Selfstudys Com File (9)
Selfstudys Com File (9)
21 + 1
37
15
10.15 10.15 10.30
Please check that this question paper contains 21 printed pages +1 Map.
Please check that this question paper contains 37 questions.
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m.,
the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
gm_m{OH$ {dkmZ
SOCIAL SCIENCE
:3 : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
(i) 37
(ii) :
(iii) 1 20 1
(iv) 21 24 2
40
(v) 25 29 3
60
(vi) 30 33 5
120
(vii) 34 36
4
(viii) 37 37 a
2 37 b 3 5
(ix)
IÊS> H$$
(~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ) (20 1=20)
1. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into six sections Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question
carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
(v) Section C Questions no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question
carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 30 to 33 are Long Answer (LA) type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 34 to 36 are Case-based /Source-based questions with three
sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(viii) Section F Question no. 37 is Map skill-based question with two parts 37(a) from
History (2 marks) and 37(b) from Geography (3 marks). This question carries total
5 marks.
(ix) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually
Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions
are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions) (20 1=20)
:
(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(C) (A) (R)
(D) (A) (R)
3. - - ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
4. 1
I. -
II.
III.
IV.
:
(A) I II (B) II III
(C) III IV (D) I IV
5. ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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2. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
both the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A) : Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
Reason (R) : A legitimate government is one where all the groups connect
with the government through their participation.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Read the following features of plantation agriculture and choose the correct option : 1
I. A single crop is grown on a large area.
II. It is capital intensive farming.
III. It is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.
IV. Food grain crops are the major crops of this type of farming.
Options :
(A) Only I and II are correct. (B) Only II and III are correct.
(C) Only III and IV are correct. (D) Only I and IV are correct.
5.
rainwater harvesting ? 1
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar (D) Jharkhand
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6. (A) (R)
1
(A) :
(R) :
:
(A) (A) , (R)
(B) (A) , (R)
(C) (A) (R) (R) (A)
(D) (A) (R) , (R) (A)
7.
___________ 1
(A) 1878 (B) 1968
(C) 1887 (D) 1778
8. 1
I.
II. -
III.
IV.
:
(A) I, II, III IV (B) II, I, III IV
(C) III, I, II IV (D) IV, I, II III
9. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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6. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
both the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A) : We need to protect forests and wildlife.
Reason (R) : Conservation maintains ecological diversity.
Options :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
7. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
The Vernacular Press Act was passed in ______________ on the lines of the Irish
Press Act. 1
(A) 1878 (B) 1968
(C) 1887 (D) 1778
8. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct
option 1
I. Establishment of Depressed Classes Association
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Formation of the Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
IV. Second Round Table Conference in London
Options :
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, I, III, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV (D) IV, I, II, III
9. Choose the correct option regarding the Axis powers in the Second World War. 1
(A) Germany, Italy and China
(B) Britain, France and Germany
(C) Germany, France and Italy
(D) Germany, Japan and Italy
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10. : 1
(A) -
(B)
(C) -
(D)
11.
______________
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
12. ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14. -
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15. - ? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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10. Choose the correct option from the following regarding nineteenth century
liberalism : 1
(A) Monarchy, social hierarchy and property must be maintained.
(B) The abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and
capital.
(C) Criticised the glorification of reason and science.
(D) Not tolerating dissent and imposing censorship.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
:
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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16. Which one of the following orders has been passed by the Supreme Court to
reform political parties in India ? 1
(A) It is mandatory for all parties to hold organizational elections.
(B) It is mandatory for all parties to file income tax returns.
(C) It is mandatory for all the candidates to give details of criminal cases on
affidavit.
(D) Issuing orders to regulate the internal working of parties.
17. Study the given picture. The work being done in the picture comes under which of
the following sectors of the economy ? 1
20.
1
I. II.
III. IV.
:
(A) I II (B) II III
(C) III IV (D) I IV
- (4 2=8)
21. ?
22. ,
2
23. a ?
b - ?
24. ?
2
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19. Which one of the following is the majority community in Sri Lanka ? 1
(A) Sinhalas (B) Indian Tamils
(C) Sri Lankan Tamils (D) Christians
20. Refer to the following countries with federal political system and choose the
correct option : 1
I. United States of America II. China
III. Japan IV. India
Options :
(A) Only I and II are correct. (B) Only II and III are correct.
(C) Only III and IV are correct. (D) Only I and IV are correct.
SECTION B
(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (4 2=8)
21. Why are constitutional provisions necessary for the success of federalism ?
Explain. 2
22.
Support the statement with examples. 2
23. (a) How did the Silk Route connect the world ? Explain with any two
examples. 2
OR
(b) How did our foods facilitate cultural exchanges between distant countries ?
Explain with any two examples. 2
24. How has liberalization of trade and investment policies helped the globalization
process ? Explain with an example. 2
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- (5 3=15
25.
