ADVANCED LEVEL PHYSICS TEST

BANK (S4-S6, CBC)

This image shows exploration of Mars by adventurous astronauts in science fiction.

Preface
This book compiles physics questions for advanced level syllabus (CBC) from S4 to
S6. This material mainly intends to develop problem-solving skills in physics
subject since solving numerous questions increases one’s experience in this subject.

This book also is useful to teachers of physics in advanced level who are really in
need of providing as many exercises as possible.

In addition to this, any critics to this material is highly welcome.

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Fundamental physical constants

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 Table of contents
Preface ................................................................................................................................... 2
In addition to this, any critics to this material is highly welcome. ........................................... 2
Fundamental physical constants ............................................................................................ 3
Table of contents ................................................................................................................... 4
UNIT 1:THIN LENSES AND PRISMS .......................................................................................... 5
UNIT 2: SIMPLE AND COMPOUND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS ................................................. 8
UNIT 3: MOMENTS AND EQUILIBRIUM OF BODIES ................................................................. 10
UNIT 4: WORK, ENERGY AND POWER ................................................................................... 22
UNIT 5: KIRCHHOFF’S LAWS AND ELECTRIC CIRCUITS ......................................................... 28
UNIT 6: PROJECTILE AND UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION. ................................................. 44
UNIT 7: UNIVERSAL GRAVITATIONAL FIELD ......................................................................... 51
UNIT 8: EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC AND POTENTIAL FIELDS ....................................................... 69
UNIT 9: APPLICATIONS OF LAWS OF THERMODYNAMICS ..................................................... 73
UNIT 10: WAVE AND PARTICLE NATURE OF LIHT. ................................................................ 87
UNIT 11: SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION (SHM) ...................................................................... 106
UNIT 12: FORCED OSCILLATIONS AND RESONANCE OF A SYSTEM. .................................... 115
UNIT13: PROPAGATION OF MECHANICAL WAVES, INTERFERENCE AND DIFFRACTION ... 118
UNIT 14: ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL ................................. 133
UNIT 15: RELATIVITY ....................................................................................................... 140
UNIT 16: SOUND WAVES ................................................................................................... 145
UNIT 17: RADIOACTIVITY .................................................................................................. 157
UNIT 18: ATOMIC MODELS ................................................................................................. 164
UNIT 19: X-RAYS ................................................................................................................ 167
UNIT 20: LASERS ................................................................................................................ 174
UNIT 20: COSMOLOGY AND ASTROPHYSICS. ...................................................................... 180
UNIT 22: PARTICLE PHYSICS .............................................................................................. 195
UNIT 23: CLIMATE CHANGE AND GREENHOUSE EFFECT ..................................................... 209
UNIT 24: APPLICATION OF PHYSICS IN AGRICULTURE ..................................................... 212
UNIT 25: EARTHQUAKES, LANDSLIDES, TSUNAMI, FLOODS AND CYCLONES. ...................... 214
UNIT 26: DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY ....................................................................................... 215
UNIT 27: RADIATION AND MEDICINE, MEDICAL IMAGING. ................................................. 224
UNIT 28: MISCELLANEOUS PROBLEMS ................................................................................ 229

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UNIT 1: THIN LENSES AND PRISMS
1.
a) An object is placed 12cm from a converging lens of focal length 18cm. find
the nature and position of the image
b) Find the nature and position of the image of an object placed 15cm from a
diverging lens of focal length 15cm.
c) From the magnification formula and the lens formula, show that the
𝑣
image distance v can be related to the focal length of the lens by 𝑀 = 𝑓 − 1

2. Find the focal length of combination of a converging lens and a diverging lens of focal
lengths 5cm and 10cm respectively.
3. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in contact with a converging lens of
focal length 30 cm. The focal length of this combination is:
A. +10 cm
B. -10 cm
C. +60 cm
D. -60 cm
E. +25 cm
4. In a two lens microscope, the intermediate image is:
A. virtual, erect, and magnified
B. real, erect, and magnified
C. real, inverted, and magnified
D. virtual, inverted, and reduced
E. virtual, inverted, and magnified
5.

6. The two lenses shown are illuminated by a beam of parallel light from the left. Lens B
is then moved slowly toward lens A. The beam emerging from lens B is:

A. initially parallel and then diverging

B. always diverging

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 C. initially converging and finally parallel
D. always parallel
E. initially converging and finally diverging

7. An object is placed 6.0cm from a thin converging lens A of focal length 5.0cm.
Another thin converging lens B of focal length 15cm is placed co-axially with A from
it on the side way from the object. Find the position, nature and magnification of the
final image.
8. A glass prism of refracting angle 72° and index of refraction 1.66 is immersed in a
liquid of refractive index in a liquid of index of refraction of 1.33. What is the angle
of minimum deviation for a parallel beam of light passing through the prism?
9.

a) Give reasons why prism rather than plane mirrors are used in
periscopes and prism binoculars.
b) Explain why diamonds are cut with their sides flat and others
slanting?
10.

a) Define the term “Critical angle ” of the medium

b) One side of a triangular prism put in a pool of water of refractive index 4/3
and the other side was left open to air. A ray of light was incident on the
prism at an angle of incidence 21.7°. The light just grazes as it emerges out
of the prism. Given that the refractive index of glass is 1.52, determine the
refracting angle A of prism.
11. A monochromatic light is incident at angle of 45° on a glass prism of refracting
angle 70° in air. The emergent ray grazes the boundary of the other refracting
surface of the prism. Find the refractive index of the prism.
12. A ray of light just undergoes total internal reflection at the second face of the
prism of refracting angle 60° and refractive index 1.5. What is its angle of
incidence on the first face?
13. Where a luminous object must be placed so that a converging lens of focal length
20cm produces an image of size 4 times bigger than the object? (Consider the
case of both real and virtual images).
14. When an object is placed 60cm from a certain converging lens, it forms a real
image. When the object is moved to 40cm from the lens, the image moves 10cm
farther from the lens. Find the focal length of this lens.
15. A converging lens (n=1.52) has a focal length of 40.0cm in air. Find its focal
length when it is immersed in water, which has an index of refraction of 1.33.
16. Verify that the focal length f of a symmetrical biconvex lens which the two faces
have a radius of curvature R and refractive index 1.5 is fmeter=Rmeter.
17.

a) A converging lens of focal length 20cm is in contact with a diverging lens of focal
length 50.0cm. What are the nature, the power and focal length of the
combination?

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 b) The convex lens of focal length 20.0cm is put in contact with the second lens
such that the combination has the power of 4 diopters. Determine the nature of
the second lens and calculate the focal length.
18. Find the refractive index of prism A=60° producing a minimum deviation equal to
40°
19.

a)
i. State the laws of refraction
ii. What is meant by critical angle?
b) Monochromatic light is incident at angle of 38° on a glass prism of refractive
index 1.5. The emergent light glazes the surface of the prism as shown in
the figure below.
i. Calculate the angle of refraction r
ii. Find the critical angle, C for the glass-air interface
iii. Find the refractive angle, A, of the prism.
20. A converging glass lens (n = 1.52) has a focal length of 40.0 cm in air. Find its focal length
when it is immersed in water, which has an index of refraction of 1.33.
21.

a) A person wants to use a convex lens as a simple magnifying lens. At what

distance from the lens, must the object be placed and why?
b) The power of a magnifying lens is 2 dioptres. Determine its focal length
c) An object 1 cm tall is placed 30 mm in front of a lens. An image of the object is
located 60 mm behind the lens.
(i) Is the lens converging or diverging? Explain your reasoning without
calculations.
(ii) What is the focal length of the lens?
(iii) Copy the axis below drawn not to scale (figure below) on a graph paper
and draw the lens at the position x=0. With the aid of three principal rays
from the object, locate the image in order to verify, the situation described
above in 17(c).

d) Based on your diagram in c (iii), describe the image by answering the

following questions.
i) Is the image real or virtual?

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 ii) Is the image smaller than, larger than or same size as the
object?
iii) Is the image inverted or upright compared to the object?

UNIT 2: SIMPLE AND COMPOUND OPTICAL

INSTRUMENTS

22. Let fo and fe be the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of a compound
microscope. In ordinary use, the object:
A. is less than f0 from the objective lens
B. is more that f0 from the objective
C. produces an intermediate image that is slightly more than fe from the eyepiece
D. produces an intermediate image that is 2fe away from the eyepiece
E. produces an intermediate image that is less than fo from the objective lens
23. Consider the following four statements concerning a compound microscope:
a. Each lens produces an image that is virtual and inverted.
b. The objective lens has a very short focal length.
c. The eyepiece is used as a simple magnifying glass.
d. The objective lens is convex and the eyepiece is concave. Which two of the
four statements are correct?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
E. 2, 4
24. What type of eyeglasses should a nearsighted person wear?
A. diverging lenses
D. bifocal lenses
B. converging lenses
E. Plano-convex lenses
C. double convex lenses
25. Which of the following is NOT correct for a simple magnifying glass?
A. The image is virtual
B. The image is erect
C. The image is larger than the object
D. The object is inside the focal point
E. The lens is diverging
26. A nearsighted person can see clearly only objects within 1.4 m of her eye. To see
distant objects, she should wear eyeglasses of what type and focal length?
A. diverging, 2.8 m

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 B. diverging, 1.4 m
C. converging, 2.8 m
D. converging, 1.4 m
E. diverging, 0.72 m
27. . An object is 20 cm to the left of a lens of focal length +10 cm. A second lens, of

focal length +12.5 cm, is 30 cm to the right of the first lens. The distance between
the original object and the final image is:
A. 28 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 0
E. infinity
28. A projector projects an image of area 1m2 onto a screen placed 5m from the lens. If
the area of the slide is 4m2, calculate:
29.

i. Find the angular magnification produced by a simple microscope of focal

length 5cm when used not in normal adjustment.
ii. Explain why angular magnification of a simple microscope is high for a
length lens of short length.
iii. Why the image formed by magnifying glass is free from chromatic aberration.
iv. What is meant by term resolving power of an optical instrument? Explain its
usefulness
v. Explain why astronomers use reflecting telescopes rather than refracting
telescopes?
30.

a) Explain the difference between the terms angular magnification and linear
magnification, as used about optical systems. Illustrate this, by calculating
both, in the case of an object placed 5.0cm from a simple magnifying glass of
length 6.0cm, assuming that the minimum distance of distinct vision for the
observer is 25cm.
b) The objective and the eyepiece of a microscope may be treated as thin lenses
with focal length of 2.0cm and 5.0cmrespectively. If the distance between them
is 15cm and the final image is 25cm from the eyepiece, calculate the position of
the object.
31. An astronomical telescope has an objective lens of focal length 100cm and an
eyepiece o focal length 5.0cm. Calculate the power when the final image of a
distant object is formed
i. At infinity
ii. 25.0cm from the eyepiece
32. A telescope consists of thin converging lenses of focal lengths 100cm and 10.0cm
respectively. It is used to view an object 2000cm from the objective. What is the
separation of the lenses if the final image is 25.0cm from the eyepiece? Determine
the magnifying power of an observer whose eye is close to the eyepiece.
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33. A telescope has two lenses which are 105 cm from each other. The angular
magnification of the telescope is 20. What are the focal lengths of the objective and
eye piece lens?
34. Microscope uses an eyepiece with a focal length of 1.4cm. Using a normal eye with a
final image at infinity the tube length is 17.5cm and the focal length of the objective
lens is 0.65cm. What is the magnification of the microscope?

UNIT 3: MOMENTS AND EQUILIBRIUM OF BODIES

35. The conditions that the net force and the net torque both vanish:
A. hold for every rigid body in equilibrium
B. hold only for elastic solid bodies in equilibrium
C. hold for every solid body
D. are always sufficient to calculate the forces on a solid object in equilibrium
E. are sufficient to calculate the forces on a solid object in equilibrium only if
the object is elastic
36. For an object in equilibrium the net torque acting on it vanishes only if each torque is
calculated about:
A. the center of mass
B. the center of gravity
C. the geometrical center
D. the point of application of the force
E. the same point
37. For a body to be in equilibrium under the combined action of several forces:
A. all the forces must be applied at the same point
B. all of the forces form pairs of equal and opposite forces
C. the sum of the components of all the forces in any direction must equal zero
D. any two of these forces must be balanced by a third force
E. the lines of action of all the forces must pass through the center of gravity of
the body
38. For a body to be in equilibrium under the combined action of several forces:
A. all the forces must be applied at the same point
B. all of the forces form pairs of equal and opposite forces
C. any two of these forces must be balanced by a third force
D. the sum of the torques about any point must equal zero
E. the lines of action of all the forces must pass through the center of gravity of
the body
39. To determine if a rigid body is in equilibrium the vector sum of the gravitational
forces acting on the particles of the body can be replaced by a single force acting at:
a) The c enter of mass
b) The geometrical center

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 c) The center of gravity
d) A point on the boundary
e) None of the above
40. The center of gravity coincides with the center of mass:
A. always
B. never
C. if the center of mass is at the geometrical center of the body
D. if the acceleration due to gravity is uniform over the body
E. if the body has a uniform distribution of mass
41. Three identical uniform rods are each acted on by two or more forces, all

perpendicular to the rods and all equal in magnitude. Which of the rods could be
in static equilibrium if an additional force is applied at the center of mass of the
rod?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Only 1 and 2
E. All three
42. A 160-N child sits on a light swing and is pulled back and held with a horizontal
force of 100 N. The magnitude of the tension force of each of the two supporting
ropes is:
A. 60 N
B. 94 N
C. 120 N
D. 190 N
E. 260 N
43. The diagram shows a stationary 5-kg uniform rod (AC), 1 m long, held against a wall
by a rope (AE) and friction between the rod and the wall. To use a single equation to
find the force exerted on the rod by the rope at which point should you place the
reference point for computing torque?

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44. A picture P of weight W is hung by two strings as shown. The magnitude of the
tension force of each string is T. The total upward pull of the strings on the picture
is:

A. 2W cos θ
B. T sin θ
C. T cos θ
D. 2T sin θ
E. 2T cos θ

45. A uniform plank is supported by two equal 120-N forces at X and Y, as shown. The
support at X is then moved to Z (half-way to the plank center). The supporting forces
at Y and Z are then:

A. FY = 240 N, FZ = 120 N
B. FY = 200 N, FZ = 40 N

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 C. FY = 40 N, FZ = 200 N
D. FY = 80 N, FZ = 160 N
E. FY = 160 N, FZ = 80

46. A uniform rod AB is 1.2 m long and weighs 16 N. It is suspended by strings AC and
BD as shown. A block P weighing 96 N is attached at E, 0.30 m from A. The
magnitude of the tension force of the string BD is:

A. 8.0 N
B. 24 N
C. 32 N
D. 48 N
E. 80 N
47. A 5.0-m weightless strut, hinged to a wall, is used to support an 800-N block as
shown. The horizontal and vertical components of the force of the hinge on the
strut are:

A. FH = 800 N, FY = 800 N
B. FH = 600 N, FY = 800 N
C. FH = 800 N, FY = 600 N
D. FH = 1200 N, FY = 800 N
E. FH = 0, FY = 800 N

48. A uniform plank is 6.0 m long and weighs 80 N. It is balanced on a sawhorse at its
center. An additional 160 N weight is now placed on the left end of the plank. To
keep the plank balanced, it must be moved what distance to the left?
A. 6.0 m
B. 2.0 m

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 C. 1.5 m
D. 1.0 m
E. 0.50 m
49. A ladder leans against a wall. If the ladder is not to slip, which one of the following must
be true?

A. The coefficient of friction between the ladder and the wall must not be zero
B. The coefficient of friction between the ladder and the floor must not be zero
C. Both A and B
D. Either A or B
E. Neither A nor B
50. An 80-N uniform plank leans against a frictionless wall as shown. The magnitude of the
torque (about point P) applied to the plank by the wall is

A. 40 N · m
B. 60 N · m
C. 120 N · m
D. 160 N · m
E. 240 N · m
51. . An 800-N man stands halfway up a 5.0-m long ladder of negligible weight. The base
of the ladder is 3.0 m from the wall as shown. Assuming that the wall-ladder
contact is frictionless, the wall pushes against the ladder with a force of magnitude:

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 A. 150 N
B. 300 N
C. 400 N
D. 600 N
E. 800 N
52. The 600-N ball shown is suspended on a string AB and rests against a frictionless
vertical wall. The string makes an angle of 30◦ with the wall. The magnitude of the
tension force of the string is:

A. 690 N
B. 1200 N
C. 2100 N
D. 2400 N
E. none of these

53. A 240-N weight is hung from two ropes as shown. The tension force of the
horizontal rope has magnitude

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 A. 0
B. 656 N
C. 480 N
D. 416 N
E. 176 N

54. A 960-N block is suspended as shown. The beam AB is weightless and is hinged to
the wall at A. The tension force of the cable BC has magnitude:

A. 720 N
B. 1200 N
C. 1280 N
D. 1600 N
E. none of these

55. A horizontal beam of weight W is supported by a hinge and cable as shown. The
force exerted on the beam by the hinge has a vertical component that must be:

A. nonzero and up
B. nonzero and down
C. nonzero but not enough information given to know whether up or down
D. zero
E. equal to W
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56. . A 400-N uniform vertical boom is attached to the ceiling by a hinge, as shown. An
800-N weight W and a horizontal guy wire are attached to the lower end of the
boom as indicated. The pulley is massless and frictionless. The tension force T of
the horizontal guy wire has magnitude:

A. 340 N
B. 400 N
C. 690 N
D. 800 N
E. 1200 N

57. A uniform horizontal beam with a length of 8.00m and a weight of 200N is attached
to a wall by a pin connection. Its far end is supported by a cable that makes angle of
53.0° with the beam. If a 600N person stands 2.00m from the wall, find the tension in
the cable as well as the magnitude and direction of the force exerted by the wall on
the beam.

58. A uniform 1500Kg beam, 20m long, supports a 15,000Kg printing press 5m from
right support column. Calculate the force on each of the vertical support systems.

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59. A horizontal rod AB is suspended at its ends by two strings. The rod is 0.6m long
and its weight of 3N acts at G where AG is 0.4m and BG is 0.2m. find the tensions X
and Y

60. A homogeneous beam of length 2.2m and mass=25.0Kg is fixed on a wall by a hinge
and is held in horizontal position by a metallic string making angle of θ=30° as
shown in the figure below. It holds a mass M=280Kg suspended at its extremity.
Determine the components of the force exerted by the wall on the beam at the
hinge and components of the tension in the metallic string.

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61. For the situation shown in the figure below, find the values of FT1 and FT2 if the
object’s weight is 600N

62. The uniform beam shown below weighs 500N and supports a 700-N load. Find the tension
in the rope and the force of the hinge on the beam.

63. Calculate the magnitudes FA and FB of the tensions in the two cords that are
connected to the vertical cord supporting the 200kg chandelier in the figure

64. The bridge on a river of a country of Central Africa is supposed to have a length of
100m and mass 105kg. It leans on two pillars to its extremities. What are forces
exerted on the pillars when three cars (one Mercedes of 1500kg, a Renault of
1200kg and a Fiat 1000kg) are respectively to 30, 80 and 60m from the extremity
leaning on the left bank.

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65. A block of mass 330kg is suspended by three unstretchable ropes as shown on the
figure below. If the system is in equilibrium
a) Determine T1,
b) If θ1 = 15°, θ2 = 30°, find the tensions in the ropes

66. A uniform beam, 2.20 m long with mass is mounted by a small hinge on a wall as
shown in Fig. below .The beam is held in a horizontal position by a cable that makes
an angle θ=30°.The beam supports a sign of mass suspended from its end. Determine
the components of the force that the (smooth) hinge exerts on the beam, and the
tension in the supporting cable.
67. A 5.0-m-long ladder leans against a wall at a point 4.0 m above a cement floor as
shown in Fig. below. The ladder is uniform and has mass. Assuming the wall is
frictionless, but the floor is not, determine the forces exerted on the ladder by the
floor and by the wall.

68. . A traffic light hangs from a pole as shown in Fig. below. The uniform aluminum
pole AB is 7.20 m long and has a mass of 12.0 kg. The mass of the traffic light is
21.5 kg. Determine The tension in the horizontal massless cable CD, and The
vertical and horizontal components of the force exerted by the pivot A on the
aluminum pole

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69. Calculate and for the beam shown in Fig. below. The downward forces represent
the weights of machinery on the beam. Assume the beam is uniform and has a
mass of 280 kg.

70. Figure below shows a safe (mass M 430 kg) hanging by a rope (negligible
mass) from a boom (a 1.9 m and b 2.5 m) that consists of a uniform hinged
beam (m = 85 kg) and horizontal cable (negligible mass).
a) What is the tension Tc in the cable? In other words, what is the
magnitude of the force on the beam from the cable?

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 b) Find the magnitude F of the net force on the beam from the hinge.
71. In Fig. below, suppose the length L of the uniform bar is 3.00 m and its
weight is 200 N. Also, let the block’s weight W =300 N and the angle
θ=30.0°. The wire can withstand a maximum tension of 500 N.
a) What is the maximum possible distance x before the wire breaks?
With the block placed at this maximum x, what are the
b) Horizontal and
c) Vertical components of the force on the bar from the hinge at A

UNIT 4: WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

72. An object moves in a circle at constant speed. The work done by the centripetal
force is zero because:
A. the displacement for each revolution is zero
B. the average force for each revolution is zero
C. there is no friction
D. the magnitude of the acceleration is zero
E. the centripetal force is perpendicular to the velocity
73. An object of mass 1 g is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 0.5 m at a constant
speed of 2 m/s. The work done on the object during one revolution is:
A. 0
B. 1 J
C. 2 J
D. 4 J
E. 16 J
74. The work done by gravity during the descent of a projectile:
A. is positive
B. is negative
C. is zero
D. depends for its sign on the direction of the y axis
E. depends for its sign on the direction of both the x and y axes
75. A 2-kg object is moving at 3 m/s. A 4-N force is applied in the direction of motion
and then removed after the object has traveled an additional 5 m. The work done
by this force is:
A. 12 J
B. 15 J
C. 18 J
D. 20 J
E. 38 J
76. A sledge (including load) weighs 5000 N. It is pulled on level snow by a dog team
exerting a horizontal force on it. The coefficient of kinetic friction between sledge
and snow is 0.05. How much work is done by the dog team pulling the sledge 1000 m
at constant speed?
A. 2.5 × 104 J
B. 2.5 × 105 J
C. 5.0 × 105 J
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 D. 2.5 × 106 J
E. 5.0 × 106 J

77. Camping equipment weighing 6000 N is pulled across a frozen lake by means of a
horizontal rope. The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.05. The work done by the
campers in pulling the equipment 1000 m at constant velocity is:
A. 3.1 × 104 J
B. 1.5 × 105 J
C. 3.0 × 105 J
D. 2.9 × 106 J
E. 6.0 × 106 J
78. A man pulls a sled along a rough horizontal surface by applying a constant force
FN at an angle θ above the horizontal. In pulling the sled a horizontal distance d,
the work done by the man is:
A. F d
B. F d cos θ
C. F d sin θ
D. F d/ cos θ
E. F d/ sin θ
79. An ideal spring, with a pointer attached to its end, hangs next to a scale. With a 100-N
weight attached, the pointer indicates “40” on the scale as shown. Using a 200-N weight
instead results in “60” on the scale. Using an unknown weight X instead results in “30” on
the scale. The weight of X is:

A. 10 N
B. 20 N
C. 30 N
D. 40 N
E. 50 N
80. An ideal spring is hung vertically from the ceiling. When a 2.0-kg mass hangs at rest from
it the spring is extended 6.0 cm from its relaxed length. A downward external force is now
applied to the mass to extend the spring an additional 10 cm. While the spring is being
extended by the force, the work done by the spring is:
A. -3.6 J
B. -3.3 J
C. -3.4 × 10-5 J
D. 3.3 J
E. 3.6 J
81. Which of the following bodies has the largest kinetic energy?
A. Mass 3M and speed V
B. Mass 3M and speed 2V
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 C. Mass 2M and speed 3V
D. Mass M and speed 4V
E. All four of the above have the same kinetic energy
82. Two trailers, X with mass 500 kg and Y with mass 2000 kg, are being pulled at the
same speed. The ratio of the kinetic energy of Y to that of X is:
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 4:1
D. 9:1
E. 1500:1
83. A 8000-N car is traveling at 12 m/s along a horizontal road when the brakes are
applied. The car skids to a stop in 4.0 s. How much kinetic energy does the car lose in
this time?
A. 4.8 × 104 J
B. 5.9 × 104 J
C. 1.2 × 105 J
D. 5.8 × 105 J
E. 4.8 × 106 J
84. An object is constrained by a cord to move in a circular path of radius 0.5 m on a
horizontal frictionless surface. The cord will break if its tension exceeds 16 N. The
maximum kinetic energy the object can have is:
A. 4 J
B. 8 J
C. 16 J
D. 32 J
E. 64 J
85. The weight of an object on the moon is one-sixth of its weight on Earth. The ratio of the
kinetic energy of a body on Earth moving with speed V to that of the same body moving
with speed V on the moon is:
A. 6:1
B. 36:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:6
E. 1:36
86. A 5.0-kg cart is moving horizontally at 6.0 m/s. In order to change its speed to
10.0 m/s, the net work done on the cart must be:
A. 40 J
B. 90 J
C. 160 J
D. 400 J
E. 550 J
87. A 4-kg cart starts up an incline with a speed of 3 m/s and comes to rest 2 m up the
incline. The total work done on the car is:
A. 6 J
B. 8 J
C. 12 J
D. 18 J
88. A 0.50-kg object moves on a horizontal circular track with a radius of 2.5 m. An external
force of 3.0 N, always tangent to the track, causes the object to speed up as it goes
around. If it starts from rest its speed at the end of one revolution is:
24
 A. 9.8 m/s
B. 14 m/s
C. 15 m/s
D. 19 m/s
E. 21 m/s
89. An escalator is used to move 20 people (60 kg each) per minute from the first floor of a
department store to the second floor, 5 m above. Neglecting friction, the power required is
approximately:

A. 100 W
B. 200 W
C. 1000 W
D. 2000 W
E. 60, 000 W
90. A person holds an 80-N weight 2 m above the floor for 30 seconds. The power required to
do this is:
A. 80 W
B. 40 W
C. 20 W
D. 10 W
E. none of these
91. A 50-N force is the only force on a 2-kg object that starts from rest. When the force has
been acting for 2 s the rate at which it is doing work is:
A. 75 W
B. 100 W
C. 1000 W
D. 2500 W
E. 5000 W
92. A 50-N force is the only force a 2-kg crate that starts from rest. At the instant the object
has gone 2 m the rate at which the force is doing work is:
A. 2.5 W
B. 25 W
C. 75 W
D. 100 W
E. 500 W
93. Only if a force on a particle is conservative:
A. is its work zero when the particle moves exactly once around any closed path
B. is its work always equal to the change in the kinetic energy of the particle
C. does it obey Newton’s second law
D. does it obey Newton’s third law
E. is it not a frictional force
94. A force on a particle is conservative if:
A. its work equals the change in the kinetic energy of the particle
B. it obeys Newton’s second law

25
 C. it obeys Newton’s third law
D. its work depends on the end points of every motion, not on the path between
E. it is not a frictional force
95. Two particles interact by conservative forces. In addition, an external force acts on each
particle. They complete round trips, ending at the points where they started. Which of the
following must have the same values at the beginning and end of this trip?
A. the total kinetic energy of the two-particle system
B. the potential energy of the two-particle system
C. the mechanical energy of the two-particle system
D. the total linear momentum of the two-particle system
E. none of the above
96. A 6.0-kg block is released from rest 80 m above the ground. When it has fallen 60 m its
kinetic energy is approximately:
A. 4800 J
B. 3500 J
C. 1200 J
D. 120 J
E. 60 J
97. A 2-kg block is thrown upward from a point 20 m above Earth’s surface. At what height
above Earth’s surface will the gravitational potential energy of the Earth- block system
have increased by 500 J?
A. 5 m
B. 25 m
C. 46 m
D. 70 m
E. 270 m
98. A projectile of mass 0.50 kg is fired with an initial speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 60 ◦
above the horizontal. The potential energy of the projectile-Earth system (relative
potential energy when the projectile is at ground level) is:
A. 25 J
B. 18.75 J
C. 12.5 J
D. 6.25 J
E. none of these
99. A force of 10 N holds an ideal spring with a 20-N/m spring constant in compression. The
potential energy stored in the spring is:
A. 0.5 J
B. 2.5 J
C. 5 J
D. 10 J
E. 200 J
100. An ideal spring is used to fire a 15.0-g pellet horizontally. The spring has a spring
constant of 20 N/m and is initially compressed by 7.0 cm. The kinetic energy of the pellet
as it leaves the spring is:
A. zero
B. 2.5 × 10-2 J
C. 4.9 × 10-2 J
D. 9.8 × 10-2 J
E. 1.4 J

26
101. A 0.50-kg block attached to an ideal spring with a spring constant of 80 N/m
oscillates on a horizontal frictionless surface. The total mechanical energy is 0.12
J. The greatest extension of the spring from its equilibrium length is:
A. 1.5 × 10-3 m
B. 3.0 × 10-3 m
C. 0.039 m
D. 0.054 m
E. 18 m
102. A body of mass 2kg initially moving with a velocity of 1m/s is acted upon by a horizontal
force of 6N for 3seconds. Find
(i) Impulse given to the body
(ii) Final speed of the body
103. A 10,000kg railroad car travelling at a speed of 24.0m/s strikes an identical car at rest. If
the cars lock together as result of collision, what is their common speed afterward?
104. An automobile of mass m = 749.5kg accelerates from the rest. During the first ten
seconds, the net force acting on it is given by the relation F = F0 - kt, where F0= 888.6N, k =
44.48N/s and t is the time elapsed in second after the departure. Find the velocity at the
end of the 10s and the travelled distance during that time.
105. A proton travelling with a speed 8.2×105m/s collides elastically with a stationary proton in
a hydrogen target. One of the protons is observed to be scattered at a 60° angle. At what
angle will the second proton be observed, and what will be the velocities of the two
protons after the collision?
106. A 15,000kg railroad car travels alone on a level frictionless track with a constant speed of
23.0m/s. A 5000kg additional load is dropped onto the car. What then will be its speed?
107. A billiard ball of mass mA = 0.400kg moving with a speed vA = 200m/s strikes a second
ball, initially at rest, of mass mB = 0.400kg. As a result of the collision, the first is deflected
off at an angle of 30° with a speed of vA = 1.20m/s.
a) Taking the x to be the original direction of motion of ball A, write down the
equations expressing the conservation of momentum for the components in the
x and y directions separately.
b) Solve these equations for the speed, vB', and angle α, of ball B. Assume the
collision is elastic.
108. Two billiard balls of equal mass move at right angles and meet at the origin of an xy
coordinates system. One is moving upward along the y axis at 3.00m/s, the other is
moving to the right angle along the x axis with a speed of 4.80m/s. After the
collision (assumed elastic), the second ball is moving along the positive y axis. What
is the final direction of the first ball, and what are their two speeds?
109. Two masses m1 = 5Kg and m2 = 10Kg have velocities u1 = 2m/s according to x
positive axis and u2 = 4m/s according to y positive axis. They collide and they get
stuck. What is the final velocity after collision?
110. A
lorry of transport of goods is empty and has a mass of 10000kg. When the lorry
moves at 2m/s on a horizontal plane, it collides another lorry loaded, of total mass

27
 20000kg this last being initially at rest but with released breaks. If the two Lorries
stuck together, after collision, what is their speed after collision?
111. A 1 500-kg car traveling east with a speed of 25.0 m/s collides at an intersection with
a 2 500-kg van traveling north at a speed of 20.0 m/s. Find the direction and
magnitude of the velocity of the wreckage after the collision, assuming that the
vehicles undergo a perfectly inelastic collision (that is, they stick together).
112. A proton collides elastically with another proton that is initially at rest. The incoming
proton has an initial speed of 3.50 x 105 m/s and makes a glancing collision with the
second proton. After the collision, one proton moves off at an angle of 37.0° to the
original direction of motion, and the second deflects at an angle of φ to the same
axis. Find the final speeds of the two protons and the angle φ.

113. Suppose two balls A and B of masses m1 and m2 are moving initially (in the same
direction) along the same straight line with velocities u1 and u2 respectively. The two
balls collide. Let the collision be perfect elastic. After collision, suppose v1 is the
velocity of A and v2 is the velocity of B along the same straight line. Prove that:

114. A particle has an initial speed v0. It makes a glancing collision with a second
particle of equal mass that is stationary. After the collision the speed of the first
particle is v and it has been deflected through an angle θ. The velocity of the second
particle makes an angle β with the initial direction of the first particle. Using the
conservation of linear momentum principle in the x- and y directions, respectively,
show that tan β = v sin θ/ (v0 - v cos θ) and show that if the collision is elastic, v = v0
cos θ

UNIT 5: KIRCHHOFF’S LAWS AND ELECTRIC CIRCUITS

115. The terminals of a battery are connected across two different resistors in parallel.

Which of the following statements are correct? (There may be more than
one correct statement.) (a) The larger resistor carries more current than the smaller
resistor. (b) The larger resistor carries less current than the smaller resistor.
(c) The voltage difference across each resistor is the same. (d) The voltage difference
across the larger resistor is greater than the voltage difference across the smaller
resistor. (e) The voltage difference is greater across the resistor closer to the battery.

28
116. The terminals of a battery are connected across two different resistors in series.
Which of the following statements are correct? One correct statement.) (a) The
smaller resistor carries more current. (b) The larger resistor carries less current. (c)
The current in each resistor is the same. (d) The voltage difference across each
resistor is the same. (e) The voltage difference is greatest across the resistor closest
to the positive terminal.
117. Two light bulbs are in series, one operating at 120 W and the other operating at
60.0 W. If the voltage drop across the series combination is 120 V, what is the
current in the circuit? (a) 1.0 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 2.0 A (d) 2.5 A (e) 3.0 A
118. What is the current in the 10-V resistance in the circuit shown in Figure below
(a) 0.59 A (b) 1.0 A (c) 11 A (d) 16 A (e) 5.3 A

119. Which of the following equations is not a consequence of Kirchhoff’s rules, when applied
to figure below:
a) 9-I1-2I2=0
b) I1-I2-I3=0
c) 5-2I2-2I3=0
d) 5-I1-3I3=0
e) All these equations are correct.

120. If
the terminals of a battery are connected across two identical resistors in series, the
total power delivered by the battery is 8.0 W. If the same battery is connected across
the resistors in parallel, what is the total power delivered by the battery? (a) 16 W (b)
32 W (c) 2.0 W (d) 4.0 W (e) 8.0 W.

121. When resistors with different resistances are connected in series, which of the
following must be the same for each resistor? Choose all correct answers. (a)
Potential difference (b) current (c) power delivered (d) charge.

122. Acertain wire has resistance R. Another wire, of the same material, has half the
length and half the diameter of the first wire. The resistance of the second wire is:
29
 A. R/4
B. R/2
C. R
D. 2R
E. 4R
123. You wish to triple the rate of energy dissipation in a heating device. To do this you could
triple:
A. the potential difference keeping the resistance the same
B. the current keeping the resistance the same
C. the resistance keeping the potential difference the same
D. the resistance keeping the current the same
E. both the potential difference and current
124. A flat iron is marked “120 V, 600 W”. In normal use, the current in it is:
A. 2 A
B. 4 A
C. 5 A
D. 7.2 A
E. 0.2 A
125. An ordinary light bulb is marked “60 W, 120 V”. Its resistance is:
A. 60 Ω
B. 120 Ω
C. 180 Ω
D. 240 Ω
E. 15 Ω
126. It is better to send 10, 000 kW of electric power long distances at 10, 000 V rather than at
220 V because:
A. there is less heating in the transmission wires
B. the resistance of the wires is less at high voltages
C. more current is transmitted at high voltages
D. the insulation is more effective at high voltages
E. the iR drop along the wires is greater at high voltage
127. A certain x-ray tube requires a current of 7 mA at a voltage of 80 kV. The rate of energy
dissipation (in watts) is:
A. 560
B. 5600
C. 26
D. 11.4
E. 87.5
128. “The sum of the currents into a junction equals the sum of the currents out of the
junction” is a consequence of:
A. Newton’s third law
B. Ohm’s law
C. Newton’s second law

30
 D. conservation of energy
E. conservation of charge
129. “The sum of the emf’s and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero” is a
consequence of:
A. Newton’s third law
B. Ohm’s law
C. Newton’s second law
D. conservation of energy
E. conservation of charge
130. A portion of a circuit is shown, with the values of the currents given for some branches.
What is the direction and value of the current i?

A. ↓, 6 A
B. ↑, 6 A
C. ↓, 4 A
D. ↑, 4 A
E. ↓, 2 A
131. Four wires meet at a junction. The first carries 4 A into the junction, the second carries 5
A out of the junction, and the third carries 2 A out of the junction. The fourth carries:
a. 7 A out of the junction
b. 7 A into the junction
c. 3 A out of the junction
d. 3 A into the junction
e. 1 A into the junction
132. A battery is connected across a series combination of two identical resistors. If the
potential difference across the terminals is V and the current in the battery is i, then:
A. the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor
is i
B. the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each
resistor is i/2
C. the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor
is i/2
D. the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each
resistor is i
E. none of the above are true

31
133. A battery is connected across a parallel combination of two identical resistors. If the
potential difference across the terminals is V and the current in the battery is i, then:
A. the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor
is i
B. the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each
resistor is i/2
C. the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor
is i/2
D. the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each
resistor is i
E. none of the above are true
134. A total resistance of 3.0 Ω is to be produced by combining an unknown resistor R
with a 12 Ω resistor. What is the value of R and how is it to be connected to the 12 Ω
resistor?
A. 4.0 Ω, parallel
B. 4.0 Ω, series
C. 2.4 Ω, parallel
D. 2.4 Ω, series
E. 9.0 Ω, series
135. The resistance of resistor 1 is twice the resistance of resistor 2. The two are
connected in parallel and a potential difference is maintained across the
combination. Then:
A. the current in 1 is twice that in 2
B. the current in 1 is half that in 2
C. the potential difference across 1 is twice that across 2
D. the potential difference across 1 is half that across 2
E. none of the above are true
136. The emf of a battery is equal to its terminal potential difference:
A. under all conditions
B. only when the battery is being charged
C. only when a large current is in the battery
D. only when there is no current in the battery
E. under no conditions
137. Is the direction of current in a battery always from the negative terminal to the positive
one? Explain.
138. Connecting batteries in series increases the emf applied to a circuit. What advantage
might there be to connecting them in parallel?
139. If electrical power is transmitted over long distances, the resistance of the wires becomes
significant. Why? Which mode of transmission would result in less energy loss, high
current and low voltage or low current and high voltage? Discuss
140. Why is it possible for a bird to sit on a high-voltage wire without being electrocuted?

32
141. Two resistors are connected in series across a battery. Is the power delivered to each
resistor (i) the same or (ii) not necessarily the same? (b) Two resistors are connected
in parallel across a battery. Is the power delivered to each resistor (i) the same or (ii)
not necessarily the same?
142. Why is it dangerous to turn on a light when you are in a bathtub?
143. Consider the combination of resistors shown in Figure below. (a) Find the equivalent
resistance between point a and b. (b) If a voltage of 35.0 V is applied between points
a and b, find the current in each resistor.

144. Two resistors connected in series have an equivalent resistance of 690Ω. When they are
connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is 150Ω. Find the resistance of each
resistor.

145. How much current is drawn from the battery shown in figure below?

146.
a) What is the power supplied by a cell of emf 4.5V, knowing that a current of 0.5A
flows in the circuit?
b) Find the emf of a generator of power 12W sending a current of 1A in an external
circuit.
c) The power dissipated as heat in a cell is of 7W, find its internal resistance if a
current of 2A flows through it.
d) Find the power dissipated as heat in a generator of internal resistance 0.6Ω
crossed by a current of 3A.
e) The total power of a battery is of 9V and its internal resistance 3Ω. Knowing
that the current crossed is of 0.4A. Find the efficiency of the battery.
f) A generator of internal resistance 2Ω sends a current of 4A in a resistor
of resistance 10Ω. Calculate its power.

33
 g) An external resistance of 4Ω is connected to an electric cell of emf 1.5V
and internal resistance 2Ω. Calculate the intensity of the current flowing
the external resistance.
h) An electric cell of emf 1.5V and internal resistance 2Ω is connected in series
with a resistance of 28Ω. Calculate the power dissipated as heat in the cell.
147. Three resistors are connected in parallel as shown in Figure below. A potential
difference of 18.0 V is maintained between points a and b.
a) Find the current in each resistor.
b) Calculate the power delivered to each resistor and the total power
delivered to the combination of resistors

148.
a) Find the equivalent resistance between points a and b in Figure below.
b) A potential difference of 34.0 V is applied between points a and b.
Calculate the current in each resistor.

149. Consider the circuit shown in Figure below. Find

a) The current in the 20.0Ω resistor and
b) The potential difference between points a and b

150. Three 100-Ω resistors are connected as shown in Figure below. The maximum
34
 power that can safely be delivered to any one resistor is 25.0 W.

a) What is the maximum voltage that can be applied to the terminals a and b?
b) For the voltage determined in part (a), what is the power delivered to each
resistor? What is the total power delivered?

151. Calculate the power delivered to each resistor in the circuit shown in Figure
shown.

152. Two resistors connected in series have an equivalent resistance of 690Ω. When
they are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is 150Ω. Find the
resistance of each resistor.
153. In the circuit shown in Fig. below, the resistor dissipates 0.80 W. What is the
battery voltage?

154. Four 1.5V cells are connected in series to a 12Ω light bulb. If the resulting current
is 0.45A, what is the internal resistance of each cell, assuming they are identical
and neglecting wires?
155. A certain number of cells of emf 1.5V and internal resistance 2Ω are connected in
series. When connected this combination to an external resistance of 10Ω, a
current of 500m A flows in this resistance. Find the number of cells used.
156. A cell of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.2Ω is associated in opposition with
another cell of emf 1.5V and internal resistance 1.2Ω. Calculate the intensity of
the current knowing that the external resistance is 1.1Ω.
157. Six cells of unknown emf and internal resistance of 2Ω are associated in parallel.
When an external resistance of 1Ω is connected to this combination a current of
1.5A is produced. Calculate the emf.
158. A 9V battery whose internal resistance r is 0.5Ω is connected in the circuit shown
in the figure.
35
 a) How much current is drawn from the source?
b) What is the terminal voltage of the battery?
c) What is the current in the 6Ω resistor?
159. What is the internal resistance of a 12V car battery whose terminal voltage drops to 8.4V
when the starter draws 75A? What is the resistance of the starter?
160. A cell whose terminals are connected to a wire in nickel silver of resistivity 30 x 10 -6 Ωcm
and cross sectional area 0.25mm2 and length 5m sends a current of 160mA. When the
length is reduced to a half, the intensity of the current is of 300mA. Calculate:
a) The internal resistance.
b) The emf of the cell.
161. When a pair of 4Ω resistors is connected in series with a battery, there is a current of 0.60
A through the battery. When the same two resistors are connected in parallel and then
connected across the battery, there is a current of 1.50 A through it. Calculate the emf and
the internal resistance of the battery.
162.
a) Explain what is meant by the internal resistance of a cell
b) When a cell is connected in series with a resistor of 2.00Ω there is a current
of 0.625 A. If a second resistor of 2.00Ω is put in series with the first, the
current falls to 0.341 A. Calculate:
i) The internal resistance of the cell
ii) The emf. of the cell
c) A car battery needs to supply a current of 200 A to turn over the starter
motor. Explain why a battery made of a series of cells would not be suitable
for a car battery.
163. A single cell of emf. 1.5 V is connected across a 0.30Ω resistor. The current in the
circuit is 2.5 A.
a) Calculate the terminal p.d. and explain why it is not equal to the e.m.f. of
the cell.
b) Show that the internal resistance r of the cell is 0.30Ω.
c) It is suggested that the power dissipated in the external resistor is a
maximum when its resistance R is equal to the internal resistance r of the
cell.
i) Calculate the power dissipated when R = r.
ii) Show that the power dissipated when R = 0.50Ω and R = 0.20Ω is less
than that dissipated when R = r, as the statement above suggests.
164. A battery of emf. 5.0 V and internal resistance 2.0Ω is connected to an 8.0Ω resistor.
Draw a circuit diagram and calculate the current in the circuit.

36
165. A 12 V car battery can supply a current of 10 A for 5.0 hours. Calculate how many joules
of energy the battery transfers in this time.
166. An energy-efficient light bulb is labeled ‘230 V, 15 W’. This means that when connected to
the 230 V mains supply it is fully lit and changes electrical energy to heat and light at the
rate of 15 W. Calculate:
a) The current which flows through the bulb when fully lit
b) Its resistance when fully lit.
167. Calculate the resistance of a 100 W light bulb that draws a current of 0.43 A from a power
supply.
168. Some electricity-generating companies use a unit called the kilowatt-hour (kW h) to
calculate energy bills.1 kW h is the energy a kilowatt appliance transfers in 1 hour.
a. Show that 1 kW h is equal to 3.6 MJ.
b. An electric shower heater is rated at 230 V, 9.5 kW.
i. Calculate the current it will take from the mains supply.
ii. Suggest why the shower requires a separate circuit from other appliances.
iii. Suggest a suitable current rating for the fuse in this circuit
c. Calculate the energy transferred when a boy uses the shower for 5
minutes
169. Use Kirchhoff’s second law to deduce the p.d. across the resistor of resistance
R in the circuit shown in the figure below, and hence find the value of R.
(Assume the battery of emf. 10 V has negligible internal resistance.)

170.
a) Explain what is meant by the resistance of a resistor.
b) The figure below shows a network of resistors connected to a cell of e.m.f.
6.0 V

37
 Show that the resistance of the network of resistors is 40 Ω
c) Calculate the current in the 60 Ω resistor
171.
a) Explain why an ammeter is designed to have a low resistance.
b) A student builds the circuit in Figure below, using a battery of negligible
internal resistance.
The reading on the voltmeter is 9.0 V

i. The voltmeter has a resistance of 1200 Ω. Calculate the emf. of the

battery.
ii. The student now repeats the experiment using a voltmeter of
resistance 12 kΩ. Show that the reading on this voltmeter would be
9.5 V.
iii. Refer to your answers to i and ii and explain why a voltmeter should
have as high a resistance as possible.
172. A filament lamp and a 220 Ω resistor are connected in series to a battery of e.m.f.
V. The battery has negligible internal resistance. A high-resistance voltmeter
placed across the resistor measures 1.8 V. Calculate:
a) The current drawn from the battery
b) The p.d. across the lamp
c) The total resistance of the circuit
173. The circuit diagram in Figure below shows a 12 V power supply connected to some
resistors.

The current in the resistor X is 2.0A and the current in the 6.0 Ω resistor is
0.5A. Calculate:
a) The current in resistor Y
b) The resistance of resistor Y
c) The resistance of resistor X

38
174.
a) The resistance of a resistor is doubled by changing it from 5 Ω to 10Ω. What
happens to the current flowing through the circuit if the potential difference
across this circuit remains constant?
b)
i. A voltmeter is connected to the terminals of a battery that has
electromotive force of 12 V and internal resistance of 3Ω; the battery is
not connected to any other external circuit elements. What is the
reading of the voltmeter?
ii. The voltmeter is now removed and a 21Ω resistor is connected to the
terminals of the battery. What is the current through the battery?
175. Find the current through each resistor in the following figure.

