DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

Roll No.: Maximum Marks: 300

Maximum Time: 90 (+30) minutes

8
CLASS

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

1. The Question Paper comprises of two sections:
Section I: Multiple Intelligence Test (40 questions)
Section II: Scholastic Aptitude Test (100 questions)
Questions in Section I do not carry any marks whereas
questions in Section II carry 3 marks each.
2. Duration for Section II of this test shall be 90 minutes.
<RX ZLOO JHW DGGLWLRQDO  PLQXWHV WR ¿OO XS LQIRUPDWLRQ
about yourself on the Answer Sheet and answer ques-
tions of Section I before start of the exam.
3. Answering all questions is compulsory in Section I but
not in Section II.Section I of the test contains questions
that you need to answer truthfully based on your prefer-

SAMPLE PAPER ence. Do not provide fake responses otherwise you will
not receive accurate analysis of your intelligence type.
4. Rank will be provided on the basis of Section II. Multiple
Intelligence Report shall be provided on the basis of Sec-
tion I.
5. For incorrect answers (in Section II), 1 mark would be
deducted. For unanswered questions, no mark would be
awarded or deducted.
6. Use of calculator, mobile phones or log tables is not per-
mitted.
7. Fill the required details clearly on the Answer Sheet and
do not overwrite.
8. There is only ONE correct answer. Choose only ONE op-
tion for an answer.
9. To mark your choice of answers by darkening the circles
in the Answer Sheet, use an HB Pencil only.
10. Rough work should be done in the blank space provided
on the last page in the booklet.
11. Return the Answer Sheet to the invigilator at the end of
the exam.
12. Write your Roll No. on the Question Paper too.
13. Any use of unfair means in the test will result in termina-
tion of the candidature.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

1
 SECTION-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE
QUESTIONS 1 TO 30: MATHEMATICS
1. If then x = 9. Simplify
(A) 1 (A)
(B) 14 (B)
(C) Cannot be determine (C)
(D) None (D) None of these

2. The value of (1001)2 - (1000)2 10. Simplify

(A) 1 (A)
(B) 101 (B)
(C) 2001 (C)
(D) None of these (D)

3. If then n = 11. If all the sides of a cuboid increase by 20% then

(A) 4 by what percentage does its volume increase
(B) 7 (A) 20%
(C) 16 (B) 44%
(D) 28 (C) 60%
(D) 72.8
4. The cube of a number is 8 times the cube of
another number. If the sum of the cubes of 12. A and B together have Rs. 1210. If of A's amount
numbers is 243 the difference of the numbers is. is equal to of B's amount, how much amount
(A) 3 does B have?
(B) 4 (A) Rs. 460
(C) 6 (B) Rs. 484
(D) None (C) Rs. 550
(D) Rs. 664
5. In a fraction, if numerator is increased by 40%
and denominator is increased by 80%, then what 13. In selling an article for Rs. 76, there is a gain of
fraction of the original is the new fraction? 52%. the gain by selling that for Rs. 74 is :
(A) (A) 50%
(B) (B) 48%
(C) (C) 46%
(D) Date inadequate (D) 44%

6. Three numbers are in ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The sum of 14. The correct relationship is
their cubes is 33957 then greatest number is (A) M.P. = S.P. - discount
(A) 14 (B) S.P. = M.P. - discount
(B) 21 (C) M.P. + S.P. = discount
(C) 28 (D) None of these
(D) 35
15. In case of compound interest the principal
7. If x/y = 6/5 then is (A) Increases every year
(A) 36/25 (B) Decreases every year
(B) 25/36 (C) Remains constant throughout the loan period
(C) 61/11  ' ,QFUHDVHVIRU¿UVW\HDUDQGWKHQGHFUHDVHV
(D) 11/61