26. - 3
27. 3
28. ? 3
29. (a)
(b)
- (4 5=20
30. (a)
? 5
(b) ? 5
31. (a) ?
5
(b) ?
5
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SECTION C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (5 3=15)
25.
examples. 3
26. Suggest any three ways to solve the problem of land degradation. 3
27. 3
28. Why is multiparty system necessary for India ? Explain any three reasons. 3
SECTION D
(Long Answer Type Questions) (4 5=20)
30. (a) How had the use of Polish language come to be seen as a symbol of the
struggle against Russian dominance in 1931? 5
OR
(b) How did the Balkans become the source of serious nationalist tension in
Europe after 1871 ? 5
31. (a) How is democracy better than any other form of government ? Explain
with examples. 5
OR
(b) How does democracy accommodate social diversities ? Explain with
examples. 5
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32. (a) 5
(b) ?
2+3=5
33. (a) 5
(b) 5
>>
- / - (3 4=12)
34.
(Zen)
(34.1) 1
(34.2) ? 1
(34.3) ? 2
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32. (a) Explain the significance of industries in the Indian economy. 5
OR
(b) How are industries responsible for air pollution ? Suggest any three
measures to control it. 2+3=5
SECTION E
(Source-Based/Case-Based Questions) (3 4=12)
34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Jikji
The Jikji
movable metal type. It contains the essential features of Zen Buddhism. About
150 monks of India, China and Korea are mentioned in the book. It was printed in
late 14th century. While the first volume of the book is unavailable, the second
one is available in the National Library of France. This work marked an important
technical change in the print culture. That is why it was inscribed on the
UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001.
(34.2) Why was the Jikji inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World
Register in 2001 ? 1
(34.3) How does the Jikji contribute to the understanding of Zen Buddhism ? 2
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35.
-
-
-
-
(35.1) 1
(35.2) - 1
(35.3) -
2
36.
(36.1) ? 1
(36.2) ? 1
(36.3)
? 2
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35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Sustainability of Development
Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of
overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water
level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the
country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 per cent
of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource
continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally
prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central
and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.
(35.1) Explain the meaning of Sustainability of Development. 1
(35.2) Describe the serious threat caused by overuse of underground water. 1
(35.3) Mention any two suggestions for the farmers to reduce the overuse of the
groundwater in agriculture. 2
36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Social and Religious Diversity
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian after every
ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits every household and
records the religion of each member of that household exactly the way each
- (2+3=5)
37. (a) - , A B
A. 1
B. 1
(b) - ,
: 3 1=3
(i)
(ii) : -
(iii) :
(iv)
:
5 1=5
(37.1)
(37.2)
(37.3)
(37.4) -
(37.5)
(37.6)
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SECTION F
(Map Skill-Based Questions) (2+3=5)
37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline
map of India (on page 23). Identify them with the help of the following
information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
A. The place where Gandhiji organized Satyagraha to help the
peasants. 1
B. The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was
held in 1927. 1
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the
following with suitable symbols : 3 1=3
(i) Leading Coffee-producing State
(ii) Durg : Major iron-ore mines
(iii) Kochi : Major sea port
(iv) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
Note : The following questions are only for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in
lieu of Q.No. 37.
Attempt any five questions. 5 1=5
(37.1) Name the place where Gandhiji organised Satyagraha to help the peasants.
(37.2) Name the place where the session of the Indian National Congress was
held in 1927.
(37.3) Name the leading Coffee-producing State of India.
(37.4) Name the state where Durg iron-ore mines are located.
(37.5) Name the state where Kochi sea port is located.
(37.6) Name the place where Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is located.
1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of the
candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of the
candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting
evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done according
to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and
religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or
knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks
be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to
understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.These are in the nature of Guidelines
only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own expression and if the
expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the first day,
to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is
any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant
for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual
evaluators.
6. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked. Evaluators will
not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded.
This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for different
parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be
followed strictly.
8. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may
also be followed strictly.
1
9. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be retained
and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11. A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has
to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day and evaluate
20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in
Spot Guidelines).
13. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in the past:-
Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly and clearly
indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked as cross
(X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15. Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by the candidate
shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in
order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously
and judiciously.
16. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot Evaluation”
before starting the actual evaluation.
17. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title page,
correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18. The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the prescribed
processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they
must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking
Scheme.