176. Look at the following figure carefully and answer to the corresponding questions.
i. Find the reading of the voltmeter
ii. Calculate the power dissipated in 100Ω

39
177. Consider the circuit shown in Figure

a) Calculate the total current in the circuit

b) Find the voltage across the 3.00-Ω resistor
c) Calculate the current in the 3.00-Ω resistor
178. Find the current in the 12-Ω resistor in Figure

179. A heating element in a stove is designed to dissipate 3 000 W when connected to 240 V.
(a) Assuming the resistance is constant, calculate the current in the heating element if it is
connected to 120 V. (b) Calculate the power it dissipates at that voltage.
180. When two unknown resistors are connected in series with a battery, the battery delivers
225 W and carries a total current of 5.00 A. For the same total current, W is delivered
when the resistors are connected in parallel. Determine the value of each resistor.
181. The resistor R in Figure dissipates 20 W of power. Determine the value of R

182. A voltage V is applied to a series configuration of n resistors, each of resistance R. The

circuit components are reconnected in a parallel configuration and voltage V is again
applied. Show that the power consumed by the series configuration is 1/n2 times the
power consumed by the parallel configuration.
183. Find the value of current in resistance R3 as shown in figure below, where R1 = 1Ω,
R2 = 2Ω, R4 = 3Ω, R5 = 6Ω, R3 = 2Ωand E1 = 10 V

40
184. A battery is connected to three resistors of value 2Ω, 4Ω and 6Ω. The power supplied by
the battery is 0.12W. Find the current through the circuit
185. The figure below shows a filament lamp connected to two cells in series. Each of the cells
has an emf of 1.5V and internal resistance of 0.5Ω. Under these conditions, the resistance
of the lamp is 14Ω

a) Calculate the power dissipated in the internal resistance of one of the cells
b) Explain why 8 such cells cannot be used to start a car engine instead of a
single 12V accumulator.
c) A resistor of 500Ω and that of 2000Ω are connected in series across a 60V
supply. What will be the reading on a voltmeter of internal resistance
2000Ω when placed across:
i. The 500Ω resistor
ii. The 2000Ω resistor
186.
a) In an experiment to determine the internal resistance r of the cell, e.m.f E is
first balanced by the length of 90.0cm on the wire currying a constant
current. When a resistance of 5Ω is joined to the cell, the terminal p.d of the
cell is now balanced by a length of 45cm.
i. Why is the balance length smaller when the resistance is connected to
the cell?
ii. Find the value of r.
b) The Cell A is balanced by the length of 75cm. When the cell of e.m.f 1.2V is
connected to the circuit, the balance length becomes 50.0cm. Find the e.m.f
of A. Find the new balance length if A has an internal resistance of 2Ω and a
resistor of 8Ω.
c)

41
 i. Two resistors of 1200Ω and 800Ω are connected in series with a
battery of emf 24V and negligible internal resistance. What is the
potential difference across each resistor?
ii. A voltmeter V of resistance 600Ω is now connected firstly across
the 1200Ω resistor and then across the 800Ω resistor. Find the p.d
recorded by the voltmeter in each case
187.

a) What is a simple potentiometer? Write its function

b) The driver cell of a potentiometer has emf of 2V and negligible internal
resistance. The potentiometer wire has a resistance of 3Ω. Calculate the
resistance needed in series with the wire if the p.d of 5mV is required
across the whole wire. The wire is 100cm long and a balance length of
60cm is obtained for a thermocouple emf what is the value of E.
188. For the arrangement of the potentiometer shown in the figure below, the balance
point is obtained at a distance 75 cm from A when the key K is open. The second
balance point is obtained at 60 cm from A when the key K is closed. Find the
internal resistance (in Ω) of the battery 1

189. A potentiometer is set up as shown in Fig below. Given that the balancing point for the
unknown e.m.f. E is found to be 74.5 cm from the left hand end of the meter wire (1m). If
the driver cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 V and negligible internal resistance. Find the value
unknown e.m.f.

190. A certain cell is connected to a potentiometer and a balance point is obtained at 84 cm

along the meter wire. When its terminals are connected to a 5Ω resistor,

42
balance point changes to 70 cm. calculate the balance when a 5Ω resistor is now
replaced by a 4Ω resistor.

191. Find the current flowing in the resistor R3 of 40Ω.

192. Solve the circuit for currents I1, I2, and I3, using Kirchhoff’s rules.

193.

43
194. For what value of R in the circuit as shown in the figure, so that the current
passing through 4Ω resistor will be zero?

195.
a) Explain the terms e.m.f and internal resistance of battery.
b) With the aid of a labeled diagram describe briefly how a slide wire
potentiometer can be used to measure low voltage of the order of
millivolts.
c)

In the circuit diagram above, an accumulator D of emf 2.0 V and

internal resistance of 0.2Ω is connected across a uniform wire AB of length 1.0 m and
resistance 0.5 Ω. X is a cell of emf 4.0 V and internal resistance r Ω connected across a
resistor R of resistance 2.0Ω. The galvanometer, G, shows no deflection when the
sliding contact P is 45.0 cm from A. Calculate:

i. The current through R

ii. The value of r

UNIT 6: PROJECTILE AND UNIFORM CIRCULAR

MOTION.
196. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20-m high hill. It strikes the ground at
an angle of 45◦. With what speed was it thrown?

44
 A. 14 m/s
B. 20 m/s
C. 28 m/s
D. 32 m/s
E. 40 m/s

197. A stone is thrown outward from the top of a 59.4-m high cliff with an upward velocity
component of 19.5 m/s. How long is stone in the air?
A. 4.00 s
B. 5.00 s
C. 6.00 s
D. 7.00 s
E. 8.00 s
198. A large cannon is fired from ground level over level ground at an angle of 30 ◦ above the
horizontal. The muzzle speed is 980 m/s. Neglecting air resistance; the projectile will
travel what horizontal distance before striking the ground?
A. 4.3 km
B. 8.5 km
C. 43 km
D. 85 km
E. 170 km
199. A bullet shot horizontally from a gun:
A. strikes the ground much later than one dropped vertically from the same
point at the same instant
B. never strikes the ground
C. strikes the ground at approximately the same time as one dropped
vertically from the same point at the same instant
D. travels in a straight line
E. strikes the ground much sooner than one dropped from the same point at the same
instant

45
200. A bomber flying in level flight with constant velocity releases a bomb before it
is over the target. Neglecting air resistance, which one of the following is NOT
true?
A. The bomber is over the target when the bomb strikes
B. The acceleration of the bomb is constant
C. The horizontal velocity of the plane equals the vertical velocity of the
bomb when it hits the target
D. The bomb travels in a curved path
E. The time of flight of the bomb is independent of the horizontal speed of the plane
201. Which of the curves on the graph below best represents the vertical
component vy of the velocity versus the time t for a projectile fired at an angle
of 45◦ above the horizontal?

A. OC
B. DE
C. AB
D. AE
E. AF

202. A projectile is fired from ground level over level ground with an initial
velocity that has a vertical component of 20 m/s and a horizontal
component of 30 m/s. Using g = 10 m/s2, the distance from launching to
landing points is:
A. 40 m
B. 60 m
C. 80 m
D. 120 m
E. 180 m
203. An object is moving on a circular path of radius π meters at a constant speed of 4.0 m/s.
The time required for one revolution is:
A. 2/π2 s
B. π2/2 s
C. π/2 s
D. π2/4
E. 2/π s
204. A stone is tied to a string and whirled at constant speed in a horizontal circle. The speed
is then doubled without changing the length of the string. Afterward the magnitude of the
acceleration of the stone is:
46
 A. the same
B. twice as great
C. four times as great
D. half as great
E. one-fourth as great
205. Point P is half way between the centres of two equal masses that are separated by a
distance of 2×109 m. what is the gravitational field strength at:
a) Point P
b) Point Q?

206. The graph in the figure below shows the variation of gravitational potential due to a
planet with distance r. using the graph, estimate:
a) The gravitational potential energy of an 800 kg spacecraft that is at rest on the
surface of the planet;
b) The work done to move this spacecraft from the surface of the planet to
a distance of four planet radii from the surface of the planet.

207. Figure below shows the variation of the gravitational potential due to a planet and
its moon with distance r from the centre of the planet. The centre-to-centre distance
between planet and the moon is d. the planet’s centre is at r d.

47
 What is the minimum energy required so that a 500 kg probe at rest on the planet’s
surface will arrive on the moon?

208. What must the radius of a star of mass M be such that the escape velocity from the
start is equal to the speed of light, C? Compute the Schwarzschild radius of the sun.
209. Evaluate the speed of a satellite in orbit at a height of 500 km from the earth’s
surface and a satellite that just grazes the surface of the earth.
210. A satellite in a low orbit will experience a small frictional force (due to atmosphere)
in a direction opposite to the satellite’s velocity.
a) Explain why the satellite will move into a lower orbit closer to the earth’s
surface.
b) Deduce that the speed of the satellite will increase.
c) Explain how a resistance force actually increases the speed of the satellite.
211. What is the speed of a satellite that orbits the earth at height of 500 km? How long
does it take to go around the earth once?

212. A satellite that always looks down at the same spot on the earth’s surface is called a
geosynchronous satellite. Find the distance of this satellite from the surface of the
earth.
213.

a) What is the gravitational potential energy stored in the gravitational field

between the earth and the moon?
b) What is the earth’s gravitational potential at the position of the moon?
c) Find the speed with which the moon orbits the earth.
214. A spacecraft of mass 30 000 kg leaves the earth on its way to the moon. Plot the
spacecraft’s potential energy as function of its distance from the earth’s centre.
215. What is the gravitational potential energy at a distance from the earth’s centre equal to 5
earth radii?
216. What is the gravitational potential energy of a 500 kg satellite placed at a distance from
the earth’s centre equal to 5 earth radii?
217. Figure below shows cross-sections of two satellite orbits around the earth. Discuss
whether either of these orbits is possible.

218. In the text it was calculated that acceleration due to gravity at a height of 300 km
above the earth’s surface is far from negligible, yet astronauts in the space shuttle at
such a height feel weightless. Explain why.
219. Figure below shows the variation of gravitational force with distance. What does
the shaded area represent?

48
220.

221. The figure shows two identical satellites in circular orbits. Which satellite has the
larger:
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Total energy?

49
222. Use Kepler’s second law to convince yourself that Earth must move faster in its
orbit during the northern hemi sphere winter, when it is closest to the Sun, than
during the summer, when it is farthest from the Sun.
223. Because of Earth’s rotation about its axis, you weigh slightly less at the equator
than at the poles. Explain.
224. Neutron stars are extremely dense objects that are formed from the remnants of
supernova explosions. Many rotate very rapidly. Suppose the mass of a certain
spherical neutron star is twice the mass of the Sun and its radius is 10.0 km.
Determine the greatest possible angular speed the neutron star can have so that
the matter at its surface on the equator is just held in orbit by the gravitational
force.
225. Two projectiles are in flight at the same time. The acceleration of one relative to the other:
A. is always 9.8 m/s2
B. can be as large as 19.8 m/s2
C. can be horizontal
D. is zero
E. none of these
226. A projectile is thrown horizontally with a speed of 300m/s from the top of a building
78.4m high.
a. Compute the range of the projectile.
b. What is the time taken to reach the ground?
227. A machine gun throws a projectile with a speed of 740m/s Find the range, the maximum
height reached by the projectile and the time taken to reach the ground, when it is
projected through an angle of 45°.
228. The range of the motion of a projectile is 20 m when it is projected from the ground with
a speed of 20m/s. What is the maximum height reached? g = 10m/s2.
229. A projectile is fired with an initial speed of 400m/s at an angle of 60° above the horizontal
from the top of a cliff 49m high. Determine the:
i. Time to reach the maximum height.
ii. Maximum height above the base of the cliff reached by the projectile.
iii. Total time it is in the air
iv. Horizontal range of the projectile
230. A projectile is fired with a speed of 600m/s at an angle of 60°. Find
1. The horizontal range.
2. The maximum height
3. The speed and the height after 30s.
4. The time and the speed when the projectile reaches 10km.
5. The time to reach the maximum height.
231. A ball is thrown vertically upward in air and returns in the hand from which it was 3s
later. A second ball is thrown at an angle of 30o with the horizontal. At which velocity
must the second ball be thrown so that it reaches the same maximum height as the first
one thrown vertically?
232.
a) A projectile is launched with speed v0 at angle αo above the horizontal. The
launch point is at a height h above the ground. Show that if air resistance is

50
 ignored, the horizontal distance that the projectile travels before striking the
ground is:

b) Determine x if h is taken to be zero.

233. How large must the coefficient of friction be between the tires and the road if a car is
to round a level curve of radius 62m at a speed of 55km/h?
234. What is the maximum speed with which a 1300kg car can round a turn of radius
95m on a flat road if the coefficient of friction between tires and road is 0.55? Is this
result independent of the mass of the car?
235. A 1000kg car rounds a curve on a flat road of radius 50m at a speed of 50 km/h. Will
the car make the turn if:
a) The pavement is dry and the coefficient of static friction is 0.60,
b) The pavement is icy and the coefficient is 0.20?
c) Calculate the speed required for a satellite moving in a circular orbit 200km
above the earth’s surface.
236. A train of 105kg travels with a speed of 70km/hand reaches a bend of radius 500m.
Find the value of the centripetal force.
237. Compute the centripetal force applied on a wheel of mass 1000kg, assuming that its
diameter is 3m and it turns with a speed of 300 rotations per minute.
238. An electric motor is switched off and its angular velocity decreases uniformly from
900 rotations to 400 rotations in 5s.
a. Find the angular acceleration in rotations/sec2 and the number of
rotations done by the motor in the time interval of 5s.
b. How long does it take the motor to stop if the angular
acceleration remains constant and equal to the one in
(a)?
239. An engine having a speed of 4000 rotations per minute decelerates during 8s till
the stop. How many rotations does it make in that time?

UNIT 7: UNIVERSAL GRAVITATIONAL FIELD

240. Rank the magnitudes of the following gravitational forces from largest to smallest. If
two forces are equal, show their equality in your list.
(a) the force exerted by a 2-kg object on a 3-kg object 1 m away
(b) the force exerted by a 2-kg object on a 9-kg object 1 m away
(c) the force exerted by a 2-kg object on a 9-kg object 2 m away
(d) the force exerted by a 9-kg object on a 2-kg object 2 m away
(e) the force exerted by a 4-kg object on another 4-kg object 2 m away
241. The gravitational force exerted on an astronaut on the Earth’s surface is 650 N directed
downward. When she is in the space station in orbit around the Earth, is the gravitational
force on her (a) larger, (b) exactly the same, (c) smaller, (d) nearly but not exactly zero, or
(e) exactly zero?

51
242. Suppose the gravitational acceleration at the surface of a certain moon A of Jupiter is 2
m/s2. Moon B has twice the mass and twice the radius of moon A. What is the gravitational
acceleration at its surface? Neglect the gravitational acceleration due to Jupiter. (a) 8 m/s2
(b) 4 m/s2 (c) 2 m/s2 (d) 1 m/s2 (e) 0.5 m/s2
243. A satellite moves in a circular orbit at a constant speed around the Earth. Which of the
following statements is true? (a) No force acts on the satellite. (b) The satellite moves at
constant speed and hence doesn’t accelerate. (c) The satellite has an acceleration directed
away from the Earth. (d) The satellite has an acceleration directed toward the Earth. (e)
Work is done on the satellite by the gravitational force
244. An object of mass m is located on the surface of a spherical planet of mass M and
radius R. The escape speed from the planet does not depend on which of the
following? (a) M (b) m (c) the density of the planet (d) R (e) the acceleration due to
gravity on that planet.

245. A satellite originally moves in a circular orbit of radius R around the Earth. Suppose
it is moved into a circular orbit of radius 4R. (i) What does the force exerted on the
satellite then become? (a) eight times larger (b) four times larger (c) one-half as large
(d) one-eighth as large (e) one sixteenth as large (ii) What happens to the satellite’s
speed? Choose from the same possibilities (a) through (e).
(i) What happens to its period? Choose from the same possibilities (a) through (e)
246. Rank the following quantities of energy from largest to the smallest. State if any is equal.
(a) the absolute value of the average potential energy of the Sun–Earth system (b) the
average kinetic energy of the Earth in its orbital motion relative to the Sun (c) the absolute
value of the total energy of the Sun–Earth system
247. Halley’s Comet has a period of approximately 76 years, and it moves in an elliptical orbit
in which its distance from the Sun at closest approach is a small fraction of its maximum
distance. Estimate the comet’s maximum distance from the Sun in astronomical units
(AUs) (the distance from the Earth to the Sun). (a) 6 AU (b) 12 AU (c) 20 AU (d) 28 AU (e) 35
AU.
248. Find the angular speed of Earth around the Sun in radians per second. (a) 2.22 ×10-6 rad/s
(b) 1.16 ×10-7 rad/s (c) 3.17×10-8 rad/s (d) 4.52 ×10-7 rad/s (e) 1.99 ×10-7 rad/s
249. Astronomers have detected three planets that orbit the star Upsilon Andromedae. Planet
B has an average orbital radius of 0.050 AU and a period of 4.6170 days. Planet C has an
average orbital radius of 0.829 AU and period of 241.5 days. Planet D has an average
orbital radius of 2.53 AU and a period of 1284 days.
a) Do these planets obey Kepler’s laws?
b) Calculate the mass of the star Upsilon Andromedae in units of sun’s mass.

52
250. Neptune orbits the sun with orbital radius of 4.495×1012m, which allow gases, such
as methane, to condense and form an atmosphere as shown below. Calculate the
period of Neptune’s orbit.
251. Suppose a satellite in an orbit of 225 km above its surface, is moved to an orbit that
is 24 km larger in radius than its previous orbit. What would its speed be? Is this
faster or slower than its previous speed?
252. Find the speed and period of satellite that is in orbit 260 km above Mercury’s
surface.
253. Themoon is 3.9×105 km from Earth’s center and 1.5×105 km from the Sun’s
centre.
a) Find the ratio of the gravitational fields due to Earth and Sun at the centre of
the Moon.
b) When the moon is in its third quarter phase, as shown below, its direction from
Earth is at right angles to the sun’s direction. What is the net gravitational field
due to the sun and Earth at the centre of the moon?

254. Two satellites are in circular orbits about the Earth. One is 150 km above the
surface, the outer 160 km.
a) Which satellite has the larger orbital period?
b) Which one has the greater speed?
255. The moon and Earth are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the more-
massive Earth attract the moon with a greater force than the moon attracts Earth? Explain.
256. If a mass in Earth’s gravitational field is doubled, what will happen to the force exerted by
the field upon the mass?
257. Jupiter is 5.2 times farther from the sun than the earth is. Find Jupiter’s orbital period in
Earth years.
258. Uranus requires 84 years to circle the Sun. Find the Uranus’s orbital radius in a multiple of
Earth’s orbital radius.
259. Mimas, one of Saturn’s moons, has an orbital radius of 1.87 108 km and an orbital period
of about 23.0 h. Find Saturn’s mass.
260. Every 74 years, comet Halley is visible from Erath. Find the average distance of the comet
from the sun in astronomical units. (AU).
261. Venus has a period of revolution of 225 Earth days. Find the distance between the sun and
Venus as a multiple of Earth’s radius.
262. If a small planet D, were located 8.0 times as far from the sun as Earth is. How many
years would it take the planet to orbit the sun?
263. Two spheres are placed so that their centers are 2.6 m apart. The force between the two
spheres is 2.75×10-12 N. What is the mass of each sphere if one sphere is twice the mass of
the other sphere?
264. The asteroid Ceres has a mass of 7×1020 kg and a radius of 500 km.
a) What is g on the surface of Ceres?
b) How much a 90-kg astronaut would weigh on Ceres?
265. A 1.25-kg book in space has a weight of 8.35 N. What is the value of the gravitational field

53
 at that location?
266. The period of the moon is one month. Answer the following questions assuming that the
mass of the Earth is doubled.
a) What would the period of the moon be? Express your results in months.
b) Where would satellite with an orbital period of one month be located?
c) How would the length of a year on Earth be affected?
267. On July 19, 1969, Apollo 11’a revolution around the moon was adjusted to an
average of 111 km. The radius of the moon is 1785 km.
a) How many minutes did Apollo 11 take to orbit the moon once?
b) At what velocity did Apollo 11 orbit the moon?
268. How high does a rocket have to go above Earth’s surface before its weight is half of what
is on Earth?
269. A 7.2×103-N spacecraft travels away from Earth. What is the weight of the spacecraft at
the following distances from Earth’s surface?
a) 6.38 103 km
b) 1.2 104 km
270. If you weigh 637 N on Earth’s surface, how much would you weigh on the planet Mars?
271. Find the acceleration due gravity at a height of 300 km from the surface of the earth.
272. Two stars have the same density but star A has double the radius of star B. Determine the
ration of the gravitational field strength at the surface of each star.
273. Show that the gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet of density ha a
magnitude given by

274.
a) What is the gravitational force between
i. The earth and the moon
ii. The sun and Jupiter
b) A mass m placed at the centre of a thin, hollow spherical shell of mass m
and radius R.
(i) What gravitational force does the mass m experience?
(ii) A second mass m is now placed a distance of 2R from the centre
of the shell. What gravitational force does the mass inside the shell
experience?
(iii) What is the gravitational force experienced by the mass outside the
shell?

275. Stars A and B have the same mass and the radius of A is 9 times larger than the radius
of star B. calculate the ratio of gravitational field strength on a star A to that on star B.
276. Planet A has a mass that is twice as large as the mass of planet B and the radius that
is twice as large as the radius of the planet B. calculate the ratio of gravitational field
strength on planet A to that on B.
54
277. Stars A and B have the same density and star A is 27 times more mass than star
B. Calculate the ratio of the gravitational field strength on star A to that on star B.
278. A star explodes and loses half its mass. Its radius becomes half as large. Find the new
gravitational field strength on the surface of the star in terms of the original one.
279. The mass of the moon is about 81 times less than that of the earth. At what fraction of
the distance of the distance from the earth to the moon is the gravitational field strength
zero? (Take into account the earth and the moon only.)
280. The average distance separating Earth and the Moon is 384 000 km. Use the data
provided to find the net gravitational force exerted by Earth and the Moon on a
3.00×104-kg spaceship located halfway between them.
281. A satellite has a mass of 100 kg and is located at 2.00×106 m above the surface of Earth.
(a) What is the potential energy associated with the satellite at this location?
(b) What is the magnitude of the gravitational force on the satellite?
282. Objects with masses of 200 kg and 500 kg are separated by 0.400 m. (a) Find the net
gravitational force exerted by these objects on a 50.0-kg object placed midway
between them. (b) At what position (other than infinitely remote ones) can the 50.0-
kg object be placed so as to experience a net force of zero?
283. A projectile is fired straight upward from the Earth’s surface at the South Pole with
an initial speed equal to one third the escape speed. (a) Ignoring air resistance,
determine how far from the center of the Earth the projectile travels before stopping
momentarily. (b) What is the altitude of the projectile at this instant?
284. An artificial satellite circling the Earth completes each orbit in 110 minutes. (a)
Find the altitude of the satellite. (b) What is the value of g at the location of this
satellite?
285. A 600-kg satellite is in a circular orbit about Earth at a height above Earth equal
to Earth’s mean radius. Find (a) the satellite’s orbital speed, (b) the period of its
revolution, and (c) the gravitational force acting on it.
286. Two satellites are in circular orbits around the Earth. Satellite A is at an altitude
equal to the Earth’s radius, while satellite B is at an altitude equal to twice the
Earth’s radius. What is the ratio of their periods, TB/TA?
287. A synchronous satellite, which always remains above the same point on a planet’s
equator, is put in circular orbit around Jupiter to study that planet’s famous red
spot. Jupiter rotates once every 9.84 h. Use the data of to find the altitude of the
satellite.
288. Show that the escape speed from the surface of a planet of uniform density is
directly proportional to the radius of the planet.
289. Find the point between Earth and the Sun at which an object can be placed so
that the net gravitational force exerted by Earth and the Sun on that object is
zero.
290. Venus has a mass of about 0.0558 times the mass of Earth and a diameter of
about 0.381 times the diameter of Earth. The acceleration of a body falling near
the surface of Venus is about:
A. 0.21 m/s2
B. 1.4 m/s2
C. 2.8 m/s2
D. 3.8 m/s2
E. 25 m/s2
291. The approximate value of g at an altitude above Earth equal to one Earth diameter is:
A. 9.8 m/s2

55
 B. 4.9 m/s2
C. 2.5 m/s2
D. 1.9 m/s2
E. 1.1 m/s2
292. A rocket ship is coasting toward a planet. Its captain wishes to know the value of g at
the surface of the planet. This may be inferred by:
A. measuring the apparent weight of one of the crew
B. measuring the apparent weight of an object of known mass in the ship
C. measuring the diameter of the planet
D. measuring the density of the planet
E. Observing the ship’s acceleration and correcting for the distance from the
center of the planet.
293. To measure the mass of a planet with the same radius as Earth, an astronaut drops
an object from rest (relative to the planet) from an altitude of one radius above the
surface. When the object hits its speed is 4 times what it would be if the same
experiment were carried out for Earth. In units of Earth masses, the mass of the
planet is:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
294. The mass of an object:
A. is slightly different at different locations on Earth
B. is a vector
C. is independent of the acceleration due to gravity
D. is the same for all objects of the same size and shape
E. can be measured directly and accurately on a spring scale
295. An astronaut on the Moon simultaneously drops a feather and a hammer. The fact
that they land together shows that:
A. no gravity forces act on a body in a vacuum
B. the acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is less than on Earth
C. in the absence of air resistance all bodies at a given location fall with the same
acceleration
D. the feather has a greater weight on the Moon than on Earth
E. G = 0 on the Moon
296. The mass of a hypothetical planet is 1/100 that of Earth and its radius is 1/4 that of
Earth. If a person weighs 600 N on Earth, what would he weigh on this planet?
A. 24 N
B. 48 N
C. 96 N
D. 192 N
E. 600 N
297. An object at the surface of Earth (at a distance R from the center of Earth) weighs 90
56
 N. Its weight at a distance 3R from the center of Earth is:
A. 10 N
B. 30 N
C. 90 N
D. 270 N
E. 810 N
298. An object is raised from the surface of Earth to a height of two Earth radii above
Earth. Then:
A. its mass increases and its weight remains constant
B. both its mass and weight remain constant
C. its mass remains constant and its weight decreases
D. both its mass and its weight decrease
E. its mass remains constant and its weight increases
299. Of the following where would the weight of an object be the least?
A. 2000 miles above Earth’s surface
B. At the north pole
C. At the equator
D. At the center of Earth
E. At the south pole
300. If Earth were to rotate only 100 times per year about its axis:
A. airplanes flying west to east would make better time
B. we would fly off Earth’s surface
C. our apparent weight would slightly increase
D. Earth’s atmosphere would float into outer space
E. our apparent weight would slightly decrease
301. An astronaut in an orbiting spacecraft feels “weightless” because she:
A. is beyond the range of gravity
B. is pulled outward by centrifugal force
C. has no acceleration
D. has the same acceleration as the spacecraft
E. is outside Earth’s atmosphere
302. Each of the four corners of a square with edge a is occupied by a point mass m.
There is a fifth mass, also m, at the center of the square. To remove the mass from
the center to a point far away the work that must be done by an external agent is
given by:

A. 4Gm2/a
B. -4Gm2/a
C. 4√2Gm2/a
D. -4√2Gm2/a
E. 4Gm2/a2
303. Two
particles, each of mass m, are a distance d apart. To bring a third particle, with
mass 2m, from far away to a resting point midway between the two particles the
work done by an external agent is given by:

57
 A. 4Gm2/d
B. -4Gm2/d
C. 8Gm2/d2
D. -8Gm2/d2
E. zero
304. The escape speed at the surface of Earth is approximately 8 km/s. What is the mass,
in units of Earth’s mass, of a planet with twice the radius of Earth for which the
escape speed is twice that for Earth?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 1/2
E. ¼
305. Neglecting air resistance, a 1.0-kg projectile has an escape velocity of about 11
km/s at the surface of Earth. The corresponding escape velocity for a 2.0 kg
projectile is:
A. 3.5 km/s
B. 5.5 km/s
C. 7.1 km/s
D. 10 km/s
E. 11 km/s
306. Neglecting air resistance, the escape speed from a certain planet for an empty space
vehicle is 1.12 × 104 m/s. What is the corresponding escape speed for the fully
loaded vehicle, which has triple the mass of the empty one?
A. 3.73 × 103 m/s
B. 1.12 × 104 m/s
C. 3.36 × 104 m/s
D. 9.98 × 104 m/s
E. 1.40 × 1012 m/s
307. An object is dropped from an altitude of one Earth radius above Earth’s surface. If M
is the mass of Earth and R is its radius the speed of the object just before it hits
Earth is given by:

58
308. A projectile is fired straight upward from Earth’s surface with a speed that is half
the escape speed. If R is the radius of Earth, the highest altitude reached, measured
from the surface, is:
A. R/4
B. R/3
C. R/2
D. R
E. 2R
309. The mass density of a certain planet has spherical symmetry but varies in such a way
that the mass inside every spherical surface with center at the center of the planet is
proportional to the radius of the surface. If r is the distance from the center of the
planet to a point mass inside the planet, the gravitational force on the mass is:
A. not dependent on r
B. proportional to r2
C. proportional to r
D. proportional to 1/r
E. proportional to 1/r2
310. An artificial satellite of Earth releases a bomb. Neglecting air resistance, the bomb
will:
A. strike Earth under the satellite at the instant of release
B. strike Earth under the satellite at the instant of impact
C. strike Earth ahead of the satellite at the instant of impact
D. strike Earth behind the satellite at the instant of impact
E. never strike Earth
311. An astronaut finishes some work on the outside of his satellite, which is in circular
orbit around Earth. He leaves his wrench outside the satellite. The wrench will:
A. fall directly down to Earth
B. continue in orbit at reduced speed
C. continue in orbit with the satellite
D. fly off tangentially into space
E. spiral down to Earth
312. Consider the statement: “Earth moves in a stable orbit around the Sun and is
therefore in equilibrium”. The statement is:
A. false, because no moving body can be in equilibrium
B. true, because Earth does not fall into or fly away from the Sun
C. false, because Earth is rotating on its axis and no rotating body can be in
equilibrium
D. false, because Earth has a considerable acceleration
E. true, because if it were not in equilibrium then buildings and structures would
not be stable
313. In planetary motion the line from the star to the planet sweeps out equal areas in
equal times. This is a direct consequence of:

59
 A. the conservation of energy
B. the conservation of momentum
C. the conservation of angular momentum
D. the conservation of mass
E. none of the above
314. The speed of a comet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun:
A. decreases while it is receding from the Sun
B. is constant
C. is greatest when farthest from the Sun
D. varies sinusoid ally with time
E. equals L/(mr), where L is its angular momentum, m is its mass, and r is its
distance from the Sun
315. A planet travels in an elliptical orbit about a star as shown. At what pair of points is
the speed the planet the same?

A. W and S
B. P and T
C. P and R
D. Q and U
E. V and R

316. Planet 1 and planet 2 are both in circular orbits around the same central star. The
orbit of planet 2 has a radius that is much larger than the radius of the orbit of
planet 1. This means that:
A. the period of planet 1 is greater than the period of planet 2 and the speed
of planet 1 is greater than the speed of planet 2
B. the period of planet 1 is greater than the period of planet 2 and the speed
of planet 1 is less than the speed of planet 2
C. the period of planet 1 is less than the period of planet 2 and the speed of
planet 1 is less than the speed of planet 2
D. the period of planet 1 is less than the period of planet 2 and the speed of
planet 1 is greater than the speed of planet 2
E. the planets have the same speed and the same period
317. For a planet in orbit around a star the perihelion distance is rp ad its speed at
perihelion is vp. The aphelion distance is ra and its speed at aphelion is va. Which of
the following is true?

60
 A. va = vp
B. va/ra = vp/rp
C. vara = vprp
D. va/ra2 = vp/rp2
E. vara2 = vprp
318. A planet is in circular orbit around the Sun. Its distance from the Sun is four times
the average distance of Earth from the Sun. The period of this planet, in Earth years,
is:
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 64
E. 2.52
319. Assume that Earth is in circular orbit around the Sun with kinetic energy K and potential
energy U, taken to be zero for infinite separation. Then, the relationship between K and U:
A. is K = U
B. is K = -U
C. is K = U/2
D. is K = -U/2
E. depends on the radius of the orbit
320. An artificial Earth satellite is moved from a circular orbit with radius R to a
circular orbit with radius 2R. During this move:
A. the gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the
satellite increases, and the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system
increases
B. the gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the
satellite increases, and the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system
decreases
C. the gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the
satellite decreases, and the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system
increases
D. the gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the
satellite increases, and the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system
decreases
E. the gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the
satellite decreases, and the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system
increases
321. An artificial satellite of Earth nears the end of its life due to air resistance. While
still in orbit:
A. it moves faster as the orbit lowers
B. it moves slower as the orbit lowers
C. it slowly spirals away from Earth
D. it moves slower in the same orbit but with a decreasing period
61
 E. it moves faster in the same orbit but with an increasing period
322. A spaceship is returning to Earth with its engine turned off. Consider only the
gravitational field of Earth and let M be the mass of Earth, m be the mass o
Spaceship, and R be the distance from the center of Earth. In moving from position 1 to
position 2 the kinetic energy of the spaceship increases by:

323. Given the perihelion distance, aphelion distance, and speed at perihelion of a
planet, which of the following CANNOT be calculated?
A. The mass of the star
B. The mass of the planet
C. The speed of the planet at aphelion
D. The period of orbit
E. The semi major axis of the orbit
324. A planet in another solar system orbits a star with a mass of 4.0 × 10 30 kg. At one point in
its orbit it is 250×106 km from the star and is moving at 35 km/s. Take the universal
gravitational constant to be 6.67 × 10-11 m2/s2 · kg and calculate the semi major axis of the
planet’s orbit. The result is:
A. 79 × 106 km
B. 160 × 106 km
C. 290 × 106 km
D. 320 × 106 km
E. 590 × 106 km
325. Calculate the effective value of g, the acceleration of gravity,

a) 3200m,
b) 3200km, above the earth’s surface.
326. Determine the net force on the moon (mm = 7.36×1022 kg) due to the gravitational
attraction of both the earth (me=5.98×1024 kg) and the sun (ms=1.99×1030 kg)
assuming they are at right angles to each other.
327. The universal attraction is given by: where G = 67×10-12 USI

a) Find the acceleration go at the earth’s surface in function of R, M and G,

where R is the radius of the earth and M its mass. If R = 6400km, go =
9.81m/s2, calculate M.
b) Find in function of go, R and h, the acceleration due to the gravity
g at a certain height h.
62
 c) If the satellite is at the height h,
i. Find the speed in function of go, R and h
ii. Find its value if h = 36000km
328. Venus is at average distance of 1.08×108 km from the sun. Estimate the length of
the Venusian year using the fact that the earth is 1.49×108 km.
329. The planet Mars of mass m describes around the sun of mass M, an ellipse of mean
radius of orbit a = 230×106 km in 1.8 years. The satellite Deimos of mass m’
describes around the planet mars an ellipse of mean radius a' = 28×106 km in 30h.
Find the mass of the planet mars, given that M = 2×1030 km and 1year is 365days
330. The mass of the earth is 5.98x1024kg and the gravitational constant is 6.67x10-
11m3kg-1s-2. Assuming the earth is a uniform sphere of radius 6.37x106m; find the

gravitational force on mass of 1.00kg at the earth’s surface.

331.
a) State the period of the earth about the sun. Use this value to calculate the
angular speed of the earth about the sun in rad/s.
b) The mass of the earth is 5.98x1024kg and its average distance from the sun
is 1.5x1011m. Calculate the centripetal force acting on the earth. What
provides this centripetal force?
332. A satellite orbits the earth once every 120min. calculate the satellite’s angular
speed.
333. It is proposed to place a communications satellite in a circular orbit round the
equator at height of 3.59×107m above the earth’s surface. Find the period of
revolution of the satellite in hours and comment on result.
334.

a) State Newton’s law of gravitation. If the acceleration of free fall, gm at the

moon’s surface is 1.7ms-2 and its radius is 1.74x106m, calculate the mass of
the moon.
b) To what height would a signal rocket rise on the moon, if an identical one
fired on the earth could reach 200m?
c) Explain, using algebraic symbols and stating which quantity each
represents, how you could calculate the distance D of the moon from the
earth (mass Me) if the moon takes t seconds to move once round the earth.
335.
a) A white dwarf star has a mass of 1.4x1030kg and a radius of 1.2x106m.
Show that the gravitational field strength at its surface is 6.5x106 Nkg-1.
b) The escape speed for a body is the speed that it must be given at the
surface of the body for it to be able to escape from the gravitational
field without a further input of energy. Calculate the escape speed for
the white dwarf star.
336. The gravitational force on a mass of 1 kg at the earth’s surface is 10N. Assuming
the earth is a sphere of radius R; calculate the gravitational force on a satellite of
the mass 100kg in a circular orbit of radius 2R from the centre of the earth.
337. Assuming the earth is a uniform sphere of mass M and radius R, show that
acceleration of free-fall at the earth’s surface is given by g GM/R2. What is the

63
 acceleration of a satellite moving in a circular orbit round the earth of radius 2R?
a) Obtain the dimensions of G.
b) The period of vibration T of a star under its own gravitational attraction is
given by 𝑇 = 2𝜋√𝐺𝜌 where ρ is the mean density of the star. Show that this
relation is dimensionally correct.

338. A planet of mass m moves round the sun of mass M in a circular orbit of radius r
with an angular speed ω. Show that
(i) That ω is independent of the mass m of the planet
(ii) That in a circular orbit of radius 4r round the sun, the angular speed
decreases to ω/8
339. A satellite X moves round the earth in a circular orbit of radius R. Another satellite Y
of the same mass moves round the earth in a circular orbit of radius 4R. Show that
(i) The speed of X is twice that of Y.
(ii) The kinetic energy of X is greater than that of Y.
(iii) The potential energy of X is less than that of Y
340. Find the period of revolution of a satellite moving in a circular orbit round the
earth at a height of 3.6x106m above the earth’s surface.
341. If the acceleration of free fall at the earth’s surface is 9.81m/s2, calculate the
value for the mass of the earth.
342. A preliminary stage of spacecraft Apollo 11’s journey to the moon was to place it
in an earth parking orbit. This orbit was circular, maintaining an almost constant
distance of 189km from earth’s surface. Assuming the gravitational field strength
in this orbit is 9.4N/kg, calculate
(i) The speed of the spacecraft in this orbit
(ii) The time to complete one orbit.
343. Explorer 38, a radio-astronomy research satellite of mass 200kg, circles the earth in an
orbit of average radius 3R/2 where R is the radius of the earth. Assuming the gravitational
pull on a mass of 1kg at the earth’s surface to be 10N, calculate the pull on the satellite.
344. A satellite of mass 66kg in orbit round the earth at the distance of 5.7R above its surface,
where R is the value of the mean radius of the earth. Calculate
(i) The centripetal force acting on the satellite
(ii) The period of the satellite in orbit in hours.
345.
a) At one point on the line between the earth and the moon, the gravitational field
caused b the two bodies is zero. Briefly explain why this is so.
b) If this point is 4x104km from the moon, calculate the ratio of the mass of the
moon to the mass of the earth.
346.
a) Define gravitational potential. Use the data provided above to show that its
value at the earth’s surface is appropriately -63MJkg-1.
b) A communications satellite occupies an orbit such that its period of
revolution about the earth is 24h. explain the significance of this period and
show that the radius R0, of the orbit is given by
64
Where T is the period of revolution and G and M have the same meanings as usual.
c) Calculate the least kinetic energy which must be given to a mass at the
earth’s surface for the mass to reach a point at a distance R0 from the centre
of the earth. Ignore the effects of the earth’s rotation.
347. State the law of universal gravitation. When a planet moves in a circular orbit of radius R
about the sun, the centripetal force is provided by the gravitational attraction. Use this to
show that the period T of such a planet is given by

Where G is the gravitational constant and M is the mass of the sun.

348. A cosmonaut is circling the earth in a satellite at 7km s–1 at a height of 630 km above
the surface of earth. Calculate the centripetal force acting on the cosmonaut if his
mass is 80 kg.
349. Find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a pulsar of mass 1.98 × 10 30 kg
and radius 12 km rotating with time period 0.041 second.
350. A particle is projected upward from the surface of the earth (radius R) with a kinetic
energy equal to half the minimum value needed for it to escape. To which height
does it rise above the surface of the earth?
351. The mass of the Sun is 1.99×1030 kg, and the radius of the Earth’s orbit around the
Sun is 1.5x1011 m. From this, calculate the orbital speed of the Earth.
352. Both Venus and the Earth have approximately circular orbits around the Sun. The
period of the orbital motion of Venus is 0.615 year, and the period of the Earth is 1
year. By what factor do the sizes of the two orbits differ?
353. A communications satellite is in a circular orbit around the Earth, in the equatorial
plane. The period of the orbit of such a satellite is exactly 1 day, so that the satellite
always hovers in a fixed position relative to the rotating Earth. What must be the
radius of such a “geosynchronous, “or “geostationary,” orbit?
354. A satellite A of mass m is at a distance of r from the centre of the earth. Another
satellite B of mass 2m is at distance of 2r from the earth’s centre. What is the ratio
of their time periods?
355. Mass of moon is 7.34 × 1022 kg. If the acceleration due to gravity on the moon is

m/s2, find the radius of moon

65
356. A planet has mass 1/10 of that of earth, while radius is 1/3 that of earth. If a person
can throw a stone on earth surface to a height of 90m, to what height will he be able
to throw the stone on that planet?
357. If the distance between centers of earth and moon is D and the mass of earth is 81
times the mass of moon, then at what distance from centre of earth the
gravitational force will be zero?

358. The distance between centre of the earth and moon is 384000 km. If the mass of the
earth is 6 × 1024 kg and G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2/kg2, what is the speed of the moon?
359. A satellite A of mass m is revolving round the earth at a height ‘r’ from the centre.
Another satellite B of mass 2m is revolving at a height 2r. What is the ratio of their
time periods?
360. The space shuttle releases a 470-kg communications satellite while in an orbit 280
km above the surface of the Earth. A rocket engine on the satellite boosts it into a
geosynchronous orbit, which is an orbit in which the satellite stays directly over a
single location on the Earth. How much energy does the engine have to provide?
361. Calculate the escape speed from the Earth for a 5 000-kg spacecraft, and determine
the kinetic energy it must have at the Earth’s surface in order to move infinitely far
away from the Earth.
362. The distances of Neptune and Saturn from sun are nearly 1013 and 1012 meters
respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, what will be their periodic
times in the ratio?
363. A spherical planet far out in space has a mass M0 and diameter D0.
A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience
acceleration due to gravity which is equal to g. Derive the expression of g in terms
of D.
364. At surface of earth, weight of a person is 72 N. What is his weight at height R/2
from surface of earth (R = radius of earth)?
365. Assuming earth to be a sphere of a uniform density, what is the value of
gravitational acceleration in a mine 100 km below the earth’s surface (Given R =
6400 km)?
366. If the gravitational force between two objects was proportional to 1/R; where R is
separation between them, then a particle in circular orbit under such a force would
have its orbital speed v proportional to which value?
367. An earth satellite S has an orbital radius which is 4 times that of a communication
satellite C. What is its period of revolution?
66
368. A spherical planet has uniform density. Show that the minimum period for a satellite in
orbit around it is independent of the radius of the planet.

369. The gravitational force that the Sun exerts on the Moon is about twice as great as the
gravitational force that the Earth exerts on the Moon. Why doesn’t the Sun pull the Moon
away from the Earth during a total eclipse of the Sun?
370. A satellite in orbit is not truly traveling through a vacuum. It is moving through very, very
thin air. Does the resulting air friction cause the satellite to slow down?
371. How would you explain the fact that Jupiter and Saturn have periods much greater than
one year?
372. Does the escape speed of a rocket depend on its mass? Explain.
373. Compare the energies required to reach the Moon for a 105-kg spacecraft and a 103-kg
satellite.
374. Why don’t we put a geosynchronous weather satellite in orbit around the 45th parallel?
Wouldn’t this be more useful in the United States than one in orbit around the equator?
375. Explain why no work is done on a planet as it moves in a circular orbit around the Sun,
even though a gravitational force is acting on the planet. What is the net work done on a
planet during each revolution as it moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit?
376. At what position in its elliptical orbit is the speed of a planet a maximum? At what
position is the speed a minimum?
377. Two objects attract each other with a gravitational force of magnitude 1.00 × 10 8 N when
separated by 20.0 cm. If the total mass of the two objects is 5.00 kg, what is the mass of
each?
378. During a solar eclipse, the Moon, Earth, and Sun all lie on the same line, with the Moon
between the Earth and the Sun.
a) What force is exerted by the Sun on the Moon?
b) What force is exerted by the Earth on the Moon?
c) What force is exerted by the Sun on the Earth?
379. When a falling meteoroid is at a distance above the Earth’s surface of 3.00 times the
Earth’s radius, what is its acceleration due to the Earth’s gravitation?
380. The free-fall acceleration on the surface of the Moon is about one sixth of that on the
surface of the Earth. If the radius of the Moon is about 0.250RE, find the ratio of their
average densities.
381. On the way to the Moon the Apollo astronauts reached a point where the Moon’s
gravitational pull became stronger than the Earth’s.
a) Determine the distance of this point from the center of the Earth.
b) What is the acceleration due to the Earth’s gravitation at this point?
382. The center-to-center distance between Earth and Moon is 384 400 km. The Moon
completes an orbit in 27.3 days.
67
 a) Determine the Moon’s orbital speed.
b) If gravity were switched off, the Moon would move along a straight line
tangent to its orbit, as described by Newton’s first law. In its actual orbit in
1.00 s, how far does the Moon fall below the tangent line and toward the
Earth?
383. Io, a moon of Jupiter, has an orbital period of 1.77 days and an orbital radius
of 4.22 x 105 km. From these data, determine the mass of Jupiter.
384. A satellite of the Earth has a mass of 100 kg and is at an altitude of 2.00 x106
m.
a) What is the potential energy of the satellite-Earth system?
b) What is the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by the Earth on the
satellite?
c) What If? What force does the satellite exert on the Earth?
385. How much energy is required to move a 1 000-kg object from the Earth’s surface to an
altitude twice the Earth’s radius?
386. At the Earth’s surface a projectile is launched straight up at a speed of 10.0 km/s. To what
height will it rise? Ignore air resistance and the rotation of the Earth.
387. A system consists of three particles, each of mass 5.00 g, located at the corners of an
equilateral triangle with sides of 30.0 cm.
a) Calculate the potential energy of the system.
b) If the particles are released simultaneously, where will they collide?
388. An object is released from rest at an altitude h above the surface of the Earth. (a) Show
that its speed at a distance r from the Earth’s center, where RE ≤r ≤RE+ h, is given by

389.
a) What is the minimum speed, relative to the Sun, necessary for a spacecraft to
escape the solar system if it starts at the Earth’s orbit?
b) Voyager 1 achieved a maximum speed of 125 000 km/h on its way to photograph
Jupiter. Beyond what distance from the Sun is this speed sufficient to escape the
solar system?
390. A satellite of mass 200 kg is placed in Earth orbit at a height of 200 km above the surface.
a) With a circular orbit, how long does the satellite take to complete one
orbit?
b) What is the satellite’s speed?
c) What is the minimum energy input necessary to place this satellite in
orbit? Ignore air resistance but include the effect of the planet’s daily
rotation.
391. A satellite of mass m, originally on the surface of the Earth, is placed into Earth
orbit at an altitude h.
a) With a circular orbit, how long does the satellite take to complete one orbit?
b) What is the satellite’s speed?
What is the minimum energy input necessary to place this satellite in
orbit? Ignore air resistance but include the effect of the planet’s daily

68
 rotation. At what location on the Earth’s surface and in what direction
should the satellite be launched to minimize the required energy
investment? Represent the mass and radius of the Earth as ME and RE.

392. A 1 000-kg satellite orbits the Earth at a constant altitude of 100 km. How much
energy must be added to the system to move the satellite into a circular orbit with
altitude 200 km?
393. An object is fired vertically upward from the surface of the
Earth (of radius RE) with an initial speed vi that is comparable to but less than the
escape speed vesc.
a) Show that the object attains a maximum height h given by

b) A space vehicle is launched vertically upward from the Earth’s surface with an
initial speed of 8.76 km/s, which is less than the escape speed of 11.2 km/s.
What maximum height does it attain?
c) A meteorite falls toward the Earth. It is essentially at rest with respect to the Earth
when it is at a height of 2.51 x107 m. With what speed does the meteorite strike the
Earth?
394. Derive an expression for the work required to move an Earth satellite of mass m from a
circular orbit of radius 2RE to one of radius 3RE.