8. (A) 9/2 (B) 2/9

(C) 8/27 (D) 27/8

3
16. A sum of money at compound interest yields Rs 24. The angles of a Quadrilateral are in the ratio
 DQG5VDWWKHHQGRI¿UVWDQGVHFRQG\HDU 1: 2: 3: 4, the angles are
respectively. The rate % is (A) 36, 72, 108, 144
(A) 20 (B)15 (B) 15, 130, 45, 150
(C) 10 (D) 6 (C) 45, 110, 55, 150
(D) None of these
$SRVLWLYHYDOXHRI[ZKLFKVDWLV¿HVWKHHTXDWLRQLV
(A) x = 4 7KH¿JXUHIRUPHGE\MRLQLQJWKHPLGSRLQWVRIWKH
(B) x = 9  DGMDFHQWVLGHVRIDVTXDUHLVD
(C) x = 5 (A) rhombus
(D) x = 3 (B) square
(C) rectangle
18. One number is 3 times another number. If 15 is (D) parallelogram
added to both the numbers, then one of the new
numbers becomes twice that of the other new $¿HOGLQWKHVKDSHRIDUKRPEXVKDVWKHGLVWDQFHV
number. The numbers are: between pairs of opposite vertices as 14 m and
(A) 15, 45 48 m. What is the cost of fencing the field at
(B) 12, 36 Rs.20 per metre:
(C) 13, 39 (A) Rs. 1800
(D) 14, 42 (B) Rs. 1900
(C) Rs. 2000
19. If then (D) None
(A)
(B) 9 27. Two cylinders of same volume have their heights
(C)  LQWKHUDWLR¿QGWKHUDWLRRIWKHLUUDGLL
(D) None of these (A) : 1
(B) : 1
20. The value of (x + 2y + 2z)2 + (x - 2y - 2z)2 is: (C) : 2
(A) 2x2 + 8Y2 + 8z2 (D) : 2
(B) 2x2 + 8y2 + 8z2 + 8xyz
(C) 2x2 + 8y2 + 8z2 - 8yz 28. A tetrahedron is also called
(D) 2x2 + 8y2 + 8z2 + 16yz (A) triangular pyramid
(B) triangular prism
21. The age of father is 3 times the age of the son. If (C) square pyramid
sum of their ages is 48 years, then the age of father (D) rectangular pyramid
and son are (in years) :
(A) Father = 35, Son = 12 29. At origin, the x-coordinate & y-coordinate
(B) Father = 45, Son = 15 respectively are -
(C) Father = 39, Son = 13 (A) 1,1
(D) Father = 42, Son = 14 (B) 0,0
(C) 1,0
22. The degree of the polynomial is (D) 0,1
(A) 3
(B) 2 30. A number from 1 to 11 is chosen at random. What
(C) 4 is the probability of choosing an odd number?
(D) does not exist (A)
(B)
23. If we divide x5 + x3 + 2x + 1 by x3 + x + 1, then (C)
degree of remainder will be (D) None of the above
(A) 3
(B) greater than 3
(C) less than 3
(D) None

4
 QUESTIONS 31 TO 60: SCIENCE
31. How many dynes are equal to 1 N ? 40. The process by which a chemical change
(A) 106 (B) 104 takes place in a substance when electric current is
(C) 10 5 (D) 103 passed through it is called :
(A) electrolysis
32. Pressure is also measured in : (B) electroplating
(A)MRXOH  (C) electrodes
(B) mm of Hg (D) thermionic conduction
(C) mm of Ag
(D) metre 41. Electric bell works on the principle of :
(A) chemical effect of current
33. A vacuum cleaner works on the principle of: (B) magnetic effect of current
(A) Electro Magnetic Induction (C) heating effect of current
(B) Suction (D) all of the above
(C) Mutual Induction
(D) Energy conservation 42. The correct relation between speed of light (C)
and speed of sound (VS) is:
34. Atmospheric pressure is measured by: (A) C < Vs
(A) Barometer (B) C > Vs
(B) Manometer (C) C >> Vs
(C) Screw gauge (D) C = Vs
(D) none of these
43. The branch of science concerned with earthquakes
35. Ball bearing are used to : and related phenomena is called:
(A) decrease friction (A) Electrostatics
(B) decrease surface area (B) Optics
(C) increase friction (C) Seismology
(D) increase surface area (D) Geology