2
iwjd ijh{kk tqykbZ & 2024
vad ;kstuk
d{kk X Lkkekftd foKku
Paper Code: 32/S/3
lsV & 3 iw.kkZad 80
Ikz-la- ewY; fcUnq i`’B Vad
la[;k
[k.M d 1x20=
¼cgq fodYih; iz”u½ 20
1. (D) ljdkj ds fofHkUu Lrjksa ij lÙkk dk c¡VokjkA 8P 1
2. (A) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k gSA 6P 1
5. (B) jkTkLFkku 26 G 1
6. (C) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k gSA 13 G 1
16. (C) lHkh mEehnokjksa dks “kiFk & i= }kjk vkijkf/kd ekeyksa dk C;kSjk 60 P 1
[k.M [k 4x2=8
4
(iii)Åij vkrs gq, ;s BaMs gksdj te tkrs gSaA eq[; èkkfRod [kfut tSls&
tLrk] rk¡ck] ftad vkSj lhlk vkfn blh rjg f'kjkvksa o tekoksa ds
:i esa izkIr gksrs gSaA
(iv) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha nks fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
23. (a) js”ke ekxZ ¼flYd ekxZ½ us fdl izdkj nqfu;k dks tksMk Fkk\ fdUgha nks 54 H 2x1=2
5
ii. ;g fo”okl fd;k tkrk gS fd uwMYl phu ls if”pe esa igq¡ps vkSj
ogk¡ mUgha ls LiS?ksrh dk tUe gqvkA
iii. ikLrk vjc ;kf=;ksa ds lkFk fllyh igq¡pk tks bVyh dk ,d Vkiw gSA
iv. blh rjg ds vkgkj Hkkjr vkSj tkiku esa dHkh ik, tkrs gS blfy,
buds [kk| inkFkksZa ds okLrfod mn~xe Lkzksrksa dk ge dHkh irk Hkh u
yxk ik,A
v. vkyw] lks;k] ew¡xQyh] eDdk] VekVj] fepZ] “kdjdan] vkSj ,sls gh cgqr
lkjs nwljs [kk| inkFkZ yxHkx ik¡p lkS o’kZ iwoZ rd gekjs iwoZtksa ds
ikl ugha FksA
vi. ;s [kk| inkFkZ ;wjksi vkSj ,f”k;k esa rc igq¡ps tc fØLVksQj dksyEcl
xyrh ls vKkr egk}hiksa esa igqp¡ x;k Fkk ftUgsa ckn esa vesfjdk ds
uke ls tkus tkuk yxkA
vii. dbZ u;h Qlyksa ds vkus ls thou esa tehu & vkleku dk QdZ vk
tkrk FkkA lk/kkj.k ls vkyw dk bLrseky “kq: djus ij ;wjksi ds xjhcksa
dh ftanxh vkewy :Ik ls cny xbZA
viii. dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha nks fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
24. O;kikj vkSj fuos”k uhfr;ksa dk mnkjhdj.k oS”ohdj.k izfØ;k esa dSls lgk;rk 61E 2X1=2
¼y?kq&mÙkjh; iz”u½
25. ^^yksxksa ds fodkl ds y{; fHkUu gks ldrs gSaA^^ bl dFku dh mnkgj.kksa lfgr 5-6 E 3X1=3
O;k[;k dhft,A
(i) çR;sd O;fä dh lkekftd vkSj lkaL—frd t+:jrsa vyx&vyx gksrh
gSa vkSj y{; Hkh vyx&vyx gksrs gSaA
(ii) ,d yM+dh vius HkkbZ ftruh gh vkt+knh vkSj volj dh mEehn djrh
gS vkSj ;g mEehn djrh gS fd mldk HkkbZ ?kj ds dke esa Hkh Hkkxhnkjh
djsaA ysfdu ;g ckr 'kk;n mlds HkkbZ dks ilan ugha vk,A
(iii) m|ksxifr vfèkd fctyh ikus ds fy, vfèkd ckaèk pkgrs gksaxsA
(iv) ty fudk;ksa ds vklikl jgus okys yksx &tSls vkfnoklh] viuh Hkwfe
dh flapkbZ ds fy, NksVs pd ckaèk ;k Rkkykc dks “kk;n ojh;rk nsxsaA
(v) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha rhu fcUnqvksa dk O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
26. Hkw& fuEuhdj.k dh leL;k dks lqy>kus ds fy, dksbZ rhu mik; lq>kb,A 6G 3X1=3
(i) bl çdkj dh [ksrh vHkh Hkh Hkkjr ds dqN fgLlksa esa dh tkrh gSA
(ii) ;g d`f’k tehu ds NksVs&NksVs VqdM+ksa ij dh tkrh gSA
(iii) bl d`f’k esa dqnky] nko vkSj [kksnus okyh NfM+;ksa tSls vkfne vkStkjksa
dk mi;ksx djrs gSA
(iv) bl çdkj dh [ksrh izk;% ekulwUk ij vk/kkfjr gksrh gSA
7
(v) bl izdkj dh d`f’k feêh dh çk—frd moZjrk vkSj Qly mxkus ds
fy, vU; Ik;kZoj.kh; ifjfLFkfr;ksa dh mi;qDrrk ij fuHkZj djrh Gsa