UNIT 8: EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC AND POTENTIAL FIELDS

395. Particles 1, with charge q1, and 2, with charge q2, are on the x axis, with particle 1 at
x=a and particle 2 at x= -2a. For the net force on a third charged particle, at the
origin, to be zero, q1 and q2 must be related by q2 =:
A. 2q1
B. 4q1
C. -2q1
D. -4q1
E. -q1/4
396. An electric field is most directly related to:
A. the momentum of a test charge
B. the kinetic energy of a test charge
C. the potential energy of a test charge
D. the force acting on a test charge
E. the charge carried by a test charge
397. As used in the definition of electric field, a “test charge”:
A. has zero charge
B. has charge of magnitude 1 C
C. has charge of magnitude 1.6 × 10-19 C

69
 D. must be an electron
E. none of the above
398. Choose the correct statement concerning electric field lines:
A. field lines may cross
B. field lines are close together where the field is large
C. field lines point away from a negatively charged particle
D. a charged point particle released from rest moves along a field line
E. none of these are correct
399. The diagram shows the electric field lines in a region of space containing two small
charged spheres (Y and Z). Then:

A. Y is negative and Z is positive

B. the magnitude of the electric field is the same everywhere
C. the electric field is strongest midway between Y and Z
D. the electric field is not zero anywhere (except infinitely far from the spheres)
E. Y and Z must have the same sign

400. Two balls have identical masses of 0.1g each. When suspended to 10cm - long
strings, they make an angle of 15° with the vertical. If the charges on each are the
same, how large is each charge?
401. A test charge q = +2μC is placed halfway between a charge q = +6μC and a charge q =
+4μC which are 10cm apart. Find the force on the charge test and its direction.
402. Three point charges are placed at the following points on the x axis: +2μC at x = 0,
3µC at x = 40cm, -5μC at x = 120cm. Find the force on the -3 μC charge.
403. Charges +2, +3 and -8μC are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
10cm. Calculate the magnitude of the force acting on the -8μC charge due to the
other charges.
404. Calculate the electric field created by a point charge of 1µC at a point situated at
2.5m in air and in water. The relative permittivity of water is 80.
405. Two point charges of 1μC and 9μC respectively are situated at two points A and B
8cm apart. Find the point of the straight line AB where the electrostatic field is zero.
406. Two charges of +1μC and -1μC are placed at the corners of the base of an
equilateral triangle. The length of a side of a triangle is 0.7m. Find the electric field
intensity at the apex of the triangle.
407. A uniform electrostatic field exists between two parallel plates having equal charges
of opposite signs. An electron initially at the rest escapes from the surface

70
 negatively charged and strikes the surface of the other plate, situated at 2cm in
1.5x10-8 s.
a) Calculate the electric field.
b) Calculate the speed of the electron at the time of the impact with the second
plate.
408. An electron is situated in a uniform electric field of intensity or field-strength
1,200,000Vm-1. Find the force on it, its acceleration, and the time it takes to travel
20mm from rest (electron mass, m = 9.1×10-31 kg).
409. The ball of an electrostatic pendulum of mass 2.5g has a charge of 0.5μC.

a) What must be the intensity of a horizontal electrostatic field so that the

wire makes an angle of 30° with the vertical?
b) What angle makes the wire with the vertical if the electrostatic field has an
intensity of 104 NC-1?
c) An electron is situated in a uniform electric field. The electric force that acts
on it is 8 × 10-16 N. What is the strength of the electric field? (Electron charge
e = 1.6 × 10-19 C.)
d) A point charge is placed at each corner of a square with side length a. The
charges all have the same magnitude q. Two of the charges are positive and
two are negative, as shown in Figure below. What is the direction of the net
electric field at the center of the square due to the four charges, and what is
its magnitude in terms of q and a?

410. Determine the work of an electric force which moves a point charge of q = 4μC from
A to B if the p.d VA -VB =10V. Find the electric potential in vacuum at 0.2m from a
charge of 2μC.

411. Between two parallel plates 1cm apart is a p.d of 200V. What energy is given to a
charge of 1μC to move it from one plate to another? Calculate the value of the
electric field between them.

412. Between two parallel plates 10cm apart is a electric field of 300V/m. Calculate:
a) The voltage between them.
b) The work of the electric force applied to an electron to move from one plate

71
 to another.
413. Two spheres A and B charged negatively of radii 3cm and 9cm haven an electric
potential 300 000 V. Determine the distance between them so that the spheres repel
with a force F = 0.3N.
414. Three equal charges of+6nC are located at the corners of an equilateral triangle
whose sides are 12cm length. Find the potential at the centre of the base of the
triangle.
415. Suppose metal parallel plates are spaced 0.50cm apart and are connected to a
battery. Find the electric field between them and the surface charge density on the
plates.
416. The charge on an electron is 1.6×10-19 C in magnitude. An oil drop has a weight of
3.2×10-13N. With an electric field of 5×105 V/m between the plates of Millikan’s oil
drops apparatus this drop is observed to be essentially balanced. What is the charge
of the drop in electronic charge units?
417. In the Millikan experiment, an oil drop carries four electronic charges and has a mass
of 1.8×10-12 g. It is held almost at rest between two horizontal charged plates 1.8cm
apart. What voltage must there be between the two charges plates?
418. Between two vertical parallel plates A and B exists a p.d V. The distance between the
plates is 10cm. A small electrified ball of mass 0.3 g carrying a positive charge of
0.3μC is suspended to an insulating wire, of negligible mass that, the balance being
a) Calculate V.
b) Trace some field lines between them, indicate their direction.
c) What work would be necessary to give to move the ball P and to bring it in
the position P on the vertical of O; (length of the wire OP = l = 20cm).

419. The vertical deflecting plates in a Television set are 5.0cm and 1.0cm apart. If a
potential difference of 100V is applied between the plates and the electron beam
enters horizontally mid way between the plates with a speed of 2.0 × 10-7ms-1. Find
the kinetic energy gained from the electric field by an electron in the beam.
420. Explain why electric field lines never cross
421. Figure below shows the electric field lines for two point charges separated by a
small distance.
a) Determine the ratio q 1/q 2.
b) What are the signs of q 1 and q 2?

422. Three
point charges are located at the corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in
Figure below. Calculate the resultant electric force on the 7.00-µC charge

72
 UNIT 9: APPLICATIONS OF LAWS OF
THERMODYNAMICS
423. ThepV-diagram of Fig below shows a series of thermodynamic processes. In
process ab, 150 J of heat is added to the system; in process bd, 600 J of heat is
added. Find
a) The internal energy change in process ab;
b) The internal energy change in process abd (shown in light blue); and
c) The total heat added in process acd (shown in dark blue).

424. A typical dorm room or bedroom contains about 2500 moles of air. Find the change in the
internal energy of this much air when it is cooled from 35° to 26° at a constant pressure of
1.00 atm. Treat the air as an ideal gas with γ=1.400.
425. 1.0-mol sample of an ideal gas is kept at 0.0°C during an expansion
from 3.0 L to 10.0 L.
73
 a) How much work is done on the gas during the expansion?
b) How much energy transfer by heat occurs with the surroundings in this
process?
c) If the gas is returned to the original volume by means of an isobaric
process, how much work is done on the gas?
426. 0.80 moles of an ideal gas (monatomic) is enclosed in a cylinder by a frictionless,
perfect-fitting piston. The conditions are such that the gas expands at constant
pressure (process A B), it is then compressed at constant temperature (process B
C) until its volume returns to the original value. These changes are represented
together with the relevant numerical data on the graph in the figure

Analyze figure above and answer the following questions.

(i) What are the pressure and the volume of the gas at point A?
(ii) Which parts of the diagram correspond to isobaric and isochoric processes
respectively?
(iii) Show that the temperature of the gas at A is 301 K.
(iv) What is the temperature of the gas at point B?
(v) Calculate the pressure of the gas at point C.
427. 0.45m of a gas at a temperature of 15° C expands adiabatically and its
3

temperature falls to 4°C.

a) What is the new volume if γ = 1.40
b) The gas is then compressed isothermally until the pressure returns to its
original value. Calculate the final volume of the gas.
428. A vessel containing 2m3 of air initially at a temperature 25o C and pressure
760mmHg, is heated at constant pressure until its volume is doubled. Find
a) The final temperature
b) The external work done by the air in expanding,
c) The quantity of heat supplied
429. (Assume that the density of air at s.t.p is 1.293kgm -3 and that the principal molar
heat capacity of air at constant volume is 20.4Jmol-1K-1.)
An ideal gas at a temperature 45o C and pressure 1.0 x 105Nm-2 occupies a volume
of 2.0 x 10-3 m3. It expands adiabatically to twice its volume. Find the final
74
 temperature and pressure. Represent this process on PV- diagram. (Take γ = 1.40)
430. One mole of an ideal gas, initially at 300 K, is cooled at constant volume so that the
final pressure is one fourth of the initial pressure. Then the gas expands at constant
pressure until it reaches the initial temperature. Determine the work done on the
gas.
431. An ideal gas is carried through a thermodynamic cycle consisting of two isobaric
and two isothermal processes as shown in Figure below. Show that the net work
done on the gas in the entire cycle is given by

ideal gas absorbs 5.00×103 J of energy while doing 2.00x103 J of work on the
432. An
environment during a constant pressure process.
a) Compute the change in the internal energy of the gas.
b) If the internal energy now drops by 4.50x103 J and 7.50x103 J is expelled from
the system, find the change in volume, assuming a constant pressure process
at 1.01x105 Pa.
433. Duringone cycle, an engine extracts 2.00x103 J of energy from a hot reservoir and
transfers 1.50x103 J to a cold reservoir.
c) Find the thermal efficiency of the engine. (b) How much work does this engine
do in one cycle? (c) What average power does the engine generate if it goes
through four cycles in 2.50 s?
434. A heat engine contains an ideal monatomic gas confined to a cylinder by a movable
piston. The gas starts at A, where T=3.00×102 K. (See Fig.) The process B C is an
isothermal expansion.
a) Find the number n of moles of gas and the temperature at B.
b) Find U, Q, and W for the isovolumetric process A B.
c) Repeat for the isothermal process B C.
d) Repeat for the isobaric process C A.
e) Find the net change in the internal energy for the complete cycle.
f) Find the thermal energy Qh transferred into the system, the thermal energy
rejected, Qc, the thermal efficiency, and net work on the environment
performed by the engine.

75
435. A 2.00-mol sample of helium gas initially at 300 K and 0.400 atm is compressed
isothermally to 1.20 atm. Noting that the helium behaves as an ideal gas, find
a) The final volume of the gas,
b) The work done on the gas, and
c) The energy transferred by heat.
436. In Figure below, the change in internal energy of a gas that is taken from A to C is
+800 J. The work done on the gas along path ABC is -500 J.
a) How much energy must be added to the system by heat as it goes from A
through B to C?
b) If the pressure at point A is five times that of point C, what is the
work done on the system in going from C to D?
c) What is the energy exchanged with the surroundings by heat as the cycle
goes from C to A along the green path?
d) If the change in internal energy in going from point D to point A is +500 J,
how much energy must be added to the system by heat as it goes from
point C to point D ?

437.
a) What is meant by adiabatic change?
b) An ideal gas at 27oC and a pressure of 1.01×105 Pa is compressed
reversibly and isothermally until its volume is heated. It is then expanded
reversibly and adiabatically to twice its original volume. Calculate the
final pressure and temperature of the gas if γ=1.4
438.
a) Explain why the specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is higher than
76
 that at constant volume.
b) The density of an ideal gas is 1.6kgm-3 at 27°C and 1.00 ×105Nm-2
pressure and specific heat capacity at constant volume is 0.312KJkg-1.
Find the ratio of the specific heat capacity at constant pressure to that at
constant volume. Point out any significance attached to the result.
439.
a) Explain why the cooling compartment of a refrigerator is always on top.
b) The refrigerator cools substances by evaporation of a volatile liquid.
c) Explain how evaporation causes cooling.
d) State the reason why water is used in the cooling system of a car engine.
440. For each of the following adiabatic processes, find the change internal energy.
a) A gas does 5J of work while expanding adiabatically

b) During adiabatic compression, 80J of work is done on a gas.

441.
a) How much work is done by an ideal gas in expanding isothermally from
initial volume of 3.00litres at 20.0 atmospheres to final volume of 24.0 liters?
b) The P-V diagram in the figure below, applies to a gas undergoing a cyclic
changed in a piston-cylinder arrangement. What is the work done by the gas
in
(i) AB
(ii) BC
(iii) CD
(iv) DA

442. In a constant-volume process, 209 J of energy is transferred by heat to 1.00 mol of an

ideal monatomic gas initially at 300 K. Find
a) The increase in internal energy of the gas
b) The work done on it, and
c) Its final temperature.
443. An engine transfers 2.00 x103 J of energy from a hot reservoir during a cycle and
transfers 1.50x103 J as exhaust to a cold reservoir.
a) Find the efficiency of the engine
77
 b) How much work does this engine do in one cycle?
444. Acertain refrigerator has a COP of 5.00. When the refrigerator is running, its power
input is 500 W. A sample of water of mass 500 g and temperature 20.0°C is placed in
the freezer compartment. How long does it take to freeze the water to ice at 0°C?
Assume that all other parts of the refrigerator stay at the same temperature and
there is no leakage of energy from the exterior, so that the operation of the
refrigerator results only in energy being extracted from the water.
445. Threeengines operate between reservoirs separated in temperature by 300 K. The
reservoir temperatures are as follows: Engine A: TH =1 000 K, TC =700 K; Engine B: TH
= 800 K, TC =500 K; Engine C: TH =600 K, TH=300 K. Rank the engines in order of
theoretically possible efficiency, from highest to lowest.
446. Show that the efficiency of a heat engine operating in a Carnot cycle using an ideal
gas is given by Equation:

447. Asteam engine has a boiler that operates at 500 K. The energy from the burning fuel
changes water to steam and this steam then drives a piston. The cold reservoir’s
temperature is that of the outside air, approximately 300 K. What is the maximum thermal
efficiency of this steam engine?
448. The
highest theoretical efficiency of a certain engine is 30.0%. If this engine uses the
atmosphere, which has a temperature of 300 K, as its cold reservoir, what is the
temperature of its hot reservoir?
449. Calculate the efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between temperatures of 400°C and
100°C.
450. In a certain process, 5000J of heat is added to a system heat while the system does work
equivalent to 7000J work W by expanding against the surrounding atmosphere.
a) Use thermodynamics sign conventions to answer the question below:
Are the heat energy Q added to a system (absorbed by the system) and the
work W done by the system positive or negative?
b) What is the change in internal energy for the system?
451. Is it possible to construct a heat engine that creates no thermal pollution? What does this
tell us about environmental considerations for an industrialized society?
452. Give various examples of irreversible processes that occur in nature. Give an example of a
process in nature that is nearly reversible.
453. A heat engine takes in 360 J of energy from a hot reservoir and performs 25.0 J of work in
each cycle. Find
a) The efficiency of the engine and
b) The energy expelled to the cold reservoir in each cycle
c) A heat engine performs 200 J of work in each cycle and has an efficiency
of 30.0%. For each cycle, how much energy is
i. Taken in and
78
 ii. Expelled by heat?
454. A particular heat engine has a useful power output of 5.00 kW and an efficiency of
25.0%. The engine expels 8 000 J of exhaust energy in each cycle. Find the energy
taken in during each cycle.
455. Heat engine X takes in four times more energy by heat from the hot reservoir than
heat engine Y. Engine X delivers two times more work, and it rejects seven times
more energy by heat to the cold reservoir than heat engine Y. Find the efficiency of
(a) Heat engine X and (b) heat engine Y
456. A refrigerator has a coefficient of performance equal to 5.00. The refrigerator takes
in 120 J of energy from a cold reservoir in each cycle. Find
A) The work required in each cycle and
B) The energy expelled to the hot reservoir
457. A Carnot engine has a power output of 150 kW. The engine operates between two
reservoirs at 20.0°C and 500°C.
a) How much energy does it take in per hour?
b) How much energy is lost per hour in its exhaust?
458. A heat engine operating between 200°C and 80.0°C achieves 20.0% of the maximum
possible efficiency. What energy input will enable the engine to perform
10.0 KJ of work?
459. An ideal gas is taken through a Carnot cycle. The isothermal expansion occurs at
250°C, and the isothermal compression takes place at 50.0°C. The gas takes in 1
200 J of energy from the hot reservoir during the isothermal expansion. Find
a) The energy expelled to the cold reservoir in
each cycle and
b) The net work done by the gas in each cycle
460. The exhaust temperature of a Carnot heat engine is 300°C. What is the intake temperature
if the efficiency of the engine is 30.0%?
461. How much work does an ideal Carnot refrigerator require to remove 1.00 J of energy from
helium at 4.00 K and reject this energy to a room-temperature (293-K) environment?
462. A refrigerator maintains a temperature of 0°C in the cold compartment with a room
temperature of 25.0°C. It removes energy from the cold compartment at the rate of 8 000
kJ/h.
a) What minimum power is required to operate the refrigerator?
b) The refrigerator exhausts energy into the room at what rate?
463. An ideal refrigerator or ideal heat pump is equivalent to a Carnot engine running in
reverse. That is, energy Q c is taken in from a cold reservoir and energy Q h is rejected
to a hot reservoir.

a) Show that the work that must be supplied to run the refrigerator or heat pump
is
b) Show that the coefficient of performance of the ideal refrigerator is
79
464. A
gasoline truck engine takes in 10,000 J of heat and delivers 2000 J of mechanical
work per cycle. The heat is obtained by burning gasoline with heat of combustion
a) What is the thermal efficiency of this engine?
b) How much heat is discarded in each cycle?
c) If the engine goes through 25 cycles per second, what is its power output in
watts? In horsepower?
d) How much gasoline is burned in each cycle? (e) How much gasoline is burned
per second? Per hour?

80
465. A Carnot engine takes 2000 J of heat from a reservoir at 500 K, does some work,
and discards some heat to a reservoir at 350 K. How much work does it do, how
much heat is discarded, and what is its efficiency?
466. A Carnot engine whose high-temperature reservoir is at 620 K takes in 550 J of heat
at this temperature in each cycle and gives up 335 J to the low-temperature
reservoir.
a) How much mechanical work does the engine perform during each cycle?
b) What is the temperature of the low-temperature reservoir?
c) What is the thermal efficiency of the cycle?

467. A heat engine working in a cycle consisting of two constant –pressure and two
constant-volume changes has an idealized indicator diagram as shown below.

1.0 106 C D

1.0 105 B A

V/m3

5.0 10-5 5.0 10-4

Using the values taken from the diagram where necessary, find

The change in internal energy round a whole cycle. (clockwise)

a)
The net work done on the gas from A to B
b)
The net work done on the gas from B to C
c)
The net work done on the gas from C to D
d)
The net work done on the gas from D to A
e)
The net work done by the gas during the whole cycle.
f)
If 730 J of heat are supplied during B part of the cycle find how much
g)
heat lost during the D part of the cycle, and calculate the efficiency of
the engine.
468. During an adiabatic process an object does 100 J of work and its temperature
decreases by 5 K. During another process it does 25 J of work and its temperature
decreases by 5 K. Its heat capacity for the second process is:
A. 20 J/K
B. 24 J/K
C. 5 J/K
D. 15 J/K
E. 100 J/K

81
469. A system undergoes an adiabatic process in which its internal energy increases by 20
J. Which of the following statements is true?
A. 20 J of work was done on the system
B. 20 J of work was done by the system
C. the system received 20 J of energy as heat
D. the system lost 20 J of energy as heat
E. none of the above are true
470. In an adiabatic process:
A. the energy absorbed as heat equals the work done by the system on its
environment
B. the energy absorbed as heat equals the work done by the environment on the
system
C. the absorbed as heat equals the change in internal energy
D. the work done by the environment on the system equals the change in internal
energy
E. the work done by the system on its environment equals to the change in internal
energy
471. In a certain process a gas ends in its original thermodynamic state. Of the
following, which is possible as the net result of the process?
A. It is adiabatic and the gas does 50 J of work
B. The gas does no work but absorbs 50 J of energy as heat
C. The gas does no work but loses 50 J of energy as heat
D. The gas loses 50 J of energy as heat and does 50 J of work
E. The gas absorbs 50 J of energy as heat and does 50 J of work
472. Of the following which might NOT vanish over one cycle of a cyclic process?
A. the change in the internal energy of the substance
B. the change in pressure of the substance
C. the work done by the substance
D. the change in the volume of the substance
E. the change in the temperature of the substance
473. Of the following which might NOT vanish over one cycle of a cyclic process?
A. the work done by the substance minus the energy absorbed by the substance as
heat
B. the change in the pressure of the substance
C. the energy absorbed by the substance as heat
D. the change in the volume of the substance
E. the change in the temperature of the substance
474. An inventor suggests that a house might be heated by using a refrigerator to draw
energy as heat from the ground and reject energy as heat into the house. He claims
that the energy supplied to the house as heat can exceed the work required to run the
refrigerator. This:
A. is impossible by first law
B. is impossible by second law

82
 C. would only work if the ground and the house were at the same temperature
D. is impossible since heat energy flows from the (hot) house to the (cold) ground
E. is possible
475. In a thermally insulated kitchen, an ordinary refrigerator is turned on and its door is
left open. The temperature of the room:
A. remains constant according to the first law of thermodynamics
B. increases according to the first law of thermodynamics
C. decreases according to the first law of thermodynamics
D. remains constant according to the second law of thermodynamics
E. increases according to the second law of thermodynamics
476. A heat engine:
A. converts heat input to an equivalent amount of work
B. converts work to an equivalent amount of heat
C. takes heat in, does work, and loses energy as heat
D. uses positive work done on the system to transfer heat from a low
temperature reservoir to a high temperature reservoir
E. uses positive work done on the system to transfer heat from a high
temperature reservoir to a low temperature reservoir.
477. A heat engine absorbs energy of magnitude |QH| as heat from a high temperature
reservoir, does work of magnitude |W|, and transfers energy of magnitude |QL| as heat
to a low temperature reservoir. Its efficiency is:
A. |QH|/|W|
B. |QL|/|W|
C. |QH|/|QL|
D. |W|/|QH|
E. |W|/|QL|
478. The temperatures TC of the cold reservoirs and the temperatures TH of the hot
reservoirs for four Carnot heat engines are engine 1: TC = 400 K and TH = 500 K
engine 2: TC = 500 K and TH = 600 K engine 3: TC = 400 K and TH = 600 K
engine 4: TC = 600 K and TH = 800 K
Rank these engines according to their efficiencies, least to greatest
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1 and 2 tie, then 3 and 4 tie
C. 2, 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 4, 3
E. 2, 1, 4, 3
479. A Carnot heat engine runs between a cold reservoir at temperature TC and a hot
reservoir at temperature TH. You want to increase its efficiency. Of the following,
which change results in the greatest increase in efficiency? The value of ∆T is the
same for all changes.
A. Raise the temperature of the hot reservoir by ∆T

83
 B. Raise the temperature of the cold reservoir by ∆T
C. Lower the temperature of the hot reservoir by ∆T
D. Lower the temperature of the cold reservoir by ∆T
E. Lower the temperature of the hot reservoir by 1 2∆T and raise the temperature
of the cold reservoir by 1/2∆T
480. A certain heat engine draws 500 cal/s from a water bath at 27◦ C and transfers
400 cal/s to a reservoir at a lower temperature. The efficiency of this engine is: A.
80%
B. 75%
C. 55%
D. 25%
E. 20%
481. A heat engine that in each cycle does positive work and loses energy as heat, with no
heat energy input, would violate:
A. the zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. the first law of thermodynamics
C. the second law of thermodynamics
D. the third law of thermodynamics
E. Newton’s second law
482. On a warm day a pool of water transfers energy to the air as heat and freezes. This is
a direct violation of:
A. the zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. the first law of thermodynamics
C. the second law of thermodynamics
D. the third law of thermodynamics
E. none of the above
483. A heat engine in each cycle absorbs energy of magnitude |QH| as heat from a high
temperature reservoir, does work of magnitude |W|, and then absorbs energy of
magnitude |QL| as heat from a low temperature reservoir. If |W| = |QH| + |QL| this
engine violates:
A. the zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. the first law of thermodynamics
C. the second law of thermodynamics
D. the third law of thermodynamics
E. none of the above
484. A heat engine in each cycle absorbs energy from a reservoir as heat and does an
equivalent amount of work, with no other changes. This engine violates:
A. the zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. the first law of thermodynamics
C. the second law of thermodynamics
D. the third law of thermodynamics
E. none of the above

84
485. A Carnot cycle:
A. is bounded by two isotherms and two adiabats on a p-V graph
B. consists of two isothermal and two constant volume processes
C. is any four-sided process on a p-V graph
D. only exists for an ideal gas
E. has an efficiency equal to the enclosed area on a p-V diagram
486. According to the second law of thermodynamics:
A. all heat engines have the same efficiency
B. all reversible heat engines have the same efficiency
C. the efficiency of any heat engine is independent of its working substance
D. the efficiency of a Carnot engine depends only on the temperatures of the
two reservoirs
E. all Carnot engines theoretically have 100% efficiency
487. A Carnot heat engine operates between 400 K and 500 K. Its efficiency is: A.
20%
B. 25%
C. 44%
D. 79%
E. 100%
488. A Carnot heat engine operates between a hot reservoir at absolute temperature TH
and a cold reservoir at absolute temperature TC. Its efficiency is:
A. TH/TC
B. TC/TH
C. 1 - TH/TC
D. 1 - TC/TH
E. 100%
489. A heat engine operates between a high temperature reservoir at TH and a low temperature
reservoir at TL. Its efficiency is given by 1 - TL/TH:
A. only if the working substance is an ideal gas
B. only if the engine is reversible
C. only if the engine is quasi-static
D. only if the engine operates on a Stirling cycle
E. no matter what characteristics the engine has
490. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a Carnot heat engine operating between
reservoirs at the steam point and at room temperature is about:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 80%
E. 99%
491. An inventor claims to have a heat engine that has an efficiency of 40% when it
operates between a high temperature reservoir of 150◦ C and a low temperature

85
reservoir of 30◦ C. This engine:
A. must violate the zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. must violate the first law of thermodynamics
C. must violate the second law of thermodynamics
D. must violate the third law of thermodynamics
E. does not necessarily violate any of the laws of thermodynamics
492. A Carnot heat engine and an irreversible heat engine both operate between the
same high temperature and low temperature reservoirs. They absorb the same
energy from the high temperature reservoir as heat. The irreversible engine:
A. does more work
B. transfers more energy to the low temperature reservoir as heat
C. has the greater efficiency
D. has the same efficiency as the reversible engine
E. cannot absorb the same energy from the high temperature reservoir as heat
without violating the second law of thermodynamics
493. A perfectly reversible heat pump with a coefficient of performance of 14 supplies
energy to a building as heat to maintain its temperature at 27◦ C. If the pump motor
does work at the rate of 1 kW, at what rate does the pump supply energy to the
building as heat?
A. 15 kW
B. 3.85 kW
C. 1.35 kW
D. 1.07 kW
E. 1.02 KW
494. A heat engine operates between 200 K and 100 K. In each cycle it takes 100 J from
the hot reservoir, loses 25 J to the cold reservoir, and does 75 J of work. This heat
engine violates:
A. both the first and second laws of thermodynamics
B. the first law but not the second law of thermodynamics
C. the second law but not the first law of thermodynamics
D. neither the first law nor the second law of thermodynamics
E. cannot answer without knowing the mechanical equivalent of heat
495. A refrigerator absorbs energy of magnitude |QC| as heat from a low temperature
reservoir and transfers energy of magnitude |QH| as heat to a high temperature
reservoir. Work W is done on the working substance. The coefficient of performance
is given by:
A. |QC|/W
B. |QH|/W
C. (|QC| + |QH|)/W
D. W/|QC|
E. W/|QH|
496. A reversible refrigerator operates between a low temperature reservoir at TC and a
high temperature reservoir at TH. Its coefficient of performance is given by:

86
 A. (TH - TC)/TC
B. TC/(TH - TC)
C. (TH - TC)/TH
D. TH/(TH - TC)
E. TH(TH + TC)
497. A Carnot refrigerator runs between a cold reservoir at temperature TC and a hot
reservoir at temperature TH. You want to increase its coefficient of performance. Of
the following, which change results in the greatest increase in the coefficient? The
value of ∆T is the same for all changes.
A. Raise the temperature of the hot reservoir by ∆T
B. Raise the temperature of the cold reservoir by ∆T
C. Lower the temperature of the hot reservoir by ∆T
D. Lower the temperature of the cold reservoir by ∆T
498. For one complete cycle of a reversible heat engine, which of the following quantities
is NOT zero?
A. the change in the entropy of the working gas
B. the change in the pressure of the working gas
C. the change in the internal energy of the working gas
D. the work done by the working gas
E. the change in the temperature of the working gas
499. A refrigerator has a coefficient of performance of 3.00. The ice tray compartment is
at -20.0°C, and the room temperature is 22.0°C. The refrigerator can convert 30.0 g of
water at 22.0°C to 30.0 g of ice at -20.0°C each minute. What input power is required?
Give your answer in watts.

UNIT 10: WAVE AND PARTICLE NATURE OF LIHT.

500. The units of the Planck constant h are those of:
A. energy
B. power
C. momentum
D. angular momentum
E. frequency
501. The units of the Planck constant h are those of:
A. energy
B. power
C. momentum
D. angular momentum
E. frequency

87
502. Thewavelength of light beam B is twice the wavelength of light beam B. The energy of
a photon in beam A is:
A. half the energy of a photon in beam B
B. one-fourth the energy of a photon in beam B
C. equal to the energy of a photon in beam B
D. twice the energy of a photon in beam B
E. four times the energy of a photon in beam B

503. Aphoton in light beam A has twice the energy of a photon in light beam B. The
ratio pA/pB of their momenta is:
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1
D. 2
E. 4

504. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has photons with the greatest
energy?
A. blue light
B. yellow light
C. x rays
D. radio waves
E. microwaves
505. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has photons with the greatest
momentum?
A. blue light
B. yellow light
C. x rays
D. radio waves
E. microwaves
506. Rank following electromagnetic radiations according to the energies of their
photons, from least to greatest.
1. Blue light
2. Yellow light
3. x rays
4. radio waves
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 4, 2, 1, 3
C. 4, 1, 2, 3
D. 3, 2, 1, 4
E. 3, 1, 2, 4

507. In a photoelectric effect experiment the stopping potential is:

A. the energy required to remove an electron from the sample
B. the kinetic energy of the most energetic electron ejected
C. the potential energy of the most energetic electron ejected

88
 D. the photon energy
E. the electric potential that causes the electron current to vanish

508. In a photoelectric effect experiment at a frequency above cut off, the stopping
potential is proportional to:
A. the energy of the least energetic electron before it is ejected
B. the energy of the least energetic electron after it is ejected
C. the energy of the most energetic electron before it is ejected
D. the energy of the most energetic electron after it is ejected
E. the electron potential energy at the surface of the sample

509. In a photoelectric effect experiment at a frequency above cut off, the number of
electrons ejected is proportional to:
A. their kinetic energy
B. their potential energy
C. the work function
D. the frequency of the incident light
E. the number of photons that hit the sample
510. In a photoelectric effect experiment no electrons are ejected if the frequency of the
incident light is less than A/h, where h is the Planck constant and A is:
A. the maximum energy needed to eject the least energetic electron
B. the minimum energy needed to eject the least energetic electron
C. the maximum energy needed to eject the most energetic electron
D. the minimum energy needed to eject the most energetic electron
E. the intensity of the incident light
511. The work function for a certain sample is 2.3 eV. The stopping potential for electrons
ejected from the sample by 7.0 × 1014-Hz electromagnetic radiation is:
A. 0
B. 0.60 V
C. 2.3 V
D. 2.9 V
E. 5.2 V
512. The stopping potential for electrons ejected by 6.8×1014-Hz electromagnetic radiation
incident on a certain sample is 1.8 V. The kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons
ejected and the work function of the sample, respectively, are: A. 1.8 eV, 2.8 eV
B. 1.8 eV, 1.0 eV
C. 1.8 eV, 4.6 eV
D. 2.8 eV, 1.0 eV
E. 1.0 eV, 4.6 eV
513. Separate Compton Effect experiments are carried out using visible light and x rays. The
scattered radiation is observed at the same scattering angle. For these experiments:
A. the x rays have the greater shift in wavelength and the greater change in photon
energy

89
 B. the two radiations have the same shift in wavelength and the x rays have the
greater change in photon energy
C. the two radiations have the same shift in wavelength and the visible light has
the greater change in photon energy
D. the two radiations have the same shift in wavelength and the same change in
photon energy
E. the visible light has the greater shift in wavelength and the greater shift in
photon energy
514. In Compton scattering from stationary particles the maximum change in
wavelength can be made smaller by using:
A. higher frequency radiation
B. lower frequency radiation
C. more massive particles
D. less massive particles
E. particles with greater charge

515. Of the following, Compton scattering from electrons is most easily observed for:
A. microwaves
B. infrared light
C. visible light
D. ultraviolet light
E. x rays
516. In Compton scattering from stationary electrons the largest change in wavelength occurs
when the photon is scattered through:
A. 0◦
B. 22.5◦
C. 45◦
D. 90◦
E. 180◦
517. In Compton scattering from stationary electrons the frequency of the emitted light is
independent of:
A. the frequency of the incident light
B. the speed of the electron
C. the scattering angle
D. the electron recoil energy
E. none of the above
518. In Compton scattering from stationary electrons the largest change in wavelength
that can occur is:
A. 2.43 × 10-15 m
B. 2.43 × 10-12 m
C. 2.43 × 10-9 m
D. dependent on the frequency of the incident light
E. dependent on the work function

90
519. Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 5.7×10-12 m is incident on stationary
electrons. Radiation that has a wavelength of 6.57 × 10-12 m is detected at a
scattering angle of:
A. 10°
B. 121°
C. 40°
D. 50°
E. 69°
520. Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 3.5 × 10 -12 m is scattered from
stationary electrons and photons that have been scattered through 50 are
detected. An electron from which one of these photons was scattered receives an
energy of:
A. 0
B. 1.1 × 10-14 J
C. 1.9 × 10-14 J
D. 2.3 × 10-14 J
E. 1.3 × 10-13 J
521. Consider the following:
1. a photoelectric process in which some emitted electrons have kinetic
energy greater than hf, where f is the frequency of the incident light.
2. a photoelectric process in which all emitted electrons have energy less than hf.
3. Compton scattering from stationary electrons for which the emitted light has a
wavelength that is greater than that of the incident light.
4. Compton scattering from stationary electrons for which the emitted light has a
wavelength that is less than that of the incident light. The only possible processes
are:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
E. 2 and 4
522. J. J. Thompson’s measurement of e/m for electrons provides evidence of the:
A. wave nature of matter
B. particle nature of matter
C. wave nature of radiation
D. particle nature of radiation
E. transverse wave nature of light
523. Evidence for the wave nature of matter is:
A. electron diffraction experiments of Davisson and Germer
B. Thompson’s measurement of e/m
C. Young’s double slit experiment
D. the Compton effect
E. Lenz’s law

91
524. Which of the following is NOT evidence for the wave nature of matter?
A. The photoelectric effect
B. The diffraction pattern obtained when electrons pass through a slit
C. Electron tunneling
D. The validity of the Heisenberg uncertainty principle
E. The interference pattern obtained when electrons pass through a two-slit system
525. Of the following which is the best evidence for the wave nature of matter?
A. The photoelectric effect
B. The Compton Effect
C. The spectral radiance of cavity radiation
D. The relationship between momentum and energy for an electron
E. The reflection of electrons by crystals
526. A free electron and a free proton have the same kinetic energy. This means that,
compared to the matter wave associated with the proton, the matter wave
associated with the electron has:
A. a shorter wavelength and a greater frequency
B. a longer wavelength and a greater frequency
C. a shorter wavelength and the same frequency
D. a longer wavelength and the same frequency
E. a shorter wavelength and a smaller frequency
527. A free electron and a free proton have the same momentum. This means that,
compared to the matter wave associated with the proton, the matter wave
associated with the electron:
A. has a shorter wavelength and a greater frequency
B. has a longer wavelength and a greater frequency
C. has the same wavelength and the same frequency
D. has the same wavelength and a greater frequency
E. has the same wavelength and a smaller frequency
528. Which of the following statements is true regarding how blackbody radiation
changes as the temperature of the radiating object increases?
(a) Both the maximum intensity and the peak wavelength increase.
(b) The maximum intensity increases, and the peak wavelength decreases.
(c) Both the maximum intensity and the peak wavelength decrease.
(d) The maximum intensity decreases, and the peak wavelength increases.
529. As red light shines on a piece of metal, no electrons are released. When the red light
is slowly changed to shorter wavelength light (basically progressing through the
rainbow), nothing happens until yellow light shines on the metal, at which point
electrons are released from the metal. If this metal is replaced with a metal having a
higher work function, which light would have the best chance of releasing electrons
from the metal?
(a) Blue.
(b) Red.
(c) Yellow would still work fine.
(d) We need to know more about the metals involved
530. A beam of red light and a beam of blue light have equal intensities. Which
statement is true?

92
 (a) There are more photons in the blue beam.
(b) There are more photons in the red beam.
(c) Both beams contain the same number of photons.
(d) The number of photons is not related to intensity
531. Which of the following is necessarily true?
(a) Red light has more energy than violet light.
(b) Violet light has more energy than red light.
(c) A single photon of red light has more energy than a single photon of violet light.
(d) A single photon of violet light has more energy than a single photon of red light.
(e) None of the above.
(f) A combination of the above (specify)
532. If a photon of energy E ejects electrons from a metal with
kinetic energy, then a photon with energy E/ 2
(a) Will eject electrons with kinetic energy KE/2.
(b) Will eject electrons with an energy greater than KE/2.
(c) Will eject electrons with energy less than KE/ 2.
(d) Might not eject any electrons.
533. If the momentum of an electron were doubled, how would its wavelength change?
(a) No change.
(b) It would be halved.
(c) It would double.
(d) It would be quadrupled.
(e) It would be reduced to one-fourth.
534. In a photoelectric experiment, a metal is irradiated with light of energy 3.56 eV. If a
stopping potential of 1.10 V is required, what is the work function of the metal? (a) 1.83
eV (b) 2.46 eV (c) 3.20 eV (d) 4.66 eV (e) 0.644 eV
535. What is the surface temperature of a distant star having a peak wavelength of 475 nm? (a)
6 100 K (b) 5 630 K (c) 5 510 K (d) 6 350 K (e) 6 560 K
536. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential
difference of 50.0 V? (a) 0.100 nm (b) 0.174 nm (c) 0.139 nm (d) 0.834 nm
(f) 0.435 nm
537. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 3.00 V before colliding with a
metal target. What minimum-wavelength light can such an electron emit? (a) 204 nm (b)
352 nm (c) 414 nm (d) 536 nm (e) 612 nm
538. A photon scatters off an electron at an angle of 1.80x102° with respect to its initial
motion. What is the change in the photon’s wavelength? (a) 0.002 43 nm
(b) 0.243 nm (c) 0.001 72 nm (d) 0.004 85 nm (e) 0.121 nm.
539. A proton, electron, and a helium nucleus all move at speed v. Rank their de Broglie
wavelengths from longest to shortest. (a) proton, helium nucleus, electron (b) helium
nucleus, proton, electron (c) proton, electron, helium nucleus (d) helium nucleus, electron,
proton (e) electron, proton, helium nucleus.
540. An x-ray photon is scattered by an originally stationary electron. Relative to the frequency
of the incident photon, is the frequency of the scattered photon (a) lower,
(b) Higher, or (c) unchanged?
541. An electron and a proton, moving in opposite directions, are accelerated from rest
through the same potential difference. Which particle has the longer wavelength?
(a) The electron does. (b) The proton does. (c) Both are the same. (d) Neither has a
wavelength

93
542. Which one of the following phenomena most clearly demonstrates the wave nature
of electrons? (a) the photoelectric effect (b) Wien’s law (c) blackbody radiation (d) the
Compton effect (e) diffraction of electrons by crystals.
543. Which of the following can be thought of as either a wave or a particle?
(a) Light.
(b) An electron.
(c) A proton.
(d) All of the above.
544. When you throw a baseball, its de Broglie wavelength is
(a) The same size as the ball.
(b) About the same size as an atom.
(c) About the same size as an atom’s nucleus.
(d) much smaller than the size of an atom’s nucleus
545. Electrons and photons of light are similar in that
(a) both have momentum given by
(b) Both exhibit wave–particle duality.
(c) Both are used in diffraction experiments to explore structure.
(d) All of the above.
(e) None of the above
546. X-rays of wavelength λ= 0.140nm are scattered from carbon. What is the expected
Compton wavelength shift for photons detected at angles (relative to the incident beam)
of exactly (a) 45°, (b) 90°, (c) 180°?
547. The diagram shows the graphs of the stopping potential as a function of the frequency of
the incident light for photoelectric experiments performed on three different materials.
Rank the materials according to the values of their work functions, from least to greatest.
A. 1, 2, 3

B. 3, 2, 1
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 2, 1, 3
E. 1, 3,
548.
a) Differentiate between polarization and diffraction of light.
b)
(i) Explain the concept of particle-wave duality of light.
(ii) Copy and complete carefully each space of the following table using yes
or no where necessary.

94
 Phenomena Can be explained in terms of Can be expressed in
Waves terms of particles.
Reflection of light
Refraction of light
Interference of light
Diffraction of light
Polarization of light
Photoelectric effect
Compton effect
c)
(i) Write down an expression of the linear momentum and its SI units of a
visible photon that has a wavelength ʎ. Remember that a photon doesn't
have a rest mass.
(ii) Show that the energy of a photon is given by E= PC where P is the linear
momentum of the photon, c is the speed of light in vacuum or in air.
549. Why is an electron microscope more suitable than an optical microscope for
“seeing” objects of atomic size?
550. In the photoelectric effect, explain why the stopping potential depends on the
frequency of the light but not on the intensity.
551. Why does the existence of a cutoff frequency in the photoelectric effect favor a
particle theory of light rather than a wave theory?
552. Which has more energy, a photon of ultraviolet radiation or a photon of yellow
light?
553. The cutoff frequency of a material is f0. Are electrons emitted from the material
when (a) light of frequency greater than f0 is incident on the material? (b) Less
than f0?
554. Lithium, beryllium, and mercury have work functions of 2.30 eV, 3.90 eV, and
4.50 eV, respectively. Light with a wavelength of 4.00×102 nm is incident on each
of these metals. (a) Which of these metals emit photoelectrons in response to the
light? Why? (b) Find the maximum kinetic energy for the photoelectrons in each
case.
555. Two light sources are used in a photoelectric experiment to determine the work
function for a particular metal surface. When green light from a mercury lamp
(λ=546.1 nm) is used, a stopping potential of 0.376 V reduces the photocurrent to
zero. (a) Based on this measurement, what is the work function for this metal?
(b) What stopping potential would be observed when using the yellow light from
a helium discharge tube (λ=587.5 nm)?
556. The mass of an electron or positron is 9.11 × 10–31 kg. The speed of light is 3.0 ×
108 m/s.
a) Show that the rest energy of an electron is 8.2 × 10–14J.
b) Use the answer to question a, to show that the rest energy of an electron
is 0.51 MeV.
c) Write down the rest energy of a positron (anti electron).
d) An electron and a positron meet and annihilate one another. By how much does
the rest energy decrease in total? Express the answer in MeV
95
 e) The annihilation of an electron and a positron at rest produces a pair of
identical gamma ray photons travelling in opposite directions. Write down (in
MeV) the energy you expect each photon to have.
f) A single photon passing near a nucleus can create an electron–positron pair.
Their rest energy comes from the energy of the photon. Write down the
smallest photon energy that can produce one such pair.
g) Cosmic rays can send high-energy photons through the atmosphere. What
approximately is the maximum number of electron–positron pairs that a 10 GeV
photon can create?
557. Hydrogen has a red emission line at 656.3 nm, what is the energy and frequency of
photon of this light?
558. How much total kinetic energy will an electron–positron pair have if produced by a 3.64-
MeV photon?
559. What is the longest wavelength photon that could produce a proton–antiproton pair?
(Each with a mass of 1.67x10-27kg).
560. What is the minimum photon energy needed to produce a pair? The mass of eachµ (muon)
is 207 times the mass of an electron. What is the wavelength of such a photon?
561. An electron and a positron, each moving at 3.0 x105m/s collide head on, disappear, and
produce two photons, each with the same energy and momentum moving in opposite
directions. Determine the energy and momentum of each photon.
562. A gamma-ray photon produces an electron and a positron, each with a kinetic energy of
285 keV. Determine the energy and wavelength of the photon.
563. How hot is a metal being welded if it radiates most strongly at 520 nm
564. Estimate the peak wavelength for radiation emitted from (a) ice at 0°C, (b) a floodlamp at
3100 K, (c) helium at 4 K, assuming blackbody emission. In what region of the EM
spectrum is each?
565. (a) What is the temperature if the peak of a blackbody spectrum is at 18.0 nm? (b) What is
the wavelength at the peak of a blackbody spectrum if the body is at a temperature of
2200 K?
566. About 0.1 eV is required to break a “hydrogen bond” in a protein molecule. Calculate the
minimum frequency and maximum wavelength of a photon that can accomplish this.
567. What minimum frequency of light is needed to eject electrons from a metal whose work
function is 4.8x10–19 J?
568. What is the longest wavelength of light that will emit electrons from a metal whose work
function is 2.90 eV?
569. The work functions for sodium, cesium, copper, and iron are 2.3, 2.1, 4.7, and 4.5 eV,
respectively. Which of these metals will not emit electrons when visible light shines on it?
570. In a photoelectric-effect experiment it is observed that no current flows unless the
wavelength is less than 550 nm.

96
 (a) What is the work function of this material? (b) What stopping voltage is required
if light of wavelength 400 nm is used?
571. What is the maximum kinetic energy of electrons ejected from barium (W 0=2.48eV)
when illuminated by white light, to 750 nm?
572. Photons of energy 6.0 eV are incident on a metal. It is found that current flows from
the metal until a stopping potential of 3.8 V is applied. If the wavelength of the
incident photons is doubled, what is the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected
electrons? What would happen if the wavelength of the incident photons was tripled?
573. In a photoelectric experiment using a clean sodium surface, the maximum energy of
the emitted electrons was measured for a number of different incident frequencies,
with the following results.

Plot the graph of these results and find: (a) Planck’s constant; (b) the cutoff frequency
of sodium; (c) the work function.
574. An FM radio transmitter has a power output of 100 kW and operates at a frequency
of 94 MHz. How many photons per second does the transmitter emit?
575. Show that the energy E (in electron volts) of a photon whose wavelength is (nm) is
given by

576.
a) Describe one type of evidence for the wave nature of matter.
b) Describe one type of evidence for the particle nature of EM radiation
577. Complete table 1 below

97
578. The stopping potential when a frequency of 1.61 × 1015 Hz is incident on a metal is
3 V.
a) What is energy transferred by each photon?
b) Calculate the work function of the metal.
c) What is the maximum speed of the ejected electrons?
579. In an experiment to measure the Planck’s constant, a light emitting diode (LED) was
used. Fig. below was plotted for varying energy of the photon and frequency of the
diode. Use the graph to answer the questions that follow.

98
 a) Determine the slope of the line.
b) What are the intercepts of the graph?
c) Write down the equation of the line.
d) What do you think is the vertical intercept?
e) What is the value of the Planck’s constant?
f) Write the Einstein photoelectric equation in relation to the answer of (e).
580. Monochromatic light of wavelength 560 nm incident on a metal surface in a vacuum
photocell causes a current through the cell due to photoelectric emission from the
metal cathode. The emission is stopped by applying a positive potential of
1.30 V to the cathode with respect to the anode. Calculate
a) The work function of the metal cathode in electron volts.
b) The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons when the cathode
is at zero potential
581. In a Compton scattering experiment, the wavelength of scattered X-rays for
scattering angle of 45 degree is found to be 0.024 angstrom.
a) What is the wavelength of the incident photon?
b) What is the percentage change in the wavelength on Compton scattering?
582. You use 0.124-nm x-ray photons in a Compton-scattering experiment.
a) At what angle is the wavelength of the scattered x-rays 1.0% longer than that of
the incident x-rays?
b) At what angle is it 0.050% longer?
583.
a) What is the energy in joules and electron volts of a photon of 420- nm
violet light?
b) What is the maximum kinetic energy of electrons ejected from calcium by 420-
nm violet light, given that the binding energy (or work function) of electrons
for calcium metal is 2.71 eV?
584. An electron and a positron, initially far apart, move towards each other with the
same speed. They collide head-on, annihilating each other and producing two
photons. Find the energies, wavelengths and frequencies of the photons if the initial
kinetic energies of the electron and positron are:
a) Both negligible and
b) Both 5.000 MeV. The electron rest energy is 0.511 MeV
585.
a) Calculate the momentum of a visible photon that has a wavelength of 500 nm.
b) Find the velocity of an electron having the same momentum.
c) What is the energy of the electron, and how does it compare with the energy of
the photon?
586. For an electron having a de Broglie wavelength of 0.167 nm (appropriate for
interacting with crystal lattice structures that are about this size):
a) Calculate the electron’s velocity, assuming it is non-relativistic.
b) Calculate the electron’s kinetic energy in eV.

