … (2)
 𝜀
(b).𝐼 = 𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑅0 𝑖𝑠 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑎𝑡 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑚 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 200 ½
𝑅0 + 𝑟

𝜀
⇒ 𝑅0 = -1
𝐼

100
OR 𝑅0 = -1 = 𝑅0 = 9Ω ½
10

Now Final temperature is 3200C

So, 𝑅 = 𝑅0 (1 + 𝛼Δ𝑇) ½

= 9 ( (1 + 3.7 × 10−4 × 300)

= 10 Ohm ½

Power Consumed by cell (𝑃) = 𝑖 2 𝑟 ½

𝜀
= (𝑅+ 𝑟)2 × 𝑟 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑡

100
= ( 11 )2 = 82.64 W ½

OR

(II)(a) The Wheatstone bridgeis as shown in the figure

1M

0.5M
Applying Kirchhoff’s II law to mesh ABDA
I1P + IgG – I2R = 0 …..(1) 0.5M
For the mesh BCDB
(I1 – Ig)Q + [–(I2 + Ig)S] + [–IgG] = 0 (2) 0.5M When the bridge is
balanced, no current flows through the galvanometer
i.e. Ig = 0 (3)

∴From equations (1) and (2) and (3)

I1P = I2R … (4)
I1Q = I2S … (5)
From equations (4)and (5), P/Q = R/S. 0.5M

(b).

This circuit is balanced wheat stone bridge that can be drawn as below,

As it is balanced wheatston bridge ,so circuit will be as below 1

8
𝑉𝐴𝐵 = 8𝑉 , ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝐴𝐷𝐵 = = 2𝐴 1
4

(for V.I. Candidates)

(II) (a) question is same

(b) The sensitivity of a Wheatstone bridge is the amount of deflection in the attached galvanometer for every
unit change in the unknown resistance 1M
 A Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive when its four arms have resistances that are of the same order of
magnitude. This means that all four resistors provide the same output resistance. A Wheatstone bridge is in
a balanced state when its galvanomater shows zero deflection 1M

Ans.32 - (I) AC Generator (5 Marks)

It is a device used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy

Principle: It is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When a closed coil is rotated
rapidly in a strong magnetic field, the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes continuously.
Hence an emf is induced in the coil and a current flows in it. In fact, the mechanical energy
expended in rotating the coil appears as electrical energy in the coil.
1M
Construction: Main Parts 1M
1. Armature: It is a rectangular coil ABCD having a large number of turns of insulated copper wire
wound on a soft-iron core. The use of soft-iron core increases the magnetic flux linked with the
armature.

2. Field Magnet: It a strong electromagnet having concave pole pieces N and S. The armature is
rotated between these pole pieces about an axis perpendicular to the magnetic field.

3. Slip Rings: The leads from the armature coil ABCD are connected to two copper rings R1 and R2
called the ‘slip rings’. These rings are concentric with the axis of the armature coil and rotate with it.

4. Brushes:These are two carbon pieces B1 and B2 called brushes which remain stationary pressing
against the slip rings R1 and R2 respectively. The brushes are connected to an external circuit.

Working Theory : When the coil ABCD is rotated inside the field, an emf is induced between its two
ends. Let the plane of the coil be at right angles to the magnetic field at t = 0 and angular speed of
the rotation of the coil be ω. Then at time t, θ = ωt. The magnetic flux linked with the coil at time t is
ϕ = n BA cosωt
−d  −d
Induced emf e = =  nBA cos t 
dt dt
⇒e = n BA ω sinωt
e = e0sinωt Where e0 = nBAω is the peak value of emf.
The current in the external load is given by
e0 sin t
i=
RL
i = i0sinωtHere i0 is the peak value of the current 1M

1M
 1M
In an ac generator the source of electrical energy is the mechanical energy.

OR
(II)
(a)TRANSFORMER

Use: It is a device which converts low ac voltage at high current into high ac voltage at low current
and vice – versa.