(vi) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha rhu fcUnqvksa dk o.kZu visf{kr gSA
28. Hkkjr ds fy, cgqnyh; O;oLFkk D;ksa vko”;d gS\ fdUgha rhu dkj.kksa dh 51P 3X1=3
O;k[;k dhft,A
(i) Tkc dbZ ikfVZ;k¡ lÙkk ds fy, çfrLièkkZ djrh gSa vkSj nks ;k nks ls
vfèkd ikfVZ;ksa ds ikl lÙkk esa vkus dk mfpr ekSdk gksrk gS rks bls
cgqnyh; ç.kkyh dgk tkrk gSA
(ii) cgqnyh; ç.kkyh lkekftd vkSj HkkSxksfyd fofoèkrk dks lek;ksftr
djrh gS] ;gh dkj.k gS fd Hkkjr us bl ç.kkyh dks viuk;k gSA
(iii)bl ç.kkyh esa lekt ds fofHkUu oxksZa dk çfrfufèkRo djus okys fofHkUu
nyksa }kjk ,d xBcaèku cukdj ljdkj dk xBu fd;k tkrk gSA
(iv) cgqnyh; ç.kkyh esa pqukoh rkuk'kkgh dh laHkkouk de gksrh gSA
(v) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha rhu fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
29. (a) vlg;ksx vkanksyu ds vkfFkZd izHkkoksa dk fo”ys’k.k dhft,A 34H 3x1=3
8
(b) ^^Hkkjr esa vk/kqfud jk’Vªokn ds mn; dh ifj?kVuk mifuos”kokn fojks/kh 29H 3x1=3
vkanksyu ds lkFk xgjs rkSj tqM+h gqbZ FkhA^^ bl dFku dk fo”ys’k.k dhft,A
(i) vkSifuosf”kd “kkldksa ds f[kykQ la?k’kZ ds nkSjku yksx vkilh ,drk
dks igpkuus yxsA
(ii) mRihM+u vkSj neu ds lk>k Hkko us fofHkUu lewgksa dks ,d nwljs ls
ck¡/k fn;k FkkA
(iii) egkRek xka/kh ds usr`Ro esa dkaxzsl us bu lewgksa dks bdêk djds ,d
fo”kky vkanksyu [kM+k fd;kA
(iv) Hkkjr ekrk ,oa oans ekr~je jk’Vªokn ds izrhd cu x,A
(v) fczfV”k ljdkj fojks/kh vkanksyu tSls & vlg;ksx vkanksyu] lfou;
voKk vkanksyu vkfn mifuos”kokn fojks/k dk izrhd cu x,A
(vi) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha rhu fcUnqvksa dk fo”ys’k.k visf{kr gSA
[k.M ?k 5x4=20
¼nh?kZ&mÙkjh; iz”u½
30. (a) 1931 esa iksfy”k Hkk’kk fdl izdkj :lh izHkqRo ds fo:) la?k’kZ ds izrhd 15H 5x1=5
9
(v) ifj.kkeLo:i] cM+h la[;k esa iqtkfj;ksa vkSj fc'kiksa dks :lh Hkk"kk esa
mins'k nsus ls budkj djus dh ltk ds :i esa :lh vfèkdkfj;ksa }kjk
tsy esa Mky fn;k x;k ;k lkbcsfj;k Hkst fn;k x;kA
(vi) iksfy'k ds ç;ksx dks :lh çHkqRo ds fo#) la?k"kZ ds çrhd ds :i esa
ns[kk tkus yxkA
(vii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dk o.kZu visf{kr gSA
vFkok
(b) 1871 ds ckn fdl izdkj ckYdu {ks= ;wjksi esa xaHkhj jk’Vªoknh ruko 26 H 5x1=5
ds lzksr cu x;k\
(i) ckYdu HkkSxksfyd vkSj tkrh; fofoèkrk okyk {ks= FkkA
(ii) ckYdu dk ,d cM+k fgLlk v‚Vkseu lkezkT; ds fu;a=.k esa FkkA
(iii) vkVkseu lkezkT; ds fo?kVu ds lkFk ckYdu esa :Ekkuh jk"Vªokn ds
fopkjksa ds çlkj us bl {ks= dks cgqr foLQksVd cuk fn;kA
(iv) ,d&,d djds] bldh ;wjksih; fo"k; jk"Vªh;rk,¡ blds fu;a=.k ls
vyx gks xbZa vkSj Lora=rk dh ?kks"k.kk dhA
(v) ckYdu yksxksa us Lora=rk ;k jktuhfrd vfèkdkjksa ds fy, vius nkoksa
dks jk"Vªh;rk ij vkèkkfjr fd;kA
(vi) pwafd fofHkUu Lyko jk"Vªh;rkvksa us viuh igpku vkSj Lora=rk dks
ifjHkkf"kr djus ds fy, la?k"kZ fd;k] ckYdu {ks= rhoz la?k"kZ dk {ks=
cu x;kA
(vii) ckYdu jkT; ,d&nwljs ls cgqr bZ";kZ djrs Fks vkSj çR;sd dks nwljs
dh dher ij vfèkd {ks= gkfly djus dh vk'kk djrs FksA
(viii) ekeyk vkSj Hkh tfVy gks x;k D;ksafd ckYdu Hkh cM+h 'kfä çfr}af}rk
dk LFky cu x;kA
(ix) bl vofèk ds nkSjku] O;kikj vkSj mifuos'kksa ds lkFk&lkFk ukSlSfud
vkSj lSU; 'kfä dks ysdj ;wjksih; 'kfä;ksa ds chp rhoz çfr}af}rk FkhA
(x) çR;sd 'kfä & :l] teZuh] baXySaM] v‚fLVª;k&gaxjh & ckYdu ij