99
587. Whena certain photoelectric surface is illuminated with light of different
wavelengths, the following stopping potentials are observed:

Plot the stopping potential on the vertical axis against the frequency of the light on
the horizontal axis. Determine;
a) The threshold frequency
b) The threshold wavelength
c) The photoelectric work function of the material (in electron volts)
d) The value of Planck’s constant h (assuming that the value of e is known)
588. The photoelectric work function of potassium is 2.3 eV. If light having a wavelength
of 250 nm falls on potassium, find
a) The stopping potential in volts
b) The kinetic energy in electron volts of the most energetic electrons ejected;
c) The speed of these electrons.
589. Explain how the quantum theory of light accounts for the photoelectric effect.
590. Compare the quantum and wave theories of light and discuss why both are needed.
591. Why is high-intensity, low frequency light unable to eject electrons from a metal, whereas
low-intensity, high-frequency light can? Explain.
592. As the temperature of a body is increased, how does the frequency of peak intensity
change? How does the total amount of radiated energy change?
593. An experimenter sends an X-ray into a target. An electron, but no other radiation, emerges
from the target. Explain whether this event is a result of the photoelectric effect or the
Compton Effect.
594. Distinguish the photoelectric effect from the Compton Effect.
595. Green light (ʎ= 532 nm) strikes an unknown metal, causing electrons to be ejected.
The ejected electrons can be stopped by a potential of 1.44 V. What is the work
function, in eV, of the metal?
596. Whatis the energy, in eV, of the photons produced by a laser pointer having a
650- nm wavelength?
597. Whenan electron collides with a massive particle, the electron’s velocity and
wavelength decrease. How is it possible to increase the wavelength of a photon?
598. Potassium
emits photoelectrons when struck by blue light, whereas tungsten emits
photoelectrons when struck by ultraviolet radiation.
a) Which metal has a higher threshold frequency?
100
 b) Which metal has a larger work function?
599. Explain how Einstein’s theory accounts for the fact that light below the threshold
frequency of a metal produces no photoelectrons, regardless of the intensity of the
light.
600. The graph in Figure below shows the stopping potential as a function of the
frequency of the incident light falling on a metal surface.
a) Find the photoelectric work function for this metal.
b) What value of Planck’s constant does the graph yield?
c) Why does the graph not extend below the x-axis?
d) If a different metal were used, which characteristics of the graph would you
expect to be the same and which ones would be different?

601.
a) When an electromagnetic radiation falls on a metal surface, electrons may
be emitted. This is the photoelectric effect.
(i) State Einstein’s photoelectric equation, explaining the meaning of
each term.
(ii) Explain why, for a particular metal, electrons are emitted only when
the frequency of the incident radiation is greater than a certain value.
(iii) Explain why the maximum speed of the emitted electrons is
independent of intensity of the radiation.
b) A source emits monochromatic light of frequency 5.5×1014Hz at rate of
0.10W. Of the photons given out, 0.15% falls on the cathode of a photo cell,
which gives a current of 6.00mA in an external circuit. Calculate:
(i) The energy of a photon
(ii) The number of electrons leaving the source per second and
(iii) The percentage of photons falling on the cathode producing the
photoelectrons. You may assume this current consists of all the
photoelectrons emitted.
602. When light is incident on a metal plate electrons are emitted only when the
frequency of the light exceeds a certain value. Explain this. The maximum kinetic

101
 energy of the electrons emitted from a metallic surface is 1.6x10-19 J when the
frequency of the incident radiation is 7.5x1014 Hz. Calculate the minimum
frequency of radiation for which electrons will be emitted. Assume that Plank’s
constant = 6.6x10-34 Js.
603. When a frequency of 5.4 x1014 Hz is shone on to the surface the maximum
energy of the electrons emitted is 1.2x10-19 J. If the same surface is illuminated
with a light of frequency 6.6x1014Hz the maximum energy of the electrons is
2.00x10-19J. Use these data to calculate a value for plank’s constant.
604. Explain the terms photoelectric threshold frequency and work function used in
connection with photoelectric effect.
605. Describe and explain one experiment in which light exhibits a wave-like
character and one experiment that illustrates the existence of photons. Light of
frequency 5.0×1014Hz liberates electrons with energy 2.31×10-19 J from a certain
metallic surface. What is the wavelength of ultraviolet light that liberates
electrons of energy 8.93 ×10-19 J from the same surface?
606.
a)

b) The figure below the apparatus used in an experiment to investigate the

photoelectric effect. Light falls on the photo-sensitive surface of a photocell,
and the kinetic energy of the fastest moving emitted electrons can be
measured by increasing the voltage provided by the battery until no current
flows. The results obtained for monochromatic light of various frequencies are
shown graphically below.

102
 (i) The graph indicates that there is a frequency below which no
electrons are emitted. Why this?
(ii) When the frequency is 5.5 × 1014Hz, the required stopping potential is
0.43V. Given that electronic charge is -1.6 ×10-19C, estimate the kinetic
energy of the fastest moving electrons emitted by light of this
frequency. Justify your answer.
(iii) Use the graph to obtain a value for plank’s constant, explaining
carefully how you obtain your result.
(iv) State and explain the effect, if any, of increasing the intensity of the
light on experimental observations and on the graph
607. Describean experiment to measure Plank’s constant using the photoelectric effect.
A strip of clean magnesium ribbon, surrounded by a cylinder of copper gauze
maintained at a positive potential of 6.0V with respect to magnesium, is connected
to input of an amplifier that measures the potential difference across the resistor
R, as shown below.

103
 When the magnesium is illuminated with mercury light of wavelength 254nm
the amplifier detects a current flowing in R. State the origin of the current.
Calculate the energies of photons of mercury light of wavelengths 254nm and
546nm.

Use these values and the data, describe and explain in detail what you would
observe when each of the following experiments is carried out separately.
a) The polarity of 6.0V battery is reversed.
b) The mercury lamp is moved further away from the magnesium ribbon.
c) A filter selects mercury light of wavelength of 546nm in place of
wavelength 254nm.
d) The e.m.f of battery is increased to 10V
e) The magnesium ribbon is replaced by a strip of copper. ( The photo electric
work function of magnesium = 2.8eV, The photo electric work function of
copper = 5.05eV)
608. In a photoelectric-effect experiment, which of the following will increase the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons?
a) Use light of greater intensity
b) Use light of higher frequency
c) Use light of longer wavelength
d) Use a metal surface with a larger work function. In each case justify your
answer
609. A photon of frequency ƒ undergoes Compton scattering from an electron at rest
and scatters through an angle φ. The frequency of the scattered photon is f .How f is
related to φ? Does your answer depend on φ ?Explain
610. If the threshold wavelength in the photoelectric effect increases when the emitting
metal is changed to a different metal, what can you say about the work functions of
the two metals?
611. Explain why the existence of a cutoff frequency in the photoelectric effect more

104
 strongly favors a particle theory rather than a wave theory of light.
612. UV light causes sunburn, whereas visible light does not. Suggest a reason.
613. The work functions for sodium and cesium are 2.28 eV and 2.14 eV, respectively.
For incident photons of a given frequency, which metal will give a higher maximum
kinetic energy for the electrons? Explain

614. Explain how the photoelectric circuit could be used in

a) A burglar alarm,
b) A smoke detector,
c) A photographic light meter
615.
a) Does a beam of infrared photons always have less energy than a beam of
ultraviolet photons? Explain.
b) Does a single photon of infrared light always have less energy than a single
photon of ultraviolet light? Why?
616. Monochromatic light of wavelength 500nm falls on a metal cathode of area 2000
mm2 and produces photoelectrons. The light intensity at the surface of the metal is
1.0x10-2Wm-2. Calculate
a) The frequency of light
b) The energy of a single photon of light
c) The number of photons falling one square millimeter of the metal in
one second.
d) The photocurrent, assuming that each photon releases one
photoelectron.
617. Light of 450-nm wavelength strikes a metal surface, and a stream of electrons
emerges from the metal. If light of the same intensity but of wavelength 400 nm
strikes the surface, are more electrons emitted? Does the energy of the emitted
electrons change? Explain
618. If an X-ray photon is scattered by an electron, does the photon’s wavelength
change? If so, does it increase or decrease? Explain
619. In both the photoelectric effect and in the Compton Effect, a photon collides with
an electron causing the electron to fly off. What is the difference between the two
processes?
620. Why do we say that light has wave properties? Why do we say that light has
particle properties?
621. Why do we say that electrons have wave properties? Why do we say that electrons
have particle properties?
622. What are the differences between a photon and an electron? Be specific: make a
list.
623. If an electron and a proton travel at the same speed, which has the shorter
wavelength? Explain.
624. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same voltage. Which has the
longer wavelength? Explain why.
105
 UNIT 11: SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION (SHM)
625. In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force must be proportional to the:
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. velocity
D. displacement
E. displacement squared
626. An oscillatory motion must be simple harmonic if:
A. the amplitude is small
B. the potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy
C. the motion is along the arc of a circle
D. the acceleration varies sinusoidally with time
E. the derivative, dU/dx, of the potential energy is negative
627. In simple harmonic motion, the magnitude of the acceleration is:
A. constant
B. proportional to the displacement
C. inversely proportional to the displacement
D. greatest when the velocity is greatest
E. never greater than g
628. A particle is in simple harmonic motion with period T. At time t = 0 it is at the
equilibrium point. Of the following times, at which time is it furthest from the
equilibrium point?
A. 0.5T
B. 0.7T
C. T
D. 1.4T
E. 1.5T
629. A particle oscillating in simple harmonic motion is:
A. never in equilibrium because it is in motion
B. never in equilibrium because there is always a force
C. in equilibrium at the ends of its path because its velocity is zero there
D. in equilibrium at the center of its path because the acceleration is zero there
E. in equilibrium at the ends of its path because the acceleration is zero there
630. An object is undergoing simple harmonic motion. Throughout a complete cycle it:
A. has constant speed
B. has varying amplitude
C. has varying period
D. has varying acceleration
E. has varying mass
106
631. When a body executes simple harmonic motion, its acceleration at the ends of
its path must be:
A. zero
B. less than g
C. more than g
D. suddenly changing in sign
E. none of these
632. An object attached to one end of a spring makes 20 complete oscillations in 10 s. Its
period is:
A. 2 Hz
B. 10 s
C. 0.5 Hz
D. 2 s
E. 0.50 s
633. An object attached to one end of a spring makes 20 vibrations in 10 s. Its frequency is:
A. 2 Hz
B. 10 s
C. 0.05 Hz
D. 2 s
E. 0.50 s
634. An object attached to one end of a spring makes 20 vibrations in 10 s. Its angular
frequency is:
A. 0.79 rad/s
B. 1.57 rad/s
C. 2.0 rad/s
D. 6.3 rad/s
E. 12.6 rad/s
635. Frequency f and angular frequency ω are related by
A. f = πω
B. f = 2πω
C. f = ω/π
D. f = ω/2π
E. f = 2ω/π
636. A block attached to a spring oscillates in simple harmonic motion along the x
axis. The limits of its motion are x = 10 cm and x = 50 cm and it goes from one
of these extremes to the other in 0.25 s. Its amplitude and frequency are:
A. 40 cm, 2 Hz
B. 20 cm, 4 Hz
C. 40 cm, 2 Hz
D. 25 cm, 4 Hz
E. 20 cm, 2 Hz
637. In simple harmonic motion, the magnitude of the acceleration is greatest when:
A. the displacement is zero
B. the displacement is maximum

107
 C. the speed is maximum
D. the force is zero
E. the speed is between zero and its maximum
638. In simple harmonic motion, the displacement is maximum when the:
A. acceleration is zero
B. velocity is maximum
C. velocity is zero
D. kinetic energy is maximum
E. momentum is maximum
639. In simple harmonic motion:
A. the acceleration is greatest at the maximum displacement
B. the velocity is greatest at the maximum displacement
C. the period depends on the amplitude
D. the acceleration is constant
E. the acceleration is greatest at zero displacement
640. The amplitude and phase constant of an oscillator are determined by:
A. the frequency
B. the angular frequency
C. the initial displacement alone
D. the initial velocity alone
E. both the initial displacement and velocity
641. Two identical undamped oscillators have the same amplitude of oscillation only if:
A. they are started with the same displacement x0
B. they are started with the same velocity v0
C. they are started with the same phase
D. they are started so the combination ω2x20 + v02 is the same
E. they are started so the combination x02 + ω2v02 is the same
642. The amplitude of any oscillator can be doubled by:
A. doubling only the initial displacement
B. doubling only the initial speed
C. doubling the initial displacement and halving the initial speed
D. doubling the initial speed and halving the initial displacement
E. doubling both the initial displacement and the initial speed
643. It is impossible for two particles, each executing simple harmonic motion, to
remain in phase with each other if they have different:
A. masses
B. periods
C. amplitudes
D. spring constants
E. kinetic energies
644. The acceleration of a body executing simple harmonic motion leads the velocity by what
phase?
A. 0
B. π/8 rad

108
 C. π/4 rad
D. π/2 rad
E. π rad
645. The displacement of an object oscillating on a spring is given by x(t) = xm cos(ωt
+ φ). If the initial displacement is zero and the initial velocity is in the negative
x direction, then the phase constant φ is:
A. 0
B. π/2 rad
C. π rad
D. 3π/2 rad
E. 2π rad
646. The displacement of an object oscillating on a spring is given by x(t) = xm cos(ωt + φ). If
the object is initially displaced in the negative x direction and given a
negative initial velocity, then the phase constant φ is between:
A. 0 and π/2 rad
B. π/2 and π rad
C. π and 3π/2 rad
D. 3π/2 and 2π rad
E. none of the above (φ is exactly 0, π/2, π, or 3π/2 rad)
647. A certain spring elongates 9.0 mm when it is suspended vertically and a block
of mass M is hung on it. The natural angular frequency of this block-spring
system:
A. is 0.088 rad/s
B. is 33 rad/s
C. is 200 rad/s
D. is 1140 rad/s
E. cannot be computed unless the value of M is given
648.

649. A 0.20-kg object attached to a spring whose spring constant is 500 N/m executes simple
harmonic motion. If its maximum speed is 5.0 m/s, the amplitude of its oscillation is:
A. 0.0020 m
B. 0.10 m
C. 0.20 m
D. 25 m
E. 250 m
109
650. A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a particle of mass m and an ideal
spring with spring constant k. Particle oscillates as shown in (i) with period T.
If the spring is cut in half and used with the same particle, as shown in (ii), the
period will be:

A. 2T
B. √2T
C. T/√2
D. T
E. T/2

651. A particle moves in simple harmonic motion according to x = 2 cos (50t), where
x is in meters and t is in seconds. Its maximum velocity in m/s is:
A. 100 sin (50t)
B. 100 cos (50t)
C. 100
D. 200
652. A 3-kg block, attached to a spring, executes simple harmonic motion according to
x = 2 cos (50t) where x is in meters and t is in seconds. The spring constant of the
spring is:
A. 1 N/m
B. 100 N/m
C. 150 N/m
D. 7500 N/m
E. none of these
653. Let U be the potential energy (with the zero at zero displacement) and K be the
kinetic energy of a simple harmonic oscillator. Uavg and Kavg are the average
values over a cycle. Then:
A. Kavg > Uavg
B. Kavg < Uavg
C. Kavg = Uavg
D. K = 0 when U = 0
E. K + U = 0
654. A particle is in simple harmonic motion along the x axis. The amplitude of the motion is
xm. At one point in its motion its kinetic energy is K = 5 J and its potential energy
(measured with U = 0 at x = 0) is U = 3 J. When it is at x = xm, the kinetic and potential
energies are:
A. K = 5 J and U = 3 J
B. K = 5 J and U = -3 J

110
 C. K = 8 J and U = 0
D. K = 0 and U = 8 J
E. K = 0 and U = -8 J
655. A 0.25-kg block oscillates on the end of the spring with a spring constant of 200
N/m. If the system has an energy of 6.0 J, then the amplitude of the oscillation is:
A. 0.06 m
B. 0.17 m
C. 0.24 m
D. 4.9 m
E. 6.9 m
656. A 0.25-kg block oscillates on the end of the spring with a spring constant of 200
N/m. If the system has an energy of 6.0 J, then the maximum speed of the block
is:
A. 0.06 m/s
B. 0.17 m/s
C. 0.24 m/s
D. 4.9 m/s
E. 6.9 m/s
657. A 0.25-kg block oscillates on the end of the spring with a spring constant of 200 N/m. If
the oscillation is started by elongating the spring 0.15 m and giving the block a speed of
3.0 m/s, then the maximum speed of the block is:
A. 0.13 m/s
B. 0.18 m/s
C. 3.7 m/s
D. 5.2 m/s
E. 13 m/s
658. A 0.25-kg block oscillates on the end of the spring with a spring constant of
200 N/m. If the oscillation is started by elongating the spring 0.15 m and
giving the block a speed of 3.0 m/s, then the amplitude of the oscillation is:
A. 0.13 m
B. 0.18 m
C. 3.7 m
D. 5.2 m
E. 13 m
659. An object on the end of a spring is set into oscillation by giving it an initial
velocity while it is at its equilibrium position. In the first trial the initial
velocity is v0 and in the second it is 4v0. In the second trial:
A. the amplitude is half as great and the maximum acceleration is twice as great
B. the amplitude is twice as great and the maximum acceleration is half as great
C. both the amplitude and the maximum acceleration are twice as great
D. both the amplitude and the maximum acceleration are four times as great
E. the amplitude is four times as great and the maximum acceleration is twice as great
660. A block attached to a spring undergoes simple harmonic motion on a
horizontal frictionless surface. Its total energy is 50 J. When the displacement

111
 is half the amplitude, the kinetic energy is:
A. zero
B. 12.5 J
C. 25 J
D. 37.5 J
E. 50 J
661. A mass-spring system is oscillating with amplitude A. The kinetic energy will equal
the potential energy only when the displacement is:
A. zero
B. ±A/4
C. ±A/√2
D. ±A/2
E. anywhere between -A and +A
662. If the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, its period will:
A. halve
B. be greater by a factor of √2
C. be less by a factor of √2
D. double
E. remain the same
663. The period of a simple pendulum is 1 s on Earth. When brought to a planet where
g is one-tenth that on Earth, its period becomes:
A. 1 s
B. 1/√10 s
C. 1/10 s
D. √10 s
E. 10 s
664. The amplitude of oscillation of a simple pendulum is increased from 1 ◦ to 4◦. Its
maximum acceleration changes by a factor of:
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 2
D. 4
E. 16
665. A simple pendulum of length L and mass M has frequency f. To increase its frequency to
2f:
A. increase its length to 4L
B. increase its length to 2L
C. decrease its length to L/2
D. decrease its length to L/4
E. decrease its mass to < M/4
666. A simple pendulum has length L and period T . As it passes through its
equilibrium position, the string is suddenly clamped at its midpoint. The
period then becomes:
A. 2T
B. T
112
 C. T/2
D. T/4
E. none of these
667.

668. Three physical pendulums, with masses m1, m2 = 2m1, and m3 = 3m1, have the
same shape and size and are suspended at the same point. Rank them
according to their periods, from shortest to longest.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 3, 2, 1
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 2, 1, 3
E. All the same
669. A pendulum can only be modeled as a simple harmonic oscillator if the angle over which
it oscillates is small. Why is this so?
670.

671. What is the acceleration due to gravity in a region where a simple pendulum having a
length 75.000 cm has a period of 1.7357 s? State the assumptions made.
672. A geologist uses a simple pendulum that has a length of 37.10 cm and a frequency of
0.8190 Hz at a particular location on the Earth. What is the acceleration due to gravity at
this location?
673. A spring is hanging from a support without any object attached to it and its length is 500
mm. An object of mass 250 g is attached to the end of the spring. The length of the spring
is now 850 mm.
a) What is the spring constant? The spring is pulled down 120 mm and then
released from rest.
b) Describe the motion of the object attached to the end of the spring.
c) What is the displacement amplitude?
d) What are the natural frequency of oscillation and period of motion?
Another object of mass 250 g is attached to the end of the spring.
e) Assuming the spring is in its new equilibrium position, what is the length of the
spring?

113
 f) If the object is set vibrating, what is the ratio of the periods of oscillation for
the two situations?
674.

a)

(i) What do you understand by the term "simple harmonic motion"?

(ii)State any one example of simple harmonic oscillator
What factors affect the frequency of simple harmonic motion for a
(iii)
mass- spring system?
b) A 0.500 kg mass is vibrating in simple harmonic motion (SHM) in a system in
which the restoring constant is 100 N/m; the amplitude of vibration is 0.200 m.
Find:
(i) The total energy of the system.
(ii) The maximum kinetic energy.
(iii) The potential energy and kinetic energy when the displacement X = 0.100
m.
(iv) the equation of this SHM if X = 0.200m at t =0s
c) What condition for the system performing simple harmonic motion is
necessary if your calculation in (b iii) above is to valid?
675. An object oscillates with simple harmonic motion along the x axis. Its position
varies with time according to the equation

a) Determine the amplitude, frequency, and period of the motion.

b) Calculate the velocity and acceleration of the object at any time t.
c) Using the results of part (B), determine the position, velocity, and acceleration
of the object at t =1.00 s.
d) Determine the maximum speed and maximum acceleration of the object.
e) Find the displacement of the object between t =0 and t =1.00 s.
676. A 200-g block connected to a light spring for which the force constant is 5.00 N/m is
free to oscillate on a horizontal, frictionless surface. The block is displaced 5.00 cm
from equilibrium and released from rest, as in Figure

a) Find the period of its motion.

b) Determine the maximum speed of the block.
c) What is the maximum acceleration of the block?
d) Express the position, speed, and acceleration as functions of time.

114
677. The amplitude of a system moving in simple harmonic motion is doubled.
Determine the change in
a) The total energy,
b) The maximum speed
c) The maximum acceleration, and
d) The period.
678. A 200-g block is attached to a horizontal spring and executes simple harmonic
motion with a period of 0.250 s. If the total energy of the system is 2.00 J, find
a) The force constant of the spring and
b) The amplitude of the motion
679. An object oscillates with simple harmonic motion along the x axis. Its position varies with
𝜋
time according to the equation x = (4.0 m) cos (πt+ ) where t is in seconds and the angles
4
in the parentheses are in radians.
 Determine the amplitude, frequency, and period of the motion.
 Calculate the velocity and acceleration of the object at any time t.
 Using the results of part (b), determine the position, velocity, and acceleration of
the object at t = 1.0 s.
 Determine the maximum speed and maximum acceleration of the object.
 Find the displacement of the object between t = 0 s and t =1.0s
680.

a) A 10N weight extends a spring by 5cm. Another 10N weight is

added, and the spring extends another 5cm. What is the spring
constant of the spring?
b) A pendulum oscillates with a frequency of 0.5 Hz. What is the
length of the pendulum?
681. What is the acceleration due to gravity in a region where a simple pendulum having a
length 75.000 cm has a period of 1.7357 s?
682. A simple pendulum is 5.00 m long.(a) What is the period of small oscillations for
this pendulum if it is located in an elevator accelerating upward at5.00 m/s2? (b)
What is its period if the elevator is accelerating downward at 5.00 m/s2? (c) What is
the period of this pendulum if it is placed in a truck that is accelerating
horizontally at 5.00 m/s2?
683. A 7.00-kg object is hung from the bottom end of a vertical spring fastened to an
overhead beam. The object is set into vertical oscillations having a period of 2.60 s.
Find the force constant of the spring.

UNIT 12: FORCED OSCILLATIONS AND RESONANCE

OF A SYSTEM.

684. For an oscillator subjected to a damping force proportional to its velocity:

A. the displacement is a sinusoidal function of time.
B. the velocity is a sinusoidal function of time.
C. the frequency is a decreasing function of time.

115
 D. the mechanical energy is constant.
E. none of the above is true.
685. A sinusoidal force with given amplitude is applied to an oscillator. At resonance
the amplitude of the oscillation is limited by:
A. the damping force
B. the initial amplitude
C. the initial velocity
D. the force of gravity
E. none of the above
686. An oscillator is subjected to a damping force that is proportional to its
velocity. A sinusoidal force is applied to it. After a long time:
A. its amplitude is an increasing function of time
B. its amplitude is a decreasing function of time
C. its amplitude is constant
D. its amplitude is a decreasing function of time only if the damping constant is large
E. its amplitude increases over some portions of a cycle and decreases over other
portions
687. A block on a spring is subjected to a damping force that is proportional to its
velocity and to an applied sinusoidal force. The energy dissipated by damping
is supplied by:
A. the potential energy of the spring
B. the kinetic energy of the mass
C. gravity
D. friction
E. the applied force
688. Five particles undergo damped harmonic motion. Values for the spring constant k, the
damping constant b, and the mass m are given below. Which leads to the smallest rate of
loss of mechanical energy?
A. k = 100 N/m, m = 50 g, b = 8 g/s
B. k = 150 N/m, m = 50 g, b = 5 g/s
C. k = 150 N/m, m = 10 g, b = 8 g/s
D. k = 200 N/m, m = 8 g, b = 6 g/s
E. k = 100 N/m, m = 2 g, b = 4 g/s
689. A sinusoidal force with given amplitude is applied to an oscillator. To maintain the largest
amplitude oscillation the frequency of the applied force should be:
A. half the natural frequency of the oscillator
B. the same as the natural frequency of the oscillator
C. twice the natural frequency of the oscillator
D. unrelated to the natural frequency of the oscillator
E. determined from the maximum speed desired
690.

116
691. Examinefigure below related to the graph lines A, B, and C of damped oscillations
and answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify the graph line showing the critical damped oscillation.

b) What is the main cause of damped oscillations?
c) Name any one characteristic of damped oscillations.
692. compare and. contrast between simple harmonic motion and damped oscillatory
motion
693. Aweight of 40.0 N is suspended from a spring that has a force constant of 200
N/m. The system is undamped and is subjected to a harmonic driving force of
frequency 10.0 Hz, resulting in a forced-motion amplitude of 2.00 cm. Determine
the maximum value of the driving force.
694. Damping is negligible for a 0.150-kg object hanging from a light 6.30-N/m spring. A
sinusoidal force with amplitude of 1.70 N drives the system. At what frequency will
the force make the object vibrate with amplitude of 0.440 m?
695. Ablock of mass m is connected to two springs of force constants k1 and K2 as shown
in Figures a and b. In each case, the block moves on a frictionless table after it is
displaced from equilibrium and released. Show that in the two cases the block
exhibits simple harmonic motion with periods

117
 UNIT13: PROPAGATION OF MECHANICAL WAVES,
INTERFERENCE AND DIFFRACTION
696. Asinusoidal wave is traveling toward the right as shown. Which letter correctly
labels the amplitude of the wave?

697. Asinusoidal wave is traveling toward the right as shown. Which letter correctly
labels the wavelength of the wave?

698. In the diagram below, the interval PQ represents:

118
 A. wavelength/2
B. wavelength
C. 2 × amplitude
D. period/2
E. period

699. Let f be the frequency, v the speed, and T the period of a sinusoidal traveling
wave. The correct relationship is:
A. f = 1/T
B. f = v + T
C. f = vT
D. f = v/T
E. f = T/v
700. The displacement of a string is given by y(x, t) = ym sin(kx + ωt).The wavelength of the
wave is:
A. 2πk/ω
B. k/ω
C. ωk
D. 2π/k
E. k/2π
701. Three traveling sinusoidal waves are on identical strings, with the same tension. The
mathematical forms of the waves are y1(x, t) = ym sin(3x - 6t), y2(x, t) = ym sin(4x - 8t),
and y3(x, t) = ym sin(6x - 12t), where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Match each
mathematical form to the appropriate graph below.

A. y1: i, y2: ii, y3: iii

B. y1: iii, y2: ii, y3: i
C. y1: i, y2: iii, y3: ii
D. y1: ii, y2: i, y3: iii
E. y1: iii, y2: i, y3: ii

702. The displacement of a string is given by y(x, t) = ym sin(kx + ωt) . The speed of the wave is:
A. 2πk/ω

119
 B. ω/k
C. ωk
D. 2π/k
E. k/2π
703. A wave is described by y(x, t) = 0.1 sin (3x + 10t), where x is in meters, y is in
centimeters, and t is in seconds. The angular wave number is:
A. 0.10 rad/m
B. 3π rad/m
C. 10) rad/m
D. 10π) rad/m
E. 3.0 rad/cm
704. A wave is described by y(x, t) = 0.1 sin(3x-10t), where x is in meters, y is in
centimeters, and t is in seconds. The angular frequency is:
A. 0.10 rad/s
B. 3.0π rad/s
C. 10π rad/s
D. 20π rad/s
E. (10 rad/s
705. Water waves in the sea are observed to have a wavelength of 300 m and a frequency of
0.07 Hz. The speed of these waves is:
A. 0.00021 m/s
B. 2.1 m/s
C. 21 m/s
D. 210 m/s
E. none of these
706. Sinusoidal water waves are generated in a large ripple tank. The waves travel
at 20 cm/s and their adjacent crests are 5.0 cm apart. The time required for
each new whole cycle to be generated is:
A. 100 s
B. 4.0 s
C. 2.0 s
D. 0.5 s
E. 0.25 s
707. A traveling sinusoidal wave is shown below. At which point is the motion 180 ◦
out of phase with the motion at point P?

120
708. The displacement of a string carrying a traveling sinusoidal wave is given by
y(x, t) = ym sin(kx - ωt - φ) . At time t = 0 the point at x = 0 has a displacement of 0
and is moving in the positive y direction. The phase constant φ is:
A. 45◦
B. 90◦
C. 135◦
D. 180◦
E. 270◦
709. The displacement of a string carrying a traveling sinusoidal wave is given by
y(x, t) = ym sin(kx - ωt - φ) . At time t = 0 the point at x = 0 has a velocity of 0
and a positive displacement. The phase constant φ is:
A. 45◦
B. 90◦
C. 135◦
D. 180◦
E. 270◦
710. The displacement of a string carrying a traveling sinusoidal wave is
given by y(x,t) = ym sin(kx - ωt - φ) .
At time t = 0 the point at x = 0 has velocity v0 and displacement y0. The
phase constant φ is given by tan φ =:
A. v0/ωy0
B. ωy0/v0
C. ωv0/y0
D. y0/ωv0
E. ωv0y0
711. Any point on a string carrying a sinusoidal wave is moving with its maximum speed when:
A. the magnitude of its acceleration is a maximum
B. the magnitude of its displacement is a maximum
C. the magnitude of its displacement is a minimum
D. the magnitude of its displacement is half the amplitude
E. the magnitude of its displacement is one-fourth the amplitude
712. The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal traveling waves
are given by wave 1: y(x, t) = (2 cm) sin(3x - 6t)
wave 2: y(x, t) = (3 cm) sin(4x - 12t)
wave 3: y(x, t) = (4 cm) sin(5x - 11t)
where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves:
A. wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string
speed
B. wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum
transverse string speed
C. wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string
speed
D. wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has the greatest maximum
transverse string speed

121
 E. wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and wave 2 has the greatest maximum
transverse string speed
713. Suppose the maximum speed of a string carrying a sinusoidal wave is vs. When
the displacement of a point on the string is half its maximum, the speed of the
point is:
A. vs/2
B. 2vs
C. vs/4
D. 3vs/4
E. √3vs/2
714. A string carries a sinusoidal wave with amplitude of 2.0 cm and a frequency of
100 Hz. The maximum speed of any point on the string is:
A. 2.0 m/s
B. 4.0 m/s
C. 6.3 m/s
D. 13 m/s
E. unknown (not enough information is given)
715. A transverse traveling sinusoidal wave on a string has a frequency of 100 Hz, a
wavelength of 0.040 m and amplitude of 2.0 mm. The maximum velocity in m/s of any
point on the string is:
A. 0.2
B. 1.3
C. 4
D. 15
E. 25
716. A transverse traveling sinusoidal wave on a string has a frequency of 100 Hz, a
wavelength of 0.040 m, and amplitude of 2.0 mm. The maximum acceleration in m/s2 of
any point on the string is:
A. 0
B. 130
C. 395
D. 790
E. 1600
717. The speed of a sinusoidal wave on a string depends on:
A. the frequency of the wave
B. the wavelength of the wave
C. the length of the string
D. the tension in the string
E. the amplitude of the wave
718. or a given medium, the frequency of a wave is:
A. independent of wavelength
B. proportional to wavelength
C. inversely proportional to wavelength
D. proportional to the amplitude
E. inversely proportional to the amplitude
122
719. The
tension in a string with a linear mass density of 0.0010 kg/m is 0.40 N. A
sinusoidal wave with a wavelength of 20 cm on this string has a frequency of:
A. 0.0125 Hz
B. 0.25 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 630 Hz
E. 2000 Hz
720. When a 100-Hz oscillator is used to generate a sinusoidal wave on a certain string
the wavelength is 10 cm. When the tension in the string is doubled the generator
produces a wave with a frequency and wavelength of:
A. 200 Hz and 20 cm
B. 141 Hz and 10 cm
C. 100 Hz and 20 cm
D. 100 Hz and 14 cm
E. 50 Hz and 14 cm
721. A source of frequency f sends waves of wavelength λ traveling with speed v in some
medium. If the frequency is changed from f to 2f, then the new wavelength and new speed
are (respectively):
A. 2λ, v
B. λ/2, v
C. λ, 2v
D. λ, v/2
E. λ/2, 2v
722. A long string is constructed by joining the ends of two shorter strings. The
tension in the strings is the same but string I has 4 times the linear mass density
of string II. When a sinusoidal wave passes from string I to string II:
A. the frequency decreases by a factor of 4
B. the frequency decreases by a factor of 2
C. the wavelength decreases by a factor of 4
D. the wavelength decreases by a factor of 2
E. the wavelength increases by a factor of 2
723. Two identical but separate strings, with the same tension, carry sinusoidal waves
with the same frequency. Wave A has a amplitude that is twice that of wave B and
transmits energy at a rate that is that of wave B.
A. half
B. twice
C. one-fourth
D. four times
E. eight times
724. Two identical but separate strings, with the same tension, carry sinusoidal waves
with the same frequency. Wave A has an amplitude that is twice that of wave B
and transmits energy at a
rate that is ------- that of wave B.
A. half
123
 B. twice
C. one-fourth
D. four times
E. eight times
725. A sinusoidal wave is generated by moving the end of a string up and down
periodically. The generator must supply the greatest power when the end of the
string
A. has its greatest acceleration
B. has its greatest displacement
C. has half its greatest displacement
D. has one-fourth its greatest displacement
E. has its least displacement
726. A sinusoidal wave is generated by moving the end of a string up and down
periodically. The generator does not supply any power when the end of the string
A. has its least acceleration
B. has its greatest displacement
C. has half its greatest displacement
D. has one-fourth its greatest displacement
E. has its least displacement
727. The sum of two sinusoidal traveling waves is a sinusoidal traveling wave only if:
A. their amplitudes are the same and they travel in the same direction.
B. their amplitudes are the same and they travel in opposite directions.
C. their frequencies are the same and they travel in the same direction.
D. their frequencies are the same and they travel in opposite directions.
E. their frequencies are the same and their amplitudes are the same.
728. Fully constructive interference between two sinusoidal waves of the same
frequency occurs only if they:
A. travel in opposite directions and are in phase
B. travel in opposite directions and are 180◦ out of phase
C. travel in the same direction and are in phase
D. travel in the same direction and are 180◦ out of phase
E. travel in the same direction and are 90◦ out of phase
729. Fully destructive interference between two sinusoidal waves of the same frequency
and amplitude occurs only if they:
A. travel in opposite directions and are in phase
B. travel in opposite directions and are 180◦ out of phase
C. travel in the same direction and are in phase
D. travel in the same direction and are 180◦ out of phase
E. travel in the same direction and are 90◦ out of phase
730. Two sinusoidal waves travel in the same direction and have the same frequency. Their
amplitudes are y1m and y2m. The smallest possible amplitude of the resultant wave is:
A. y1m + y2m and occurs if they are 180◦ out of phase
B. |y1m - y2m| and occurs if they are 180◦ out of phase
C. y1m + y2m and occurs if they are in phase
124
 D. |y1m - y2m| and occurs if they are in phase
E. |y1m - y2m| and occurs if they are 90◦ out of phase
731. Two sinusoidal waves have the same angular frequency, the same amplitude
ym, and travel in the same direction in the same medium. If they differ in
phase by 50◦, the amplitude of the resultant wave is given by:
A. 0.64ym
B. 1.3ym
C. 0.91ym
D. 1.8ym
E. 0.35ym
732. Two separated sources emit sinusoidal traveling waves that have the same
wavelength λ and are in phase at their respective sources. One travels a
distance f1 to get to the observation point while the other travels a distance f2.
The amplitude is a minimum at the observation point if f1 - f2 is:
A. an odd multiple of λ/2
B. an odd multiple of λ/4
C. a multiple of λ
D. an odd multiple of π/2
E. a multiple of π
733. Two separated sources emit sinusoidal traveling waves that have the same
wavelength λ and are in phase at their respective sources. One travels a
distance f1 to get to the observation point while the other travels a distance f2.
The amplitude is a maximum at the observation point if f1 - f2 is:
A. an odd multiple of λ/2
B. an odd multiple of λ/4
C. a multiple of λ
D. an odd multiple of π/2
E. a multiple of π
734. A wave on a stretched string is reflected from a fixed end P of the string. The
phase difference, at P, between the incident and reflected waves is:
A. zero
B. π rad
C. π/2 rad
D. depends on the velocity of the wave
E. depends on the frequency of the wave
735. A wave on a string is reflected from a fixed end. The reflected wave:
A. is in phase with the original wave at the end
B. is 180◦ out of phase with the original wave at the end
C. has a larger amplitude than the original wave
D. has a larger speed than the original wave
E. cannot be transverse
736. A standing wave:
A. can be constructed from two similar waves traveling in opposite directions
B. must be transverse
125
 C. must be longitudinal
D. has motionless points that are closer than half a wavelength
E. has a wave velocity that differs by a factor of two from what it would
be for a traveling wave
737. When a certain string is clamped at both ends, the lowest four resonant
frequencies are 50, 100, 150, and 200 Hz. When the string is also clamped at its
midpoint, the lowest four resonant frequencies are:
A. 50, 100, 150, and 200 Hz
B. 50, 150, 250, and 300 Hz
C. 100, 200, 300, and 400 Hz
D. 25, 50, 75, and 100 Hz
E. 75, 150, 225, and 300 Hz
738. When a certain string is clamped at both ends, the lowest four resonant frequencies
are measured to be 100, 150, 200, and 250 Hz. One of the resonant frequencies
(below 200 Hz) is missing. What is it?
A. 25 Hz
B. 50 Hz
C. 75 Hz
D. 125 Hz
E. 225 Hz
739. If λ is the wavelength of each of the component sinusoidal traveling waves that
form a standing wave, the distance between adjacent nodes in the standing wave
is:
A. λ/4
B. λ/2
C. 3λ/4
D. λ
E. 2λ
740. A standing wave pattern is established in a string as shown. The wavelength of
one of the component traveling waves is:

A. 0.25 m
B. 0.5 m
C. 1 m
D. 2 m
E. 4 m

741. Standing waves are produced by the interference of two traveling sinusoidal
waves, each of frequency 100 Hz. The distance from the second node to the fifth
126
 node is 60 cm. The wavelength of each of the two original waves is:
A. 50 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 30 cm

D. 20 cm
E. 15 cm
742. A string of length 100 cm is held fixed at both ends and vibrates in a standing wave
pattern.
The wavelengths of the constituent traveling waves CANNOT be:
A. 400 cm
B. 200 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 66.7 cm
E. 50 cm
743. A string of length L is clamped at each end and vibrates in a standing wave
pattern. The wavelengths of the constituent traveling waves CANNOT be:
A. L
B. 2L
C. L/2
D. 2L/3
E. 4L
744. Two sinusoidal waves, each of wavelength 5 m and amplitude 10 cm, travel in
opposite directions on a 20-m long stretched string that is clamped at each end.
Excluding the nodes at the ends
of the string, how many nodes appear in the resulting standing wave?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
E. 8
745. A string, clamped at its ends, vibrates in three segments. The string is 100 cm
long. The wavelength is:
A. 33.3 cm
B. 66.7 cm
C. 150 cm
D. 300 cm
E. need to know the frequency
746. A stretched string, clamped at its ends, vibrates in its fundamental frequency. To
double the fundamental frequency, one can change the string tension by a factor
of:
A. 2
B. 4
C. √2

127
 D. 1/2
E. 1/√2
747. When a string is vibrating in a standing wave pattern the power transmitted across an
antinode, compared to the power transmitted across a node, is:
A. more
B. less
C. the same (zero)
D. the same (non-zero)
E. sometimes more, sometimes less, and sometimes the same
748. A 40-cm long string, with one end clamped and the other free to move
transversely, is vibrating in its fundamental standing wave mode. The wavelength
of the constituent traveling waves is:
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 80 cm
E. 160 cm
749. A 30-cm long string, with one end clamped and the other free to move
transversely, is vibrating in its second harmonic. The wavelength of the
constituent traveling waves is:
A. 10 cm
B. 30 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 60 cm
E. 120 cm
750. A 40-cm long string, with one end clamped and the other free to move
transversely, is vibrating in its fundamental standing wave mode. If the wave
speed is 320 cm/s the frequency is:
a) 32 Hz
b) 16 Hz
c) 8 Hz
d) 4 Hz
e) 2 Hz
751. A sinusoidal wave traveling in the positive x direction has amplitude of 15.0 cm, a
wavelength of 40.0 cm, and a frequency of 8.00 Hz. The vertical position of an
element of the medium at t =0 and x =0 is also 15.0 cm
a) Find the wave number k, period T, angular frequency, and speed v of the
wave.
b) Determine the phase constant φ and write a general expression for the wave
function.
752. The amplitude of a wave is doubled, with no other changes made to the wave. As a
result of this doubling, which of the following statements is correct? (a) The speed of
the wave changes. (b) The frequency of the wave changes. (c) The maximum
transverse speed of an element of the medium changes. (d) All of these are true. (e)
None of these is true.
128
753. The speed of transverse waves along a stretched wire is 50ms-1. What is the speed
when the tension in the wire is doubled?
754. A horizontal stretched string is subject to a tension 2.5N. Transverse waves of
frequency 50Hz and wavelength 2.0m are propagated down the string. Calculate
d) The speed of the waves
e) The mass per unit length of the string
755. A progressive wave has amplitude 0.4m and wavelength 2.0m. at given time the
displacement y=0 and x=0, calculate
a) The displacement at x=0.5m and 1.4m
b) The phase angle at x=0.5m and 0.8m

c) The phase difference between any two points which are 0.3m apart on the wave.
756. A wave on a stretched string has amplitude 5.0cm and wavelength 30.0cm. at a
given time the displacement y=0 at x=0. Calculate
 Wave displacement at x=10cm and x=50cm.
 The phase angle at x=10cm and x=50cm
757. A progressive wave has wavelength 20cm. calculate the minimum distance between
two points which differ by 60°.
758. In a double slit interference experiment, the distance between the two slits is 0.05m
and the screen is 2 m from the slits. Yellow light from a sodium lamp is used and it
has a wavelength of 5.89 × 10-7 m. Show that the distance between the first and
second fringes on the screen is 0.00233 m.
759. With two slits are spaced 0.2 mm apart, and a screen at a distance of D = 1 m, the
third bright fringe is found to be displaced h = 7.5mm from the central fringe. Show
that the wavelength, l, of the light used is 5 × 10–7 m.
760. Figure below shows the variation with time t of the displacement x of the cones of two
identical loudspeakers A and B placed in air. Analyze the figure and answer the questions
that follow.

a) What is the period of vibration of the loudspeaker cones?

b) Calculate the frequency of vibration of the loudspeaker cones
c) Provide at least three elements of comparison between the vibrations of cones A and B
129
 d) State the type of the wave produced in the air in front of each loudspeaker.
e) Suggest with a reason, which loudspeaker is likely to be producing the loudest sound.
761. A piano wire with mass 3.00 g and length 80.0 cm is stretched with a tension of 25.0 N. A
wave with frequency 120.0 Hz and amplitude 1.6 mm travels along the wire.
f) Calculate the average power carried by the wave.
g) What happens to the average power if the wave amplitude is halved?
762. A horizontal wire is stretched with a tension of 94.0 N, and the speed of transverse waves
for the wire is 492 ms. What must the amplitude of a traveling wave of frequency 69.0 Hz
be in order for the average power carried by the wave to be 0.365

763. With what tension must a rope with length 2.50 m and mass 0.120 kg be stretched for
transverse waves of frequency 40.0 Hz to have a wavelength of 0.750 m?
764. Which of the following will cause the fringes in a two-slit interference pattern to
move farther apart?
a) Decreasing the wavelength of the light
b) Decreasing the screen distance L
c) Decreasing the slit spacing d
d) Immersing the entire apparatus in water.
765. A viewing screen is separated from a double-slit source by 1.2 m. The distance
between the two slits is 0.030 mm. The second-order bright fringe (m=2) is 4.5 cm
from the center line.
a) Determine the wavelength of the light
b) Calculate the distance between adjacent bright fringes.
766. A light source emits visible light of two wavelengths: λ=430 nm and 510 nm.
The source is used in a double-slit interference experiment in which L=1.50 m and
d=0.025 0 mm. Find the separation distance between the third-order bright fringes.
767. At dark areas in an interference pattern, the light waves have canceled. Thus, there is
zero intensity at these regions and, therefore, no energy is arriving.
768. Consequently, when light waves interfere and form an interference pattern, (a) energy
conservation is violated because energy disappears in the dark areas (b) energy
transferred by the light is transformed to another type of energy in the dark areas (c)
the total energy leaving the slits is distributed among light and dark areas and energy
is conserved.
769. What is the necessary condition on the path length difference between two waves
that interfere a) constructively and (b) destructively?
770. Explain why two flashlights held close together do not produce an interference
pattern on a distant screen
771. In Young’s double-slit experiment, why do we use monochromatic light? If white
light is used, how would the pattern change?
772. Why is it so much easier to perform interference experiments with a laser than
with an ordinary light source?
773. A laser beam (λ=632.8 nm) is incident on two slits 0.200 mm apart. How far apart are
the bright interference fringes on a screen 5.00 m away from the double slits?
774. A Young’s interference experiment is performed with monochromatic light. The
separation between the slits is 0.500 mm, and the interference pattern on a screen
3.30 m away shows the first side maximum 3.40 mm from the center of the pattern.
What is the wavelength?
775. Young’s double-slit experiment is performed with 589-nm light and a distance of 2.00 m

130
 between the slits and the screen. The tenth interference minimum is observed 7.26 mm
from the central maximum. Determine the spacing of the slits.
776. Two narrow, parallel slits separated by 0.250 mm are illuminated by green light
(λ=546.1 nm). The interference pattern is observed on a screen 1.20 m away from
the plane of the slits. Calculate the distance
i. From the central maximum to the first bright region on either side
of the central maximum and
ii. Between the first and second dark bands.
777. Light with wavelength 442 nm passes through a double-slit system that has a slit
separation d = 0.400 mm. Determine how far away a screen must be placed in order
that a dark fringe appear directly opposite both slits, with just one bright fringe
between them.
778. The intensity on the screen at a certain point in a double slit interference pattern is
64.0% of the maximum value. (a) What minimum phase difference (in radians) between
sources produces this result? (b) Express this phase difference as a path difference for
486.1-nm light
779. Two slits are separated by 0.180 mm. An interference pattern is formed on a screen 80.0
cm away by 656.3-nm light. Calculate the fraction of the maximum intensity 0.600 cm
above the central maximum.
780. Two narrow parallel slits separated by 0.850 mm are illuminated by 600-nm light,
and the viewing screen is 2.80 m away from the slits. (a) What is the phase difference
between the two interfering waves on a screen at a point 2.50 mm from the central
bright fringe? (b) What is the ratio of the intensity at this point to the intensity at the
center of a bright fringe?
781. Monochromatic light from a helium–neon laser (λ=632.8 nm) is incident normally on
a diffraction grating containing 6 000 grooves per centimeter. Find the angles at
which the first- and second-order maxima are observed.
782. Why can you hear around corners, but not see around corners?
783. Knowing that radio waves travel at the speed of light and that a typical AM radio
frequency is 1 000 kHz while an FM radio frequency might be 100 MHz, estimate the
wavelengths of typical AM and FM radio signals. Use this information to explain why
AM radio stations can fade out when you drive your car through a short tunnel or
underpass, when FM radio stations do not.
784. Light of wavelength 587.5 nm illuminates a single slit 0.750 mm in width. (a) At
what distance from the slit should a screen be located if the first minimum in the
diffraction pattern is to be 0.850 mm from the center of the principal maximum?
What is the width of the central maximum?
785. White light is spread out into its spectral components by a diffraction grating. If the
grating has 2 000 grooves per centimeter, at what angle does red light of wavelength
640 nm appear in first order?
786. Red light falls normally on a diffraction grating ruled 4000lines/cm, and the second-
order image is diffracted 34.0° from the normal. Compute the wavelength of the light.
787. A string fastened at both ends resonates at 420 Hz and 490 Hz with no resonance
frequencies in between. Find its fundamental resonance frequency.