Principle: It consists of two coils P and S wound on a closed soft iron core. The coil which is fed
from the ac supply is called primary coil (P) and the other connected to the load is called secondary
coil (S). The core of the transformer is made of soft -iron toreduce hysteresis loss and is laminated
to reduce eddy current losses.1M

Working: When an alternating emf ep is impressed on the primary winding it sends an ac current
through it which sets up an alternating magnetic flux in the core. This induces an alternating emf es
in the secondary. If NP and Ns are the number of turns in primary and secondary coil, their linkages
with the flux are

ϕP = NPBA B → Magnetic induction

ϕS = NsBA A → Area of cross section0.5 M
The magnitude of the emf induced in the secondary
d S dB
es = = NS A … (1)
dt dt
The changing flux also induces an emf in the primary, whose magnitude
d P dB
eP = = NP A … (2)
dt dt
From equations (1) and (2)
emf induced in secondary e N
= s = s … (3)0.5 M
voltage applied to primary eP N P
NS
= turns ratio or transformation ratio.
NP
If Ns> NP, eS>eP → Such a transformer is called step-up transformer
If NS< NP, es<eP → Such a transformer is called step-down transformer
In an ideal transformer
Instantaneous output power = instantaneous input power
 esis = ePiP … (4)
From equations (3) and (4)
es i p N s
= = 0.5 M
e p is N p
In a step- up transformer Ns> Np, es>ep but is<ip
In a step-down transformer Ns< Np, es<ep but is>ip
At the generating station a step-up transformer is used for stepping up the voltage and at the
various receiving substations a step-down transformer is used

0.5M
(b) The two sources of energy losses are eddy current losses and flux leakage losses. 1M
(c)There is no violation of the principle of the conservation of energy in a stepup transformer. When
output voltage increases the output current decreases automatically keeping the power the
same.1M

(5 Marks)
Ans.33–(I) Given𝑓0=15m, 𝑓𝑒 =1cm=0.01m
𝑓0 15
(i) Angular magnification of the telescope M = = =1500 1M
𝑓𝑒 0.01
(ii) Let d be thediameter ofmoon᾿simage formed by the objective lens.

Therefore, Angle subtended by the moon at the objective lens

𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑜𝑛 3.48×106
α= = (1) 1.5M
𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑢𝑛𝑎𝑟 𝑜𝑟𝑏𝑖𝑡 3.8×108

Similarly, the angle subtended by moon᾿s image (formed by the objective) at the objective
𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑜𝑜𝑛᾿𝑠 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑
α= = (2) 1.5M
𝑓0 15

Comparing equations (1) and (2) we have

𝑑 3.48×106
=
15 3.8×108

3.48×106
d= × 15=0.137m=13.7cm 1M
3.8×108

OR
(II) (a) For eyepiece,𝑣𝑒 =-25cm,𝑓𝑒 =6.25cm, 𝑢𝑒 =?
1 1 1
Using = -
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
1 1 1 1 1 −1
= - = - = 0.5M
𝑢𝑒 𝑣𝑒 𝑓𝑒 −25 6.25 5

𝑢𝑒 =-5cm 0.5M
Therefore the image formed by the objective is formed at a distance of 10 cm towards the eyepiece.
Hence for the objective,𝑣0 =+10 cm,𝑓0=2cm, 𝑣0 =?
1 1 1 1 1
= - = - 0.5M
𝑢0 𝑣0 𝑓0 10 2

𝑢0 =-2.5cm 0.5M
𝑣0 𝐷 10 25
Therefore the magnifying power M= (1+ )= (1+ )=20 0.5M
|𝑢0 | 𝑓𝑒 2.5 6.25

(b) When the final image is formed at infinity the object for the eyepiece must lie at its principal
focus.Thereforethe distance of the image formed by the objective from its optical center,
𝑣0 =15-6.25=8.75cm 0.5M
1 1 1 1 1 6.75
= - = - = 0.5M
𝑢0 𝑣0 𝑓0 8.75 2 17.50
−17.5
𝑢0 = =-2.6cm 0.5M
6.75
𝑣0 𝐷 8.75 25
M= . = × =13.5 1M
|𝑢0 | 𝑓𝑒 2.6 6.25