44. Earthquakes are generally followed by :

36. The shining appearance of metals is called as : (A) rain
(A) malleability (B) after shocks
(B) lustre (C) thunder
(C) ductility (D) lightning
(D) conductivity
45. When a part of the incident light is returned back
7KHSDUWRIWKHHDUWKDWLV¿OOHGZLWKDOLTXLGLVWKH into the same medium, it is called :
(A) cochlea (B) ear canal (A) Refraction
(C) anril (D) hammer (B) 5HÀHFWLRQ 
(C) Both (A) & (B)
38. Sound of frequencies below 20 Hz are called: (D) Absorption
(A) Infrasonics
(B) Ultrasonics 46. Stars are mainly made up of:
(C) Supersonics (A) oxygen and hydrogen
(D) None of the above (B) oxygen and nitrogen
(C) hydrogen and helium
39. Silicon is a : (D) water and helium
(A) Conductor
(B) Insulator 47. Example of natural satellite is:
(C) Semi-conductor (A) Venus
(D) Super-conductor (B) Comet
(C) Moon
(D) Sputnik- I
5
48. Lunar eclipse occurs when the: fuel is completely burnt.
(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon (D)7KHDPRXQWRIKHDWSURGXFHGLQNLORMRXOHV
(B) Moon comes between the earth and the sun when 1g of a fuel is completely burnt.
(C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon
(D) Earth and the moon collide with each other 55. Nucleus is concerned with
(A) respiration
:KLFKRIWKHIROORZLQJ¿EUHVLVDOVRNQRZQDV (B) secretion
 DUWL¿FLDOVLON" (C) control of cellular activities
(A) Nylon (B) Rayon (D) protein synthesis
(C) Polyester (D) Spandex
56. Energy currency of the cell is
50. Which out of the following is used for making (A) ATP (B) GTP
disposable cups? (C) CTP (D) All of the above
(A) LDPE (B) PS
(C) PP (D) PVC 57. The term virus was coined by
(A) Ivanowski
51. Which among the following is the poorest (B)%HLMHULQLFLN 
conductor of heat? (C) Pasteur
(A) Silver (B) Gold (D)/RHIÀHUDQGIURVFK
(C) Copper (D) Lead
58. Fungi used as food is
52. The metal which cannot be stored in packets is : (A) Mushroom (B) Agaricus
(A) sodium (B) calcium (C) Morchella (D) All of the above
(C) magnesium (D) zinc
59. The process of applying fertilizers through drip
53. Which non-metal is used in vulcanisation of rubber ? irrigation is called as
(A) Phosphorus (A) strip farming
(B) Sulphur (B) fertigation
(C) Hydrogen (C) fumigation
(D) Silicon (D) none of these

&DORUL¿FYDOXHRIDIXHOPD\EHGH¿QHGDV 60. Honey bee culture is called as

(A) The amount of heat produced when 1 kg of a (A) pisciculture
fuel is completely burnt. (B) apiculture
(B) The amount of heat produced when 1 g of fuel (C) sericulture
is completely burnt. (D) horticulture
(C) The amount of heat produced when 10 g of a