131
788. A string vibrates in five segments to a frequency of 460 Hz.
c) What is its fundamental frequency?
d) What frequency will cause it to vibrate in three segments?

132
 UNIT 14: ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND
GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL
789. An electron moves from point i to point f, in the direction of a uniform electric
field. During this displacement:

f) the work done by the field is positive and the potential energy of the electron-field
system increases
g) the work done by the field is negative and the potential energy of the electron-field
system increases
h) the work done by the field is positive and the potential energy of the electron-field
system decreases
i) the work done by the field is negative and the potential energy of the electron-field
system decreases
j) the work done by the field is positive and the potential energy of the electron-field
system does not change

790. A particle with a charge of 5.5×10-8 C is 3.5 cm from a particle with a charge of
-2.3×10-8 C. The potential energy of this two-particle system, relative to the
potential energy at infinite separation, is:
a. 3.2 × 10-4 J
b. -3.2 × 10-4 J
c. 9.3 × 10-3 J
d. -9.3 × 10-3 J
e. zero
791. A particle with a charge of 5.5 × 10-8 C is fixed at the origin. A particle with a charge of -2.3
× 10-8 C is moved from x = 3.5 cm on the x axis to y = 4.3 cm on the y axis. The change in
potential energy of the two-particle system is:
a. 3.1 × 10-3 J
b. -3.1 × 10-3 J
c. 6.0 × 10-5 J
d. -6.0 × 10-5 J
e. 0
792. A particle with a charge of 5.5 × 10-8 C charge is fixed at the origin. A particle
with a charge of -2.3 × 10-8 C charge is moved from x = 3.5 cm on the x axis to
y = 3.5 cm on the y axis. The change in the potential energy of the two-particle
system is:
1. 3.2 × 10-4 J
2. -3.2 × 10-4 J
3. 9.3 × 10-3 J
133
 4. -9.3 × 10-3 J
5. 0
793. Three particles lie on the x axis: particle 1, with a charge of 1×10 -8 C is at x = 1
cm, particle 2, with a charge of 2 × 10-8 C, is at x = 2 cm, and particle 3, with a
charge of -3 × 10-8 C, is at x = 3 cm. The potential energy of this arrangement,
relative to the potential energy for infinite separation, is:
1. +4.9 × 10-4 J
2. -4.9 × 10-4 J
3. +8.5 × 10-4 J
4. -8.5 × 10-4 J
5. zero
794. Two identical particles, each with charge q, are placed on the x axis, one at the
origin and the other at x = 5 cm. A third particle, with charge -q, is placed on
the x axis so the potential energy of the three-particle system is the same as
the potential energy at infinite separation. Its x coordinate is:
a) 13 cm
b) 2.5 cm
c) 7.5 cm
d) 10 cm
e) -5 cm
795. Choose the correct statement:
a) A proton tends to go from a region of low potential to a region of high potential
b) The potential of a negatively charged conductor must be negative
c) If En = 0 at a point P then V must be zero at P
d) If V = 0 at a point P then En must be zero at P
e) None of the above are correct

796. If 500 J of work are required to carry a charged particle between two points with a
potential difference of 20 V, the magnitude of the charge on the particle is:
a) 0.040 C
b) 12.5 C
c) 20 C
d) cannot be computed unless the path is given
e) none of these
797. The potential difference between two points is 100 V. If a particle with a charge of
2 C is transported from one of these points to the other, the magnitude of the
work done is:
a) 200 J
b) 100 J
c) 50 J
d) 100 J
e) 2 J
798. During a lightning discharge, 30 C of charge move through a potential difference
of 1.0 × 108 V in 2.0 × 10-2 s. The energy released by this lightning bolt is:
1. 1.5 × 1011 J

134
 2. 3.0 × 109 J
3. 6.0 × 107 J
4. 3.3 × 106 J
5. 1500 J
799. A particle with mass m and charge -q is projected with speed v0 into the
region between two parallel plates as shown. The potential difference
between the two plates is V and their separation is d. The change in kinetic
energy of the particle as it traverses this region is:

a) -qV/d
b) 02qV/mv
2

c) qV
d) mv02/2
e) none of these

800. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V . Its final speed
is proportional to:
a. V
b. V2
c. √V
d. 1/V
e. 1/√V
801. Two large parallel conducting plates are separated by a distance d, placed in a
vacuum, and connected to a source of potential difference V . An oxygen ion,
with charge 2e, starts from rest on the surface of one plate and accelerates to
the other. If e denotes the magnitude of the electron charge, the final kinetic
energy of this ion is:
a) eV/2
b) eV/d
c) eV d
d) V d/e
e) 2eV
802. An electron volt is:
a) the force acting on an electron in a field of 1 N/C
b) the force required to move an electron 1 meter
c) the energy gained by an electron in moving through a potential difference of 1 volt
d) the energy needed to move an electron through 1 meter in any electric field
e) the work done when 1 coulomb of charge is moved through a potential difference of 1
135
 volt.
803. An electron has charge -e and mass me. A proton has charge e and mass
1840me. A “proton volt” is equal to:
a) 1 eV
b) 1840 eV
c) (1/1840) eV
d) √1840 eV
e) (1/√1840) eV
804. The potential difference between the ends of a 2-meter stick that is parallel to a
uniform electric field is 400 V. The magnitude of the electric field is:
a) zero
b) 100 V/m
c) 200 V/m
d) 400 V/m
e) 800 V/m
805. In a certain region of space the electric potential increases uniformly from east
to west and does not vary in any other direction. The electric field:
a) points east and varies with position
b) points east and does not vary with position
c) points west and varies with position
d) points west and does not vary with position
e) points north and does not vary with position
806. The work required to carry a particle with a charge of 6.0 C from a 5.0-V
equipotential surface to a 6.0-V equipotential surface and back again to the 5.0-
V surface is:
1. 0
2. 1.2 × 10-5 J
3. 3.0 × 10-5 J
4. 6.0 × 10-5 J
5. 6.0 × 10-6 J
807. The equipotential surfaces associated with a charged point particles are:
a) Radially outward from the particle
b) vertical planes
c) horizontal planes
d) concentric spheres centered at the particle
e) concentric cylinders with the particle on the axis.
808. A particle with charge q is to be brought from far away to a point near an
electric dipole. No work is done if the final position of the particle is on:
a) the line through the charges of the dipole
b) a line that is perpendicular to the dipole moment
c) a line that makes an angle of 45° with the dipole moment
d) a line that makes an angle of 30° with the dipole moment
e) none of the above
809. A proton is released from rest in a uniform electric field that has a magnitude of 8.0 x104

136
 V/m. The proton undergoes a displacement of 0.50 m in the direction of E.

a) Find the change in electric potential between points A and B

b) Find the change in potential energy of the proton–field system for this displacement
810. Find the speed of the proton after completing the 0.50 m displacement in the
electric field.
811. A charge q 1=2.00 +C is located at the origin, and a charge q 2=6.00 +C is located at (0,
3.00) m, as shown in Figure.

a) Find the total electric potential due to these charges at the point P, whose
coordinates are (4.00, 0) m.
b) Find the change in potential energy of the system of two charges plus a charge
a. q3= 3.00 +C as the latter charge moves from infinity to point P (Fig. b).
812. In a certain region of space, the electric field is zero. From this we can conclude that
the electric potential in this region is (a) zero (b) constant (c) positive (d) negative.
813. Distinguish between electric potential and electric potential energy.
814. A negative charge moves in the direction of a uniform electric field. Does the
potential energy of the charge–field system increase or decrease? Does the charge
move to a position of higher or lower potential?
815. Give a physical explanation of the fact that the potential energy of a pair of charges
with the same sign is positive whereas the potential energy of a pair of charges with
opposite signs is negative.
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816. Explain why equipotential surfaces are always perpendicular to electric field lines.
817. Explain the origin of the glow sometimes observed around the cables of a high-
voltage power line.
818. An ion accelerated through a potential difference of 115 V experiences an increase in
kinetic energy of 7.37 x10-17 J. Calculate the charge on the ion.
819.

Calculate the speed of a proton that is accelerated from rest through a potential
a)

difference of 120 V.
b) Calculate the speed of an electron that is accelerated through the same
potential difference.
820. What potential difference is needed to stop an electron having an initial speed of 4.20 x
105 m/s?
821. A uniform electric field of magnitude 250 V/m is directed in the positive x direction. A
+12.0-C charge moves from the origin to the point (x, y) = (20.0 cm, 50.0 cm).
a) What is the change in the potential energy of the charge–field system?
b) Through what potential difference does the charge move?
822. The difference in potential between the accelerating plates in the electron gun of a TV
picture tube is about 25 000 V. If the distance between these plates is 1.50 cm, what is the
magnitude of the uniform electric field in this region?
823. An electron moving parallel to the x axis has an initial speed of 3.70x106 m/s at the
origin. Its speed is reduced to 1.40x105 m/s at the point x =2.00 cm. Calculate the
potential difference between the origin and that point. Which point is at the higher
potential?
824. Suppose an electron is released from rest in a uniform electric field whose
magnitude is 5.90x103 V/m.
a) Through what potential difference will it have passed after moving 1.00 cm?
b) How fast will the electron be moving after it has traveled 1.00 cm?

825.
a) Find the potential at a distance of 1.00 cm from a proton.
b) What is the potential difference between two points that are 1.00 cm and 2.00 cm
from a proton?
826. At a certain distance from a point charge, the magnitude of the electric field is 500
V/m and the electric potential is -3.00 kV.
a) What is the distance to the charge?
b) What is the magnitude of the charge

827. Four particles of masses m, 2 m, 3 m and 4 m are kept in sequence at the corners of
a square of side a. Find the magnitude of gravitational force acting on a particle of
mass m placed at the centre of the square.

138
828. Three identical point masses, each of mass 1 kg lies in the x – y plane at points (0, 0),
(0, 0.2 m) and (0.2 m, 0). Find the net gravitational force on the mass at the origin.

829. Two positive charges sit in an (x, y)-coordinate system. The first one has charge 1 = 0.40
µC and sits at (–0.30 m, 0). The second one has charge q2 = 0.30 µC and sits at (0, +0.30
m). Find the electric potential at the origin.

830. Acharge of +2.82 µC sits in a uniform electric field of 12.0 N/C directed at an
angle of 60° above the +x axis. The charge moves from the origin (point A) to the

point (1.40 m, 0) (point B) on the x-axis

a) Find the force exerted on the charge by the electric field
b) Find the work done on the charge by the electric field as the charge moves from A to B.
c) Find the change in the charge’s electric potential energy as it moves from A and B.
d) Find the electric potential difference between points A and B
831. Calculate the electric potential at C (figure below)

139
832.
a) Describe briefly the functions of the main parts of a cathode ray oscilloscope.
b) An electron of energy 10 KeV enters midway between two horizontal metal plates
each of length 5.0 cm and separated by a distance of 2 cm. A potential difference
of 200 V is applied across the plates. A fluorescent screen is placed beyond the
plates. Calculate the vertical deflection of the electron on the screen.

UNIT 15: RELATIVITY

833. A basic postulate of Einstein’s theory of relativity is:
a. Moving clocks run more slowly than when they are at rest
b. Moving rods are shorter than when they are at rest
c. Light has both wave and particle properties
d. The laws of physics must be the same for observers moving with uniform
velocity relative to each other
e. Everything is relative
834. A consequence of Einstein’s theory of relativity is:
a) moving clocks run more slowly than when they are at rest
b) moving rods are longer than when they are at rest
c) light has both wave and particle properties
d) the laws of physics must appear the same to all observers moving with uniform
velocity relative to each other
e) everything is relative
835. A consequence of Einstein’s theory of relativity is:
a) moving clocks run faster than when they are at rest
b) moving rods are shorter than when they are at rest
c) light has both wave and particle properties
d) the laws of physics must appear the same to all observers moving with uniform
velocity relative to each other
e) everything is relative
836. According to the theory of relativity:
a) moving clocks run fast
b) energy is not conserved in high speed collisions
c) the speed of light must be measured relative to the ether
d) momentum is not conserved in high speed collisions
e) none of the above are true
837. Two events occur simultaneously at separated points on the y axis of reference
frame S. According to an observer moving in the positive x direction:
a) the event with the greater y coordinate occurs first
b) the event with the greater y coordinate occurs last
c) either event might occur first, depending on the observer’s speed
d) the events are simultaneous
140
 e) none of the above
838. The proper time between two events is measured by clocks at rest in a reference
frame in which the two events:
a) occur at the same time
b) occur at the same coordinates
c) are separated by the distance a light signal can travel during the time interval
d) occur in Boston
e) satisfy none of the above
839. The spaceship U.S.S. Enterprise, traveling through the galaxy, sends out a smaller
explorer craft that travels to a nearby planet and signals its findings back. The
proper time for the trip to the planet is measured by clocks:
a) on board the Enterprise
b) on board the explorer craft
c) on Earth
d) at the center of the galaxy
e) none of the above
840. Spaceship A, traveling past us at 0.7c, sends a message capsule to spaceship B,
which is in front of A and is traveling in the same direction as A at 0.8c relative to
us. The capsule travels at 0.95c relative to us. A clock that measures the proper time
between the sending and receiving of the capsule travels:
a) in the same direction as the spaceships at 0.7c relative to us
b) in the opposite direction from the spaceships at 0.7c relative to us
c) in the same direction as the spaceships at 0.8c relative to us
d) in the same direction as the spaceships at 0.95c relative to us
e) in the opposite direction from the spaceships at 0.95c relative to us
841. Two events occur on the x axis separated in time by ∆t and in space by ∆x. A
reference frame, traveling at less than the speed of light, in which the two events
occur at the same time:
a) exists no matter what the values of ∆x and ∆t
b) exists only if ∆x/∆t < c
c) exists only if ∆x/∆t > c
d) exists only if ∆x/∆t = c
e) does not exist under any condition
842. Two events occur 100 m apart with an intervening time interval of 0.60 µs. The speed of a
reference frame in which they occur at the same coordinate is:
1. 0
2. 0.25c
3. 0.56c
4. 1.1c
5. 1.8c
843. Two events occur 100 m apart with an intervening time interval of 0.37 µs. The
speed of a clock that measures the proper time between the events is:
1. 0
2. 0.45c

141
 3. 0.56c
4. 0.90c
5. 1.8c
844. A rocket traveling with constant velocity makes a 8.4 × 1015 m trip in exactly one
year. The proper time in years between events that mark the beginning and end of
the trip is:
1. 0.21
2. 0.46
3. 1.0
4. 2.2
5. 4.7
845. An observer notices that a moving clock runs slow by a factor of exactly 10. The
speed of the clock is:
1. 0.100c
2. 0.0100c
3. 0.990c
4. 0.900c
5. 0.995c
846. A meson when at rest decays 2 µs after it is created. If moving in the laboratory at
0.99c, its lifetime according to laboratory clocks would be:
1. the same
2. 0.28 s
3. 14 µs
4. 4.6 s
5. none of these
847. A measurement of the length of an object that is moving relative to the laboratory
consists of noting the coordinates of the front and back:
a) at different times according to clocks at rest in the laboratory
b) at the same time according to clocks that move with the object
c) at the same time according to clocks at rest in the laboratory
d) at the same time according to clocks at rest with respect to the fixed stars
e) none of the above
848. A meter stick moves in the direction of its length through a laboratory. According to
measurements taken in the laboratory, its length is 0.31 m The speed of the meter
stick relative to the laboratory is:
1. 0.096c
2. 0.31c
3. 0.69c
4. 0.83c
5. 0.95c
849. A meter stick moves sideways at 0.95c. According to measurements taken in the
laboratory, its length is:
1. 0
2. 0.098 m

142
 3. 0.31 m
4. 3.2 m
5. 1.0 m
850. A rocket ship of rest length 100 m is moving at speed 0.8c past a timing device that
records the time interval between the passage of the front and back ends of the ship.
This time interval is:
a) 0.20 µs
b) 0.25 µs
c) 0.33 µs
d) 0.52 µs
e) 0.69 µs
851. A certain automobile is 6 m long if at rest. If it is measured to be 4/5 as long, its
speed is:
a) 0.1c
b) 0.3c
c) 0.6c
d) 0.8c
e) > 0.95c
852. As a rocket ship moves by at 0.95c a mark is made on a stationary axis at the front
end of the rocket and 9 × 10-8 s later a mark is made on the axis at the back end. The
marks are found to be 100 m apart. The rest length of the rocket is:
a) 31 m
b) 78 m
c) 100 m
d) 240 m
e) 320 m
853. Light from a stationary spaceship is observed, and then the spaceship moves
directly away from the observer at high speed while still emitting the light. As a
result, the light seen by the observer has:
a) a higher frequency and a longer wavelength than before
b) a lower frequency and a shorter wavelength than before
c) a higher frequency and a shorter wavelength than before
d) a lower frequency and a longer wavelength than before
e) the same frequency and wavelength as before
854. If the kinetic energy of a free particle is much less than its rest energy then its
kinetic energy is proportional to:
a) the magnitude of its momentum
b) the square of the magnitude of its momentum
c) the square root of the magnitude of its momentum
d) the reciprocal of the magnitude of its momentum
e) none of the above
855. If you were on a spaceship travelling at 0.50c away from a star, when would the
starlight pass you?
856. Does time dilation mean that time actually passes more slowly in moving

143
 references frames or that it only seems to pass more slowly?
857. Ifyou were travelling away from the Earth at 0.50c, would you notice a change in
your heartbeat? Would your mass, height, or waistline change? What would
observers on the earth use a telescope to see you say about you?
858. A spaceship travels at 0.99c for 3 years ship time. How much time
would pass on the earth?
859. A spaceship is travelling at a speed of 0.94c. It has gone from the earth for a total of
10 years as measured by the people of the earth. How much time will pass on the
spaceship during its travel?

860. A spaceship has gone from the earth for a total time of 5 years ship time. The
people on the earth have measured the time for the ship to be away to 25 years.
How fast was the ship travelling?
861. A 520 m long (measured when the spaceship is stationary) spaceship passes by the
earth. What length would the people on the earth say the spaceship was as it passed
the earth at 0.87c?
862. A 25 m long beam is shot past a stationary space station at 0.99c. What length
does the people on board the space station measure the beam to be?
863. A 100 m long steel beam is moving past the earth. Observers on the earth actually
measure the steel beam to be only 50 m long. How fast was the beam travelling?
864. An astronaut takes a trip to Sirius, which is located a distance of 8 light-years from
the Earth. The astronaut measures the time of the one-way journey to be 6 years. If
the spaceship moves at a constant speed of 0.8c, how can the 8-ly distance be
reconciled with the 6-year trip time measured by the astronaut?
865. Two spacecraft A and B are moving in opposite directions as shown in Figure
below. An observer on the Earth measures the speed of spacecraft A to be 0.750c
and the speed of spacecraft B to be 0.850c. Find the velocity of spacecraft B as
observed by the on spacecraft A

866. Anelectron, which has a mass of 9.11×1031 kg, moves with a speed of 0.750c. Find
the magnitude of its relativistic momentum and compare this value with the
momentum calculated from the classical expression.
a) Find the rest energy of a proton in units of electron volts.
144
 b) If the total energy of a proton is three times its rest energy, what is the speed of
the proton?
c) Determine the kinetic energy of the proton in units of electron volts.
d) What is the proton’s momentum?
867. A passenger on a fictional high-speed spaceship traveling between Earth and
Jupiter at a steady speed of 0.75c reads a magazine which takes 10.0 min
according to her watch.
a) How long does this take as measured by Earth-based clocks?
b) How much farther is the spaceship from Earth at the end of reading the
article than it was at the beginning?
868. A very fast train with a “proper length” of =500m (measured by people at rest on the
train) is passing through a tunnel that is 200 m long according to observers on the
ground. Let us imagine the train’s speed to be so great that the train fits completely
within the tunnel as seen by observers on the ground. That is, the engine is just
about to emerge from one end of the tunnel at the time the last car disappears into
the other end. What is the train’s speed?

UNIT 16: SOUND WAVES

869. The speed of a sound wave is determined by:
a) its amplitude
b) its intensity
c) its pitch
d) number of harmonics present
e) the transmitting medium
870. Take the speed of sound to be 340 m/s. A thunder clap is heard about 3 s after the
lightning is seen. The source of both light and sound is:
a) moving overhead faster than the speed of sound
b) emitting a much higher frequency than is heard
c) emitting a much lower frequency than is heard
d) about 1000 m away
e) much more than 1000 m away
871. A sound wave has a wavelength of 3.0 m. The distance from a compression center to
the adjacent rarefaction center is:
a) 0.75 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 3.0 m
d) need to know wave speed
e) need to know frequency
872. A fire whistle emits a tone of 170 Hz. Take the speed of sound in air to be 340 m/s.
The wavelength of this sound is about:
a) 0.5 m
b) 1.0 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 3.0 m
145
 e) 340 m
873. Duringa time interval of exactly one period of vibration of a tuning fork, the
emitted sound travels a distance:
a) equal to the length of the tuning fork
b) equal to twice the length of the tuning fork
c) of about 330 m
d) which decreases with time
e) of one wavelength in air
874. At points in a sound wave where the gas is maximally compressed, the pressure
a) is a maximum
b) is a minimum
c) is equal to the ambient value
d) is greater than the ambient value but less than the maximum
e) is less than the ambient value but greater than the minimum
875. “Beats” in sound refer to:
a) interference of two waves of the same frequency
b) combination of two waves of slightly different frequency
c) reversal of phase of reflected wave relative to incident wave
d) two media having slightly different sound velocities
e) effect of relative motion of source and observer
876. To produce beats it is necessary to use two waves:
a) traveling in opposite directions
b) of slightly different frequencies
c) of equal wavelengths
d) of equal amplitudes
e) whose ratio of frequencies is an integer
877. The largest number of beats per second will be heard from which pair of tuning
forks?
a) 200 and 201 Hz
b) 256 and 260 Hz
c) 534 and 540 Hz
d) 763 and 774 Hz
e) 8420 and 8422 Hz
878. Two stationary tuning forks (350 and 352 Hz) are struck simultaneously. The
resulting sound is observed to:
a) beat with a frequency of 2 beats/s
b) beat with a frequency of 351 beats/s
c) be loud but not beat
d) be Doppler shifted by 2 Hz
e) have a frequency of 702 Hz
879. When listening to tuning forks of frequency 256 Hz and 260 Hz, one hears the
following number of beats per second:
a) zero
b) 2
146
 c) 4
d) 8
e) 258
880. Two identical tuning forks vibrate at 256 Hz. One of them is then loaded with a
drop of wax, after which 6 beats/s are heard. The period of the loaded tuning fork
is:
1. 0.006 s
2. 0.005 s
3. 0.004 s
4. 0.003 s
5. none of these
881. Which of the following properties of a sound wave determine its “pitch”?
a) Amplitude
b) Distance from source to detector
c) Frequency
d) Phase
e) Speed
882. Two notes are an “octave” apart. The ratio of their frequencies is:
a) 8
b) 10
c) √8
d) 2
e) √2
883. Consider two imaginary spherical surfaces with different radii, each centered on a
point sound source emitting spherical waves. The power transmitted across the
larger sphere is the power transmitted across the smaller and the intensity at a point
on the larger sphere is the intensity at a point on the smaller.
a) greater than, the same as
b) greater than, greater than
c) greater than, less than
d) the same as, less than
e) the same as, the same as
884. The sound intensity 5.0 m from a point source is 0.50 W/m2. The power output of the
source is:
a) 39 W
b) 160 W
c) 266 W
d) 320 W
e) 390 W
885. The standard reference sound level is about:
a) the threshold of human hearing at 1000 Hz
b) the threshold of pain for human hearing at 1000 Hz
c) the level of sound produced when the 1 kg standard mass is dropped 1 m onto a
concrete floor

147
 d) the level of normal conversation
e) the level of sound emitted by a standard 60 Hz tuning fork
886. The intensity of sound wave A is 100 times that of sound wave B. Relative to wave B
the sound level of wave A is:
1. -2 db
2. +2 db
3. +10 db
4. +20 db
5. +100 db
887. If the sound level is increased by 10 db the intensity increases by a factor of:
a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20
e) 100
888. The intensity of a certain sound wave is 6 µW/cm 2. If its intensity is raised by 10
db, the new intensity (in µW/cm2) is:
1. 60
2. 6.6
3. 6.06
4. 600
5. 12
889. The sound level at a point P is 14 db below the sound level at a point 1.0 m from a
point source. The distance from the source to point P is:
a) 4.0 cm
b) 20 2m
c) 2.0 m
d) 5.0 m
e) 25 m
890. To raise the pitch of a certain piano string, the piano tuner:
a) loosens the string
b) tightens the string
c) shortens the string
d) lengthens the string
e) removes some mass
891. A piano wire has length L and mass M. If its fundamental frequency is f, its tension is:
a) 2Lf/m
b) 4MLf
c) 2Mf 2/L
d) 4f 2L3/M
e) 4LMf 2
892. Two identical strings, A and B, have nearly the same tension. When they both
vibrate in their fundamental resonant modes, there is a beat frequency of 3 Hz.
When string B is tightened slightly, to increase the tension, the beat frequency
148
 becomes 6 Hz. This means:
a) that before tightening A had a higher frequency than B, but after tightening, B
has a higher frequency than A
b) that before tightening B had a higher frequency than A, but after tightening, A has a
higher frequency than B
c) that before and after tightening A has a higher frequency than B
d) that before and after tightening B has a higher frequency than A
e) none of the above

893. Two pipes are each open at one end and closed at the other. Pipe A has length L and
pipe B has length 2L. Which harmonic of pipe B matches in frequency the
fundamental of pipe A?
a) The fundamental
b) The second
c) The third
d) The fourth
e) There are none
894. A column of argon is open at one end and closed at the other. The shortest length
of such a column that will resonate with a 200 Hz tuning fork is 42.5 cm. The speed
of sound in argon must be:
a) 85.0 m/s
b) 170 m/s
c) 340 m/s
d) 470 m/s
e) 940 m/s
895. A tuning fork produces sound waves of wavelength λ in air. This sound is used to
cause resonance in an air column, closed at one end and open at the other. The
length of this column CANNOT be:
a) λ/4
b) 2λ/4
c) 3λ/4
d) 5λ/4
e) 7λ/4
896. A 1024 Hz tuning fork is used to obtain a series of resonance levels in a gas
column of variable length, with one end closed and the other open. The length of
the column changes by 20 cm from resonance to resonance. From this data, the
speed of sound in this gas is:
a) 20 cm/s
b) 51 cm/s
c) 102 cm/s
d) 205 m/s
e) 410 m/s

149
897. Avibrating tuning fork is held over a water column with one end closed and the
other open. As the water level is allowed to fall, a loud sound is heard for water
levels separated by 17 cm. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the frequency of
the tuning fork is:
a) 500 Hz
b) 1000 Hz
c) 2000 Hz
d) 5780 Hz
e) 578, 000 Hz
898. An organ pipe with one end closed and the other open has length L. Its
fundamental frequency is proportional to:
a) L
b) 1/L
c) 1/L2
d) L2
e) √L
899. Five organ pipes are described below. Which one has the highest frequency fundamental?
a) A 2.3-m pipe with one end open and the other closed
b) A 3.3-m pipe with one end open and the other closed
c) A 1.6-m pipe with both ends open
d) A 3.0-m pipe with both ends open
e) A pipe in which the displacement nodes are 5 m apart
900. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the length of the shortest closed pipe that
resonates at 218 Hz is:
a) 23 cm
b) 17 cm
c) 39 cm
d) 78 cm
e) 1.56 cm
901. The lowest tone produced by a certain organ comes from a 3.0-m pipe with both
ends open. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the frequency of this tone is
approximately:
a) 7 Hz
b) 14 Hz
c) 28 Hz
d) 57 Hz
e) 70 Hz
902. The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. The length of the shortest pipe, closed at one
end, that will respond to a 512 Hz tuning fork is approximately:
a) 4.2 cm
b) 9.4 cm
c) 17 cm
d) 33 cm
e) 66 cm
150
903. If
the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the two lowest frequencies of an 0.5-m organ
pipe, closed at one end, are approximately:
a) 170 and 340 Hz
b) 170 and 510 Hz
c) 340 and 680 Hz
d) 340 and 1020 Hz
e) 57 and 170 Hz
904. A 200-cm organ pipe with one end open is in resonance with a sound wave of wavelength
270 cm. The pipe is operating in its:
a) fundamental frequency
b) second harmonic
c) third harmonic
d) fourth harmonic
e) fifth harmonic
905. An organ pipe with both ends open is 0.85 m long. Assuming that the speed of
sound is 340 m/s the frequency of the third harmonic of this pipe is:
a) 200 Hz
b) 300 Hz
c) 400 Hz
d) 600 Hz
906. Two small identical speakers are connected (in phase) to the same source. The
speakers are 3 m apart and at ear level. An observer stands at X, 4 m in front of one
speaker as shown. If the amplitudes are not changed, the sound he hears will be
most intense if the wavelength is:

a) 1m
b) 2m
c) 3m
d) 4m
e) 5m

151
907. The rise in pitch of an approaching siren is an apparent increase in its:
a. speed
b. amplitude
c. frequency
d. wavelength
e. number of harmonics
908. A stationary source generates 5.0 Hz water waves whose speed is 2.0 m/s. A boat is
approaching the source at 10 m/s. The frequency of these waves, as observed by a
person in the boat, is:
a) 5.0 Hz
b) 15 Hz
c) 20 Hz
d) 25 Hz
e) 30 Hz
909. A stationary source S generates circular outgoing waves on a lake. The wave speed is
5.0 m/s and the crest-to-crest distance is 2.0 m. A person in a motor boat heads
directly toward S at 3.0 m/s. To this person, the frequency of these waves is:
a) 1.0 Hz
b) 1.5 Hz
c) 2.0 Hz
d) 4.0 Hz
e) 8.0 Hz
910. A stationary source emits a sound wave of frequency f. If it were possible for a man
to travel toward the source at the speed of sound, he would observe the emitted
sound to have a frequency of:
a) zero
b) f/2
c) 2f/3
d) 2f
e) infinity
911. A source emits sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz. It and an observer are moving in
the same direction with the same speed, 100 m/s. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s,
the observer hears sound with a frequency of:
a) 294 Hz
b) 545 Hz
c) 1000 Hz
d) 1830 Hz
e) 3400 Hz

152
912. A source emits sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz. It and an observer are moving
toward each other, each with a speed of 100 m/s. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s,
the observer hears sound with a frequency of:
a) 294 Hz
b) 545 Hz
c) 1000 Hz
d) 1830 Hz
e) 3400 Hz
913. A source emits sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz. It is moving at 20 m/s toward a
stationary reflecting wall. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s an observer at rest directly
behind the source hears a beat frequency of:

a) 11 Hz
b) 86 Hz
c) 97 Hz
d) 118 Hz
e) 183 Hz
914. In each of the following two situations a source emits sound with a frequency of 1000
Hz. In situation I the source is moving at 100 m/s toward an observer at rest. In
situation II the observer is moving at 100 m/s toward the source, which is stationary.
The speed of sound is 340 m/s. The frequencies heard by the observers in the two
situations are:
1. I: 1417 Hz; II: 1294 Hz
2. I: 1417 Hz; II: 1417 Hz
3. I: 1294 Hz; II: 1294 Hz
4. I: 773 Hz; II: 706 Hz
5. I: 773 Hz; II: 773 Hz
915. A plane produces a sonic boom only when:
a) it emits sound waves of very long wavelength
b) it emits sound waves of high frequency
c) it flies at high altitudes
d) it flies on a curved path
e) it flies faster than the speed of sound
916. Middle C on a piano has a fundamental frequency of 262 Hz, and the first A above middle
C has a fundamental frequency of 440 Hz.
a) Calculate the frequencies of the next two harmonics of the C string.
b) If the A and C strings have the same linear mass density and length L,
determine the ratio of tensions in the two strings.
c) With respect to a real piano, the assumption we made in (b) is only partially
true. The string densities are equal, but the length of the A string is only 64 % of
the length of the C string. What is the ratio of their tensions?

153
917. Two loudspeakers are separated by 2.5 m. A person stands at 3.0 m from one and at
3.5 m from the other one. Assume a sound velocity of 343 m/s.
a) What is the minimum frequency to present destructive interference at this
point?
b) Calculate the other two frequencies that also produce destructive interference.
918. A guitar string has a total length of 90 cm and a mass of 3.6 g. From the bridge to the
nut there is a distance of 60 cm and the string has a tension of 520 N. Calculate the
fundamental frequency and the first two overtones
919. A point source emits sound waves with an average power output of 80.0 W.
a) Find the intensity 3.00 m from the source.
b) Find the distance at which the sound level is 40 dB.
920. A boy whistles a sound with the power of 0.5×10-4W. What will be his sound
intensity at a distance of 5m?
921. Calculate the intensity level equivalent to an intensity 1nW/m 2

922. A police car sound a siren of 1000 Hz as it approaches a stationary observer at a

speed of 33.5 m/s.
a) What is the apparent frequency of the siren as heard by the observer if the
speed of sound in air is 340 m/s
b) Give one application of the Doppler Effect
923.
a) What length should a tube closed at one end have on a day when the air
temperature is 22.0°C if its fundamental frequency is to be 128 Hz?
b) What is the frequency of its fourth overtone?
924. What is the beat frequency produced when a tuning fork of a frequency of
256 Hz and a tuning fork of a frequency of 512 Hz are struck
simultaneously?
925. When sound passes from one medium to another where its propagation
speed is different, does its frequency or wavelength change? Explain your
answer briefly.
926. What is the difference between an overtone and a harmonic? Are all
harmonics overtones? Are all overtones harmonics?
927. Two identical columns, open at both ends, are in separate rooms. In room A,
the temperature is T = 20°C and in room B, the temperature is T = 25°C. A
speaker is attached to the end of each tube, causing the tubes to resonate at
the fundamental frequency. Is the frequency the same for both tubes? Which
has the higher frequency?
928. Consider three pipes of the same length (L). Pipe A is open at both ends, pipe
B is closed at both ends, and pipe C has one open end and one closed end. If
the velocity of sound is the same in each of the three tubes, in which of the
tubes could the lowest fundamental frequency be produced? In which of the
tubes could the highest fundamental frequency be produced?
929. Pipe A has a length L and is open at both ends. Pipe B has a length L/2 and
has one open end and one closed end. Assume the speed of sound to be the
154
 same in both tubes. Which of the harmonics in each tube would be equal?
930. Consider a diagnostic ultrasound of frequency 5.00 MHz that is used to
examine an irregularity in soft tissue. (a) What is the wavelength in air of such
a sound wave if the speed of sound is 343 m/s? (b) If the speed of sound in
tissue is 1800 m/s, what is the wavelength of this wave in tissue?
931. Considerthe graph shown below of a compression wave. Shown are
snapshots of the wave function for t = 0.000 s (blue) and t = 0.005 s (orange).
What are the wavelength, maximum displacement, velocity, and period of the
compression wave?
932. A250-Hz tuning fork is struck and begins to vibrate. A sound-level meter is
located 34.00 m away. It takes the sound Δt = 0.10 s to reach the meter. The
maximum displacement of the tuning fork is 1.00 mm. Write a wave function
for the sound.
933. Thedensity of a sample of water is ρ = 998.00 kg/m3 and the bulk modulus is
β =2.15 GPa. What is the speed of sound through the sample?
934. What is the intensity in watts per meter squared of an 85.0-dB sound?
935. Asound wave traveling in air has pressure amplitude of 0.5 Pa. What is the
intensity of the wave?
936. What sound intensity level in dB is produced by earphones that create an intensity of
4.00 × 10-2 W/m2?
937. People
with good hearing can perceive sounds as low as -8.00 dB at a frequency of
3000 Hz. What is the intensity of this sound in watts per meter squared?
938. If
a sound intensity level of 0 dB at 1000 Hz corresponds to a maximum gauge
pressure (sound amplitude) of 10-9 atm, what is the maximum gauge pressure in a 60-
dB sound? What is the maximum gauge pressure in a 120-dB sound?
939. TheA string on a violin has a fundamental frequency of 440 Hz. The length of the
vibrating portion is 32 cm, and it has mass 0.35 g. Under what tension the string
must be placed?
940. In
audio and communications systems, the gain, in decibels is defined for an
amplifier as where is the power input to the system and is the power output.
a) A particular amplifier puts out 135 W of power for an input of 1.0 mW. What is its
gain in dB?
b) If a signal-to-noise ratio of 93 dB is specified, what is the noise power if the output
signal is 10 W?
941. The speed of sound in air is a function of (a) wavelength (b) frequency (c)
temperature (d) amplitude
942. A vibrating guitar string makes very little sound if it is not mounted on the guitar. But if
this vibrating string is attached to the guitar body, so that the body of the guitar vibrates,
the sound is higher in intensity. This is because (a) the power of the vibration is spread
out over a larger area (b) the energy leaves the guitar at a higher rate (c) the speed of
sound is higher in the material of the guitar body (d) none of these

155
943. A violin plays a melody line and is then joined by a second violin, playing at the
same intensity as the first violin, in a repeat of the same melody. With both violins
playing, what physical parameter has doubled compared to the situation with only
one violin playing? (a) Wavelength (b) frequency (c) intensity (d) sound level in dB
e) none of these.
944. Increasing the intensity of a sound by a factor of 100 causes the sound level to
increase by 100 dB (b) 20 dB (c) 10 dB (d) 2 dB.
945. A submarine (sub A) travels through water at a speed of 8.00 m/s, emitting a sonar
wave at a frequency of 1 400 Hz. The speed of sound in the water is 1 533 m/s. A
second submarine (sub B) is located such that both submarines are traveling directly
toward one another. The second submarine is moving at 9.00 m/s.
a) What frequency is detected by an observer riding on sub B as the subs
approach each other?
b) The subs barely miss each other and pass. What frequency is detected by an
observer riding on sub B as the subs recede from each other?

156
 UNIT 17: RADIOACTIVITY
946. A radioactive atom X emits a β- particle. The resulting atom:
a) must be very reactive chemically
b) has an atomic number that is one more than that of X
c) has a mass number that is one less than that of X
d) must be radioactive
e) is the same chemical element as X
947. A nucleus with mass number A and atomic number Z undergoes β- decay. The
mass number and atomic number, respectively, of the daughter nucleus are:
a) A, Z - 1
b) A - 1, Z
c) A + 1, Z - 1
d) A, Z + 1
e) A, Z – 1
948. In addition to the daughter nucleus and an electron or positron, the products of a
beta decay include:
a) a neutron
b) a neutrino
c) a proton
d) an alpha particle
e) no other particle
949. The energies of electrons emitted in β- decays have a continuous spectrum
because:
a) the original neutron has a continuous spectrum
b) a neutrino can carry off energy
c) the emitted electron is free
d) energy is not conserved
e) the daughter nucleus may have any energy
950. If 204Tl (Z = 81) emits a β- particle from its nucleus:
a) stable Tl is formed
b) 202Hg (Z = 80) is formed
c) 204Pb (Z = 82) is formed
d) radioactive Tl is formed
e) 197Au (Z = 79) is formed
951. An atom of 235U (Z = 92) disintegrates to 207Pb (Z = 82) with a half-life of about a
billion years by emitting seven alpha particles and ----------------------------- β- particles:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 7

157
952. When ordinary sodium (23Na, Z = 11) is bombarded with deuterons, the products are
a neutron and:
1. 27Al, Z = 13
2. 24Na, Z = 11
3. 24Mg, Z = 12
4. 25Mg, Z = 12
5. 20Ne, Z = 10
953. 65Cu can be turned into 66Cu, with no accompanying product except a gamma, if
bombarded with:
a) protons
b) neutrons
c) deuterons
d) electrons
e) alpha particles
954. The 66Cu (Z = 29) produced in a nuclear bombardment is unstable, changing to
a) 66Zn (Z = 30)
b) by the emission of:
c) a proton
d) a gamma ray photon
e) a positron
f) an electron
g) an alpha particle
955. When ordinary sulfur, 32S (Z = 16), is bombarded with neutrons, the products are
a) 32P (Z = 15) and:
b) alpha particles
c) protons
d) deuterons
e) gamma ray particles
f) electrons
956. A certain nucleus, after absorbing a neutron, emits a β- and then splits into two
alpha particles. The (A, Z) of the original nucleus must have been:
1. 6, 2
2. 6, 3
3. 7, 2
4. 7, 3
5. 8, 4
957. When 23Na (Z = 11) is bombarded with protons, the products are 20Ne (Z = 10) and:
a) a neutron
b) an alpha particle
c) a deuteron
d) a gamma ray particle
e) two beta particles

158
958. Bombardment of 28Si (Z = 14) with alpha particles may produce:
a) a proton and 31P (Z = 15)
b) hydrogen and 32S (Z = 16)
c) a deuteron and 27Al (Z = 13)
d) helium and 31P (Z = 15)
e) 35Cl (Z = 17)
959. The Becquerel is the correct unit to use in reporting the measurement of:
a) the rate of decay of a radioactive source
b) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produce ions in a target
c) the energy delivered by radiation to a target
d) the biological effect of radiation
e) none of the above
960. The binding energy per nucleon:
a) increases for all fission events
b) increases for some, but not all, fission events
c) decreases for all fission events
d) decreases for some, but not all, fission events
e) remains the same for all fission events
961. When uranium undergoes fission as a result of neutron bombardment, the energy released
is due to:
a) oxidation of the uranium
b) kinetic energy of the bombarding neutrons
c) radioactivity of the uranium nucleus
d) radioactivity of the fission products
e) a reduction in binding energy
962. The energy supplied by a thermal neutron in a fission event is essentially its:
a) excitation energy
b) binding energy
c) kinetic energy
d) rest energy
e) electric potential energy
963. 235U is readily made fissionable by a thermal neutron but 238U is not because:
a) the neutron has a smaller binding energy in 236U
b) the neutron has a smaller excitation energy in 236U
c) the potential barrier for the fragments is less in 239U
d) the neutron binding energy is greater than the barrier height for 236U and less
than the barrier height for 239U
e) the neutron binding energy is less than the barrier height for 236U and greater
than the barrier height for 239U
964. In the uranium disintegration series:
a) the emission of a β- particle increases the mass number A by one and decreases
the atomic number Z by one
b) the disintegrating element merely ejects atomic electrons

159
 c) the emission of an α particle decreases the mass number A by four and
decreases the atomic number Z by two
d) the nucleus always remains unaffected
e) the series of disintegrations continues until an element having eight outermost
orbital electrons is obtained
965. Separation of the isotopes of uranium requires a physical, rather than chemical,
method because:
a) mixing other chemicals with uranium is too dangerous
b) the isotopes are chemically the same
c) the isotopes have exactly the same number of neutrons per nucleus
d) natural uranium contains only 0.7% 235U
e) uranium is the heaviest element in nature
966. The half-life in years of the decay represented by the graph in fig.5…is

967. Gamma radiations differ from α and β emissions in that

a) It consists in photons rather than particles having nonzero rest mass
b) It has almost no penetrating ability
c) Energy is not conserved in the nuclear decays producing it
d) Momentum is not conserved in the nuclear decays producing it
e) It is not produced in the nucleus

968. The process represented by the nuclear equation is

a) Annihilation
b) 𝛼 decay
c) β decay
d) γ decay
e) pair production
969. When investigating β decay, the neutrino was postulated to explain
a) Conservation of the number of nucleons
b) Counteracting the ionizing effect of radiation
c) Conservation of energy and momentum

160
 d) The production of antiparticles
e) The energy to carry away the β particles
970. Radionuclides
a) Are those nuclides having more neutrons than protons
b) May emit X-rays.
c) Decay exponentially
d) May be produced in a cyclotron
971. Polonium-218 undergoes one alpha decay and two beta decays to make

a) Polonium-214

b) Plomb-214

c) Bismuth-214
d) Plomb-210

972. Which of the following most accurately describe radioactive decay?

a. Molecules spontaneously break apart to produce energy
b. Atoms spontaneously break apart to produce energy beta decay; alpha decay
and positron emission are all forms of radioactive decay. Energy is released
because the atoms are converted to a more stable energy
c. Protons and neutrons spontaneously break apart to produce energy
d. Electrons spontaneously break apart to produce energy
973. Which of the following is true concerning the ratio neutrons to protons in stable
atoms?
a) The ratio for all stable atoms is 1:1.
b) The ratio for small stable atoms is 1:1, and the ratio for large stable atom is
greater than 1:1. As atomic weight goes up, the ratio of neutrons to protons
for stable atoms increases up to as much as 1.8:1 ratio.
c) The ratio for large stable atom is 1:1, and the ratio for small stable atoms is
greater than 1:1.
d) There is no correlation between the stability of the atom and its neutron to
proton ratio.
974.

a)
Copy and complete the following table related to radioactive decay
Type of radiation Description Electrical
charge
Alpha(α) radiation
Beta(β) radiation
Gamma(γ) radiation

c) Which of the above radiation is most dangerous and damaging when the
radioactive source is outside the human body? Justify your answer.
i. Suggest three precautions you must take for safety against
radioactive materials.
161
 ii. Explain the term half-life of a radioactive nuclide.
iii. A radioactive substance has a half-lifeof1day. Calculate the decay
constant for this substance?

975.
a) What is mass defect?
b) Why does a mass defect occur?
c) What is biding energy?
976. Consider an example of 4 He which has an atomic mass of 4.0026 u, this includes the
mass of its two electrons. Its constituents comprise two neutrons each of mass
1.0087u and protons each having a mass of 1.0078 u. Find the total mass of the
particles and compute its biding energy.
977. Calculate the biding energy of and its biding energy per nucleon. The mass of neutral is
15.994915 u.
978. A 32 g sample of radioactive material was reduced to 2 g in 96 days. What is its
half-life? How much of it will remain after another 96 days?
979. 212Bi Decays to 208Th by α-emission in 34% of the disintegration and to 212Ra by β-
emission in 66% of the disintegration. If the total half value period is 60.5 minutes,
find the decay constants for alpha and beta and the total emission.
980. If a radioactive material initially contains 3.0milligrams of Uranium 234U, how much
it will contain after 150,000 years? What will be its activity at the end of this time?
(T=2.50x105 years,
981. λ= 8.80 x10-14 per second).
982. Copy the following table in your notebook and answer the questions that follow

983. Suggest different uses of Radionuclides in (i) Medicine (ii) food and agriculture
984. Give the value of 𝑥 and 𝑦 in each of the following equations

985. Give the value of x and y in each of the reaction classify each as  , , or  decay.

162
986. The half-life of carbon14 is 5730 years the mass of certain sample of this
isotope is 800 𝜇g. Graph the activity for the first 5 half-lives.
987. Beams of 𝛼, 𝛽- and 𝛾 radiation of approximately the same energy pass through
electric and magnetic fields as shown below.

a) Show the path taken by each particle in the two fields. Why do they follow
these paths?
b) Which particle is the most penetrating? Explain your answer.
c) Which has the highest ionizing power?
d) How are 𝛽-, 𝛽+ and electrons different?
e) How are x-rays, 𝛾 rays and photons different?