vU; 'kfä;ksa dh idM+ dk eqdkcyk djus vkSj {ks= ij viuk fu;a=.k
c<+kus ds fy, mRlqd FkhA
(xi) blds dkj.k {ks= esa dbZ ;q) gq, vkSj varr% çFke foÜo ;q) gqvkA
(xii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dk o.kZu visf{kr gSA
10
31. (a) yksdra= fdl izdkj fdUgha vU; “kklu O;oLFkkvksa ls csgrj gS\ mnkgj.kksa 64 P 5x1=5
11
(vii) efgykvksa ds lkFk leku O;ogkj ,d yksdrkaf=d lekt dk vko';d
rRo gSA
(viii) yksdra= us oafprksa ds nkoksa dks etcwr fd;k gSA
(ix) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
32. (a) Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk esa m|ksxksa ds egÙo dh O;k[;k dhft,A 58 G 5x1=5
(i) m|ksx —f"k dks vkèkqfud cukus esa enn djrs gSa] tks gekjh vFkZO;oLFkk
dh jh<+ gSA
(ii) os yksxksa dks f}rh;d vkSj r`rh;d {ks=dksa esa ukSdfj;k¡ çnku djds —
(iii) gekjs ns'k ls csjkstxkjh vkSj xjhch mUewyu ds fy, vkS|ksfxd fodkl
(iv) bldk mís'; vkfnoklh vkSj fiNM+s {ks=ksa esa m|ksx LFkkfir djds {ks=h;
(vi) tks ns'k vius dPps eky dks fofHkUu çdkj ds mPp ewY; ds rS;kj
eky esa cnyrs gSa os le`) gksrs gSaA Hkkjr dh le`f) vius fofuekZ.k
m|ksxksa dks ;Fkk'kh?kz c<+kus vkSj fofoèkrk ykus esa fufgr gSA
12
vFkok
(b) m|ksx ok;q iznq’k.k ds fy, fdl izdkj mÙkjnk;h gS\a bldh 66 G 2+3=5
(ii) ok;q esa fuyafcr d.kh; inkFkksZa esa èkwy] Lçs èkqaèk vkSj èkqvka tSls Bksl
(iii) èkqvka jklk;fud vkSj dkxt dkj[kkuksa] bZaV Hkêksa] rsy “kks/ku “kkykvksa
(iv) cM+s vkSj NksVs dkj[kkuksa esa thok'e bZaèku tykuk tks çnw"k.k ekunaMksa
13
(iv) dkj[kkuksa esa dks;ys ds LFkku ij rsy ;k xSl dk mi;ksx djds èkq,¡
33. (a) vFkZO;oLFkk ds lkoZtfud ,oa futh {ks=dksa esa varj Li’V dhft,A 30E 5x1=5
14
vFkok
24E 5x1=5
(b) mu vkfFkZd xfrfof/k;ksa dh O;k[;k dhft, ftudh izkFkfed ftEEksnkjh
ljdkj ij gSA
(i) Mkd ,oa rkj lsok,¡
(ii) xzke ç'kklfud dk;kZy;
(iii) uxj fuxe
(iv) ifjogu lqfo/kk,¡
(v) cSad laca/kh lqfo/kk,¡
(vi) chek laca/kh lqfo/kk,¡
(vii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k fd;k tkuk visf{kr gSA
[k.M M- 3x4=12
¼dsl & vk/kkfjr iz”u½
34. fn, x, lzksr dks if<+, vkSj mlds uhps fn, x, ç'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A 108H 1+1+2
=4
ftDth
dksfj;k dh ftDth (Jikji) ewoscy esVy Vkbi (Movable metal type)
ds lkFk eqfnzr nqfu;k dh lcls iqjkuh ekStwnk iqLrdksa esa ls gSA blesa t+Su
(Zen) ckS) /keZ dh eq[; fo”ks’krk,¡ gSaA iqLrd esa Hkkjr] phu vkSj dksfj;k
ds yxHkx 150 ckS) fHk{kqvksa dk mYYks[k fd;k x;k gSA bls 14oha “krkCnh ds
var esa eqfnzr fd;k x;k FkkA iqLrd dk igyk [kaM miyC/k ugha gS] nwljk
[kaM Ýkal dh us”kuy ykbczsjh esa miyC/k gSA ;g dk;Z eqnz.k laLd`fr esa ,d
egRoiw.kZ rduhdh ifjorZu lkfcr gqvkA ;gh dkj.k gS fd 2001 esa ;wusLdksa
eseksjh vkWQ n oYMZ jftLVj eas vafdr fd;k x;kA
15
¼34-1½ eqnz.k ds bfrgkl esa ftDth ds egÙo dk mYYks[k dhft,A (1)
16
mi;ksx dj jgk gksxkA Hkwfexr ty dk vfr& mi;ksx fo”ks’k :Ik ls iatkc
vkSj if”peh mÙkj izn”s k ds d`f’k dh n`f’V ls le`) {ks=ksa] e/; vkSj nf{k.k
Hkkjr ds Pkêkuh iBkjh {ks=ksa] dqN rVorhZ {ks=ksa vkSj rsth ls fodflr gksrh
“kgjh cfLr;ksa esa ik;k tkrk gSA^^
¼35-1½ fodkl dh /kkj.kh;rk dk vFkZ Li’V dhft,A (1)
(i) lrr fodkl dk vFkZ gS ^i;kZoj.k dks uqdlku igqapk, fcuk fodkl