QUESTIONS 61 TO 80: LOGICAL REASONING

61. 67, 62, 57, ? , 47 64. If PAINTER is written in a code language as
(A) 51 NCGPRGP, then REASON would be written as :
(B) 62 (A) PCYQMN (B) PGYQMN
(C) 50 (C) PGYUMP (D) PGYUPM
(D) 53
Directions : (65 to 66) Arrange the given words in
62. 2, 5, 10, 17, ? DOSKDEHWLFDORUGHUDQGWLFNWKHRQHWKDWFRPHV¿UVW
(A) 24 (B) 25
(C) 26 (D) 27 65. (A) Grammar (B) Granary
(C) Gradient (D) Grand
63. If POLITICS is coded as OPILITSC, then
ARTICLES will be coded as: 66. (A) Mahender
(A) RAITLCES (B) RAITLCSE (B) Mahendra
(C) NNUHPM (D) NNVHPN (C) Maninder
(D) Mahindra
6
67. Who among P, Q R, S and T is in the middle while HIMNQR"
standing in a line ? (A) dc
I. Q is to the right of T (B) gi
II. S is between P and T (C) ml
II I. Q is between T and R (D) tu
(A) P
(B) Q 74. FG : LM :: ? : ?
(C) R (A) NO: TU
(D) T (B) HI : RS
(C) GH : KL
68. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be (D) DE : BA
photographed. Shikha is to the left of Reena.
 0DQMXLVWRWKHULJKWRI5HHQD5LWDLVEHWZHHQ Directions: (75 to 76) In each of the following
 5HHQDDQG0DQMX:KRZRXOGEHWKHVHFRQGIURP TXHVWLRQV¿YHZRUGVDUHJLYHQRXWRIZKLFKIRXUDUH
the left in the photograph ? VDPHLQRQHZD\DQGWKH¿IWKRQHLVGLIIHUHQWIURP
(A) Reena others. Select the odd one.
(B) Shikha
(C)0DQMX  75. (A) Sun
(D) Rita (B) Moon
(C)Venus
69. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, (D) Mars
Archana said, "He is the son of the only son of my
grandmother". Now is man related to Archana ? 76. (A) Green
(A) Cousin (B) Violet
(B)Nephew (C) Brown
(C) Brother (D) Yellow
(D) Son
Directions: (77 to 78) In the following questions, three
70. Pointing towards a woman in the photograph, out of the four alternatives are same in a certain way
 5DMHVKVDLGWKHRQO\GDXJKWHURIKHUJUDQGIDWKHU and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not
 3DWHUQDO LVP\ZLIH+RZLV5DMHVKUHODWHGWR belong to the group.
that woman
(A) Uncle 77. (A) Gold
(B) Father (B) Silver
(C) Maternal uncle (C) Bronze
(D) Brother (D) Iron

71. Mohan travels 7 km Eastwards, then he turns right 78. (A) Rickshaw
and travels 3 km and further turns right again and (B) Taxi
travels 11 km. How far is he from the starting (C) Tonga
point ? (D) Cart
(A) 5
(B) 14 79. Find the day of the week on 26 January, 1950.
(C) 21 (A) Tuesday
(D) 23 (B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
72. Amar travels one km due East , then 5 km due (D) Thursday
 VRXWKWKHQNPGXH(DVWDQG¿QDOO\NPGXH
North. How far is from the starting point ? 80. Which two months in a year have the same calendar ?
(A) 16 kms. (A) June, October
(B) 8 kms. (B)April, November
(C) 6 kms. (C) April, July
(D) 5 kms. (D) October, December

7
 QUESTIONS 81 TO 100: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
81. Which day is celebrated as National Legal 89. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of
Services Day (NLSD) in India? UN has declared the year 2016 as the __?
(A) 5 November (A) International Year of Soils
(B) 7 November (B) International Year of Family Farming
(C) 9 November (C) International Year of Quinoa
(D) 11 November (D) International Year of Pulses

82. Which among the following countries will host the 90. In which among the following sectors, 100% FDI
World Humanitarian Summit in 2016? is allowed under automatic route in India?
(A) France (B) Russia (A) Duty Free Shops
(C) Germany (D)Turkey (B) Defence
(C) Banking
83. First Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav was held in (D) Broadcasting
which city?
(A) Kolkata 91. Which country hosted the International Summit on
(B) New Delhi Migration between EU and African leaders ?
(C) Chennai (A) Egypt (B) Greece
(D) Ahmedabad (C) Malta (D) Italy