988. We are exposed to radiation all the time, indoors and outdoors. This is called
background radiation.
a. Give two examples of sources of this background radiation.
b. Which organ generally receives the most background radiation, and why?
c. There is some concern at the moment that pilots and flight attendants may have
significantly higher exposures to radiation than the normal exposure rates for
the general public. Why do pilots have a higher exposure to radiation than most
other people?
989. Nuclei can decay by emitting particles which can change the energy, mass and
charge of the nucleus.
a) How is 𝛼decay possible when the 𝛼particle must pass an energy barrier which is
greater than the energy of the particle? Describe the process involved.
b) If isotope A emits 𝛼 particles with greater energy than isotope B (of the same
element), which will have the longer half-life?
c) How can a nucleus change its charge without emitting a charged particle?
990. Nuclear power is used in many places in the world. There are over 400 nuclear power
plants currently in operation, over 100 of which are in the USA, providing 20% of the
electricity consumed in that country. These plants use uranium fuel (238U enriched
163
 with 3% 235U) to produce electricity. It is the fission of the 235U nuclei which provides
the majority of the thermal energy that is used to generate the power.

991. Completethe following decay equation:

a) Use the data in the table below to find the energy released in this reaction.
b) How many decays per second would it take to run a 60 W light globe?
c)If a power plant only converts 10% of the excess mass into useful energy, how
many decays per second would you need?

992. Heavy, unstable nuclei usually decay by emitting an 𝛼 or β particle. Why don’t they
usually emit a single proton or neutron?
993. Compared to particles with the same energy, particles can much more easily
penetrate through matter. Why is this?
994. Why is the alpha, beta, or gamma decay of an unstable nucleus unaffected by the
chemical situation of the atom, such as the nature of the molecule or solid in which
it is bound? The chemical situation of the atom can, however, have an effect on the
half life in electron capture. Why is this?
995. Fission reactions occur only for nuclei with large nucleon numbers, while exoergic
fusion reactions occur only for nuclei with small nucleon numbers. Why is this?
996. When a large nucleus splits during nuclear fission, the daughter nuclei of the
fission fly apart with enormous kinetic energy. Why does this happen?

UNIT 18: ATOMIC MODELS

997. An electron in the n =5 energy level of hydrogen undergoes a transition to the n=3
energy level. What is the wavelength of the photon the atom emits in this process?
a) 2.28 x10-6 m
b) 8.20x10-7 m
c) 3.64x10-7 m
d) 1.28x10-6 m
e) 5.92x10-5 m
998. Which of the following is not one of the basic assumptions of the Bohr model of
hydrogen? (a) Only certain electron orbits are stable and allowed. (b) The electron
moves in circular orbits about the proton under the influence of the Coulomb force.
999. The charge on the electron is quantized. (d) Radiation is emitted by the atom when
the electron moves from a higher energy state to a lower energy state. (e) The angular
momentum associated with the electron’s orbital motion is quantized.
1000. (a) Can a hydrogen atom in the ground state absorb a photon of energy less
than 13.6 eV? (b) Can this atom absorb a photon of energy greater than 13.6 eV?
164
1001. Let -E represent the energy of a hydrogen atom.
a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron? (a) 2E
b) E (c) 0 (d) 2E (e) -2E (ii) What is the potential energy of
the atom? Choose from the same possibilities (a)
through (e)
1002. (a) What value of ni is associated with the 94.96-nm spectral line in the Lyman
series of hydrogen? (b) What If? Could this wavelength be associated with the
Paschen series? (c) Could this wavelength be associated with the Balmer series?
1003. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, 4.00-MeV alpha particles scatter off
gold nuclei (containing 79 protons and 118 neutrons). Assume a particular alpha
particle moves directly toward the gold nucleus and scatters backward at 180°, and
that the gold nucleus remains fixed throughout the entire process. Determine (a) the
distance of closest approach of the alpha particle to the gold nucleus and (b) the
maximum force exerted on the alpha particle.
1004. How much energy is required to ionize hydrogen (a) when it is in the ground
state and (b) when it is in the state for which n=3?
1005. What is the energy of a photon that, when absorbed by a hydrogen atom, could
cause an electronic transition from (a) the n= 2 state to the n=5 state and (b) the n
=4 state to the n=6 state?
1006. A photon is emitted when a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from the n=5
state to the n=3 state. Calculate (a) the energy (in electron volts), (b) the wavelength, and
(c) the frequency of the emitted photon.
1007. The Balmer series for the hydrogen atom corresponds to electronic transitions
that terminate in the state with quantum number n=2 as shown in Figure below.
Consider the photon of longest wavelength corresponding to a transition shown in
the figure. Determine (a) its energy and (b) its wavelength. Consider the spectral line
of shortest wavelength corresponding to a transition shown in the figure. Find its
photon energy and (d) its wavelength. (e) What is the shortest possible wavelength in
the Balmer series?

1008. For a hydrogen atom in its ground state, compute (a) the orbital speed of the
electron, (b) the kinetic energy of the electron, and (c) the electric potential energy
of the atom.
1009. How much energy is required to ionize a hydrogen atom when it is in (a) the n=2
state and (b) the n=10 state?

165
1010. An atom is excited to an energy level E1 from its ground state energy level E0.
The wavelength of the radiation emitted is

1011. The ground state of the electron in the hydrogen atom may be represented by
the energy -13.6eV and the first two excited states by -3.4eV and -1.5eV
respectively, on a scale in which an electron completely free of the atom is at zero
energy. Use these data to calculate the ionization potential of the hydrogen atom
and the wavelengths of the three lines in emission spectrum of hydrogen.

1012. If a proton and an electron have the same speed, which has the longer de
Broglie wavelength? Explain.
1013. If a proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy, which has the longer
de Broglie wavelength? Explain.
1014. Does a photon have a de Broglie wavelength? If so, how is it related to the
wavelength of the associated electromagnetic wave? Explain.
1015. Why can an electron microscope have greater magnification than an ordinary
microscope?

1016. Some of the energy levels of a mercury atom are shown below:

a) Calculate the ionization energy of a mercury atom in electron-volts (eV) and in

joules (J)
b) Calculate the wavelength of radiation emitted when an electron moves from

166
 level 4 to level 2. In what part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this
wavelength lie?
c) State what is likely to happen if a mercury atom in the unexcited state (level 1) is
bombarded with electrons of energies 4.0eV, 6.7eV and 11.0eV, respectively?

UNIT 19: X-RAYS

1017. X-rays have

A. Short wavelength C. both A and B
B. high frequency D. longest wavelength

1018. If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate, then rays produced are
A. alpha rays C. beta rays
B. x-rays D. gamma rays
1019. Energy passing through unit area is
A. intensity of x-ray C. wavelength of x-ray
B. frequency of x-ray D. amplitude of x-ray
1020. X-rays are filtered out of human body by using
A. cadmium absorbers C. copper absorbers
B. carbon absorbers D. aluminum absorbers
1021. Wavelength of x-rays is in range
A. 10-8 m to 10-13 m C. 10-10 m to 10-15 m
B. 10-7 m to 10-14 m D. 10² m to 109 m
1022. X-rays are produced by energy changes in
The nucleus
a)
Electrons close to the nucleus
b)
Electrons far from the nucleus
c)
Electrons and protons
d)
Electrons and neutrons
e)
1023. In an X-ray tube, electrons of high energy E are incident on a target of tungsten
which of the following three statements is correct?
a) All the energy is converted to X-rays
b) The maximum X-ray frequency obtained is E/h
167
 c) The X-rays are diffracted by the tungsten metal.
1024.
a) Explain briefly why a modern X-ray tube can be operated directly from the
output of a step-up transformer?
b) An X-ray tube works at a d.c p.d of 50kV. Only 0.4% of the energy of the
cathode rays is converted into X-radiation and heat is generated in the
target at rate of 600W. Estimate
(i) The current passed into the tube
(ii) The velocity of the electrons striking the target.
1025. If the p.d. applied to X-ray tube is 20kV, what is the speed with which electrons
strike the target? Take the specific charge of the electron as 1.8x1011Ckg-1.
1026. What is the minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced when electrons are
accelerated through a potential difference of 1.0x105 V in an X-ray tube? Why is there
a minimum wavelength
1027.

a)
i. Describe, with the aid of a labeled diagram of an X-ray tube, how X-
rays are produced.
ii. Sketch a typical X-ray spectrum and explain the origin of the
continuous spectrum and the characteristic spectrum.
iii. Electrons are accelerated in a vacuum tube through a potential
difference of 2.00kV to strike a heavy metal target. Determine the
minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced.
iv. The minimum wavelength X-rays from part iii) are directed at the
surface of a crystal and first maximum scattering intensity is observed
at an angle of 30°. Describe why this happens and determine the
spacing between the crystal planes.
b) When X-rays are produced only about 10% of the initial input energy appears
as X-ray energy. Explain what has happened to the other 90% of the energy.
1028. An X-ray tube operates with a potential difference of 100kV between the anode
and cathode. The current is 20mA.
a) Calculate
(i) The rate at which energy is transformed n the target of the X-ray tube.
(ii) The number of electrons which reach the target each second,
(iii) The maximum energy of an X-ray photon produced.
b) An –ray beam is used to produce the image of an object. State two factors which
may reduce the sharpness of the image. In each case, suggest how the
sharpness may be improved.
1029. In a modern X-ray tube electrons are accelerated through a large p.d and x-rays
are produced when electrons strike the tungsten target embedded in a large piece of
copper.
a) What is the purpose of the large piece of copper?
b) Describe the energy changes taking place in the tube.

168
 c) If the accelerating voltage is 40kV, calculate the kinetic energy of electrons
arriving at the target, and determine the minimum wavelength of emitted x-
rays.
1030. Molybdenum K X-rays have wavelength 7x10-11m. Find
a) The minimum X-ray tube p.d that can produce these X-rays
b) The photon energy in eV.
1031. Draw a labeled diagram of a modern X-ray tube. How may
a) The intensity
b) The penetrating power of the x-rays can be controlled?
c) An X-ray tube is operated with the anode potential of 10kV and anode current
of 15.0mA.
(i) Estimate the number of electrons hitting the target per second.
(ii) Calculate the rate of production of heat at the anode, stating any
assumptions made.
(iii) Describe the characteristics of the emitted X-ray spectrum and account
for any special features.
1032. Describe the properties of X-rays and compare them with those of ultraviolet
radiation. Outline the evidence for the wave nature of X-rays.
1033. Describe the atomic process in the target of an X-ray tube whereby X-ray line
spectra are produced. Determine the ratio of the energy of a photon of X-radiation
of wavelength 0.1nm to that of a photon of visible radiation of wavelength
500nm. Why is p.d applied across an X-ray tube very much greater than that
applied across a sodium lamp producing visible light?
1034. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a
potential difference of 125 V?
1035. Describe the process by which X-rays are produced.
1036. Discuss and describe the types of X-rays?
1037. What is the meaning of the X in X-ray?
1038. How are X-rays different from other electromagnetic radiations?
1039. What are the main properties of X-rays?
1040. What is the characteristic of X-ray characteristic peak radiation?
1041. How is X-ray continuum produced via bremsstrahlung?
1042. X-rays are generated when a highly accelerated charged particle such
as electrons collide with target material of an X-ray tube. The resulting X-
rays have two characteristics: the continuous X-rays (also called white X-
rays) and characteristic X-rays peaks. The wavelength distribution and
intensity of continuous X-rays are usually depending upon the applied
voltage and a clear limit is recognized on the short wavelength side.
a) Estimate the speed of electron before collision when applied voltage
is 30kV and compare it with the speed of light in vacuum.
b) Establish the expression of the shortest wavelength limit of X-rays
generated with the applied voltage V. it is obtained when the incident

169
 electron loses all its energy in a single collision.
1043. How do we create different X-ray images in medicine?
1044. What are the dangers that may be caused by using excessive dose of X- rays?
1045. Electrons in an X-ray tube accelerate through a potential difference of 10.0 kV before
striking a target. If an electron produces one photon on impact with the target, what is the
minimum wavelength of the resulting X- rays? (Answer using both SI units and electron
volts.
1046. Monochromatic X-rays of wavelength 1.2 × 10-10 m are incident on a crystal.
The 1storder diffraction maximum is observed at when the angle between the
incident beam and the atomic plane is 120◦.What is the separation of the atomic
planes responsible for the diffraction?
Calculate
a) Strength of the electric field E,
b) Force on the electron F,
c) Acceleration of an electron, when a voltage of 10 kV is applied between
two electrodes separated by an interval of 10 mm.
1047. Crystal diffraction experiment can be performed using X-rays, or electrons
accelerated through appropriate voltage. Which probe has greater energy? (For
quantitative comparison, take the wavelength of the probe equal to1Å, which is
of the order of inter- atomic spacing in the lattice).
1048. A plot of x-ray intensity as a function of wavelength for a particular
accelerating voltage and a particular target is shown in Fig below.

a) There are two main components of this x-ray spectrum: a broad range of x-ray
energies and a couple of sharp peaks. Explain how each of these arises.
b) What is the origin of the cut-off wavelength ʎmin of the Fig above? Why is it an
important clue to the photon nature of x-rays?
170
 c) What would happen to the cut-off wavelength if the accelerating voltage was
increased? What would happen to the characteristic peaks? Use a sketch to
show how this spectrum would look if the accelerating voltage was increased.
d) What would happen to the cut-off wavelength if the target was changed, keep
the same accelerating voltage? What would happen to the characteristic peaks?
Use a sketch to show how the spectrum would look if some other target
material was used, but the accelerating voltage was kept the same.
1049. Electrons are accelerated from rest through a p.d of 10 kV in an X-ray tube.
Calculate:
(i) The resultant energy of the electrons in eV.
(ii) The wavelength of the associated electron waves.
(iii) The maximum energy and the minimum wavelength of the x ray radiation
generated
1050. Monochromatic X-ray of wavelength 1.2 × 10-10 m is incident on a crystal.
The 1st order diffraction maximum is observed at when the angle between the
incident beam and the atomic plane is12°.What is the separation of the atomic
planes responsible for the diffraction?
1051. An x-ray operates at 30 kV and the current through it is 2.0 mA.
Calculate:
(i) The electrical power output
(ii) The number of electrons striking the target per second.
(iii)The speed of the electrons when they hit the target.
(iv) The lower wavelength limit of the x-rays emitted.
1052. An x-ray machine can accelerate electrons of energies 4.8 × 10-15J. The shortest
wavelength of the x- rays produced by the machine is found to be 4.1 × 10-11m. Use
this information to estimate the value of the plank constant.
1053. The spacing between Principal planes of NaCl crystal is 2.82°. It is found that the
first order Bragg diffraction occurs at an angle of 10° . What is the wavelength of the
x rays?
1054. What is the kinetic energy of an electron with a de Broglie wavelength of 0.1 nm?
Through what p.d should it be accelerated to achieve this value?
1055. You have decided to build your own x-ray machine out of an old television set.
The electrons in the TV set are accelerated through a potential difference of 20 kV.
What will be the ʎmin for this accelerating potential?
1056.

a) An X-ray tube is operating at 100kV and 20 mA. Calculate the shortest

wavelength of radiation emitted by a tube.
b) Very little of the electron energy appears in the form of X-rays. What happens to
the rest of the energy?
c) Calculate the smallest grazing angle at which X-rays of wavelength 0.7 ×10-
10m will be diffracted from a quartz crystal which has an atomic spacing of
1.5×10-10 m. What is the highest order of diffraction that can be observed
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 with this radiation?
d) Give one example of the use of X-rays, including a short description of the
principles behind the example.
1057.
a) Explain how the intensity and the penetrating power of the X-rays produced are
controlled.
b) In an X-ray tube operated at 1.5×105 V, the target is made of the material of
specific heat capacity 2.5×102 JK-1kg-1 and has mass of 0.25 kg. One percent of
the electric power supplied is converted into X-rays and the rest is dissipated as
heat in the metal target. If the temperature of the target rises by 8Ks-1, find
i. The number of electrons which strike the metal target every second.
ii. The shortest wavelength of the x-rays produced.
iii. Explain briefly the use of X-rays in the study of crystal structures.
1058.
a) Describe what you would observe when a high voltage is applied across a glass
tube which is progressively evacuated.
b) In what respect do cathode rays differ from cathode rays?
c) An X-ray tube operated at 75kV and 20 mA. The target has a mass of 0.3 kg
and SHC of 146 J/kgK.
i. Calculate the shortest wavelength of the X-rays emitted by such a tube.
ii. If only one percent of the electric power supplied is converted into
X- radiation, calculate the average rate at which the temperature of
the target will rise, assuming no thermal losses.
d) Briefly describe the use of X-rays in the following:
i. Medicine
ii. Industry
1059.
a) Explain the physical processes that account for the following features of
radiation from X-ray tube:
i. A continuous spectrum
ii. The cut-off frequency
iii. Characteristic lines.
b)
(i) Derive Bragg’s law for diffraction of X-rays by a crystal.
(ii) A beam of X-rays of frequency of frequency 3.56×1018 Hz is incident on
potassium chloride crystal and the first order Bragg diffraction occurs at
07°41. The density of KCl is 1.98×103 kgm-3, and its Relative formula
mass is 74.6. Calculate the value for Avogadro number (NA) using this
data.
1060.
a) Discuss the nature and production of X–rays from a given target, distinguishing
clearly between
i. Continuous and characteristic radiation
ii. Soft and hard X-rays.
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 b) When an L-shell electron falls into a vacant K-shell in a lead atom, radiation of
1.2×10-14J is given off. If the binding energy of an electron in the L-shell is 2.08
×10-15 J.
(i) Calculate the binding energy of the K-shell electron.
(ii) What minimum potential to produce the above radiation?
c) When monochromatic X-rays are incident on a calcite crystal, for which the
grating spacing is 3.0×10-10 m, the first, second and third order interference
maxima are observed at Braggs angle of 14.5 , 30.6 and 49.5 , respectively.
i. Calculate the wavelength of the X-rays.
ii. Determine the maxima order of diffraction.
1061. A tungsten target (Z = 74) is bombarded by electrons in an x-ray tube. The K, L,
and M atomic x-ray energy levels for tungsten are -69.5, -11.3 and -2.30keV
respectively.
a) Why are the energy levels given as negative values?
b) What is the minimum kinetic energy of the bombarding electrons that will
permit the production of the characteristic K𝛼 and K𝛽 lines of tungsten?
c) What is the minimum value of the accelerating potential that will give electrons
this minimum kinetic energy?
d) What are the K𝛼 and K𝛽 wavelengths?
1062.
a) State two types of X-rays
b) State any seven properties of X-rays.
c) Explain any four applications of X-rays.
1063.
a) Using the following illustration figure Fig. label each part marked by letter from
A to H and explain the function of each part A, B, C, D, E, F and H.
b) Why is the X-ray tube evacuated?
c) The penetrating power of X-rays is normally varied depending on the
intended use. Explain how this is done.
d) The energy of X-ray is 1.989×10-14J. Find the wavelength of the X-rays.
e) Describe briefly the experimental evidence which suggests that X-rays are a
wave motion.

173
 UNIT 20: LASERS
1064. In a laser:
A. excited atoms are stimulated to emit photons by radiation external to the laser
B. the transitions for laser emission are directly to the ground state
C. the states which give rise to laser emission are usually very unstable states that
decay rapidly
D. the state in which an atom is initially excited is never between two states that
are involved in the stimulated emission
E. a minimum of two energy levels are required.
1065. Photons in a laser beam have the same energy, wavelength, polarization
direction, and phase because:
A. each is produced in an emission that is stimulated by another
B. all come from the same atom
C. the lasing material has only two quantum states
D. all photons are alike, no matter what their source
E. none of the above
1066. A laser must be pumped to achieve:
174
 A. a metastable state
B. fast response
C. stimulated emission
D. population inversion
E. the same wavelength for all photons
1067. Photons in a laser beam are produced by:
A. transitions from a metastable state
B. transitions to a metastable state
C. transitions from a state that decays rapidly
D. splitting of other photons
E. pumping
1068. Which of the following is essential for laser action to occur between two
energy levels of an atom?
A. the lower level is metastable
B. the upper level is metastable
C. the lower level is the ground state
D. there are more atoms in the lower level than in the upper level
E. the lasing material is a gas
1069. Which of the following is essential for laser action to occur between two
energy levels of an atom?
A. the lower level is metastable
B. there are more atoms the upper level than in the lower level
C. there are more atoms in the lower level than in the upper level
D. the lower level is the ground state
E. the lasing material is a gas
1070. Population inversion is important for the generation of a laser beam because it
assures that:
A. spontaneous emission does not occur more often than stimulated emission
B. photons do not split too rapidly
C. more photons are emitted than are absorbed
D. photons do not collide with each other
E. photons do not make upward transitions
1071. A metastable state is important for the generation of a laser beam because it
assures that:
A. spontaneous emission does not occur more often than stimulated emission
B. photons do not split too rapidly
C. more photons are emitted than are absorbed
D. photons do not collide with each other
E. photons do not make upward transitions
1072. Electrons in a certain laser make transitions from a metastable state to the
ground state. Initially there are 6 × 1020 atoms in the metastable state and 2 ×
1020 atoms in the ground state. The number of photons that can be produced in
a single burst is about:

175
1073. A. 2 × 1020
B. 3 × 1020
C. 4 × 1020
D. 6 × 1020
E. 8 × 1020
1074. In a helium-neon laser, the laser light arises from a transition from a state to a
state.
A. He, He
B. Ne, Ne
C. He, Ne
D. Ne, He
E. N, He
1075. The purpose of the mirrors at the ends of a helium-neon laser is:
A. to assure that no laser light leaks out
B. to increase the number of stimulated emissions
C. to absorb some of the photons
D. to keep the light used for pumping inside the laser
E. to double the effective length of the laser
1076. A group of electromagnetic waves might
I. be monochromatic
II. be coherent
III. have the same polarization direction
Which of these describe the waves from a laser?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III
1077. A laser beam can be sharply focused because it is:
A. highly coherent
B. plane polarized
C. intense
D. circularly polarized
E. highly directional
1078. Choose the correct group of terms that are properties of laser light.
A. Coherent, un polarized, monochromatic, high divergence
B. Monochromatic, low divergence, polarized, coherent
C. Polychromatic, diffuse, coherent, focused
D. Monochromatic, birefringent, no polarized, coherent
1079. Which of the following properties of laser light enables us to use it to measure
distances with great precision?
A. All the light waves emitted by the laser have the same direction
B. The light waves are coherent
C. The light waves are monochromatic
176
 D. The individual waves effectively work like a single wave with very
large amplitude
1080. What does the acronym LASER stand for?
A. Light Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
B. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
C. Light Alteration by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
1081. The acronym MASER stands for?
A. Microwave Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
B. Molecular Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
C. Molecular Alteration by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
D. Microwave amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radio waves
1082. What is one way to describe a Photon?
A. Solid as a rock
B. A wave packet
C. A torpedo
D. Electromagnetic wave of zero energy
1083. Which of the following determines the color of light?
A. its intensity
B. its wavelength
C. its source
D. Some information missing
1084. Among the three examples of laser listed below, which one is considered
“eye safe”?
A. Laser bar-code scanners
B. The Excimer laser
C. Communications lasers
D. YAG
1085. Why lasers are used in fiber optic communications systems
A. The government has mandated it
B. They can be pulsed with high speed data
C. They are very inexpensive
D. They are not harmful
1086. Lasers are used in CDs and DVDs. What type of laser is used in these players?
A. Semiconductor
B. YAG
C. Alexandrite
D. All the above
1087. The best reason why lasers used in “Laser Printers” is
A. They can be focused down to very small spot sizes for high resolution
B. They are cheap
C. They are impossible to damage
D. They are locally available
1088. As wavelength gets longer, the laser light can be focused to…
A. Larger spot sizes
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 B. Smaller spot sizes
C. Large and small spot sizes
D. None of the above
1089. Among the following, which color of laser has the shortest wavelength?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Green
1090. What property of laser light is used to measure strain in roadways?
A. Intensity
B. Power
C. Coherence
D. All the above
1091. What is the type of laser used most widely in industrial materials processing
applications?
A. Dye Laser C. YAG laser
B. Ruby Laser D. Carbon Dioxide Laser
1092. Why are lasers used for cutting materials
A. It never gets dull D. It has a small “heat affected zone”
B. Accuracy E. Smoother cuts
C. Repeatability F. All of the above
1093. The Excimer laser produces light with what wavelength?
A. Visible
B. Ultraviolet
C. Infrared
D. All the above.
1094. Most lasers are electrically inefficient devices.
A. True
B. False
1095. Chemical lasers use… ...................... to produce their beams.
A. Excessive amounts of electrical power
B. Small amounts of electrical power
C. No electrical power
D. Other lasers
1096. What type of laser could cause skin cancer if not used properly?
A. Red semiconductor laser C. Blue semiconductor
B. Excimer laser D. YAG laser.
1097. Depending on the nature and what laser is made of, Laser is classified into
different types. Discuss at least 5 types of lasers.
1098. The following are basic characteristics of laser light. With clear explanation,
what does each imply as connected to laser light.
a) Coherence
b) Monochromaticity
178
 c) Collimation
1099.
a) With the aid of diagram Explain the meaning of the following terms
i. Spontaneous Absorption of light
ii. Stimulated Emission
iii. Spontaneous Emission
iv. Population inversion
b) Laser light have been employed in different areas. This has helped man in
solving different problems. What are some of the areas where laser light
is employed?
c) Though laser light is very important in different activities, it can also cause
harm if misused. In what ways is laser light harmful.
1100. Discuss all the negative effects of laser light.
1101. Using vivid examples, explain how one can prevent him or herself of all
dangers caused by laser light.
1102. We have seen that laser light is good and at the same time bad. Using your
personal judgment, which side outweighs the other? Give scientific reasons.
1103. Explain how coherence, monochromatic and collimation are
interconnected.
1104. All light in laser light are produced and found to be in the same phase.
How does this help in the formation of 3D images?
1105. Laser light can be used as a level. Which special feature that makes it be
used as a level. Explain your answer
1106. In your own words, explain how laser light is produced.
1107. Explain the meaning of population inversion and discuss how an atom can
be put into excited state.
1108. What is the energy of the laser light that propagates with a frequency of
1010 Hz in gaseous medium? (Given that the plank’s constant h=6.67×10-34 J . s )
1109.
a) What are the three major components of laser?
b) Using diagrams, explain all the types of optical cavity.

1110. Using a mixture of CO2, N2, and sometimes He, CO2 lasers emit a wavelength of
10.6µm.At power outputs of 0.100 kW, such lasers are used for surgery. How many
photons per second does a CO2 laser deliver to the tissue during its use in an
operation?
1111. Pulsed dye lasers emit light of wavelength 585 nm in 0.45-ms pulses to remove
skin blemishes such as birthmarks. The beam is usually focused onto a circular spot
5.0 mm in diameter. Suppose that the output of one laser is 20.0 W.
a) What is the energy of each photon, in eV?
b) How many photons per square millimeter are delivered to the blemish during
each pulse?
1112. Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) is a laser-based surgical procedure that
179
 corrects near- and farsightedness by removing part of the lens of the eye to change
its curvature and hence focal length. This procedure can remove layers 0.25µm thick
using pulses lasting 12.0 ns from a laser beam of wavelength 193 nm. Low- intensity
beams can be used because each individual photon has enough energy to break the
covalent bonds of the tissue.
a) In what part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this light lie?
b) What is the energy of a single photon?
c) If a 1.50-mW beam is used, how many photons are delivered to the lens in each
pulse?

UNIT 20: COSMOLOGY AND ASTROPHYSICS.

 General Structure of the solar System

 Stellar Distance and Radiation.
 Cosmology, Galaxies And Expansion Of The Universe
1113. Which one of the following is not expected to occur on an H–R diagram
during the lifetime of a single star?
(a) The star will move off the main sequence toward
the upper right of the diagram.
(b) Low-mass stars will become white dwarfs and end up
toward the lower left of the diagram.
(c) The star will move along the main sequence from one
place to another.
(d) All of the above.
1114. When can parallax be used to determine the approximate distance from the
Earth to a star?
(a) Only during January and July.
(b) Only when the star’s distance is relatively small.
(c) Only when the star’s distance is relatively large.
(d) Only when the star appears to move directly toward
or away from the Earth.
(e) Only when the star is the Sun.
(f) Always.
(g) Never.
1115. Observations show that all galaxies tend to move away from Earth, and that
more distant galaxies move away from Earth at faster velocities than do galaxies
closer to the Earth. These observations imply that
(a) The Earth is the center of the universe.
(b) The universe is expanding.
(c) The expansion of the universe will eventually stop.
(d) All of the above.
1116. Which process results in a tremendous amount of energy being emitted by the
Sun?
(a) Hydrogen atoms burn in the presence of oxygen
180
 that is, hydrogen atoms oxidize.
(b) The Sun contracts, decreasing its gravitational potential energy.
(c) Protons in hydrogen atoms fuse, forming helium nuclei.
(d) Radioactive atoms such as uranium, plutonium, and
cesium emit gamma rays with high energy.
(e) None of the above.
1117. Which of the following methods can be used to find the distance from us to
a star outside our galaxy? Choose all that apply.
(a) Parallax.
(b) Using luminosity and temperature from the H–R
diagram and measuring the apparent brightness.
(c) Using supernova explosions as a “standard candle.”
(d) Redshirt in the line spectra of elements and compounds.
1118. The history of the universe can be determined by observing astronomical
objects at various (large) distances from the Earth. This method of discovery works
because
(a) Time proceeds at different rates in different regions of the universe.
(b) Light travels at a finite speed.
(c) Matter warps space.
(d) Older galaxies are farther from the Earth than are
younger galaxies.
1119. Where did the Big Bang occur?
(a) Near the Earth.
(b) Near the center of the Milky Way Galaxy.
(c) Several billion light-years away.
(d) Throughout all space.
(e) Near the Andromeda Galaxy
1120. When and how were virtually all of the elements of the Periodic Table formed?
(a) In the very early universe a few seconds after the Big Bang.
(b) At the centers of stars during their main-sequence phases.
(c) At the centers of stars during novae.
(d) At the centers of stars during supernovae.
(e) On the surfaces of planets as they cooled and hardened.
1121. We know that there must be dark matter in the universe because
(a) we see dark dust clouds.
(b) We see that the universe is expanding.
(c) We see that stars far from the galactic center are moving faster than can be
explained by visible matter.
(d) We see that the expansion of the universe is accelerating.
1122. A light source approaches the observer with velocity 0.8c. The Doppler
shift for the light of wavelength 5500 Å is
(a) 4400 Å
(c) 3667 Å
(b) 1833 Å
(d) 7333 Å
1123. Acceleration of the universe’s expansion rate is due to
(a) The repulsive effect of dark energy.
(b) The attractive effect of dark matter.
(c) The attractive effect of gravity.
(d) The thermal expansion of stellar cores.

181
1124. What is a result of the Big Bang Theory?
A. Not Sure
B. An estimate of how many years ago the Universe began
C. An explanation of life on Earth
D. The disproving of the Theory of Relativity
1125. Why do they call it dark matter?
A. Not Sure C. Because it is a dark brown color
B. Because it is very heavy D. Because no one has seen it
1126. What planet is known for its rings?
A. Not Sure C. Earth
B. Mars D. Saturn
1127. The angular distance of an object around the horizon, starting from the north,
and measured eastwards around the horizon to a point on the horizon directly
below the object’s location on the celestial sphere is known as the:
a) Horizon
b) Latitude
c) Longitude
d) Altitude
e) Azimuth
1128. The angular distance above the celestial horizon is called the:
a) Horizon
b) Latitude
c) Longitude
d) Altitude
e) Azimuth
1129. This is a point in the sky that’s located directly above the observer:
a) Horizon
b) Latitude
c) Longitude
d) Azimuth
e) Zenith
1130. Observations of a star show the hydrogen lines shifted from 486.1× 10-9 m
to 485.7 ×10-9 m. Is the star approaching or receding? How quickly?
1131. The luminosity of the Sun is 3.8×1026 watts. How much energy is released
after 10 billion years? How much energy is produced in the gravitational
contraction of the Sun? Compare these two numbers. Is it reasonable to expect
that most of the energy released by the Sun might have come from gravitational
contraction?
1151.
a) What is the difference between absolute and apparent magnitude?
b) How much brighter is a star of first magnitude than a star of fifth magnitude?
1152. Given an absolute magnitude of 3.0, find the apparent magnitude at a distance of 5 pc,
10 pc, 15 pc, 20 pc, 50 pc, and 100 pc. Plot these data. How far away must the star be to
have an apparent magnitude of 5.0?
1153.
a) Which has the hotter core, a 10 Msun star or a 1 Msun star? Why?
b) Place the following spectral types in order of temperature: A, B, F, G, K, M, O
1154. On the chart below, label the region where you would expect to find large cool
stars, small cool stars, and tiny hot stars.
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1155. What is the main-sequence lifetime of a 15 Msun star?
1156. Derive an age–luminosity relationship for main-sequence stars.
1157. The total luminosity of the Sun is 4×1026 watts. Calculate the total number of watts that
fall on a 1 m2 sheet of paper on the Earth’s surface
1158.
a) What causes sunspots?
b) What is the difference between a sunspot and an active region?
c) What is the absolute magnitude of the Sun? (The apparent magnitude is -26.5.)
d) Are prominences bright or dark when seen against the disk of the Sun? Why?
1159. Main-sequence star X is 10 times as luminous as main-sequence star Y. How do
their main sequence lifetimes compare?
1160. Main-sequence star A is 10 times as massive as main-sequence star B. How do
their main sequence lifetimes compare?
1161. Which is more important to the lifetime of the star, the luminosity or the mass?
Explain why.’
1162. Table below gives data for the 15 nearest stars. Study the table and answer the
following questions.

183
 a) Which star (after the Sun) is brightest?
b) Which star is faintest?
c) Which star has the highest luminosity?
d) Which star has the lowest luminosity?
e) Which star is most like the Sun?
f) Why does Sirius B not have a spectral class listed?
g) How many stars are M type?
h) How many stars are G type?
i) How many stars are another type?
j) Using just the information in this table, would you say the Sun is a ‘‘typical’’
star?
1163. Why does Mercury have no significant atmosphere?
1164. Why Venus is sometimes called the morning (or evening) star?
1165. How might Venus be different if it were located at 1 AU from the Sun?
1166. Why are the Jovian planets different colors?
1167. Why is Jupiter brighter than Mars in our night sky, even though it is farther away?
1168. What would happen to the temperature of the Earth’s surface if the Sun stopped
shining?
1169.
a) What is a star?
b) Why does the main sequence form a line in the H-R diagram?
c) What are white dwarfs (and neutron stars) made of?
d) Which star has the lowest surface temperature?

184
1170. Which star produces less energy per second (luminosity)? The extra
luminosity is produced by more fusion reactions)

1171. Which line shows the red giant planetary nebula stage on the Hertz
sprung-Russell Diagram? Remember that green line is actually
between the red giant branch and the supergiant branch and occurs
when stars start blowing off their outer layers in planetary nebulae.

185
1172. How do black holes and neutron stars form?
1173. What property of black holes can we measure with the velocity and distance of the gas
orbiting the black hole? (Note: We can also use the orbital properties of companion star,
if the black hole has one).
1174. As the seasons progress, the constellations appear to gradually turn counter- clockwise
around the north celestial pole from night to night because
a) Bootes and Canes Venatici chase Ursa Major around Polaris.
b) The sidereal day is slightly shorter than the solar day.
c) Earth rotates on its axis.
d) The galaxy spirals around its centre.
1175. If you live in the northern hemisphere, the elevation of Polaris above the
horizon, in degrees, is about the same as
a) Your latitude
b) 90 degrees minus your latitude
c) The elevation of the sun in the sky at noon.
d) Nothing in particular; its elevation changes as the seasons pass.
1176. Objects in the universe are receding from us with a speed that is proportional to:
A. the reciprocal of their distance from us
B. the reciprocal of the square of their distance from us
C. their distance from us
D. the square of their distance from us
E. their distance from the center of the universe
1177. The velocities of distant objects in the universe indicate that the time elapsed since the
big bang is about:
A. 105 y
B. 1010 y
C. 1015 y
D. 1020 y
E. 1025 y
1178. The intensity of the microwave background radiation, a remnant of the big bang:
A. is greatest in directions toward the center of the galax

B. is least in directions toward the center of the galaxy

C. is proportional to the reciprocal of the distance from us
D. is proportional to the square of the distance from us
E. is nearly the same in all directions
1179. As a result of the big bang there is, in addition to the microwave
background radiation, a uniform distribution of background:
A. electrons
B. quarks
C. gluons
D. neutrinos
E. atoms
1180. Dark matter is suspected to exist in the universe because:
A. the night sky is dark between stars
186
 B. the orbital period of stars in the outer parts of a galaxy is greater than
the orbital period of stars near the galactic center
C. the orbital period of stars in the outer parts of a galaxy is less than the
orbital period of stars near the galactic center
D. the orbital period of stars in the outer parts of a galaxy is about the
same as the orbital period of stars near the galactic center
E. all galaxies have about the same mass
1181. If dark matter did not exist it is likely that:
A. the universe would expand forever
B. the universe would begin contracting soon
C. the night sky would be brighter
D. the night sky would be darker
E. we would be able to see the center of the universe
1182. Hubble’s law is evidence that:
A. the speed of light is increasing
B. the universe is expanding
C. the Earth is slowing down in its orbit
D. galaxies have rotational motion
E. none of the above
1183. Tau Ceti is considered a special star because
a) It revolves around Polaris in a perfect circle.
b) It is inside our solar system.
c) It is in a constellation all by itself.
d) Some astronomers think that it might have a solar system like ours.
1184. Earth slowly wobbles on its axis, causing the constellation to
a) Change shape slightly from year to year.
b) Gradually converge on Polaris.
c) Shift position in the sky slightly from century to century.
d) Follow the plane of the ecliptic.
1185. People in the time Julius Caesar saw constellations whose individual shapes
were
a) The same as they are now.
b) Somewhat different than they are now.
c) Almost nothing like they are now.
d) Nothing at all like they are now.
1186. The constellation Andromeda is well known because it contains
a) The brightest star in the whole sky.
b) All the planets at one time or another.
c) The north celestial pole.
d) A spectacular spiral galaxy.
1187. Orion is a landmark constellation in the northern hemisphere
a) All year round.
b) During the winter.
c) Only north of about 45 degrees latitude.
187
 d) Because it contains the brightest two stars in the sky.
1188. The rotation period of the sun
a) Is synchronized with the orbit of the Earth.
b) Is shorter at the equator than at the poles.
c) Varies in an 11-year cycle.
d) Is not defined; the sun does not rotate at all.
1189. Which of the following theories concerning the Moon’s formation is most
popular?
a) The moon condensed from the ejecta of thousands of earthly volcanoes
many million years ago.
b) The moon spun off Earth because of centrifugal force when Earth was in its
early, molten state.
c) The moon and Earth formed as double planet.
d) All three of the preceding theories have been disproven conclusively.
1190. Eclipses would be more common if the moon’s orbit
a) Were more tilted with respect to the plane of the ecliptic
b) Were in the plane of the ecliptic.
c) Had a longer period.
d) Were more elongated.
1191. The northern lights owe their existence to
a) Earth’s magnetic field.
b) Charged particles ejected from the sun
c) Solar flares
d) More than one of the above.
1192. In an annular eclipse of the sun,
a) The path of totality is narrow.
b) The sun’s disk is totally covered for only a few minutes.
c) The sun’s disk is never totally covered.
d) The moon takes on a copper-colored glow.
1193. Earth is
a) About 81 times more massive than the moon.
b) About 10 times the diameter of the moon.
c) Always in full phase as seen from the moon.
d) The same angular diameter as the sun, as seen from the moon.
1194. The composite tidal pull of the sun and the moon is greatest when
a) Earth, the sun and the moon are at the vertices of an equilateral triangle.
b) Earth, the sun and the moon all lie along the same straight line
c) Earth, the sun and the moon are at the vertices of aright triangle.
d) The question is irrelevant; the composite tidal pull of the sun and the moon
never varies.
1195. On a particular day, the moon sets around high noon. What phase is the moon in
or near?
a) New
b) First quarter
188
 c) Full
d) Last quarter
1196. A solar flare can produce
a) A disturbance in earth’s magnet field.
b) Lunar libration.
c) A tidal solar eclipse.
d) A dark spot on the sun.
e) Reddish glow on the moon.
1197. Longitudes are not assigned values greater than 180 degrees east or 180
degrees west because
a) Doing so would result in a redundant set on coordinates.
b) The king of England forbade it in 17th century, and no one has contradicted him
since.
c) Galileo saw that such a thing could not possibly occur.
d) 180 degrees represents a full circle.
e) Oh, but they are! Latitudes are commonly assigned values greater than 180
degrees east or 180 degrees west.
1198. The moon’s diameter is
a) About 1/81 that of the earth.
b) About 1/30 that of the earth.
c) About ¼ that of the earth
d) About the same as that of the earth.
e) Variable, depending on its size.
1199. A galaxy is 100 million pc distant. Approximately how far is this in light-years?
a) 326 million
b) 30 million
c) 100 million
d) It can’t be calculated from this information.
1200. Mention any two differences between astronomical telescope and compound
microscope.
1201. A light ray falls perpendicular to one of the faces of a glass prism of 60° and refractive
index 1.5. find
a) The angle of incidence on the second face inside the prism by using a ray diagram.
b) The angle of emergence. What do you conclude?

189
1202. If the sun were from a distance of 32.6 light- years, what would be its apparent
visual magnitude?
a) +4.8
b) -4.4
c) 0
d) It can’t be calculated from this information.
1203. Red-dwarf stars
a) Burn out more quickly than blue giants.
b) Live for about the same length of time as blue giants.
c) Live much longer than blue giants.
d) Never get hot enough for nuclear fusion to occur.
1204. Stars in the extreme lower right portion of the H-R diagram are:
a) Red giants
b) Red dwarfs
c) White dwarfs
d) Supernovae
1205. When an object’s spectrum is red-shifted, this means that the spectral lines
appear
a) Smeared out
b) Invisible
c) Longer in wavelength than normal
d) Shorter in wavelength than normal
1206. A metal deficient star consists almost entirely of
a) All elements except the metals
b) Helium
c) Gas and dust
d) Hydrogen and helium
1207. It is believed that someday the sun’s core will
a) Explode
b) Shrink because its hydrogen fuel has been spent
c) Collapse down to a geometric point.
d) Condense into liquid water and then freeze into water ice.
1208. The absolute visual magnitude of a star is the same as the apparent magnitude at
s distance of
a) 3.26 pc
b) 10.0 pc
c) 32.6 pc
d) 100.0 pc
1209. As a black hole pulls more and more matter in,
a) The Schwarzschild radius increases
b) The Schwarzschild radius increases
c) The density of matter increases

190
 d) It gets darker and
darker.
1210. With a cluster of galaxies,
a) All the galaxies are of the same type.
b) All galaxies spin in the same direction
c) All galaxies are approximately the same size.
d) None of the above.
1211. A certain galaxy is observed, and its distance is estimated at 10Mpc. We see
this object as it appeared approximately
a) 10,000 years ago.
b) 10 million years ago
c) 32,600 years ago
d) 32.6 million years ago.
1212. The spiral nebulae are large, distant congregations of stars rather than smaller
objects within the Milky Way. In order to determine this, astronomers observed
a) The colors of the gases comprising them.
b) The radio emission produced by them
c) The rate at which they spin.
d) The brightness and periods of Cepheid variables within them.
1213. A football-shaped galaxy might be classified as
a) S0
b) S2
c) E5
d) SBc
1214. The main sequence on the Hertzsprung-Russel diagram is
a) Where the red giants are found.
b) Where the white dwarfs are found
c) Where the sun is found.
d) Where stars are before hydrogen fusion begins
e) Where stars end up after they have burned out.
1215. Stars seem to twinkle when observed from Earth’s surface because
a) Dispersion of the starlight occurs in outer space
b) Turbulence in Earth’s atmosphere refracts the starlight
c) The stars actually are changing in brilliance
d) The solar wind refracts the starlight
e) The geomagnetic field bends the starlight.
1216. A black dwarf is
a) A small planet with low albedo.
b) A star in the process of formation, still dark because nuclear fusion has not yet
begun.
c) Any small, dark object in the cosmos.
d) An object whose gravitation is o intense that not even light can escape.
e) A white dwarf that has burned out and cooled down.

191
1217. The heliopause is
a) The region in space where the solar wind gives way to the general circulation of
interstellar gas and dust.
b) The region in the sun’s corona beyond which the temperature begins to drop.
c) The region inside the sun where radiation gives away to the convection
d) The time in the future at which the sun’s hydrogen fuel will be all used up.
e) The time in the future at which the sun’s nuclear reactions will all cease.
1218. In the Milky Way galaxy, the solar system is believed to be located
a) In one of the arms halfway from the centre of the disk to the edge.
b) High above the plane of the galaxy’s disk.
c) In a black hole at the centre
d) Between spiral arms at the edge of the galaxy’s disk.
e) In the central bulge but not within the central black hole itself.
1219. A distance of 1 Mpc is
a) 0.001 parsec
b) 1,000 parsecs
c) 1 million parsecs
d) 1 billion parsecs
1220. Globular clusters are believed to be
a) Galaxies far from the Milky Way.
b) Comprised of young stars.
c) Comprised of old stars.
d) Approaching us at high speed
e) Receding from us at high speed
1221. At the time of the first-quarter moon,
a) The earth is directly between the sun and the moon
b) The moon is directly between the sun and earth
c) The sun is directly between Earth and the moon
d) The moon is 90 angular degrees from sun in the sky.
e) The moon is 180 angular degrees from the sun in the sky.
1222. The brightest star in the sky, other than the sun, is
a) Procyon
b) Deneb
c) Rigel
d) Sirius
e) Aldebaran.
1223. Azimuth is essentially the same thing as
a) Celestial longitude
b) Right ascension
c) Compass bearing
d) Elevation
e) Declination
1224. The sun derives its energy primary from

192
 a) Hydrogen combustion.
b) Hydrogen fusion.
c) Matter-antimatter reactions.
d) Nuclear reactions
e) Gravitational pressure.
1225. An average star as our sun will, it is believed, eventually end up as
a) A blue dwarf
b) A black hole
c) A proton star
d) A pulsar
e) A black dwarf
1226. The kuiper belt contains an abundance of
a) Radiation from Earth’s magnetic field
b) Radiation from Jupiter’s magnetic field
c) High-speed particles from the sun.
d) Comets
e) Meteors and asteroids
1227. The diameter of the Earth is roughly the same as the diameter of
a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Mars
d) Jupiter
e) Ganymede
1228. In an H-R diagram, most stars are found along in the
a) Bell-shaded curve
b) Median curve
c) Main sequence
d) Lower-left corner
e) Upper-light corner
1229. Which of the following planets has no moons?
a) Mercury
b) Mars
c) Uranus
d) Neptune
e) Pluto
1230. Which of the following planets lacks a ring system ‘
a) Jupiter
b) Saturn
c) Uranus
d) Neptune
1231. Meteors are always found
a) In solar orbit between Mars and Jupiter
b) In solar orbit

193
 c) In Earth orbit
d) In lunar orbit
1232. Earth is closest to the sun during the month of
a) January
b) May
c) July
d) September
e) November
1233. The brightest star in the entire sky is
a) Canis Minor
b) Andromeda
c) Polaris
d) Rigel
e) Sirius
1234. Suppose two stars of the same apparent brightness b are also believed to be the same
size. The spectrum of one star peaks at 750 nm whereas that of the other peaks at 450
nm. Use Wien’s law and the Stefan-Boltzmann equation to estimate their relative
distances from us.
1235. The Redshift of a galaxy indicates a recession velocity of 1850 km/s How far away is it?
1236. If a galaxy is traveling away from us at 1.5% of the speed of light, roughly how far away
is it?
1237. A galaxy is moving away from Earth. The “blue” hydrogen line at 434 nm emitted from
the galaxy is measured on Earth to be 455 nm. (a) How fast is the galaxy moving? (b)
How far is it from Earth based on Hubble’s law?
1238. Estimate the wavelength shift for the 656.3-nm line in the Balmer series of hydrogen
emitted from a galaxy whose distance from us is
a) 7.0×106 l y ,
b) 7.0×107 ly .
1239. If an absorption line of calcium is normally found at a wavelength of 393.4 nm in a
laboratory gas, and you measure it to be at 423.4 nm in the spectrum of a galaxy, what
is the approximate distance to the galaxy?
1240. What is the speed of a galaxy with z=0.060?
1241. What would be the Redshift parameter z for a galaxy traveling away from us at
v=0.075c.
1242. Estimate the distance d from the Earth to a galaxy whose Redshift parameter z=1
1243. Estimate the speed of a galaxy, and its distance from us, if the wavelength for the
hydrogen line at 434 nm is measured on Earth as being 610 nm. Suppose that three
main-sequence stars could undergo the three changes represented by the three arrows,
A, B, and C, in the H–R diagram of Fig. For each case, describe the changes in
temperature, intrinsic luminosity, and size

194
1244. Two stars, whose spectra peak at 660 nm and 480 nm, respectively, both lie on the
main sequence. Use Wien’s law, the Stefan-Boltzmann equation, and the H–R
diagram to estimate the ratio of their diameters.
1245. Explain what the 2.7-K cosmic microwave background radiation is. Where does it
come from? Why is its temperature now so low?