gksuk pkfg, vkSj orZeku fodkl esa Hkkoh ihf<+;ksa dh t:jrksa ds lkFk
dksbZ le>kSrk ugha gksuk pkfg,A^
(ii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
(i) gky ds lk{;ksa ls irk pyrk gS fd ns'k ds dbZ fgLlksa esa Hkwty ds
vR;fèkd mi;ksx ls xaHkhj [k+rjk gSA
(ii) fiNys 20 o"kksZa ds nkSjku yxHkx 300 ftyksa esa ty Lrj esa 4 ehVj
ls vfèkd dh fxjkoV ntZ dh xbZ gSA
(iii)dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
10 o’kZ
¼36-2½ Hkkjr esa tux.kuk ds vk¡dM+ksa dks fo”oluh; D;ksa ekuk tkrk gS\
(1)
(i) tux.kuk Q‚eZ Hkjus okyk O;fä çR;sd ?kj dk nkSjk djrk gS vkSj
çR;sd lnL; dk fjd‚MZ Lo;a ntZ djrk gSA
(ii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
(i) tux.kuk ns'k esa fofHkUu lkekftd leqnk;ksa ds vuqikr vkSj fiNys
dqN o"kksZa esa blesa dSls cnyko vk;k gS] bl ij foÜoluh; tkudkjh
nsrh gSA
(ii) vkadMs ns'k esa Ng çeq[k èkkfeZd leqnk;ksa ds tula[;k vuqikr dks
n'kkZrs gSaA
(iii)dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
37. Hkkjr ds fn, x, jktuhfrd js[kk&ekufp= ¼i`"B 23 ij½] esa fn, x, nks
LFkkuksa dks A vkSj B ls vafdr fd;k x;k gS A fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dh
lgk;rk ls mUgsa igpkfu, vkSj muds lgh uke muds lehi [khaph xbZ js[kkvksa
ij fyf[k, &
18
i. og LFkku tgk¡ xk¡èkhth us fdlkuksa dh lgk;rk ds fy, lR;kxzg 1
fd;kA
ii. og LFkku tgk¡ 1927 esa Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dk¡xzsl dk vfèkos'ku gqvk FkkA- 1
Hkkjr ds blh jktuhfrd js[kk&ekufp= esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdUgha rhu dks
3X1=3
mi;qä fpUgksa ls n”kkZb, vkSj muds uke fyf[k, &
i. dkWQh mRiknu esa vxz.kh jkT;
ii. nqxZ% izeq[k ykSg& v;Ld dh [kkusa
iii. dksfPp% izeq[k leqnzh iÙku
iv. jktho xka/kh varjkZ’Vªh; ok;q iÙku
LFkku ij gSa&
fdUgha ik¡p ç'uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k,A
¼37-1½ ml LFkku dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ xk¡èkhth us fdlkuksa dh lgk;rk ds
fy, lR;kxzg fd;kA
[[email protected]
¼37-2½ ml LFkku dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ 1927 esa Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; d‚xzsl dk
vfèkos'ku gqvk FkkA
enzkl ¼psUUkbZ½
¼37-3½ dkWQh mRiknu esa vxz.kh Hkkjrh; jkT; dk uke fyf[k,A
dukZVd
¼37-4½ ml jkT; dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ nqxZ ykSg&v;Ld dh [kkusa fLFkr gSA
Nrhlx<+
19
¼37-5½ ml jkT; dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ dksfPp leqæ & Ikru fLFkr gSA
dsjy
¼37-6½ ml LFkku dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ jktho xka/kh varjkZ’Vªh; ok;q iÙku
fLFkr gSA
gSnjkckn
20
1X5=5
21
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Supplementary Examination, July-2024
SUBJECT NAME: Social Science SUBJECT CODE: 087 PAPER CODE: 32/S/3
General Instructions: -
1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of
the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the
future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is
requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
2. “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future
of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine
and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of the Board
and IPC.”