84. Which of the following holds the sobriquet “City 92. What is the aim of recently launched initiative
of Letters”?  FDOOHGµ3URMHFW$60$1¶LQ,QGLD"
(A) Kottayam (B) Madurai (A) To reduce Infant Mortality rate
(C) Mysuru (D) Patna (B) To increase literacy rate
(C) To provide internet connectivity in rural areas
85. Which day is celebrated as World Science Day for (D) To increase Indian Exports in Service sector
Peace and Development 2015?
(A) 6th November 7KH¿UVW,QWHUQDWLRQDO&RQIHUHQFHRQ*HQGHU
(B) 8th November Equality (ICGE) was held in which among the
(C) 10th November following countries?
(D) 12th November (A) India (B) France
(C) Australia (D) Sri Lanka
86. Which among the following organisations
published the report titled – ‘World Energy 94. Who among the following Indians are listed in an
Outlook 2015’? inaugural ‘Global Diversity List’?
(A) World Bank (A) Anna Hazare and MedhaPatkar
(B) International Energy Agency (IEA) (B) Bindeshwar Pathak and Purnima Mehta
(C) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) (C) Aruna Roy and Anna Hazare
(D) International Renewable Energy Agency (D) Bindeshwar Pathak and Aruna Roy
(IRENA)
95. Who is the winner of the 2015 International
87. What percent of FDI is allowed in Coffee Children’s Peace Prize?
plantation in India? (A)2P3UDNDVK*XUMDU
(A) 49% (B) 51% (B) Abraham M Keita
(C) 70% (D) 100% (C) MalalaYousafzai
(D) Neha Gupta
88. As per Census 2011, which state has lowest
female literacy rate in India? :KRLVWKH¿UVWFULFNHWHUWRFRPSOHWHUXQV
(A) Bihar  LQ5DQML7URS\"
(B)5DMDVWKDQ (A) Hrishikesh Kanitkar
(C) Assam (B) Mithun Manhas
(D) Madhya Pradesh (C) WasimJ affer
(D) Amol Muzumdar
8
97. Basaveshwara – whose statue was unveiled 99. Ashok Lahiri committee was formed to sort out
by Indian Prime Minister in London – was a which among the following issues?
famous poet in which language? (A) Safety of Railway passengers
(A) Tamil (B) Cleaning of Ganga River
(B) Malayalam (C) Intellectual property rights
(C) Sanskrit (D) Taxation problem being faced by the trade and
(D) Kannada industry

98. ‘Exercise Livewire,’ was conducted by which 100. Comac C919 aircraft is developed by which
among the following security forces in India? among the following countries?
(A) Indian Army (A) China
(B) Indian Navy (B) Japan
(C) Indian Air Force (C) France
(D) Border Security Force (D) Australia

ROUGH WORK

9
ROUGH WORK

10
 DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

Roll No.: Maximum Marks: 180

Maximum Time: 90 (+30) minutes

8
CLASS

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

General Instructions for Candidates
1. Read all instructions carefully. This Question Paper comprises of two sections:
Section I: Multiple Intelligence Test (40 questions) [20 minutes]
Section II: Scholastic Aptitude Test (60 questions) [90 minutes]
2. Write Your Roll Number on the box provided above and in OMR Sheet.
3. 10 Min will be provided to fill the OMR Sheet before the start of Exam.
4. Students must fill all the personal details carefully in the OMR Sheet
5. Read all the instruction on OMR sheet as well before start of exam.
Instructions for Section I
1. Students will be allocated maximum of 20 min to complete this section.
2. Questions in Section I do not carry any marks.
3. Answering all questions in Section I is compulsory.
4. You need to answer all the question in this section, truthfully based on
your preference. fake responses will lead to misinterpretation of your
intelligence type.
5. Multiple Intelligence Report shall be provided on the basis of Section I.
Instructions for Section II
1. Students will be allocated maximum of 90 min to complete this section.
2. Question in Section II carry 3 Marks Each.
3. Answering all questions is not compulsory in Section II.
4. For each correct answer student will be awarded 3 marks and for each
incorrect answers, 1 mark would be deducted.
5. For unanswered questions, no mark would be awarded or deducted.
6. Rank will be provided on the basis of Section II.
7. Use of calculator, mobile phones or log tables is not permitted.
8. There is only ONE correct answer. Choose only ONE option for an answer.
9. Fill the required details clearly on Answer (OMR) Sheet & do not overwrite.
10. Rough work should be done in the blank space provided on the last page.
11. Return both Answer & Question sheet to the invigilator at the end of the exam.
12. Any use of unfair means in the test will result in termination of the candidate.
Instructions for filling OMR Sheet
1. Fill the OMR sheet using HB Pencil only.
2. To mark your choice of answers, Darken the circles completely in the
Answer (OMR) Sheet corresponding to the question you are answering.
3. Darken only one circle, and keep rest of the sheet clean.
4. In case if wrong circle is darkened, completely erase the markings.
5. Ensure all personal details are filled in OMR Sheet before starting the
exam.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

1
 SECTION-I Que.- 40
MULTIPLE INTELLIGENCE TEST

SECTION-II Que.- 100

APTITUDE TEST

4MATHEMATICS 4SCIENCE
4LOGICAL REASONING 4GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