UNIT 22: PARTICLE PHYSICS

1246. Particles that make up the family of Hadrons are:

A. baryons and mesons C. Protons and electrons
B. Leptons and baryons D. Muons and Leptons
1247. The first antiparticle found was the
A. Positron C. Quark
B. Hyperons D. baryon
1248. Elementary particles which are made up of one quark and one anti-quark are
called
A. AProtons C. baryons.
B. neutrons D. mesons E. Leptons
1249. The Sub-atomic particle made up of 3 quarks are called
A. Leptons C. kaon
B. Pion D. Baryons
1250. Particles that interact by the strong force are called:
A. Leptons C. Muons
B. hadrons D. Electrons
1251. Antimatter as a form of_ of sub atomic particles
a) Electron b) proton c) matter d) antiparticle e) none of them is correct
195
1252. The positron is called the antiparticle of electron, because it
A. Has opposite charge and Annihilates with an electron
B. Has the same mass
C. Collides with an electron
D. Annihilates with an electron
1253. Beta particles are
A. Neutrons
B. Protons
C. Electrons
D. Thermal neutrons
1254. If gravity is the weakest force, why is it the one we notice most?
A. Our bodies are not sensitive to the other forces.
B. The other forces act only within atoms and therefore have no effect on us.
C. Gravity may be “very weak” but always attractive, and the Earth has
enormous mass. The strong
and weak nuclear forces have very short range. The electromagnetic force
has a long range, but most matter is electrically neutral.
D. At long distances, the gravitational force is actually stronger than the other
forces.
E. The other forces act only on elementary particles, not on objects our size.
1255. Which of the following particles is stable?
A. Neutron
B. Proton
C. Pion
D. Muon
E. Kaon
1256. The stability of the proton is predicted by the laws of conservation of energy
and conservation of:
A. momentum
B. angular momentum
C. baryon number
D. lepton number
E. strangeness
1257. When a kaon decays via the strong interaction the products must include a:
A. baryon
B. lepton
C. strange particle
D. electron
E. neutrino
1258. A particle with spin angular momentum is called a:
A. lepton
B. hadron

196
 C. fermion
D. boson
E. electron
1259. A particle with spin angular momentum is called a:
A. lepton
B. hadron
C. fermion
D. boson
E. electron
1260. An example of a fermion is a:
A. photon
B. Pion
C. neutrino
D. kaon
E. none of these
1261. An example of a fermion is a:
A. photon
B. Pion
C. neutrino
D. kaon
E. none of these
1262. All particles with spin angular momentum :
A. interact via the strong force
B. travel at the speed of light
C. obey the Pauli exclusion principle
D. have non-zero rest mass
E. are charged
1263. All leptons interact with each other via the:
A. strong force
B. weak force
C. electromagnetic force
D. strange force
E. none of these
1264. An electron participates in:
A. the strong force only
B. the strong and weak forces only
C. the electromagnetic and gravitational forces only
D. the electromagnetic, gravitational, and weak forces only
E. the electromagnetic, gravitational, and strong forces only
1265. Which of the following particles has a lepton number of zero?
A. e+
B. µ+
C. νe
D. νµ
197
 E. p
1266. Which of the following particles has a lepton number of +1?
A. e+
B. µ+
C. µ-
D. νe
E. p
1267. π+ represents a Pion (a meson), µ- represents a Muon (a lepton), νe represents
an electron neutrino (a lepton), νµ and p represents a proton represents a
Muon neutrino (a lepton). Which of the following decays might occur?

1268. A particle can decay to particles with greater total rest mass:
A. only if antiparticles are produced
B. only if photons are also produced
C. only if neutrinos are also produced
D. only if the original particle has kinetic energy
E. never
1269. The interaction π- + p → π- + Σ+ violates the principle of conservation of:
A. baryon number
B. lepton number
C. strangeness
D. angular momentum
E. none of these
1270. The interaction π- + p → K- + Σ+ violates the principle of conservation of:
A. baryon number
B. lepton number
C. strangeness
D. angular momentum
E. none of these
1271. A neutral Muon cannot decay into two neutrinos. Of the following
conservation laws, which would be violated if it did?
A. Energy
B. Baryon number
C. Charge
D. Angular momentum
E. None of the above
1272. A positron cannot decay into three neutrinos. Of the following conservation
laws, which would be violated if it did?
A. Energy
B. Baryon number
198
 C. Lepton number
D. Linear momentum
E. Angular momentum
1273. Two particles interact to produce only photons, with the original particles
disappearing. The particles must have been:
A. mesons
B. strange particles
C. strongly interacting
D. leptons
E. a particle, antiparticle pair
1274. Two baryons interact to produce pions only, the original baryons
disappearing. One of the baryons must have been:
A. a proton
B. an omega minus
C. a sigma
D. an antiparticle
E. none of these
1275. A baryon with strangeness -1 decays via the strong interaction into two
particles, one of which is a baryon with strangeness 0. The other might be:
A. a baryon with strangeness 0
B. a baryon with strangeness +1
C. a meson with strangeness -1
D. a meson with strangeness +1
E. a meson with strangeness 0
1276. A baryon with strangeness 0 decays via the strong interaction into two
particles, one of which is a baryon with strangeness +1. The other might be:
A. a baryon with strangeness 0
B. a baryon with strangeness +1
C. a baryon with strangeness -1
D. a meson with strangeness +1
E. a meson with strangeness -1
1277. In order of increasing strength the four basic interactions are:
A. gravitational, weak, electromagnetic, and strong
B. gravitational, electromagnetic, weak, and strong
C. weak, gravitational, electromagnetic, and strong
D. weak, electromagnetic, gravitational, and strong
E. weak, electromagnetic, strong, and gravitational
1278. The two basic interactions that have finite ranges are:
A. electromagnetic and gravitational
B. electromagnetic and strong
C. electromagnetic and weak
D. gravitational and weak
E. weak and strong
1279. A certain process produces baryons that decay with a lifetime of 4 × 10-24 s.
199
 The decay is a result of:
A. the gravitational interaction
B. the weak interaction
C. the electromagnetic interaction
D. the strong interaction
E. some combination of the above

1280. A certain process produces mesons that decay with a lifetime of 6 × 10-10 s.
The decay is a result of:
A. the gravitational interaction
B. the weak interaction
C. the electromagnetic interaction
D. the strong interaction
E. some combination of the above
1281. Compared to the lifetimes of particles that decay via the weak interaction,
the lifetimes of particles that decay via the strong interaction are:
A. 10-12 times as long
B. 10-23 times as long
C. 1024 times as long
D. 1012 times as long
E. about the same
1282. Strangeness is conserved in:
A. all particle decays
B. no particle decays
C. all weak particle decays
D. all strong particle decays
E. some strong particle decays
1283. Different types of neutrinos can be distinguished from each other by:
A. the directions of their spins
B. the leptons with which they interact
C. the baryons with which they interact
D. the number of photons that accompany them
E. their baryon numbers
1284. All known quarks have:
A. charges that are multiples of e and integer baryon numbers
B. charges that are multiples of e and baryon numbers that are either +1/3 or -1/3
C. charges that are multiples of e/3 and integer baryon numbers
D. charges that are multiples of e/3 and baryon numbers that are either +1/3 or -1/3
E. charges that are multiples of 2e/3 and baryon numbers that are either +1/3 or -1/3
1285. The baryon number of a quark is:
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1/3
D. 2/3
200
 E. 1
1286. Quarks are the constituents of:
A. all particles
B. all leptons
C. all strongly interacting particles
D. only strange particles
E. only mesons
1287. Any meson is a combination of:
A. three quarks
B. two quarks and an antiquark
C. one quark and two antiquarks
D. one quark and one antiquark
E. two quarks
1288. Any baryon is a combination of:
A. three quarks
B. two quarks and an antiquark
C. one quark and two antiquarks
D. one quark and one antiquark
E. two quarks
1289. The quark content of a proton is:
A. uuu
B. uud
C. udd
D. ddd
E. uds
1290. The quark content of a π+ meson is:

1291. In terms of quark content a beta decay can be written:

1292. The up quark u has charge +2e/3 and strangeness 0; the down quark d has
charge -e/3 and strangeness 0; the strange quark s has charge -e/3 and
strangeness -1. This means there can be no baryon with:
A. charge 0 and strangeness 0
B. charge -e and strangeness -1
C. charge +e and strangeness -1
D. charge +e and strangeness -2
201
 E. charge 0 and strangeness +2
1293. The up quark u has charge +2e/3 and strangeness 0; the down quark d has
charge -e/3 and strangeness 0; the strange quark s has charge -e/3 and
strangeness -1. This means there can be no meson with:
A. charge 0 and strangeness -1
B. charge -e and strangeness -1
C. charge +e and strangeness -1
D. charge +e and strangeness +1
E. charge 0 and strangeness +1
1294. Messenger particles of the electromagnetic interaction are called:
A. gluons
B. photons
C. W and Z
D. gravitons
E. pions
1295. Messenger particles of the strong interaction are called:
A. gluons
B. photons
C. W and Z
D. gravitons
E. pions
1296. Messenger particles of the weak interaction are called:
A. gluons
B. photons
C. W and Z
D. gravitons
E. pions
1297. A down quark can be changed into an up quark (plus other particles perhaps) by
A. the gravitational interaction
B. the electromagnetic interaction
C. the weak interaction
D. the strong interaction
E. none of these
1298. The color theory explains why quarks:
A. form particles in pairs and triplets
B. have charge that is a multiple of e/3
C. have spin
D. have mass
E. none of the above
1299. Particles that are unaffected by strong nuclear force are
A. protons C. neutrons
B. leptons D. bosons
1300. Particle which explains about mass of matter is called

202
 A. Higgs boson C. protons
B. Leptons D. neutrons
1301. A conservation law that is not universal but applies only to certain kinds of
interactions is conservation of:
A. lepton number D. charge
B. baryon number E. strangeness
C. spin
1302. In quantum electrodynamics (QED), electromagnetic forces are mediated by
A. the interaction of electrons. D. the weak nuclear interaction.
B. hadrons. E. the exchange of virtual photons.
C. action at a distance
1303. Conservation laws that describe events involving the elementary
particles include the conservation of
A. energy. D. electric charge.
B. All of these are correct. E. baryon and lepton numbers.
C. linear and angular momentum
1304. The conservation law violated by the reaction p 0 e is the conservation of
A. charge. D. lepton number and baryon number.
B. energy. E. angular momentum.
C. linear momentum.
1305. Particles that participate in the strong nuclear interaction are called
A. neutrinos D. electrons
B. hadrons E. photons
C. leptons
1306. Each hadron consists of a proper combination of a few elementary components
called
A. photons. C. quarks.
B. vector bosons. D. meson-baryon pairs.
1307. Which of the following is not conserved in a nuclear reaction?
A. nucleon number. C. charge
B. baryon number. D. All of the above are conserved.
1308. The first antiparticle found was the
A. positron. C. quark.
B. hyperon. D. baryon.
1309. The proton, neutron, electron, and the photon are called
A. secondary particles. C. basic particles.
B. fundamental particles. D. initial particles.
1310. Particles that are bound by the strong force are called
A. leptons. C. muons.
B. hadrons. D. electrons

203
1311. At the present time, the elementary particles are considered to be the
A. photons and baryons. C. baryons and quarks.
B. Leptons, quarks and bosons D. baryons and leptons.
1312. The electron and Muon are both
A. hadrons. C. baryons.
B. leptons. D. mesons.
1313. Particles that make up the family of hadrons are
A. baryons and mesons. C. protons and electrons.
B. leptons and baryons. D. muons and leptons
1314. A proton is made up of
A. one up quark and two down quarks C. two up quarks and a down quark
B. an up quark and down antiquark D. strange quark and an anti-strange quark

1315. Is it possible for a particle to be both:

A. A lepton and a baryon? C. A meson and a quark?
B. A baryon and hadron? D. A hadron and a lepton?
1316. Particles that are un affected by strong nuclear force are
A. protons C. neutrons
B. leptons D. bosons
1317. Particle which explains about mass of matter is called
A. Higgs boson C. leptons
B. Protons D. neutrons
1318. Which one of the following sets of color combinations is added in
color vision in TV’?
A. Red, green and blue C. White. red and yellow
B. Orange, back and violet D. Yellow, green and blue
1319. A proton is made up of
A. one up quark and two down quarks C. two up quarks and a down quark
B. an up quark and down antiquark D. strange quark and an anti-strange quark
1320. What are the color composition of
a. Gluons
b. Meson
c. Baryon
1321. Color is carried by:
A. only quarks
B. only leptons
C. only quarks and leptons
D. only quarks and gluons
E. only photons and gluons
1322. Describe the types and the characteristics of the quarks as well as their interaction
properties
1323. Discuss and explain the law of conservation of baryon numbers and give an
204
 example.
1324. Discuss whether the following reaction obeys the conservation of baryon
number:

1325. Identify the particle corresponding to each of the following quark combinations:

1326.

1327. Using the elementary particles, Complete the following sentences

(i) One family of bosons of spin 1 called which act as ‘force carriers’
in the theory
(ii) Two fermions of spin 1/2 called and
1328.
a) What do you understand by antiparticle?
b) State Pauli’s exclusion principle?
c) Why Pauli’s exclusion Principle is known as exclusion?
1329. (A) Making massive particles: Relatively massive particles like the proton and
neutron are made of combinations of three quarks.
i. What is the charge on the combination uuu?
ii. What is the charge on the combination uud?
iii. What is the charge on the combination udd?
iv. What is the charge on the combination ddd?
(B) There are four compound particles here
i. Which combination has the right charge to be a proton?
205
 ii. Which combination has the right charge to be a neutron?
iii. There is a particle called the ∆− which has a charge of –1e. Which quark
combination could be the∆− ?
iv. There is a particle called the ∆++ which has a charge of + 2e. Which
quark combination could be the ∆−
v. A neutron can be changed to a proton if one quark changes ‘flavour’. What
change is needed? What charge must be carried away if this happens?

1330. Other, lighter ‘middle-weight’ particles called mesons can be made from pairs of
quarks. But they have to be made from a special combination: a quark and an
antiquark. There are now four particles to play with: Up quark u: charge +2/3 e,
Down quark d: charge –1/3 e, Antiup quark u : charge –2/3
e. Antidown quark d : charge + 1/3 e

1331.

1332.

206
1333. Distinguish between
a) fermions and bosons
b) leptons and hadrons
c) mesons and baryon number

1334. Which of the four interactions (strong, electromagnetic, weak, and

gravitational) does an electron, neutrino, proton take part in?
1335. Name the four fundamental interaction and the particles that mediate each
interaction.
1336. The idea of uncertainty is used in many contexts; social, economic and scientific.
People often talk about uncertain times, and when you perform a measurement
you should always estimate the uncertainty (sometimes called the error). In physics
the Heisenberg Uncertainty relation has a very specific meaning.
a. Write down the Heisenberg uncertainty relation for position and momentum.
b. Explain its physical significance.
c. Does the Heisenberg uncertainty principle need to be considered
when calculating the uncertainties in a typical first year physics
experiment? Why or why not?
d. Discuss the following statement: the uncertainty principle places a limit on
the accuracy with which a measurement can be made. Do you agree or
disagree, and why?
1337. An electron is confined within a region of width 5 × 10-11 (Roughly the Bohr radius)
a) Estimate the minimum uncertainty in the component of the electron’s momentum.
b) What is the kinetic energy of an electron with this magnitude of
momentum? Express your answer in both joules and electron volts.
1338.
a) The process in which a particle and antiparticle unite annihilate each
other and produce one or more photons is called………
b) What happens when matter and antimatter collide?
c) Compare matter and antimatter
1339. According to the classification of elementary particles by mass. Complete
the following figure

207
1340.
a)

ii. State two differences between a proton and a positron

iii. A narrow beam of protons and positrons travelling at the same speed enters
a
uniform magnetic field. The path of the positrons through the field is shown
in
Fig. Sketch on this figure the path you would expect the protons to take.

iv. Explain why protons take a different path to that of the positrons.
1341. A positron with kinetic energy 2.2 MeV and an electron at rest annihilate each other.
Calculate the average energy of each of the two gamma photons produced as a result of
this annihilation.
1342. Describe briefly the following particle-terms terms: -meson, Muon, neutrino,
antiparticle, hadrons and lepton.
1343. Label the illustration below and analyze the interaction between its particles.

208
1344. Define and describe the following key concept:
a) Color charge:
b) Gluons
c) Quantum chromodynamics

UNIT 23: CLIMATE CHANGE AND GREENHOUSE

EFFECT
1345. The figure below shows a simplified model of the energy balance for the
Earth

1346. Which of the following has high albedo?

a) Snow-covered field

b) They have the same albedo

c) some information is missing for this question

d) asphalt parking lot

1347. List down other processes (besides absorption) that affect radiation reaching the earth’s
surface.

1348. What is the black body or an ideal radiator?

A. the body which transmits all the radiations incident upon it
B. the body which absorbs all the radiations incident upon it
C. the body which reflects all the radiations incident upon it
D. none of the above
209
1349. As a radiator, the black body emits the maximum possible thermal radiation
A. at the constant single wavelength C. at all Possible wavelengths
B. at a maximum wavelength D. none of the above
1350. Which of the following sentences are correct for black body
(i) The black body is a hypothetical body
(ii) The black body is a real body
(iii) The black body is used as a standard of perfection against which the radiation
characteristics of other bodies are compared
A. sentences (i) and (ii) C. sentences (ii) and (iii)
B. sentences (i) and (iii) D. all the sentences (i), (ii) and (iii)
1351. Estimate the temperature of the surface of our sun, given that the Sun emits
light whose peak intensity occurs in the visible spectrum at around 500 nm.
1352. The element of an electric heater has a temperature 1150K. Calculate the
frequency at which the wavelength of the radiation emitted by the element is
maximum.
1353. When an iron bar is heated at high temperatures it becomes orange-red
and its colour progressively shifts towards white and blue as it is heated further.
Explain this observation.
1354. Assuming that the sun is a sphere of radius 7×108m, at a temperature of
6000K, estimate the temperature of the surface of mars if its distance from
the sun is 2.28×1011m.
1355. The total output of the sun is 4.0×1026W. Given that the mass of the sun is
1.97×1030kg and its density is 1.4×103 kgm-3, estimate the temperature of the sun, state
any assumptions made ( 𝜎 =5.7×10-8Wm-2K-4)
1356. The flux of solar energy incident on Earth’s surface is 1.36×10-8Wm-2.
Calculate;
(a) the temperature of the surface of the sun
(b)the total power emitted by the sun.
1357. The emissivity (e) can be defined as the ratio of
A. emissive power of real body to the emissive power of black body
B. emissive power of black body to the emissive power of real body
C. reflectivity of real body to emissive power of black body
D. reflectivity of black body to emissive power of real body.
1358. Consider two planets. Planet A is completely covered by an ocean, and has
an overall average albedo of 20 %. Planet B is blanketed by clouds, and has
an overall average albedo of 70 %. Which planet reflects more sunlight back
into space?
A. Planet A B. Planet B
C. the two planets reflect the same amount of light
D. none of the planets reflect light
1359. How hot is a metal being welded if it radiates most strongly at 440 nm?
1360. Estimate the peak wavelength for radiation from
(a) ice at 0oC (b) a floodlamp at 3500K, (c) helium at 4K,
(d) for the universe at T = 2.727 K, assuming black body emission. In what region of the
EM spectrum is each?
1361.
(a) What is the temperature if the peak of a black body spectrum is at 18.0 nm?
(b)What is the wavelength at the peak of a blackbody spectrum if the body is at a
temperature of 2000K?
1362. The balance between the amount of energy entering and exiting the Earth

210
 system is known as
A. Radiative balance B. Paleoclimatology
B. Black body radiation D. Solar radiation
1363. What is a black body or an ideal radiator?
A. the body which transmits all the radiations incident upon it.
B. the body which absorbs all the radiations incident upon it.
C. the body which reflects all the radiations incident upon it
D. none of the above
1364. As a radiator, the black body emits the maximum possible thermal radiation
A. at the constant single wavelength
B. at a maximum wavelength
C. at all possible wavelengths
D. none of the above
1365. The long-term storage of carbon dioxide at the surface of the earth is termed as
A. Black body radiation C. Solar radiation management
B. Thermal expansion D. Sequestration
1366. The balance between the amount of energy entering and exiting the Earth system is
known as
A. Radiative balance C. Paleoclimatology
B. Black body Radiation D. Solar radiation
1367. The following are examples of green gases except
A. Carbon dioxide C Methane
B. Nitrous oxide D. Oxygen
1368. The filament of an electric bulb has length of 0.5 m and a diameter of 6x10-5 m. The
power rating of the lamp is 60 W Assuming the radiation from the filament is
equivalent to 80% that of a perfect black body radiator at the same temperature. The
temperature of the filament is (Stefan Constant is 5.7x10-8 Wm-2K-4):
A. 1933 K C. 64433333.3 K
B. 796178.3 K D.60 K
1369.
a) State Wien’s displacement law and its practical implications
b) Use the graph indicated below to answer the questions that follow

211
 i) What does the graph explain?
ii) Explain the spectrum that is found between temperatures of 4000 and 7000 K
iii) Why do you think the three curves have different shapes
1370. Discuss any 4 main reasons that brings about variation of sun’s Intensity
1371.
a) Calculate the albedo of a surface that receives 15000 Wm-2 and reflects 15 KW.m-2
Comment on the surface of that body
b) Discuss some of the scientific factors that affect planets Albedo

1372. Which term is used to mean a process that acts to amplify or reduce direct
warming or cooling effects of the Earth?
A. Climate change B. Weather
C. Climate feedback D. Climate model

UNIT 24: APPLICATION OF PHYSICS IN AGRICULTURE

1373. What is the structure and composition of the atmosphere?
1374. How does solar energy influence the atmosphere?
1375. How does the atmosphere interact with land and oceans?
1376. Outline two most important layers that are essential to all life on earth?
1377. Explain the physical properties of Soil and explain clearly how each impact
agricultural activities?
1378. It is known that earth’s atmosphere has a series of layers, each with its own
specific characteristics and properties? The following is the appropriate layer
where we live.
212
 A. Thermosphere C. Stratosphere
B. Troposphere D. Mesosphere
1379. Agrophysics is defined as
A. The branch of science dealing with study of matter and energy and their
mutual relation.
B. The branch of science dealing with communication devices to measure and
collect information
about physical conditions in agricultural and natural environments.
C. The branch of natural sciences dealing with the application of physics in
agriculture and
environment.
D. None of these
1380. Mechanical weathering is caused by
A. Ice wedging, pressure release, plant root growth, and abrasion can all cause
mechanical weathering
B. Mechanical weathering is not formed as the results from changes in
temperature and pressure surrounding rocks.
C. Mechanical weathering is formed as the result of human activities.
D. Both (A) and (C).
E. All statements (A), (B), and (C).

1381. Which of the following is the role of the water vapour in the atmosphere?
A. Reducing temperature in the atmosphere
B. Radiative balance and the hydrological cycle
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
1382. Write the missing word or words on the space before each number. For items 1-9

1383. If the statement is true, write true. If it is false, change the underlined word
or words to make the statement true.
A. a) Water vapor is very important in predicting weather.
B. Temperature is a reason why atmosphere is more dense close to the earth’s
surface.
C. Agrophysics plays an important role in the limitation of hazards to
agricultural objects and environment.
D. Energy is transferred between the earth surface and planet in a variety of
213
 ways.
E. As the temperature increases in the atmosphere, the minimum radiation
occurs at short wavelengths.
1384. How is weathering different from erosion?
1385. How can increasing the surface area of rock hasten or speed up the process of
weathering.
1386. State four factors that can speed up the process of weathering.
1387. Briefly explain the physical properties of soil.

UNIT 25: EARTHQUAKES, LANDSLIDES, TSUNAMI,

FLOODS AND CYCLONES.
1388. What do you understand by the term Earthquake?
1389. Outline the impact do earthquakes human activities and infrastructure?
1390. How nuclear weapons testing cause earthquakes?
1391. Matching column I with column II

1392. Explain the cause of cyclone.

1393. What will happen when the pressure keeps on increasing and the temperature
gets higher inside the ground?
A. the volume decreases and heat energy decreases
B. the volume increases and heat energy decreases
C. the volume increases and heat energy increases
D. the volume and heat energy remain constant.
1394. The intensity of an earthquake is measured with a

214
 A. Barometer C. Hydrometer
B. Polygraph D. Seismograph
1395. Richter scale is used to measure
A. Temperature of bodies C. Intensity of wind
B. Magnitude of earthquake D. Intensity of earthquake
1396. Copy and complete the sentence below and use your prior knowledge to fill in.
A. Calm weather and soft winds is associated with….….
B. the main difference between a cyclone and an anticyclone is that cyclone has a
………… and anticyclone has ………….
C. The winds blow from the center to the periphery. This is the …………. of
anticyclone.
1397. Why, during earthquakes, tall building and small building are shaken
differently? Explain your answer.
1398. Discuss the impact of floods on human activities and suggest ways of
minimizing their negative impact?

UNIT 26: DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY

1399. Imagine that all the numbers on the time axis in Figure below are doubled, so that 100
becomes 200 and 200 becomes 400. Calculate the frequency of the carrier wave and the
frequency of the signal.

215
1400. Draw an amplitude-modulated wave with a carrier wave of frequency 1.0 MHz and a
signal frequency of 100 kHz. The time axis on your graph should be from 0 to 10 µs. On
your graph, mark the time for one complete wave of the signal and for one complete
wave of the carrier.
1401. Explain how an amplitude-modulated wave changes when the input signal:
a increases in loudness
b increases in frequency.
1402. A carrier wave of frequency 300 kHz and amplitude 5.0 V is frequency modulated by a
sinusoidal signal of frequency 6 kHz and amplitude 2.0 V. The frequency deviation of
the carrier wave is 30 kHz V-1. Describe the modulated carrier wave produced.
1403. Explain how a frequency-modulated wave changes, when the input signal:
a increases in loudness
b increases in frequency.
1404. A signal of frequency 16 kHz and amplitude 3.0 V is used for frequency modulation of
a carrier wave of frequency 500 kHz. The frequency deviation of the carrier wave is 8.0
kHz V-1.
a) What is the maximum frequency shift produced?
b) What is the maximum frequency of the
modulated carrier wave?
c) How many times per second does the modulated carrier wave increase and
decrease in frequency?
1405. Figure below shows the frequency spectrum of the signal from a radio transmitter. A
carrier and two sideband frequencies are present.

a) What is the name of the type of modulation that produces two sideband
frequencies?
b) What is the carrier frequency?
c) What is the frequency of the signal used to modulate the carrier wave?
d) What is the bandwidth of the transmitted signal?
1406.

a) Calculate the number of separate AM radio stations of bandwidth 9 kHz that are
possible in the frequency spectrum available for AM between 530 and 1700 kHz.
b) Suggest why FM stations of bandwidth 200 kHz are not used for this range of
frequencies.

1407.
a) Is the greater bandwidth available on FM an

216
 advantage or a disadvantage?
b) FM is used largely in towns and AM in rural
settings. Suggest why
1408. Convert the following decimal numbers into
binary numbers:
a) 14
b) 16
1409. Convert the following binary numbers into
decimal numbers:
a) 1111
b) 0001011
1410. The diagrams in Figure below show a digital signal at the start of a long cable
and at the end of the cable. Both diagrams are drawn to the
same horizontal scale (time) and vertical scale (voltage).

a) Explain what feature of the top diagram shows that the signal is digital.
b) State and explain two advantages of digital transmission over analogue transmission of
data.
c) State and explain two reasons why the signal at the end of the long cable differs from
the signal at the start.
1411. A signal has an input power 5.0 mW and an output power of 0.000 2 mW. What is the
attenuation in dB?
1412. The attenuation of a 6.0 mW signal is 30 dB. What is the final power?
1413. What is the signal-to-noise ratio when the signal and the noise have equal power?
1414. A signal of 1.0 mW passes through an amplifier of gain 30 dB and then along a cable
where the attenuation is 18 dB.
a) What is the overall gain of the signal in dB?
b) What is the output power at the end of the cable?
1415. A television signal can be transmitted using a coaxial cable to pass an analogue signal,
using a space wave in the UHF band, using a sky wave linked to a satellite or using fibre
optic cable and the internet.
a) Explain what is meant by the terms in bold type.
b) State approximate values for the frequencies and wavelengths used by the carrier
wave in each case.
c) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of each of these four methods.
1416. The output of a microphone is an analogue signal with a bandwidth of 3.4 kHz.
a) Explain what is meant by
i. Analogue
ii. Bandwidth.

217
 b) Compare the bandwidth of the microphone with the typical range of frequencies
that can be heard by the human ear. Comment on the difference between the two
values
1417. An LED provides input power of 1.26 mW to an optic fibre of length 60 m. The output at
the other end of the fibre is 1.12 mW.
a) Calculate the attenuation in the optic fibre.
b) Calculate the attenuation per unit length in the optic fibre.
1418. State advantages of transmission of signals in digital form rather than
analogue form.
1419. Differentiate between digital and analogue systems of communication.
1420. Suggest disadvantages of digital technology today.
1421. The figure below shows inputs X, Y, Z to a system of logic gates. Draw a truth
table showing the outputs P and Q and the final output R.

1422. Design a circuit that gives the truth table shown below.

1423. The figure below shows two NAND gates followed by a NOR gate.
Construct a truth table showing the outputs P, Q and R. The system is
equivalent to one gate G with inputs X, Y, Z and output R. What is G.

218
1424. The combined truth tables for four logic gates A, B, C, D are given below.
State what kind of gate each one is.

1425. Give reasons why the transmitted wave is modulated, rather than transmitting the
information signal as a radio wave.
1426. Why is it possible for three people in the same house to listen to different radio stations
at the same time?
1427. FM is used largely in towns and AM in rural settings. Suggest why AM covers a larger
area than FM.
1428. Is the greater bandwidth available on FM an advantage or disadvantage?
1429. Draw a block diagram for a simple radio receiver and explain briefly how it
operates.
1430. Draw a block diagram for an AM radio transmitter and explain briefly how it
operates.
1431. With the aid of sketches, differentiate between amplitude and frequency
modulation.
1432. State the advantages of F.M over A.M in radio transmission.
1433. What are the limitations of FM transmission?
1434. In transmission, the range of short waves are between
A. Radio wave and microwave
B. X-rays and gamma rays
219
 C. infrared and visible light
D. infrared and ultraviolet
1435. Where Short waves can be used?
1436. Explain what is meant by Medium wave (MW)
1437. In………transmission, the carrier signal modulated so that its amplitude varies
with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal.
a) AM
b) PM
c) FM
d) None of the above?
1438. What is meant by carrier wave in telecommunication?
1439. What is the application of a carrier wave in a telecommunication system?
1440. State the classifications of oscillators according to Frequency Band of the Signals
1441. Explain what is mean by Oscillator
1442. The figure is about transmission of signals in telecommunication. Study it
carefully and label it.

1443. What is meant by an antenna in telecommunication system?

1444. State and explain at least two types of antenna.
1445. What is the importance of power amplifier in simple radio transmitter
1446. What do you understand by the following terms
A. Analog message
B. Digital message
1447. Draw a circuit diagram of a simple radio receiver
1448. One of the following is used for satellite communication
A. Radio waves C. Microwaves
B. Light waves D. All of these
1449. Amplitude –modulated radio waves are received by a tuned radio-frequency ( trf)
Receiver. The
receiver has a suitable detector circuit in order to
A. Amplifier the carrier waves
B. Amplifier the audio-frequencies carried
C. Rectifier the carrier waves
220
 D. detect the carrier waves
E. Transfer the audio-frequencies to the radio-frequency amplifier
1450. What do you understand by the following terms?
A. Amplifier
B. Modulator
1451. Draw a labeled diagram showing the elements of radio transmitter
1452. Explain briefly positive impact of telecommunication in development of a
country like Rwanda.
1453. What is a fibre optic cable? Explain the principle of fiber optics.
1454. State six advantages that optical cables have over copper cables.
1455. Draw a block diagram for an optical fibre communication system.
1456. Explain the term attenuation and state its cause in optic fibres.
1457. Distinguish between
a) Multimode and monomode fibres,
b) Step-index and graded-index fibres
1458. Explain what is meant by a step index optic fibre.
1459. Briefly explain why optical fiber communication uses infrared radiation
rather than visible light.
1460. Which of the following is not true of attenuation?
A. It is the loss of optical power as light travels down a fibre
B. It may be induced by scattering and absorbing microbending
C. It is measured in nanometers
1461. What is bandwidth of an optical fibre?
A. A measure of the information-carrying capacity of an optical fibre.
B. The side-to-side measurement of a wedding ring.
C. A term used to express the total loss of an optical system.
1462. What purpose does the core of an optical fiber serve?
A. It protects the fiber from the environment
B. It carries light through the fibre
C. It separates the cladding and the coating.
1463. Operation of optical fiber is based on:
A. Total internal reflection
B. Total internal refraction
C. Snell’s law
D. Einstein’s theory of reality
E. None of the above
1464. When a beam of light passes through an optical fiber
A. Rays are continually reflected at the outside (cladding) of the fiber
B. Some of the rays are refracted from the core to the cladding
C. The bright beam coming out of the fiber is due to the high refractive index of
the core
221
 D. The bright beam coming out of the fiber is due to the total internal reflection
at the core-cladding interface
E. All the rays of light entering the fiber are totally reflected even at very small
angles of incidence.
1465. A laser is used for sending a signal along a mono mode fiber because
A. The light produced is faster than from any other source of light
B. The laser has a very narrow band of wavelengths
C. The core has a low refractive index to laser light
D. The signal is clearer if the cladding has a high refractive index
E. The electrical signal can be transferred quickly using a laser.
1466. Given that the refractive indices of air and water are 1 and 1.33, respectively,
find the critical angle.
1467. The frequency of a ray of light is 6.0x1014 Hz and the speed of light in air is 3x108 m/s.
the refractive index of the glass is 1.5.
1468. The frequency of a ray of light is 6.0x1014 Hz and the speed of light in air is 3x108 m/s.
the refractive index of the glass is 1.5.
a) Explain the meaning of refracting index
b) A ray of light has an angle of incidence of 30° on a block of quartz and an angle of
refraction of 20°. What is the index of refraction of the quartz?
1469. A beam of light passes from water into polyethylene (n = 1.5).If the θi = 57.5°
what is the angle of refraction?
1470. Fiber optics is best known for its application in long-distance
telecommunications.
a) True
b) False

1471. Choose the basic types of optical fiber:

A. Single-mode E. Multi-mode
B. X-mode F. A and C
C. Microwave-mode G. B and D
D. Graded-index mode H. A and E
1472. Single-mode fiber has the advantage of greater bandwidth capability. It has the
disadvantage of:
A. Being harder to bend
B. Smaller mechanical tolerances in connectors and splices
C. Being difficult to couple light into
D. B and C
E. None of the above
1473. Describe with the aid of simple ray diagrams:
A. The multimode step index fiber;
B. The single-mode step index fiber.
C. Compare the advantages and disadvantages of these two types of fiber for use
as an optical channel.
1474. True or False:
a) One of the reasons fiber optics hasn’t been used in more areas has been the
improvement in copper cable such as twisted pair.
222
 b) Connectors and splices add light loss to a system or link
c) With current long-distance fiber optic systems using wavelength-division
multiplexing, the use of fiber amplifiers has become almost mandatory.
d) Fiber optics has extraordinary opportunities for future applications because
of its immense bandwidth.
e) The replacement of copper wiring harnesses with fiber optic cabling will increase the
weight of an aircraft.

1475.
a) What do we mean by attenuation in optical fibers?
b) State two ways in which energy is lost in optical fibers.
c) If a fiber loses 5% of its signal strength per kilometer, how much of its
strength would be left after 20 km?

1476. Circle the three basic components in a fiber optic communications system.
A. Telescope E. Maser fiber
B. Transmitter F. Optical fiber
C. Receiver G. Alternator
D. Surveillance satellites
1477. Information (data) is transmitted over optical fiber by means of:
A. Light D. Acoustic waves
B. Radio waves E. None of the above
C. Cosmic rays
1478. The basic unit of digital modulation is:
A. Zero D. A and B
B. One E. None of the above
C. Two
1479. List two advantages of using optical fiber
1480.
a) An endoscope uses coherent and non-coherent fiber bundle
i. State the use of the coherent bundle and describe its arrangement of
fibers.
ii. State the use of the non-coherent bundle and describe its arrangement
of fibers.

b) Each fiber has a core surrounded by cladding. Calculate the critical angle at
the core-cladding interface.
Refractive index of core = 1.52
Refractive index of cladding = 1
1481.
a) Fig. below shows a ray of light travelling through an individual fiber
consisting of cladding and a core. One part has a refractive index of 1.485
and the other has a refractive index of 1.511.

223
 i. State which part of the fiber has the higher refractive index and explain why.
ii. Calculate the critical angle for this fiber.
b) The figure below shows the cross-section through a clad optical fiber which
has a core of refractive index 1.50.

Complete the graph below to show how the refractive index changes with the radial
distance along the line ABCD in the figure above.
1482.
a) What do we mean by attenuation in optical fibers?
b) State two ways in which energy is lost
along the length of an optical fiber. (c) If a fiber loses 5% signal strength per
km, how much strength would be left after 20 km?
1483. Estimate the length of time it would take a fiber optic system to carry a signal
from the UK to the USA under the Atlantic. (Take c = 2 x 108 m/s in the cable.
Estimate the length of the cable under the sea.)
a) Estimate the length of time it would take a microwave signal to travel from
the UK to the USA a satellite Enk. (Geosynchronous satellites orbit at a height
of about 36 000 Ian above the Earth's surface)
b) Which would give less delay in a telephone conversation

UNIT 27: RADIATION AND MEDICINE, MEDICAL

IMAGING.
224
1484. What are the risks associated with radiation from diagnostic X-ray imaging and
nuclear medicine procedures?
1485. Which of the following would reduce the cell damage due to radiation for a lab
technician who works with radioactive isotopes in a hospital or lab?
A. Increase the worker’s distance from the radiation source.
B. Decrease the time the worker is exposed to the radiation.
C. Use shielding to reduce the amount of radiation that strikes the worker.
D. Have the worker wear a radiation badge when working with the radioactive
isotopes.
E. All of the above.
1486. If the same dose of each type of radiation was provided over the same amount
of time, which type
would be most harmful?
A. X-rays. C.  rays.
B.  rays. D.  particles
1487. Which of the following is true?
A. Any amount of radiation is harmful to living tissue.
B. Radiation is a natural part of the environment.
C. All forms of radiation will penetrate deep into living tissue.
D. None of the above is true.
1488. Which radiation induces the most biological damage for a given amount of
energy deposited in
tissue?
A. Alpha particles. C. Beta radiation.
B. Gamma radiation. D. All do the same damage for the same deposited energy.
1489. Which would produce the most energy in a single reaction?
A. The fission reaction associated with uranium-235.
B. The fusion reaction of the Sun (two hydrogen nuclei fused to one helium
nucleus).
C. Both (A) and (B) are about the same.
D. Need more information.
1490. The fuel necessary for fusion-produced energy could be derived from
A. water. D. superconductors.
B. uranium. E. helium
C. sunlight.
1491. What is the difference between absorbed dose and effective dose? What are the
SI units for each?
1492. Radiation is sometimes used to sterilize medical supplies and even food. Explain
how it works.
1493. How might radioactive tracers be used to find a leak in a pipe?
1494. Explain that there are situations in which we may or may not have control over
our exposure to ionizing radiation.
225
 a) When do we not have control over our exposure to radiation?
b) When do we have control over our exposure to radiation?
c) Why might we want to limit our exposure to radiation when possible?
1495. Does exposure to heavy ions at the level that would occur during deep-space
missions of long duration pose a risk to the integrity and function of the central
nervous system?
1496. Radiation protection of ionizing radiation from radiation sources is particularly
difficult. Give a reason for this difficulty.
1497.

1498.
a) State and explain one situation, in each case, where the following diagnostic
techniques would be used.
i. X-rays
ii. Ultrasound

226
 iii. Nuclear magnetic resonance
b) Apart from health hazards, explain why different means of diagnosis are
needed.
1499. Beam energies of about 30 keV are used for diagnostic X-rays. This results in
good contrast on the radiogram because the most important attenuation
mechanism is not simple scattering.
a) Outline the most important attenuation mechanism that is taking place at
this energy.
b) Explain what is meant by:
i. Attenuation coefficient
ii. Half-value thickness.
c) The attenuation coefficient at 30 keV varies with the atomic number Z as
attenuation coefficient ∝ Z3.The data given below list average values of the
atomic number Z for different biological materials.

i. Calculate the ratio:

iii. Suggest why X-rays of 30 keV energy are useful for diagnosing a broken bone, but
a different technique must be used for examining a fat-muscle boundary.

1500. State and explain which imaging technique is normally used:

i. To detect a broken bone
ii.
To examine the growth of a fetus.
1501. State and explain the use of:
a) A barium meal in X-ray diagnosis
b) A gel on the skin during ultrasound imaging
c) A non-uniform magnetic field superimposed on a much larger constant
field in diagnosis using nuclear magnetic resonance.
1502.
a) State a typical value for the frequency of ultrasound used in medical scanning.
b) State one advantage and one disadvantage of using ultrasound as opposed to using
X-rays in medical diagnosis.
1503. What are instruments used to view the esophagus, stomach and upper small
227
 intestine of human body?
1504. Explain the function of endoscope.
1505. Compare and contrast colonoscopy and gastroscopy
1506. Which are included in the system components of gamma rays camera for
producing image
of the body?
a. Collimator
b. Scintillation
c. Attenuation
d. All of the above
1507. Which of the following modalities does not use a form of ionizing radiation?
a. Radiography.
b. Computed tomography.
c. Sonography.
d. Magnetic resonance imaging
1508. Hazards not associated with modern medical imaging include:
a) Anaphylactoid reactions to iodinated contrast media
b) Complication of some Gd-based contrast media in patients with renal failure.
c) Imaging of the breast improves a physician's ability to detect small tumors
d) Radiation effects and effective dose Radiography
1509. Medical imaging systems are often evaluated the characteristics which are
directly related
to:
a. Image noise.
b. Image blurring.
c. Image unsharpness.
d. Visibility of anatomical detail
1510. Risks associated with radionuclide imaging are:
a) Generally poor resolution compared with other imaging modalities.
b) Rarely receiving an overdose of chemical injected in the vein of the body.
c) High capital and running costs
d) None of them.

1511. Write the missing word or words on the space before each number.
A. The term ………………….. is often used to refer to X-ray CT.
B. Gastroscopy is a procedure that enables your surgeon to examine the lining of
the………….
C. The most sensitive imaging test available for the diagnosis of acute cerebral
infarction
is …………...
D. Array of …………………. to transform the flashes into amplified electrical
pulses inside the body.
E. Transducers used are different depending on ………. of a patient, one has 5
MHz and other 3.5 MHz

228
 F. Hydrogen nuclei (also called protons) behave as small …………… that align
themselves parallel to the field.
G. In ………………….. there are appearance three words: nuclear, magnetic and
resonance.
H. Examination can be ………………… is one of the disadvantages of MRI.
1512. Answer by True if it is True and by False if it is False
a) The use of gamma radiation to form images following the injection of various
radiopharmaceuticals is known as Scintigraphy.
b) This decision to scan or not to scan a normal pregnancy must be made only
by the photographer. There are universally accepted guidelines at present.
c) Tissue in the body absorbs and scatters ultrasound in the same ways. Lower
frequencies are more rapidly absorbed (attenuated) than higher frequencies.
d) Upper endoscopy uses light and camera to view the esophagus, stomach, and
upper part of the small intestine.
e) Ultrasound is both generated and detected through high frequency
oscillations in piezoelectric crystals so there is ionizing radiation exposure
associated with ultrasound imaging.
f) What are the advantages of MRI in clinical practice?
1513. Is ultrasound safe? Explain.
1514. What areas of the body can be imaged by ultrasound?
1515. Why is ultrasound used in pregnancy?
1516. Explain the advantage of CT scan
1517. In mammography exams, is the breast compression necessary? Why

UNIT 28: MISCELLANEOUS PROBLEMS

1518. Define photoelectric effect and distinguish it from thermionic emission
1519. Given two metal plates, a battery, a galvanometer, and a UV radiation source,
describe an experiment you could use to demonstrate photoelectric effect.
1520. Explain the factors affecting photoelectric effect.
1521.
a) Distinguish between X-ray production and photoelectric effect.
b) Describe how Einstein’s photoelectric equation accounts for the phenomenon of
photoelectric emission.
1522.
a) Sketch the Hertzsprung –Russell diagram. On the diagram locate the following:
pre-main sequence stars, main sequence stars, red giants, white dwarfs.
b) Changes occur in a star similar to the sun as it evolves from the main sequence to
the next stage of its life cycle. Describe the changes taking place in
i. Core composition and size, and
ii. Surface temperature, size, brightness, and type of star.
c) Name three possible final equilibrium states for a star at the end of its life and
describe any initial stellar mass dependencies of these states.
229
 d) How do the spectra observed from very massive stars compare with
spectrum from the sun? Explain.

1523. Which type of radiation from radioactive materials?

a) Has a positive charge?
b) Is the most penetrating?
c) Is easily deflected by a magnetic field?
d) Consists of waves?
e) Causes the most intense ionization?
f) Has the shortest range in air?
g) Has a negative charge?
h) Is not deflected by an electric field?
1524.

1525. State
a) Two similarities and
b) Two differences between the electromagnetic force and gravitational force.
The following red shifts in the wavelength of a particular spectral line were
observed in the spectra of radiation received from some receding
galaxies. Which would have come from the galaxy most distant from
earth?
a) 5nm
b) 50nm
c) 70 nm
d) 0.1 nm
1526. Match each of the following physical quantity with its meaning
Physical quantity Meaning
1.Power a)The capacity for doing work
2.Energy b)Any interaction that can
change the motion of an object
3.Work c)The rate at which work is done
4.Potential energy d)Energy transfer that occurs
when an object is moved over a
distance by a force applied in the
direction of the displacement
5.Force e)Energy possessed by an object
because of its position
1527.
a) Complete the following statement with appropriate term related to static
equilibrium. Write only the answer in your answer booklet
230
 i. A filter funnel that is balanced upright on a table on its narrow tip is in
……………………………………..equilibrium
ii. A filter funnel lying horizontally on its side at rest on a table is in
……………………………………….equilibrium
iii. Another type of equilibrium not mentioned above is …
…………………………………equilibrium
b) If a walking stick with a mass of 300 g can be balanced by placing a mass M of
120 g at a distance L of 30 cm from the fulcrum. Determine the position of
the centre of gravity of the stick with respect to the fulcrum.
1528.
a) What is compound microscope used for?
b)
i. What is myopia/nearsightedness?
ii. How is myopia corrected?
b) The focal lengths of objective lens and eyepiece lens of a telescope are
respectively fo=100 cm and fe =8cm. What is the telescope magnification
when the eye is relaxed?
1529. A gas has a volume of 0.02 m3 at a pressure of 2x105 Pa and a temperature of
27°C.It is heated at constant pressure until its volume increases to 0.03 m 3.
a) Find the work done by this expanding gas.
b)
i. Convert 27° C to Kelvin.
ii. What is the new temperature of the gas?
1530.
a) Enumerate any two factors on which the acceleration due to gravity depends
b) The mean distance of Earth from the Sun is 149.6 x106 km and the mean
distance of Mercury from the Sun is 57.9 x106 km. The period of the Earth’s
revolution is 1 year. Use Kepler’s law of planetary motion to determine the
period of Mercury’s revolution.
1531.
a) What is meant by the term energy degradation?
b) b) Explain energy transformation in hydropower plant.
1532.
a) What do you understand by the following terms?
i. Fossil fuel
ii. Renewable energy
b) Identify the energy resources used in Rwanda related to
Fossil fuels

1533.
a) The thermodynamic process in which the temperature remains constant is
adiabatic.