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly
adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on
latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not
from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers. These are in the nature of
Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own
expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the
first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking
Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The
remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for
different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be
retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11. A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question
Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day
and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other
subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
Page 1 of 17
the past:- Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly
and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked
as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15. Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by
the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also
of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18. The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
Page 2 of 17
CBSE SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION – JULY 2024
Marking Scheme
Class X -Social Science (087)
SET-32/S/3
SET- 3 MM: 80
Page 3 of 17
For Visually impaired candidates only-
(A) Primary 20-E 1
18 (D) Education, Forest, Marriage and Adoption 16-P 1
19 (A) Sinhalas 3-P 1
20 (D) Only I and IV are correct 14-P 1
Section B (4X2=8)
Very Short Answer Type Questions
21 Why are constitutional provisions necessary for the success of 15-P 2X1=2
federalism? Explain.
(i) The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are
specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each
tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
(ii) The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be
unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes
require the consent of both the levels of government.
(iii) Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers
of different levels of government.
(iv) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly
constitutionally specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
(v) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)
22 “In igneous rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults 43-G 2x1=2
or joints.” Support the statement with example.
(i) The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called
lodes.
(ii) In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and
gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the
earth’s surface.
(iii) They cool and solidify as they rise. Major metallic minerals like
tin, copper, zinc and lead etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)
23 (a) How did the silk route connect the world? 54-H 2X1=2
(i) The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade
and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
(ii) Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea,
Page 4 of 17
knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with
Europe and northern Africa.
(iii) Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and
spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals –
gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.
(iv) Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early
Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia,
as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later.
(v) Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several
directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)
OR
Page 5 of 17
24 How has liberalization of trade and investment policies helped the 61-E 2X1=2
globalization process? Explain with an example.
26 Suggest any three ways to solve the problem of land degradation. 6-G 3X1=3
(i) Afforestation and proper management of grazing.
(ii) Planting of shelter belts of plants,
(iii) Control on over grazing
(iv) Stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes is some of
the methods to check land degradation in arid areas.
(v) Proper management of waste lands
(vi) Control of mining activities
(vii) Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes
after treatment can reduce land degradation in industrial and
Page 6 of 17
suburban areas.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained.)
27 Describe any three features of ‘primitive subsistence farming’. 34-G 3X1=3
OR
Page 7 of 17
(b) “In India, the growth of modern nationalism was intimately
connected to the anti-colonial movement.” Analyse the statement. 29-H
3X1=3
(i) People began discovering their unity in the process of their
struggle with colonialism.
(ii) The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a shared
bond that tied many different groups together.
(iii) The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi tried of forge these groups
together within one movement.
(iv) Symbols of nationalism like Bharatmata and Vandemataram
(v) Anti-colonial movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil
Disobedience etc were directed against the British rule
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be analysed.)
Section D (4X5=20)
Long Answer Type Questions
30 (a) How had the use of polish language come to be seen as a symbol of 15-H 5X1=5
the struggle against Russian dominance in 1931?
(i) Poland was partitioned by the Great Powers-Russia, Austria and
Prussia. Even though Poland did not exist as an independent
territory, national feelings were kept alive through language.
(ii) After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of
schools and the Russian language was imposed everywhere.
(iii) In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which
was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the
clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national
resistance.
(iv) Polish was used for Church gatherings and all religious instruction.
(v) As a result, a large number of priests and bishops were put in jail
or sent to Siberia by the Russian authorities as punishment for their
refusal to preach in Russian.
(vi) The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle
against Russian dominance.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
OR
Page 8 of 17
(b) “How did Balkans become the source of serious nationalist
tension in Europe after 1871? 5X1=5
26-H
(i) The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation.
(ii) A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman
Empire.
(iii) The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans
together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this
region very explosive.
(iv) One by one, its European subject nationalities broke away from its
control and declared independence.
(v) The Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or
political rights on nationality.
(vi) As the different Slavic nationalities struggled to define their
identity and independence, the Balkan area became an area of
intense conflict.
(vii) The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each
hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the others.
(viii) Matters were further complicated because the Balkans also became
the scene of big power rivalry.
(ix) During this period, there was intense rivalry among the European
powers over trade and colonies as well as naval andmilitary might.
(x) Each power – Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary – was
keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans, and
extending its own control over the area.
(xi) This led to a series of wars in the region and finally the First World
War
(xii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
31 (a) How is democracy better than any other form of government? 64-P 5X1=5
Explain with examples.