MULTIPLE INTELLIGENCE TEST

Directions : (1 to 35) These are general statements. try it.
You have to mark options A, B, C or D in the 22. I often see clear images when I close my eyes.
OMR sheet as per your preference. 23. I don’t use my fingers when I count.
A = Mostly Disagree 24. At school I loved / love music lessons.
B = Slightly Disagree 25. I find ball games easy and enjoyable.
C = Slightly Agree 26. My favourite subject at school is / was Maths.
D = Mostly Agree 27. I always know how I am feeling.
28. I keep a diary.
1. I can play a musical instrument. 29. My favourite subject at school was / is Art/
2. I often have a song or piece of music in my head. Drawing.
3. I find it easy to make up stories. 30. I find pleasure in reading.
4. I have always been very coordinated. 31. It upsets me to see someone cry and not be able to
5. Music is very important to me. help.
6. When I tell a lie it’s very convincing. 32. I prefer team sports.
7. I play a sport or dance. 33. Singing makes me feel happy.
8. I am a very social person and like being with other 34. I am happy spending time alone.
people. 35. My friends always come to me for emotional
9. I find graphs and charts easy to understand. support and advice.
10. I find it easy to remember quotes or phrases.
11. I can always recognize places that I have been Directions : (36 to 40) These are general statements.
before, even when I was very young. You have to mark options A, B, C or D in the
12. When I am concentrating I tend to draw pictures. OMR sheet as per your preference.
13. I find mental arithmetic easy. A = Very Frequently
14. At school one of my favourite subjects is / was B = Occasionally
English. C = Rarely
15. I like to think through a problem carefully, D = Very Rarely
considering all the consequences.
16. I love physical sports and scary rides. 36. I use computer.
17. I enjoy individual sports best. 37. I use internet for studies.
18. I find it easy to remember telephone numbers. 38. I play games on computer.
19. I set myself goals and plans for the future. 39. I watch movies on computer.
20. I can tell easily whether someone likes me or 40. I wish to use computers for overall knowledge
dislikes me. enhancement.
21. To learn something new, I need to just get on and
2
 SECTION-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE
QUESTIONS 1 TO 20: MATHEMATICS
1. What should be subtracted from -⅔ to get -1 8. The Pythagorean triples whose smallest number is 8:
(A) 1/3 (A) 8, 16, 17
(B) -1/3 (B) 8, 17, 18
(C) 2/3 (C) 8, 15, 17
(D) -2/3 (D) 8, 15, 16

2. The difference between two whole numbers is 66. 9. If 50% of students are good at science out of 20
The ratio of the two numbers is 2: 5. The two numbers students. Then the number of students good at science is:
are: (A) 10
(A) 60 and 6 (B) 15
(B) 100 and 33 (C) 11
(C) 110 and 44 (D) 5
(D) 99 and 33
10. The price of a motorcycle was Rs. 34,000 last year. It
3. Which of the following is not a linear equation in has increased by 20% this year. The price of motorcycle
one variable? now is:
(A) 33z+5 = 0 (A) Rs. 36,000
(B) 33(x+y) = 0 (B) Rs. 38,000
(C) 33x+5 = 0 (C) Rs. 40,000
(D) 33y+5 = 0 (D) Rs. 32,000

4. The angles of a quadrilateral are in ratio 1:2:3:4. 11. The square of which of the following number will
Which angle has the largest measure? be an even number?
(A) 120° (A) 31
(B) 144° (B) 69
(C) 98° (C) 67
(D) 36° (D) 38

5. If a quadrilateral constructed has two distinct 12. The ratio 4 : 25 converted to percentage is:
consecutive sides equal in length, then it is a: (A) 8 %
(A) Rhombus (B) 4 %
(B) Kite (C) 16 %
(C) Parallelogram (D) 25 %
(D) Rectangle
13. The area of a trapezium is 480 cm2, the distance
6. If n is the number of sides, then the number of between two parallel sides is 15 cm and one of the
diagonals of a polygon is: parallel side is 20 cm. The other parallel side is:
(A) n/2 (A) 20 cm (B) 34 cm
(B) n/3 (C) 44 cm (D) 50 cm
(C) n(n-3)/2
(D) n(n-3)/3 14. The scale of a map is given as 1:300. Two cities are
4 km apart on the map. The actual distance between
7. The difference between the upper-class limit and lower them is:
class limit of a class interval is called: (A) 1000 km.
(A) Frequency (B) 1100 km.
(B) Width (C) 1200 km.
(C) Grouped data (D) 1300 km.
(D) Ungrouped data