231
 b) The device illustrated in the diagram below (Figure 1) is a heat engine.

c) The efficiency of the heat engine illustrated above is 20%.

1534. A ball of mass m attached to a string is moving anticlockwise (in a direction
opposite to the direction in which hands of a clock moves) in a vertical circle of
radius r, with a constant speed v. Assume that a time t’, the string is cut exactly
at the point where the ball is at the top of its motion (the top of the circle)
a) Draw a diagram to better visualize the motion of the ball immediately after
the string is cut.
b) Why does the ball follow the direction shown in the diagram?
c) What is the expression of the ball’s acceleration at time t’
1535. Why are applications of physics very important to Agriculture?
1536.
a) Describe energy degradation/ dilapidation which occur when a 60 W electric
light bulb is in use.
b) How does a hydroelectric power work?
1537.
a) What do you understand by the following terms used when describing
LASER?
i. Stimulated emission of radiation
ii. Population inversion.
b) Explain why LASER is considered as highly monochromatic and coherent
source of light.
1538. A terrestrial telescope is formed by three convex lenses namely: objective L1
erecting lens L2 and an eyepiece L3. The focal lengths of these lenses are f1, f2 and

232
 f3 respectively. The rays of light from an object at infinity are oblique to the
common principal axis. L1 forms from an object at infinity, an intermediate
image I1.
This is at a distance 2f2 in front of L2. The image I2 given by L2 from I1 acts the
object for the eyepiece in the usual way. The eyepiece forms a final image at
infinity.
a) Use a ray diagram to find the final image given by the terrestrial telescope
described above.
b) According to the above functioning of terrestrial telescope, what is the
disadvantage of this arrangement of lenses?
1539.

1540.
a) The mean distance of the Earth from the sun is 149.6× 106 km and the mean
distance of Mercury from the sun is 57.9×106 km. The period of the Earth’s
revolution is 1 year. Prove that the period of Mercury’s revolution is 0.24
years.
b) Suppose that the gravitational force between two massive spheres is 100N. If
the distance between the spheres is doubled, what will be the force between
the masses? Explain your answer.
1541.
a)
i. Provide any one type of optical fibres.
ii. What causes optical signal attenuation during the signal propagation
through optical fibres?
b) Explain how the light is guided through the core in the structure of the
optical fibres.
1542.
233
 a) What do you understand by the term forced oscillations? You may
explain this term in terms of applied forces and energy transfer.
b) Interpret the following diagram (figure 2)

1543. A frequency of 2.4× 1015 Hz is used on magnesium with work function of 3.7 eV.
a) What is the energy transferred by each photon in eV?
b) Show that the photoelectric effect will occur or not.
1544.
a) Loudness and pitch are some characteristics of a musical note. Specify the
physical property of a sound wave on which each characteristic provided
depends.
b) A particular organ pipe has a length of 72cm, and it is open at both ends.
Assume that the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s
i. Find the wavelength of the fundamental stationary waves in this pipe.
ii. What is the corresponding fundamental frequency?
1545. An electric field is created in a region of space between two metal plates as
shown below (figure 3)

234
 a) Copy the diagram and draw the electric field lines of force between the
plates.
b) How do you know if the electric field created between the plates above is
uniform or not?
c) Determine the magnitude of the electric field created between the plates.
1546. Show that:
a) The Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving at 5.31× 106 m/s
is 𝜆 =1.37× 10-10 m.
b) The momentum of a photon which has a wavelength of 400nm is P = 1.65 ×
10-27kgm/s
1547. Analyze the following electrical circuit

Apply the Kirchhoff’s laws to find

a) The current I3
b) The potential difference U
1548.
a) Considering that the Earth has always warmed and cooled naturally, people
believe that human actions are mainly responsible for present day
accelerated global warming. Evaluate the validity of this statement.
b) Predict the impact of global warming on the environment and on life in
general.
1549. In January 2018, Rwanda Utilities Regulatory authority (RURA) wrote a
document entitled “Managing the change from analog to terrestrial digital
broadcast in RWANDA”. Briefly, this document was meant to provide a basis for
the migration process from analog to digital broadcasting in Rwanda. Discuss
the benefits to Rwanda for shifting from the analog system of communication to
digital system of communication.
1550.
235
a) The following arrows show how far the different types of nuclear radiations
penetrate different materials.

Identify the radiations A, B and C.

b) The table below describes the nuclei of four atoms.

iv. All the nuclei are unstable and have a different half-life between each other.
Explain the term “half-life”
v. The graph below shows how the activity in Becquerel (Bq) of a sample of
radon-220 changes with time in seconds.

236
 Use the graph to find the half life of radon-220
c) When a plutonium-238 decays, it emits an alpha particle a gamma particle.
i. Complete the decay equation below for plutonium-238

ii. Identify the element X.

d) The mass of proton mp is 1.007825 a.m.u and the mass of a neutron mn is equal
to 1.008665 a.m.u. The mass of 146𝐶 is 14.003242 a.m.u and 1a.m.u=931.5 MeV.
iii. Mass defect of 146𝐶
iv. The binding energy of 146𝐶
v. The binding energy per nucleon of 146𝐶
1551. Study the following Hertzsprung-Russel diagrams (a) and (b) and answer the
questions that follow.

237
 (a)

(b)

a) Using the HR diagram (figure a) given above, indicate a letter (A, B, C or D)

which represents each of the following regions
i. Main sequence stars
ii. White dwarfs
iii. Red giants
iv. Red super giants
238
 b) What do you understand by the following terms which are indicated on both HR
diagrams
i. Luminosity of a star
ii. Absolute magnitude of a star
c) What two factors affect a star’s luminosity as indicated on HR diagrams.
d) Using data from both HR diagrams:
i. Identify the spectral class of the sun.
ii. Provide one example of a main sequence star.
iii. Estimate the luminosity of Capella in terms of that of the sun. Note
Lsun=1
iv. Why does Capella have greater surface area than the sun?
v. Estimate the surface temperature of the star called Vega.
vi. The intrinsic luminosity of the sun is equal to Ls=3.83×1026 W. What is the
luminosity of Vega in W?
1552.
a) Identify and explain the types of static equilibrium.
b) A bar 1m long has five forces acting on it as shown in the following diagram
drawn not to scale.

The magnitudes of the 5 forces are F1=4N, F2=8N, F3=5N, F4=6N, F5=7N
i. What are the conditions required for static equilibrium to occur?
ii. What is the magnitude and location of the single force required to produce
static equilibrium of the bar? Take A as reference point.
iii. The weight and thickness of the bar are insignificant
Hint. Follow these steps to answer this question
Find the sum of the components of all forces along x-axis
Find the sum of the components of all forces along y-axis
Find the components 𝐹′𝑥 and 𝐹′𝑦 of the force ⃗⃗⃗
𝐹′ required to produce static
equilibrium. Find the sum of components of the torques of forces along x-
axis and y-axis with respect to point A.
239
1553. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit at a certain height above the earth’s
surface. It takes 5.26 × 103 s to complete one revolution with a centripetal
acceleration equal to 9.32 m s–2. Te height of the satellite orbit above the earth’s
surface is (Radius of earth = 6.37 × 106 m)

1554. A synchronous satellite goes around the earth once in every 24 h. What is the
radius of orbit of the synchronous satellite in terms of the earth’s radius?
(Given mass of the earth, Me = 5.98 × 1024 kg, radius of the earth, Re = 6.37 × 106
m, universal constant of gravitation, G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2).
(a) 2.4 Re (b) 3.6 Re (c) 4.8 Re (d) 6.6 Re
1555. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass
and radius a. The gravitational potential at a point situated at distance 𝑎/2 from
the centre, will be

1556. In the solar system, sun is in the focus of system for sun-earth binding system.
Ten the binding energy for the system will be (Given that the radius of the earth
orbit round the sun is 1.5 × 1011 m, mass of the earth is 6 × 1024 kg, mass of the
sun is 1030 kg)
(a) 2.7 × 1033 J (b) 1.3 × 1033 J
(c) 2.7 × 1030 J (d) 1.3 × 1030 J
1557. A Saturn year is 29.5 times the earth year. How far is the Saturn from the sun if
the earth is 1.5 × 108 km away from the sun?
(a) 1.2 × 109 km (b) 1.3 × 109 km
(c) 1.4 × 109 km (d) 1.5 × 109 km
1558. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving in the same orbit. Te mass of S1 is
four times the mass of
S2. Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Te potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal.
b) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed.
c) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal
d) Te time period of S1 is four times that of S2.
1559.
a) Differentiate between the inner planets and outer planets of the solar system
basing on their characteristics
b) List the inner planets (called terrestrial planets) of the solar system
c) Identify the outer planets (called Jovian planets or gas giants) of the solar
system
240
1560.
a) State Kirchhoff’s laws
b) You are provided with two resistors of 3 Ω and 6 Ω, a dry cell of
electromotive force 4 V and connecting wires. The internal resistance of the
dry cell is negligible. Use these electrical components to draw a labeled
electric circuit comprising the two resistors in parallel.
c) Use Kirchhoff’s laws to determine the electric currents I, I1,I2 through each
resistor in the circuit below.

1561.
a) A point object is moving along a circular path of radius 5 cm at the linear
speed of 200 π cm/minute. What is the period of this point in seconds?
b) A car of mass 2000 kg is turning around a circular path of radius 50 m at the
constant speed of 36 km/h
i. Express the speed in m/s
ii. What is the centripetal force acting on this car?
c) An object is launched at a velocity of 20 m/s in the direction making an angle
of 25° with the horizontal. Acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. Find
i. The time required to reach the maximum height.
ii. The maximum height reached by the object
iii. The total flight time (between launch and touching the ground of the
object.
1562.
a) Two point charges Q =8 µC and Q’= -5 µC are separated by distance r=10 cm.
The constant k=9x109 Nm2C-2
i. Calculate the magnitude of electrostatic force that the charge exerts on
Q’.
ii. Draw not to scale, the direction of the force that each point charge
experiences.
iii. Are these forces attractive or repulsive?
b) Two parallel plates separated by a distance of 1cm have a potential
difference of 20 V between them. The plates are held in horizontal position
with the negative plate above the positive plate as shown below.

241
 An electron is released from rest in the upper plate. The mass and charge of
the electron are respectively 9.11x10-31kg and 1.6 x10-19C.
i. What is the electric field strength created between the plates?
ii. What is the electric force exerted on the electron? The weight of the
electron is negligible.
iii. What is the acceleration of the electron?
iv. Copy the diagram and add the direction of the electric field lines
between the plates and the direction of the electric force exerted on the
electron.
1563.
a) Use true or false to answer the following sub questions.
i. The speed of light in vacuum is 3x108 m/s and the refractive index of
water is 4/3.
ii. Therefore the speed of light in water is 2.25 x108 m/s. Concave lens is
converging lens.
iii. The image formed when you use convex lens as a magnifying glass is
real
iv. The power of a converging lens whose focal length is 8 cm is 12.5
D(dioptres)
b) A 1cm object AB is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens
of focal length 2 cm. Use ray diagram to find graphically (Don’t use
calculations)
i. The image position when the object is at a distance 4 cm from the lens.
ii. Image size
iii. Properties of the image
c) A light ray fall perpendicular to one of the face of a glass prism of angle 60°
and refractive index 1.5 as shown below.

242
 i. Copy the diagram and show how the light ray passes through the face
AB.
ii. Determine the angle of incidence at the second face BC inside the
prism.
iii. Determine the critical angle for this prism.
iv. What will happen to the incident ray at the face AB? Explain

1564. Multiple choice questions. For each sub question, select only the best answer
from the choices offered as a list.
a) According to Bohr’s atomic model, when electron jumps from its
orbit to another orbit, energy is
1. Emitted
2. Absorbed
3.1 and 2
4. remains constant
b) According to Rutherford’s atomic model on whole atom.
Atom
1. Is neutral
2. Has negative charge
3. has positive charge
4.is heavy
c) Cathode rays are composed of
1. Neutral particles
2. Positively charged particles
3. Negatively charged particles
4. photons
d) A black body is one that
1. Transmit all incident radiations
2. Absorbs all incident radiations
3. Reflects all incident radiations
4. absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident radiations
e) What is Compton shift?
1. Shift in charges
2. Shift in amplitude
3. Shift in radiation
4. shift in wavelength
1565.
a) What do you understand by the terms below as used in Physics?
i. Relativity
ii. Special relativity
b) State two postulates of special relativity.
1566.
a) List the types of damped oscillations.
b)
243
 i. How does damping force affect the amplitude of oscillations?
ii. When does resonance of a system occur?
1567.
a) How does nuclear power plant function?
b) Does nuclear power plant produce greenhouse gases? Explain
1568.
a) What do AM, FM and PM stand for as the acronyms used in radio
communication?
b) Identify any three advantages of cellular network.
1569.
a) What are two factors on which the gravitational potential at a point due to
the gravitational field of the Earth depends?
b) Copy the following diagram and determine graphically the direction of the
electric field E at point M due to the charges q and -2q placed respectively at
point A and B. M is a point on the perpendicular bisector of AB. Charge q is
positive.

1570.
a) State Newton’s law of gravitation
b) Prove that escape velocity for Earth is 1.119x104 m/s. Mass of Earth is 5.98
x1024kg, its radius is 6.37x106 m and the gravitational constant G=6.67x10-11 N
m2/kg2
1571.
a) What are the conditions for interference of light to occur?
b) What should be the path difference between two light waves in order to
produce
i. Destructive interference?
ii. Constructive interference?

244
 c) A light falls on two slits 3 cm apart that are at a distance of 1m from the
screen. If they produce the sixth order bright line 1mm from the centre of
the pattern, what is the wavelength of the light used?
1572.
a) State three layers of the sun’s atmosphere.
b) Do the colors of the star have any significance? Explain
c) Two stars, A of luminosity 9000 and B of luminosity 90 (both relative to the
sun) appear equally bright from Earth.
i. Write the relation between the brightness, distance and the luminosity
of a star.
ii. How much further away is A than B (in relative terms)
1573.
a)
i. What is meant by the term mechanical wave?
ii. What do you understand by the term stationary wave?
b) A progressive wave is represented by the equation y= 0.6 sin 4𝜋(40𝑡 + 𝑥)where
x and y are in metres and t is second.
Find
i. The amplitude of the wave.
ii. The angular frequency
iii. The frequency of the wave
iv. The wave number
v. The wavelength of the wave
vi. The direction of the wave movement
1574. In Rutherford’s planetary model of the atom, what keeps the electrons from
flying off into space?
1575. Does a light bulb at a temperature of 2500 K produce as white a light as the
Sun at 600K? Explain.
1576.
1577. Differentiate between analog signal and digital signal
1578.
a) A body of mass m executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy,
the kinetic energy and the total energy are measured as function of
displacement y.
i. What do you understand by the term simple harmonic motion?
ii. Write the expression as function of y of each of the following physical
quantities related to the body executing simple harmonic motion.

1) Kinetic energy of the body

2) Potential energy of the body
3) The total energy of the system
b) Which of the following statements is true or false?
i. The kinetic energy is maximum when y =0
245
 ii. The total energy is zero when y=0
iii. The restoring force is maximum at the extreme positions.
iv. The potential energy is maximum when y is maximum
v. The acceleration of the body is maximum at the equilibrium position.
1579.
a) How can you connect two dry cells
i. In series?
ii. In parallel?

b) Five cells each with an emf of 2V and internal resistance of 0.5 Ω are
connected in parallel. Find
i. The emf of the resultant battery
ii. The internal resistance of the resultant battery
c) Use Kirchhoff’s laws to find the electric currents I1, I2, I3 through each
resistor in the following circuit.

1580.

a) The following phenomena prove that light can behave like either a particle or a
wave: Reflection of light, refraction of light, interference of light, photoelectric
effect, Compton Effect.
i. What phenomena best prove that light is a particle instead of wave?
ii. What phenomena best prove that light is a wave instead of particle?
b) When electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 350 nm falls on a metal,
the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is 1.20 eV.
i. What is the frequency of this electromagnetic radiation? The speed of
light in vacuum is 3x108 m/s
ii. Determine the work function for this metal in joules then in electron
volts.

1581. The radius of star A is three times that of star B and its temperature is double
that of B. Find the ratio of the
luminosity of A to that of B.

246
1582. The stars in the question above have the same apparent brightness when viewed
from the Earth.
Calculate the ratio of their distances.
1583. The apparent brightness of a star is 6.4 × 10-8W m-2. Its distance is 15ly. Find its
luminosity.
1584. A star has half the Sun’s surface temperature and 400 times its luminosity.
Estimate the ratio of the star’s
radius to that of the Sun. The symbol Rʘ stands for the radius of the Sun.
1585. Determine the distance to Procyon, which has a parallax of 0.285″.
1586. The distance to Epsilon Eridani is 10.8ly. Calculate its parallax angle.
1587. Betelgeuse has an angular diameter of 0.016″ (that is, the angle subtended by the
star’s diameter at the eye of an observer) and a parallax of 0.0067″.
c) Determine the distance of Betelgeuse from the Earth.
d) What is its radius in terms of the Sun’s radius?
1588. A sunspot near the centre of the Sun is found to subtend an angle of 4.0 arc
seconds. Find the
diameter of the sunspot.
1589. The resolution of the Hubble Space Telescope is about 0.05 arc seconds.
Estimate the diameter
of the smallest object on the Moon that can be resolved by the telescope. The
Earth-moon
distance is D= 3.8 × 108m.
1590. The Sun is at a distance of 28 000 ly from the centre of the Milky Way and
revolves around the
galactic centre with a period of about 211 million years. Estimate from this
information the orbital
speed of the Sun and the total mass of the Milky Way.

1591. The light from a star a distance of 70ly away is received on Earth with an
apparent brightness of 3.0 × 10-8W m-2. Calculate the luminosity of the star.

1592. The luminosity of a star is 4.5 × 1028W and its distance from the Earth is 88 ly.
Calculate the
apparent brightness of the star.

1593. The apparent brightness of a star is 8.4 × 10-10W m-2 and its luminosity is 6.2 ×
1032W. Calculate the distance to the star in light years.

1594. Two stars have the same size but one has a temperature that is four times
larger.

a) Estimate how much more energy

per second the hotter star radiates.

b) The apparent brightness of the two

247
 stars is the same; determine the
ratio of the distance
of the cooler star to that of the
hotter star.

1595. Two stars are the same distance from the Earth and their apparent brightnesses
are 9.0 × 10-12W m-2 (star A) and 3.0 × 10-13W m-2 (star B). Calculate the ratio of the
luminosity of star A to that of star B.

1596. Take the surface temperature of our Sun to be 6000 K and its luminosity to be
3.9 × 1026W.
Find, in terms of the solar radius, the radius of a star with:

b. Temperature 4000 K and luminosity 5.2 × 1028W

c. Temperature 9250 K and luminosity 4.7 × 1027W.

1597. Two stars have the same luminosity. Star A has a surface temperature of 5000 K
and star B a
surface temperature of 10 000 K.

i. Suggest which is the larger star and by how much.

ii. The apparent brightness of A is double that of B; calculate the ratio of the
distance of A
to that of B.

1598. Star A has apparent brightness 8.0 × 10-13W m-2 and its distance is 120 ly. Star B
has apparent
brightness 2.0 × 10-15W m-2 and its distance is 150ly. The two stars have the same
size.
Calculate the ratio of the temperature of star A to that of star B.

1599. Calculate the apparent brightness of a star of luminosity 2.45 × 1028W and a
parallax of
0.034″.

1600. The Sun has an approximate black-body spectrum with most of its energy
radiated at a wavelength of
5.0 × 10-7m. Find the surface temperature of the Sun.

1601. The Sun (radius R= 7.0 × 108m) radiates a total power of 3.9 × 1026W. Find its
surface temperature.

1602. The Sun (radius R= 7.0 × 108m) radiates a total power of 3.9 × 1026W. Find its
surface temperature.

1603. Use the HR diagram and the mass–luminosity relation to estimate the ratio of

248
 the density of Altair to that
of the Sun.

1604. Describe how a stellar absorption spectrum is formed.

1605. Describe how the chemical composition of a star may be determined.
1606. Describe how the colour of the light from a star can be used to determine its
surface temperature.
1607. Stars A and B emit most of their light at wavelengths of 650 nm and 480 nm,
respectively. Star A has twice the radius of star B. Find the ratio of the
luminosities of the stars.
1608.
a) State what is meant by a Hertzsprung– Russell (HR) diagram.
b) Describe the main features of the HR diagram.
c) The luminosity of the Sun is 3.9 × 1026W and its radius is 7.0 × 108 m. For star
A in the HR diagram below calculate
iii. The temperature
iv. The density in terms of the Sun's density.
d) For stars B and C calculate the radius in terms of the Sun's radius.

249
1609. A main-sequence star emits most of its energy at a wavelength of 2.42 × 10-7m.
Its apparent
brightness is measured to be 8.56 × 10-12W m-2. Estimate its distance using the
HR diagram in
question 1481.
1610. A main-sequence star is 15 times more massive than our Sun. Calculate the
luminosity of this
star in terms of the solar luminosity.
1611.
a) The luminosity of a main-sequence star is 4500 times greater than the
luminosity of our
Sun. Estimate the mass of this star in terms of the solar mass.
b) A star has a mass of 12 solar masses and a luminosity of 3200 solar
luminosities.
Determine whether this could be a main sequence star.
1612.
a) Find the temperature of a star whose spectrum is shown below.

250
 b) Assuming this is a main-sequence star; estimate its luminosity using the HR
diagram in question 1481.
1613. Estimate the temperature of the universe when the peak wavelength of the
radiation in the universe was 7.0 × 10-7m.
1614. Describe the evolution of a main-sequence star of mass:
a) 2 solar masses
b) 20 solar masses.
c) Show the evolutionary paths of these stars on a copy of the HR diagram
below.

1615.
a) Describe the formation of a white dwarf star.
b) List two properties of a white dwarf.
c) Describe the mechanism which prevents a white dwarf from collapsing under
251
 the action
of gravity.
1616. Describe two differences between a main sequence star and a white dwarf.
1617. Describe two differences between a main sequence star and a neutron star.
1618.
a) Describe the formation of a neutron star.
b) List two properties of a neutron star.
c) Describe the mechanism which prevents a neutron star from collapsing under
the action of gravity.
1619. A hydrogen line has a wavelength of 434 nm. When received from a distant
galaxy, this line is measured
on Earth to be at 486 nm. Calculate the speed of recession of this galaxy.
1620. A mass of 5kg is suspended in equilibrium, by two light inextensible strings S1
and S2 which make angle 30° and 45° respectively with the horizontal. Then (take
g = 10ms-2)
a) Tension in both strings is the same.
b) Tension in S1 is more than that in S2
c) Tension in S1 is less than that in S2
d) The sum of tensions in both is equal to 50N.

1621. The Wien’s displacement law express relation between

a) Wavelength corresponding to maximum energy and temperature.
b) Radiation energy and wavelength.
c) Temperature and wavelength
d) Color of light and wavengleth.
1622. A weight W hangs from a rope that is tied to two other ropes that are fastened
to the ceilings as shown in the figure. The upper ropes make angle θ and 𝜑 with
the horizontal. The values of T1 and T2 are:

1623. What change in mass is required to double the frequency of a harmonic

oscillator?
1624. Why is a loud sound heard at resonance?
1625. If an explosion takes place at the bottom of lake, will the shock waves in water
252
 longitudinal or transverse
1626. How does the frequency of a tuning fork change, when the temperature is
increased?
1627. The length of a string tied to two rigid supports is 40cm. what is the maximum
wavelength of a stationary wave produced in it?
1628. Show that the motion of a particle represented by y = sinωt-cosωt is simple
harmonic with a time period of 2ω/π.
1629. The length of a second’s pendulum on the surface of earth is 1m. What will be
the length of a second’s pendulum on the moon?
1630. A 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance connected across a 200V battery
and a resistance of 38Ω as shown in the figure. Find the current in the circuit.

1631. Two point charges +q and –q are held at (-d,0) and (d,0) respectively of a x-y
coordinate system. Then
v. The electric field at all points on x-axis has the same direction.
vi. Electric field at all points on y-axis is along x-axis.
vii. Work has to be done in bringing a test charge from∞ to the origin.
viii. The dipole moment is 2qd along negative x-axis.
1632. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken through the cycle shown in figure
A→B: adiabatic expension
B→C: cooling at constant
C→D: adiabatic compression
D→A: heating at constant volume.
The pressure and temperature at A, B, etc. are denoted by PA, TA, PB, TB etc
respectively. If TA=1000K, PB =(2/3) PA and PC = (1/3) PA, then [Given(2/3)2/5 = 0.85]
1. The work done by the gas in the process A→B is 870 J.
2. The heat lost by the gas in the process B→C is 5298 J.
3. The temperature TB is 850 K.
4. The temperature TC is 250K.

1633. An organ pipe, open from both ends produced 5 beats per second when vibrated
with a source of frequency 200Hz in its fundamental mode. The second
harmonic of the same produces 10 beats per second with a source of frequency
420Hz. The fundamental frequency of pipe is
a) 195 Hz
b) 205 Hz
c) 190 Hz
253
 d) 210 Hz
1634. The driver of a car travelling with speed 30ms-1 towards a hill sounds a horn of
frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330ms-1, the frequency of the
reflected sound as heard by the driver is
a) 720 Hz
b) 555.5 Hz
c) 550 Hz
d) 760 Hz
1635. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much
should the temperature of the source be increased so as to increase its efficiency
of 50% of original efficiency?
a) 275 K
b) 325 K
c) 250 K
d) 380 K

1636. The ratio of specific heats (𝛾) of an ideal gas is not given by
1
a) 𝑅
1−
𝐶𝑝
𝑅
b) 1 + 𝐶
𝑣
𝑅+2𝐶𝑣
c) 𝐶𝑣
1637. A system is subjected to two SHM’s given by 𝑦1 = 6 cos 𝜔𝑡 and𝑦2 = 8 cos 𝜔𝑡. The
resultant amplitude of SHM is given by
a) 2
b) 10
c) 14
d) 20
1638.

1639.

254
1640.

1641. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
a) Both electromagnetic and electric field vectors attain the maxim and minima at the
same place and the same time.
b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic
vectors.
c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular
to the direction of propagation of wave.
d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.
1642. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as y=10-6sin(100t
+20𝑥+𝜋/4) m, where t is in second and x in metres. The speed of the wave is
a)
200 ms-1
b) 5 ms-1
c) 20 ms-1
d) 50 ms-1

1643. In the spectrum of singly ionized helium, the wavelength of a line observed is almost
255
 the same as the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen. It is due to transition of electron
from

1644. A laser of power 6D is put in contact with a lens of power -4D. the combination will
behave like a
a) Divergent lens of focal length 25cm.
b) Convergent length of 50cm.
c) Divergent lens of focal length 20 cm.
d) Convergent lens of focal length of 100cm
1645. A source of sound of frequency 600 Hz is placed inside water. The speed of sound in
water is 1500 m/s and in air is 300 m/s. The frequency of sound recorded by an
observer who is standing in air is
a) 200 Hz
b) 3000 Hz
c) 120 Hz
d) 600 Hz

1646. The simple harmonic motions for two particles are represented by the equations
π
y1 = 0.1sin (100t + 3 ) and𝑦2 = 0.1 cos 𝜋𝑡. The phase difference of velocity of particle 1 with
respect to the velocity of the particle 2 is
a) –𝜋/3
b) 𝜋/6
c) –𝜋/6
d) 𝜋/3

1647. The maximum intensity in Young’s double-slit experiment is I0. Distance between the
slits is 𝑑 = 5ʎ, where ʎ is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in experiment.
What will be the intensity of light in front of one of the slits on a screen at a distance𝑑 =
10𝐷?
𝐼0
a)
2
3
b) 𝐼
4 0
c) 𝐼0
𝐼0
d) 4
1648. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between 227℃ and 127℃. It absorbs
6 × 104 cal of heat at higher temperature. Amount of work is converted into work is

1649. Force between two identical charges placed at a distance r in vacuum is F. now a slab of
dielectric constant 𝐾 = 4 is inserted between these two charges. The thickness of the
256
 slab is r/2. The force between the charges will now become
a) F/4
b) F/2
c) 3F/5
d) 4F/9
1650. As shown in the figure the current flowing through the 2Ω resistor is
a) 2E/R
b) 2E/7R
c) E/7R
d) E/R

1651. Frequency of a particle executing SHM is 10 Hz. The particle is suspended from a
vertical spring. At the highest point of its oscillation the spring is unstretched.
Maximum speed of the particle (g= 10m/s2)

1652. A radioactive element has a half life period 800 years. After 6400 years what amount of
initial radioactive material will remain?
a) ½
b) 1/16
c) 1/8
d) 1/256

1653. An interference pattern is observed by Young’s double slit experiment. If now, the
separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of screen from
coherent sources be doubled. The new fringe width
a) Becomes four times
b) Remains same
c) Becomes one fourth
d) Becomes double

1654. In an isobaric process of an ideal gas. The ratio of heat supplied and work done by the
system is

257
1655.

1656.

1657.

1658.

258
1659.

1660.

1661.

1662.

1663.

259
1664.

1665.

1666.

260
1667.

1668.

1669.

1670.

1671.

261
1672.

1673.

1674.

1675.

262
1676.

1677.

1678.

1679.

263
1680.

1681.

1682.

264
1683.

1684.

265
1685.

1686.

1687.

266
1688.

1689.

267
1690.

1691.

1692.

1693.

268
1694.

1695.

1696.

1697.

269
1698.

1699.

1700.

270
1701.

1702.

1703.

1704.

271
1705.

1706.

272
1707.

1708.

1709.

1710.

273
1711.

1712.

1713.

274
1714.

1715.

275
1716. What does an electromagnetic wave consist of? On what factors does its velocity in
vacuum depend?
1717. What feature of electromagnetic waves led Maxwell to conclude that light itself is an
electromagnetic wave?
1718. Do the frequency and wavelength change when light passes from a rarer to a denser
medium?
1719. What is the shape of the wavefront on earth for sunlight?
1720. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
1721. Explain why does a convex lens behaves as a converging lens when immersed in water
(𝜇 = 1.33) and as a diverging lens, when immersed in carbon disulphide (𝜇 = 1.6)
1722. Give four properties of electromagnetic waves.
1723.

1724.

1725.

276
1726.

1727.

1728.

1729.

277
1730.

1731.

1732.

1733.

278
1734. Which color photon is more energetic: red or violet?
1735. In hydrogen atom, if the electron is replaced by a particle which is 200 times heavier
but has the same charge, how would its radius change?
1736. Does each incident photon essentially eject a photoelectron?
1737. Is a free neutron a stable particle?
1738.
a) A trolley of mass 3.0 kg is connected to two identical springs, each of force constant
600 N m–1, as shown in the figure below.If the trey is displaced from its equilibrium
position by 5.0 cm and released, what is

The period of ensuing oscillations

(i) (ii)
The maximum speed of the trolley
How much is the total energy dissipated as heat by the time the trolley
comes to rest due to damping forces?

1739. Why is it found experimentally difficult to detect neutrinos in nuclear 𝛽-decay?

1740. Explain the term stopping potential and threshold frequency.
1741.

1742. Explain why the spectrum of hydrogen atom has many lines, although a hydrogen atom
contains only electron.
1743.

279
1744.

1745.

280
1746.

281
1747.

1748.

1749.

282
1750.

1751.

1752.

1753.

283
1754.

1755.

1756.

284
1757.

1758.

1759.

1760.

285
1761.

1762.

1763.

286
1764.

1765.

1766.

1767.

1768.

287
1769.

1770.

1771. Why microwaves are considered suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
1772. State Brewster’s ‘law. The value of Brewster angle for a transparent medium is different
for light of different colors. Give a reason.
1773. Light of wavelength 6000 Ǻ in air enters a medium of refractive index 1.5. What will be
its frequency in the medium?
1774.

288
1775.
a) The star Wolf 359 has a parallax angle of 0.419 arcsecond
i. Describe how this parallax angle is measured.
ii. Calculate the distance in light-year from Earth to Wolf 359.
iii. State why the method of parallax can only be used for stars at a distance
less than a few hundred parsecond from Earth.
apparent brightness of Wolf 359
b) The ratio apparent brightness of the sun is 3.5× 10-15
luminosity of Wolf 359
Show that the ratio is 8.9× 10-4
luminosity of the sun
1776. The average intensity of the Sun’s radiation at the surface of the Earth is 1.37 ×
103 Wm-2. Calculate (a) the luminosity and (b) the surface
temperature of the Sun.
The mean separation of the Earth and
the Sun = 1.50 × 1011 m, radius of
the Sun = 6.96 × 108 m, Stefan–Boltzmann
constant = 5.67 × 10-8 Wm-2 K-4.
1777. The diagram below is a flow chart that shows the stages of evolution of a main
sequence star such as the Sun. (Mass of the Sun, the solar mass = M⊙).

a) Copy and complete the boxes below to show the stages of evolution of a main
sequence star that has a mass greater than 8M⊙.

b) Outline why:
i. White dwarf stars cannot have a greater mass than 1.4M⊙
ii. It is possible for a main sequence star with a mass equal to 8M⊙ to evolve into
a white dwarf.
1778.
a) Define luminosity.
b) The sketch-graph below shows the intensity spectrum for a black body at a
temperature of 6000 K.

289
 On a copy of the axes, draw a sketch-graph showing the intensity spectrum for a
black body at 8000 K.
c) A sketch of a Hertzsprung–Russell diagram is shown below.

Copy the diagram above and identify the:

i. Main sequence (label this M)
ii. Red giant region (label this R)
iii. White dwarf region (label this W).
d) In a Hertzsprung–Russell diagram, luminosity is plotted against temperature.
Explain why the diagram alone does not enable the luminosity of a particular star
to be determined from its temperature.
1779. The diagram below shows the grid of a Hertzsprung–Russell (HR) diagram on
which the positions of the Sun and four other stars A, B, C and D are shown.

290
 a) Name the type of stars shown by A, B, C, and D.
b) Explain, using information from the HR diagram and without making any
calculations, how astronomers can deduce that star B is larger than star A.
c) Using the following data and information from the HR diagram, show that star B
is at a distance of about 700 pc from Earth.

Apparent brightness of the Sun = 1.4 × 103 W m–2.

Apparent brightness of star B = 7.0 × 10–8 W m–2.
Mean distance of the Sun from Earth = 1.0 AU
1 parsec = 2.1 × 105 AU

1780.
a) State what is meant by cosmic microwave background radiation.
b) Describe how the cosmic microwave background radiation provides evidence
for the expanding universe.
1781.
a) In an observation of a distant galaxy, spectral lines are recorded. Spectral
lines at these wavelengths cannot be produced in the laboratory. Explain this
phenomenon.
b) Describe how Hubble’s law is used to determine the distance from the Earth
to distant galaxies.
c) Explain why Hubble’s law is not used to measure distances to nearby stars or

291
 nearby galaxies (such as Andromeda).

1782. One of the most intense radio sources is the Galaxy NGC5128. Long exposure
photographs show it to be a giant elliptical galaxy crossed by a band of dark
dust. It lies about 1.5 × 107 light years away from Earth.
a) Describe any differences between this galaxy and the Milky Way.
Hubble’s law predicts that NGC5128 is moving away from Earth.
b)
i. State Hubble’s law.
ii. State and explain what experimental measurements need to be taken in
order to determine the Hubble constant.
c) A possible value for the Hubble constant is 68 km s–1 Mpc–1. Use this value
to estimate:
d) The recession speed of NGC5128
e) The age of the universe. (10 marks)
1783.
a) Describe what is meant by a nebula.
b) Explain how the Jeans criterion applies to star formation. (3 marks)
1784. Outline how hydrogen is fused into helium in:
a) Stars of mass similar to that of the Sun
b) Stars of mass greater than ten solar masses.

1785. Explain why the lifetimes of more massive main sequence stars are shorter than
those of less massive ones.
1786.
a) What is meant by the term "planet's albedo"?
b) Enumerate any two factors that determine the Earth's albedo.
1787.
a) Starting with the smallest, list the following in order of increasing size: Earth,
Milky Way, Sun, and Universe.
b) In which galaxy is our solar system located?
c) State any one characteristic of outer planets of the solar system.
d) Name any one inner planet of the solar system.

1788. Complete the following statement using the terms: hadrons, mesons strong
interaction and baryons. Particles that interact by the ....... are called ...-..........
Thisgeneralc1assifi'cationinc1udes............and…………….
1789.
a) Name the following signals (figures 1 and 2) using the term digital signal or
analog signal.

292
 b) State any one advantage of the digital system of communication
1790. The basic block diagram of a certain radio receiver is shown below

Analyze the above block diagram above and identify the component of this radio
receiver which performs the following tasks.
a) It amplifies audio frequency signals.
b) It rejects the unwanted mixer output.
c) It provides the output frequency different from both the incoming signal and
intermediate frequencies.
d) It combines signals at two different frequencies to prod.uce one at an intermediate
frequency
1791. Complete the missing terms in the blank spaces of the following
statements.
a) A compound microscope consists of two lenses,
an……………………..(close to the object) and an………….(close to the
eye).
b) In the human eye, a real and ....... image is formed on the light sensitive
surface called the …………….

293
1792. All fossil fuels are non renewable but not all non renewable energy sources are
fossil fuels.
a) Differentiate between fossil fuel and renewable energy sources.
b) From the list of non renewable energy sources, select one example which is
not a fossil fuel.
c) Give any one example of a renewable energy.
d) Provide any one fossil fuel.

1793. Isochoric process, isobaric process, isothermal process and adiabatic

process can be done on an ideal gas.
a) Explain any one process from the given list, using simple words.
b) For which process does the work done W=O?
c) Identify the process for which the variation of internal energy of a
system∆𝐸𝑖𝑛𝑡 = 𝑊.

ℎ
1794. The Compton scattering equation is given byʎ′ − ʎ = 𝑚 (1 − cos 𝜃). Where h, me, C
𝑒𝐶
are respectively Planck’s constant, electron mass and speed of light in vacuum.
a) Use the appropriate term to name the physical quantity𝑚ℎ . Show that this is
𝑒
dimensionally correct.
b) Is Compton Effect easier to observe with IR, Visible light, UV or X-rays? Justify
your answer.
1795.
a) One of the postulates of Einstein's theory of special relativity is that the
physical laws have the same form in all inertial frame of reference. Use the
appropriate terms to explain the meaning of this postulate.
b) State another postulate of Einstein's theory of special relativity.

𝟏𝟗𝟐
1796. Iridium -l92is written using this symbol 𝟕𝟕𝑰𝒓
a) How many neutrons does a nucleus of iridium- 192 contain?
b) When iridium –l92 decays, a beta particle is emitted and the iridium changes
into Platinum. Complete the nuclear equation that shows this decay.

1797. A particle is projected with a velocit5r of 20 m/s at 30° above the horizontal.
a) Compute the component Voy of the initial velocity along the vertical axis.
b) Find the time taken by the particle to reach the highest point of the
trajectory.
1798. A 1kg object is supported by a rope of negligible mass attached to
the ceiling. Assume that this object is in static equilibrium;
a) Draw a free body diagram for this system.
b) Determine the tension in the rope.
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1799. Analyze the given electrical circuit (figure 4) and determine the currents I1 and I2.

1800. A free electron is accelerated in vacuum from rest through a potential difference
of 100 V. The gravitational force is neglected.
a) Find the initial velocity of the electron.
b) Compute the electrical potential energy of the electron.
c) Use the energy conservation to calculate the final velocity of the electron.
1801.
a) Differentiate between Rutherford's atomic model and Bohr’s atomic Model.
b)
i. State Bohr's postulates of a hydrogen atom.
ii. Propose any three deficiencies of the Bohr model of a hydrogen atom.

c) The frequency associated with an energy change of a hydrogen

atom is 6.166x101a Hz and the final energy level is 4. Determine the initial
energy level.
1802. Without the use of physics in the medical field today, diagnosis of problems
would be challenging, to say the least.
The world of medical imaging in particular has benefited greatly
from the use of physics. Critically assess the validity of this statement.
1803. Discuss as fully as you can the impact of Earthquakes on the environment.
1804. A 50 g bob suspended on a string 25 cm long is pulled aside a horizontal
distance from the mean position O and then released from rest. The bob of a
pendulum moves back and forth along the same path and passes through O as
shown below. The amplitude of oscillation is 10 cm. Assume that all external
forces are negligible except the gravitational force.

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 a) Compare and contrast between simple harmonic motion and damped
oscillatory motion.
b) Evaluate the period of this simple pendulum.
c) Analyze the above oscillations and suggest the point among the points A, O
and B in the path of its swing where the bob suspended on the string is
characterized by the following physical quantities:
i. The greatest velocity
ii. The greatest acceleration
iii. The maximum mechanical energy. Prove your answer with the aid of
calculation.
d) What do you think about the oscillations of the above simple pendulum if all
external forces are not neglected? Use a graph to support your idea.

1805. A potential difference V of a dry cell drives a direct current through

three resistors R1, R2, and R3, joined in series. The resistances are 2Ω, 3Ω,
4Ω, respectively.
a) Draw a complete electrical circuit according to the above information
including four voltmeters and three ammeters to read electric current
passing through every component.
b) Differentiate between the terms "resistor" and "resistance".
c) If the voltmeter across R1, reads 4 volts, what are the currents in R1?
d) What do the voltmeters across R2 and R3 read?
e) What is the value of V?
f) Find the resistance of the single equivalent resistor which
can replace the resistors R1, R2, and R3 in series.
1806. Hertzsprung-Russell(HR) diagram is actually a graph that illustrates the
relationship between :
a) Speed of stars and its brightness
b) Average surface temperature of the stars and their absolute magnitude

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 c) Average time taken by stars to travel around the sun and distance covered.
d) The distance between sun
1807. Which is the most correct statement in A to E.?
a) A progressive wave has a node at the beginning.
b) A transverse wave cannot be reflected.
c) A transverse wave can be polarized.
d) A progressive wave cannot be reflected.
1808. Two cells of the same e.m.f ε but of different in internal resistances r1 and r2 are
connected in series with an external resistance R. the p.d drop across the first
cell is found to be zero. The external resistance R is
a) 𝑟1 + 𝑟2
b) 𝑟1 − 𝑟2
c) 𝑟2 − 𝑟1
𝑟1 2
d) 𝑟1 2
1809. A projectile is projected such that its horizontal range R is five times the
maximum height reached. The angle of projection is
a) 45.5°
b) 40°
c) 39.12°
d) 38.65°
1810. If a car moves round a circular track of radius r at a constant speed V,
𝑣2
a) Its velocity changes and the acceleration is 𝑟
b) There is no force on the car since the speed is constant
c) There is no velocity change since the speed is constant
𝑚𝑣 2
d) The force is towards the centre and is 𝑟
1811. When a stone of mass m at the end of a string is whirled in a vertical circle at
constant speed.
a) The tension(force)b in the string stays constant
b) The tension is least when the stone reaches the bottom of the circle
c) The tension in the string is always mg
d) The weight mg is always the centripetal force
e) The tension is greatest when the stone is at the bottom of the circle.
1812. A communications satellite has a circular orbit around the earth. The weight of
the satellite on the earth is 90N. its weight in N in orbit is
a) 40N
b) 30N
c) 20N
d) 10N
e) 9N
1813. A satellite weighs 80N at the earth’s surface. If R is the earth’s radius, at what
distance from the earth would weight of the satellite be 20N

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 a) 4R
b) 3R
c) 2R
d) R

1814. The change in internal energy of a thermo dynamical system which absorbed
2Kcal and did 400J of work is (1cal=4.2J)
a) 2KJ
b) 8KJ
c) 3.5KJ
d) 5.5KJ
e) 4.2KJ
1815. A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation(in SI units)
𝜋
𝑥 = 5𝑐𝑜𝑠 (2𝜋𝑡 + 4 ). Its instantaneous displacement at t=1s i
√2
a) 5
𝑚
1
b)
√3
1
c)
√2
1
d)
2
5
e)
√2
1816.
a) What is the ratio between the energies of two radiations, one with a wavelength
of 200nm and the other with 600nm?
b) A laser emits light energy in short pulses with frequency 4.69x1014Hz and
deposits 1.3x10-2J for each pulse. How many quanta of energy do each pulse
deposits?
a) Differentiate between polarization and diffraction of light (2marks)
b) Explain the concept of particle-wave duality of matter. (2marks)
1817. A simple pendulum has a bob of mass 0.3kg and a length of 1m. The bob is
drawn a side through an angle of 6° and released from rest. Calculate
a) The maximum velocity of the bob
b) The maximum acceleration
c) The maximum tension in the sting.
a) If the wavelength of yellow light in air is 6.0x10-7m, what is its
wavelength in a glass of refractive index 1.5
b) A parallel beam of sodium light is incident normally on a diffraction
grating. The angle between the two first order spectra on either sides of
the normal is 27°42’.Assuming that the wavelength of light is 5.893x10-
7
m. find
i. The number of rulings per mm on the grating.
ii. The greatest number of bright images obtained.

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1818. Two positive charges are in an (x, y) coordinate system. The first one has charge
q1=0.4µC and sits at (-0.3m, 0). The second one has charge q2=0.3µCand sits at
(0, +0.30m). Find the electric potential at the origin.
1819.
a) State any two laws of photoelectric emission.
b) Selenium has work function of 5.11eV.what frequency of light would
just eject electrons?
1820. The human eye is most sensitive to green light of wavelength 505nm.
Experiments have found that when people that eyes adapt to the darkness, a
single photon of green light will trigger receptor cells in the rods of retina.
a) What is the frequency of this photon?
b) How much energy (in joules and electron volts) does it deliver to the receptor
cells?
c) To appreciate what small amounts of energy, That is, calculate how fast a
typical bacterium of mass 9.5x10-12gram would move if it had that much
energy.
1821. The following diagram shows 4 traces A, B, C and D produced by an oscilloscope
for different sounds. For each trace the same settings (amplitude scale on
vertical axis and time-base scale on horizontal axis) of the oscilloscope were
used.

a) Identify the trace showing the sound with the highest pitch and explain why?

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 b) Which is the sound with the highest loudness? Explain your answer.
c) Identify the traces of sounds with the amplitude.

1822. A sphere of 50N stands against two inclined planes making respectively angles of
30° and 45°. Calculate the forces of reaction of the two planes on the sphere.

1823. A 20-kg sphere rests between two smooth planes as shown in the figure below.
Determine the magnitude of the force acting on the sphere exerted by each
sphere.

1824. Our sun, with mass 2×1030 kg revolves on the edge of our Milky Way galaxy,
which can be assumed to be spherical, having radius 1020m. Also assume that
many stars, identical to our sun are uniformly distributed in the spherical Milky
Way galaxy. If the time period of the sun is 1015s and number of stars in the
galaxy is nearly3 × 10(𝑥) , find the value of x.
1825. An electron with initial kinetic energy of 100 eV is accelerated through a
potential difference of 50 V now the de-Broglie wavelength of electron becomes

1826. A simple pendulum of length l1 has a time period of 4 s and another simple
pendulum of length l2 has a time period 3 s. Then the time period of another
pendulum of length (l1 – l2) is

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