(i) It promotes equality among citizens;
(ii) It Enhances the dignity of the individual
(iii) It improves the quality of decision-making
(iv) It Provides a method to resolve conflicts
(v) It allows room to correct mistakes.
(vi) Accommodates social diversity
(vii) Is an accountable and legitimate form of government
(viii) Enhances freedom of citizens.
(ix) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
Page 9 of 17
OR
32 (a) Explain the significance of industries in the Indian economy. 58-G 5X1=5
OR
Page 10 of 17
(b) How are industries responsible for air pollution? Suggest any
three measures to control it.
2+3=5
(i) Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of 66-G
undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
(ii) Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid
particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
(iii) Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns,
refineries and smelting plants
(iv) Burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore
pollution norms.
(v) Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained) (2X1=2)
33 (a) Distinguish between public and private sectors of economy. 30-E 5X1=5
PUBLIC SECTOR PRIVATE SECTOR
(i) In the public sector, the (i) In the private sector,
government owns most of ownership of assets and
the assets and provides all delivery of services is in the
the services. hands of private individuals
or companies.
(ii) Activities in the public (ii) .Activities in the private
sector are guided by social sector are guided by the
welfare motive to earn profits
(iii) Goods and services (iii) Cost may be high
are provided at a reasonable
cost
(iv) Providing basic (iv) Private sector does
facilities are the not take responsibility for
responsibilities of the providing basic facilities
government so public
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sector will provide them
even if it is not profitable
(v) Some facilities of the (v) Private sector uses private
Public sector are funded by capital
the taxes collected by the
government
(vi) Railways or post (vi) companies like Tata
office is an example of the Iron and Steel Company
public sector Limited (TISCO) or
Reliance Industries Limited
(RIL) are privately owned
OR
Section E (3X4=12)
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
34 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 108- 1+1+2=4
Jikji H
The Jikji of Korea is among the world’s oldest existing book printed with
movable metal type. It contains the essential features of Zen Buddhism.
About 150 monks of India, China and Korea are mentioned in the book. It
was printed in late 14th century. While the first volume of the book is
unavailable, the second one is available in the National Library of France.
This work marked an important technical change in the print culture. That
is why it was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register
in 2001.
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(34.1) Mention the significance of the Jikji in the history of printing.
(1)
(i) The Jikji of Korea is among the world’s oldest existing book printed
with movable metal type.
(ii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)
(34.2) Why was the Jikji inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the
World Register in 2001? (1)
(i) This work marked an important technical change in the print culture.
That is why it was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World
Register in 2001.
(ii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)
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(35.2) Describe the serious threat caused by overuse of underground
water. (1)
(i) Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious
threat of overuse in many parts of the country.
(ii) About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4
meters during the past 20 years.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be described.)
(35.3) Mention any two suggestions for the farmers to reduce the
overuse of the groundwater in agriculture. (2x1=2)
(i) Change in crop pattern.
(ii) Use of newer techniques of irrigation like sprinkler, drip irrigation etc.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be mentioned.)
36 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 39-P 1+1+2=4
Social and Religious Diversity
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian
after every ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits
every household and records the religion of each member of that
household exactly the way each person describes it. If someone says
she has ‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly how it is
recorded. Thus we have reliable information on the proportion of
different religious communities in the country and how it has
changed over the years. The record shows the population proportion
of six major religious communities in the country. Since
Independence, the total population of each community has increased
substantially.
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(36.3) How is the census an important tool to understand the social
diversity in India? (2x1=2)
(i) Census gives reliable information on the proportion of different social
communities in the country and how it has changed over the years.
(ii) The record shows the population proportion of six major religious
communities in the country.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any twos point to be explained.)
Section F (2+3=5)
Map Based Questions
37 (a) Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political
outline map of India (on page 23). Identify these places with the
help of the following information and write their correct names on
the lines drawn near them:
(i) The place where Gandhiji organized Satyagraha to help the 1
peasants.
(ii) The place where the session of the Indian National Congress 1
was held in 1927.
(PLEASE SEE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three
of the following with suitable symbols : 3x1=3
(i) Leading Coffee-producing State
(ii) Durg: Major iron ore mines
(iii) Kochi: Major sea port
(iv) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(PLEASE SEE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired 5x1=5
Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37.
Attempt any five questions.
(37.1) Name the place where Gandhi Ji organized Satyagrah to help the
peasants. – KHEDA/ CHAMPARAN 1
(37.2) Name the place where the session of the Indian National Congress
was held in 1927. – MADRAS (CHENNAI) 1
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(37.3) Name the leading Coffee-producing state of India. -
KARNATAKA 1
(37.4) Name the state where Durg iron-ore mines are located.-
CHATTISGARH 1
(37.5) Name the state where Kochi sea port is located.- KERALA 1
(37.6) Name the place where Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is
located.- HYDERABAD 1
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