3
15. 6 pipes are required to fill a tank in 1 hour 20 minutes. 17. Which team has the highest score?
If we use 5 such types of pipes, how much time it (A) Team 1
will take to fill the tank? (B) Team 2
(A) 120 minutes (C) Team 3
(B) 96 minutes (D) Team 4
(C) 80 minutes
(D) 85 minutes 18. Which team has the lowest score?
(A) Team 1
16. On factorising 14pq + 35pqr, we get: (B) Team 2
(A) pq(14+35r) (C) Team 3
(B) p(14q+35qr) (D) Team 4
(C) q(14p+35pr)
(D) 7pq(2+5r) 19. What is the average score of all the teams?
Direction : Observe the diagram, given below and find (A) 22 %
the correct answer to the following MCQs. (B) 25 %
(C) 27 %
(D) 29 %

20. Which team has the second-highest score?

(A) Team 1
(B) Team 2
(C) Team 3
(D) Team 4

QUESTIONS 21 TO 40: SCIENCE

21. The process of loosening and turning of the soil is 25. If the force applied on the object is in the opposite to
called ____? the direction of motion, the speed of the object _____ ?
(A) Irrigation (A) Increase
(B) Tilling (B) decrease
(C) Harvesting (C) remain same
(D) Erosion (D) Neutral

22. The unwanted and uncultivated plants are called 26. The number of oscillations per second is called
____ ? ______ of oscillation ?
(A) Crop (A) Frequency
(B) Weed (B) Amplitude
(C) Grass (C) Ductility
(D) None of these (D) Conductivity

23. _____ is used as a fuel in heavy motor vehicles ? 27. The stage of embryo in which all the body parts can
(A) Diesel be identified is called :
(B) Petrol (A) Baby
(C) CNG (B) Foetus
(D) Energy (C) Baby embryo
(D) None of these
24. A chemical process in which a substance reacts with
oxygen to give off heat is called ____ ? 28. The chemical substance which are secreted from
(A) Rapid combustion endocrine glands are called:
(B) Combustion (A) Puberty
(C) Spontaneous combustion (B) Hormones
(D) none of these (C) Estrogen
(D) Adolescence
4
29. Adam’s apple is prominent in: 35. Acid rain mainly contains :
(A) Boys of any age (A) Sodium chloride
(B) Adolescent girls (B) Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
(C) Girls of any age (C) Hydrochloric acid
(D) Adolescent boys (D) Carbon tetra chloride

30. Loudness of sound is determined by :

36. Van mahotsav is:
(A) Pitch
(A) Planting trees in January
(B) Frequency
(B) Cutting trees in January
(C) Amplitude
(D) Time period (C) Planting trees in July
(D) Planting trees in June
31. Above _______db the sound becomes physically
painful : 37. Cellulose is made up of large number of______
(A) 60 units:
(B) 40 (A) Glucose
(C) 120 (B) Fructose
(D) 80 (C) Protein
(D) None of these
32. It is a convention to call the charge acquired by a
glass rod when it is rubbed with silk as __________: 38. PET is form of:
(A) Negative (A) Steel
(B) Positive (B) Glass
(C) Neutral (C) Polyester
(D) Can be any one (D) Nylon

33. When we stand in front of our dressing table,our 39. Malaria is spread by:
left hand seems to be right and right seems to be (A) Female Plasmodium
left. This is called: (B) Female anapheles mosquito
(A) Left right confusion (C) Male anapheles mosquito
(B) Lateral inversion (D) Male Plasmodium
(C) Up-side down phenonmenon
(D) Mirage
40. Electroplating is based on:
(A) Heating effect of electricity
34. In our eye _______ cells can sense colour :
(B) Chemical effect of electricity
(A) Rod (B) Cone
(C) Both rod and cone (D) Neither rod and (C) Physical effect of electricity
cone (D) Magnetic effect of electricity

5
 QUESTIONS 41 TO 50: LOGICAL REASONING
41. Which number will replace the question mark in the 46. If 'lead' is called 'stick', 'stick' is called 'nib', 'nib' is
following? called 'needle' 'needle' is called 'rope' and 'rope' is called
3 15 4 'thread', what will be fitted in a pen to write with it?
7 38 5 (A) stick
3 ? 5 (B) lead
(C) needle
(A) 15
(B) 19 (D) nib
(C) 20
(D) 18 47. Two positions of a block are given. When 1 is at
the top, which number will be at the bottom?
42. There is a certain relationship between the (A) 3
numbers on the either side of : :. Select a number (B) 6
from the options which will replace the ?. (C) 2
3 : 15 : : 7 : ? (D) 1
(A) 35
(B) 61 48. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, "This
(C) 36
man's son's sister is my mother-in-law". How is
(D) 64
the woman's husband related to the man in the
photograph?
43. If '-' stands for 'division', '+' stands for 'multiplication',
′ ÷ ′ stands for 'subtraction' and ′ × ′ stands for 'addition', (A) Grandson
which one of the following equations is CORRECT? (B) Son
(A) 6+20−12−7−1 =38 (C) Son-in-Law
(B) 6−3÷12×7+1=57 (D) Nephew
(C) 6+20−12÷7×1=62
(D) 6÷20×12+7−1=70 49. Find the missing one: ED : HG :: RQ : ?
(A) UM
44. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE (B) VM
is written as 785291, how is GREECE coded? (C) UQ
(A) 381171 (B) 381191
(D) UP
(C) 832252 (D) 835545
50. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y
45. Ritu and Priti starts from a fixed point. Ritu
moves 5 km westward and turns left and then covers and Z. P and R are married couple.Q is the son of
6 km. Priti moves 7 km northward, turns left and R but R is not the mother of Q. Y is the brother of
walks 5 km. The distance between Ritu and Priti R. X is the daughter of P. Z is the brother of P. How
now is _____. many female members are there in the family?
(A) 10 km. (A) One
(B) 13 km. (B)Two
(C) 8 km. (C) Three
(D) 6 km. (D) Four

6
 QUESTIONS 51 TO 60: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
51. Name the first female amputee to climb Mount 56. Which country is called the ‘Coffee Bowl of the
Everest? World’?
(A) Arunima Sinha (A) Serbia (B) Mexico
(B) Poorna Malavath (C) India (D) Brazil
(C) Anshu Jamsenpa
(D) Premlata Agarwal 57. What is the total number of medals that India won at
the Asian Para Games 2023 in Hangzhou, China?
52. Who was India’s first Chief of Defence Staff ? (A) 82 (B) 111
(A) General Bipin Rawat (C) 303 (D) 15
(B) General Arjan Singh
(C) General Vijay Kumar Singh 58. Which nations have been newly incorporated into
(D) General Manoj Mukund Naravane the BRICS alliance??
(A) Canada, Australia, Japan, Mexico, France
53. Google was founded in 1998 by Larry Page and (B) Argentina, Iran, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Ethiopia
(C) United Kingdom, Germany, Italy, Spain,
_______?
Switzerland
(A) Peter Thiel
(D) South Korea, Turkey, Indonesia, Malaysia,
(B) Steve Wozniak
Vietnam
(C) Sergey Brin
(D) Elon Musk
59. Where was India’s first 3D concrete Printed Post
54. When is National Science Day observed in India
Office building inaugurated?
every year? (A) New Delhi
(A) 15th March (B) Mumbai
(B) 2nd January (C) Bengaluru
(C) 5th May (D) Chennai
(D) 28th February
60. Which national park is known as the natural habitat
55. What is the full form of MOU? of Asiatic lions?
(A) Monetary of Union Territory (A) Jim Corbett National Park
(B) Memorandum of Understanding (B) Kaziranga National Park
(C) Memory of Undertaking (C) Gir National Park
(D) Memory of Understanding (D) Bandipur National Park

7
ROUGH WORK